chapter 10-11
All of the following are among the classic risk response strategies EXCEPT: a. share a threat b. transfer a threat c. enhance an opportunity d. avoid a threat
A
All of the following criteria can be used to categorize project risks EXCEPT: a. whether the risk is a known known b. the project objective that may be impacted by the risk c. whether the risk is internal or external to the performing organization d. the project life cycle phase
A
Fact-based management includes four key ideas. Which of the following is among the key ideas associated with fact-based management? a. the need to understand variation b. reliance on historical research c. routine use of interrogations d. use of analogous estimating
A
The project manager is responsible for selecting appropriate quality standards for the project. Typically, these standards apply to all of the following EXCEPT: a. team selection criteria b. documentation created during the project c. deliverables created by the project d. materials and related inputs used by the project
A
Which of the following accurately describes risk in project management? a. A risk may impact the project in a positive or negative way. b. Some projects have no risks. c. Risk assessment should remain objective and uninfluenced by stakeholder priorities. d. Project managers should always be risk averse
A
Which of the following describes the activities appropriately performed by the project team during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis? a. Team members assess the probability of occurrence and severity of impact for identified risks. b. Team members develop contingency plans for all risks to avoid adverse impacts to project objectives. c. Team members identify potential risk events. d. Team members define how to conduct risk management activities for the project.
A
Which of the following serves as a pre-condition that must be met in order for a project kick-off meeting to be successful? a. An atmosphere of trust and relationship building should be set by all. b. Project performance results should be calculated and made available to team members. c. Compensation packages and benefits plans should be shared with all team members. d. The meeting location should always be off-site
A
Which of the following statements is consistent with the ideas that W. Edwards Deming promoted regarding quality management? a. Understanding variation is essential to improving quality. b. Statistical concepts rather than behavioral considerations should govern quality improvement efforts. c. A key to quality improvement is to ensure that each part of the system functions effectively, independent from the others. d. The burden of quality falls on those that do the work
A
Which of the following activities are appropriate upon completion of risk response planning?
All of these
Which of the following describes an appropriate application of risk response management?
All of these
Which of the following items accurately describe an aspect of the life cycle coating?
All of these
A source of variation that is inherent in a system and predictable is typically known as: a. special cause variation. b. common cause variation. c. systemic variation. d. life cycle variation
B
All of the following activities are appropriate upon completion of risk response planning EXCEPT: a. The risk register should be updated to reflect the risk response strategies. b. The risk register should be baselined after planning is completed, and should not be updated once the project is in flight. c. The project plan should be updated to reflect any changes to the project schedule, budget or resource assignments. d. A single person should be assigned as the owner of each risk.
B
All of the following are benefits that can be attributed to the effective use of a risk management plan EXCEPT: a. It enables project managers to eliminate or reduce the impact of some threats. b. It enables the project manager to identify and eliminate all risks c. It facilitates communication with various project stakeholders. d. It enables project managers to capitalize on some opportunities.
B
All of the following describe an appropriate application of Plan Risk Responses in project management EXCEPT: a. Risk response planning should address both opportunities and threats. b. Responses should be created for every identified project risk. c. The expectations of the sponsor and key stakeholders should influence the risk responses that are developed. d. Often multiple strategies are identified for a single risk.
B
All of the following items contribute to developing empowered performance in an organization EXCEPT: a. setting an expectation for managers to encourage associates to treat risk events as learning opportunities b. accepting the fact that the project manager has total decision making authority c. training and equipping workers so that they're willing to take risks d. helping develop specialists who can aid anyone in the organization
B
All of the following methods have proven to be useful techniques to help project teams identify the risks that might impact the project EXCEPT: a. reviewing project documents b. documenting lessons learned c. interviewing stakeholders d. brainstorming among team members and subject matter experts
B
Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to conduct quality planning. All of the following items are consistent with his quality planning guidance EXCEPT: a. identify all customers and their needs b. quality must be inspected into the process c. develop methods to satisfy customer requirements d. develop requirements based on customer needs
B
Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to control quality. Which of the following items is consistent with his quality control guidance? a. identify all team members and their needs b. establish measurement systems c. prove effects d. expend necessary efforts to exceed requirements
B
On agile projects, detailed risk management activities may occur during all of the following times EXCEPT: a. While planning each subsequent iteration. b. During early risk planning at the start of the project. c. In daily stand-up meetings. d. During retrospectives at the end of each iteration.
B
The four core project quality concepts include which of the following? a. assumption-based management b. stakeholder satisfaction c. benchmarking d. earned value management
B
When a project team elects to purchase insurance, or adopts a fixed price contract with a vendor, or hires an expert, it is demonstrating which of the following risk response strategies? a. avoid a threat b. transfer a threat c. mitigate a threat d. assume a threat
B
Which of the following activities illustrates a risk response strategy designed to mitigate a threat? a. adopt a fixed price type contract b. train a team member to cover for a potentially unavailable key resource c. change the project plan or scope d. develop change control procedures
B
Which of the following quality management thought leaders is generally credited with contributing the insight that team learning is necessary to improve quality? a. Ishikawa b. Senge c. Taguchi d. Harrington
B
After completing detailed planning for a project, it is often helpful for the project manager and team to apply a sanity test to the project plan. Which of the following accurately describes the application of a sanity test? a. It is based largely on the expectations of supervisors and sponsors. b. It is primarily focused on the team members. c. It should include questions to ensure budgets, schedules and resource plans are reasonable and achievable. d. It focuses on whether the project charter should be changed
C
All of the following activities illustrate a risk response strategy designed to exploit an opportunity EXCEPT: a. identify trigger condition b. assign more or better resources c. purchase insurance d. give the project more visibility
C
All of the following describe the appropriate application of Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis in project management EXCEPT: a. Large, complex and expensive projects stand to benefit from the additional rigor of quantitative risk analysis techniques. b. Quantitative techniques are used when it is critical to predict the probability of completing a project on time or within budget with confidence. c. Brainstorming techniques are used by the team and other stakeholders to identify as many project risks as possible. d. Decision Tree Analysis and Simulation techniques such as Monte Carlo Analysis are examples of useful quantitative risk analysis techniques.
C
All of the following items are among the key areas covered by the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award EXCEPT: a. Leadership b. Strategic planning c. Team Learning d. Customer focus
C
All of the following statements accurately describe special cause variation EXCEPT: a. It is not inherent in the system b. It comes from external sources c. It is inherent in the system and is predictable d. It can be quite unpredictable
C
Consider the excerpt of the Internet Project risk register presented in Figure 10-1. Which of the following risk events should receive the highest priority for the development of risk responses? a. A - project requires new technology and support structure b. B - web infrastructure lacks sufficient transaction capacity c. C - IS resources are spread too thin d. D - The intranet site suffers a security breach
C
DMAIC is a disciplined process that includes five phases: Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control. DMAIC is most typically associated with which of the following quality improvement approaches? a. Malcolm Baldrige b. Total Quality Management (TQM) c. Six Sigma d. ISO 9001:2008
C
During which DMAIC phase would you find the objectives of identify possible root causes, collect data, and confirm root causes through data analysis? a. Define b. Measure c. Analyze d. Improve
C
Project teams can often identify risks by conducting any of several types of reviews. Which of the following illustrates a valuable type of risk review? a. review the project schedule to determine if certain people are overloaded b. review previous projects to verify that each current assumption is correct c. review the communication plan to determine where poor communications could cause a problem d. review sunk costs to determine project continuance
C
Risk is often considered in terms of impact to project success. Which of the following is NOT a valid measure of project success? a. meeting specifications b. customer related measures such as customer satisfaction c. achieving efficiencies in ongoing operations d. measures related to the firm's objectives including market share or new products
C
The decision process for developing relevant quality standards on a project includes all of the following activities EXCEPT: a. identify all stakeholders b. understand the prioritized stakeholders' requirements c. design work systems d. make tradeoff decisions
C
Which of the following activities are typically included in a project kick-off meeting? a. The project manager evaluates team member performance. b. The project team collects lessons learned for use on future projects. c. The project manager outlines the project goals. d. The project sponsor brings in a facilitator to conduct a brainstorming exercise
C
Which of the following activities illustrates a risk response strategy designed to research a threat or an opportunity? a. establish triggers and update them frequently b. establish time or cost contingencies c. construct a prototype to learn more about a candidate solution d. identify a risk owner to each high priority risk
C
Which of the following describes the appropriate use of a cause-and-effect diagram to support project risk analysis? a. The project team begins by identifying strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. b. Assumptions and constraints are organized in a fishbone pattern. c. Although effects are more visible, it is often easier to alter the effect by changing the underlying cause. d. Team members are encouraged to keep asking "when?" to break down risks into more detailed causes.
C
Which of the following documents describes how the project team will implement the performing organization's quality policy? a. quality benchmarking plan b. quality control plan c. quality management plan d. quality audit plan
C
Which of the following quantitative risk analysis techniques is used to determine which risks have the most powerful impact on the project, with results displayed in the form of a tornado diagram? a. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) b. Expected Monetary Value c. Sensitivity Analysis d. Simulation Techniques such as Monte Carlo Analysis
C
Which quality tool provides a crisp definition of what and how to measure specific performance? a. voice of the customer b. root cause analysis c. quality metrics d. benchmarking
C
All of the following items are valid reasons to conduct a project kick-off meeting EXCEPT: a. to give team members a chance to see how all the parts fit together b. to convince stakeholders that the project leaders will be good stewards of the customer's and organization's assets c. to help involved workers to understand the touch points where work exchanges hands d. to emphasize that all decisions will be made exclusively by the project manager
D
All of the following reasons explain why it is better to design quality into processes than to find problems through inspections EXCEPT: a. The cost of rework can be expensive. b. The time spent on rework aggravates time pressures that already exist on projects. c. Some mistakes are likely to reach the customer. d. The best inspectors should find every variation and defect
D
All of these describe contemporary methods of risk prioritization in project management EXCEPT: a. Risk prioritization is generally based on the probability of occurrence and severity of impact of each identified risk. b. Some organizations place a higher priority on risks that are likely to happen soon. c. Some organizations call attention to the risks that are difficult to detect. d. Results of quantitative risk analysis are used for clarification purposes and are typically not documented in the risk register.
D
Project managers can identify risks by learning and understanding the cause and effect relationships that bear on risk events. All of the following approaches rely upon an understanding of cause and effect relationships to identify risks EXCEPT: a. develop a flow chart that shows how people, materials or data flow from one person or location to another b. conduct a root cause analysis c. understand trigger conditions that indicate a risk is about to occur d. list all risks in a risk register
D
A high level view of processes and stakeholders, that starts with suppliers and ends with customers, is sometimes referred to as a "Plan-Do-Check-Act" (PDCA) model.
F
A risk management plan should define who has responsibility for causing each risk and hold the responsible party directly accountable for developing an appropriate solution.
F
If necessary, the quality policy on a specific project may violate either the quality policies of the parent organization or of a major customer.
F
In agile projects, early risk planning is done at a detail level.
F
Perform Quality Assurance is monitoring specific results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality standards.
F
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability and impact.
F
Plan Risk Responses is the process of developing options to enhance opportunities and reduce threats for every risk that has been identified.
F
Risk response strategies such as mitigation and exploitation apply to both threats and opportunities.
F
The cost per risk for risks discovered early in the project is often more than the cost per risk for risks discovered late because there is more opportunity for the risk to impact several dimensions of the project.
F
The goal of empowered performance is to improve performance results each and every period.
F
The primary output of risk identification is the Risk Identification Matrix (RIM).
F
The process of deciding how to approach, plan and execute risk management activities for a project is known as Project Risk Absorption Methodology (PRAM).
F
W. Edwards Deming asserted that managers need to understand both serial variation and sequential variation and then work to reduce both.
F
When the impact of an event is negative, it is considered a risk; when the impact is positive, the event is considered an opportunity.
F
A risk is anything that may impact the project team's ability to achieve the general project success measures and the specific project stakeholder priorities.
T
Crosby, a well known quality management thought leader, asserts that quality is meeting requirements, not exceeding them.
T
DMAIC is typically used as a method of implementing continuous improvement and can thus be practiced repeatedly.
T
Fact-based management requires an understanding of variation, deciding what to measure, working correctly with data, and using the resulting information appropriately.
T
In some cases, project teams will elect to reduce a threat to a level that a sponsor and other stakeholders deem acceptable, rather than eliminate it completely.
T
It is impossible to remove all sources of risk on a project.
T
Joseph Juran is credited for developing the Quality Trilogy that includes quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement.
T
On many small, simple projects the quality planning is performed concurrently with other planning and the quality plan is seamlessly incorporated into the project plan.
T
Once risks have been identified and analyzed, the project team decides how they will handle each risk.
T
Perform Quality Assurance is the process of auditing the quality requirements, and the results from quality control measurements to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used.
T
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
T
Project quality is defined as the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.
T
Project stakeholders will judge the quality of project work processes as well as project deliverables.
T
Risk response strategies such as acceptance and conducting further research apply to both threats and opportunities.
T
Risk response strategy decisions should reflect a thorough understanding of the priorities that key stakeholders have for cost, schedule, scope, and quality.
T
Six Sigma is a quality improvement approach that is particularly suited for many service processes that people had previously said were too difficult if not impossible to measure.
T
Sometimes the risks posed by a project are so great that an appropriate risk response is to not perform the project at all.
T
Stakeholder satisfaction requires an understanding of the ultimate quality goals with respect to stakeholders.
T
The International Organization for Standardization developed a quality management standard that relies upon several quality management areas including management, resources and realization.
T
The formality of a kick-off meeting can vary considerably depending on the size and type of project.
T
The outputs of Control Quality may include recommended preventive actions designed to ensure the future performance of project work is aligned with the project management plan.
T
The primary questions project teams use in qualitative risk analysis are "how likely is this risk to happen?", and "if it does happen, how big will the impact be?"
T
The purpose of process control is to be able to have confidence that outputs are predictable.
T
The quality management plan describes how an organization's quality policies will be implemented.
T
The risk management plan is a component of the project management plan that describes how risk management activities will be structured and performed on a project.
T
The risk register is a living document and new risks can be added as they are discovered.
T
W. Edwards Deming argued that managers must understand cause and effect relationships to predict future behavior.
T
When complete, the risk register presents the results of both qualitative and quantitative risk analysis as well as risk response planning.
T
"Unknown Unknowns" is a term used to describe events which occur
They need to be covered in the project budget with management reserve
