Chapter 21-41 Study Guide

Upon arrival at the residence of a young male with an apparent emotional crisis, a police officer tells you that the man is acting bizarrely. You find him sitting on his couch; he is conscious but confused. He takes medications but cannot remember why. His skin is pale and diaphoretic, and he has noticeable tremors to his hands. You should FIRST rule out: A. hypoglycemia B. suicidal thoughts C. severe depression D. schizophrenia

A. hypoglycemia

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? A. if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain B. when distal circulation and neurological functions are absent C. if a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity D. if transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes

A. if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain

Most poisonings occur via that ______ route. A. ingestion B. inhalation C. absorption D. injection

A. ingestion

The amniotic fluid serves to: A. insulate and protect the fetus B. transfer oxygen to the fetus C. remove viruses from the fetus D. assist in fetal development

A. insulate and protect the fetus

An important part of the assessment process for a patient with special needs is to: A. interact with the caregiver B. interact with the patient C. talk to the manufacturer of the equipment being used D. transport immediately

A. interact with the caregiver

An abdominal aortic aneurysm: A. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis B. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early C. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders D. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area

A. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis

Which of the following statements regarding the "Adam's apple" is FALSE? A. it is inferior to the cricoid cartilage B. it is formed by the thyroid cartilage C. it is the uppermost part of the larynx D. it is more prominent in men than in women

A. it is inferior to the cricoid cartilage

Which of the following statements about helicopters is true? A. it is possible that the main rotor blade will dip to within 4 feet of the ground B. a helicopter is considered "hot" when it is on the ground and the rotors are still C. if the helicopter must land on a grade, you should approach it from the uphill side D. if you must go from one side of the helicopter to the other, the best way is to duck under the body

A. it is possible that the main rotor blade will dip to within 4 feet of the ground

Upon arrival at a motor vehicle crash, the EMT should: A. leave only the essential warning lights activated B. park at least 300 feet away from the accident scene C. turn off the emergency flashing lights and headlights D. turn off the ambulance and set the emergency brake

A. leave only the essential warning lights activated

A 70-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. When you arrive you find him leaning over a basin, which contains an impressive amount of blood. He has a history of coronary artery disease, diabetes, and migraine headaches. His BP is 180/100 and his heart rate is 100 beats/min. Which of the following is the MOST likely contributing factor to his nosebleed? A. His blood pressure B. His history of diabetes C. The fact that he is elderly D. His heart rate of 100 beats/min

A. His blood pressure

Which of the following organs would be the MOST likely to bleed profusely if severely injured? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Stomach D. Gallbladder

A. Liver

Which of the following musculoskeletal injures has the GREATEST risk for shock due to blood loss? A. Pelvic fracture B. Posterior hip dislocation C. Unilateral femur fracture D. Proximal humerus fracture

A. Pelvic fracture

Which of the following drugs is commonly used to facilitate sexual assault? A. Rohypnol B. Heroin C. Cocaine D. Marijuana

A. Rohypnol

What type of terrorist group would MOST likely bomb an abortion clinic? A. Single-issue group B. Technology terrorists C. Extremist political group D. Violent religious group

A. Single-issue group

A ________ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments. A. Sprain B. Dislocation C. Fracture D. Strain

A. Sprain

All of the following are examples of standard patient transfer equipment, EXCEPT: A. Strokes baskets B. long backboards C. wheeled stair chairs D. wheeled ambulance stretchers

A. Strokes baskets

Which of the following questions would be least pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance? A. Why was the substance ingested? B. How long ago was the substance taken? C. What type of substance was taken? D. How much of the substance was taken?

A. Why was the substance ingested?

While inspecting the interior of a wrecked automobile, you should be MOST suspicious that the driver experienced an abdominal injury if you find: A. a deformed steering wheel B. that the airbags deployed C. a crushed instrument panel D. damage to the lower dashboard

A. a deformed steering wheel

Paradoxical chest movement is typically seen in patients with: A. a flail chest B. a pneumothorax C. isolated rib fractures D. a ruptured diaphragm

A. a flail chest

What is a wheal? A. a raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin B. An area of localized swelling involving the lips, tongue, and larynx C. Generalized itching or burning that appears as multiple, small, caused areas on the skin D. An exaggerated immune response to any substance

A. a raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin

Characteristic anatomic features of Down syndrome include: A. a round head with a flat occiput B. bulging eyes and a large face C. long hands with wide fingers D. a proportionately small tongue

A. a round head with a flat occiput

A flail chest occurs when: A. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage B. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase C. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage D. more than three ribs are fractures on the same side of the chest

A. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage

A normal level of consciousness in an infant or child is characterized by: A. age-appropriate behavior, good muscle tone, and good eye contact B. awareness to place, pink and dry skin, and consistent eye contact C. crying or combativeness, good muscle tone, and awareness to time D. normal interactiveness, awareness to time, and pink skin color

A. age-appropriate behavior, good muscle tone, and good eye contact

Shortly after ascending rapidly to the surface of the water while holding his breath, a 29-year-old diver begins coughing up pink, frothy sputum and complains of dyspnea and chest pain. You should suspect and treat this patient for: A. an air embolism B. a pneumothorax C. pneumomediastinum D. decompression sickness

A. an air embolism

A 71-year-old man with a history of hypertension and vascular disease presents with tearing abdominal pain. His blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg, his heart rate is 120 beats/min, and his respirations are 28 breaths/min. Your assessment reveals that his abdomen is rigid and distended. Considering his medical history and vital signs, you should be MOST suspicious for a(n): A. aortic aneurysm B. hemorrhagic stroke C. acute myocardial infarction D. infarction of the large intestine

A. aortic aneurysm

A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who: A. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable B. are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable C. require prom extrication from an automobile D. are found supine and have stable vital signs

A. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable

Your unit has been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a structure fire. There are no injuries of which you are aware. Upon arriving at the scene., you should: A. ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged B. park your ambulance behind the incident commander's vehicle C. set up a staging area where firefighters can be treated if necessary D. contact medical control and apprise him or her of the situation

A. ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged

You have applied a dressing and a roller-gauze bandage to a laceration of the arm of a young female. During transport, she beings to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should: A. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed B. carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside C. remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one D. remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one

A. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed

While the EMT is in a vehicle assessing the patient, the rescue team should be: A. assessing exactly how the patient is trapped and determining the safest way to extricate B. awaiting further instructions from the EMT regarding how to proceed with the extrication C. actively extricating the patient using whichever rescue method is deemed necessary by the rescue leader D. preparing for a simple extrication process, as the EMT has obviously gained access to the patient

A. assessing exactly how the patient is trapped and determining the safest way to extricate

When faced with a situation in which an older patient with a terminal illness in cardiac arrest, but written documentation regarding the patient's wishes cannot be located, the EMT should: A. attempt to resuscitate the patient B. contact medical control for advice C. allow the patient to due in peace D. try to locate the documentation

A. attempt to resuscitate the patient

When documenting a call involving a female patient who was sexually assaulted, the EMT should: A. avoid speculation and document only factual data B. include a description of the suspected perpetrator C. theorize as to why the sexual assault occurred D. include the results of the internal vaginal exam

A. avoid speculation and document only factual data

When treating a partial-thickness burn, you should: A. avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics B. rupture any blisters to prevent an infection C. cover the burn with a moist, sterile dressing D. immerse the affected part in warm water

A. avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics

Upon arriving at a scene in which the incident command system has been activated, you should expect to: A. be passed from sector to sector, as needed, in between assignments B. report directly to the incident commander in between assignments C. be assigned a specific responsibility for the duration of the incident D. be given general directions and allowed to function independently

A. be passed from sector to sector, as needed, in between assignments

The major side effect associated with administration of activated charcoal is: A. black stools B. headache C. ringing in the ears D. abdominal pain

A. black stools

Bone marrow produces: A. blood cells B. electrolytes C. platelets D. lymphocytes

A. blood cells

Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled ________ movement A. body B. extremity C. neck D. eye

A. body

A 22-year-old male was attacked by a rival gang and has a large knife impaled in the center of his chest. Your assessment reveals that he is apnea and pulseless. You should: A. carefully remove the knife, control any bleeding, begin CPR, and transport B. stabilize the knife in place, provide rescue breathing, and transport at once C. remove the knife and control any bleeding, apply the AED, and analyze his rhythm D. begin CPR, control any external bleeding, and transport rapidly to a trauma center

A. carefully remove the knife, control any bleeding, begin CPR, and transport

The umbilical cord: A. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein B. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery C. separates from the placenta shortly after birth D. carries blood away from the baby via the artery

A. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein

A condition that clouds the lens of the eye is called: A. cataract B. nystagmus C. astigmatism D. glaucoma

A. cataract

The brain, a part of the central nervous system (CNS), is divided into the: A. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem B. cerebrum, brainstem, and spinal cord C. cerebellum, cerebrum, and spinal cord D. spinal cord, cerebrum, and cerebral cortex

A. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem

A 30-year old male who ingested an unknown substance begins to vomit. You should: A. collect the vomitus and bring it to the hospital B. apply a bag-mask device C. analyze the vomitus and try to identify the poison D. suction his oropharynx for no longer than 30 seconds

A. collect the vomitus and bring it to the hospital

A surgical procedure that creates an opening between the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n): A. colostomy B. gastrostomy C. intestinal shunt D. gastric stoma

A. colostomy

When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F (21°C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called: A. conduction B. convection C. evaporation D. radiation

A. conduction

When physically restraining a violent patient, the EMT should: A. continually talk to the patient as he or she is being restrained B. check circulation in all extremities only if the patient is prone C. remove the restraints if the patient appears to be calming down D. use additional force if the restrained patient begins to yell at the providers

A. continually talk to the patient as he or she is being restrained

If the incident command system is already established at the scene of a terrorist attack, the EMT should: A. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment B. remain in the rehabilitation area until he or she is assigned a task C. begin triaging patient and start treating the most critical ones D. contact the EMS medical director and obtain further instructions

A. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment

While assisting a woman in labor, you visualize her vaginal area and see an arm protruding from her vagina. She tells you that she feels the urge to push. You should: A. cover the arm with a sterile towel and transport immediately B. encourage her to keep pushing as you prepare for rapid transport C. insert your gloved fingers into the vagina and try to turn the baby D. instruct the mother to keep pushing and give her high-flow oxygen

A. cover the arm with a sterile towel and transport immediately

When using the mnemonic CHILD AZBUSE to assess a child for signs of abuse, you should recall that the "D" stand for: A. delay in seeking care B. divorced parents C. dirty appearance D. disorganized speech

A. delay in seeking care

The mnemonic DUMBELS can be used to recall the signs and symptoms of a cholinergic drug poisoning. The "E" in DUMBELS stands for: A. emesis B. erythema C. ecchymosis D. elevated blood pressure

A. emesis

After a baby is born, it is important to: A. ensure that it is throughly dried and warmed B. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord C. position it so that its head is higher than its body D. cool the infant to stimulate effective breathing

A. ensure that it is throughly dried and warmed

A patient who experiences an immediate loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval has a(n): A. epidural hematoma B. subdural hematoma C. concussion D. contusion

A. epidural hematoma

Which of the following is the most common mechanism of injury in older patients? A. falls B. abuse C. burns D. suicide

A. falls

Traction splints primarily immobilize and secure fractures of the: A. femur B. pelvis C. humerus D. hip

A. femur

A physiologic disorder that impairs bodily function when the body seems to be structurally normal is called a: A. functional disorder B. seizure C. drug and alcohol abuse D. traumatic brain injury

A. functional disorder

Depression and schizophrenia are examples of: A. functional disorders B. altered mental status C. behavioral emergencies D. organic brain syndrome

A. functional disorders

A 30-year-old male, who has been playing softball all day in a hot environment, complains of weakness and nausea shortly after experiencing a syncopal episode. Appropriate treatment for this patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. giving a salt-containing solution by mouth B. moving him to a cooler environment at once C. administering oxygen via nonrebreathing mask D. placing him in a supine position and elevating his legs

A. giving a salt-containing solution by mouth

Immediate transport is indicated for a child when he or she: A. has a history compatible with a serious illness B. is experiencing mild to moderate pain C. has a possible closed fracture of the radius D. falls from a height greater than 4 to 5 feet

A. has a history compatible with a serious illness

A 40-year-old man, who was the unrestrained driver of a car that hit a tree at a high rate of speed, struck the steering wheel with his chest. He has a large bruise over the sternum and an irregular pulse rate of 120 beats/min. You should be MOST concerned that he: A. has injured his myocardium B. has a collapsed lung and severe hypoxia C. has extensive bleeding into the pericardial sac D. is at extremely high risk for ventricular fibrilation

A. has injured his myocardium

In contrast to a Level III trauma center, a Level I trauma center must: A. have general surgeons in-house 24 hours a day B. be able to stabilize patients before transferring to a higher level facility C. be involved in trauma prevention programs D. have access to an emergency physician within 30 minutes

A. have general surgeons in-house 24 hours a day

Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, except: A. hazardous materials gear B. safety goggles C. face shields D. turnout gear

A. hazardous materials gear

An elderly patient might understate or minimize the symptoms of his or her illness because: A. he or she fears hospitalization B. of conditions such as dementia C. of decreased perception of pain D. the nervous system has deteriorated

A. he or she fears hospitalization

When a small child falls from a significant height, the ______ MOST often strikes the ground first. A. head B. back C. feet D. side

A. head

When placing a patient onto a long backboard, the EMT at the patient's ______ is in charge of all patient movements. A. head B. waist C. chest D. lower extremities

A. head

A 50-year-old female is entrapped in her passenger car after it struck a tree. As the rescue team is preparing to extricate her, you quickly assess her and determine that she is breathing shallowly and her radial pulse is absent. You should: A. maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated B. stabilize her condition before extrication begins C. secure her with a short backboard or vest device D. begin CPR as the rescue team begins extrication

A. maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: A. may be relatively painless B. can be controlled in the field C. often presents with acute pain D. is typically not as severe

A. may be relatively painless

The purpose of a shunt is to: A. minimize pressure within the skull B. reroute blood away from the lungs C. instill food directly into the stomach D. drain excess fluid from the peritoneum

A. minimize pressure within the skull

If a person's total tidal volume decreases, but his or her respiratory rate remains unchanged: A. minute volume will decrease B. minute volume will remain unchanged C. excess carbon dioxide will be eliminated D. minute volume will increase

A. minute volume will decrease

Polypharmacy is a term used to describe a patient who takes: A. multiple medications B. other people's medications C. a medication more than once a day D. medication only when he or she feels the need to

A. multiple medications

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: A. oxycodone (Percocet) B. ecstasy C. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine) D. crack cocaine

A. oxycodone (Percocet)

The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: A. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion B. size of the structure that was involved in the explosion C. type of material used to manufacture the device D. pressure that is generated from the explosion itself

A. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion

When administering oxygen to a frightened child, it would be most appropriate to: A. place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup B. have a parent restrain the child as you give oxygen C. tightly secure the oxygen mask straps to the face D. use a nasal cannula instead of a nonrebreathing mask

A. place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup

Pregnant women are advised to take iron supplements, such as prenatal vitamins, because: A. pregnancy causes an increased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia B. iron makes the blood clot faster, which protects the motor from excessive bleeding during delivery C. white blood cells decrease during pregnancy, which increases the mother's risk of an infection D. the blood naturally thins during pregnancy, which predisposes the mother to severe bleeding

A. pregnancy causes an increased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia

A pregnant trauma patient might lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: A. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume B. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure C. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma D. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate

A. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume

A 45-year-old convenience store clerk was shot in the right anterior chest during a robbery. Your assessment reveals that the wound has blood bubbling from it every time the patient breathes. Your MOST immediate action should be to: A. prevent air from entering the wound B. cover the wound with a bulky dressing C. assess the patient's back for an exit wound D. transport the patient promptly to the closest trauma center

A. prevent air from entering the wound

When caring for a chemical burn to the eye, the EMT should: A. prevent contamination of the opposite eye B. immediately cover the injured eye with a sterile dressing C. avoid irrigating the eye, as this may cause further injury D. irrigate both eyes simultaneously, even if only one eye is injured

A. prevent contamination of the opposite eye

Whiplash injuries are MOST common following _____ impacts. A. rear-end B. rollover C. frontal D. lateral

A. rear-end

As you approach an unconscious patient who is still in her wrecked vehicle, you note that there is a power line entangled in the wreckage of the vehicle. You should: A. retreat until the power line has been removed or the power is shut off B. carefully gain access to the patient without touching any metal objects C. don a pair of rubber gloves and carefully disentangle and remove the power line D. call for a tow truck to life the vehicle off of the power line and then access the patient

A. retreat until the power line has been removed or the power is shut off

Which of the following conditions would most likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral palsy? A. Seizure disorder B. Paralysis C. Type 2 diabetes D. Brain tumors

A. seizure disorder

Hypoperfusion is another name for: A. shock B. cyanosis C. cellular death D. hypoxemia

A. shock

When assessing a patient who was exposed to a vesicant agent, you should expect to encounter: A. skin blistering B. loss of hearing C. vomiting blood D. profound bradycardia

A. skin blistering

To effectively immobilize a fractured clavicle, you should apply a(n): A. sling and swathe B. air splint over the entire arm C. rigid splint to the upper arm, then a sling D. traction splint to the arm of the injured side

A. sling and swathe

You should be most suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is: A. slow B. irregular C. rapid D. weak

A. slow

Skeletal muscle is also referred to as _____ muscle. A. striated B. connective C. smooth D. involuntary

A. striated

The MOST reliable indicator of upper airway swelling during a severe allergic reaction is: A. stridor B. anxiety C. cyanosis D. wheezing

A. stridor

As you and your team are removing an unresponsive patient from her wrecked car, you note that she has deformities to both of her legs and a deformity to her left humerus. You should: A. support the injured extremities and continue removal B. splint the deformities before moving her any further C. realign the deformed extremities before continuing D. assess distal neuromuscular functions in her extremities

A. support the injured extremities and continue removal

The two most efficient ways for the body to eliminate excess heat are: A. sweating and vasodilation B. perspiration and tachycardia C. hyperventilation and tachycardia D. respiration and bradycardia

A. sweating and vasodilation

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include: A. tachycardia B. hypotension C. hypothermia D. slurred speech

A. tachycardia

The first state of labor ends when: A. the presenting part of the baby is visible B. contractions are less than 10 minutes apart C. the mother experiences her first contraction D. the amniotic sac ruptures and labor pains begin

A. the presenting part of the baby is visible

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is most important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: A. they might need to call a specialist to see the patient B. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery C. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital D. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed

A. they might need to call a specialist to see the patient

An unrestrained driver collided with a bridge pillar. Upon inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you note that the lower dashboard is crushed. During your assessment of the patient, you will MOST likely encounter: A. trauma to the pelvis B. blunt abdominal trauma C. a severe closed head injury D. penetrated thoracic trauma

A. trauma to the pelvis

Upon arrival at a scene where hazardous materials are involved, you should park the ambulance: A. upwind from the scene B. with the warning lights off C. downhill from the scene D. at least 50 feet from the scene

A. upwind from the scene

When caring for a female with trauma to the external genitalia, the EMT should: A. use local pressure to control bleeding B. carefully pack the vagina to reduce bleeding C. remove any impaled objects from the vagina D. cover any open wounds with moist, sterile dressings

A. use local pressure to control bleeding

Which of the following would be the most practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located? A. Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions B. Using a high-pitched voice while speaking directly into the ear C. Attempting to use body language to determine the problem D. Contacting dispatch and requesting a sign language interpreter

A. using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions

The process performed to artificially maximize the target population's exposure to a biologic agent, thereby exposing the greatest number of people and achieving the desired result, is called: A. weaponization B. dissemination C. potentiation D. alkalization

A. weaponization

The adult EpiPen system delivers _____mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child system delivers _____mg. A. 0.15, 0.3 B. 0.3, 0.15 C. 0.15, 0.5 D. 0.5, 0.2

B. 0.3, 0.15

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within ________ following administration. A. 30 seconds B. 1 minute C. 1 hour D. 30 minutes

B. 1 minute

When administering epinephrine by auto-injector, the EMT should hold the injector in place for: A. 5 seconds B. 10 seconds C. 20 seconds D. 30 seconds

B. 10 seconds

How much activated charcoal should you administer to a 55-pound child who swallowed a bottle of aspirin? A. 12.5 g B. 25 g C. 2 g/kg D. 50 g

B. 25 g

A 5-year-old boy was burned when he pulled a barbecue grill over on himself. He has partial- and full-thickness burns to his anterior chest and circumferentially on both arms. What percentage of his body surface area has been burned? A. 18% B. 27% C. 36% D. 45%

B. 27%

At what speed will the ambulance begin to hydroplane when there is water present on the roadway? A. 25 mph B. 30 mph C. 40 mph D. 50 mph

B. 30 mph

A newborn is considered to be "term" if it is born after ____ weeks and before ____ weeks. A. 34; 37 B. 37; 42 C. 38; 44 D. 39; 43

B. 37; 42

You are dispatched to the scene of a trench collapse. Upon arriving at the scene, your ambulance should be parked at least ______ feet from the incident. A. 250 B. 500 C. 750 D. 1000

B. 500

Febrile seizures are most common in children between: A. 8 months and 8 years B. 6 months and 6 years C. 3 months and 4 years D. 18 months and 10 years

B. 6 months and 6 years

Which of the following statements regarding a 3-month-old infant is correct? A. At this age, the infant typically sleeps for up to 8 hours a day B. A 3-month-old infant can distinguish a parent from a stranger C. The infant should be aroused easily from a sleeping state D. The infant is unable to turn his or her head and focus

B. A 3-month-old infant can distinguish a parent from a stranger

Which of the following statements regarding a breech position is correct? A. Breech deliveries occur rapidly, so the EMT should deliver at the scene B. A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part C. There is minimal risk of trauma to the infant with a breech position D. It is impossible to deliver a breech presentation in the prehospital setting

B. A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part

Which of the following is a developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction? A. Down syndrome B. Autism C. Cerebral palsy D. Spina bifida

B. Autism

Which of the following is not a component of the Apgar score? A. Grimace B. Body size C. Activity D. Pulse

B. Body size

What is the narrowest portion of the uterus? A. Vagina B. Cervix C. Fallopian tubes D. Ovaries

B. Cervix

Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? A. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. B. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. C. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis D. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity.

B. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.

A young male was struck in the forearm with a baseball and complains of pain to the area. Slight swelling and ecchymosis are present, but no external bleeding. Which type of injury does this described? A. Abrasion B. Contusion C. Hematoma D. Avulsion

B. Contusion

A patient experienced a severe compression to the chest when trapped between a vehicle and a brick wall. You suspect traumatic asphyxia due to the hemorrhage into the sclera of his eyes and which other sign? A. Flat neck veins B. Cyanosis in the face and neck C. Asymmetric chest movement D. Irregular heart rate

B. Cyanosis in the face and neck

When EMS responds to a disaster, as part of their response within the ICS, EMS would start with a scene size-up. What is the next step for the first-responding units? A. Communicating with additional units B. Establishing command C. Caring for any injuries D. Stabilizing the incident

B. Establishing command

Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct? A. Fire ant bites rarely cause anaphylaxis B. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly C. Fire ant bites typically occur in the face D. Most people are allergic to fire ant toxin

B. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly

The Department of Homeland Security posts a daily advisory system to keep the public aware of the current terrorist threat level. What does an orange level indicate? A. Low: Low risk of terrorist attacks B. High: High risk of terrorist attacks C. Severe: Severe risk of terrorist attacks D. Elevated: Significant risk of terrorist attacks

B. High: High risk of terrorist attacks

Your are transporting a patient with possible peritonitis following trauma to the abdomen. Which position will he MOST likely prefer to assume? A. Sitting up B. Legs drawn up C. Legs outstretched D. On his right side

B. Legs drawn up

Which toxicity level would you assign a hazardous material spill that could cause a person temporary damage or residual injury unless prompt medical treatment is given? A. Level 1 B. Level 2 C. Level 3 D. Level 4

B. Level 2

Which of the following organs would most likely bleed profusely when injured? A. Stomach B. Liver C. Intestine D. Bladder

B. Liver

Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? A. Syncope and bleeding at distal sites B. Local swelling and ecchymosis C. General weakness and diaphoresis D. Signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion

B. Local swelling and ecchymosis

Which of the following is NOT a component of the cardiovascular system? A. Heart B. Lungs C. Venules D. Plasma

B. Lungs

According to the STARt triage system, what should you do if you encounter an unresponsive patient who is not breathing? A. Ventilate the patient for 2 minutes and reassess B. Open the airway and reassess breathing status C. Triage the patient as "expectant" and move on D. Assign the patient in the "immediate" category

B. Open the airway and reassess breathing status

Which of the following conditions makes the elderly patient prone to fractures from even minor trauma? A. Hypertension B. Osteoporosis C. Arteriosclerosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis

B. Osteoporosis

Which of the following statements regarding gastrostomy (gastric) tubes is correct? A. Gastrostomy tubes are placed directly into the small intestine B. Patients with a gastrostomy tube might still be at risk for aspiration C. Gastrostomy tubes are used for patients who cannot digest food D. Most gastrostomy tubes are temporary and are not sutured in place

B. Patients with a gastrostomy tube might still be at risk for aspiration

Which of the following statements regarding drowning is correct? A. Artificial ventilations can easily be performed in patients with a laryngospasm B. Patients with a submersion injury might deteriorate rapidly because of pulmonary injury and cerebral hypoxia C. Large amounts of water enter the lungs in a small number of drowning victims D. Hypoxia in the drowning victim initially occurs due to water in the lungs

B. Patients with a submersion injury might deteriorate rapidly because of pulmonary injury and cerebral hypoxia

What is the first phase of extrication? A. Arrival B. Preparation C. Scene size-up D. Gaining access

B. Preparation

Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is correct? A. Anthrax is a deadly virus that replicates B. Pulmonary anthrax is the deadliest form C. There is presently no vaccine against anthrax D. Cutaneous anthrax has a 90% mortality rate

B. Pulmonary anthrax is the deadliest form

Which of the following signs is LEAST indicative of a head injury? A. Asymmetric pupils B. Pupillary constriction to bright light C. Both eyes moving in opposite directions D. Inability to look upward when instructed to

B. Pupillary constriction to bright light

Which of the following statements regarding the rule of nines is correct? A. The anterior arm in the adult is equal to 9% of the total body surface area B. The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the body surface area C. A child's head is equal to 14% of his or her total body surface area D. The posterior of a child's leg is equal to 13.5% of the body surface area

B. The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the body surface area

Which of the following body systems or components is the least critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body? A. An effectively pumping heart B. The filtering of blood cells in the spleen C. An intact system of blood vessels D. Adequate blood in the vasculature

B. The filtering of blood cells in the spleen

Which of the following signs is LEAST indicative of a patient's potential for violence? A. The patient appears tense and "edgy" B. The patient is 6'5" tall and weighs 230 lb C. The patient is loud and shouting obscenities D. The patient is facing you with clenched fists

B. The patient is 6'5" tall and weighs 230 lb

Which of the following situations MOST likely involved hazardous material? A. Milk truck that overturned and is leaking fluid B. Tractor trailer rig that is emiting a visible cloud C. Moving van that collided head-on with a small car D. Pickup truck from the gas company that struck a tree

B. Tractor trailer rig that is emitting a visible cloud

What is the EMT's FIRST priority when dealing with a patient experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding? A. Determine the cause of the bleeding B. Treat the patient for shock and transport C. Determine if the bleeding is a result of sexual assault D. Keep the patient warm and apply oxygen

B. Treat the patient for shock and transport

Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include: A. an offensive attitude about driving during an emergency call B. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers C. the ability to operate an ambulance at a high rate of speed D. realizing that lights and siren will be effective traffic tools

B. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers

All of the following are examples of passive rewarming techniques, EXCEPT: A. removing cold, wet clothing B. administering warm fluids by mouth C. turning up the heat inside the ambulance D. covering the patient with warm blankets

B. administering warm fluids by mouth

When carding for a patient with facial trauma, the EMT should be MOST concerned with: A. spinal trauma B. airway compromise C. associated eye injuries D. severe external bleeding

B. airway compromise

submersion injuries in the adolescent age group are most commonly associated with: A. hyperthermia B. alcohol C. child abuse D. swimming pools

B. alcohol

The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) states that: A. patients should only be treated if they can pay for care B. all patients must be treated regardless of their ability to pay for care C. only those with serious injuries can be treated without payment for care D. only certain facilities can treat patients who cannot pay for care

B. all patients must be treated regardless of their ability to pay for care

When assessing a conscious and alert 9-year-old child, you should: A. isolate the child from his or her parent B. allow the child to answer your questions C. obtain all of your information from the parent D. avoid placing yourself below the child's eye level

B. allow the child to answer your questions

The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to: A. gather critical data by performing a rapid hands-on assessment of the child B. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child C. facilitate a rapid head-to-toe assessment of the child by visualization only D. determine if the child's vital signs are within the age-appropriate limits

B. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child

A 21-year-old male was found unconscious in an alley. Your initial assessment reveals that his respirations are slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. Further assessment reveals that his pupils are bilaterally constricted. His presentation is MOST consistent with an overdose of: A. cocaine B. an opioid C. a stimulant drug D. methamphetamine

B. an opioid

Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: A. weapons of mass destruction are distributed B. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed C. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed D. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled

B. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed

A large tanker truck has overturned on a highway. When you arrive, you see a clear liquid leaking from the rear of the tanker. The driver, who appears to be unconscious, is still in the vehicle and is bleeding heavily from the face. You should: A. immediately notify law enforcement for traffic control B. fully assess the situation and request the appropriate assistance C. put on gloves, a gown, and a mask and quickly remove the driver D. go to the rear of the tanker and determine what type of fluid is leaking

B. fully assess the situation and request the appropriate assistance

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: A. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls B. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position C. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma D. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury

B. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position

Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include: A. widespread ecchymosis B. pain and distention C. bruising only D. significant hypotension

B. pain and distention

A productive cough, fever, and chills in an 80-year-old patient with a compromised immune system should make you most suspicious for: A. bronchitis B. pneumonia C. heart failure D. emphysema

B. pneumonia

Compression injuries to the abdomen that occur during a motor vehicle crash are typically the result of: A. airbag deployment B. a poorly placed lap belt C. failure to wear seat belts D. rapid vehicle deceleration

B. poorly placed lap belt

When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you not that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: A. park downhill from the scene B. position the ambulance upward C. quickly gain access to the patient D. ask the driver to exit the vehicle

B. position the ambulance upward

A 23-year-old woman, who is 24 weeks pregnant with her first baby, complains of edema to her hands, a headache, and visual disturbances. When you assess her vital signs, you note that her blood pressure is 160/94 mmHg. She is MOST likely experiencing: A. eclampsia B. preeclampsia C. a hypertensive crisis D. chronic water retention

B. preeclampsia

The purpose of splinting a fracture is to: A. refuse the fracture if possible B. prevent motion of bony fragments C. reduce swelling in adjacent soft tissues D. force the bony fragments back into anatomic alignment

B. prevent motion of bony fragments

Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following except: A. low birth weight B. profound tachycardia C. premature delivery D. respiratory depression

B. profound tachycardia

When introduced into the body, ricin causes: A. enlarged lymph nodes and extreme pain B. pulmonary edema and circulatory failure C. necrosis of muscle tissue and cell destruction D. intestinal obstruction and severe sepsis

B. pulmonary edema and circulatory failure

General guidelines to follow when caring for a patient with a behavioral crisis include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. being honest and reassuring B. rapidly transporting the patient C. having a definite plan of action D. avoiding arguing with the patient

B. rapidly transporting the patient

When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in emergency mode, you should: A. pass other drivers on the right side B. remain in the extreme left-hand lane C. drive in the center lane of the highway D. remain in the extreme right-hand lane

B. remain in the extreme left-hand lane

When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to: A. document the answers to the questions that the patient responds to B. report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary C. voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient D. avoid any kind of lip movement while he or she is signing with the patient

B. report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary

You are treating a woman who was stung numerous times by hornets. On assessment, you note that some of the stingers are still embedded in her skin. You should: A. leave the stingers in place B. scrape the stingers from her skin C. pull the stingers out with tweezers D. cover the stings with tight dressings

B. scrape the stingers from her skin

An attack on an abortion clinic would most likely be carried out by a(n): A. doomsday cult B. single-issue group C. extremist political group D. violent religious group

B. single-issue group

According to the GEMS diamond, a person's activities of daily living are evaluated during the: A. SAMPLE history B. social assessment C. medical assessment D. environmental assessment

B. social assessment

Pinpoint pupils, vomiting, bradycardia, and excessive salivation are signs of exposure to: A. lewisite B. soman C. cyanide D. phosgene

B. soman

The recommended dimensions for a helicopter landing zone are: A. 50 x 50 feet B. 75 x 75 feet C. 100 x 100 feet D. 150 x 150 feet

C. 100 x 100 feet

The 1-minute Apgar score of a newborn reveals that the baby has a heart rate of 90 beats/min, a pink body but blue hands and feet, and rapid respirations. The baby cries when the soles of its feet are flicked and resists attempts to straighten its legs. You should assign an Apgar score of: A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 9

C. 8

Which of the following patients is at HIGHEST risk for suicide? A. A 24-year-old woman who is successfully being treated for depression B. A 29-year-old man who was recently promoted with a large pay increase C. A 33-year-old man who regularly consumes alcohol and purchased a gun D. A 45-year-old woman who recently found out her cancer is in full remission

C. A 33-year-old man who regularly consumes alcohol and purchased a gun

Which of the following is a physiologic change that occurs during the process of aging? A. increased elasticity of the alveoli B. A gradual decrease in blood pressure C. A decline in kidney function D. 10% to 15% increase in brain weight

C. A decline in kidney function

When dealing with a hazardous materials incident, where should you set up your decontamination area? A. Inside the hazard zone B. Inside the treatment area C. Between the hazard zone and treatment area D. Between the treatment and transportation zone

C. Between the hazard zone and treatment area

Proper protective equipment will vary depending on the hazards encountered. Which piece of equipment should be utilized during all patient contacts? A. Turnout gear B. Helmets C. Blood- and fluid-impermeable gloves D. Goggles

C. Blood- and fluid-impermeable gloves

What improves a patient's quality of life shortly before death? A. Home care B. Hospice care C. Comfort care D. Health care

C. Comfort care

A 14-year-old baseball player was hit in the chest with a line drive. He is in cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? A. Myocardial contusion B. Traumatic asphyxia C. Commotio cordis D. Hemothorax

C. Commotio cordis

Severe abrasion injuries can occur when motorcycle riders are slowed after a collision by road drag. Road drag is most often associated with which type of motorcycle impact? A. Head-on collision B. Angular collision C. Ejection D. Controlled crash

C. Ejection

Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, except: A. Actidose B. InstaChar C. Fructose D. LiquiChar

C. Fructose

What device is placed directly into the stomach to feed patients? A. Colostomy B. Ileostomy C. Gastrostomy tube D. Central venous catheter

C. Gastrostomy tube

Three ambulances respond to a golf course where a group of six golfers were struck by lightning. Two of the golfers are conscious and alert with superficial skin burns (Group 1). The next two golfers have minor fractures and appear confused (Group 2). The last two golfers are in cardiac arrest (Group 3). According to reverse triage, which group of golfers should be treated FIRST? A. Group 1 B. Group 2 C. Group 3 D. Groups 1 and 2; Group 3 should be tagged as deceased

C. Group 3

What does sulfur mustard do to the cells within the body? A. It makes the cells retain water until they explode B. It causes the cells to release all their energy, which then causes cellular death C. It makes the cells mutate, which damages and changes the cells and causes cellular death D. It makes the cells release all their fluids and causes severe dehydration until cellular death occurs

C. It makes the cells mutate, which damages and changes the cells and causes cellular death

What is the most common presenting sign of PID? A. Vomiting B. Vaginal discharge C. Lower abdominal pain D. Fever

C. Lower abdominal pain

A 20-year-old man has major open facial injuries after his vehicle struck a tree head-on. Which of the following findings within the car would MOST likely explain his injury pattern? A. Deployed airbag B. Bent steering wheel C. Nonintact windshield D. Crushed instrument panel

C. Nonintact windshield

The AVPU scale is used to monitor a patient's level of consciousness. What does the "P" stand for? A. Pallor B. Pediatric C. Painful D. Pale

C. Painful

Which of the following statements regarding chemical burns is FALSE? A. Most chemical burns are caused by strong acids or alkalis B. Fumes of strong chemicals can cause burns to the respiratory tract C. Prior to removing a dry chemical, you should flush the area with sterile water D. You should not attempt to neutralize an acid burn with an alkaline chemical

C. Prior to removing a dry chemical, you should flush the area with sterile water

A young male is experiencing signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock after being stung by a scorpion. His level of consciousness is diminished, his breathing is severely labored, you can hear inspiratory stridor, and his face is cyanotic. The patient has a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector. What should you do first? A. Assist him in administering his epinephrine B. Apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreahthing mask. C. Provide ventilatory assistance with a bag-mask device D. Elevate his legs and cover him with a warm blanket.

C. Provide ventilatory assistance with a bag-mask device

Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma? A. Elevation of the lower extremities B. Intravenous fluid administration C. Rapid transport to a trauma center D. Early administration of oxygen

C. Rapid transport trauma center

A young male was involved in a motor vehicle accident and experienced a closed head injury. He has no memory of the events leading up to the accident but remembers that he was going to a birthday party. What is the correct term to use when documenting his memory loss? A. Concussion B. Cerebral contusion C. Retrograde amnesia D. Anterograde amnesia

C. Retrograde amnesia

Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for two to three hours? A. Heart B. Brain C. Skeletal muscle D. Kidneys

C. Skeletal muscle

Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent? A. Lewiste B. Chlorine C. Soman D. Phosgene

C. Soman

Most patients with this disease also have hydrocephalus. A. Paralysis B. Down syndrome C. Spina bifida D. Cerebral palsy

C. Spina bifida

Which of the following statements regarding intra-abdominal bleeding is FALSE? A. intra-abdominal bleeding often causes abdominal distention B. Intra-abdominal bleeding is common following blunt force trauma C. The absence of pain and tenderness rules out intra-abdominal bleeding D. Bruising may not occur immediately following blunt abdominal trauma

C. The absence of pain and tenderness rules out intra-abdominal bleeding

Which of the following is NOT a guideline for safe ambulance driving? A. Always use your siren if you have the emergency lights on B. Always exercise due regard for person and property C. Use one-way streets whenever possible D. Go with the flow of traffic

C. Use one-way streets whenever possible

What is the outermost cavity of a woman's reproductive system? A. Cervix B. Ovaries C. Vagina D. Uterus

C. Vagina

The EMT should be most concerned when a child presents with fever and: A. chills B. ear pain C. a rash D. a headache

C. a rash

The form "behavioral crisis" is MOST accurately defined as: A. a sudden, violent outburst of an otherwise mentally stable person toward a family member B. a medical illness with psychological symptoms that may lead to limited motor functioning C. a situation in which a patient of any age exhibits agitated, violent, or uncooperative behavior D. a period of severe depression that lasts longer than 2 weeks and cannot be controlled with medications

C. a situation in which a patient of any age exhibits agitated, violent, or uncooperative behavior

You are called to a local baseball park for a 23-year-old man with difficulty breathing. He states he ate a package of peanuts approximately 30 minutes ago and denies any allergies or past medical history. Your assessment reveals widespread urticaria, tachycardia, and a BP of 90/60 mmHg. You can hear him wheezing, even without a stethoscope. You should be MOST suspicious of a(n): A. acute asthma attack B. mild allergic reaction C. anaphylactic reaction D. moderate allergic reaction

C. anaphylactic reaction

The MOST appropriate way to dress and bandage an open abdominal wound with a loop of bowel protruding from it is to: A. cover the wound with a dry, sterile dressing and apply firm pressure B. apply a moist sterile dressing to the wound and apply firm pressure C. apply a moist, sterile dressing to the wound and secure with an occlusive dressing D. carefully replace the protruding bowel into the abdomen and cover the wound

C. apply a moist, sterile dressing to the wound and secure with an occlusive dressing

A 38-year-old woman was bitten by fire ants while at the park. Your primary assessment revels that she is semiconscious; has labored breathing; and has a rapid, thready pulse. She has a red rash on her entire body, and her face is swollen. You should: A. locate the area where the fire ants bit her B. place her supine with her legs elevated C. assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen D. perform a rapid secondary assessment

C. assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen

When caring for a patient with an emotional crisis who is calm and not in need of immediate emergency care, your BEST course of action is to: A. advise the patient that he or she cannot refuse treatment B. leave the patient with a trusted friend or family member C. attempt to obtain consent from the patient to transport D apply soft restraints in case the patient becomes violent

C. attempt to obtain consent from the patient to transport

When treating a patient who experienced a pulmonary blast injury, you should: A. suspect an accompanying cardiac tamponade B. administer large amounts of intravenous fluid C. avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure D. use a demand valve to ventilate the patient

C. avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure

Food poisoning is almost always caused by eating food that contains: A. fungi B. viruses C. bacteria D. protozoa

C. bacteria

Shivering in the presence of hypothermia indicates that the: A. musculoskeletal system is damaged B. nerve endings are damaged, causing loss of muscle control C. body is trying to generate more heat through muscular activity D. thermoregulatory system has failed and body temperature is falling

C. body is trying to generate more heat through muscular activity

The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: A. meninges and spinal cord B. cerebellum and brain C. brain and spinal cord D. cerebrum and meninges

C. brain and spinal cord

Patients with rib fractures will commonly: A. develop a sucking chest wound B. take a series of deep breaths C. breathe rapidly and shallowly D. prefer to lie in a supine position

C. breathe rapidly and shallowly

Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as: A. the removal of adequate amounts of carbon dioxide during exhalation B. the snake of adequate amounts of oxygen during the inhalation phase C. circulation of blood within an organ with sufficient amounts of oxygen D. the production of carbon dioxide, which accumulates at the cellular level

C. circulation of blood within an organ with sufficient amounts of oxygen

Signs of a cardiac tamponade include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. muffled heart tones B. a weak, rapid pulse C. collapsed jugular veins D. narrowing pulse pressure

C. collapsed jugular veins

The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the: A. retina B. sclera C. conjunctiva D. cornea

C. conjunctiva

You are assessing a 27-year-old woman with a heat-related emergency. Her skin is flushed, hot, and moist, and her level of consciousness is decreased. After administering oxygen, you should: A. give her ice water to drink B. place her in the recovery position C. cover her with wet sheets and fan her D. take her temperature with an axillary probe

C. cover her with wet sheets and fan her

The presence of subcutaneous emphysema following trauma to the face and throat is MOST suggestive of: A. esophageal injury B. cervical spine fracture C. crushing tracheal injury D. carotid artery laceration

C. crushing tracheal injury

You respond to a plastic factory, where numerous people present with shortness of breath, flushed skin, and altered mental status. One of the patients tells you he smelled almonds before he started feeling sick. These people were MOST likely exposed to: A. sarin B. bleach C. cyanide D. chlorine

C. cyanide

The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function is called: A. senility B. delirium C. dementia D. delusion

C. dementia

A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the: A. muscle fascia B. epidermis C. dermal layer D. fatty layer

C. dermal layer

Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause: A. diffuse bruising B. referred pain C. distention D. nausea or vomiting

C. distention

The 1996 Summer Olympics bombing is an example of: A. an ecoterrorist attack B. apocalyptic violence C. domestic terrorism D. state-sponsored terrorism

C. domestic terrorism

The MOST effective way to prevent cardiopulmonary arrest in a newborn is to: A. rapidly increase its body temperature B. allow it to remain slightly hypothermic C. ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation D. start CPR if the heart rate is less than 100 beats/min

C. ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation

You respond to a sick child late at night. The child appears very ill, has a high fever, and is drooling. He is sitting in a tripod position, struggling to breathe. You should suspect: A. croup B. pnumonia C. epiglottitis D. severe asthma

C. epiglottitis

The purpose of the Eustachian tube is to: A. move in response to sound waves B. transmit impulses from the brain to the ear C. equalize pressure in the middle ear when external pressure changes D. house fluid within the inner chamber of the ear and support balance

C. equalize pressure in the middle ear when external pressure changes

Posttraumatic stress disorder can happen after: A. a bout with depression B. extended periods of hyperthermia or hypothermia C. exposure to or injury from a traumatic occurrence D. alcohol withdrawal

C. exposure to or injury from a traumatic occurance

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she: A. ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant B. has formed a general impression of the patient C. has gathered patient history information D. has obtained a complete set of vital signs

C. has gathered patient history information

A precipitous labor and delivery is most common in women who: A. are pregnant for the first time B. have gestational diabetes C. have delivered a baby before D. are younger than 30 years of age

C. have delivered a baby before

Use of a nonrebreathing mask or nasal cannula in a child is appropriate only if: A. an oral airway has been inserted B. he or she is breathing inadequately C. his or her tidal volume is adequate D. his or her respirations are shallow

C. his or her tidal volume is adequate

Even when seat belts are worn properly and the airbags deploy, injury may occur to the: A. chest B. extremities C. iliac crests D. lower ribcage

C. iliac crests

Known risk factors for Down syndrome include: A. smoking B. traumatic brain injury at birth C. increased maternal age D. lack of vitamin B

C. increased maternal age

A hypnotic drug is one that: A. prevents amnesia B. increases the senses C. induces sleep D. increases the pulse

C. induces sleep

During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of: A. rupture of a hollow organ B. a ruptured spleen C. intra-abdominal bleeding D. a severe liver laceration

C. intra-abdominal bleeding

When a light is shone into the pupil: A. both pupils should dilate together B. it should become larger in size C. it should become smaller in size D. the opposite pupil should dilate

C. it should become smaller in size

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated: A. slightly above the ear B. at the angle of the jaw C. just anterior to the tragus D. over the mastoid process

C. just anterior to the tragus

A 16-year-old boy was playing football and was struck in the left flank during a tackle. His vital signs are stable; however, he is in severe pain. You should be MOST concerned that he has injured his: A. liver B. spleen C. kidney D. bladder

C. kidney

It is important to remove a drowning victim from the water before laryngospasm relaxes because: A. the patient will suffer less airway trauma B. the risk of severe hypothermia is lessened C. less water will have entered the patient's lungs D. you can ventilate the patient with laryngospasm

C. less water will have entered the patient's lungs

Hypovolemic shock occurs when: A. at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost B. the clotting ability of the blood in enhanced C. low fluid volume leads to inadequate perfusion D. the patient's systolic BP is less than 100 mmHg

C. low fluid volume leads to inadequate perfusion

When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT's main focus should be to: A. determine the underlying cause of her problem B. ask question related to her gynecologic history C. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay D. keep assessment and treatment to a minimum

C. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay

Eclampsia is most accurately defined as: A. a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mmHg B. high levels of protein in the patient's urine C. seizures that result from severe hypertension D. hypertension in the 20th week of pregnancy

C. seizures that result from severe hypertension

When a female has reached menarche: A. she can no longer produce an ovum B. she usually requires hormone therapy C. she is capable of becoming pregnant D. menstrual periods become less frequent

C. she is capable of becoming pregnant

The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury: A. is always accompanied by hypotension B. indicates a state of decompensated shock C. should be assumed to be a sign of shock D. is most commonly caused by severe pain

C. should be assumed to be a sign of shock

The _____ area is where incoming ambulances meet and await further instructions at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident. A. support B. triage C. staging D. transportation

C. staging

When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: A. end of one to the end of the next B. end of one to the start of the next C. start of one to the start of the next D. start of one to the end of the next

C. start of one to the start of the next

Which of the following question is of LEAST pertinence for the EMT to ask a patient who intentionally overdosed on a medication? A. "How much do you weigh?" B. "How much did you ingest?" C. "What substance did you take?" D. "Why did you take the medication?"

D. "Why did you take the medication?"

The mastoid process is located approximately: A. 1/2 inch anterior to the external opening of the ear B. 1 inch inferior to the external opening of the ear C. 1 inch posterior to the angle of the mandible D. 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear

D. 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear

A man involved in a motorcycle crash has multiple abrasions and lacerations. Which of the following injuries has the HIGHEST treatment priority? A. Widespread abrasions to the back with pinkish ooze B. 3-inch laceration to the forehead with dark red, flowing blood C. Laceration to the forearm with obvious debris in the wound D. 1-inch laceration to the thigh with spurting, bright red blood

D. 1-inch laceration to the thigh with spurting, bright red blood

If fertilization has not occurred within about _____ days following ovulation, the lining of the uterus begins to separate, and menstruation occurs. A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 14

D. 14

Which of the following patients should be assigned an immediate (red tag) category? A. 36-year-old female with an open head injury, agonal breathing, and a slow pulse rate B. 31-year-old male with an open fracture of the forearm and minimal external bleeding C. 29-year-old female with a back injury and numbness and tingling in her extremities D. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis

D. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis

Which of the following is considered a severe burn? A. Any full-thickness burn B. 20% partial-thickness burn with abrasions C. 10% full-thickness burn with abrasions D. 5% full-thickness burn with a fracture

D. 5% full-thickness burn with a fracture

Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse? A. Limited physical contact B. Elevated blood glucose C. Dimly lit environment D. Alcohol withdrawal

D. Alcohol withdrawal

What is the purpose of the incident command system (ICS)? A. Ensuring responder and public safety B. Achieving incident management goals C. Ensuring the efficient use of resources D. All of the above

D. All of the above

When obtaining a SAMPLE history, which of the following pieces of information is important to obtain? A. Use of a birth control device or birth control pills B. The date of the patient's last menstrual period C. The possibility of pregnancy D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following can cause vaginal bleeding? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Spontaneous abortion C. Trauma D. All of the above

D. All of the above

You should discourage a rape or sexual assault victim from doing which of the following? A. Urinating B. Cleaning herself C. Changing clothes D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Common causes of acute psychotic behavior include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. schizophrenia B. intense stress C. mind-altering substance abuse D. Alzheimer's disease

D. Alzheimer's disease

Which of the following would MOST likely result from the third collision in the "three-collision" effect that occurs during a high-speed, frontal impact motor vehicle crash? A. Extensive damage to the automobile B. Flail chest and lower extremity fractures C. Massive external trauma with severe bleeding D. Aortic rupture or compression injury to the brain

D. Aortic rupture or compression injury to the brain

You respond to a wooded area to help search for a child who has been missing for approximately 24 hours. Which of the following equipment should you leave in the ambulance? A. Radio B. Flashlight C. Jump kit D. Backboard

D. Backboard

_______ is what you can see of a person's response to the environment. A. Affect B. Psychosis C. Neurosis D. Behavior

D. Behavior

What do vagal nerve stimulators do? A. Keep seizures from occurring B. Keep the airway clear from secretions C. Act as an alternative treatment to medicine D. Both A and C

D. Both A and C

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 35-year-old patient? A. Superficial burn covering 50% of the body surface area B. Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the body surface area C. Full-thickness burn to 5% of the body surface area D. Circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest

D. Circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest

A man has been sucked inside the bin of a grain silo and is trapped. Which of the following rescue teams is the MOST appropriate to request? A. Trench rescue B. high-angle rescue C. Local fire department D. Confined space rescue

D. Confined space rescue

Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth? A. rupture of the amniotic sac B. Irregular contractions lasting 10 minutes C. Expulsion of the mucus plug from the vagina D. Crowning of the baby's head

D. Crowning of the baby's head

Which of the following statements regarding febrile seizures is correct? A. Febrile seizures usually indicate a serious underlying condition, such as meningitis B. Most febrile seizures occur in children between the ages of 2 months and 2 years of age C. Febrile seizures are rarely associated with tonic-clonic activity, but last for more than 15 minutes D. Febrile seizures usually last less than 15 minutes and often do not have a postictal phase

D. Febrile seizures usually last less than 15 minutes and often do not have a postictal phase

Which of the following may be difficult to perform on a patient with Down syndrome? A. CPR B. Pulse oximetry C. Splinting D. Intubation

D. Intubation

You are transporting a woman who is 8 months' pregnant. To prevent supine hypotensive syndrome, how should you position this patient? A. On her right side B. Supine C. Semi-Fowler D. On her left side

D. On her left side

Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct? A. The EMT should try to determine if rape occurred B. Only a licensed physician can make a diagnosis of rape C. Rape causes more physical than emotional harm D. Rape is a legal term, not a medical diagnosis

D. Rape is a legal term, not a medical diagnosis

In which position should you restrain a physically uncooperative patient? A. With hands tied behind the back B. With arms and legs bound together C. Prone D. Supine

D. Supine

You have been dispatched to a call for an unresponsive patient. What is the MOST important information that you should obtain from the dispatcher initially? A. The callback number of the caller B. The severity of the patient's problem C. Whether the patient is breathing D. The exact physical location of the patient

D. The exact physical location of the patient

How does pediatric anatomy differ from adult anatomy? A. The trachea is more rigid B. The tongue is proportionately smaller C. The epiglottis is less floppy D. The head is proportionately larger

D. The head is proportionately larger

Which of the following statements BEST described a mass-casualty incident? A. At least half of the patients are dead B. Either a bus or an airplane has crashed C. You have more than two critical patients D. The patient count exhausts your resources

D. The patient count exhausts your resources

Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS diamond? A. A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living B. Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect C. The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months D. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater

D. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater

Which of the following occurs during true labor? A. Uterine contractions last about 10 seconds B. Uterine contractions decrease in intensity C. The uterus becomes very soft and movable D. Uterine contractions become more regular

D. Uterine contractions become more regular

What effects will the application of an ice have on a hematoma? A. Vasodilation and increased pain B. Vasodilation and decreased bleeding C. Vasoconstriction and increased swelling D. Vasoconstriction and decreased bleeding

D. Vasoconstriction and decreased bleeding

The most prominent symptom of decompression sickness is: A. tightness in the chest B. dizziness and nausea C. difficulty with vision D. abdominal or joint pain

D. abdominal or joint pain

An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: A. moist oral mucosa B. bulging fontanelles C. excessive tearing D. absent urine output

D. absent during output

Pneumothorax is defined as: A. blood collection within the pleural space B. accumulation of air between the lungs C. blood collection within the lung tissue D. accumulation of air in the pleural space

D. accumulation of air in the pleural space

An open pneumothorax is: A. a fractured rib that perforates the tissue of the lung surface B. the entry of air into the pleural space from a perforated lung C. extreme pleural pressure that causes the lung to rupture D. an open chest wound through which air moves during breathing

D. an open chest wound through which air moves during breathing

Other than applying a moist, sterile dressing covered with a dry dressing to treat an abdominal evisceration, an alternative form of management may include: A. placing dry towels over the open wound B. cleaning the exposed bowel with sterile saline C. applying the PASG to stop the associated bleeding D. applying an occlusive dressing, secured by trauma dressings

D. applying an occlusive dressing, secured by trauma dressings

A patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears, and hyperthermia should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of: A. acetaminophen B. cocaine C. ibuprofen D. aspirin

D. aspirin

A dysbarism injury refers to the signs and symptoms related to changes in: A. rapid descent B. decompression C. rapid ascent D. barometric pressure

D. barometric pressure

By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's: A. pubic bone B. superior diaphragm C. xiphoid process D. belly button

D. belly button

The signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction are caused by the release of: A. histamine B. epinephrine C. leukotrienes D. both histamine and leukotrienes

D. both histamine and leukotrienes

Coordination of place and body movement is controlled by the: A. cerebrum B. brain stem C. medulla D. cerebellum

D. cerebellum

Immediately after delivery of the infant's head, you should: A. suction the baby's mouth and then nose B. suction the baby's nose and then the mouth C. assess the baby's breathing effort and skin color D. check the position of the umbilical cord

D. check the position of the umbilical cord

Vagus nerve stimulators may be an alternative treatment to medication for patients with: A. inherently slow heart rates B. chronic muscle pain and fatigue C. certain psychiatric conditions D. chronic seizure disorders

D. chronic seizure disorders

Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been: A. incident briefing B. lack of personnel C. accountability D. communication

D. communication

A compression injury that is severe enough to cut off blood flow below the injury is called: A. a contusion B. a hematoma C. a local thrombus D. compartment syndrome

D. compartment syndrome

A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n): A. hematoma B. crush injury C. abrasion D. contusion

D. contusion

During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is most important to: A. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes B. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital C. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates D. converse with the patient and provide reassurance

D. converse with the patient and provide reassurance

Signs of a pulmonary blast injury include: A. an irregular pulse B. multiple rib fractures C. vomiting blood D. coughing up blood

D. coughing up blood

During your assessment of a patient who was stabbed, you see an open wound to the left anterior chest. Your MOST immediate action should be to: A. position the patient on the affected side B. transport immediately C. asses the patient for a tension pneumothorax D. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing

D. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing

The frontal and parietal bones of the skull are especially susceptible to: A. linear skull fractures B. basilar skull fractures C. non displaced skull fractures D. depressed skull fractures

D. depressed skull fractures

During a motor vehicle collision involving multiple patients, the incident commander would most likely: A. relinquish command when a senior EMS provider arrives at the scene B. delegate all of the command functions to the appropriate personnel C. maintain responsibility for all of the command functions D. designate a safety officer but retain other command functions

D. designate a safety officer but retain other command functions

Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is most indicative of a ruptured: A. stomach B. aorta C. spleen D. diaphragm

D. diaphragm

The LEAST common cause of death in patients over 65 years of age is: A. stroke B. diabetes C. heart attack D. drug overdose

D. drug overdose

Death from a rollover motor vehicle crash is MOST often secondary to: A. crushing injuries B. airbag-related trauma C. multiple collisions to the interior of the car D. ejection of the patient from the motor vehicle

D. ejection of the patient from the motor vehicle

The purpose of the incident command system (ICS) is to: A. quickly and efficiently respond to natural disasters and terrorist incidents, regardless of the complexity of the incident B. reduce overall mortality and morbidity from large-scale, mass-casualty incidents and to restore key infrastructure C. protect the public from the effects of large- and small-scale disasters and to minimize the financial impact from such incidents D. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources

D. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources

The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: A. restrain the patient B. take vital signs C. obtain proper consent D. ensure your safety

D. ensure your safety

High humidity reduces the body's ability to lose head through: A. convection B. conduction C. radiation D. evaporation

D. evaporation

Geriatric patients. newborns, and infants are especially prone to hyperthermia because they: A. have less body fat B. have relatively smaller heads C. have smaller body surface areas D. exhibit poor thermoregulation

D. exhibit poor thermoregulation

The globe of the eye is also called the: A. lens B. orbit C. retina D. eyeball

D. eyeball

The most common trigger of anaphylaxis is: A. plants B. chemicals C. medications D. food

D. food

You are standing by the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: A. limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only B. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place C. perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety D. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety

D. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety

A distraction injury to the cervical spine would MOST likely occur following: A. a diving accident B. blunt neck trauma C. hyperextension of the neck D. hanging-type mechanisms

D. hanging-type mechanisms

The primary purpose of a "jump kit" is to: A. ensure that you have immediate access to the AED B. have available all of the equipment that you will use in the entire call C. have easy access to manage patients with severe uncontrolled bleeding D. have available all of the equipment that will be used in the first 5 minutes

D. have available all of the equipment that will be used in the first 5 minutes

A sign of kidney damage after blunt trauma is: A. hemoptysis B. hematemesis C. hematochezia D. hematuria

D. hematuria

As a woman approaches menopause: A. she cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels B. she usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding C. her risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease lowers significantly D. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity

D. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity

Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include: A. adrenaline and histamines B. leukocytes and epinephrine C. the bee venom itself D. histamines and leukotrienes

D. histamines and leukotrienes

The ability of a person's cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is most related to: A. how fast his or her heart beats B. the part of the body injured C. his or her baseline blood pressure D. how rapidly he or she bleeds

D. how rapidly he or she bleeds

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should: A. give five rescue breaths and reassess B. triage him or her as expectant C. open the airway and reassess breathing D. immediately check for a pulse

D. immediately check for a pulse

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: A. request law enforcement for traffic control B. begin triage to determine injury severity C. call medical control for further direction D. immediately request additional resources

D. immediately request additional resources

A hiker was injured when he fell approximately 20' from a cliff. When you arrive at the scene, a member of the technical rescue group escorts you to the patient, who is positioned on a steep incline. The most appropriate method of immobilizing and moving the patient to the ambulance is to: A. apply a vest-style immobilization device and move him using a stair chair device B. immobilize him to a long backboard and use the four-person carry to move him C. immobilize him with a short backboard and place him on the ambulance stretcher D. immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher

D. immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher

Which of the following effects does drinking alcohol NOT produce? A. induction of sleep B. Slowing of the reflexes C. Inappropriate behavior D. Increased sense of awareness

D. increased sense of awareness

The most common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: A. stop lights B. stop signs C. railroad crossings D. intersections

D. intersections

In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: A. does not cause pressure within the skull B. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness C. results from a laceration to the brain tissue D. involves physical injury to the brain tissue

D. involves physical injury to the brain tissue

The poison control center will provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center: A. is aware of the patient's age and gender B. knows why the patient overdosed on the drug C. knows the location of the closest hospital D. is aware of the substance that is involved

D. is aware of the substance that is involved

The term primigravida refers to a woman who: A. has had more than one live baby B. has never been pregnant C. has had only one live birth D. is pregnant for the first time

D. is pregnant for the first time

When opening the airway of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, you should use the: A. head tilt-neck lift maneuver B. head tilt-chin lift maneuver C. tongue-jaw lift maneuver D. jaw-thrust maneuver

D. jaw-thrust maneuver

The conjunctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the: A. optic chiasma B. corneal duct C. posterior orbit D. lacrimal gland

D. lacrimal gland

When an auto-injector is used to give epinephrine, the primary injection site is the: A. medial portion of the thigh B. medial part of the buttocks C. lateral portion of the arm D. lateral portion of the thigh

D. lateral portion of the thigh

A man is found slumped over the steering wheel, unconscious and making snoring sounds, after an automobile accident. His head is turned to the side and his neck is flexed. You should: A. gently rotate his head to correct the deformity B. carefully hyperextend his neck to open his airway C. apply an extrication collar with his head in the position found D. manually stabilize his head and move it to a neutral, in-line position

D. manually stabilize his head and move it to a neutral, in-line position

The upper jawbones are called the: A. mastoid B. mandible C. zygoma D. maxillae

D. maxillae

When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the: A. potential energy B. kinetic energy C. index of suspicion D. mechanism of injury

D. mechanism of injury

Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: A. results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full B. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression C. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort D. might decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart

D. might decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart

In contrast to abrupt placenta, placenta previa: A. might not present with heavy vaginal bleeding B. is caused by hypertension or abdominal trauma C. is typically associated with severe abdominal pain D. might present without significant abdominal pain

D. might present without significant abdominal pain

When assessing a stab wound, it is important for the EMT to remember that: A. stabbings to an extremity are rarely associated with an exit wound B. the majority of internal trauma will be near the path of the knife C. most stabbings are unintentional and cause less severe internal injury D. more internal damage may be present than the external wound suggests

D. more internal damage may be present than the external wound suggests

The ______ nerves supply the diaphragm. A. costal B. intercostal C. vagus D. phrenic

D. phrenic

Effective methods for providing pain relief to a child with an extremity injury include: A. separating the child from his or her parents B. avoiding the placement of a splint, if possible C. heat compresses and lowering the injured extremity D. positioning, ice packs, and extremity elevation

D. positioning, ice packs, and extremity elevation

Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, except: A. through drying with a towel B. some form of tactile stimulation C. suctioning of the upper airway D. positive-pressure ventilations

D. positive-pressure ventilations

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should: A. reassess the patient's vital signs B. notify medical control of your action C. record the time and dose given D. properly dispose of the syringe

D. properly dispose of the syringe

A woman has frostbite in both feet after walking several miles in a frozen field. Her feet are white, hard, and cold to the touch. Treatment at the scene should include: A. rubbing her feet gently with your own warm hands B. trying to restore circulation by helping her to walk around C. removing her wet clothing and rubbing her feet briskly with a warm, wet cloth D. removing her wet clothing and covering her feet with dry, sterile dressings

D. removing her wet clothing and covering her feet with dry, sterile dressings

Reflective listening, an assessment technique used when caring for patients with an emotional crisis, involves: A. asking the patient to repeat his or her statements B. simply listening to the patient, without speaking C. asking the patient to repeat everything that you say D. repeating, in question form, what the patient tells you

D. repeating, in question form, what the patient tells you

The need for an extent of newborn resuscitation is based on: A. the 1-minute Apgar score B. the gestation age of the newborn C. the newborn's response to oxygen D. respiratory effort, heart rate, and color

D. respiratory effort, heart rate, and color

A 13-year-old girl is found floating face down in a swimming pool. Witnesses tell you that the girl has been practicing driving. After you and your partner safety enter the water, you should: A. turn her head to the side and give five back slaps B. turn her head to the side and begin rescue breathing C. rotate her entire body as a unity and carefully remove her from the pool D. rotate the entire upper half of her body as a unit, supporting her head and neck

D. rotate the entire upper half of her body as a unit, supporting her head and neck

Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to: A. engorge the brain and cause hemorrhaging B. become thick and spontaneously clot C. attack the bone marrow and destroy cells D. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues

D. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues

A young male has a musculoskeletal injury and is unresponsive. You will NOT be able to assess: A. false motion B. distal pulses C. capillary refill D. sensory and motor functions

D. sensory and motor functions

Bruising to the ______ is least suggestive of child abuse: A. face B. back C. buttocks D. shins

D. shins

You are called to a neatly kept residence for an 80-year-old woman who lives by herself. She burned her hand on the stove and experienced a full-thickness burn. When treating this patient, it is important to note that: A. there is a high likelihood that she has been abused B. isolated full-thickness burns to the hand are not critical burns C. the patient should probably be placed in an assisted-living center D. slowing of reflexes causes a delayed pain reaction in older patients

D. slowing of reflexes causes a delayed pain reaction in older patients

Peritonitis would MOST likely result following injury to the: A. liver B. spleen C. kidney D. stomach

D. stomach

While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: A. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side B. back up and take an alternate route to the scene C. pass the bus only after all the children have exited D. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing

D. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing

If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should: A. transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain B. allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries C. rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma D. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma

D. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious traums

The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with: A. swelling of the lower extremities and weakness B. fever and a cough that produces green sputum C. jugular venous distention and peripheral edema D. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

D. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

When caring for a patient with internal bleeding, the EMT must first: A. ensure a patent airway B. obtain baseline vital signs C. control any external bleeding D. take appropriate standard precautions

D. take appropriate standard precautions

A unique consideration when dealing with a hybrid vehicle is that: A. cutting the battery cables often results in an explosion or fire B. rescue teams should disconnect the positive battery cable first C. you must locate the ignition switch and cut it to prevent a fire D. the battery has higher voltage than a traditional vehicle battery

D. the battery has a higher voltage than a traditional vehicle battery

Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because: A. the caliber of the bullet is frequently unknown B. exit wounds caused by the bullet are usually small C. the area of damage is usually smaller than the bullet D. the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body

D. the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body

An air embolism associated with diving occurs when: A. high water pressure forces air into the mediastinum B. the diver hyperventilates prior to entering the water C. the alveoli completely collapse due to high pressure D. the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent

D. the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent

You should NOT remove an injured football player's helmet if: A. a cervical spine injury is suspected, even if the helmet fits loosely B. the patient has a patent airway, even if he has breathing difficulty C. he has broken teeth, but only if the helmet does not fit snugly in place D. the face guard can easily be removed and there is no airway compromise

D. the face guard can easily be removed and there is no airway compromise

Inflicted bruises are commonly found in all of the following areas, EXCEPT: A. the buttocks B. the lower back C. the inner thighs D. the forearms

D. the forearms

Factors that have the GREATEST impact on the severity of radiation exposure include: A. age and overall health B. gender and wind speed C. the method of dispersal D. time, distance, and shielding

D. time, distance, and shielding

A terrorist would MOST likely use a secondary explosive device: A. to ensure that a structure is completely destroyed B. in case the primary explosive device fails to detonate C. as a means of dispersing a biologic or chemical agent D. to injure rescuers and gain maximum public attention

D. to injure rescuers and gain maximum public attention

The signs and symptoms of poisoning in children: A. usually present within the first 10 minutes of ingestion B. are typically consistent amount all age and weight groups C. are most severe if the child ingested a poisonous substance D. vary widely, depending on the child's age and weight

D. vary widely, depending on the child's age and weight

External bleeding from a vein is relatively easy to control because: A. blood typically oozes from a vein B. veins carry deoxygenated blood C. veins hold smaller volume D. veins are under a lower pressure

D. veins are under a lower pressure

Capillaries link the arterioles and the: A. cells B. veins C. aorta D. venules

D. venules

In older patients, the first indicator of non traumatic internal bleeding might be: A. a low blood pressure B. diaphoresis and pale skin C. a heart rate over 120 beats/min D. weakness or dizziness

D. weakness or dizziness

While en route to a call for a major motor vehicle collision, the MOST important safety precaution(s) that you and your partner can take is/are: A. adhering to standard precautions B. ensuring that the fire department arrives before you C. using lights and siren and being aware of other drivers D. wearing seat belts and shoulder harnesses at all times

D. wearing seat belts and shoulder harnesses at all times

Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when: A. a paramedic is present at the scene B. the reaction produced severe urticaria C. the patient is anxious and tachycardic D. wheezing and hypotension are present

D. wheezing and hypotension are present

When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, your primary concern must be: A. allowing the patient to express himself or herself to you in his or her own words. B. setting your personal feelings aside and providing needed care C. gathering the patient's belongings and taking them to the hospital D. whether the patient will cause harm to you or your partner

D. whether the patient will cause harm to you or your partner

Which of the following organs or structures reside within the mediastinum? - Vena cavae - Lungs - Trachea - Esophagus

Vena cavae, trachea, Esophagus

Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the: A. cervical os B. fallopian tube C. vagina D. uterus

B. fallopian tube

A fractured femur can result in the loss of ______ or more of blood into the soft tissues of the thigh. A. 1 L B. 250 mL C. 500 mL D. 2 L

A. 1 L

A newborn infant will usually begin breathing spontaneously within ______ seconds following birth. A. 15 to 30 B. 3 to 5 C. 5 to 10 D. 30 to 60

A. 15 to 30

Which of the following patients would have the HIGHEST treatment priority at the scene of a mass-casualty incident? A. 24-year-old man who is unconscious, has snoring respirations, and severe burns B. 32-year-old woman who is pulseless and apnea with an abdominal evisceration C. 29-year-old woman who is in full cardiac arrest with massive open chest trauma D. 32-year-old man with an open head injury, exposed brain matter, and no carotid pulse

A. 24-year-old man who is unconscious, has snoring respirations, and severe burns

When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for: A. 3 seconds B. 15 seconds C. 10 seconds D. 8 seconds

A. 3 seconds

Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would most likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph. A. 30 B. 10 C. 20 D. 15

A. 30

How does a disaster differ from a mass-casualty incident? A. Disasters may not involve personal injuries B. In a disaster, EMS may not be on the scene for days or weeks C. Only an elected official can declare a disaster D. All of the above

A. All of the above

Which of the following mechanisms of injury would MOST likely cause a crushing injury of the larynx and/or trachea? A. Attempted suicide by hanging B. Gunshot wound to the lateral neck C. Car crash involving lateral impact D. Patient whose head hits the windshield

A. Attempted suicide by hanging

Which of the following sets of vital signs is LEAST indicative of internal bleeding? A. BP, 140/90 mmHg; pulse rate, 58 beats/min; respirations, 8 breaths/min B. BP, 100/50 mmHg; pulse rate, 120 beats/min; respirations, 24 breaths/min C. BP, 98/60 mmHg; pulse rate, 110 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min D. BP, 102/48 mmHg; pulse rate, 100 beats/min; respirations, 22 breaths/min

A. BP, 140/90 mmHg; pulse rate, 58 beats/min; respirations, 8 breaths/min

Other than person safety equipment, which of the following should be the most readily accessible item in the back of the ambulance? A. Bleeding control supplies B. Stethoscope and penlight C. Emergency childbirth kit D. Long bone splinting device

A. Bleeding control supplies

Which of the following findings would be least suggestive of a head injury? A. Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light B. Failure of the eyes to follow movement of an object C. Failure of the eyes to move in the same direction D. One pupil larger in size than the other pupil

A. Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light

What does the DOPE mnemonic help you to recognize? A. Causes of airway obstruction B. Risk factors for patients using technology assistance C. Questions to ask patients with pacemakers D. A vagal nerve stimulator

A. Causes of airway obstruction

Which of the following is true regarding the legal implications of child abuse? A. EMTs must report all suspected cases of child abuse B. Child abuse must be reported only if it can be proven C. A supervisor can forbid an EMT from reporting possible abuse D. EMTs should document their perceptions on the run form

A. EMTs must report all suspected cases of child abuse

A behavioral crisis is MOST accurately defined as: A. a severe acute behavioral condition in which the patient becomes violent and presents a safety threat to self or to others B. any reaction to events that interferes with activities of daily living or has become unacceptable to the patient, family, or community C. a normal response of a patient to a situation that causes an overwhelming amount of stress, such as the loss of a job or marital problems D. a reaction to a stressful event that the patient feels is appropriate but is considered inappropriate by the patient's family or the community

B. any reaction to events that interferes with activities of daily living or has become unacceptable to the patient, family, or community

When the chest impacts the steering wheel during a motor vehicle crash with rapid deceleration, the resulting injury that kills almost one-third of patients, usually within seconds is: A. a hemothorax B. aortic shearing C. a pneumothorax D. a ruptured myocardium

B. aortic shearing

When applying a tourniquet to an amputated arm, the EMT should: A. use the narrowest bandage possible B. avoid applying the tourniquet over a joint C. cover the tourniquet with a sterile bandage D. use rope to ensure that the tourniquet is tight

B. avoid applying the tourniquet over a joint

When caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning, it is important to remember to: A. prevent contamination of the patient B. avoid contaminating yourself or others C. let the hospital remove the surface poison D. immediately flush dry chemicals with water

B. avoid contaminating yourself or others

The term "hematuria" is defined as: A. blood in the stool B. blood in the urine C. vomiting up blood D. urinary bladder rupture

B. blood in the urine

As you are assessing a 24-year-old man with a large laceration to the top of his head, you should recall that: A. the scalp, unlike other parts of the body, has relatively fewer blood vessels B. blood loss from a scalp laceration may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adults C. any avulsed portions of the scalp should be carefully cut away to facilitate bandaging D. most scalp injuries are superficial and are rarely associated with more serious injuries

B. blood loss from a scalp laceration may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adults

When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should: A. reactive the chemical with 5% vinegar solution B. brush away the chemical before flushing with water C. use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical D. quickly irrigate the arm with large amount of water

B. brush away the chemical before flushing with water

Children with N. meningitides would most likely present with: A. a generalized rash with intense itching B. cherry-red spots or purplish rash C. a low-grade fever and tachycardia D. hypothermia and an irregular pulse

B. cherry-red spots or purplish rash

A two-door passenger car struct a tree while driving approximately 50 mph. The doors are badly damaged and jammed, and the driver appears to be unconscious inside the vehicle. Entering the vehicle by breathing the back window is an example of: A. simple access B. complex access C. technical access D. disentangelement

B. complex access

A 44-year-old man was struck in the back of the head and was reportedly unconscious for approximately 30 seconds. He complains of a severe headache and "seeing stars," and states that he regained his memory shortly before your arrival. His presentation is MOST consistent with a(n): A. contusion B. concussion c. subdural hematoma D. intracerebral hemorrhage

B. concussion

When a person is looking at an object up close, the pupils should: A. dilate B. constrict C. remain the same size D. dilate, and then constrict

B. constrict

The purpose of a jump kit is to: A. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance B. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care C. carry advanced life support equipment proved by the EMS medical director D. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact

B. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care

The primary reason for applying a sterile dressing to an open injury is to: A. prevent contamination B. control external bleeding C. reduce the risk of infection D. minimize any internal bleeding

B. control external bleeding

When a person is exposed to cold temperatures and strong winds for an extended period of time, he or she will lose heat mostly by: A. radiation B. convection C. conduction D. evaporation

B. convection

Airbags are designed to: A. prevent a second collision inside the car B. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries C. prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma D. be used with or without a shoulder harness

B. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries

Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, except: A. swelling B. deformity C. ecchymosis D. guarding

B. deformity

The quickest and MOST effective way to control external bleeding from an extremity is: A. a pressure bandage B. direct pressure and elevation C. a splint D. a tourniquet

B. direct pressure and elevation

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is most effectively controlled with: A. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs B. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings C. ice packs and elevation of the patient's head D. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point

B. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings

When treating an open extremity fracture, you should: A. apply a splint and then dress the wound B. dress the wound before applying a splint C. irrigate the wound before applying a dressing D. allow the material that secures the splint to serve as the dressing

B. dress the wound before applying a splint

The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is: A. aldosterone B. epinephrine C. thyroxine D. insulin

B. epinephrine

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: A. have a false positive home pregnancy test result B. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted C. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours D. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide

B. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted

According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he or she: A. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mmHg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min B. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma C. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury D. was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient is the same vehicle was killed

B. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma

In contrast to a full-term infant, a premature infant: A. is often covered with excess vernix material B. has an even proportionately larger head C. retains heat better because of excess body hair D. is one who is born before 38 weeks' gestation

B. has an even proportionately larger head

Covering a patient's _______ will significantly minimize radiation head loss. A. extremities B. head C. abdomen D. chest

B. head

Signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hemoptysis B. hematemesis C. asymmetric chest movement D. increased pain with breathing

B. hematemesis

A 33-year old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining of neck pain and left leg pain. The vehicle is stable, and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should: A. use the rapid extrication technique B. immobilize him with a vest-style device C. maintain slight traction to his neck area D. apply a full leg splint prior to extrication

B. immobilize him with a vest-style device

In addition to external bleeding, the most significant risk that an open soft-tissue exposes a patient to is: A. vessel damage B. infection C. hypothermia D. nerve damage

B. infection

Most poisonings occur via the _____ route. A. injection B. ingestion C. inhalation D. absorption

B. ingestion

The most common and often most serious ambulance crashes occur at/on: A. stop lights B. intersections C. highways D. stop signs

B. intersections

What purpose does a one-way "flutter valve" serve when used on a patient with an open pneumothorax? A. it prevents air escape from within the chest cavity B. it allows the release of air trapped in the pleural space C. it only prevents air from entering an open chest wound D. it allows air to freely move in and out of the chest cavity

B. it allows the release of air trapped in the pleural space

Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: A. lateral immobilization has been applied B. it causes a problem managing the airway C. the patient adamantly denies neck pain D. sensory and motor functions remain intact

B. it causes a problem managing the airway

Which of the following statements regarding rebound tenderness is correct? A. Rebound tenderness is a specific sign found with a spleen injury B. it is often discovered when the patient is jarred or moved suddenly C. it should be assessed for by vigorously palpating the abdomen D. The absence of rebound tenderness rules out intra-abdominal injury

B. it is often discovered when the patient is jarred or moved suddenly

Common duties and responsibilities of EMS personnel at the scene of a motor vehicle crash include all of the following, except: A. preparing all patients for transportation B. keeping bystanders at a safe distance C. ongoing assessment of critical patients D. assigning all patients a triage category

B. keeping bystanders at a safe distance

Upon delivery of the baby's head you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. You should: A. immediately clamp and cut the cord B. make one attempt to slide the cord over the head C. keep the cord moist and transport as soon as possible D. give the mother high-flow oxygen and transport rapidly

B. make one attempt to slide the cord over the head

A patient tripped, fell, and landed on her elbow. She is in severe pain and has obvious deformity to her elbow. You should: A. assess distal pulses B. manually stabilize her injury C. assess her elbow for crepitus D. apply rigid board splints to her arm

B. manually stabilize her injury

The onset of menstruation is called: A. menopause B. menarche C. ovulation D. bleeding

B. menarche

When a person is lying supine at the end of the exhalation, the diaphragm: A. descends below the level of the navel B. might rise as high as the nipple line C. contracts and flattens inferiorly D. is less prone to penetrating trauma

B. might rise as high as the nipple line

Substance abuse is most accurately defined as: A. willfully using a therapeutic drug to treat a medical illness B. misusing a substance to produce a desired effect C. knowingly selling illicit drugs to buy more drugs D. unwillingly and unknowingly consuming drugs or alcohol

B. misusing a substance to produce a desired effect

Treatment for a semiconscious child who swallowed an unknown quantity of pills includes: A. administering 1 g/kg of activated charcoal and rapidly transporting B. monitoring the child for vomiting, administering oxygen, and transporting C. positioning the child on his left side, elevating his legs 6 inches, and transporting D. contacting medical control and requesting permission to induce vomiting

B. monitor the child for vomiting, administer oxygen, and transporting

Atrophy is a condition that occurs when: A. the tendons that attach muscle to the bone become stretched or injured. B. muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma. C. carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle. D. increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength.

B. muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma.

The first month of life after birth is referred to as the: A. premature phase B. neonatal period C. toddler period D. start of infancy

B. neonatal period

Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials is correct? A. identifying the prescience of a hazardous material is generally very easy because of the consistent use of placards B. some substances are not hazardous by themselves but become toxic when mixed with another chemical C. a package or truck need only contain small quantities of a hazardous chemical before it must bear a placard or label D. most hazardous materials are odorless and colorless, even when a substantial leak or spill has occured

B. some substances are not hazardous by themselves but become toxic when mixed with another chemical

A patient injured her knee while riding a bicycle. She is lying on the ground, has her left leg flexed, is in severe pain, and cannot move her leg. Your assessment reveals obvious deformity to her left knee. Distal pulses are present and strong. The MOST appropriate treatment for her injury involves: A. wrapping her entire knee area with a pillow B. splinting the leg in the position in which it was found C. straightening her leg and applying two rigid board splints D. straightening her leg and applying and inflating an air splint

B. splinting the leg in the position in which it was found

A young male experienced severe blunt chest trauma when his passenger car struck another vehicle head-on. During your inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you would MOST likely find: A. deployed airbag B. steering wheel deformity C. starring of the windshield D. a crushed instrument panel

B. steering wheel deformity

Skeletal muscle is also referred to as: A. smooth muscle B. striated muscle C. autonomic muscle D. involuntary muscle

B. striated muscle

Controlling internal bleeding required: A. applying a tourniquet B. surgery in a hospital C. positioning the patient in the sitting position D. providing slow and considerate transport

B. surgery in a hospital

When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: A. stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired B. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings C. allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill D. leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney

B. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings

When a child experiences a blunt chest injury: A. there is usually obvious injury to the external chest wall B. the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking C. the sudden force against the ribs causes them to fracture D. the flexible rib cage protects the vital thoracic organs

B. the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking

During immobilization of a patient with a possible spinal injury, manual stabilization of the head must be maintained until: A. an appropriate-size extrication collar has been placed B. the patient is fully immobilized on a long backboard C. a range of motion test of the neck has been completed D. pulse, motor, and sensory functions are found to be intact

B. the patient is fully immobilized on a long backboard

When caring for a patient with severe epistaxis, the MOST effective way to prevent aspiration of blood is to: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and lean the patient back B. tilt the patient's head forward while he or she is leaning forward C. place the patient supine with his or her head in the flexed position D. tilt the patient's head forward while he or she is leaning backward.

B. tilt the patient's head forward while he or she is leaning forward

The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: A. reduction B. traction C. stabilization D. immobilization

B. traction

You are dispatched to a bombing along with 15 other ambulances. Upon arriving at the scene, you should stage your ambulance: A. as close to the bombing site as possible B. upwind and uphill from the bombing site C. downwind and uphill from the bombing site D. upwind and downhill from the bombing site

B. upwind and uphill from the bombing site

An infant is premature if it: A. is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 pounds B. weighs less than 5 pounds or is born before 36 weeks' gestation C. weighs less than 5.5 pounds or is born before 37 weeks' gestation D. is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 pounds

B. weighs less than 5 pounds or is born before 36 weeks' gestation

Kinetic energy is a calculation of: A. weight and size B. weight and speed C. mass and weight D. speed and force

B. weight and speed

Signs of an upper airway obstruction in an infant or child include all of the following, except: A. a cough that resembles the bark of a seal B. wheezing C. a weak cough D. stridorous breathing

B. wheezing

A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be trained with a ______ tag during a mass-casualty incident. A. black B. yellow C. red D. green

B. yellow

Which of the following fractures has the greatest potential for internal blood loss and shock? A. Hip B. Pelvis C. Femur D. Humerus

B.. Pelvis

A 4-yea-old girl fell from a second story balcony and landed on her head. She is unresponsive; has slow, irregular breathing; has a large hematoma to the top of her head; and is bleeding from her nose. You should: A. immediately perform a full-body scan to detect other injuries, administer high-flow oxygen and transport at once B. apply a pediatric-sized cervical collar, administer high-flow oxygen via pediatric nonrebreathing mask, and prepare for immediate transport C. manually stabilize her head, open her airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, insert an airway adjunct, and begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device D. suction her airway for up to 1 seconds, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, apply a pediatric-sized cervical collar, and administer oxygen via pediatric nonrebreathing mask

C. manually stabilize her head, open her airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, insert an airway adjunct, and begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device

Your patient is a 21-year-old male who has massive face and head trauma after being assaulted. He is lying supine, is semiconscious, and has blood in his mouth. You should: A. insert a nasal airway, assess his respirations, and give 100% oxygen B. suction his airway and apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mas C. manually stabilize his head, log roll him onto his side, and suction his mouth D. apply a cervical collar, suction his airway, and begin assisting his ventilations

C. manually stabilize his head, log roll him onto his side, and suction his mouth

People at risk for suicide include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. those with a recent diagnosis of a serious illness B. substance abusers C. married males older than 30 years D. children with parents addicted to alcohol

C. married males older than 30 years

Proper removal of a critically injured patient from an automobile involves: A. moving the patient in one fast, continuous step B. utilizing no more than two personnel to avoid crowding C. moving the patient in smooth, slow, controlled steps D. removing the patient by grasping the immobilization device

C. moving the patient is smooth, slow, controlled steps

If a patient with a chest injury only inhales small amounts of air per breath, he or she: A. will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same B. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply C. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume D. often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury

C. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume

While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow-jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lungs fields. This indicates: A. enlargement of the bronchioles in the lungs B. rapid swelling of the upper airway tissues C. narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs D. a significant amount of fluid in the alveoli

C. narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs

Facial injuries should be identified and treated as soon as possible because: A. the spine might be injured as well B. bleeding must be controlled early C. of the risk for airway problems D. swelling might mask hidden injuries

C. of the risk for airway problems

Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of: A. arthritic joints and high-energy trauma B. increased bone density and car crashes C. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma D. acetabular separation and severe falls

C. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma

Potentially like-threatening consequences of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) include: A. bacterial vaginosis and chlamydia B. ovarian cysts and gonorrhea C. ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy D. uterine rupture with severe bleeding

C. ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy

A 30-year-old semiconscious man is pinned by the steering wheel of his badly wrecked vehicle. Once access has been gained to the patient, the EMT should: A. have the fire department disentangle the patient and quickly remove him from the vehicle B. immediately apply high-flow oxygen to the patient and then allow extrication to begin C. perform a primary assessment and provide any needed emergency care prior to extrication D. ensure that the patient is not bleeding significantly before allowing the extrication process to continue

C. perform a primary assessment and provide any needed emergency care prior to extrication

Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of _______ elder abuse. A. psychological B. emotional C. physical D. financial

C. physical

Before positioning an infant or child's airway, you should: A. rule out an injury to the spinal cord B. put padding behind his or her head C. place him or her on a firm surface D. thoroughly suction his or her airway

C. place him or her on a firm surface

A 21-year-old male has a large laceration to his neck. When you assess him, you note that bright red blood is spurting from the left side of his neck. You should immediately: A. apply a pressure dressing to his neck B. sit the patient up to slow the bleeding C. place your gloved hand over the wound D. apply 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask

C. place your gloved hand over the wound

A technique used to gain insight into a patient's thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patient has said, is called: A. intuitive thinking B. passive listening C. reflective listening D. active listening

C. reflective listening

When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury, it is most important to: A. assess circulation distal to the site of the injury B. recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken C. remain alert for more severe underlying injuries D. manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture

C. remain alert for more severe underlying injuries

A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury: A. has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta B. is most likely experiencing severe blood loss C. requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation D. should be placed in Trendelenburg's position

C. requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation

A motorcyclist crashed his bike and has closed deformities to both of his midshaft femurs. He is conscious, but restless; his skin is cool and clammy; and his radial pulses are rapid and weak. The MOST appropriate splinting technique for this patient involves: A. applying rigid board splints B. applying two traction splints C. securing him to a long backboard D. immobilizing his femurs with air splints

C. securing him to a long backboard

You respond to a soccer game for a 16-year-old male with severe ankle pain. When you deliver him to the hospital, the physician tells you that he suspects a sprain. This means that: A. there is a disruption of the joint and the bone ends are no longer in contact B. the patient has an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the bone C. stretching or tearing of the ligaments with partial or temporary dislocation of the bone ends has occurred D. the muscles of the ankle have been severely stretched, resulting in displacement of the bones from the joint

C. stretching or tearing of the ligaments with partial or temporary dislocation of the bone ends has occurred

A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: A. full-thickness burn B. second-degree burn C. superficial burn D. partial-thickness burn

C. superficial burn

When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should: A. refrain from taking a blood pressure B. use a toe-to-head assessment approach C. talk to the child, not just the caregiver D. rely solely on the patient for information

C. talk to the child, not just the caregiver

A 40-year-old man was standing near a building when it exploded. He has multiple injuries, including a depressed skull fracture, severe burns, and an impaled object in his abdomen. His head injury was MOST likely caused by ______ blast injuries. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary

C. tertiary

The reference used as a base for your initial actions at a HazMat incident is/are: A. the bill of lading B. your local EMS protocols C. the Emergency Response Guidebook D. the material safety data sheet (MSDS)

C. the Emergency Response Guidebook

The term "weaponization" is defined as: A. the period of time that a chemical agent will remain on a given surface before it evaporates B. the method or mechanism by which a terrorist or terrorist group delivers a chemical or biologic agent C. the cultivation, synthetization, and/or mutation of an agent in order to maximize the target population's exposure D. the detonation of an explosive device utilizing an item that is inconspicuous, such as a briefcase or suitcase

C. the cultivation, synthetization, and/or mutation of an agent in order to maximize the target population's exposure

EMTs receive a call for a possible sexual assault. The patient is a young female who is conscious and alert and has no apparent injuries. She states, "I can't remember anything, but I know I was raped." The EMTs should suspect that: A. the patient knew her attacker, but is afraid to say B. an underlying head injury is causing her amnesia C. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident D. the traumatic experience has created a mental block

C. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident

Many older victims of physical abuse might make false statements or lie about the origin of their injuries because: A. they are protective of the abuser B. they do not want to be bothersome C. they fear retribution from the abuser D. most elderly patients have dementia

C. they fear retribution from the abuser

After taking Vicodin for 2 years for chronic pain, a 40-year-old woman finds that her usual dosage is no longer effective and goes to the doctor to request a higher dosage. This is an example of: A. addiction B. dependence C. tolerance D. drug abuse

C. tolerance

Two of the MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are: A. watery eyes and localized itching B. hypertension and swollen hands C. urticaria and angioedema D. expiratory stridor and tachycardia

C. urticaria and angioedema

The negative effects associated with anaphylactic shock are the result of: A. severe internal fluid loss B. inadequate pumping of the heart C. vasodilation and bronchoconstriction D. the nervous system's release of adrenaline

C. vasodilation and bronchoconstriction

When caring for a patient with signs of a pneumothorax, your MOST immediate concern should be: A. hypovolemia B. intrathoracic bleeding C. ventilatory inadequacy D. associated myocardial injury

C. ventilatory inadequacy

A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a: A. shunt B. CS tube C. G-tube D. cerebral bypass

S. shunt