Chapter 18 The Circulatory System:Blood
agglutinate
"clump together"
Hypoxemia (oxygen deficiency in the blood) is commonly triggered by what conditions?
- Blood loss - High altitude - Increase in exercise - Loss of lung tissue in emphysema
Bone marrow, muscles and other tissues use iron for what purposes?
- Bone marrow makes hemoglobin - Muscle makes myoglobin - Nearly all cells use iron to make electron-transport molecules called cytochromes in their mitochondria *just focus on the first two
What are the three categories of plasma proteins? What are their functions?
1) Albumin - maintains blood volume, viscosity and osmolarity 2) Globulins - antibodies of immunity; alpha, beta and gamma 3) Fibrinogen - precursor to fibrin necessary for blood clots
3 causes of anemia
1) inadequate erythropoiesis or hemopoiesis 2) hemorrhagic anemia=bleeding 3) hemolytic anemia= rbc destruction
viscosity
Abnormally high/low _____ leads to heart strain or heart failure
Where blood comes from
Absorption of tissue fluid and modification by liver
How do macrophages process heme?
After iron is removed, the rest of heme is converted into greenish biliverdin, then most of this is further converted to yellow-green bilirubin. Bilirubin is released by macrophages and bound to albumin in blood plasma. Liver removes bilirubin from albumin and secretes it into bile, which become concentrated in the gall bladder.
What happens if a blood transfusion is given to a person who carries antibodies for that blood type?
Agglutination; antibodies attach to RBC surface antigens clumping them together. Agglutinated RBCs block small blood vessels, hemolyze, and release hemoglobin. Hb blocks kidney tubules and causes acute renal failure.
pluripotent stem cell
All formed elements trace their origins to a common type of bone marrow stem cell , the
Identify the components of the circulatory system. heart blood vessels blood The first and second choices are correct. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct ( heart, blood vessels, blood)
RBC disorders
Anemia, polycythemia and sickle cell disease are all ____ _____
antigen-antibody complexes
Antibodies agglutinate foreign antigens into ________ that immobilizes the antigens until certain immune cells can break them down
Surplus iron in the liver is bound to what protein?
Apoferritin, forming an iron-storage complex called ferritin, which releases Fe2+ into circulation when needed
Choose the correct statements that accurately explain impulse conduction to the myocardium Firing of the SA node excites atrial cardiocytes and stimulates the two atria to contract almost simultaneously. In the AV node, the signal slows down to about 0.05 m/sec because the cardiocytes have fewer gap junctions over which the signal can be transmitted. The entire ventricular myocardium depolarizes within 200 msec after the SA node fires, causing the ventricles to contract one after another. Signals travel through the AV bundle and Purkinje fibers at a speed of 4 m/sec, the fastest in the conduction system. The delay at the AV node is essential because it gives the atria time to fill with blood before they begin to contract.
Firing of the SA node excites atrial cardiocytes and stimulates the two atria to contract almost simultaneously. The delay at the AV node is essential because it gives the atria time to fill with blood before they begin to contract. Signals travel through the AV bundle and Purkinje fibers at a speed of 4 m/sec, the fastest in the conduction system. In the AV node, the signal slows down to about 0.05 m/sec because the cardiocytes have fewer gap junctions over which the signal can be transmitted.
Where are plasma proteins formed? What is the significance of this in terms of disease?
Formed by the liver, except globulins, which are formed by plasma cells. Liver disease reduces albumin output, affecting osmolarity causing edema.
How many oxygen molecules can each hemoglobin molecule transport?
Four
What are the two nitrogenous compounds contained in the blood?
Free amino acids and nitrogenous waste (blood urea nitrogen)
plasma cells
Gamma globulins come from _________, which are connective tissue cells that are descended from white blood cells called B lymphocytes
What protein produced by the stomach binds Fe2+ for transportation to the small intestine?
Gastroferritin
_____is synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum Aldosterone Cortisol Testosterone Calcitriol Glucagon
Glucagon
Among the formed elements, there are five kinds of leukocytes divided into two groups. What are the groups and their constituents?
Granulocytes (cytosol contains granules) - Neutrophils - Eosinophils - Basophils Agranulocytes (without granules) - Lymphocytes - Monocytes
How to remember which are granulocytes and which are agranulocytes?
Granulocytes end in -phil (3) Agranulocytes end in -cyte (2)
Which hormone has more target cells in the body than any others Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) Growth hormone (GH) Oxytocin (OT)
Growth hormone
Given that cardiac output equals ____________, you can see that there are only two ways to change it: change the heart rate or change the stroke volume HR X SV HR + SV HR/SV None of the choices are correct.
HR X SV
Hemophilia can lead to masses of clotted blood in the tissue that cause pain and joint immobility. These are called...
Hematomas
globulins
Hemoglobin consists of four protein chains called _____
A clot that breaks free and travels from the veins to the lungs is called...
Pulmonary embolism
Isovolumetric contraction occurs during the _________ of the electrocardiogram. P wave P-Q segment R wave S-T segment T wave
R wave
polycythemia
RBC excess
negative feedback
RBC homeostasis is maintained by a __________loop
All seven formed elements are produced by what tissue?
Red bone marrow
viscosity
Resistance of fluid to flow, resulting from the cohesion of its particles; thickness or stickiness of a fluid
Heart sound ____________ is thought to result from the transition from expansion of the empty ventricles to their sudden filling with blood. S1 S2 S3 S4
S3
What is the difference between blood plasma and serum?
Serum is blood plasma with the fibrinogen removed.
fibrinogen
Serum is essentially identical to plasma except for the absence of the clotting protein _______
Iron enters the stomach as Fe3+ and Fe2+. What converts Fe3+ to Fe2+ so it becomes usable?
Stomach acid
An enzyme used to dissolve clots in coronary vessels
Streptokinase
Indicate which blood type is being described
TYPE AB+: 1) Expresses all of the major antigens 2) The least common U.S. blood type 3) Expresses the D antigen 4) The universal acceptor 5) Expresses the Rh factor 6) Expresses the A agglutinogen Type O-: 1) Expresses all of the major antibodies 2) The most common U.S. blood type 3) The universal donor 4) Expresses the B agglutinin
Rhesus monkey
The Rh blood group is named for the ______ ____
agglutinogens
The erythrocyte antigens that determine transfusion compatibility are called
Viscosity and osmolarity will both increase if the amount of ____________ in the blood increases RBCs proteins water The first and second choices are correct. The second and third choices are correct.
The first and second choices are correct. ( RBC and proteins)
Even a small quantity of hormone can have a strong effect on its target cell because of negative feedback inhibition. an antagonistic effect. up-regulation. enzyme amplification. down-regulation.
enzyme amplification.
eythroblast(normoblast)
erythropoietin(EPO) stimulates the ECFU to transform into an _____,which multiply and synthesize hemoglobin
blood plasma
extracellular matrix of blood is ________
transferrin
fe2+ in small intestine binds to a plasma protein called ______and travels to the bone marrow, liver and other tissues
vascular spasm
first mechanism to try to reduce blood loss
Many hours after a meal, alpha (α) cells in the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans) secrete glucagon, which lowers blood glucose. glucagon, which raises blood glucose. insulin, which lowers blood glucose. insulin, which raises blood glucose. glucocorticoids, which raise blood glucose.
glucagon, which raises blood glucose.
type AB
has no plasma antibody
women
hematocrit value for ___ is about 38%-42% RBCs
males
hematocrit value for ____ is 45%-52% RBCs
dangers of polycythemia
high blood volume, high blood presssure and viscosity, poor circulation, clogged capillaries, strain on heart , embolism , stroke heart failure are all what?
4
how many molecules of oxygen can one hemoglobin carry
Absence of iodine in the diet leads to hypoparathyroidism. hypothyroidism. hypocalcemia. hypoglycemia. hypoxemia.
hypothyroidism.
dangers of anemia
hypoxia, and tissue necrosis low osmolarity low viscosity
negative
if a person lacks Rh agglutinogens on the RBCs the person is Rh______ *lack antigen D
Atrial systole begins immediately before the P wave. immediately after the P wave. during the Q wave. during the S-T segment. immediately after the T wave.
immediately after the P wave.
antibodies
immune gamma globulins secreted by plasma cells
Arterial anastomoses, in which two arteries merge, are found in the fingers, palms, toes, and ears. in the coronary circulation. connecting the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary. connecting the intestines to the liver. None of the choices are correct.
in the coronary circulation.
As the exercise progresses, muscular activity __________ venous return. This increases the _________ on the right ventricle. decreases; preload increases; afterload increases; preload decreases; afterload
increases; preload
iron
key nutritional requirement for erythropoiesis
leukocytes
least abundant formed element
Mitral valve stenosis causes blood to leak back into the ___________ when the ventricles contract. left atrium right atrium aorta pulmonary trunk pulmonary arteries
left atrium
Obstruction of the ___________ will cause a more severe myocardial infarction (MI) than the obstruction of any of the others left marginal vein left coronary artery (LCA) posterior interventricular vein anterior interventricular branch circumflex branch
left coronary artery (LCA)
hypoxemia
low RBC count causes oxygen deficiency in the blood
thrombocytopenia
low platelet count
hemorrhagic anemia
low rbc count due to bleeding
hemolytic anemia
low rbc count from rbc destruction
Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) generates a murmur associated with the _____ heart sound that occurs when the ____. lubb (S1); atria contract dupp (S2); atria relax lubb (S1); ventricles contract dupp (S2); ventricles relax lubb (S1); ventricles relax
lubb (S1); ventricles contract
Cortisol inhibits fat digestion. stimulates protein synthesis. promotes glycogen synthesis. stimulates glucose intake by most organs. promotes breakdown of fat and protein.
promotes breakdown of fat and protein.
In healthy blood vessels, platelets do not adhere because the smooth, endothelium is coated with heparin prostacyclin antithrombin plasminogen fibrin
prostacyclin
During isovolumetric contraction, the pressure in the ventricles falls rapidly. rises rapidly. remains constant. rises and then falls. falls and then rises
rises rapidly.
hemolysis
rupture of RBCs , releases hemoglobin and leaves empty plasma membranes
hemolysis
rupturing of RBCs , releases hemoglobin and leaves empty plasma membrane
lymphocytes
secrete antibodies (B cells) destroy foreign or cancer (T cells) secrete chemicals to enhance the function of other immune cells (help T)
albumin
smallest and most abundant plasma protein; major contributor to blood viscosity and osmolarity 60% of plasma protein
platelets
smallest of formed elements , but 2nd most abundant after RBCs
lymphocytes
smallest wbc
These are all secreted by the pancreas except glucagon. pancreatic polypeptide. gastrin. somatostatin (growth hormone-inhibiting hormone). somatotropin (growth hormone).
somatotropin (growth hormone).
The best estimate of MAP is an arithmetic mean of systolic and diastolic pressures. the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure. the diastolic pressure plus one-third of the pulse pressure. heart rate X stroke volume. None of the choices are correct.
the diastolic pressure plus one-third of the pulse pressure.
The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that stroke volume is proportional to the end-systolic volume. the end-diastolic volume. the afterload. the heart rate. contractility.
the end-diastolic volume.
lymphoblastic leukemia
the most common type of childhood cancer
pleiotropy
the occurance of multiple phenotypic effects from a change in a single gene
This gland has both endocrine and exocrine function. the adrenal gland the salivary gland the ovary the pineal gland the thymus
the ovary
glycopproteins, glycolipids
the plasma membrane of a mature RBC has _______ and ____ on the outer surface that determine a person's blood type
Oxygen-poor blood passes through the right AV (tricuspid) valve and pulmonary valve. the right AV (tricuspid) valve only. the left AV (bicuspid) valve and aortic valve. the left AV (bicuspid) valve only. the pulmonary and aortic valves.
the right AV (tricuspid) valve and pulmonary valve.
During periods of exercise the sympathetic nervous system can selectively reduce blood flow to the kidneys and digestive tract. the sympathetic nervous system can increase perfusion of the skeletal muscles. metabolite accumulation in a tissue can stimulate local vasodilation. the parasympathetic nervous system can selectively reduce blood flow to the kidneys and digestive tract. metabolite accumulation in a tissue can stimulate local vasoconstriction.
the sympathetic nervous system can increase perfusion of the skeletal muscles metabolite accumulation in a tissue can stimulate local vasodilation. the parasympathetic nervous system can selectively reduce blood flow to the kidneys and digestive tract.
What is viscosity? What is the viscosity of blood and blood plasma?
Viscosity is resistance to flow. Whole blood is 4.5 to 5.5 times as viscous as water. Plasma is 2.0 times as viscous.
Viscosity vs. Osmolarity
Viscosity: 1) The resistance of a fluid to flow. 2) It results from the cohesion of a fluid's particles. 3) It is the thickness or stickiness of a fluid. 4) If it is too high, the blood flows too sluggishly. Osmolarity: 1) The rate of reabsorption between the bloodstream and tissue fluid is governed by it. 2) The transfer of fluids depends on a balance between the filtration of fluid from the capillary and its reabsorption. 3) If it is too high, the bloodstream absorbs too much water, raising the blood volume, resulting in elevated blood pressure.
What additional nutrients are required for erythropoiesis, and what are there functions?
Vitamin B12 and folic acid (B9) - required for rapid cell division and DNA synthesis that occurs in erythropoiesis Vitamin C and Copper - cofactors for enzymes synthesizing hemoglobin
leukopenia
WBC count less than 5,000 *causes: poor resistance to infection and cancer
leukocytosis
WBC greater than10,000 wbcs *usually a normal response to infection and other disorders
circulatory system
consists of the heart, blood vessels and blood
pernicious anemia
deficiency of intrinsic factor leading to inadequate vitamin B12 absorpotion *common usually only in strict vegetarians
sickle cell disease
disorder of RBC count, single gene mutation replaces glutamic acid with valine as the 6 amino acid of the beta chain
primary polycythemia
due to cancer of the erythropoietic line of the red bone marrow
Most of the ventricle filling occurs during atrial systole. when the AV valve is closed. during ventricular systole. during atrial diastole. during isovolumetric contraction.
during atrial systole.
The advantage(s) of there being a much lower blood pressure in the pulmonary circuit include hydrostatic pressure overrides oncotic pressure, so pulmonary capillaries are engaged almost entirely in absorption. blood flows more slowly through the pulmonary capillaries and therefore has more time for gas exchange. it prevents fluid accumulation in the alveolar walls and lumens, which would compromise gas exchange. oncotic pressure overrides hydrostatic pressure, so pulmonary capillaries are engaged almost entirely in absorption. blood flows more quickly through the pulmonary capillaries, and therefore it has more time for gas exchange.
- blood flows more slowly through the pulmonary capillaries and therefore has more time for gas exchange -it prevents fluid accumulation in the alveolar walls and lumens, which would compromise gas exchange. -oncotic pressure overrides hydrostatic pressure, so pulmonary capillaries are engaged almost entirely in absorption.
What are the characteristics of neutrophils?
- increased numbers in bacterial infections - phagocytose bacteria - release antimicrobial chemicals - representative in acute inflammation
What are the characteristics of lymphocytes?
- increased numbers in diverse infections and immune responses - destroys cells - antigen-presenting - coordinates immunity - secretes antibodies and provides immune memory
What are the characteristics of eosinophils?
- increased numbers in parasitic infections and allergies - phagocytose antigen-antibody complexes, allergens and anti-inflammatory chemicals - release enzymes to destroy large parasites (worms)
What are the characteristics of monocytes?
- increased numbers in viral infections and inflammation - leave bloodstream and transform int macrophages - phagocytize pathogens and debris - antigen-presenting cells - representative in chronic inflammation
What are the characteristics of basophils?
- most powerful and smallest population of WBCs - secrete histamine (vasodilator) and heparin (anticoagulant)
Which blood type people can receive which blood type transfusions?
-Blood type A person can receive A and O -Blood type B person can receive B and O -Blood type AB can receive A, B, AB and O -Blood type O person can only receive O •Type O is the universal donor •Type AB is the universal recipient
What are the characteristics of the various ABO blood types? Which types are most common and most rare?
-Blood type A person has A antigens and anti-B antibodies -Blood type B person has B antigens and anti-A antibodies -Blood type AB has both A and B antigens and no anti-bodies -Blood type O person has neither antigen and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies •Most common: type O •Rarest: type AB
Muscle perfusion during exercise increases dramatically. Perfusion is increased via arterioles dilating in response to epinephrine and norepinephrine. precapillary sphincters dilating in response to muscle metabolites such as lactic acid, CO2, and adenosine. muscular contraction compressing the blood vessels. precapillary sphincters constricting in response to muscle metabolites such as lactic acid, CO2, and adenosine. blood being diverted from other organs such as the digestive tract and kidneys to meet the needs of the working muscles.
-arterioles dilating in response to epinephrine and norepinephrine. - precapillary sphincters dilating in response to muscle metabolites such as lactic acid, CO2, and adenosine. -muscular contraction compressing the blood vessels. -blood being diverted from other organs such as the digestive tract and kidneys to meet the needs of the working muscles.
platelets
-no nucleus, but many organelles -cell fragments of cytoplasm from a megakaryote -act in multiple ways to reduce or hault bleeding
Place a single word into each sentence to make it correct, then place each sentence into a logical paragraph order.
1) Antibodies BIND to antigens and mark them for destruction. 2) One method of destruction is called AGGLUTINATION in which each antibody binds two or more antigens. 3) After binding, the antigens are STUCK together. 4) Repitition of this process produces antigen antibody COMPLEXES. 5) These complexes IMMOBILIZE the antigens until immune cells can break them down.
Place a single word into each sentence to make it correct, then place each sentence into a logical paragraph order.
1) As an RBC ages and its membrane PROTEINS deteriorate, the membrane becomes fragile. 2) Without a NUCLEUS the RBC cannot synthesize the protein spectrin found in the membrane. 3) Many of these deteriorated RBCs die in the SPLEEN. 4) Additionally, the kidneys can break up an RBC and split the HEMOGLOBIN molecules up to release recyclable portions. 5)
Place a single word into each sentence to make it correct, then place each sentence into a logical paragraph order.
1) Blood types A, B, AB, and O form the ABO blood group. 2) Your ABO blood type is determined by the presence or absence of ANTIGENS on your RBCs. 3) Each antigen will have a different CARBOHYDRATE complex on the surface of the RBC. 4) Additionally, PLASMA will contain antibodies. 5) These antibodies react with FOREIGN RBC antigens.
What are the two principle functions of erythrocytes (RBCs)?
1) Carry oxygen from lungs to cell tissues 2) Pick up carbon dioxide from tissues and bring to lungs
Leukocyte terms/Disorders
1) Chronic leukemia: Develops more slowly and may go undetected for many months 2) Acute leukemia: Appears suddenly, progresses rapidly, and causes death within a few months 3) Leukopenia: A total WBC count below 5K WBCs/ul 4) Leukemia: A cancer of the hemopoietic tissues that usually produces an extraordinarily high number of circulating leukocytes and their precursors 5) Leukocytosis: A total WBC count above 10K WBCs/ul 6) Myeloid leukemia: Marked by uncontrolled granulocyte production 7) Lymphoid leukemia: Involves uncontrolled lymphocyte or monocyte production
What are the seven kinds of formed elements in the blood? * important
1) Erythrocytes - RBCs 2) Platelets - cell fragments involved in clotting 3) Neutrophils 4) Eosinophils 5) Basophils 6) Lymphocytes 7) Monocytes
Place the stages in development of white blood cells in order from first to last.
1) Hemopoietic stem cell 2) Colony-forming units 3) Precursor cells 4) Mature cells
Place a single word into each sentence to make it correct, then place each sentence into a logical paragraph order.
1) Hypoxia is inadequate oxygen TRANSPORT and can be detected by the kidneys and liver. 2) When detected ERYTHROPOIETIN is produced and secreted. 3) The hormone will stimulate the red bone marrow to PRODUCE RBCs. 4) This will result in an increase of OXYGEN transport throughout the body. 5) Thus the correction of hypoxemia is controlled by a NEGATIVE feedback loop.
Causes of anemia fall into what three categories? * likely essay question
1) Inadequate erythropoiesis or hemoglobin synthesis 2) hemorrhagic anemia from bleeding 3) hemolytic anemia from RBC destruction
Which of the following characteristics of a red blood cell increases its ability to carry oxygen to the tissues?
1) Lacking mitochondria, RBCs rely exclusively on anaerobic fermentation to produce ATP. 2) The cytoplasm of an RBC consists mainly of a 33% solution of hemoglobin. 3) RBCs lose nearly all organelles during their development. 4) The cytoplasm also contains an enzyme, carbonic anhydrase. 5) Lacking a nucleus and DNA, RBCs also are incapable of protein synthesis and mitosis. Lacking mitochondria, RBCs rely exclusively on anaerobic fermentation to produce ATP. The lack of aerobic respiration prevents them from consuming the oxygen that they must transport to other tissues. The cytoplasm of an RBC consists mainly of a 33% solution of hemoglobin. It is known especially for its oxygen-transport function. The lack of organelles provide more room for the hemoglobin and oxygen.
Blood is a liquid connective tissue consisting of cells and an extracellular matrix. What are the two divisions of blood?
1) Plasma - matrix; clear, light yellow fluid 2) Formed elements - blood cells and fragments; RBCs, WBCs and platelets
Besides water, what are the five primary components of blood plasma?
1) Plasma proteins 2) Nitrogenous compounds 3) Nutrients 4) Dissolved gases 5) Electrolytes
What is the mechanism of erythroblastosis fetalis?
1) Rh-positive erythrocytes from fetus enter blood of Rh-negative woman during the birth process 2) Anti-Rh antibodies are produced by the woman's immune system and remain in the woman's bloodstream 3) During succeeding pregnancy of another Rh-positive fetus, antibodies pass placental barrier and enter fetal blood causing destruction of fetal erythrocytes * Treatable through testing and antigen-suppressing drugs
Hemostasis
1) There are THREE hemostatic mechanisms. 2) First, VASULAR spasm constricts the broken blood vessel, reducing hemorrhage. 3) In platelet plug formation, a large mass of platelets AGGREGATE and undergo degranulation. 4) Degranulation PROMOTES hemostasis. 5) COAGULATION finishes the process by clotting the blood and protecting the body from excess blood loss.
What are the three potential consequences of anemia?
1) Tissues suffer hypoxia, causing lethargy, shortness of breath, pale skin, necrosis 2) Reduced blood osmolarity resulting in edema 3) Reduced blood viscosity, causing accelerated heart rate, cardiac failure, low BP
What are the three functions of the circulatory system?
1) Transport - oxygen, CO2, nutrients, wastes, hormones and stem cells 2) Protection - inflamation, limit infection, destroy MO and cancer, etc. 3) Regulation - fluid balance, pH, temperature
What are the three steps of hemostasis? * essay question
1) Vascular spasm causes vasoconstriction to reduce bleeding 2) Platelet plug forms as platelets adhere to exposed collagen fibers of vessel wall 3) Blood clot forms as platelets become enmeshed in fibrin threads
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the composition of plasma.
1) Water represents 92% by weight. 2) Albumin is 60% of the total protein portion. 3) The most abundant nitrogenous waste is urea. Plasma is a complex mixture of water, proteins, nutrients, electrolytes, nitrogenous wastes, hormones, and gases. By weight, water represents 92%. Protein is the most abundant plasma solute by weight, totaling 6 to 9 g/dL. Albumin represents 60% of the total protein.
What are the seven functions of platelets?
1) secrete vasoconstrictors 2) stick together to form platelet plugs 3) secrete procoagulants to promote clotting 4) initiate formation of clot-dissolving enzyme 5) release chemotactic mediators to attract neutrophils and monocytes 6) phagocytize bacteria 7) secrete growth factors that stimulate mitosis to repair blood vessels
When separating blood constituents in a centrifuge, what three blood components appear in what proportions?
1) ~45% erythrocytes 2) 1% WBCs and platelets (buffy coat) 3) ~55% plasma
transportation, protection and regulation
3 main functions of blood are
How much blood does an adult body contain? How much of the blood is made up of water?
4 to 6 Litres of blood composed of 60% water
males
4.6-6.2 million/uL= RBC count in _____
Adults produce massive numbers of formed elements. What is the daily production of the three categories of formed elements?
400 billion platelets 200 billion RBCs 10 billion WBCs
agglutination
A method antibody action, one antibody binds to two or more antigen molecules and sticks them together
gastroferritin
A protein called ____ produced by the stomach binds Fe2+ and transports it to the small intestine
Formed Elements
A) Erythrocyte (RBC's): 1) Transportation of respiratory gases B) Lymphocyte: 1) Differentiate into cells that produce antibodies 2) Include B & T cell subpopulations 3) Include memory cell lines 4) Destroy cancerous and virally infected cells C) Neutrophil: 1) Increase in number during bacterial infections D) Basophil: 1) Vasodilatory and anticoagulatory function 2) Vitally important initiators of the inflammatory response E) Eosinophil: 1) Increase in number during parasitic infections F) Monocyte: 1) Involved with immune clearance 2) Differentiate into dendritic cells and tissue macrophages
When the water on one side of the semipermeable membrane contains hemoglobin molecules and the water on the other side does not...
A) the PO2 will eventually equalize after the hemoglobin molecules become saturated with oxygen. A) the PO2 will eventually equalize after the hemoglobin molecules become saturated with oxygen. B) the PO2 will be unable to equalize after the hemoglobin molecules become saturated with oxygen because of the attraction between oxygen and hemoglobin. C) the area on the side of the oxygen-permeable membrane with the hemoglobin maintains a higher PO2. D) the area on the side of the oxygen-permeable membrane without the hemoglobin maintains a higher PO2. E) the PO2 will be unable to equalize after the hemoglobin molecules become saturated with oxygen because of the repulsion between oxygen and saturated hemoglobin.
The sequence in the breakdown of the non-iron portion of the heme is...
B) heme, biliverdin, bilirubin, conjugated bilirubin, bilirubin derivatives, feces and urine. A) heme, bilirubin, biliverdin, conjugated biliverdin, biliverdin derivatives, feces and urine. B) heme, biliverdin, bilirubin, conjugated bilirubin, bilirubin derivatives, feces and urine. C) heme, bilirubin, conjugated biliverdin, biliverdin, biliverdin derivatives, feces and urine. D) heme, biliverdin, conjugated bilirubin, bilirubin, bilirubin derivatives, feces and urine. E) heme, conjugated biliverdin, biliverdin, bilirubin, conjugated bilirubin, feces and urine.
erythrocytes
Biconcave discs with no organelles, DNA or nucleus Incapable of production of protein synthesis and mitosis function is to transport most o2 and co2
fluid distribution, pH balance, thermoregulation
Blood plays a role in regulating what 3 things ?
antigens and antibodies
Blood types are based on interactions between large molecules called _____ and ____
hemoglobin
Bone marrow uses iron to make _____
Where do T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes develop?
Both originate in the bone marrow, but T-cells navigate to and mature in the thymus
In the breakdown of hemoglobin, the globin chains
C) are broken down by macrophages into amino acids. A) are converted into biliverdin by macrophages. B) are converted into bilirubin by macrophages. C) are broken down by macrophages into amino acids. D) are stored in various tissues. E) contribute to the color of feces.
Transfusion Compatibilities
COMPATIBLE: 1) O- given to A+ 2) B- given to AB+ 3) O- given to O+ NOT COMPATIBLE: 1) A+ given to O- 2) AB- given to A+ 3) AB+ given to O- 4) O+ given to AB- 5) AB- given to O+ 6) AB- given to B- 7) B+ given to A+ 8) A+ given to AB-
The long plateau in the action potential observed in cardiocytes is probably related with _____________ staying longer in their cytosol. Na+ K+ Ca2+ Cl- Na+, K+, and Ca2+
Ca2+
Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding the fundamental causes of edema. A deficiency of albumin (hypoproteinemia) produces edema by reducing the reabsorption of tissue fluid. Capillary reabsorption does not depend on oncotic pressure. Obstruction of lymphatic vessels can interfere with fluid drainage and lead to the accumulation of tissue fluid distal to the obstruction. Kidney failure leads to water retention and hypertension, thus raising capillary blood pressure and filtration rate. Since albumin is produced by the liver, liver diseases such as cirrhosis tend to lead to hypoproteinemia and edema.
Capillary reabsorption does not depend on oncotic pressure.
Choose the correct statement(s) associated with the metabolism of cardiac muscle. Its mitochondria fill about 2% of the cell. Cardiac muscle depends almost exclusively on aerobic respiration to make ATP. At rest, the heart gets about 35% of its energy from fatty acids, 60% from glucose, and 5% from other fuels such as ketones, lactic acid, and amino acids. It is very rich in myoglobin (a source of stored oxygen) and glycogen (for stored energy). Cardiac muscle depends almost exclusively on anaerobic respiration.
Cardiac muscle depends almost exclusively on aerobic respiration to make ATP. It is very rich in myoglobin (a source of stored oxygen) and glycogen (for stored energy).
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism that assists venous return? Pressure generated by the heart Gravity The skeletal muscle pump Central venous pressure being greater than pressure in the venules Cardiac suction
Central venous pressure being greater than pressure in the venules
Choose the accurate statements regarding the effects of edema Cerebral edema can produce headaches, nausea, and sometimes delirium, seizures, and coma. As the tissues become congested with fluid, oxygen delivery and waste removal are impaired and the tissues may begin to die. Pulmonary edema presents a threat of suffocation as fluid replaces air in the lungs. As the tissues become congested with fluid, oxygen delivery and waste removal are improved. Even severe edema does not cause blood volume and pressure to drop low enough to cause circulatory shock.
Cerebral edema can produce headaches, nausea, and sometimes delirium, seizures, and coma. As the tissues become congested with fluid, oxygen delivery and waste removal are impaired and the tissues may begin to die. Pulmonary edema presents a threat of suffocation as fluid replaces air in the lungs
After a clot has formed, spinous pseudopods of platelets adhere to fibrin threads and contract, pulling the broken vessel together. This process is called...
Clot retraction
colloid osmotic pressure(COP)
Contribution of protein to blood osmotic pressure is called
In the breakdown of hemoglobin, the iron
D) All of the choices are correct. A) is transported by transferrin to the liver. B) is transported by transferrin to the spleen. C) is transported by transferrin to the red bone marrow. D) All of the choices are correct.
Match the following disorders of the blood with their definition.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation: Widespread clotting within unbroken vessels, limited to one organ or occurring throughout the body. Infectious mononucleolsis: Infection of B lymphocytes with Epstein-Barr virus, most commonly in adolescents and young adults. Septicemia: Bacteremia (bacteria in the bloodstream) accompanying infection elsewhere in the body. Thrombocytopenia: A platelet count below 100,000/mL. Causes include bone marrow destruction by radiation, drugs, poisons, or leukemia. Thalassemia: A group of hereditary anemias most common in Greeks, Italians, and others of Mediterranean descent; shows a deficiency or absence of alpha or beta hemoglobin.
In this animation, when the hemoglobin molecules become saturated with oxygen molecules...
E) the oxygen molecules in the area on both sides of the oxygen-permeable membrane reach equilibrium. A) equilibrium is unattainable between the two sides of the oxygen-permeable membrane due to the repulsion of the free oxygen molecules by the saturated hemoglobin molecules. B) equilibrium is unattainable between the two sides of the oxygen-permeable membrane due to the affinity of the free oxygen molecules for the hemoglobin molecules. C) the area on the side of the oxygen-permeable membrane without the hemoglobin maintains more free oxygen molecules than the other side. D) the area on the side of the oxygen-permeable membrane with the hemoglobin maintains more free oxygen molecules than the other side. E) the oxygen molecules in the area on both sides of the oxygen-permeable membrane reach equilibrium.
Components of coagulation
EXTRINSIC: 1) Damage to the perivascular tissue 2) Thromboplastin (Factor III) 3) Factor VII INTRINSIC: 1) Factor XII 2) Factor XI 3) Factor IX 4) Factor VIII COMMON PATHWAY OF COAGULATION: 1) Factor X Accumulation 2) Fibrinogen breakdown 3) Factor III 4) Factor I 5) Prothrombin activator 6) Fibrin increase 7) Factor V 8) Thrombin increase 9) Fibrin cross-linking 10) Factor XIII
Anything that can travel in the blood and block blood vessels is called...
Embolus
reticuloyctes
Erythroblasts mutiply and synthesize hemoglobin, their nuclei degenerate and they are then called ______. Later they become erythocytes
What hormone stimulates erythropoiesis? Where is it produced?
Erythropoietin, which is produced in the liver and kidneys in response to hypoxemia
opportunistic infection
Establishment of pathogenic organisms that usually cannot get a foodhold in people with healthy immune systems
___ enters the target cell's nuclei and acts directly on the genes Insulin Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Estrogen Glucagon Oxytocin (OT)
Estrogen
liver and spleen
Expired erythrocytes break up in what two organs?
There are two reaction pathways to coagulation in the blood. What are they and what are their sources?
Extrinsic pathway is initiated by clotting factors released by damaged vessel walls. Intrinsic pathway is initiated by clotting factors released by platelets (blood).
Oxygen's diffusion from the lungs to the blood ceases as the hemoglobin molecules become saturated with the oxygen molecules.
False
The primary function of RBCs is gas transport, which is performed by hemoglobin. What is hemoglobin made of and how much do RBCs carry?
Hemoglobin is made of four protein chains (globins) with four heme groups, nonprotein moieties that bind oxygen to iron at its center. 33% of an RBC's cytosol is hemoglobin, or ~280 million molecules. This is facilitated by the relative absence of organelles.
alpha, beta
Hemoglobins consist of 2 _____ chains which are 141 amino acids long and 2 ___ chains which are 146 amino acids
The rupture of RBCs is called...
Hemolysis
What condition arises if an Rh- mother carries an Rh+ fetus?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn, or erythroblastosis fetalis
The production of blood, especially its formed elements, is called...
Hemopoiesis
osmolarity
High/low ______ leads to hypertension, hypotension,edema
has a strong, positive inotropic effect, meaning it increases the strength of each contraction of the heart. Hypocalcemia Hypercalcemia Hyperkalemia Myocardial hypercapnia Myocardial hypoxia
Hypercalcemia
erythropoietin
Hypoxemia stimulates secretion of
Statements regarding blood groups other than ABO and Rh.
INCORRECT: 1) They frequently cause transfusion reactions. CORRECT: 1) They include the MN, Duffy, Kell, Kidd, and Lewis groups. 2) They are useful for such legal purposes as paternity and criminal cases. 3) They are useful for research in population genetics. 4) They are useful for research in anthropology.
Indicate whether the abundance of the given cell type would increase, decrease, or not be affected by the given situation.
INCREASE: 1) Erythrocytes: high altitude 2) Erythrocytes: long term hypoxia 3) Neutrophils: streptococcus infection 4) B lymphocytes: influenza infection 5) Basophils: chronic asthma 6) Eosinophils: tapeworm infection RELATIVELY NO CHANGE: 1) Erythrocytes: acute viral infection DECREASE: 1) Erythrocytes: dietary iron deficiency 2) Erythrocytes: erythropoietin hyposecretion 3) Erythrocytes: declining intrinsic factor 4) Erythrocytes: acute, profuse hemorrhage 5) Erythrocytes: malarial parasitic infection 6) Erythrocytes: radiation therapy
positive
If any Rh agglutinogens are present on RBCs the person is Rh ______ *usually he or she has antigen D
Indicate which form of hemopoiesis can improve the symptoms of each condition.
Improved through erythropoesis: Sickle cell disease Anemia Hemolysis Hypoxia Hemolytic disease of the newborn Malaria Kwashiorkor Hemorrhage Transfusion reactions Improved through leukopoesis: Leukopenia NOT improved through erythropoesis or leukopoesis: Leukemia Hematology Primary polycythemia Secondary polycythemia
Erythrocytes are disc-shaped with a thick rim, like donut without hole removed. What is the purpose of this?
Increased surface area to better absorb oxygen.
_____________ increase(s) stroke volume. during atrial systole. when the AV valve is closed. during ventricular systole. during atrial diastole. during isovolumetric contraction.
Increased venous return
Tissue death that occurs if a clot blocks blood supply to an organ is called...
Infarction (e.g. MI or stroke)
How is hemophilia characterized It has sex-linked recessive mechanism of heredity. Most hemophilia occurs predominantly in males. It can be inherited from mothers and fathers. The lack of factor VIII causes classical hemophilia (hemophilia A), which accounts for about 83% of cases. Lack of factor IX causes hemophilia B, which accounts for 15% of cases.
It has sex-linked recessive mechanism of heredity Most hemophilia occurs predominantly in males. The lack of factor VIII causes classical hemophilia (hemophilia A), which accounts for about 83% of cases. Lack of factor IX causes hemophilia B, which accounts for 15% of cases.
Lymphocytes are produced in lymphatic tissues and organs, in addition to in the bone marrow. What are the names for hemopoiesis in the bone marrow and lymphatic organs?
Myeloid and lymphoid hemopoiesis
Choose the statement(s) associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn. It occurs when an Rh- woman carries an Rh+ fetus. The first pregnancy is likely to be uneventful because the placenta normally prevents maternal and fetal blood from mixing. At the time of birth, or if a miscarriage occurs, placental tearing exposes the mother to Rh+ fetal blood and she begins to produce anti-D antibodies. If an Rh- woman gives birth to (or mis-carries) an Rh+ child, she cannot be given an Rh immune globulin. If she becomes pregnant again with an Rh+ fetus, her anti-D antibodies may pass through the placenta and agglutinate the fetal erythrocytes.
It occurs when an Rh- woman carries an Rh+ fetus The first pregnancy is likely to be uneventful because the placenta normally prevents maternal and fetal blood from mixing At the time of birth, or if a miscarriage occurs, placental tearing exposes the mother to Rh+ fetal blood and she begins to produce anti-D antibodies. If she becomes pregnant again with an Rh+ fetus, her anti-D antibodies may pass through the placenta and agglutinate the fetal erythrocytes.
RBCs lose nearly all of their organelles during development. What are some significant features of this? * more FYI
Lack mitochondria and produce ATP through anaerobic fermentation. Lack nucleus and DNA, which means no protein synthesis or mitosis.
Which of the following characteristics of a red blood cell increases its ability to carry oxygen to the tissues? Lacking mitochondria, RBCs rely exclusively on anaerobic fermentation to produce ATP. The cytoplasm of an RBC consists mainly of a 33% solution of hemoglobin. RBCs lose nearly all organelles during their development. The cytoplasm also contains an enzyme, carbonic anhydrase. Lacking a nucleus and DNA, RBCs also are incapable of protein synthesis and mitosis.
Lacking mitochondria, RBCs rely exclusively on anaerobic fermentation to produce ATP. The cytoplasm of an RBC consists mainly of a 33% solution of hemoglobin. RBCs lose nearly all organelles during their development. Lacking a nucleus and DNA, RBCs also are incapable of protein synthesis and mitosis.
Cancer of the hemopoietic tissues that produces extraordinarily high circulating leukocytes and their precursors is called...
Leukemia
Identify the correct statement regarding leukocytes. Leukocytes spend only a few hours in the bloodstream, then migrate through the walls of the capillaries. Leukocytes are the most abundant formed elements, totaling only 5,000 to 10,000 WBCs/μL. We can live for a long without them. Leukocytes differ from erythrocytes in that they do not retain their organelles throughout life. Not all leukocytes have lysosomes in the cytoplasm.
Leukocytes spend only a few hours in the bloodstream, then migrate through the walls of the capillaries.
A high WBC count indicating infection, allergy or other diseases, also response to dehydration or emotional disturbance, is called...
Leukocytosis
Low WBC count, often caused by heavy metal poisoning, radiation sickness or infectious diseases, is called...
Leukopenia
apoferritin, ferritin
Liver binds surplus iron to a protein called ____ , forming an iron storage complex called ___
What type of WBC in the spleen processes hemolyzed RBCs? What does this cell do with the erythrocyte components?
Macrophages, which digest RBC membrane bits, separate heme from globin, hydrolyze globins into amino acids, and remove iron from the heme, and release iron into the blood.
Platelets are not true cells but small fragments of what kind of large cell?
Megakaryocytes - gigantic cells visible to the naked eye inhabiting red bone marrow
What is the hemoglobin concentration of whole blood for men and women?
Men - 13 to 18 g/dL Women - 12 to 16 g/dL
What is the RBC count in whole blood for men and women?
Men - 4.6 to 6.2 million/μL Women - 4.2 to 5.4 million/μL
Hematocrit (packed cell volume) is the percentage of whole blood volume composed of RBCs. What is the average hematocrit for men and women? * not sure if this and the next two are important
Men - 42% to 52% Women - 37% to 48%
What is the mnemonic for remembering the five types of leukocytes in order of decreasing numbers?
Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas Neutrophils - 60% Lymphocytes - 25% Monocytes - 7% Eosinophils - 3% Basophils - <1% *clearly doesn't equal 100%. You can take it up with Dr. Cone.
ferrous
Only form of iron that can be absorbed by small intestine
sodium ions, erythocytes, proteins
Osmolarity of the blood is mainly a product of ________,_______,______
_____________ is the enzyme responsible for promoting the formation of more kallikrein, completing the positive feedback loop in dissolving clots. Plasmin Prekallikrein Fibrin Fibrinogen Prothrombin
Plasmin
_____ is the enzyme responsible for promoting the formation of more kallikrein, completing the positive feedback loop in dissolving clots.
Plasmin In addition to promoting clotting, factor XII catalyzes the formation of a plasma enzyme called kallikrein. Kallikrein, in turn, converts the inactive protein plasminogen into plasmin, a fibrin-dissolving enzyme that breaks up the clot.Thrombin also activates plasmin, and plasmin indirectly promotes the formation of more kallikrein, thus completing a positive feedback loop.
Erythrocyte production(erythropoiesis)
Pluripotent stem cell --> erythrocyte forming unit --> erythroblast---> reticulocyte --->erythocyte Describes what process
colony forming unit(CFU)
Pluripotent stem cells differentiate into _____ which generate the respective blood cell lines
Not tested, but worth knowing IMO, an excess of RBCs is referred to as what?
Polycythemia Primary polycythemia - cancer of erythropoietic cell line in red bone marrow Secondary polycythemia - from dehydration, emphysema, high altitude, or physical conditioning
is the amount of tension in the ventricular myocardium immediately before it contracts. Contractility Afterload Preload Cardiac reserve None of the choices are correct.
Preload
In healthy blood vessels, platelets do not adhere because the smooth, endothelium is coated with _____.
Prostacyclin
Identify the physiological purposes of vasomotion. It can cause a generalized raising or lowering of blood pressure throughout the body. It can selectively modify the perfusion of a particular organ by rerouting blood from one region of the body to another. It can cause widespread vasodilation to raise blood pressure throughout the entire body. The first and third choices are correct. The first and second choices are correct.
The first and third choices are correct.
Choose the accurate statement(s) about how materials get from the blood to the surrounding tissues. The most important mechanism of exchange is diffusion. Filtration and reabsorption is the result of a shifting balance between hydrostatic and osmotic forces. Transcytosis is a process in which endothelial cells pick up material on one side of the plasma membrane by receptor-mediated endocytosis, transport the vesicles across the cell, and discharge the material on the other side by exocytosis. The first and third choices are correct. The first, second, and third choices are correct.
The first, second, and third choices are correct.
Choose the accurate statement(s) about the two reaction pathways to coagulation The intrinsic mechanism uses only clotting factors found in the blood itself. The extrinsic mechanism uses only clotting factors found in the blood itself. The intrinsic mechanism is initiated by clotting factors released by the damaged blood vessel and perivascular tissues. In most cases of bleeding, both the extrinsic and intrinsic mechanisms work simultaneously to contribute to hemostasis. The extrinsic mechanism is initiated by clotting factors released by the damaged blood vessel and perivascular tissues.
The intrinsic mechanism uses only clotting factors found in the blood itself. In most cases of bleeding, both the extrinsic and intrinsic mechanisms work simultaneously to contribute to hemostasis The extrinsic mechanism is initiated by clotting factors released by the damaged blood vessel and perivascular tissues.
Exercise has the following effects on cardiac output. Parasympathetic output from the cardiac centers increases cardiac output to meet the expected demand. The main reason the heart rate increases at the beginning of exercise is that proprioceptors in the muscles and joints transmit signals to the cardiac centers. As the exercise progresses, muscular activity increases venous return. A sustained program of exercise causes hypertrophy of the ventricles, which increases their stroke volume. As the exercise progresses, muscular activity decreases venous return.
The main reason the heart rate increases at the beginning of exercise is that proprioceptors in the muscles and joints transmit signals to the cardiac centers. As the exercise progresses, muscular activity increases venous return. A sustained program of exercise causes hypertrophy of the ventricles, which increases their stroke volume.
hemopoiesis
The production of blood is called
Blood usually passes through one network of capillaries from the time it leaves the heart until the time it returns, but there are exceptions, notably ______________. vasa vasorum portal systems anastomoses The first and third choices are correct. The second and third choices are correct.
The second and third choices are correct. (portal systems and anastomoses)
The two principal functions of the erythrocytes are: to pick up nitrogen from the tissues and unload it in the lungs. to pick up oxygen from the lungs and deliver it to tissues. to pick up carbon dioxide from the tissues and unload it in the lungs. The first and second choices are correct. The second and third choices are correct.
The second and third choices are correct. (to pick up oxygen from the lungs and deliver it to tissues and to pick up carbon dioxide from the tissues and unload it in the lungs.
What organ is responsible for erythrocyte disposal?
The spleen, "erythrocyte graveyard." It has narrow channels which test RBCs ability to pass through. Old, fragile erythrocytes become trapped, broken up and destroyed.
Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding blood groups other than ABO and Rh. They include the MN, Duffy, Kell, Kidd, and Lewis groups. They frequently cause transfusion reactions. They are useful for such legal purposes as paternity and criminal cases. They are useful for research in population genetics. They are useful for research in anthropology.
They frequently cause transfusion reactions.
Which of the following is NOT a function of platelets? They stick together to form temporary platelet plugs that seal small breaks in injured blood vessels. They inhibit procoagulants. They internalize and destroy bacteria. They secrete growth factors that stimulate mitosis in fibroblasts and smooth muscle and thus help to maintain and repair blood vessels. They initiate the formation of a clot-dissolving enzyme that dissolves blood clots that have outlasted their usefulness.
They inhibit procoagulants.
Which of the following is NOT a function of platelets?
They inhibit procoagulants. Despite their small size, platelets have a greater variety of functions than any of the true blood cells: They secrete vasoconstrictors, stimulating spasmodic constriction of broken vessels and thus help reduce blood loss. They stick together to form temporary platelet plugs that seal small breaks in injured blood vessels. They secrete procoagulants, or clotting factors, which promote blood clotting. They initiate the formation of a clot-dissolving enzyme that dissolves blood clots that have outlasted their usefulness. They secrete chemicals that attract neutrophils and monocytes to sites of inflammation. They internalize and destroy bacteria. They secrete growth factors that stimulate mitosis in fibroblasts and smooth muscle and thus help to maintain and repair blood vessels.
Choose the correct statement regarding the function of platelets. They secrete chemicals that repel neutrophils and monocytes. They secrete factors that inhibit mitosis in fibroblasts and smooth muscle. They secrete procoagulants, or clotting factors, which promote blood clotting. They secrete vasodilators. They prevent the formation of a clot-dissolving enzyme that dissolves blood clots that have outlasted their usefulness.
They secrete procoagulants, or clotting factors, which promote blood clotting
Choose the correct statement regarding the function of platelets.
They secrete procoagulants, or clotting factors, which promote blood clotting. Despite their small size, platelets have a greater variety of functions than any of the true blood cells: They secrete vasoconstrictors, stimulating spasmodic constriction of broken vessels and thus help reduce blood loss. They stick together to form temporary platelet plugs that seal small breaks in injured blood vessels. They secrete procoagulants, or clotting factors, which promote blood clotting. They initiate the formation of a clot-dissolving enzyme that dissolves blood clots that have outlasted their usefulness. They secrete chemicals that attract neutrophils and monocytes to sites of inflammation. They internalize and destroy bacteria. They secrete growth factors that stimulate mitosis in fibroblasts and smooth muscle and thus help to maintain and repair blood vessels.
albumin, globulin, fibrinogen
Three major categories of plasma proteins are
What is abnormal clotting in unbroken vessels called?
Thrombosis (clot=thrombus)
In blood plasma, Fe2+ binds to what protein?
Transferrin, which travels to bone marrow, liver and other tissues
Free bilirubin is transported by the blood to the liver.
True
In addition to the ABO and Rh groups, there are at least 100 other known blood groups, and they rarely cause transfusion reactions.
True
Iron is transported in the blood by transferrin.
True
Oxygen's great affinity for hemoglobin molecules causes oxygen molecules to diffuse from the lungs to the capillaries.
True
Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the composition of plasma. Water represents 92% by weight. Albumin is 60% of the total protein portion. Protein is the second most abundant plasma solute by weight. The most abundant nitrogenous waste is urea. Water represents 72% by weight.
Water represents 92% by weight. Albumin is 60% of the total protein portion. The most abundant nitrogenous waste is urea
sodium
What electrolyte is more important that any other solute for the osmolarity of the blood
protein
What is the most abundant plasma solute by weight
serum
When the blood clots and the solids are removed, the remaining fluid is the blood ______
liver
_____ contributes all of the major proteins except the gamma globulins
Plasma
_____ is 2.0 times as viscous as water because of its proteins (mainly albumin)
Type O
______ does not agglutinate in any plasma type
fibrin
______ is a sticky protein that forms the framework of a clot
whole blood
______is 4.5-5.5 times as viscous as water because of RBCs
erythrocytes
_____are the only cells in the body that carry on anaerobic fermentation indefinitely
osmolarity
_____regulates the passage of materials into and out of the blood
blood
____is a connective tissue with plasma and formed elements
anemia
a deficiency of RBCs or hemoglobin is called
hemoglobin
accounts for 33% of the cytoplasm of RBCs; this is the red pigment that gives an RBC its color and name. It is known especially for its oxygen-transport function , but also aids in the transport of co2 and the buffering of pH
The____ secrete____, which promotes Na+ and water retention adrenal medulla; epinephrine pancreas; cortisol kidneys; corticosterone adrenal cortex; aldosterone thyroid; calcitonin
adrenal cortex; aldosterone
thromboxane A2
am eicosanoid that promtes platelet aggregation, degranulation and vasoconstriction
kwashiorkor
an effect of severe dietary protein deficiency and hypoproteinemia
ant D/anti Rh
antibodes are produced only upon exposure to mismatched RBCs. Problems arise if there is a second exposure
platelets
are cell fragments having pseudopods that make amoeboid motion possible
monocytes
become tissue macrophages clean up dead neutrophils largest wbc
myeloid hemopoiesis
blood formation in the bone marrow is called
lymphoid hemopoesis
blood formation in the lymphatic organs is called
agglutinins
blood types are based on antibodies called _____ in the blood plasma
agglutinogens
blood types are based on antigens called ____ on the surfaces of the RBCs
These statements about diabetes mellitus (DM) are correct except the body produces autoantibodies that destroy the pancreatic beta cells in type I DM. target cells are unresponsive to insulin in type II DM. both type I and type II DM are characterized by lack of, or low levels of, insulin. diabetic neuropathy is a common long term effect of DM. type II DM is more common than type I DM.
both type I and type II DM are characterized by lack of, or low levels of, insulin.
leukemia
cancer of hemopoietic tissues which produces an abonormally high amount of leukocytes and their precursors
Cardiac muscle shares this feature with skeletal muscle. cardiac muscle fibers have striations all cardiac muscle fibers depend on nervous stimulation cardiac muscle fibers communicate by electrical (gap) junctions cardiac muscle fibers are joined end to end by intercalated discs some cardiac muscle fibers are autorhythmic
cardiac muscle fibers have striations
The difference between the maximum and resting cardiac output is called cardiac reserve. preload. stroke volume. afterload. contractility.
cardiac reserve.
hypoplastic anemia
caused by a decine in erythropoiesis
secondary polycythemia
causes are Dehydration, living at a high altitude, emphysema, strenous aerobic activity, smoking
aplastic anemia
complete cessation of erythropoiesis
antigens
complex molecules that are unique to each individual(except identical twins), occur on surface of all cells and trigger immune response. They enable cells to distinguish between its own cells from foreign matter
Cardioinhibitory centers in the _____________ receive input from __________. cortex; proprioceptors in the muscles thalamus; chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata hypothalamus; proprioceptors in the joints medulla oblongata; chemoreceptors in the aortic arch pons; baroreceptors in the internal carotid
medulla oblongata; chemoreceptors in the aortic arch
iron deficiency anemia
most common form of nutritional anemia characterized by small pale erythrocytes usually cause by blood loss without sufficient compensatory iron ingestion
reticulocyte
named for a temporary network (reticulum) composed of ribosome clusters and polyribosomes
heme
nonprotein moiety that binds o2 to a ferrous ion (fe2+) -each can carry one molecule of o2
hypoxia
oxygen deprivation in tissues
What organ secrets a hormone as a response to hypocalcemia thymus thyroid gland parathyroid glands pineal gland pituitary gland
parathyroid glands
hematocrit
percentage of whole blood volume composted of RBCs
fibrinogen
plasma protein that is the precursor of fibrin 4% of plasma protein
Factor XII catalyzes the formation of a plasma enzyme called kallikrein, that in turn converts an inactive protein into _________, a fibrin-dissolving enzyme that breaks up the clot prothrombin plasminogen plasmin fibrin thromboplastin
plasmin
leukocytes
play a role in immune response possess a nucleus and organelles live in connective tissues , work in blood stream short lived
globulin
play roles in solute transport, clotting and immunity divided into 3 subclasses from smallest to largest molecular weight =alpha, beta and gamma 36% of plasma protein
leukocytes
posses a nucleus and organelles live in connective tissues, but "work" in bloodstream 5 different types, but al play roles in defense
If the right ventricle begins to pump an increased amount of blood, this soon arrives at the left ventricle, stretches it more than before, and causes it to increase its stroke volume and match that of the right. This is and example of ________________. preload afterload contractility cardiac reserve None of the choices are correct.
preload
Opening and closing of the heart valves is caused by breathing. gravity. valves contracting and relaxing. osmotic gradients. pressure gradients.
pressure gradients
Rhogam
prevention of HDN by adminstering an anti RH gamma globulin injection called _____, to a mother shortly after the first Rh+ babies are delivered.
The long absolute refractory period of cardiocytes ensures a short twitch. prevents tetanus. makes the heart prone to arrhythmias. prevents the occurrence of ectopic focuses. causes the pacemaker potential.
prevents tetanus.
erythropoiesis
production of RBCs is called
leukopoiesis
production of WBC is called
thrombopoiesis
production of platelets
thrombopoiesis
production of platelets is called
procagulants
promote clotting; also called clotting factors
Neither follicle stimulating (FSH) hormone nor testosterone alone can stimulate significant sperm production, whereas when they act together, the testes produce some 300,000 sperm per minute. This exemplifies hormone clearance. the cascade effect. the synergistic effect. the permissive effect. the antagonistic effect.
the synergistic effect
hemopoietic tissues
the tissues the produce blood cells are called
nitrogenous wastes
the toxic end products of catabolism
vascular spasm, platelet plug, formation, and blood clotting
three hemostatic mechanisms are
Negative feedback inhibition occures when thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) targets the anterior pituitary. thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) causes the anterior pituitary to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) targets the thyroid gland. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) targets the thyroid gland. thyroid hormone (TH) targets the anterior pituitary.
thyroid hormone (TH) targets the anterior pituitary
type AB
universal recipient
Venous return is achieved by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT venule suction. the thoracic (respiratory) pump. the pressure gradient. the skeletal muscle pump.
venule suction.
myeloblasts
which ultimately differentiate into the three types of granulocytes
