Chapter 23-39 for Comprehensive Test
Which of the following is true concerning a stillborn baby? A. Resuscitation must always be attempted. B. Infants born in cardiopulmonary arrest should not be resuscitated. C. The death may occur weeks before delivery. D. The parents should never be allowed to see the baby, especially if it has begun to deteriorate.
The death may occur weeks before delivery.
Concerning aging, which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Some elderly people have a low threshold for pain. B. The systolic blood pressure tends to increase with age. C. Many elderly patients have a high threshold for pain. D. The diastolic blood pressure tends to rise with age.
The diastolic blood pressure tends to rise with age
Which of the following is of concern in a patient who received burns to his hand when he grabbed a live electrical wire? A. The extent of tissue damage may be much greater than it appears on the surface. B. The burning will continue for hours, perhaps days. C. The patient remains an electrocution hazard to rescuers for several minutes after being removed from the source of electricity. D. Toxic gases were inhaled.
The extent of tissue damage may be much greater than it appears on the surface.
Your patient is a 26-year-old female with a history of ectopic pregnancies. She has called 911 for extreme abdominal pain and she is concerned that she has another ectopic pregnancy. Her vital signs are pulse 118, respirations 20, and blood pressure 100/76. Which of the following is true regarding ectopic pregnancies? A. The fertilized egg usually implants in the wall of the uterus. B. It usually occurs during the second trimester. C. It may cause painless bright red bleeding. D. The fallopian tubes cannot stretch to accommodate a fetus.
The fallopian tubes cannot stretch to accommodate a fetus.
46. You are examining a 48-year-old patient who has been burned. You decide to use the rule of palm to measure the extent of the burn. What does this mean? a. The palm of your hand represents 1 percent of the body's surface area. b. The palm of the patient's hand equals about 1 percent of the body's surface area. c. The palm of the patient's hand equals 9 percent of the body's surface area. d. You can only use the rule of palm for children, so you would use the rule of nines instead
The palm of the patient's hand equals about 1 percent of the body's surface area
Which of the following situations may warrant the use of helicopter transport from the scene to a medical facility? A. The patient is in cardiac arrest. B. The distance to the medical facility is 15 minutes away. C. The patient is located in a remote area. D. The patient may go into shock shortly.
The patient is located in a remote area.
You're an off-duty EMT who encounters a patient sitting behind the wheel of a vehicle that ran off the road along an isolated county road. It appears the patient was unrestrained, or not wearing a seat belt, and struck the steering wheel with his chest. On assessment, you notice a paradoxical motion to the patient's chest on inspiration and expiration. When you radio for dispatch of an ambulance, which of the following pieces of information would you be sure to include? A. The patient is showing signs of an open chest injury. B. The patient may have a flail chest. C. The patient may have an abdominal evisceration. D. The patient is showing signs of abdominal bleeding
The patient may have a flail chest.
You have responded to a local pool for a drowning patient. Lifeguards have pulled the patient out of the pool prior to your arrival. You find a 22-year-old male patient unresponsive with agonal respirations and a weak carotid pulse. Bystanders state the patient was not using the diving board and was found in the shallow end. Why are c-spine precautions necessary? A. The patient may have suffered a spinal injury by jumping in shallow water. B. The patient may have suffered a cervical spine injury when pulled out of the water. C. The patient may have been using the diving board after all and injured his cervical spine. D. The patient may have hit his head on the side wall while swimming laps.
The patient may have suffered a spinal injury by jumping in shallow water.
Which of the following statements concerning a concussion is true? A. It is a bruising of the brain tissue. B. The patient may not have any symptoms of the injury. C. It is accompanied by recurrent episodes of unconsciousness. D. All of the above
The patient may not have any symptoms of the injury.
Upon your arrival for a medical call at a private residence, you find an elderly male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. Which of the following findings would provide you with the most valuable information about potential problems this patient may be experiencing? A. The patient's vital signs B. The patient's mental status C. The patient's positioning on the couch D. The temperature in the house
The patient's positioning on the couch
Which of the following BEST describes placenta previa? A. The placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. B. The placenta is implanted over the opening of the cervix. C. The umbilical cord is the presenting part. D. The pregnancy is lost before the 20th week of gestation.
The placenta is implanted over the opening of the cervix
Your patient is a 55-year-old male who was found in the parking lot behind a tavern. He states that he was assaulted and robbed by three individuals. He is complaining of being "hit in the face and kicked and punched in his ribs and stomach." Your examination reveals contusions and swelling around both eyes, bleeding from the nose, a laceration of his upper lip, and multiple contusions of the chest, abdomen, and flanks. Which of the following should cause the greatest concern regarding the prehospital care of this patient? A. Reducing the swelling around his eyes by applying a cold pack B. The possibility of a pneumothorax C. Getting a description of the assailants D. The presence of any defensive wounds the patient may have sustained
The possibility of a pneumothorax
5) Which of the following is characteristic of preschool-age children? A) They may believe their injury is a punishment for being bad. B) They do not mind being separated from their parents. C) They have few fears of anything. D) They are not especially embarrassed or modest about body exposure.
They may believe their injury is a punishment for being bad.
Which of the following is a characteristic of child abusers of special need patients? A. They rarely feel guilt or remorse B. They usually identify with the child's pain and suffering. C. Alcohol and drug abuse is uncommon. D. They usually want the child's injuries treated.
They rarely feel guilt or remorse
Which of the following is responsible for most of the signs and symptoms of early shock? A. Constriction of the peripheral blood vessels B. The body's attempts at compensation for blood loss C. Dilation of the peripheral blood vessels D. Increased respirations of the patient
The body's attempts at compensation for blood loss
Which of the following BEST describes the events that occur during the first stage of labor? A. Expulsion of the fetus through the birth canal B. Expulsion of the placenta C. Thinning and dilation of the cervix D. Rupture of the amniotic sac
Thinning and dilation of the cervix
To which of the following sections of the spine are the ribs attached? A. Cervical B. Lumbar C. Sacral D. Thoracic
Thoracic
Which of the following is a reason that the vehicle doors are removed to extricate the patient rather than pulling the patient through an open window? A. To avoid being cut by glass B. To avoid criticism from bystanders C. To allow for proper spinal immobilization D. To make the interior of the vehicle less accessible
To allow for proper spinal immobilization
Which of the following BEST describes why it is important for the EMT to understand the extrication process? A. To take over the extrication process if requested by the rescue technicians B. To provide direction to the rescue technicians if they appear to be making errors C. To anticipate any dangerous steps in the extrication process D. All of the above
To anticipate any dangerous steps in the extrication process
What is the purpose of a tracheostomy in an ill patient? A. To assist the patient with breathing B. To assist the patient with sleeping C. To assist the patient with waste removal D. To assist the patient with feedings
To assist the patient with breathing
Which of the following is a purpose for carrying sterilized aluminum foil on an ambulance? A. To control major arterial bleeding B. To care for amputated parts C. To keep a newborn warm D. None of the above
To keep a newborn warm
Which of the following is the most important reason for controlling external bleeding? A. To prevent the spread of infectious diseases B. To make clean-up of the ambulance and your equipment easier after the call C. To prevent the patient from becoming upset at the sight of blood D. To prevent hypoperfusion
To prevent hypoperfusion
Which of the following is the primary reason why ambulances should have two oxygen supply systems? A. To have a backup system in the event of failure of the primary system B. To provide oxygen to the patient in the event of vehicle breakdown C. To provide oxygen to two patients at one time D. To ensure a supply of oxygen for long-distance transports
To provide oxygen to two patients at one time
Which of the following types of bandages should NOT be used by the EMT providing wound care? A. Triangular bandage B. Tourniquet C. Self-adherent roller gauze D. Adhesive tape
Tourniquet
Which of the following is an unreliable sign for determining the presence of a tension pneumothorax? A. Distended neck veins B. Signs and symptoms of shock C. Shortness of breath D. Trachea that shifts to the side opposite the injury
Trachea that shifts to the side opposite the injury
As an adult ages, the body experiences changes that cause: A. a decreased compensatory ability. B. disease processes to take place. C. an inability to maintain homeostasis. D. an increased blood pressure.
a decreased compensatory ability.
Disaster plans are a predefined set of instructions that should be written to address the events that are conceivable for: A. the United States including Alaska and Hawaii. B. the contiguous United States. C. a particular location. D. the North American continent.
a particular location.
A command organization in which a single agency controls all resources and operations is: A. an Incident Command System. B. a single incident command. C. an Incident Command. D. a unified command.
a single incident command.
31) Your patient is a 3-year-old male who developed sudden stridor while playing with some of his 5-year-old cousin's toys. The patient is alert and anxious, producing stridor when he cries. His skin is pink and warm, and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. Which of the following is appropriate in the management of this child? A) Perform abdominal thrusts. B) Perform back blows and chest thrusts. C) Attempt a finger sweep to remove the foreign body from the child's airway. D) Transport the child in a restrained car seat with his mother by his side.
Transport the child in a restrained car seat with his mother by his side.
You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 22-year-old female patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient is breathing 28 times a minute. The patient's friends state they were diving when she unexpectedly came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. The nearest hospital is 25 minutes away and the nearest specialty resource center with a hyperbaric chamber is 30 minutes away. What is the best decision when determining transport? a. Transport the patient by ground to the specialty center. b. Transport by air medical to the specialty center. c. Transport to the nearest facility. d. Transport by air medical to the nearest facility
Transport the patient by ground to the specialty center
You are stabilizing a patient who has just been stabbed in the chest to the right of the mediastinum. After placing the patient on supplemental oxygen, his shortness of breath resolves. You also cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. The patient is asymptomatic at the time you're making the decision to transport. Which of the following BEST encapsulates the correct strategy for transport? A. Transport the patient non-emergently because he's complaint free. B. The patient does not necessarily need transport, so allow him to refuse if he wants. C. Begin transport non-emergently and upgrade if the patient's condition deteriorates. D. Transport the patient emergently because of the high index of suspicion for a serious injury.
Transport the patient emergently because of the high index of suspicion for a serious injury.
When transporting patients from the scene of a mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving hospital? A. Incident commander B. Transportation supervisor C. Transporting EMT D. Triage supervisor
Transportation supervisor
Who is the person that is in charge of tracking the patient's final destination? A. Incident Commander B. Transportation supervisor C. Staging supervisor D. Treatment officer
Transportation supervisor
51) Which of the following is the MOST common cause of death in children? A) Environmental emergencies B) Poisonings C) Trauma D) Infectious disease
Trauma
Your patient was working on a car when it fell off the jack and trapped him between the tire and ground. His face is very blue and his eyes are bloodshot. Which of the following has the patient most likely suffered? A. Traumatic asphyxia B. Pneumothorax C. Hemothorax D. Flail chest
Traumatic asphyxia
Which of the following measures is NOT appropriate for a patient with a significant isolated head injury? A. Try to keep the patient from being agitated. B. Keep the patient from becoming overheated. C. Treat for shock by elevating the foot of the backboard. D. Control bleeding from head wounds.
Treat for shock by elevating the foot of the backboard.
While treating a pregnant trauma patient, which of the following is the BEST way to keep the fetus alive? A. Transport the patient to the closest pediatric center. B. Treat the patient as any other trauma patient. C. Do an emergency cesarean section of the fetus. D. Do not put the patient on a spine board to prevent supine hypotensive syndrome.
Treat the patient as any other trauma patient.
Which of the following methods should the EMT use first to attempt to access a patient in a vehicle while awaiting arrival of a rescue crew? A. Use a spring-loaded punch to break the rear window. B. Try all of the vehicle's doors to see if they will open. C. Use a heavy tool to break the window closest to the patient. D. Use a pry-bar to release the Nader pin in the door latch.
Try all of the vehicle's doors to see if they will open.
If the baby's umbilical cord is noted to be wrapped around his neck after the head is delivered, which of the following should be done? A. Clamp the cord in two places, but do not cut it until the baby is delivered. B. Immediately cut the cord before delivering the baby. C. Try to slip the cord over the baby's head and shoulder. D. Transport emergently without further intervention.
Try to slip the cord over the baby's head and shoulder.
Which of the following serious health problems is related to homelessness? A. Hypertension B. Tuberculosis C. Heart disease D. Liver disease
Tuberculosis
You are on the scene of a vehicle collision involving a downed power line. You are walking in an area you feel is a safe distance from the line and begin to feel a tingling sensation in your feet. Which of the following would be a proper method of ensuring your safety while exiting the area? A. Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and quickly run to a safe location. B. Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and hop to a safe place on one foot. C. Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area. D. Turn 90 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area
Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area
Where should a constricting band be placed to reduce lymphatic flow after a venomous snake bite? A. Two inches above the bite B. Two inches below the bite C. Two inches above and two inches below the bite D. None of the above; constricting bands should not be used.
Two inches above and two inches below the bite
The U.S. Department of Transportation has issued specifications for all of the following types of ambulances except: A. Type IV. B. Type I. C. Type III. D. Type II.
Type IV.
Which of the following personal protective items must be used by EMS personnel caring for patients in a hazardous materials emergency? A. Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls B. Structural firefighting gear C. Chemical permeable gloves D. HEPA mask
Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls
You are on the scene of a riot following a decision in a controversial court case. A large group of people have set fire to vehicles, broken windows, and assaulted people in the area. Which of the following would be the BEST method of incident command? A. Unified command B. Singular command by EMS C. Singular command by law enforcement D. Singular command by fire service
Unified command
Which patient is the most unstable? A. Patient who only responds to verbal stimuli B. Unresponsive patient with tachycardia C. Unresponsive patient with hypotension D. Patient responsive to painful stimuli only
Unresponsive patient with hypotension
The maxillae form which of the following structures? A. Forehead B. Lower jaw C. Upper jaw D. Cheek bones
Upper jaw
52) Which of the following is LEAST common in a pedestrian child versus car incident? A) Spinal injuries B) Abdominal injuries C) Upper-extremity injuries D) Head injuries
Upper-extremity injuries
Which of the following is recommended in situations in which a tourniquet must be used? A. Apply the tourniquet over the elbow or knee. B. the tourniquet as soon as bleeding is controlled to minimize further damage to the limb. C. Apply a bulky dressing and bandage over the tourniquet. D. Use a material that is wide and thick.
Use a material that is wide and thick.
Your patient is a 16-year-old male who ran his truck off of the road and into a ditch. He was driving just fast enough to cause the air bag to deploy when he hit the ditch. He is complaining of some neck and shoulder pain. His vital signs are respirations 20, pulse 110, blood pressure 116/80, and pupils equal and reactive. How should you manage this patient? A. Use a short spine board or vest device, then transfer him to a long spine board. B. Perform a rapid extrication and spinal immobilize him on a long spine board. C. Place him on oxygen, and then slowly move him to the stretcher. D. Apply a cervical collar, and then rotate him to a long spine board.
Use a short spine board or vest device, then transfer him to a long spine board.
Which of the following is required in the management of all open soft-tissue injuries? A. Provision of high-concentration oxygen B. Use of Standard Precautions by the EMT C. Cervical spine precautions D. Application of a disinfectant solution
Use of Standard Precautions by the EMT
If the baby's head is delivered with the amniotic sac still intact, which of the following should be done first? A. Call medical control before taking action. B. Use the scissors in the obstetrics kit to cut the sac away from the baby's head. C. Use your fingers to tear the sac away from the baby's face. D. Leave the sac intact until the entire body is delivered.
Use your fingers to tear the sac away from the baby's face.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way of controlling external bleeding? A. Using an ice pack B. Running cold water over the wound C. Elevating the affected part D. Using direct pressure with a dressing
Using direct pressure with a dressing
Which of the following is the MOST common type of rescue across the United States? A. Hazardous materials response B. Farm rescue C. Vehicle rescue D. Water rescue
Vehicle rescue
Which of the following types of vessels have valves to maintain one-way blood flow? A. Capillaries B. Arterioles C. Arteries D. Veins
Veins
Your patient has had his throat slashed during a robbery attempt. You are concerned since it is apparent that the vessels in his neck have been lacerated. A breach in which of the following vessels would be most likely to lead to an air embolism? A. Veins B. Arterioles C. Capillaries D. Arteries
Veins
A patient uses a home ventilator connected to his tracheostomy tube to breathe. Which of the following is the correct procedure to use when moving this patient to the ambulance? A. Ventilate the patient's tracheostomy tube via a connected bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator. B. Ventilate the patient with mouth-to-mask ventilations at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator. C. Ventilate the patient's nose and mouth with a bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator. D. Do nothing; there is no need to ventilate the patient between the house and the ambulance.
Ventilate the patient's tracheostomy tube via a connected bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.
Rough handling of a patient with severe hypothermia may result in which of the following? A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Seizures C. Heart attack D. Rewarming shock
Ventricular fibrillation
Which of the following is a type of chemical weapon? A. Bomb containing radioactive material B. Vesicants C. Plastic explosives D. Bacterial toxin
Vesicants
Which of the following groups of people makes up the largest portion of the homeless population? A. Females B. Families C. Veterans D. Children
Veterans
Reducing the pain of a marine animal sting can be accomplished by rinsing the affected area with which of the following? A. Sterile saline solution B. Gasoline or kerosene C. Cold water D. Vinegar
Vinegar
When involved in a multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the following? A. Setting up a triage center from the back of your ambulance B. Staying on station until called upon to receive a patient C. Keeping a log of all patients transported D. Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated sector officer
Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated sector officer
Where is the decon corridor located where patients, personnel, and equipment are decontaminated? A. Cool zone B. Warm zone C. Cold zone D. Hot zone
Warm zone
You are at the scene of a vehicle collision on an interstate highway. There are two cars involved and both are out of the lanes against the median wall. As an EMS provider, what is your primary safety concern? A. Ensuring the patient is properly packaged for transport B. Searching for sharp edges of broken glass and torn metal C. Evaluating the risk of fire caused by ruptured fuel lines D. Watching for distracted drivers who are driving past the scene
Watching for distracted drivers who are driving past the scene
Disaster plans are a predefined set of instructions that should be written to address the events that are conceivable for a particular location and which other three parts? A. Written, realistic, and rehearsed B. Written, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed C. Well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed D. Well publicized, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed
Well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed
43) Which of the following is an early sign of respiratory distress in an 18-month-old patient? A) Wheezing B) Heart rate of 60 beats per minute C) Drowsiness D) Respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute
Wheezing
28) You are dispatched to a 1-year-old child with respiratory distress. En route, you review how to assess and treat infants with respiratory problems. Which of the following would indicate an infant with respiratory distress? A) Wheezing upon inspiration B) Respiratory rate of 30 C) Capillary refill time of 2 seconds D) Abdominal movement when breathing
Wheezing upon inspiration
At which point may manual stabilization of the cervical spine be terminated? A. When the patient is secured to a long backboard B. After a cervical collar has been applied C. After a short immobilization device has been applied D. Only when directed to do so by medical control
When the patient is secured to a long backboard
Which of the following does NOT have an impact on the behavior of a chemical in a mass-casualty incident? A. Route of entry into the body B. Whether it was an intentional or accidental exposure C. Physical state of the agent D. Volatility of the agent
Whether it was an intentional or accidental exposure
Which of the following is the first concern when you are caring for a patient who has been in a vehicle collision? A. Your own safety B. Treating life-threatening injuries C. Preserving evidence, such as alcohol beverage bottles and vehicle positioning D. Helping law enforcement get the driver's name and insurance information
Your own safety
Failure to formally transfer the patient to medical staff in the emergency department could place the EMT in danger of being held liable for: A. patient endangerment. B. false imprisonment. C. abandonment. D. unlawful consent.
abandonment
To assess skin temperature for a possibly hypothermic patient, the EMT should place the back of his hand against which part of the patient's body? A. Forehead B. Cheek C. Abdomen D. Inner wrist
abdomen
A wound in which the epidermis is scraped away with minimal bleeding, such as commonly occurs when a child falls on his knees on a sidewalk, is called a(n): a abrasion. b contusion. c avulsion. d evisceration.
abrasion.
While assessing the mental status of an elderly patient who has been retired for several years, you notice he has difficulty answering your questions. He seems depressed. Based on this information, you should: A. consider the need for advanced provider care. B. suspect a life-threatening neurological event. C. consider his mental status as being decreased. D. acknowledge the patients fears and try to put them in perspective.
acknowledge the patients fears and try to put them in perspective.
Applying an external source of heat to the patient's body to rewarm him is called ________ rewarming. A. central B. active C. endogenous D. peripheral
active
The main perpetrators of elder abuse are: A. adult children B. grandchildren C. brothers and sisters D. spouses
adult children
Stabilizing a vehicle is unnecessary when a vehicle is on its roof with: A. all roof supports collapsed. B. the front edge of the hood in contact with the ground. C. the trunk lid in contact with the ground. D. the vehicle horizontal and resting entirely on the roof.
all roof supports collapsed.
Terrorist incidents typically involve all of the following agents except: A. allergens. B. biological agents. C. nuclear agents. D. explosives.
allergens.
61) Prehospital management of the abused child includes all of the following except: A) treating all injuries. B) eliciting a complete history from child and parents. C) allowing parent to drive child to hospital. D) reporting your findings to the emergency department staff.
allowing parent to drive child to hospital.
When interviewing the elderly patient, the EMT can increase the accuracy of the information he or she gains by: A. allowing sufficient time for the patient to answer. B. speaking louder than normal. C. having his or her partner assist with asking questions. D. asking multiple questions at the same time.
allowing sufficient time for the patient to answer.
When placing cribbing: A. kneel on both knees for stabilization. B. always squat, so you can move away quickly. C. kneel on one knee only so you can move away quickly. D. kneel or squat as necessary.
always squat, so you can move away quickly.
The KKK standards deal with: A. minimum standard medical protocols. B. training and education of field personnel. C. air evacuation of trauma victims. D. ambulance safety and design.
ambulance safety and design.
Dangerous organisms that can grow in a variety of environments and are capable of producing toxic substances are known as: A. biologicals. B. bacteria. C. toxins. D. viruses.
bacteria
You respond to a landing zone to pick up a skier who was lost in the woods for 36 hours and found by the search and rescue helicopter. Your patient is a 19-year-old male patient. He is alert and oriented to time, person, place, and event. He is covered in blankets and shivering. He complains of not being able to feel his fingers. Physical exam reveals that the fingers of both extremities have a waxy appearance and feel "frozen" on the surface. After treating the patient for potential hypothermia and rapid transport, your next action is to: A. bandage the digits. B. actively rewarm the digits. C. gently warm the digits by slowly massaging them. D. keep the digits frozen on ice until they can be properly rewarmed at the hospital.
bandage the digits
When resuscitating a hypothermic patient in cardiac arrest, resuscitation attempts must continue until the patient has: A. been ventilated for at least 30 minutes with an oropharyngeal airway in place. B. developed rigor mortis. C. been defibrillated a total of nine times. D. been rewarmed.
been rewarmed
Your patient is a 17-year-old male baseball player found pulseless and apneic after being struck in the chest by a baseball 6 minutes ago. He is surrounded by other players and staff but no one is providing care. You should: A. attach the AED and analyze. B. place him on a backboard. C. begin chest compressions. D. elevate the patient's legs.
begin chest compressions.
You are treating a patient with paradoxical motion on the left side of the chest. He is breathing shallow at a rate of 4 breaths per minute. You should: A.roll the patient onto his left side. B. apply a bulky dressing to the chest. C. administer 15 lpm oxygen via mask. D. begin positive pressure ventilation.
begin positive pressure ventilation.
6) You have been called for a 2-year-old female who has fallen and is bleeding from a head laceration. Her mother states that she was running down the hallway when she fell, striking her head on a side table. You suspect that part of the reason she fell is that: A) her head is proportionately larger and heavier than an adult's. B) she has low blood sugar, making her unstable. C) she is still new to walking and may be unstable on her feet. D) both A and C are contributing factors.
both A and C are contributing factors.
When informing someone of the death of a loved one due to a multiple-casualty incident, you should use the term: A. expired B. sickly C. dead D. passed away.
dead
The term gangrene means tissue: A. damage. B. discoloration. C. infection. D. death.
death
The elderly patient will most likely experience ________ as he or she continues to age. A. decreased chewing difficulty B. increased food absorption C. increased stomach acid secretion D. decreased intestinal tract movement
decreased intestinal tract movement
You are palpating the abdomen of a motor vehicle collision patient when you feel a pulsing mass. You should: A. defer further abdominal palpation. B. apply cold packs to the abdomen. C. ask your partner to verify your findings. D. bind the abdomen with an elastic bandage
defer further abdominal palpation.
When extrication will involve cutting the roof off a vehicle, stabilization of the vehicle should include: A. placing chocks on both sides of at least two wheels. B. deflating all tires by slashing them. C. deflating all tires by pulling the valve stems. D. placing wheel chocks on both sides of all wheels.
deflating all tires by pulling the valve stems.
A segment of the body associated with a specific nerve coming from the spinal cord, along which shingles can appear, is called a: A. myelin sheath. B. motor unit. C. dermatome. D. zoster.
dermatome
A condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living is referred to as a: A. developmental disability. B. physical handicap. C. special need. D. disability.
disability
The type of radiation that requires lead shielding for your protection is: A. gamma. B. beta. C. alpha. D. delta.
gamma.
You have delivered a newborn and wrapped the baby in a dry blanket. During your reassessment of the mother, you note continued moderate vaginal bleeding. Care for this bleeding may involve all of the following EXCEPT: A. elevating the mother's feet. B. massaging the uterus to control bleeding. C. having the mother squeeze her legs together to provide direct pressure. D. applying firm pressure with a sanitary napkin over the vaginal opening.
having the mother squeeze her legs together to provide direct pressure.
You respond to a construction site on a very hot summer day for a person "not acting right." You find a 44-year-old male patient seated in a work vehicle with the air conditioner on maximum. Coworkers state the patient was working for the last 2 hours pouring concrete when he started "speaking gibberish" and nearly collapsed. The patient is responsive to verbal stimuli. Your initial vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 136, and respiratory rate 24. The patient's skin is cool to the touch and dry, but his shirt is wet with visible salt rings. You suspect: A. heat cramps. B. hypernatremia. C. heat exhaustion. D. myocardial infarction
heat exhaustion
Localized cold injury occurs due to vasoconstriction and: A. chemical imbalance in the tissues. B. blood clots. C. ice crystal formation in the tissues. D. loss of calcium.
ice crystal formation in the tissues.
Your 38-year-old male patient has been injured in an assault. He has several facial lacerations and a large knot on his head. Bystanders say that he was thrown over a large table and landed on his head and shoulder. As part of your scene size-up and primary assessment, you should: A. wait for ALS to treat the patient. B. complete an initial set of vital signs. C. splint any other bone or joint injuries. D. immobilize his cervical spine.
immobilize his cervical spine.
Secondary injuries from a blast most likely include: A. liver lacerations. B. extremity fractures. C. lung injuries. D. impaled objects.
impaled objects
The pathophysiology of ________ is one in which the pericardial sac fills with blood to the point where the chambers of the heart no longer fill adequately, usually secondary to trauma. A. cardiac tamponade B. hemopneumothorax C. pericardial effusion D. commotio cordis
cardiac tamponade
Your patient has been injured by a fall down a flight of steps. He is alert and oriented but complains of back and neck pain. You spinal immobilize him on a long spine board with a cervical collar on his neck as a precaution because you know that the: A. coccyx is easily dislocated. B. cervical spine is the most vulnerable part of the spine. C. lumbar area is rarely injured due to the rib support. D. thoracic spine is especially vulnerable to injury.
cervical spine is the most vulnerable part of the spine.
When managing an electrical burn, the EMT should: A. always attempt to remove the patient from the electrical source. B. quickly check the pulse, even if the patient is still in contact with the electrical source. C. check for a source and ground burn injury. D. never attempt CPR unless it is within 4 minutes of contact.
check for a source and ground burn injury.
A young female was injured in an automobile wreck, striking her head on the windshield. She is unconscious and her breathing is irregular. She is bleeding from a scalp wound, but your assessment shows that her cranium is intact. Her vital signs are pulse 68, blood pressure 148/90, and her pupils are unequal. You should suspect a(n): A. open head injury. B. contusion. C. closed head injury. D. concussion.
closed head injury.
The mechanism of injury in which a patient's chest has struck an immovable object, such as a steering wheel, may most accurately be described as a(n): A. penetrating injury. B. coup contrecoup injury. C. compression injury. D. open trauma injury.
compression injury.
The use of a made-up experience to replace lost memories with imaginary ones is called: A. hysteria. B. denial. C. confusion. D. confabulation.
confabulation
While interviewing your patient, she tells you that her husband will be back from the store shortly and can get you a list of her medications. Her daughter tells you that the patient's husband died 15 years ago. This situation is known as: A. confabulation. B. imagination. C. hallucination. D. contemplation.
confabulation
Chloe was born with a cardiac problem that she will have to manage the rest of her life. This disease is considered to be: A. genetic. B. congenital. C. acquired. D. autoimmune.
congenital
An injury in which the epidermis remains intact, but blood vessels and cells in the dermis are injured, is called a(n): A. contusion. B. abrasion. C. concussion. D. avulsion.
contusion.
Your patient has an open abdominal wound with intestines protruding. You should: A. cover the organs with moist sterile dressings. B. cover the entire abdomen with a blanket. C. leave them alone and transport rapidly. D. attempt to place the organs back into the abdomen.
cover the organs with moist sterile dressings.
You have covered an open chest wound with your gloved hand and the patient's breathing has improved. In order to free your hand to provide further care, you should: A.cover the wound with a sterile dressing. B. remove your hand to see if the wound has closed. C. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. D. apply a bulky dressing over the wound.
cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.
The sound or feeling of the ends of broken bones rubbing together is called: A. crepitus. B. krepitus C crapilation D. breakilation.
crepitus
Two elements that differentiate a hazardous materials incident from a terrorist incident are: A. weapons of mass destruction and a political agenda. B. crime scene considerations and targeting responders. C. targeting responders and weapons of mass destruction (WMD). D. targeting responders and a political agenda.
crime scene considerations and targeting responders.
An injury caused by heavy pressure to the tissues, such as when an extremity is trapped under a fallen tree, that results in damage to muscle cells and the accumulation of waste products in the tissue is called a(n): A. crush injury. B. evisceration. C. contusion. D. abrasion.
crush injury.
When responding to an emergency located on an interstate highway in a medium-duty ambulance, the vehicle should be positioned: A. to one side of the damaged vehicles for easy egress. B. across as many lanes as possible to block oncoming traffic. C. in a safe location in the emergency lane of the interstate. D. in the same direction as other response vehicles in a single line.
in the same direction as other response vehicles in a single line.
19) All of the following are normal parental reactions to a child suffering from a sudden life-threatening illness or injury except: A) anger. B) denial. C) indifference. D) guilt.
indifference.
Tests have shown that ________ ambulance operators tend to speed up by 10 to 15 miles per hour when the siren is sounding. A. inexperienced B. privately employed C. younger D. experienced
inexperienced
Standard management of a chemical burn caused by a terrorist incident includes: A. leaving any corrosive materials on the skin. B. rinsing the area with ice water. C. using a neutralizing agent. D. irrigating vigorously with cool water.
irrigating vigorously with cool water.
Common signs and symptoms following an injury to a hollow abdominal organ include: A. massive hemorrhage. B. increasing intrathoracic pressures. C. absence of unilateral pulses. D. irritation and peritonitis.
irritation and peritonitis.
Cold is sometimes used to help control bleeding. When using cold, the following guidelines and statements are true except: A. it should not be left in place for more than 20 minutes. B. it should be applied directly to the skin; it will not be effective if anything is between the cold agent and the wound. C. it should not be used alone but rather in conjunction with other manual techniques. D.it will reduce pain.
it should be applied directly to the skin; it will not be effective if anything is between the cold agent and the wound.
You respond for an imminent delivery of a baby in the breech position. As you examine the mother, you see that the umbilical cord is protruding from the opening of the cervix. You realize that the most important care you can provide for this baby is to: A. wrap the cord to prevent heat loss. B. provide oxygen to the mother. C. gently push the cord back into the vaginal space. D. keep the baby off of the cord.
keep the baby off of the cord.
You are transporting a resident of a nursing home to the hospital for a complaint of abdominal pain for 3 days. During your assessment, you note a tube protruding from the patient's nose, which is connected to a bag of milky-white fluid. This tube is known as a: A. gastric tube. B. tracheal tube. C. J-tube. D. nasogastric tube.
nasogastric tube.
When disconnecting a battery cable to disrupt a vehicle's electrical system, the EMT should disconnect the: A. negative cable from the battery. B. negative cable from the alternator. C. positive cable from the battery. D. positive cable from the alternator.
negative cable from the battery.
After responding to the scene of a patient complaining of difficulty breathing, you and your partner determine that the patient's condition is not life threatening based on a thorough assessment. You should transport the patient to an appropriate medical facility with: A. both lights and siren activated. B. neither lights nor siren activated. C. the emergency lights off, but activating the siren when traffic builds. D. the emergency lights on, but without activating the siren.
neither lights nor siren activated.
After responding to the scene of a patient complaining of difficulty breathing, you and your partner determine that the patient's condition is not life threatening based on a thorough assessment. You should transport the patient to an appropriate medical facility with: A. the emergency lights off, but activating the siren when traffic builds. B. both lights and siren activated. C. neither lights nor siren activated. D. the emergency lights on, but without activating the siren.
neither lights nor siren activated.
Your patient has a suspected cervical spine injury from falling from a rope swing. His vital signs are pulse 62, respirations 20, and blood pressure 90/56. He has no feeling below his mid-chest area but is able to breathe on his own. You should suspect: A. hypovolemic shock. B. cardiogenic shock. C. neurogenic shock. D. psychogenic shock.
neurogenic shock.
You are at the scene of a vehicle collision and have found that there is one patient who is in stable condition. At this point, the call can be categorized as: A. an unfounded call. B. a non-incident. C. no longer a true emergency. D. a refusal.
no longer a true emergency
You are called for a man who is not acting right. His wife says he was outside working in the garden but didn't come in for lunch when he was called. She went to check on him and found him sitting next to a stump, confused. You assessment shows a pulse rate of 58, blood pressure of 186/82, respirations of 16, and one of his pupils is dilated. You are unable to detect any signs of trauma and you don't see any obvious indication that he has fallen. You should suspect a(n): A. open head injury. B. closed head injury. C. insecticide poisoning. D. nontraumatic brain injury.
nontraumatic brain injury.
45) You have determined that your patient, a 6-year-old boy, most likely has epiglottitis. He has developed a high fever and appears very ill. You realize that this is a serious illness and you need to handle your patient carefully. You should: A) check his temperature regularly. B) not place anything in his mouth. C) give him ice chips to suck on. D) have him lie down with his head elevated.
not place anything in his mouth.
You are transporting a patient who is experiencing frequent discharges of her automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). En route to the hospital you are caring for the patient in the back of the ambulance. To protect yourself from being shocked if the defibrillator discharges, you should: A. wear protective gloves that cannot conduct electricity. B. limit direct contact with the patient. C. not worry, since the defibrillator does not pose a danger to others. D. make sure you do not touch the patient directly.
not worry, since the defibrillator does not pose a danger to others.
The safest way to extinguish a road flare is to: A. pick it up and rub it onto the ground. B. let it burn out. C. douse it with a fire hose. D. pick it up and snuff it out with a gloved hand.
let it burn out.
While transporting a patient who has an indwelling Foley catheter, it is important to keep the collection bag: A. higher than the level of the patient. B. level with the patient. C. with the patient's caregiver. D. lower than the level of the patient.
lower than the level of the patient.
Primary injuries from a blast include: A. impaled objects. B. lung injuries. C. liver lacerations. D. extremity fractures.
lung injuries.
To determine the appropriate depth an EMT should insert a catheter tip into a tracheostomy tube in order to clear a blocked airway, the EMT should: A. insert the catheter until the tip is no longer visible. B. measure from the stoma to the carina. C. measure against the length of the obturator. D. multiply the internal diameter of the tracheal tube by 10.
measure against the length of the obturator.
As an EMT, your BEST clue indicating the possibility of internal bleeding may be the presence of: A. the absence of a tender, rigid, or distended abdomen. B. mechanism of injury. C. painful, swollen, or deformed extremities. D. bruising, swelling, or pain over vital organs.
mechanism of injury
Of the following patients, which injury is the highest priority to receive bag-valve-mask ventilations? A. 70-year-old male who struck his head when he fell in the parking lot, has a large laceration on his forehead, and is disoriented B. 25-year-old male who regained consciousness one or two minutes after being struck on the head by a baseball bat and is now asking repetitive questions C. 15-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle, struck her head on a tree, and displays decerebrate movements in response to painful stimuli D. 25-year-old female victim of battery who is awake but complains of a headache and has bloody fluid draining from her nose and left ear
15-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle, struck her head on a tree, and displays decerebrate movements in response to painful stimuli
An oxygen level of ________ is required for normal breathing. A. 16.5% B. 10.5% C. 25.5% D. 19.5%
19.5%
You respond to a major automobile collision involving multiple patients. Which of the following patients would receive Priority 1 transport? A. 6-year-old with lower leg fracture and normal vital signs B. 25-year-old with abdominal bruising and signs of shock C. 68-year-old with mild respiratory distress and seat belt burns D. 45-year-old with no vital signs
25-year-old with abdominal bruising and signs of shock
For which of the following patients would the use of a short spine immobilization device be appropriate? A. 15-year-old male who struck a curb with his motorized scooter and flipped over the handlebars B. 52-year-old female who crashed her vehicle into the front of a convenience store and who is awake, oriented, and complaining of neck pain C. Unresponsive driver who was found in the driver's seat of a pickup truck that crashed into a tree D. 77-year-old female who fell down a flight of stairs and is in an awkward position lying on her side on the landing
52-year-old female who crashed her vehicle into the front of a convenience store and who is awake, oriented, and complaining of neck pain
You are on the scene of a church bus rollover collision. There are 30 passengers involved. As triage officer, which one of the following patients should you assign the highest priority? A. 30-year-old man with multiple lower extremity fractures who is awake, has a strong radial pulse, and is complaining of severe pain B. 70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side C. Unresponsive 9-year-old male with an open skull fracture who is in cardiac arrest D. 35-year-old pregnant woman with a cut on her head, neck pain, and numbness and tingling in her arms
70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side
You are treating an unresponsive homeless patient found in an alley. During your assessment you notice bruising behind both ears, which is known as which of the following? A. Warrior's signs B. Fatigue signs C. Soldier's signs D. Battle's signs
Battle's signs
You are en route to the trauma center with a patient who was injured when he was thrown from a horse. You suspect multiple trauma injuries including a closed head injury. You will monitor his mental status using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) per your protocols. Which of the following will you check? A. Speech patterns, motor patterns, and mental status B. Motor response, verbal response, and attentiveness C. Eye-opening, motor response, and verbal response D. Verbal responses, motor skills, and mental status
Eye-opening, motor response, and verbal response
What are the three elements of the Revised Trauma Score? A. Level of consciousness, systolic blood pressure, and pulse rate B. GCS, pulse rate, and respiratory rate C. GCS, systolic blood pressure, and respiratory rate D. GCS, systolic blood pressure, and pulse rate
GCS, systolic blood pressure, and respiratory rate
Because of the extra equipment now placed on ambulances for specialty rescue, advanced life support, and hazardous materials operations, their gross vehicle weight has been easily exceeded in some communities. This has necessitated introduction of a ________ truck chassis built for rugged durability and large storage and work areas. A. Medium-duty B. Type I C. Type III D. Type II
Medium-duty
Which of the following describes the proper position of the patient's head for spinal immobilization? A. Stabilized in position found B. Chin tilted upward for airway maintenance C. The "sniffing" position D. Neutral, in-line "eyes forward" position
Neutral, in-line "eyes forward" position
Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) is a system that relies on some simple commands and what three physiologic parameters? A. Respiration, sensory, and motor status B. Respiration, pulse, and mental status C. Respiration, pain, and mental status D. Circulation, sensory, and motor status
Respiration, pulse, and mental status
What are three elements of successful trauma care that field practitioners can use which will ultimately translate into greater rates of survival? A. Ground ambulances, air helicopters, and trauma centers B. Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury C. Teamwork, timing, and transport D. Lights, sirens, and diesel
Teamwork, timing, and transport
Which of the following is the correct sequence for securing the straps on a long spine board? A. Head, torso, legs B. Legs, torso, head C. Torso, legs, head D. Head, legs, torso
Torso, legs, head
Which of the following are desirable characteristics of the safe or "cold" zone in a hazardous materials incident? A. Downwind, uphill from the spill B. Downwind, downhill from the spill C. Upwind, uphill from the spill D. Upwind, on the same level as the spill
Upwind, on the same level as the spill
You arrive on the scene of an unknown emergency. As you scan the surrounding area, you notice a large number of people wearing unique armbands and shouting anti-government comments though you are not aware of any public gathering scheduled for today. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of: A. the timing of the event. B. the type of event. C. the location of the call. D. on-scene warning signs.
on-scene warning signs.
Three methods for minimizing exposure to harmful incidents are: A. technique, distance, and serum. B. time, decontamination, and shielding. C. time, distance, and shielding. D. time, decontamination, and serum.
time, distance, and shielding.
Your patient has sustained a serious laceration to his neck. He appears to have lost a lot of blood and you are considering how you will control the bleeding. Your primary treatment should be to place a(n): A. pressure dressing. B. dry, sterile dressing. C. occlusive dressing. D. bulky dressing.
occlusive dressing.
Your patient is a 16-year-old centerfielder on his high school baseball team. He was injured when he and the left fielder collided trying to catch a fly ball. He is disoriented and is unable to tell you what happened. His vital signs are pulse 88, blood pressure 132/86, respiratory rate 16, and pupils equal. As you assess his head, you do not see any cuts or bleeding, but you feel a spongy, depressed area over his left ear. You should suspect a(n): A. closed head injury. B. skull injury. C. open head injury. D. direct injury.
open head injury.
The process of combining the patient and patient-carrying device into a unit ready for moving and transporting the patient is called: A. immobilizing. B. packaging. C. loading. D. wrapping.
packaging
Blood at the meatus of the penis (opening of the urethra) is a sign of: A. spinal fracture or injury. B. pelvic trauma/fracture. C. pelvic dislocation syndrome. D. priapism.
pelvic trauma/fracture.
You are caring for an unconscious 80-year-old trauma patient. You note the patient has dentures. You first action in managing this patient should be: A. perform a jaw thrust as needed. B. remove the dentures. C. prepare to insert an oral airway. D. tilt the head to a sniffing position.
perform a jaw thrust as needed.
42) You are called for a 6-year-old girl who is not well. Her mother says that the child has been sick for several days but today she has had trouble keeping her daughter awake. You note that the girl's capillary refill time is 4 seconds and she has a skin rash. The MOST important part of your assessment will be to: A) determine if she has a fever. B) get a full SAMPLE history. C) determine her level of consciousness. D) recognize any respiratory distress.
recognize any respiratory distress.
All of the following are signs of adequate breathing and circulation in the newborn except: A. vigorous crying. B. cyanosis of only the hands and feet. C. relaxation of the extremities. D. heart rate greater than 100.
relaxation of the extremities.
Gross decontamination is the: A. removal or chemical alteration of the majority of a contaminant. B. residual contamination that remains on a host following decontamination procedures. C. alteration or removal of most residual contamination. D. complete removal or neutralization of a contaminant.
removal or chemical alteration of the majority of a contaminant.
When an EMT becomes emotionally incapacitated on the scene of a large-scale MCI, you should: A. administer psychological first aid to the EMT until he feels capable of returning to duty. B. direct the EMT to the collection point for walking wounded triage patients. C. wave the EMT off the scene and tell him to return to the station. D. remove the EMT to a resting area and monitor him until a clinically competent provider can take over.
remove the EMT to a resting area and monitor him until a clinically competent provider can take over.
Your patient was ejected from his motorcycle when he struck a deer. He is drowsy and unable to communicate clearly. You determine that the helmet he is wearing will not allow you to securely immobilize the patient to the long spine board. You should: A. tip his head back to gain neutral alignment. B. pad under his shoulders to straighten his neck. C. place towels on either side of the helmet to stabilize it. D. remove the helmet to better manage proper alignment.
remove the helmet to better manage proper alignment.
When controlling the scene of an emergency involving damaged power poles and downed electrical wires, the EMT must remember to: A. use double-thickness gloves to insulate the body from electrocution. B. request appropriate personnel to cut the power source. C. use nonconductive implements to make a safe path to victims. D. render the scene safe before entering the danger zone.
request appropriate personnel to cut the power source.
11) As a rule, as a child gets older the blood pressure: A) falls and the pulse rate rises. B) rises and the pulse rate falls. C) falls and the pulse rate falls. D) rises and the pulse rate rises.
rises and the pulse rate falls.
An area near a hazardous materials incident that is on the same level as the incident, but upwind, is the BEST location for the: A. danger zone. B. safe zone. C. hot zone. D. warm zone.
safe zone.
55) The most common type of burn injury suffered in the home by children is: A) electrical. B) chemical. C) scald. D) direct fire.
scald.
Some drawbacks to using sterile aluminum foil as an occlusive dressing include: A. a flutter valve is difficult to create. B. foil cannot create an airtight seal. C. sterility cannot be ensured unless the materials were autoclaved. D. skin lacerations may occur from the sharp edges.
skin lacerations may occur from the sharp edges.
As you care for an elderly patient experiencing a serious medical condition, you would expect any deterioration to take place: A. slowly and steadily. B. rapidly. C. rapidly, with a later shift to slowly. D. slowly, with a later shift to rapidly.
slowly and steadily.
Inexperienced drivers tend to ________ when they hear a siren approaching. A. speed up B. pull to the right C. stop D. pull to the left
speed up
The best way for a terrorist to weaponize and disseminate a chemical nerve agent exposing a large number of people would be to: A. throw a paper bag loaded with nerve agent onto a busy subway train. B. steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolized the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision. C. throw a Molotov cocktail loaded with nerve agent into a windshield of a passenger bus. D. put it in a paper bag in a crowded mall and puncture the bag with a stick.
steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolized the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision.
When responding to an emergency in an authorized vehicle while functioning as an EMT for an authorized emergency service, the actions you take while driving are: A. covered by your service's insurance carrier. B. subject to laws that govern all drivers. C. not likely to result in an investigation in the event of a collision. D. allowable, provided you do not exceed 15 mph above the posted speed limit.
subject to laws that govern all drivers.
You have been called for a young female in labor. She is lying on the floor in obvious distress from the labor pains. While you are assessing her for crowning, your partner is getting a set of vital signs. She tells you that she is getting dizzy and nauseated. Vital signs are pulse rate 120, respiratory rate 22, and blood pressure 98/62. You should be concerned that she has: A. supine hypotensive syndrome. B. contracted food poisoning. C. Braxton-Hicks contractions. D. placenta previa.
supine hypotensive syndrome.
40) Usually the first sign of respiratory distress in infants is: A) bradycardia. B) tachycardia. C) bradypnea. D) tachypnea.
tachypnea.
You are assessing a 67-year-old male patient who is experiencing a dissecting abdominal aneurysm. Typically, such a patient will describe the pain as: A. dull. B. achy. C. tearing. D. sharp.
tearing
2) You are at a friend's birthday party with people of all ages. There is an 11-month-old boy, just learning to stand up, who has fallen. He was holding onto the edge of a table and he toppled over. He is crying hard and his mother is trying to console him. She asks if you would mind checking him out, and you agree to take a look at him. You notice that his anterior fontanelle is bulging. This is most likely caused by: A) pressure built up because of his crying. B) an infection causing intracranial pressure. C) fluid loss from dehydration. D) the bones of the head not fusing properly.
the bones of the head not fusing properly.
36) You are called to a home where a family has been enjoying a Labor Day picnic and swim party. A 2-year-boy slipped to the bottom of the pool unnoticed. By the time you arrive, the child has been removed from the water and family members are administering CPR. You assess the child and note that he has a weak pulse and is trying to breathe on his own. You initiate transport and continue providing positive pressure ventilations. You are also very concerned about: A) the safety of the other children at the party. B) how the parents are handling the situation. C) the child being hypothermic. D) the last time the child ate something.
the child being hypothermic.
You are on an ambulance responding to a mass-casualty incident at a shopping mall on a warm Saturday afternoon. En route, you listen to the incident commander broadcast information to dispatch and all inbound units about 20 patients complaining of respiratory difficulty and a burning sensation in their eyes. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of: A. the location of the call. B. the timing of the event. C. the type of event. D. on-scene warning signs.
the type of event.
48. You are treating a 5-year-old for extensive burns. You know that burns pose a greater risk to infants and children. The reason for this is: A)the parents' interference with your assessment and treatment can delay your response. B) child will likely be upset and crying and therefore hard to evaluate C) child abuse is usually the reason for the burns. D) their body surface area is greater in relation to their total body size.
their body surface area is greater in relation to their total body size.
When arriving at the location of a motor vehicle collision on an interstate highway, you should position the ambulance so that: A. there is a safe area between the damaged vehicles and traffic behind the scene. B. there is a fire truck between you and oncoming traffic. C. you are nearest to the command post for easy communications with the incident commander. D. there is a safe area beyond the damaged vehicles.
there is a safe area beyond the damaged vehicles.
You have responded to a woman who has possible premature labor. She is 8 months pregnant and is experiencing labor pains. During your assessment, you note that the baby is not yet crowning. You need to determine whether delivery is imminent or not. You should next: A. time her contractions. B. check the level of the fundus. C. complete a set of vital signs. D. check for cervix dilation.
time her contractions.
The largest single hazard associated with EMS highway operations is: A. power lines. B. explosion. C. traffic flow. D. sharp objects.
traffic flow.
When several agencies work independently but cooperatively, rather than one agency exercising control over the others, this is called: A. NIMS B. single incident command C. ICS D. unified command.
unified command.
You are in charge of your department's personnel at the scene of a mass-casualty incident. As the incident progresses, you request additional resources and a neighboring department assists you. As part of this department's response, a battalion chief responds to oversee operations. At the command post, you and the battalion chief work together to manage the incident. This cooperative management effort is known as: A. redundant command B. incident command C. dual command D. unified command.
unified command.
When attempting to extinguish a fire inside the passenger compartment, it is important to: A. apply the extinguishing agent liberally to speed up the extinguishing process. B. aim the nozzle of the extinguisher away from the patient to avoid hitting the patient. C. use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder. D. resist the urge to extinguish the fire and focus on extricating any patients.
use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder
The muscular organ in which a baby develops during pregnancy is called the: A. placenta. B. fetal membrane. C. uterus. D. amniotic sac.
uterus
When a patient has a serious open wound to the neck, you are concerned about the possibility of an air embolism. The reason an air embolism can occur is because of: A. the negative pressure in the chest. B. damage to the trachea. C. vessel pressure that is lower than atmospheric pressure. D. the higher pressure in the vessels of the neck.
vessel pressure that is lower than atmospheric pressure.
Dangerous organisms that grow inside of living cells and reproduce are known as: A. bacteria. B. toxins. C. viruses. D. biologicals.
viruses.
A 17-year-old girl was injured when her car was struck from behind while she was stopped at a red light. She is complaining of a headache with neck and back pain. You suspect she has sustained a(n): A. extension injury. B. whiplash injury. C. distraction injury. D. compression fracture.
whiplash injury.
Operators of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. This is known as driving: A. defensively. B. with emergency privilege. C. with due regard. D. as a public servant.
with due regard.
A pillow is frequently used to splint an ankle or foot injury. It is effective, rapid, and can be used formost patients. Its main weakness is A. it requires three people to apply B. you might not have a pillow on your ambulance C. you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle D. it is hard to access distal pulses after application.
you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle.
Your unresponsive adult patient has a head injury and inadequate breathing. Your bag-valve-mask ventilations should be delivered at a rate of: A. 20-24 breaths per minute. B. 16-20 breaths per minute. C. 10-12 breaths per minute. D. 24-30 breaths per minute.
10-12 breaths per minute.
A respiratory rate of less than ________ and greater than ________ in cases of trauma are criteria for immediate transportation to a trauma center according to the CDC physiologic guidelines. A. 8; 32 B. 12; 20 C. 5; 45 D. 10; 29
10; 29
16) Which of the following would be an appropriate statement in gaining the cooperation of a 7-year-old pediatric patient during your assessment? A) "Joey, this is a splint that will help your arm feel better. I promise it won't hurt when I put your arm in it." B) "Big girls don't cry, Emily. You're a big girl, aren't you?" C) "I'm sorry Nick, but you can't see Mommy and Daddy until you let me take your blood pressure." D) "Katie, this is my stethoscope. I can use it to hear what your breathing sounds like. Would you like to look at it for a minute?"
"Katie, this is my stethoscope. I can use it to hear what your breathing sounds like. Would you like to look it it for a minute?"
You are on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage officer, you have encountered a 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal stimuli, and he has an open airway, shallow rapid breathing, and a weak, rapid carotid pulse. This patient would be classified as a Priority ________ for treatment and transport. A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. 4
1
Traditionally an APGAR score is taken at what time intervals after birth? A. 1 and 5 minutes B. 5 and 10 minutes C. 1 and 6 minutes D. 2 and 7 minutes
1 and 5 minutes
For which of the following patients should the EMT carefully continue to monitor the patient's ventilatory status throughout treatment and transport due to the greatest risk of respiratory failure? A. A 17-year-old male with a blistering sunburn on his face B. A 34-year-old male who opened the radiator of his car and had hot fluid spray on his chest, resulting in redness and pain in an area about the size of the patient's hand C. A 28-year-old male who spilled a strong industrial acid on his legs D. A 16-year-old male whose shirt caught on fire, resulting in circumferential burns of his chest
A 16-year-old male whose shirt caught on fire, resulting in circumferential burns of his chest
Who is the most susceptible to hypothermia? A. A 21-year-old near-drowning patient on a warm spring day B. A 55-year-old male patient who sprained his knee snow skiing C. A 76-year-old male patient involved in a vehicle accident on icy roads D. An 80-year-old male patient on the ground who slipped and has a hip fracture
A 21-year-old near-drowning patient on a warm spring day
Which of the following patients has the greatest likelihood of being cared for in a burn center? a. A 45-year-old man who has a full thickness burn about 3 inches long by 1/2 inch wide on his posterior arm from backing into a barbecue grill b. A 30-year-old woman who has deep partial thickness burns on her hand and arm as a result of spilling hot cooking oil on herself c. A 12-year-old male with a superficial partial thickness burn involving his forearm as a result of making a torch by lighting aerosol from a can of hairspray d. A 16-year-old female who came into contact with a motorcycle exhaust pipe and has a full thickness burn on her leg about 2 inches in diameter
A 30-year-old woman who has deep partial thickness burns on her hand and arm as a result of spilling hot cooking oil on herself
Which of the following is NOT a type of avulsion? A. The skin is partially torn away from the foot. B. A finger is cut off with a butcher's saw. C. An ear is partially torn away from the head. D. The skin is stripped off the hand, like removing a glove.
A finger is cut off with a butcher's saw.
Which of the following BEST describes an avulsion? A. An injury caused by a sharp, pointed object B. A flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue C. The epidermis that is scraped away by a rough surface D. An accumulation of blood beneath the skin, resulting in swelling
A flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue
To rescue someone who has fallen through the ice, which of the following is the safest device to use? A. A jet-ski B. A flat-bottomed aluminum boat C. A ladder D. A ring buoy
A flat-bottomed aluminum boat
Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. A fracture is any break in a bone. B. A greenstick break is an incomplete break in a bone. C. A comminuted break is when a bone is broken in only one place. D. An angulated break is when the broken bone is bent at an angle.
A greenstick break is an incomplete break in a bone.
A traction splint may be used on which of the following musculoskeletal injuries? A. A possible fracture of the cervical spine B. A possible fracture of the femur C. Suspected multiple fractures of the femur, tibia, and fibula D. A possible fracture of the humerus
A possible fracture of the femur
Which one of the following patients would justify the need to directly transport to a trauma center based on special patient considerations? A. An elderly patient on anticoagulants who slipped out of her wheelchair and is complaining of pelvic pain B. An unlicensed teenage driver who has a pulse rate of 120 after a MVC and a 4 minute EMS response C. A pregnant female in the third trimester who is spotting (showing small amounts of vaginal bleeding) following a low mechanism of injury MVC D. An end-stage renal disease (ERSD) patient who tripped and fell and is complaining of shoulder pain on the same side as his shunt
A pregnant female in the third trimester who is spotting (showing small amounts of vaginal bleeding) following a low mechanism of injury MVC
When heading back to quarters, on what should you place your emphasis? A. Documentation B. Refueling the ambulance for the next call C. Beginning to reorganize the ambulance D. A safe return
A safe return
Which of the following BEST describes the compartment syndrome? A. A serious condition caused by the amount of equipment that must be carried in the ambulance compartments. B. A life-threatening condition caused by trapping the blood flow by a fracture when the bone ends cut the blood vessels. C. A serious condition caused by the bleeding and swelling from a fracture or crush injury that becomes so strong that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against that pressure. D. A non life-threatening condition caused by orthopedic injuries in which blood flow is stopped when the bone ends compress the blood vessels.
A serious condition caused by the bleeding and swelling from a fracture or crush injury that becomes so strong that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against that pressure.
Who should receive psychological first aid? A. A patient moving to a collection point for Priority 3 patients B. An injured patient screaming for help C. A stable patient who has become overwhelmed by the horror of the scene D. A patient among the walking wounded who is applying pressure to another patient's wound
A stable patient who has become overwhelmed by the horror of the scene
Which of the following is a possible indication of abuse or neglect? A. A story that is inconsistent with the injuries B. Any injuries to the extremities C. Two or more calls to EMS within a year D. Concern for the patient's condition
A story that is inconsistent with the injuries
You are assessing a 27-year-old female who is 9 months pregnant with her first child. She has been having contractions for the past 6 hours. As you are about to assist her to your cot, she asks you to wait because she feels the need to use the bathroom first. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. Advise the patient that this could be an indication that the baby is ready to be born and you need to check to see if the baby's head is visible. B. Advise the patient that this could be a sign of a serious complication, have her lie on her left side, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport immediately. C. Tell the patient she needs to be transported immediately and using the bathroom will have to wait until she arrives at the hospital. D. Allow the patient to use the bathroom as it will make transport, and also delivery, more comfortable.
Advise the patient that this could be an indication that the baby is ready to be born and you need to check to see if the baby's head is visible.
Which of the following is NOT a consequence of hypoperfusion? A. Cells are not supplied with oxygen. B. Cellular waste products are not removed. C. Aerobic metabolism will continue in the cell. D. Cells are not supplied with nutrients.
Aerobic metabolism will continue in the cell.
You have transported a patient to the emergency department and are in the process of cleaning the ambulance while your partner is completing all required paperwork. At what point is the final phase of an ambulance call complete? A. As soon as you put the stretcher back in the ambulance with a clean sheet and you notify your dispatch center you are available B. After your partner completes all required paperwork and you have the ambulance completely cleaned and restocked C. As soon as you get back to the station and notify your dispatch center you are in quarters D. As soon as your partner completes the patient care report and you are restocking the supplies used during the call
After your partner completes all required paperwork and you have the ambulance completely cleaned and restocked
On arrival at a vehicle collision, you observe a small fire in the engine compartment. A bystander is attempting to smother the fire with a jacket as you approach with an A-B-C extinguisher from your ambulance. Which of the following is the BEST method of extinguishing the fire? A. Aim the nozzle to the side of the fire and, with a sweeping motion, push the fire at its base. B. Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out. C. Sweep the nozzle of the extinguisher left and right using short bursts until you are out of extinguishing agent. D. Close the hood to contain the fire within the engine compartment.
Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out.
You arrive on the scene to find a scuba diver on board a boat slumped over in the captain's chair with frothy blood in his mouth. The captain states that the diver was down no more than 15 feet when he ascended rapidly and called for help. Which of the following is most likely? A. Decompression sickness B. The bends C. Air embolism D. Caisson's disease
Air embolism
You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 24-year-old male patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient's friends state they were diving when he came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. What condition do you suspect? A. Air embolism B. Decompression sickness C. Near drowning D. Myocardial infarction
Air embolism
While assessing a patient with a laceration to the neck, the EMT must be aware that which of the following conditions may develop? A. Deep vein embolus B. Air thrombosis C. Air embolus D. Deep vein thrombosis
Air embolus
While assessing a patient with partial thickness burns to his chest and neck, what should be your highest priority (even if there are no symptoms presently)? A. None of the choices B. Airway C. Hypothermia D. Bleeding
Airway
Which of the following is NOT appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury? A. Anticipate vomiting. B. Treat for shock if you think there are internal injuries even if the patient's vital signs are normal. C. Allow the patient to have small sips of water. D. Splint any swollen, deformed extremities.
Allow the patient to have small sips of water.
You are on a stand-by at a local high school football game. One of the football players comes over to the ambulance and complains that his face feels numb and that he has a burning sensation in his fingers. You notice that the patient's cheeks and fingers are bright red. How should you treat the patient? A. Allow the patient to warm up inside the ambulance by passive rewarming measures. B. Place the patient inside the ambulance and begin active rewarming measures. C. Warm the affected areas with gentle rubbing. D. Tell the patient that his condition is superficial and allow him to return to the game.
Allow the patient to warm up inside the ambulance by passive rewarming measures.
You are just leaving the scene of a multiple-casualty incident with two Priority 1 patients. Which of the following is appropriate regarding communication? A. Notify the receiving facility by radio of the nature of the patients' injuries B. Notify the receiving hospital by cellular phone of the nature of the patients' injuries C. Have dispatch relay your patient reports to the receiving facility D. Allow the transportation sector officer to notify the receiving facility.
Allow the transportation sector officer to notify the receiving facility.
Which of the following terms describes the temperature of the surrounding air? A. Wind chill index B. Shell temperature C. Core temperature D. Ambient temperature
Ambient temperature
Regarding the use of emergency sirens, which of the following is false? A. Dense shrubbery may block the sound of the siren. B. EMTs should assume that other drivers cannot hear the siren. C. Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise. D. The sound of the siren may increase the patient's anxiety.
Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise.
When seeking expert advice on how to proceed at a hazardous materials incident, which of the following information is important to provide? A. Amount of the substance involved B. Your background in chemistry C. Your level of EMS certification D. Your suspicions as to cause
Amount of the substance involved
An outbreak of which of the following illnesses would be LEAST likely to occur naturally? A. Anthrax B. Smallpox C. Venezuelan encephalitis D. Botulism
Anthrax
Multiple trauma and multisystem trauma patients are situations in which the EMT is expected to perform which of the following? A. Provide the best quality care possible, including definitive care on-scene. B. Respond above and beyond the call of duty. C. Anticipate and treat problems with a greater level of complexity than usual. D. Practice outside the scope of practice in order to provide the greatest good.
Anticipate and treat problems with a greater level of complexity than usual.
You respond to a construction site on a very hot summer day for a person "not acting right." You find a 38-year-old male patient seated in a work vehicle with the air conditioner on maximum. Coworkers state the patient was working for the last 2 hours pouring concrete when he started "speaking gibberish" and nearly collapsed. The patient is responsive to verbal stimuli. Your initial vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 136, and respiratory rate 24. The patient's skin is cool to the touch and dry but his shirt is wet with visible salt rings. Which is the best treatment for the patient? A. Apply high-concentration oxygen and rapidly transport to the nearest medical facility. B. Have the patient slip water slowly to replace what he has lost. C. Cool the patient with tepid water. D. Have the patient drink at least 1 liter of water to replace what he has lost.
Apply high-concentration oxygen and rapidly transport to the nearest medical facility.
Bleeding from open abdominal injuries should initially be controlled with which one of the following techniques? A. Applying direct pressure to the wound B. Applying an ice pack or chemical cold pack C. Applying an occlusive dressing D. Packing the wound with rolled gauze
Applying direct pressure to the wound
Which of the following is acceptable when actively rewarming a hypothermic patient? A. Encouraging the patient to exercise B. Giving coffee or brandy to drink C. Warming the patient as quickly as possible D. Applying humidified oxygen
Applying humidified oxygen
You respond to a 32-year-old male who fell 20 feet off a ladder. He is responsive to painful stimuli. He has snoring respirations at 20 a minute with decent chest rise and fall. He has a broken femur, a broken wrist, and a lacerated radial artery that is bleeding profusely. Which of these injuries is the highest priority? A. Arterial bleed B. Femur fracture C. Broken wrist D. Snoring respirations
Arterial bleed
Which of the following occurs when gases leave a damaged lung in a diving accident and enter the bloodstream? A. Arterial thrombosis B. Arterial blood gases C. Hyperbaric arterial injury D. Arterial gas embolism
Arterial gas embolism
Which of the following vessels contain blood under the highest amount of pressure? A. Arteries B. Capillaries C. Veins D. Venules
Arteries
Which of the following vessels has the thickest muscular walls that allow constriction and dilation? A. Lymphatic vessels B. Veins C. Arteries D. Capillaries
Arteries
At which point should you complete your patient care report (PCR)? A. As soon as you are free from patient duties B. En route to the hospital C. At the end of your shift D. As soon as you arrive at the hospital
As soon as you are free from patient duties
While staffing an emergency services dispatch center, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD) receives a call from someone who is very upset and screaming that her friend was just shot. Which of the following would the EMD need to do in this situation? A. Ask the caller for her phone number. B. Determine the location of the shooter. C. Notify the victim's family of the incident. D. Provide the caller with information on local hospitals.
Ask the caller for her phone number.
You are on the scene of a pediatric patient who is on a specialized home monitoring system. This situation was not specifically addressed in your EMT class and your EMT partner has not encountered this situation, either. What is an advisable course of action? A. Load the patient and rapidly transport the patient to the closest hospital for evaluation. B. Ask the parent or caregiver what has been done in the past to correct the situation. C. Contact medical control and ask to speak to a specialist for advice. D. Request an advanced life support ambulance crew to respond for assistance.
Ask the parent or caregiver what has been done in the past to correct the situation.
Your patient is a 21-year-old male who slid head-first down a water slide at his fraternity house and impacted the bales of straw that his fraternity brothers had erected as a barrier to keep participants from sliding onto the adjacent highway. The patient is conscious and complaining of neck pain. Which of the following should be included in your assessment? A. Ask the patient to cautiously touch his chin to his chest to check for range of motion. B. If the patient has no numbness or tingling, ask him to stand and try to walk. C. Apply painful stimuli to his extremities, starting distally and moving closer and closer to the body. D. Ask the patient to grasp and squeeze your hands.
Ask the patient to grasp and squeeze your hands.
Your patient is a 14-year-old male who crashed his bicycle, landing prone and sliding along a gravel trail. He has deep abrasions to his hands, arms, chest, and knees. The patient has small pieces of gravel, twigs, and dirt embedded in the abrasions. Which of the following is the best way to manage this situation after taking cervical spine immobilization? A. Use your fingers to pick embedded debris from the wound, bandage with moist saline dressings in place, and transport. B. Do not attempt to remove any debris, apply pressure dressings over the embedded material if necessary, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport. C. Use a tongue depressor to scrape large pieces of debris out of the wounds, place the patient on high-concentration oxygen, and transport. D. Assess for additional injuries, flush away large pieces of debris with a sterile dressing, place dressings on the abrasions, bandage them in place, and transport.
Assess for additional injuries, flush away large pieces of debris with a sterile dressing, place dressings on the abrasions, bandage them in place, and transport.
In cases of extreme hypothermia, you will find the patient unconscious, with no discernible vital signs, and skin cold to your touch with stiff joints as if they appear dead. What is the emergency care for these patients? A. Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient. B. Call the coroner as indications are the patient is cold and deceased, which is a definitive sign of death. C. Check distal CSM, apply warming packs to the extremities, and transport the patient. D. Assess the carotid pulse for 30 to 45 seconds; if there is no pulse, start CPR immediately and prepare to apply the AED.
Assess the carotid pulse for 30 to 45 seconds; if there is no pulse, start CPR immediately and prepare to apply the AED.
You respond to a patient who was hit in the face with a chair. Upon arrival, you notice a patient leaning in the corner and bleeding profusely from the mouth and nose. Your first action should be which of the following? A. Assure scene safety. B. Place the patient on a nonrebreather mask (NRB) at 15 lpm. C. Suction the airway and have the patient lean back. D. Take cervical spine precautions
Assure scene safety.
Which of the following is NOT a common cause of chest pain in the elderly? A. Pneumonia B. Asthma C. Aneurysm D. Angina
Asthma
Which of the following trauma triage criteria would justify transportation to a trauma center based on mechanism of injury alone? A. Intrusion into the occupant area greater than 8 inches B. Vehicle rollover C. Auto versus pedestrian D. Vehicle crash-generated telemetry data
Auto versus pedestrian
Which of the following is NOT essential equipment on an ambulance? A. Portable suction unit B. Automatic transport ventilator C. Pediatric oxygen administration devices D. Portable oxygen tanks
Automatic transport ventilator
Which of the following choices is NOT a justifiable reason for delaying transport of a critical trauma patient? A. Ventilating a patient in respiratory distress B. Awaiting arrival of the patient's parents on-scene C. Suctioning the airway D. Immobilizing the patient to a long spine board
Awaiting arrival of the patient's parents on-scene
Which of the following is true concerning disinfection? A. A solution of 1 part household bleach to 100 parts water is an effective disinfectant for health care purposes. B. A low-level disinfectant will kill germs on ambulance floors and walls. C. High level disinfection destroys all sources of infection. D. All of the above
A low-level disinfectant will kill germs on ambulance floors and walls.
At 0330, you responded to the scene of an overturned tanker truck. What organization could you contact to obtain information about the liquid the truck is carrying? A. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) B. CHEMTREC C. OSHA D. Regional poison control center
CHEMTREC
________ is the response agency, established in Washington, DC, as a service of the American Chemistry Council, that can provide either you or your dispatcher with information about the hazardous material and contact the shipper to provide you with information about the material. A. HAZMART B. EPA C. CHEMTREC D. OSHA
CHEMTREC
Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the EMT to take when caring for a patient with an AICD who goes into cardiac arrest? A. The AED should be applied and used, but CPR should not be started while on-scene or transporting the patient. B. CPR should be started, but the AED should not be used while on-scene or transporting the patient. C. No action beyond transport is required since the patient already has an implanted defibrillator. D. CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while on-scene and transporting the patient.
CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while on-scene and transporting the patient.
You have arrived at the scene of a motor vehicle collision to find that there are several critically injured patients. Which of the following should you do first? A. Begin extrication of the most critically injured patient. B. Call for additional rescue units and transporting ambulances. C. Begin triage of all patients before deciding on additional resources. D. Begin to care for the patient closest to your vehicle.
Call for additional rescue units and transporting ambulances.
You are enjoying some time at the beach on your day off when you hear a swimmer crying for help. As you spot the swimmer about 30 feet from shore, she cries out again but appears to be getting weaker. Although there is no lifeguard on duty, there is a rowboat and a ring buoy available. Assuming you do NOT know how to swim or consider yourself a poor swimmer, which of the following should you do first? A. Row the boat out to the swimmer. B. Use the buoy to float out to the swimmer. C. Find someone who can swim to try to swim out and save the swimmer. D. Call for help and try to throw the buoy to the swimmer.
Call for help and try to throw the buoy to the swimmer
In which of the following vessels does the vital exchange take place and also has the thinnest walls through which oxygen, nutrients, and wastes can pass? A. Veins B. Microvenules C. Capillaries D. Arterioles
Capillaries
Which of the following blood vessels cannot stop bleeding by constricting? A. Arterioles B. Vena cava C. Capillaries D. Arteries
Capillaries
Your patient is a 6-year-old child who has fallen down while running on a sidewalk. She has abrasions on both knees and the palms of both hands, which are oozing blood. This is an example of bleeding from which of the following types of vessels? A. Capillaries B. Veins C. Arteries D.Lymphatic vessels
Capillaries
External bleeding may be classified according to types. Which one of the following is one of those types? A. Brain bleeding B. Capillary bleeding C. Cardiac bleeding D. Liver bleeding
Capillary bleeding
53) Which of the following statements is true regarding the skin and body surface area of children as compared to adults? A) The skin of a child is thicker. B) Children have more subcutaneous fat. C) Children have a larger body surface-to-weight ratio. D) A child is not more prone than an adult to heat loss through the skin.
Children have a larger body surface-to-weight ratio.
Which of the following describes the normal appearance of amniotic fluid? A. Thin fluid, greenish-yellow in color B. Clear and colorless fluid C. A fluid containing blood and mucus D. Thick fluid, greenish-black in color
Clear and colorless fluid
In which of the following zones is the EMT expected to be staged at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? A. Hot zone B. Cold zone C. Warm zone D. Ground zero
Cold zone
Which of the following is NOT an acceptable way of attempting to identify a hazardous material? A. Using binoculars to obtain information from the placard on a container B. Asking the driver of the tractor-trailer truck involved in the incident C. Checking the material safety data sheet D. Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis
Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis
Which of the following is a principle of effective Incident Command? A. Anyone on the scene should report directly to Incident Command. B. Command is most effective when one person is responsible for not more than 6 other people. C. The command location must not be revealed to anyone on the scene. D. Police, fire, and EMS must establish separate command locations.
Command is most effective when one person is responsible for not more than 6 other people.
You are on an EMS standby for a boxing tournament. During one of the matches, one of the female boxers delivers a forcible uppercut to the chest of her opponent, who falls to the ground. The match is declared over on the basis of a TKO. However, the opponent fails to arise following a 1 to 2 minute interval. EMS is summoned to the ring. You find the patient pulseless and breathing agonal gasps. You suspect which of the following traumatic conditions? A. Cardiac tamponade B. Aortic dissection C. Commotio cordis D. Tension pneumothorax
Commotio cordis
Which of the following is appropriate in the examination of a painful, swollen extremity of a conscious patient? A. Gently attempting to flex the mid-portion of the bone to check for angulation B. Asking the patient to see if he can bear weight on the extremity C. Comparing the injured side to the uninjured side D. Seeing if you can elicit crepitus on palpation
Comparing the injured side to the uninjured side
One of the more serious conditions that EMTs are confronted with goes down as follows:A fracture or crush injury causes bleeding and swelling within the extremity.Pressure and swelling caused by the bleeding within the muscle compartment becomes so great that thebody can no longer perfuse the tissues against the pressure.Cellular damage occurs and causes additional swelling.Blood flow to the area is lost. The limb itself may be lost if the pressure is not relieved.What is this condition called? A. Compartment syndrome B. Crushing syndrome C. Perfusing syndrome D. Fracture syndrome
Compartment syndrome
Which of the following is a classification of the severity of shock? A. Compensated B. Uncompensated C. Non-compensated D. Consumption
Compensated
Which of the following injuries is considered an indirect brain injury? A. Depressed skull fracture with cerebral penetration by bone fragments B. Cerebral laceration C. Concussion D. Gunshot wound to the head
Concussion
Which of the following will worsen the condition of the patient in shock? A. Transporting without first splinting all extremity fractures B. Conducting oneself in a manner that increases the patient's fear and anxiety C. Applying high-concentration oxygen when it is not needed D. Elevating the patient's legs 8 to 10 inches
Conducting oneself in a manner that increases the patient's fear and anxiety
A patient who is lying on cold ground is losing the most amount of heat by what mechanism? A. Radiation B. Convection C. Conduction D. Shivering
Conduction
A patient gives you a story of having gone out to the movies last night, but who according to family members, has not left the house in years. This condition is called? A. Apoplexy B. Confabulation C. Lying D. Depression
Confabulation
You respond to a farm for a possible snake bite. You find a 36-year-old male patient seated against a tree. Bystanders state the patient was bitten on the arm by a rattlesnake and is "really sick." As you approach, you notice that the patient appears in obvious distress, diaphoretic and holding his right wrist. What is your highest priority? A. Perform a primary assessment and identify any potential life threats. B. Confirm the type of snake and contact medical control for specific instructions. C. Immediately apply a constricting band to minimize the spread of the venom. D. Confirm the location and status of the snake.
Confirm the location and status of the snake.
Which of the following must be kept in mind when considering the severity of external bleeding? A. The amount of blood loss is easily estimated by the amount of blood visible on the ground. B. Signs of shock do not appear until a large amount of blood has been lost. C. A younger person can tolerate more blood loss than an adult. D. All of the above
B. Signs of shock do not appear until a large amount of blood has been lost.
32) Your patient is a 11-month-old male who began choking while his babysitter was feeding him some sliced peaches. The child has retractions of his intercostal muscles, is drowsy, and is grayish in color. Which of the following is the BEST intervention for this patient? A) Use of a flow-restricted oxygen-powered ventilation device (FROPVD) B) Back slaps and chest thrusts C) Abdominal thrusts D) Blow-by oxygen at 10 to 15 liters per minute
Back slaps and chest thrusts
Which of the following should be checked with the vehicle engine turned off? A. Windshield wiper operation B. Dash-mounted gauges C. Battery D. Warning lights
Battery
Why is it important to remove constricting items such as rings before thawing a frozen extremity? A. Because thawed areas often swell B. To prevent damage to the property such as rings and watches C. Because thawing leaves clots behind in the veins D. All of the above
Because thawed areas often swell
Full immobilization of a trauma patient, including placing a cervical collar and securing the patient to a backboard, should take place at which of the following points in time? A. En route to the hospital B. After checking for cervical range of motion C. Before moving the patient to the ambulance D. Before the primary assessment
Before moving the patient to the ambulance
47) Your patient is a 3-year-old child who is in severe respiratory distress. She is cyanotic and responds only to painful stimuli. According to the patient's mother, the child had complained of a sore throat earlier and has had a fever since early in the morning. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A) Perform abdominal thrusts and finger sweeps; attempt to ventilate. B) Suction the airway. C) Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) and begin bag-valve-mask ventilations with supplemental oxygen. D) Begin gentle ventilations with a bag-valve mask (BVM) and supplemental oxygen.
Begin gentle ventilations with a bag-valve mask (BVM) and supplemental oxygen.
Which of the following is the highest priority to the EMT in delivery of an infant with meconium-stained amniotic fluid? A. Checking for feve. All of the abover B. Vigorously rubbing the infant's back immediately upon delivery to stimulate breathing C. Being prepared to suction the infant immediately before he takes a breath D. None of the above
Being prepared to suction the infant immediately before he takes a breath
Your patient has attempted suicide by slitting his wrists. You notice that he has run the knife across his wrist, perpendicular to the arm, and that the wound is not deep. Which of the following statements is true regarding the likelihood for serious blood loss? A. There is most likely tremendous internal blood loss. B. You should expect severe blood loss. C. Blood loss is probably not life-threatening. D. A tourniquet will probably be necessary.
Blood loss is probably not life-threatening.
You are on the scene of a 50-year-old male who lacerated his arm on a sheet of plate glass. He is pale, diaphoretic, and mumbling incoherently. You have controlled an arterial bleed with direct pressure. His blood pressure is 70/40, pulse 120, and respiratory rate of 28. Which of the following signs is the most concerning? A. Altered mental status B. Tachycardia C. Blood pressure D. Respiratory rate
Blood pressure
If you do not have a commercial tourniquet available, what common device found on the ambulance can be used as a substitute? A. Ice packs tied in place with triangle bandage B. Blood pressure cuff C. Use a rope tie-down to make a tourniquet D. Air or vacuum splint
Blood pressure cuff
Which of the following is part of the body's compensatory response to blood loss? A. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate decreases. B. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases. C. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate decreases. D. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate increases.
Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases.
Which of the following is the leading cause of internal bleeding? A. Crush injury B. Blunt trauma C. Penetrating trauma D. Aortic aneurysm
Blunt trauma
Which of the following describes a breech presentation? A. The infant presents buttocks first. B. The infant presents with both feet first. C. The infant presents face first. D. Both A and B
Both A and B
Which of the following describes an open extremity injury? A. A gunshot wound has penetrated the skin and then fractured the bone. B. Bone ends have lacerated the soft tissues and skin from the inside. C. The joint capsule has been torn open during a dislocation. D. Both A and B
Both A and B
When preparing to move a patient that is using a specialty medical device from his house to the ambulance, which of the following questions would be appropriate to ask the family? A. What worked best for moving the patient the last time he was transported by ambulance? B. How do you normally move the patient? C. Can you carry the patient to the ambulance since you know the best way to move the patient? D. Both A and B are correct.
Both A and B are correct.
Which of the following is NOT part of the circulatory system? A. Blood vessels B. Brain C. Blood D. Heart
Brain
Which of the following spiders can cause a characteristic wound with a bite that is often painless? A. Brown recluse spider B. Sheet web spider C. Argiope spider D. Black widow spider
Brown recluse spider
Your patient is a 40-year-old male who has been exposed to a dry chemical powder and is complaining of severe pain on both of his hands, the site of the contact. He is working in an illegal chemical manufacturing plant and there is no decontamination shower on site. Which of the following would be the BEST way to manage this situation? a. Have the fire department connect to a hydrant and spray down the patient from head to toe. b. Brush away as much powder as possible and then pour a bottle of sterile saline solution over his hands. c. Brush away as much of the powder as possible and then have the patient hold his hands under running water from a faucet or regular garden hose. d. Brush away the powder and bandage the hands in a position of function.
Brush away as much of the powder as possible and then have the patient hold his hands under running water from a faucet or regular garden hose.
You assess a 35-year-old female patient with a chemical burn to her right forearm and hand. As you assess the burn, you notice a white powder on the burn. What should be your next step? A. Transport the patient immediately to the closest burn center. B. Brush the powder off the patient's arm and hand, and then flush with copious amounts of water. C. Flush the arm and hand with copious amounts of water. D. Brush off the powder, bandage the arm, and transport the patient to the closest trauma center.
Brush the powder off the patient's arm and hand, and then flush with copious amounts of water.
Which of the following is a function of the autonomic nervous system? A. Constriction of blood vessels B. Running or walking C. Solving complex math problems D. Speaking
Constriction of blood vessels
Which of the following is NOT traditionally a responsibility of an EMT on the scene of a hazardous materials incident caused by terrorism? A. Scene size-up B. Assessment of the toxicological risk C. Containment and control D. Activation of the incident management system (IMS)
Containment and control
Which of the following is the MOST sensitive indicator of hypoperfusion? A. Dilation of the pupils B. Delayed capillary refill C. Increased heart rate D. Altered mental status
D. Altered mental status
What are some of the most important critical decisions an EMT can make on the scene of a serious trauma? A. Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury B. Load and go versus stay and play C. Whether to await ALS care on-scene or begin BLS transport D. Determining patient priority, amount of time on-scene, and hospital transport decision
Determining patient priority, amount of time on-scene, and hospital transport decision
You are called to assess a pregnant woman who is approximately 7 months pregnant. She states that her pregnancy has been uneventful but she is experiencing intermittent headaches. Her vital signs are pulse 118, respirations 22, blood pressure 138/88, and blood sugar 148. Which of the following is true regarding a pregnant woman? A. Diabetes may be made worse during pregnancy. B. Her pulse rate should be lower than normal. C. Her blood pressure is usually higher during pregnancy. D. Her respirations usually remain the same during pregnancy.
Diabetes may be made worse during pregnancy.
By which of the following means does the fetus's blood pick up nourishment from the mother? A. Diffusion B. Direct circulation C. Indirect circulation D. Osmosis
Diffusion
Which of the following is the underlying cause of neurogenic shock? A. Failure of the heart to adequately pump blood B. Extreme emotional response to paralysis C. Dilation of blood vessels D. Blood loss from damaged spinal blood vessels
Dilation of blood vessels
Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries should initially be controlled with which one of the following techniques? A. Application of an ice pack or chemical cold pack B. Direct pressure C. Elevation of the injured part D. Running cold water over the wound
Direct pressure
Your patient is a 33-year-old man who has a gunshot wound to his right leg and has active, steady, dark red bleeding. He is awake, pale, and diaphoretic. He has a strong radial pulse of 112 per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 122/82 mmHg. He has no other injuries or complaints. Which of the following is the BEST sequence of steps in the management of this patient? A. High-concentration oxygen, tourniquet, PASG, and elevation of the extremity B. Direct pressure, high-concentration oxygen, and splinting the leg C. High-concentration oxygen, elevation of the extremity, and application of ice D. Cervical spine immobilization, high-concentration oxygen, direct pressure, and pressure point compression
Direct pressure, high-concentration oxygen, and splinting the leg
Which of the following refers to a condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living? A. Handicapped B. Terminal C. Disabled D. Disability
Disability
You are assessing a patient in the front seat of a vehicle that was involved in a head-on collision. As you examine the interior of the vehicle, you notice the air bags have not deployed. What action should you take in order to render the scene safe to work? A. Use a long spine board to shield yourself from the undeployed air bag. B. Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle. C. Turn the ignition to the "off" position and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle. D. Disconnect the battery and continue assessing the patient.
Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.
If the steering wheel must be displaced during extrication and the air bag has not deployed, which of the following actions is recommended by air bag manufacturers? A. Secure a long backboard across the steering wheel to deflect the air bag from the patient should it deploy. B. Firmly strike the hub of the steering wheel with a mallet to deactivate the air bag before displacing the steering wheel. C. No action is required; only frontal impact will deploy air bags. D. Disconnect the battery cables.
Disconnect the battery cables.
64) Your patient has a tracheostomy and is on a ventilator. He presents in acute respiratory distress. You assess his trach tube and it appears clear, but there is something wrong with the ventilator. You do not notice any loose fittings or disconnected tubes. The airway is clear and he is sitting upright. What is your next step? A) Call the manufacturer's service hotline. B) Try to further troubleshoot the ventilator. C) Disconnect the patient and ventilate him with a bag-valve device. D) Connect your oxygen tank directly to the tracheostomy tube.
Disconnect the patient and ventilate him with a bag-valve device.
Blunt trauma resulting in a closed chest injury creates the potential for which of the following internal injuries? A. Abrasion B. Contusion C. Evisceration D. Avulsion
Contusion
In addition to lacerations, blunt trauma resulting in a closed chest injury creates the potential for which of the following internal injuries? A. Abrasion B. Contusion C. Evisceration D. Avulsion
Contusion
Which of the following is NOT an open tissue injury? A. Abrasion B. Contusion C. Avulsion D. Evisceration
Contusion
Which of the following is NOT an open tissue injury? A. Contusion B. Abrasion C. Evisceration D. Avulsion
Contusion
Which of the following is the process in which heat is lost from the body as wind passes over it? A. Convection B. Hydrodynamic cooling C. Exposure D. Condensation
Convection
Of the following venomous snakes, which one usually has the highest incidence of a "dry bite"? A. Coral snake B. Water moccasin C. Mississauga rattlesnake D. Copperhead
Coral snake
Which of the following types of snake is NOT a pit viper? A. Water moccasin B. Rattlesnake C. Coral snake D. Copperhead
Coral snake
Which of the following is the correct technique to check for crowning in the assessment of a woman in labor? A. Place your hand on the woman's abdomen, just above the umbilicus, and check for the firmness of the uterus during contractions. B. Ask the woman to "push" or "bear down" as you inspect the vaginal opening. C. Cover her with a sheet, have her remove her underwear, wait for a contraction, and then visualize the vaginal opening. D. None of the above
Cover her with a sheet, have her remove her underwear, wait for a contraction, and then visualize the vaginal opening.
Which of the following chemical agents prohibits the use of oxygen in the cells? A. Blister agents B. Cyanide C. Nerve agents D. All of the above
Cyanide
A 65-year-old man was doing some work on his roof when he lost his footing and fell to the ground, approximately 15 feet. He is unconscious but his respirations are normal. You note an obviously angulated left leg. You are more concerned about a possible head injury. Which of the following would indicate a possible head injury? A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 15 B. Constricted pupils C. Increased pulse rate D. Increased blood pressure
Increased blood pressure
As pressure within the cranium increases, which of the following is the result? A. Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse B. Increased blood pressure, increased pulse C. Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse D. Decreased blood pressure, decreased pulse
Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse
25) A bulging fontanelle in a quietly resting child may be an indication of which of the following? A) Fever B) Dehydration C) Normal development D) Increased intracranial pressure
Increased intracranial pressure
You are treating a 54-year-old female patient who was involved in a domestic dispute. You notice an abrasion to the side of her head. The patient is unresponsive with a blood pressure of 200/110, a pulse of 60 beats per minute, and slightly irregular breathing. The patient's presentation is most likely caused by which of the following? A. Increased arterial pressure B. Increased intracranial pressure C. Minor closed head injury D. Coup-contrecoup injury
Increased intracranial pressure
Which of the following is NOT a warning sign or physical symptom of stress? A. Chest pain B. GI distress C. Heart palpitations D. Increased salivation
Increased salivation
15) Which of the following is NOT a normal response of a small child when approached by the EMT? A) Anxiety B) Indifference C) Fear D) None of the above
Indifference
Which of the following should bring to mind the possibility of abuse or neglect of your special needs patient? A. A lack of knowledge of the patient's condition B. Indifference to the patient's condition C. An insistence that the patient be transported to the hospital D. Empathy for the patient's pain and suffering
Indifference to the patient's condition
Your patient is a 12-year-old female who fell onto her outstretched hands while rollerblading. She has a deformity of her forearm, about 2 inches proximal to her wrist. This injury is a result of which of the following mechanisms? A. Direct force B. Indirect force C. Sudden acceleration D. Twisting motion
Indirect force
Which of the following does NOT make infants and children more prone to hypothermia? A. Inefficient metabolism B. Large body surface area C. Small muscle mass D. Little body fat
Inefficient metabolism
Which of the following is optional equipment? A. Flashlights B. Infant oxygen masks C. Disinfectant solution D. Lubricating jelly
Infant oxygen masks
What is the BEST option an EMT has when encountering poor BVM compliance when attempting to ventilate a patient? A. Address ventilation en route to the hospital or ALS intercept. B. Begin chest compressions. C. Place the patient on supplemental oxygen. D. Involve two people in the procedure.
Involve two people in the procedure.
Which of the following would you expect to see in a patient with severe hypothermia? A. Irrational behavior B. Loss of muscle tone C. Rapid respirations D. Tachycardia
Irrational behavior
Which of the following is an appropriate question to ask while evaluating a woman in labor? A. Is this your first pregnancy? B. When was the last time you were sexually active? C. Do you know who the father is and what is his medical history? D. None of the above
Is this your first pregnancy?
Which of the following is NOT the purpose of making airway management the highest priority of patient care when managing the patient in shock? A. It minimizes the chances of aspiration of blood or vomit. B. It allows for improved elimination of carbon dioxide. C. It allows the bronchoconstriction of the smaller airways to be reversed. D. It allows for oxygenation of the lungs.
It allows the bronchoconstriction of the smaller airways to be reversed.
Which of the following is a characteristic of venous bleeding? A. It can be profuse, but is generally easily controlled. B. It commonly requires the use of pressure point compression. C. It often requires the use of a tourniquet. D. It cannot lead to life-threatening amounts of blood loss.
It can be profuse, but is generally easily controlled.
Which of the following statements is NOT true when you are on-scene and treating a patient that appears to be in shock? A. Prompt transportation is a very high priority. B. The patient should be promptly put on high-concentration oxygen. C. It is important to spend on-scene time to be sure you have corrected and dealt with any of the causes of the shock so that it does not get worse. This is more important than rapid transport. D. Airway management is of top priority.
It is important to spend on-scene time to be sure you have corrected and dealt with any of the causes of the shock so that it does not get worse. This is more important than rapid transport.
Which of the following is NOT a desirable characteristic of the rehabilitation sector of a hazardous materials incident? A. It is located in the warm zone. B. It is large enough to accommodate multiple rescue crews. C. It allows for rapid reentry to the emergency operation. D. It is protected from weather elements.
It is located in the warm zone.
Which of the following BEST describes the benefit of a three-sided occlusive dressing over a four-sided occlusive dressing for an open chest wound? A. It eliminates the need to continue monitoring the patient's respiratory status. B. It reduces the chances of developing a tension pneumothorax. C. It allows easy access for re-examination of the wound en route to the hospital. D. It prevents the development of a hemothorax by allowing blood to escape.
It reduces the chances of developing a tension pneumothorax.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of splinting an injury to bones and connective tissues? A. It prevents neurological damage due to movement of bone ends or fragments. B. It may prevent a closed injury from becoming an open injury. C. It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling. D. It reduces pain.
It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling.
53. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the proper transport of an avulsed ear? a. It should be labeled with the patient's name, as well as the date and time it was bagged. b. It should be kept as cool as possible. c. It should not be immersed in cooled water or saline. d. It should be in a dry sterile dressing.
It should be in a dry sterile dressing.
Which of the following statements is not true concerning a pelvic wrap? A. It can be used if the pelvis shows deformity B. It can be used if the pelvis shows instability C. It should not be used unless the patient shows signs of shock D. You can consider its use based on MOI.
It should not be used unless the patient shows signs of shock.
Which of the following is the rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a collision? A. It is stable if the ignition is turned off. B. It is stable if it is upright on all four wheels. C. It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel. D. It is stable if the transmission is in "Park" or the parking brake is on.
It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel.
Which of the following BEST describes the function of blood? A. It is a life-giving liquid that supports all the body's functions to maintain hypoperfusion. B. It flows from the heart with the vital gases and nutrients to maintain lack of perfusion. C. It transports gases along with nutrients, aids in excretion, and provides protection and regulation. D. It clots, flows, transports, protects, and excretes on a daily basis.
It transports gases along with nutrients, aids in excretion, and provides protection and regulation.
30) Which of the following is a consideration in airway management in the pediatric patient? A) Keeping the nose clear of secretions B) The need to hyperextend the head to achieve an open airway C) Using blind finger sweeps to clear a foreign body from the airway D) All of the above
Keeping the nose clear of secretions
Which of the following is classified as an open head injury? A. Contusion without a skull fracture B. Laceration with a skull fracture C. Laceration without a skull fracture D. Both A and B
Laceration with a skull fracture
Seizures due to complications of pregnancy generally occur during which of the following time periods? A. In the second trimester B. In the first trimester C. Before the mother even knows she is pregnant D. Late in pregnancy
Late in pregnancy
The technique for central rewarming requires the application of heat to which of the following areas of the patient's body? A. Chest, back, neck, and armpits B. Lateral chest, neck, armpits, and groin C. Head, neck, chest, and back D. Head, neck, chest, and groin
Lateral chest, neck, armpits, and groin
Which of the following provides the BEST protection for the EMT's hands during a vehicle rescue operation? A. Fabric work gloves with non-slip palms B. Elbow-length chemical-proof gloves C. Double-thickness latex gloves D. Leather gloves
Leather gloves
Your patient is a 32-year-old man with a fish hook that has perforated his hand between the thumb and index finger. Which of the following is the best way to manage the situation in the prehospital setting? A. Push the hook through the wound to avoid further damage from the barbed end. B. Leave the hook in place and try not to disturb it. C. Apply a pressure dressing over the hook. D. Pull the hook out from the same direction in which it entered the hand.
Leave the hook in place and try not to disturb it.
Which of the following transport positions is indicated for the patient in shock? A. Legs raised 8 to 12 inches B. Recumbent C. Sitting D. Left lateral recumbent
Legs raised 8 to 12 inches
Upon arrival at the scene of a motor vehicle collision, you find a vehicle that is on fire. The fire is confined to the engine compartment and the hood is tightly closed. Of the following, which is the BEST course of action? A. Discharge a dry chemical fire extinguisher onto the patient's clothing to protect him from the fire. B. Wet the interior of the vehicle to keep the fire from spreading. C. Let the fire burn and concentrate on extricating the patient. D. Use a long-handled pry-bar to open the hood and put out the fire with a fire extinguisher.
Let the fire burn and concentrate on extricating the patient.
You respond to a 22-year-old male patient who fell while exiting the local bar. Bystanders state he drank at least 10 beers and could not keep his balance. Physical exam reveals that the patient is alert to verbal stimuli only. He has a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3, 4, 6; slurred speech; and an obvious scalp laceration to the back of his head. He is refusing treatment and transport and wants his friends to drive him home. The nearest hospital is 5 minutes away, a Level II Trauma Center is 10 minutes away, and a Level I Full Service Trauma Center is 30 minutes away. Which of these is the most appropriate facility for the patient? A. The nearest community facility B. Level I Trauma Center C. Nowhere, since the patient is an adult and refusing; as such, you cannot take him D. Level II Trauma Center
Level II Trauma Center
You are at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a single vehicle has collided with a tree. You note that the driver's side air bag has deployed. Which of the following is recommended by air bag manufacturers? A. Sharply strike the front bumper to make sure the second air bag has deployed. B. Use a portable fan to ventilate the car to remove the powder from the air bag. C. Lift the air bag and inspect the steering wheel for damage. D. Cut away the fabric portion of the air bag to get it out of the way.
Lift the air bag and inspect the steering wheel for damage.
Which of the following structures connect bone ends, making joints more stable? A. Ligaments B. Cartilage C. Tendons D. Periosteum
Ligaments
Which of the following is a vascular organ in the abdomen that can produce blood loss quickly enough to result in life-threatening hemorrhage following high mechanism of injury blunt trauma? A. Intestines B. Pancreas C. Liver D. Kidneys
Liver
Which of the following signs is LEAST likely to indicate a traumatic brain injury? A. Low blood pressure B. Irrational behavior C. Irregular breathing pattern D. Vomiting
Low blood pressure
An elderly patient you are transporting to the hospital complains of feeling faint and abdominal pain. The patient states a recent history of "tarry stool". Which of the following conditions is most likely? A. Constipation B. Myocardial infarction C. Abdominal aortic aneurysm D. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding
Lower gastrointestinal bleeding
An elderly patient you are transporting to the hospital for complaints of feeling faint and having abdominal pain provides you with a list of medications he currently takes. Among the medications listed is naproxen. The patient's vital signs include a blood pressure of 148/92, pulse rate of 120, respiratory rate of 28, and clear bilateral breath sounds. Which of the following would be the most likely condition the patient is experiencing related to the abdominal pain? A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm B. Myocardial infarction C. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding D. Constipation
Lower gastrointestinal bleeding
During transport, where should the catheter bag be after loading the patient and stretcher into the ambulance if the patient has an indwelling urinary catheter? A. In the patient's lap, but not higher than his heart B. On the ambulance floor C. Lower than the patient, but not on the floor D. Hanging from the ceiling of the ambulance or IV pole higher than the patient
Lower than the patient, but not on the floor
Supine hypotensive syndrome is easily prevented by transporting the pregnant female into which of the following positions? A. On her hands and knees with her hips elevated B. Tilted slightly onto the right side C. Supine, with the head lower than the hips D. Lying on her left side
Lying on her left side
The purpose of a constricting band after a venomous snake bite is to impede the flow of which of the following? A. Lymph B. Arterial blood C. Venom D. Both A and C
Lymph
While treating a patient of sexual assault, your treatment should follow which of the following sequences? A. Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, allow the patient to shower if the patient is capable to help treat psychological needs, and transport. B. Treat immediate life threats, treat psychological needs, and protect criminal evidence. C. Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, and treat only the secondary injuries that may become life threats to protect criminal evidence. D. Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, treat medical and psychological needs, and protect criminal evidence.
Maintain scene safety, treat immediate life threats, treat medical and psychological needs, and protect criminal evidence.
Which of the following is important to remember when communicating with an elderly patient with a hearing impairment? A. It is not worth the effort to try to get information from an elderly person with a hearing impairment. B. Make sure the patient can see you when you are speaking to him. C. You may need to shout in order for the patient to hear you. D. Speak directly into the patient's ear.
Make sure the patient can see you when you are speaking to him
What is another name for the zygomatic bone? A. Maxillae B. Malar C. Temporal D. Mandible
Malar
Which of the following is a strategy to maintain an occlusive dressing to bloody or diaphoretic skin? A. Do not use occlusive dressings in this case. B. Do not use adhesive tape. C. Manually maintain pressure. D. Wrap the dressing circumferentially with gauze.
Manually maintain pressure.
You are dispatched to a motorcycle crash with one patient involved. Which of the following interventions should be performed first? A. Begin chest compressions. B. Suction the vomit and secretions from the airway. C. Manually stabilize the cervical spine. D. Stabilize the pelvis to a long spine board.
Manually stabilize the cervical spine.
What is the first step in a rapid takedown of a standing patient? A. Applying a properly sized cervical collar B. Positioning a long spine board behind the patient C. Manually stabilize the patient's head and neck D. Applying oxygen
Manually stabilize the patient's head and neck
What is a primary problem when treating musculoskeletal injuries? A. Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb. B. All musculoskeletal injuries are life threatening due to the bone bleeding, leading to hypoperfusion. C. Splints do not adequately fit the patient's extremities and must be modified with padding to ensure immobilization. D. Most musculoskeletal injuries are simply splinted and not a life threat to the patient.
Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb.
What is the MOST likely reason a garden center could become the site of a hazardous materials incident? A. Many people shop there. B. Many plants are sold there. C. Many people work there. D. Many fertilizers, pesticides, and other chemicals are sold there.
Many fertilizers, pesticides, and other chemicals are sold there.
Which of the following types of bleeding is most serious? A. Massive bleeding of any type B. External bleeding C. Arterial bleeding D. Internal bleeding
Massive bleeding of any type
What is the process that removes the biological (etiological) contamination hazards, as it destroys microorganisms and their toxins? A. Absorption B. Emulsification C. Dilution D. Disinfection
Disinfection
You are dispatched to a motor vehicle crash on a rural mountain highway. You have a patient who was unconscious on arrival, had a seizure, and is currently awake but combative. You suspect he may have a head injury. What is considered the BEST approach regarding transport of this patient? A. Begin transport to the trauma center on the ground, which is 1.5 hours' driving time. B. Transport to a local community hospital approximately 15 minutes away via ground. C. Dispatch the medical helicopter to meet your unit at the community hospital. D. Dispatch and await the medical helicopter, which is 20 minutes away.
Dispatch and await the medical helicopter, which is 20 minutes away.
Which of the following actions may need to be taken by the EMT when treating and transporting a patient who was exposed to, and contaminated by, a hazardous material? A. Dispose of patient care equipment such as blood-pressure cuffs and backboards. B. Wear a gown, mask, and goggles to prevent secondary contamination. C. Wear heavy cloth gloves. D. Place towels on the floor of the ambulance to soak up contaminated runoff water.
Dispose of patient care equipment such as blood-pressure cuffs and backboards.
You are transporting a stable patient who was involved in a minor fall from a ladder at a height of about 10 feet to a local community hospital. You assumed full spinal precautions not only because the patient has midline back pain in the sacrum, but also because he was knocked unconscious. While transporting, the patient begins to become increasingly confused, develop an irregular respiratory rate, and experience a drop in heart rate with an increase in blood pressure. You just called in a radio report and are about 7 minutes from the hospital. A trauma center is about 10 minutes away. Which of the following is the BEST transport decision? A. Continue transporting to the local hospital because you've already given report and they accepted the patient. B. Divert to the trauma center because the patient is becoming symptomatic. C. Continue transporting to the local hospital since it's the closest facility. D. Call the trauma center for advice.
Divert to the trauma center because the patient is becoming symptomatic.
Which two types of terrorism does the Federal Bureau of Investigation define as occurring in the United States? A. Chemical and biological B. Violent and intimidation C. Domestic and international D. Psychological and economic
Domestic and international
Which of the following is a common reason that EMTs are struck by motor vehicles at the scene of motor vehicle collisions on roadways? A. Drivers who are angry at being delayed deliberately take out their frustrations on rescue workers. B. Drivers are distracted by the scene of the collision and do not pay attention to what they are doing. C. EMTs sometimes lose track of what they are doing and wander into traffic. D. All of the above
Drivers are distracted by the scene of the collision and do not pay attention to what they are doing.
Which of the following BEST describes when positive pressure is applied to the patient's airway using a CPAP machine? A. During inhalation only B. During exhalation only C. During both inhalation and exhalation D. Between inhalation and exhalation
During both inhalation and exhalation
You are treating a 16-year-old skateboarder who has fallen at the skate park. She has an angulated left forearm that she has in a guarded position. When do you splint this injury? A. En route to the hospital B. Immediately C. During the primary exam D. During the secondary exam
During the secondary exam
What criteria based on the CDC guidelines allows a discretionary approach to trauma triage? For example, a patient not meeting ordinary trauma triage criteria may be transported to a trauma center based on what consideration? A. Review of morbidity and mortality B. EMS provider judgment C. "Golden Hour" criteria D. CDC "No-protocol Protocol"
EMS provider judgment
You are an EMT on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which there are 50 patients from a bus rollover. Incident Command has been established and EMS, law enforcement, and rescue sectors are established. You have just discovered that one of the bus passengers was carrying a suspicious package that is now leaking a white powdery substance. Which of the following entities should you contact about this? A. Incident Commander B. Dispatch C. EMS sector officer D. Medical direction
EMS sector officer
When log-rolling a patient with a suspected spinal injury, which of the following EMTs directs the move? A. EMT at the head of the patient B. EMT with the most seniority C. EMT at the heaviest portion of the patient D. EMT with the highest level of training
EMT at the head of the patient
Which of the following has been shown to actually interfere with the normal grieving and healing process after a multiple-casualty incident? A. Critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) sessions B. EMT engaging in psychoanalysis C. Mental health personnel available during the two months following a major incident D. Mental health personnel available on the scene
EMT engaging in psychoanalysis
Which of the following BEST describes a localized cold injury with a clear line of demarcation of its limits? A. Early frostnip B. Late frostbite C. Immersion foot D. Deep frostnip
Early frostnip
You are called to a local hardware store for a male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. As you pull into the parking lot, you notice several people in front of the building coughing and in obvious distress. What would be the BEST course of action at this point? A. Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response. B. Locate the patient for whom you were requested and begin treatment while another ambulance is en route for the other patients. C. Request a hazardous materials incident response and begin treating all patients displaying respiratory difficulties. D. Move the people with respiratory difficulties to a distant corner of the parking lot and set up a treatment sector.
Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response.
You are dispatched to a 42-year-old male who was shot in the abdomen and thrown from a vehicle. The patient is critical and a high-category trauma; however, due to the mechanism of injury, it is necessary to backboard the patient prior to transport. What is an important assessment before securing the patient? A. Examining the patient for entrance and exit wounds B. Performing a distal neurological assessment C. Searching for presence of diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hypotension D. Verifying trauma center ER bed availability
Examining the patient for entrance and exit wounds
Most state statutes allow an emergency vehicle operator to do which of the following on emergency calls? A. Pass a stopped school bus with its red flashers on B. Be exempt from liability in the event of a collision C. Drive around lowered cross-arms at a railroad crossing D. Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered
Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered
Which of the following is not a mechanism of musculoskeletal injury? A. Direct force B. Indirect force C. Twisting or rotational forces D. Extensive force
Extensive force
In a hypothermic patient the coldest blood is found in what part of the patient's body? A. Intestines B. Heart and lungs C. Head D. Extremities
Extremities
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a neurological assessment that looks at which of the following? A. Verbal response, motor response, and AVPU B. Grip strength, verbal response, and eye opening C. Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response D. Motor response, arm movement, and speech
Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response
Which of the following can serve as appropriate eye protection for an EMT on the scene of an extrication? A. Shield of a Firefighter's helmet B. Prescription eyeglasses C. Plastic face shield of the type used for Standard Precautions D. Face conforming goggles
Face conforming goggles
Heat stroke is caused by which of the following mechanisms? A. Blockage of blood flow to the brain B. Extreme dilation of all the blood vessels C. Failure of temperature regulation mechanisms D. Heat-induced swelling of brain tissue
Failure of temperature regulation mechanisms
49) Which of the following is the MOST common cause of seizures in infants and children? A) Hypoglycemia B) Hypoxia C) Fever D) Poisoning
Fever
Which of the following is the BEST protection for an EMT's upper body during an extrication operation? A. Nylon jacket with asbestos lining B. Thick wool coat C. Firefighting turnout coat D. Thick fireproof blanket draped around the shoulders
Firefighting turnout coat
Your patient is a 30-year-old construction worker who fell from scaffolding and has been impaled by a piece of concrete reinforcement bar. The patient responds to verbal stimuli. You have determined the bar is too long to adequately secure during patient transport. Which of the following is your best course of action? A. Transport with the reinforcement bar in place to prevent delay at the scene. B. Test the reinforcement bar for stability and remove it only if it is loose enough to be easily pulled from the wound. C. Remove the reinforcement bar and pack the orbit with sterile moist dressings to keep the scene time under 10 minutes. D. Firmly stabilize the reinforcement bar in place so that the rescue crew can cut it short.
Firmly stabilize the reinforcement bar in place so that the rescue crew can cut it short.
Johnny is an EMT with a local ambulance service. As part of his job, he is trained to recognize the existence of a potentially dangerous scene involving hazardous materials and know when to request a hazmat response. Johnny's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A. First Responder Awareness B. Hazardous Materials Specialist C. Hazardous Materials Technician D. First Responder Operations
First Responder Awareness
Soraya is an EMT who volunteers for a local fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she helps prevent the incident from becoming larger and ensures bystanders remain safe. Soraya's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A. First Responder Operations B. Hazardous Materials Specialist C. First Responder Awareness D. Hazardous Materials Technician
First Responder Operations
You are assessing a patient in labor. Her contractions are 2 minutes apart lasting 30 seconds with increasing pain. The patient states that she feels the urge to push. These signs indicate which stage of delivery? A. Third stage B. First and second stage C. Fourth stage D. Second stage
First and second stage
Which of the following is the correct way to time the frequency of contractions in the pregnant woman? A. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next B. After counting the number of contractions in a 15-minute period, multiply by 4 C. From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next D. From the beginning of a contraction to the end of the same contraction
From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next
A burn extending into the subcutaneous fat would be classified as which type of burn? a Deep partial thickness b Full thickness c Superficial partial thickness d Superficial
Full thickness
Which of the following types of radiation emits the most powerful rays? A. Gamma B. Alpha C. Delta D. Beta
Gamma
Your patient is a 37-year-old man who tripped while walking down a hill and now has a painful, deformed right leg. Your assessment reveals that the foot is cold and mottled in appearance. You cannot detect a pulse in the foot or ankle. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. Explain to the patient that, because you cannot detect circulation in his foot, his leg will most likely have to be amputated above the site of the injury. B. Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting. C. Splint the leg in the position in which it was found and transport without delay. D. Transport rapidly to the nearest trauma center.
Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting.
Which of the following is NOT a principle of splinting that must be considered by the EMT? A. Immobilize the site of an extremity injury from the joint above it to the joint below it. B. Splint an isolated extremity injury before moving the patient to the stretcher. C. Check the distal neurovascular function before and after splinting. D. Gently replace protruding bone ends back beneath the skin to prevent further contamination.
Gently replace protruding bone ends back beneath the skin to prevent further contamination.
Your patient is a 44-year-old female with a history of alcoholism. She has been walking around at an outdoor fair on a hot, sunny day. She is disoriented to time; has hot, dry skin; and appears to be generally weak. Which of the following is the appropriate sequence of treatment for this patient? A. Have the patient drink an electrolyte solution or sports drink and apply cold packs to her neck, armpits, and groin. B. Get as much ice as possible from the food vendors at the fair, place the patient in a large container of ice, and apply oxygen by nonrebreather mask. C. Give oxygen by nonrebreather mask, have the patient sip a sports drink or electrolyte solution, remove heavy clothing, and place cold packs on her neck, armpits, and groin. D. Give oxygen by nonrebreather mask, remove heavy clothing, and place cold packs on her neck, armpits, and groin.
Give oxygen by nonrebreather mask, remove heavy clothing, and place cold packs on her neck, armpits, and groin.
Which of the following should be used to protect a patient during extrication? A. Goggles B. Plastic blanket C. Netting D. None of the above
Goggles
Your patient is a 24-year-old man who smoked a cigarette dipped in formaldehyde and then went outside with no shoes on and walked in the snow for about an hour. He has deep local cold injuries to both feet. Which of the following should be included in your management of this patient? A. Break blisters before wrapping both feet in sterile dressings. B. Have the patient sit with his feet lower than the rest of his body. C. Gradually rewarm both feet. D. Massage the feet briskly.
Gradually rewarm both feet.
Which of the following should the EMT do during the treatment of localized cold injury? A. Encourage the patient to use the affected part. B. Rub the affected area with snow. C. Massage the affected area. D. Gradually warm the affected area.
Gradually warm the affected area
24) You are assessing a 2-year-old child whose mother states she has had a fever for several hours. Which of the following signs is cause for concern? A) Crying B) Absence of nasal flaring with inhalation C) Grunting at the end of expiration D) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute
Grunting at the end of expiration
For which of the following wounds should the EMT apply an absorbent dressing moistened with sterile saline and then cover it with an occlusive dressing? A. Gunshot wound (GSW) to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding B. Laceration to the neck C. The stump of an amputated extremity D. Stab wound to the chest
Gunshot wound (GSW) to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding
Where could you find the phalange bones? A. Upper extremities B. Lower extremities C. Skull and neck D. Hands and feet
Hands and feet
Which of the following is NOT generally recognized as a form of terrorist incident? A. Industrial sabotage B. Biological weapons C. Explosion D. Harassment
Harassment
Which of the following is NOT recommended when controlling epistaxis? A. Having the patient tilt the head backward to elevate the nose B. Placing the unconscious patient in the recovery position C. Keeping the patient calm and quiet D. Pinching the nostrils together
Having the patient tilt the head backward to elevate the nose
Andrea is an EMS supervisor with a combined EMS/Fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she uses her knowledge of hazardous materials to support the activities of other responders and manage the scene. Andrea's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A. Hazardous Materials Technician B. First Responder Operations C. First Responder Awareness D. Hazardous Materials Specialist
Hazardous Materials Specialist
Eduardo is an EMT with a major metropolitan fire department. He is assigned to a station within an industrial complex. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, Eduardo functions on a team where he plugs a leaking drum. Eduardo's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level. A. First Responder Awareness B. First Responder Operations C. Hazardous Materials Specialist D. Hazardous Materials Technician
Hazardous Materials Technician
12) You are called for a child that has had a fever for a couple of days. The parents tell you that two of the other children have been home with a stomach virus and fever. As you attempt to assess the child, he pulls away from you and grabs onto his mother. Which of the following behaviors would be considered "normal" for a 4-year-old? A) He doesn't make eye contact as you approach. B) He begins to cry when you try to touch his booboo. C) He runs up to you when you enter the room. D) He flares his nostrils when he breathes.
He begins to cry when you try to touch his booboo.
22) You are called for a sick 2-year-old boy. When you arrive, you see the boy sitting quietly on his mother's lap. You note that he is not crying and has his head tucked against his mother's chest. However, he does lift his head and look at you when you enter. As you approach, he withdraws deeper toward his mother. What have you learned about the patient so far? A) He probably does not have a fever. B) He is alert and probably acting appropriately. C) His front fontanelle is sunken, likely from dehydration. D) His skin is warm and dry.
He is alert and probably acting appropriately.
You walk up the stairs of a house to respond to a call of an elderly man. You notice that the stairs do not have any handrails. After responding to the reason why he called 911, what suggestion would you give to this patient to avoid falls in the future? A. Nothing, there is no problem. B. He should install a handrail on the front steps to avoid any falls. C. It is a good idea there are no handrails on the front steps as this negatively impacts his balance as he walks up the stairs. D. It is illegal to not have a handrail on the front steps and it must be fixed immediately.
He should install a handrail on the front steps to avoid any falls.
When using a short spine immobilization device, which part of the body is secured last? A. Head B. Arms C. Torso D. Legs
Head
Which of the following is the correct position to use when transporting a patient who has a tracheostomy tube? A. Shock position B. Head slightly elevated C. Prone D. Supine
Head slightly elevated
You are dispatched to a multiple vehicle collision on a busy interstate highway. Your crew identifies a critical patient entrapped in a small sedan with significant intrusion into the occupant area on the front and left side. One of your crew members, dressed in fully protective gear, volunteers to enter the vehicle to begin assessment and treatment. Given that access to the patient is limited, you tell him to concentrate on assessing which of the following parts of the patient's body? A. Torso, pelvis, and lower extremities B. Head, chest, and upper extremities C. Head, chest, and torso D. Head, posterior torso, and lower extremities
Head, chest, and torso
Your patient has been involved in a motor vehicle collision. He has a contusion on his forehead, is confused, and is bleeding from his nose. His heart rate is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 80/58 mmHg, respirations are 20 breaths per minute, and his skin is cool and clammy. Which of the following sets of injuries should you suspect? A. Head injury and spine injury B. Head injury, spine injury, and internal bleeding C. Head injury D. Head injury and internal bleeding
Head injury, spine injury, and internal bleeding
34) Which of the following is NOT a common cause of shock in infants and children? A) Heart failure B) Blood loss C) Infection D) Dehydration
Heart failure
Which of the following is the major cause of shock that the EMT will encounter? A. High blood pressure B. Excessive sweating C. Vomiting D. Hemorrhage
Hemorrhage
The greatest danger to the pregnant woman and her fetus involved in trauma is which of the following? A. Neurogenic shock B. Hemorrhagic shock C. Supine hypotensive shock D. Distributive shock
Hemorrhagic shock
Which of the following questions is MOST helpful in distinguishing between normal age-related changes and the effects of an illness when assessing an elderly patient? A. When was the last time you had a bowel movement? B. Are you taking your medications the way you are supposed to be taking them? C. How is your appetite? D. How do you feel today compared to last week?
How do you feel today compared to last week?
Which of the following should NOT be considered during the scene size-up of a hazardous materials emergency? A. Potential for spread of the substance B. How quickly the materials may be cleaned up C. The properties and potential dangers of the substance D. Identification of the substance
How quickly the materials may be cleaned up
Which of the following fluids is NOT checked by an EMT? A. Oil B. Hydraulic C. Transmission D. Coolant
Hydraulic
Which of the following may result from the application of a cervical collar that is too large for the patient? A. Excessive lateral movement of the mandible B. Rotation of the head and neck C. Hyperextension of the neck D. Hyperflexion of the neck
Hyperextension of the neck
Which of the following describes the condition of having an abnormally high body temperature? A. Hyperthermia B. Septic shock C. Hyperdynamic state D. Heat shock
Hyperthermia
Shock is the circulatory system's failure to provide sufficient blood and oxygen to all the body's tissues. Which of the answers is NOT a major type of shock? A. Cardiogenic B. Hypovolemic C. Hypervolemic D.Hemorrhagic
Hypervolemic
Which of the following is another name for describing the condition of shock? A. Hypoperfusion B. Hypotension C. Internal bleeding D. Hemorrhage
Hypoperfusion
Which of the following signifies a failure in the patient's compensatory response to blood loss? A. Hypotension B. Pale, cool skin C. Tachypnea D. Tachycardia
Hypotension
Your trauma patient is anxious, tachycardic, pale, and hypotensive. Which of these signs indicates failure of the body's compensatory mechanisms? A. Hypotension B. Anxiousness C. Tachycardia D. Pallor
Hypotension
Which of the following is NOT a classification of localized cold injury? A. Hypothermia B. Frostbite C. Frostnip D. All of the above are localized cold injuries.
Hypothermia
In which of the following circumstances should a helmet be removed? A. If the helmet interferes with airway management B. If you want to place a nasal cannula on the patient but cannot because his ears are covered by the helmet C. If you suspect a skull fracture and need to palpate the head D. If the helmet fits so snugly that you cannot inspect the ears for the presence of blood or fluid
If the helmet interferes with airway management
Which one of the following is incorrect in the application of a tourniquet? A. A blood pressure cuff can be used as a tourniquet. B. The tourniquet should be placed approximately 2 inches above the bleeding. C. If possible, the tourniquet should be placed on a joint. D. The tourniquet should be 2 to 4 inches wide.
If possible, the tourniquet should be placed on a joint.
Which of the following complications may arise from properly splinting an injured extremity? A. Converting a closed fracture to an open one B. Compromising circulation to the extremity C. Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury D. All of the above
Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury
Which of the following complications may arise from properly splinting an injured extremity? A. Converting a closed fracture to an open one B. Compromising circulation to the extremity C. Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury D. All of the above
Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury
When deciding where to transport a patient who is in hypovolemic shock or who has the potential for developing hypovolemic shock, which of the following is the MOST important service to be provided by the receiving hospital? A. Availability of a chaplain B. Immediate surgical capabilities C. Critical-care nursing D.Rehabilitation services
Immediate surgical capabilities
Your patient is a 28-year-old male who was ejected from his motorcycle after striking a parked vehicle. He has multiple deformities to his upper and lower extremities on both sides. Which of the following would be the BEST way to immobilize this patient's extremities prior to transport? A. Use traction splints for the lower extremities and allow the upper extremities to be immobilized by the long backboard. B. Use padded board splints for the upper extremities and PASG for the lower extremities. C. Use moldable splints for the upper and lower extremities, padding any voids to fully stabilize the fractures. D. Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extremities individually.
Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extremities individually.
Which of the following phases of extrication follows the other three phases? A. Immobilizing and extricating the patient B. Stabilizing the vehicle C. Gaining access to the patient D. Recognizing and managing hazards
Immobilizing and extricating the patient
Which of the following is NOT a consideration in the general protection against agents used in terrorist attacks? A. Shielding from the agent B. Distance from event C. Duration of exposure D. Immunization
Immunization
Which of the following causes worsening of the damage in a brain injury? A. Allowing seepage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose B. Improper management of airway and ventilation C. Failure to keep the patient awake and talking D. Administration of 100% oxygen
Improper management of airway and ventilation
Distinguishing between a knee dislocation and a patella dislocation can sometimes be difficult. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. In a knee dislocation, the tibia is forced anteriorly or posteriorly in relation to the distal femur. B. You should always check for a distal pulse. C. In a patellar dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced. D. The lack of a distal pulse could be a signal of a real emergency.
In a patellar dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced.
Where are automatic implanted cardiac defibrillators typically placed in patients who require one? A. In the lower left chest B. In the lower right chest C. In the upper left chest D. In the upper right chest
In the upper left chest
You are on the scene of a probable terrorist attack with several other agencies, both local and federal. In order to operate in an efficient manner, all agencies should follow the: A. Incident Command System. B. Interagency Communication System. C. Interagency Command System. D. Incident Control System.
Incident Command System.
The senior EMT on the first vehicle that arrived on a scene with multiple patients should assume which of the following roles until relieved by a senior official? A. Incident Commander of the scene B. Staging supervisor C. Transport sector supervisor D. Triage sector supervisor
Incident Commander of the scene
Which of the following contributes MOST significantly to the occurrence of ambulance crashes? A. Size of the vehicle B. Weather conditions C. Time of day D. Speed of the vehicle
Speed of the vehicle
The bony bumps you feel along the center of a person's back are known as which of the following? A. Transverse processes B. Foramen magnum C. Spinous process D. Vertebrae
Spinous process
Limiting time spent at a scene can be especially important if the mechanism of injury suggests that the patient could go into shock. In order to keep the time at the scene to a minimum, which of the following assessments or treatments should not be performed on the scene? A. Rapid trauma exam B. Splinting swollen extremities C. Immobilization D. ABCs with spinal precautions
Splinting swollen extremities
What is the term for when the fetus and placenta deliver before the 28th week of pregnancy? A. Induced abortion B. Stillbirth C. Eclampsia D. Spontaneous abortion
Spontaneous abortion
Which of the following is a characteristic of arterial bleeding? A. Steady flow B. Spurting under pressure C. Dark red color D. Both B and C
Spurting under pressure
43. You are dispatched to the local elementary school for an injured student. Upon arrival you find that two 7-year-olds got into a fight and one of them jabbed a pencil in the other's cheek. The pencil is still sticking out of the child's cheek. When you examine the patient, you cannot see the end of the pencil that went through the cheek, as it appears to be stuck in the palate. There is not significant bleeding, and the child is not having any difficulty breathing. The child is very upset and wants you to pull the pencil out. What should you do? a. Stabilize the object, but do not try to remove it. b. Remove the object and put a bandage on the outside of the cheek. c. Call the parents and see what they want you to do. d. Let the child carefully pull the object out.
Stabilize the object, but do not try to remove it.
Which of the following is adequate protection for the EMT's head while at the scene of an auto extrication? A. Firefighting helmet B. Standard construction hardhat C. Nomex hood D. Watch cap
Standard construction hardhat
You have arrived at the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are utility wires down around the vehicle. The three occupants appear dazed and other responding units have not yet arrived. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. Stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle. B. Encourage the occupants to exit the vehicle by jumping free of the vehicle before touching the ground. C. Push the wires out of the way with a long pry-bar in order to access the patients. D. Cool the wires with large amounts of water to prevent a fire from starting.
Stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle
Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of dressings used in the prehospital management of most open wounds? A. Absorbent B. Occlusive C. Adherent D. Sterile
Sterile
Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of dressings used in the prehospital management of most open wounds? A. Occlusive B. Adherent C. Nonabsorbent D. Sterile
Sterile
Which of the following bones is found in the chest? A. Tarsals B. Ilium C. Sternum D. Metacarpals
Sternum
Which of the following is NOT a role of dialysis in a renal failure patient? A. Stimulate blood cell production B. Remove waste from the body C. Filter and detoxify the blood D. Remove fluid from the body
Stimulate blood cell production
Which of the following is an injury to the musculature of an extremity? A. Luxation B. Strain C. Fracture D. Sprain
Strain
14) What is the tendency for a frightened child to act younger than his age? A) Repression B) Regression C) Retreat D) Retraction
Regression
The current trend in international terrorism is that it tends to be motivated by which of the following? A. Environmental issues B. Religion C. Ethics D. Politics
Religion
Which of the following is acceptable in the management of a patient stung by a honey bee? A. Soak the affected area in warm water. B. Pull the stinger out using tweezers. C. Remove jewelry from any affected limbs. D. Elevate the affected site above the level of the heart to reduce swelling.
Remove jewelry from any affected limbs.
48) Your patient is a 2-year-old female who has suffered a seizure but does not have a previous history of seizures. The patient's father states that the child has been pulling at her ear and has had a fever. They were getting ready to leave for a doctor's appointment when the child had a brief seizure. The patient is drowsy and has hot, flushed skin. Which of the following is recommended in the prehospital management of this patient? A) Sponge the child's back and arms with rubbing alcohol. B) Place ice packs in the armpits, groin, and around the head. C) Remove the child's clothing down to her underpants or diaper. D) Cover the child with a towel soaked in ice water.
Remove the child's clothing down to her underpants or diaper.
Which of the following BEST explains the reason for minimizing scene-time for the trauma patient with significant hemorrhage or the potential for significant hemorrhage? A. The clock for the "golden hour" of trauma begins at the time of your arrival. B. Studies have indicated that trauma patients who receive surgery within 1 hour of injury have better chances of survival. C. There is nothing the EMT can do for a patient in shock. D. It gives the EMT less opportunity to make mistakes in the patient's care.
Studies have indicated that trauma patients who receive surgery within 1 hour of injury have better chances of survival.
Which of the following layers of the skin is the most important in insulating the body against heat loss? A. Parietal layer B. Subcutaneous layer C. Epidermis D. Subdural layer
Subcutaneous layer
When blood accumulates between the brain and the dura mater, what is the result? A. Subdural contusion B. Subdural hematoma C. Epidural hematoma D. Epidural contusion
Subdural hematoma
What is the correct terminology for a wound in which a vacuum has been created within the chest, drawing air into the thorax with each breath? A. Closed tension pneumothorax B. Sucking chest wound C. Gurgling chest wound D. Open chest wound
Sucking chest wound
You respond to a professional volleyball tournament for a potential heatstroke. Upon arrival you find a 28-year-old male patient seated inside the air-conditioned first aid trailer. He is alert and in obvious distress. He is complaining of severe cramping of his arms and legs. His vital signs are stable. What is the most likely cause of the cramping? a. Heat exhaustion b. Drinking too many sports drinks c. Sweating too much d. Cooling off too quickly
Sweating too much
41. You are dispatched to the local high school for a "person struck with a baseball." You arrive on the scene and find a 16-year-old male sitting on the bench. Apparently he was the pitcher and was struck in the abdominal area by a line drive ball that was hit very hard. He states that nothing is hurting except he has some mild pain in the area where he was struck. He is upset that the ambulance was called and wants to go back into the game and continue pitching. Your exam reveals nothing remarkable except mild pain when you palate the injured area. Vital signs are normal. What is the next step? a. Have the coach apply cold to the area and let the pitcher back in the game if he does not get worse in the next 15 minutes. b. Have the patient walk to the ambulance and take him to the ED. No other care needs to be provided, as there is really no significant sign of any injury. c. Take appropriate Standard Precautions, apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask, and transport the patient ASAP, carefully monitoring the patient during transport. d. Tell the coach the patient is okay and he can go back into the ball game.
Take appropriate Standard Precautions, apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask, and transport the patient ASAP, carefully monitoring the patient during transport.
You encounter an accident on a busy intercity street while on duty. Calling into dispatch, you make note that the occupants of both vehicles are outside, and you request additional units to proceed non-emergently. You approach an elderly male who is rubbing his back and left shoulder. During secondary assessment of past medical history, you make note of several important details: the patient is on high blood pressure medications, and has had a heart attack in the past. He is complaining of midline thoracic pain on palpation of his spine and left shoulder pain, which may have been from the seat belt, but is refusing care and transport. The patient did not lose consciousness. Based on this information, which transport decision would be most appropriate for this patient? A. Call for ALS intercept. B. Allow the patient to sign a refusal. C. Take the patient to a local community hospital. D. Take the patient to a trauma center.
Take the patient to a local community hospital.
When grossly decontaminating a patient who is not wearing personal protective equipment in a hazardous materials incident, which of the following techniques should be used? A. Using a high pressure water jet system B. Taking a low-pressure decontamination shower C. Scrubbing with a long-handled brush D. Sponging with a dilute solution of water and white vinegar
Taking a low-pressure decontamination shower
58) For the EMT who has cared for a pediatric patient in tragic circumstances, which of the following would be an appropriate way of dealing with stress accompanying the experience? A) Get together with others who participated in the care of the child and unwind with some alcoholic beverages. B) Talk to a compassionate coworker who has had similar experiences in the past. C) Vent your rage in a letter to the person responsible for the child's circumstances. D) Put the incident as your social media status and encourage others talk about it.
Talk to a compassionate coworker who has had similar experiences in the past.
Which of the following describes the proper application of an occlusive dressing for an open chest wound? A. Tape the occlusive dressing on two sides only to create dual flaps for relief pressure build-up. B. Tape the dressing securely on three sides. C. Use a porous material such as a 4double prime′′ by 4double prime′′ gauze pad. D. Trim the dressing so that it is the exact size of the wound.
Tape the dressing securely on three sides.
42. You are dispatched to an auto repair shop for an "accident." You arrive and are told by the owner that one of the workers apparently got his hand in the way while using a high-pressure grease gun and injected the grease into his hand. You find the patient seated in a chair with a coworker applying ice to the injured hand. Your examination reveals a minor round laceration in the hand. The patient is complaining of pain in the area but wants to let the wound take care of itself and go back to work. What should you do? a. The patient is correct. This type of wound will heal on its own and he can go back to work. b. Remove the ice from the wound, then elevate and splint the limb. Transport the patient high priority. c. Continue to apply cold, elevate and splint the limb, and transport the patient high priority. d. Tell the patient that if it does not get better within the next few days he should consult his own doctor
Remove the ice from the wound, then elevate and splint the limb. Transport the patient high priority
Your patient is a 28-year-old male who cut his thigh with a chainsaw. Bleeding is significant and difficult to control. Which of the following is NOT part of the proper management of this patient? A. Replacement of fluid level by giving the patient adequate amounts of water B. Administering oxygen C. Use of a tourniquet D. Using direct pressure to control the bleeding
Replacement of fluid level by giving the patient adequate amounts of water
Which of the following is NOT the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible hazardous materials emergency? A. Request special resources to respond. B. Recognize a hazardous materials emergency. C. Establish a safe zone. D. Rescue any victims still in the area of the spill.
Rescue any victims still in the area of the spill.
39) Which of the following is the MOST common cause of cardiac arrest in the pediatric patient? A) Hypoglycemia B) Congenital heart defects C) Ventricular fibrillation D) Respiratory failure
Respiratory failure
41) Which of the following signs may signify impending cardiac arrest in a child? A) Respiratory rate over 60 B) Pulse rate over 120 C) Pulse rate 80 in a 5-year-old D) Blood pressure of 105 systolic in a school age child
Respiratory rate over 60
Biological warfare is MOST effective when the agent can gain access through which of the following routes? A. Respiratory tract B. Blood C. Skin D. Gastrointestinal tract
Respiratory tract
56) Which of the following statements is true regarding child abuse injuries? A) Splash burns indicate child abuse. B) Rib fractures in young children suggest child abuse. C) Shaken baby syndrome never causes death of the infant. D) Head injuries are usually the first sign in child abuse.
Rib fractures in young children suggest child abuse.
Which of the following statements is true regarding child abuse injuries of special needs patients? A. Splash burns indicate child abuse B. Shaken baby syndrome never causes death of the infant C. Head injuries are usually the first sign in child abuse D. Rib fractures in young children suggest child abuse.
Rib fractures in young children suggest child abuse.
Which of the following pieces of equipment is acceptable for use in the prehospital stabilization of suspected cervical spine injuries? A. 2double prime′′ times ×4double prime′′ wood cribbing B. Soft cervical collars C. Five-pound sand bags D. Rigid cervical collars
Rigid cervical collars
You have assisted in the delivery of a full-term infant by suctioning the mouth and nose as the head was delivered and again following complete delivery. The infant is not yet breathing. Which of the following is the correct sequence of interventions? A. Rub the infant's back, tap the bottom of his foot, begin bag-valve-mask ventilations, and check the pulse. B. Transport without further intervention. C. Begin bag-valve-mask ventilations, suction the airway with a rigid tonsil tip, and begin CPR. D. Perform a series of back blows and chest thrusts interposed with mouth-to-mouth ventilation.
Rub the infant's back, tap the bottom of his foot, begin bag-valve-mask ventilations, and check the pulse.
Concerning the threat of nuclear devices used in terrorist attacks, which of the following is MOST likely to be used in such an attack? A. Radiological dispersal device B. Military nuclear device C. Sabotage of facilities for nuclear research D. Improvised nuclear weapon
Sabotage of facilities for nuclear research
What source will provide first aid information about hazardous materials for employees at a work site? A. Placard B. Safety data sheets C. Bill of lading D. Shipping manifest
Safety data sheets
Heat cramps occur due to loss of which of the following substances? A. Water B. Salt C. Magnesium D. Water and potassium
Salt
Which of the following is recommended when caring for an amputated part? A. Rinse away debris with saline solution and place the part in a container of ice. B. Wrap the part in aluminum foil to preserve body temperature. C. Seal the part in a plastic bag and place it in a pan of water cooled by an ice pack. D. Always transport the amputated part with the patient.
Seal the part in a plastic bag and place it in a pan of water cooled by an ice pack.
During which stage of labor is the baby born? A. Third B. First C. Primary D. Second
Second
Which of the following is an accurate definition of a flail chest? A. Section of the chest wall that is unstable, leading to breathing problems B. Fracture of one rib in two or more consecutive places C. Fracture of at least four ribs in two or more places D. Lung that has been punctured by a fractured rib, resulting in a buildup of air
Section of the chest wall that is unstable, leading to breathing problems
Which of the following may help in minimizing the stressful effects of the disruption in circadian rhythms seen in EMS multiple-casualty incidents work? A. Eat a heavy meal just before bedtime B. Seek help from a trained professional C. Keep your bedroom light on and warm D. Sleep as much as possible on days off.
Seek help from a trained professional
Which of the following considerations should be determined when conducting a scene size-up at night of a single vehicle collision involving a rollover? A. How many EMS supervisors are needed for command B. Make and model of the vehicle involved C. Mechanism of injury D. Which patient is the least injured
Mechanism of injury
While assessing a 78-year-old male patient who escaped an apartment fire with partial thickness burns to both arms, the EMT must be aware of which of the following? a. Being involved in a crime makes the patient part of the chain of evidence, requiring a police officer to ride with you to the hospital. b. The burn is the most serious injury to the patient. c. Medical conditions may be aggravated by the burn. d. The patient may need to be questioned by police and fire officials about the cause of the fire.
Medical conditions may be aggravated by the burn
Upon your arrival for a medical call at a private residence, you find an elderly male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. Which of the following findings would provide you with immediate information about the patient's condition? A. Baseline vital signs B. Temperature in the house C. Medication list D. Mental status
Mental status
On assessment of the midsection of a 32-year-old male who was struck by a car, you find an abdominal evisceration with several loops of his large intestine exposed. The abdomen appears to have a clean-cut laceration and the bleeding is controlled. Which of the following is the BEST approach toward managing the exposed intestines? A. Leave the abdominal contents in the place in which they were found and transport immediately. B. Cover the abdomen with an occlusive dressing of aluminum foil. C. Gently replace the intestines after moistening with sterile saline solution. D. Moisten a sterile dressing with saline solution and cover the abdominal contents.
Moisten a sterile dressing with saline solution and cover the abdominal contents.
You respond to the scene of a local campground. Your patient is a 15-year-old female patient who was stung in the arm by a bee. The patient is anxious and hyperventilating at 28 times a minute. The patient is alert and oriented to time, place, person, and event. Lung sounds are clear bilaterally. The left arm is swollen and the stinger is not present. Blood pressure is 118/72 and pulse is 110. The patient's mother states she is allergic to bee stings and has an epinephrine auto-injector. She called 911 because she was afraid the patient would stop breathing. Select the best treatment plan. A. Place a constricting band around the arm to minimize the spread of the venom. B. Assist the patient in administering her epinephrine auto-injector. C. Monitor the patient for shock and transport. D. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position.
Monitor the patient for shock and transport.
Which of the following is of greatest concern for the EMT in the prehospital care of a woman with vaginal bleeding? A. Preventing infection B. Finding out if the patient is currently sexually active C. Monitoring for hypovolemic shock D. Obtaining a thorough gynecological history
Monitoring for hypovolemic shock
Which of the following statements is true regarding helicopter transport? A. Helicopter transport is relatively inexpensive. B. Patient care is seldom affected during the flight. C. Pressure changes do not affect equipment such as PASG, ET tubes, and so on. D. Most treatment should be done prior to loading the patient.
Most treatment should be done prior to loading the patient.
Which of the following is the MOST common type of multiple-casualty incident that EMS providers will respond to? A. Hazardous materials incidents B. Structure fires C. Outbreaks of influenza D. Motor vehicle collisions
Motor vehicle collisions
8) Because infants and small children rely more heavily on the diaphragm for breathing, respiratory distress can be detected by observing which one of the following signs that is not prominent in adults? A) Bulging of the intercostal spaces B) Use of the sternocleidomastoid muscles of the neck C) Movement of the abdomen with respiratory effort D) None of the above
Movement of the abdomen with respiratory effort
Which of the following situations are frequently problematic for patients who have tracheostomy tubes? A. Air embolism B. Mucus buildup C. Tracheal tears D. Tube malplacement
Mucus buildup
What is the definition of multisystem trauma? A. Trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury B. Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system C. A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies D. A trauma in which there are multiple casualties
Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system
Chemical cold packs are carried on the ambulance for treatment of which of the following? A. Abdominal pain B. Seizures C. Musculoskeletal injuries D. Snake bites
Musculoskeletal injuries
Which safety device prevents car doors from opening during a collision? A. Nader jam B. Safety lock C. Nader pin D. Safety pin
Nader pin
7) You are assessing a child who is having problems breathing. Her mother states that she has been diagnosed with asthma and has recently started using an inhaler. Which of the following would indicate early respiratory distress? A) Cyanosis of the nail beds and lips B) Slow heart rate C) Respiratory rate of 12 D) Nasal flaring
Nasal flaring
You are treating a 35-year-old male patient that has been involved in a motorcycle incident. The patient is unresponsive with a blood pressure of 60/40, a pulse of 66 beats per minute, and respirations of 18 breaths per minute. The patient's presentation is most likely caused by which of the following? A. Cardiogenic shock B. Neurogenic shock C. Increased intracranial pressure D. Septic shock
Neurogenic shock
Which of the following statements is true when talking about neurogenic shock? A. Neurogenic shock is sometimes caused by spinal injuries. B. Neurogenic shock is caused by the blood vessels overfilling with blood, causing leaking into the nerves. C. Neurogenic shock is very common in the field. D. Neurogenic shock is the result of the blood vessels decreasing in size.
Neurogenic shock is sometimes caused by spinal injuries.
Which of the following methods of decontamination is NOT usually a prehospital activity during a terrorism incident? A. Isolation B. Dilution C. Absorption D. Neutralization
Neutralization
62) Pop-off valves should be functional when ventilating the pediatric patient: A) to avoid overinflation of the lungs. B) to avoid causing a pneumothorax. C) to avoid barotrauma to the lungs. D) None of the above
None of the above
A 36-year-old male was accidentally shot with a nail gun into the chest. You see the nail, which protrudes about 2 to 3 centimeters from the thorax, when you visualize the injury site. Under which of the following circumstances should you remove the nail from the injury site? A. The patient begins to complain of shortness of breath. B. The patient develops a tension pneumothorax. C. Bleeding from the patient's wound is minimal. D. None of the above
None of the above
A 36-year-old man has accidentally shot a nail into his thigh while using a nail gun. Under which of the following circumstances should the EMT remove the nail from the injury site? A. The nail is less than 2 inches in length. B. The patient's distal pulse, motor function, and sensation are intact. C. Bleeding from the wound is minimal. D. None of the above
None of the above
A 36-year-old male was accidentally shot with a nail gun into the head. You see the nail, which protrudes about 2 to 3 centimeters from the skull, when you visualize the injury site. Under which of the following circumstances should you remove the nail from the injury site? A. The patient begins to complain of shortness of breath. B. The patient develops excessive intracranial pressure (ICP). C. Bleeding from the patient's wound is minimal. D. None of the above
None of the above
Which of the following is a good choice for preventing further injury to a patient during auto extrication? A. Sheet B. Disposable blanket C. Placing your body over the top of the patient D. None of the above
None of the above
Which of the following statements is believed to be true regarding domestic elder abuse? A. The elders are usually in good health. B. There is seldom a family history of elder abuse. C. The abusers are usually well-adjusted. D. None of the above.
None of the above.
Which of the following is an unsafe behavior that contributes to most injuries at the scene of vehicle collisions? A. Not wearing proper protective gear B. Antagonizing bystanders C. Using improvised tools D. Unknowingly walking into hazardous materials situations
Not wearing proper protective gear
Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials emergencies? A. NHTSA and NRC B. OSHA and EPA C. NAEMT and NHTSA D. DOT and FCC
OSHA and EPA
Bariatrics is defined as the branch of medicine that deals with the cause, prevention, and treatment of which of the following diseases? A. Blindness B. Sleep apnea C. Obesity D. Diabetes
Obesity
Occlusive dressings must be carried on an ambulance to treat which of the following injuries? A. Impaled object in the eye B. Tension pneumothorax C. Open pneumothorax D. Amputations
Open pneumothorax
Which of the following BEST describes an evisceration? A. Flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue B. Accumulation of blood beneath the skin, resulting in swelling C. Open wound of the abdomen from which organs protrude D. Epidermis that is scraped away by a rough surface
Open wound of the abdomen from which organs protrude
When working at a nighttime emergency on a roadway, which of the following safety considerations should the prudent EMS provider do to increase safety? A. Switch the headlights to the "high beam" position for maximum lighting. B. Operate amber warning lights only, if the option is available. C. Keep only the fog lights on to keep the light out of drivers' vision. D. Keep all available response lights on to warn oncoming traffic.
Operate amber warning lights only, if the option is available.
Which of the following is meant by the "1 percent rule" of aging? A. About 1 percent of the population makes it to their 85th birthday. B. We lose about 1 percent of our memory capacity every year beginning at age 50. C. Our organ systems lose about 1 percent of function per year beginning at age 30. D. About 1 percent of the population older than age 65 has significant organ function decline.
Our organ systems lose about 1 percent of function per year beginning at age 30.
When transporting a patient who is morbidly obese to the hospital, it is important to monitor which of the following vital signs? A. Oxygen saturation B. Blood pressure C. Blood glucose level D. Pulse rate
Oxygen saturation
Compare the pain a patient experiences when receiving a shock from a pacemaker against the pain felt when receiving a shock from an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). A. Both are painful. B. Both are painless. C. Pacemakers are painful and AICDs are painless. D. Pacemakers are painless and AICDs are painful.
Pacemakers are painless and AICDs are painful.
Which of the following is NOT part of a basic obstetrics kit? A. Packet of suture material B. Surgical scissors C. Umbilical cord clamps D. Baby blanket
Packet of suture material
When the EMT is assessing compromise to an extremity, perhaps due to an orthopedic injury, the EMT should initially check what "Six Ps"? A. Pain, pallor, position, pulses, placement, and pressure B. Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, placement, and pressure C. Pain, pallor, position, pulses, placement, and pad D. Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, paralysis, and pressure
Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, paralysis, and pressure
Your patient is a 27-year-old male who has been involved in a motorcycle collision in which he was not wearing a helmet. He does not respond when you speak to him, but he makes incomprehensible sounds when you press your knuckles on his sternum. Which of the following BEST describes his level of consciousness? A. Verbal B. Painful C. Unresponsive D. Alert
Painful
46) You are responding to a 6-year-old child with a fever and difficulty breathing. His mother reports that he was playing normally this morning but when he came in for lunch he had spiked a fever. Now, he is sitting up with his mouth open, drooling. Which of the following signs would point to epiglottitis? A) Loud "seal bark" cough B) Painful swallowing C) Low grade fever D) Some hoarseness
Painful swallowing
If assisting in a prehospital delivery while off-duty, which of the following would be the BEST choice for tying or clamping the umbilical cord? A. Section of wire coat hanger B. Clothespin C. White cotton thread D. Pair of shoelaces
Pair of shoelaces
A method of assessing compromise to an extremity when a musculoskeletal injury is suspected is to learn and follow the six Ps. Which of the items below is not one of the six Ps? A. Pain B. Pallor C. Paresthesia D. Parenthesis
Parenthesis
You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision involving a small pickup truck that struck the rear of a moving tractor-trailer. The driver of the tractor-trailer is walking around and complains of neck pain. The driver of the pickup truck is conscious, but cannot exit the vehicle because the door is stuck and the steering wheel is displaced onto his lap. The passenger of the pickup truck is sitting upright in the passenger seat, is unconscious, but has radial pulses. Access to the passenger is not obstructed. A fourth patient, who was sitting in the pickup truck bed, is found about 10 feet away and responds to commands appropriately. Assuming your ambulance is the only emergency vehicle on the scene currently, which of the following patients should be packaged for transport first by the next arriving ambulance? A. Pickup truck driver B. Passenger ejected from the pickup truck bed C. Passenger in the pickup truck's front seat .D. Tractor trailer driver
Passenger in the pickup truck's front seat
Allowing a patient's body temperature to increase by preventing further heat loss is referred to as which of the following? A. Core rewarming B. Passive rewarming C. Active rewarming D. Natural rewarming
Passive rewarming
You respond to the scene of a 14-year-old patient. He is unresponsive and hypothermic. Emergency Medical Responders have moved the patient inside and secured the airway prior to your arrival. What is your next action? A. Vigorously rub the patient to increase the body temperature. B. Actively rewarm the patient. C. Passively rewarm the patient. D. Assess for signs of frostbite and treat immediately
Passively rewarm the patient.
Which of the following is the EMT's key role at the scene of an auto extrication? A. Incident commander B. Patient advocate C. Rescue technician D. Safety officer
Patient advocate
Which patient is the highest priority? A. Patient with a penetrating chest injury B. Patient with a Revised Trauma Score of 12 C. Patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 15 D. Patient with a broken femur
Patient with a penetrating chest injury
Which trauma patient is the most critical? A. Patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 7 B. Patient with decorticate posturing C. Patient who withdraws to painful stimuli D. Patient with decerebrate posturing
Patient with decerebrate posturing
Burns pose a greater risk to infants and children for which of the following reasons? a. Pediatric patients have a greater risk of heart problems associated with the burn. b. Pediatric patients have a greater risk of shock from the burn. c. Infants and children have a greater risk of infection from the burn. d. None of the above
Pediatric patients have a greater risk of shock from the burn.
Which of the following BEST describes the delivery of oxygen and nutrients at the body's cellular level? A. Circulation B. Perfusion C. Hydrostatic pressure D. Osmosis
Perfusion
Which of the following systems includes the pairs of nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord between each pair of vertebrae? A. Central nervous system B. Peripheral nervous system C. Autonomic nervous system D. All of the above
Peripheral nervous system
Which of the following is the main advantage of peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis? A. Peritoneal dialysis is likely to be done at the patient's home. B. Peritoneal dialysis is more effective. C. Peritoneal dialysis is much faster. D. Peritoneal dialysis is less prone to infection.
Peritoneal dialysis is likely to be done at the patient's home.
Which of the following is the most significant way in which the body cools itself? A. Respiration B. Perspiration C. Radiation D. Vasoconstriction
Perspiration
Which of the following is NOT relevant in determining whether or not delivery is imminent for a woman in labor? A. Asking how long ago the contractions began B. Determining if the patient feels as if she needs to move her bowels C. Phoning the patient's obstetrician for advice D. Finding out how many pregnancies the patient has had
Phoning the patient's obstetrician for advice
What trauma triage guidelines did the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) release in order to guide the most injured patients into trauma centers? A. Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury B. Lights, sirens, and diesel C. Determining patient priority, amount of time on-scene, and hospital transport decision D. Teamwork, timing, and transport
Physiological determinants, anatomic criteria, and mechanism of injury
Your patient is an infant who has just been delivered 3 weeks before her due date. She is breathing adequately, has a heart rate of 140 beats per minute, and has cyanosis of her face and chest. Which of the following interventions should be done first? A. Place oxygen tubing near the infant's face at a flow rate of 10 to 12 liters per minute. B. Begin CPR with a compression rate of 120/minute. C. Perform ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen. D. Place a neonatal nonrebreather mask on the infant's face.
Place oxygen tubing near the infant's face at a flow rate of 10 to 12 liters per minute.
Which of the following is indicated in the prehospital management of a prolapsed umbilical cord? A. Use your gloved hand to push the umbilical cord back up through the cervix. B. Encourage the mother to push forcefully in order to speed delivery. C. Immediately clamp the cord in two places and cut it between the clamps. D. Place the mother in a head-down position with pillows under her hips.
Place the mother in a head-down position with pillows under her hips.
Your patient is pregnant at 20 weeks' gestation and has been thrown from a horse. She is complaining of back pain. Which of the following is the correct procedure for immobilizing her spine? A. Use a short immobilization device and transport the patient in a sitting position. B. Place the patient supine on the backboard, then put a pillow under the right side of the backboard. C. Place the patient on her left side on the backboard. D. Place the patient supine on the backboard.
Place the patient supine on the backboard, then put a pillow under the right side of the backboard.
What is the temporary organ of pregnancy, which functions to supply the developing fetus with oxygen and nutrients? A. Uterus B. Placenta C. Amnion D. Cervix
Placenta
Your patient is a 21-year-old male who has a gunshot wound to the chest. Which of the following is the highest priority in managing this patient? A. Placing an occlusive dressing over the wound B. Performing a rapid trauma assessment C. Placing a pressure dressing over the wound to control bleeding D. Placing the patient in the shock position
Placing an occlusive dressing over the wound
A suspected musculoskeletal injury of the shoulder is BEST managed by which of the following techniques? A. Placing the arm in a sling and using a triangular bandage to secure it to the body B. Using an upper extremity traction splint C. Placing two long padded board splints on either side of the extremity, extending from the shoulder to the wrist D. Using a long-arm air splint
Placing the arm in a sling and using a triangular bandage to secure it to the body
Which of the following is the most serious complication of a fall injury with hip fracture in a 75-year-old patient? A. Pneumonia B. Collapsed lungs C. Bruised ribs D. Blood clots
Pneumonia
Which of the following lung conditions is the fourth leading cause of death among the elderly? A. Tuberculosis B. Chronic bronchitis C. Pneumothorax D. Pneumonia
Pneumonia
For which of the following reasons are newborns, infants, and the elderly more readily affected by the heat than other age groups? A. Faster metabolism B. Increased body mass C. Inadequate salt intake D. Poor ability to regulate body temperature
Poor ability to regulate body temperature
Which of the following may provide the EMT with an indication of physical neglect of an elderly patient? A. Poor hygiene B. Misuse of a person's personal belongings C. Evidence of sexual assault D. Injuries from a fall
Poor hygiene
Which phase of an ambulance call is characterized by receiving a report from the off-going shift and checking the functionality of equipment? A. Transferring the patient to the ambulance B. Terminating the call C. Receiving and responding to a call D. Preparing for the ambulance call
Preparing for the ambulance call
Which of the following phases of extrication comes before the other three phrases? A. Recognizing and managing hazards B. Sizing up the situation C. Gaining access to the patient D. Preparing for the rescue
Preparing for the rescue
Which of the following BEST describes the term crowning? A. Delivery of the head during a breech birth, completing delivery B. Discharge of bloody mucus C. Presenting part of the baby being visible at the vaginal opening D. Complete dilation of the cervix
Presenting part of the baby being visible at the vaginal opening
Once access to the patient is gained, which of the following is the next goal during an auto extrication? A. Disentanglement of the patient B. Extrication of the patient from the vehicle C. Stabilization of the vehicle D. Primary assessment and rapid trauma exam
Primary assessment and rapid trauma exam
Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who has no pulse is deemed a ________ patient. A. Priority 2 B. Priority 0 C. Priority 3 D. Priority 1
Priority 0
Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is not breathing initially, but begins breathing when the airway is open, is deemed a ________ patient. A. Priority 2 B. Priority 3 C. Priority 0 D. Priority 1
Priority 1
Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is alert with respirations less than 30 a minute and has a capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds is deemed a ________ patient. A. Priority 2 B. Priority 1 C. Priority 3 D. Priority 0
Priority 3
With START triage, when you arrive on the scene, you ask all the patients who can walk to move to one area. These patients are categorized as: A. red tagged. B. Priority 3 walking wounded. C. yellow tagged. D. Priority 4 walking wounded.
Priority 3 walking wounded.
You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage a 16-year-old female patient with respirations 38, pulse 132, and altered mental status with cool clammy skin using START triage criteria. A. Priority 3, green tag B. Priority 4, black tag C. Priority 2, yellow tag D. Priority 1, red tag
Priority 1, red tag
You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Using START triage criteria, triage a 13-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 8, pulse 124, and nonresponsive with blood from the ears and nose. A. Priority 2, yellow tag B. Priority 4, black tag C. Priority 3, green tag D. Priority 1, red tag
Priority 1, red tag
You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Using START triage criteria, triage an 8-year-old male patient with respirations 10 and pulse 102 who is ambulatory with an alert mental status and warm dry skin. A. Priority 4, black tag B. Priority 2, yellow tag C. Priority 1, red tag D. Priority 3, green tag
Priority 3, green tag
You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Using START triage criteria, triage a 17-year-old male patient with the following vital signs: respirations 18; pulse 104; alert, crying, and wanting his mother; ambulatory. A. Priority 4, black tag B. Priority 3, green tag C. Priority 1, red tag D. Priority 2, yellow tag
Priority 3, green tag
You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Using START triage criteria, triage a 38-year-old female patient with the following vital signs: respirations 0, pulse 0, and nonresponsive. A. Priority 1, red tag B. Priority 4, black tag C. Priority 3, green tag D. Priority 2, yellow tag
Priority 4, black tag
Your patient is a 30-year-old female involved in a motorcycle crash. She was not wearing a helmet and struck her head on the pavement. She is unresponsive and has a blood pressure of 152/110 mmHg. Her pulse is 60 beats per minute and respirations are 8 breaths per minute and shallow. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention? A. Provide cervical spine immobilization. B. Apply a pressure dressing to her scalp lacerations. C. Hyperventilate at a rate of 24 breaths per minute using supplemental oxygen. D. Elevate the legs.
Provide cervical spine immobilization.
Which of the following is the correct order of operations when transferring a stable patient from his or her house to the ambulance? A. Select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, package the patient for transport, and load the patient into the ambulance. B. Select the proper patient-carrying device, package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance. C. Package the patient for transport, select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance. D. Package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, select the proper patient-carrying device, and load the patient into the ambulance.
Select the proper patient-carrying device, package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance.
Which of the following is controlled by the left side of the brain? A. Movement of both lower extremities B. Sensation of the right leg C. Sensation in the left arm D. Movement of the left arm
Sensation of the right leg
Messages from the body to the brain are carried by which of the following types of nerves? A. Cranial B. Motor C. Sensory D. Skeletal
Sensory
Which of the following measures can the EMT take to create a safer extrication scene? A. Setting up road flares every 10 feet for a safe distance to divert traffic away from the collision B. Setting up road flares around hazards such as spilled fuel C. Dropping road flares from the ambulance as you are approaching the scene D. Both B and C
Setting up road flares every 10 feet for a safe distance to divert traffic away from the collision
Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of a traction splint? A. Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur B. Pelvis, hip, or knee injury C. Injury to the lower third of the leg that would interfere with the ankle hitch D. Avulsion or partial amputation where traction could separate the extremity
Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur
Which of the following is true concerning trauma in the pregnant woman? A. She may lose up to 35% of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock. B. The mother's body will preferentially protect the life of the fetus over that of the mother. C. The increase in blood volume during pregnancy makes shock an unlikely cause of death. D. She may lose up to 15% of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.
She may lose up to 35% of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.
In which of the following ways does the body produce heat in response to being cold? A. Excreting more urine B. Burning fewer calories C. Shivering D. Increasing the respiratory rate
Shivering
Which of the following signs would you NOT expect to see in a patient suffering from severe hypothermia? A. Numbness B. Shivering C. Drowsiness D. Skin cool to touch
Shivering
You are managing a patient who is being extricated from a vehicle by a rescue crew using hydraulic tools. Which of the following items should you use in order to protect your patient during the extrication process? A. Oxygen mask to prevent inhalation of noxious fumes B. Wool blanket to protect the patient from broken glass C. Aluminized rescue blanket to protect the patient from sharp edges D. Short spine board to prevent debris from contacting the patient
Short spine board to prevent debris from contacting the patient
An elderly patient who is experiencing a myocardial infarction is more likely to complain of which of the following symptoms than a younger patient would? A. Shortness of breath with chest pain B. No chest pain or shortness of breath C. Shortness of breath without chest pain D. A rash caused by shingles
Shortness of breath without chest pain
Which one of the following is NOT a key decision for the EMT when faced with a multisystem or multiple trauma patient? A. Is the patient seriously injured? B. Do I need to minimize on-scene time? C. Should I allow police to interview the patient on-scene? D. Should I transport to a trauma center?
Should I allow police to interview the patient on-scene?
65) Which of the following is a surgically implanted drainage device that runs from the brain to the abdomen? A) Gastrostomy tube B) Central intravenous line C) Shunt D) Tracheostomy tube
Shunt
Which of the following statements regarding elder abuse is correct? A. Signs of elder abuse may be difficult to detect. B. Abused elderly patients will always have physical signs of abuse. C. Signs of elder abuse are usually obvious. D. EMTs should ask elderly patients to point out their abuser.
Signs of elder abuse may be difficult to detect.
Which of the following is NOT a phase of the extrication process? A. Gaining access to the patient B. Simplification C. Terminating the rescue D. Disentanglement
Simplification
Why is it important to keep patients at rest when they are hypothermic? A. Since the blood is warmest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the warm blood and raises the core body temperature. B. Since the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and drop the blood pressure. C. Since the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and lower the core body temperature. D. None of the above
Since the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and lower the core body temperature.
In which of the following situations would a person lose heat by conduction? A. Sitting on cold metal bleachers at a football game B. Wearing wet clothing in windy weather C. Breathing D. Going outside without a coat during a cold but calm day
Sitting on cold metal bleachers at a football game
Which of the following BEST defines domestic terrorism? A. Politically motivated act of violence that occurs within the United States B. Interpersonal violence between family members C. Acts of violence perpetrated by American citizens against the government of another country D. Small group of people directing violent acts at the population or government without foreign influence
Small group of people directing violent acts at the population or government without foreign influence
Which of the following is NOT a form of elder abuse or neglect? A. Financial B. Social C. Physical D. Psychological
Social
The formula dose multiplied by time represents which of the following? A. Exposure B. Lethal dose C. Critical level D. Concentration
Exposure
While listening to an otherwise healthy elderly patient's lungs, you note decreased breath sounds. Which of the following may explain this finding? A. Decreased blood flow to the lungs B. Decreased lung capacity C. Previous abdominal injuries D. Increased chest wall flexibility
Decreased lung capacity
44) Which of the following is a sign of the MOST severe respiratory distress in a 1-year-old pediatric patient? A) Wheezing B) Decreased muscle tone C) Respiratory rate greater than 60 D) Grunting
Decreased muscle tone
Which of the following is the likely result of diminished thyroid function in the elderly? A. Increased toxicity of medications B. Thin, dry, wrinkled skin C. Decreased tolerance of heat and cold D. Difficulty chewing and swallowing
Decreased tolerance of heat and cold
Which of the following is a potential complication of hyperventilating a patient with a brain injury? A. Decreasing blood flow to the brain B. Decreasing the patient's blood pressure C. Increasing blood flow to the brain D. Increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood
Decreasing blood flow to the brain
Which of the following is NOT a common field finding in spinal injuries? A. Pain B. Deformity C. Tenderness D. Impaired breathing
Deformity
26) Which of the following is NOT a cause of altered mental status in the pediatric patient? A) Traumatic brain injury B) Diabetes C) Dementia D) Infection
Dementia
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous materials? A. Disinfecting B. Emulsifying C. Disposing D. Deodorizing
Deodorizing
Which of the following is defined as an area of the body surface that is innervated by a single spinal nerve? A. Transverse process B. Malar C. Dermatome D. Spinous process
Dermatome
Which of the following circumstances may result in hypoperfusion? A. The heart is damaged. B. Blood vessels are dilated. C. There is external bleeding. D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following conditions should be present before the umbilical cord is cut? A. The cord is no longer pulsating. B. The cord is clamped in two places. C. The infant is breathing on his or her own. D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following human factors can lead to an increased risk of injury for an EMT at the scene of a vehicle collision? A. Physical problems that impede strenuous effort B. Careless attitude toward personal safety C. Lack of proficiency in the use of rescue tools D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following injuries may produce distended neck veins (JVD)? A. Tension pneumothorax B. Cardiac tamponade C. Traumatic asphyxia D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following injuries requires the use of an occlusive dressing? A. An open wound to the neck B. An open wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding C. An open wound to the chest D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following injuries requires the use of an occlusive dressing? A. Open wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding B. Open wound to the neck C. Open wound to the chest D. All of the above
All of the above
When performing chest compressions on a pregnant patient that has gone into cardiac arrest, what change do you need to make in the placement of your hands? A. 0.5 to 1 inch lower on the sternum B. 0.5 to 1 inch higher on the sternum C. 1 to 2 inches higher on the sternum D. 1 to 2 inches lower on the sternum
1 to 2 inches higher on the sternum
Which of the following is NOT appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury? A. Treat for shock if you think there are internal injuries even if the patient's vital signs are normal. B. Anticipate vomiting. C. Splint any swollen, deformed extremities D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is a cause of gynecological emergencies? A. Soft-tissue trauma to the external genitalia B. Sexual assault C. Disorders of the female reproductive organs D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is a complication of bone fractures? A. Nerve damage B. Swelling C. Hemorrhage D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is a consideration when responding to a terrorist incident? A. Presence of booby traps such as secondary explosive devices B. Crime scene considerations C. Presence of mass casualties D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is a feature of a good disaster plan? A. It has been practiced in mock disasters B. It is based on the availability of resources in a particular area C. It is specific to the geographical location. D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is a function of the rehabilitation sector in a hazardous materials incident? A. Taking baseline vital signs before rescuers enter the operations area B. Providing for hydration of rescue crews C. Performing medical assessment of rescue crews D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is a major function of the skin? A. Excretion of wastes B. Protection from the environment C. Temperature regulation D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is a sign of possible brain injury? A. Projectile vomiting B. Irregular breathing pattern C. Deep laceration of the scalp D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is an advantage of removing the roof of a vehicle that has sustained major damage in a collision? A. The EMT can better access the patients. B. It makes the entire interior of the vehicle accessible. C. It creates a large exit through which to remove the patient. D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is an important reason for controlling spectators at the scene of an extrication incident? A. Spectators may interfere with rescue efforts. B. It ensures respect for the patient's privacy. C. Spectators may get injured. D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is of concern with a puncture wound? A. An object that remains impaled in the body B. Hidden internal bleeding with minimal external bleeding C. A strong possibility of contamination D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is of concern with a puncture wound? A. Hidden internal bleeding with minimal external bleeding B. The object that remains impaled in the body C. Strong possibility of contamination D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is often associated with water-related emergencies? A. Hypothermia B. Cardiac arrest C. Alcohol use D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is true concerning lacerations? A. They may indicate deeper underlying tissue damage. B. They may be caused by penetrating trauma. C. They may be caused by blunt trauma. D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is true of premature infants? A. They are more susceptible to infection. B. They are at risk for respiratory difficulty. C. They can easily develop hypothermia. D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following may be a clue that an incident is the result of terrorist violence? A. Occurrence on the anniversary of a significant or symbolic historical event B. Number of people present C. Function of the target D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following may be a hazard of an improperly fitting cervical collar? A. Allows hyperextension of the neck B. Prevents the patient from opening his mouth C. Allows flexion of the neck D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following may occur when there is bleeding from a large vein? A. Hypoperfusion B. Transmission of bloodborne illnesses C. Air embolism D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following may result from a woman in her third trimester of pregnancy lying in a supine position? A. Compression of the inferior vena cava B. Supine hypotensive syndrome C. Fetal compromise D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following should be done when the infant's head has been delivered? A. Check to see if the umbilical cord is around the neck. B. Suction the mouth. C. Suction the nose. D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following should increase the EMT's suspicion of internal bleeding? A. Fall from a height three or more times the patient's height B. Penetrating trauma to the chest or abdomen C. High-speed motor vehicle collision D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following should the EMT consider when protecting a patient during extrication? A. Debris B. Weather C. Noise D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following should the EMT do to control maternal bleeding after delivery of the baby? A. Massage the uterus until it is firm and grapefruit-sized. B. Allow the infant to nurse, if possible. C. Apply direct pressure with a sanitary napkin over any perineal lacerations. D. All of the above
All of the above
While on the scene of an emergency call involving a patient who is dependent upon a medical device for survival, the EMT can ask which of the following individuals about the specifics of the device? A. Patient's home health aide or nurse B. Patient C. Patient's family D. All of the above
All of the above
While ventilating a conscious patient's tracheostomy tube with a connected bag-valve mask, the EMT should verify the patient's comfort level for which of the following? A. Ventilation pressure B. Ventilation volume C. Ventilation rate D. All of the above
All of the above
You are called for a women who is about to deliver. During the labor process, your patient's water breaks. She experiences a rush of warm water and an increase in uterine contractions. The purpose of the amniotic fluid is to: A. provide lubrication during the delivery of the baby. B. allow the fetus to float during development. C. help maintain a constant fetal body temperature. D. All of the above
All of the above
Your patient is a 70-year-old male whose tractor rolled over onto him. Your assessment makes you suspicious that the patient has a fractured pelvis. Which of the following complications should you anticipate? A. Shock B. Damage to internal organs C. Damage to the nerves of the lower extremities D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is NOT true concerning lacerations? A. They may indicate deeper underlying tissue damage. B. They may be caused by penetrating trauma. C. They may be caused by blunt trauma. D. They may be degloving injuries to the skin or tissue.
They may be degloving injuries to the skin or tissue.
10) Capillary refill should be assessed in which of the following age groups? A) Younger than 6 years B) Younger than 1 year C) 2-years-old and younger D) Younger than 12 years
Younger than 6 years
When using the rule of palm to estimate the approximate body surface area burned, the patient's palm equals about what percentage of the body's surface area? A. 1 percent B. 2 percent C. 5 percent D. 3 percent
1 percent
You will frequently be called upon to deal with internal bleeding. Blunt trauma is the leading cause of internal injuries and bleeding. Which of the following are mechanisms of blunt trauma that may cause internal bleeding? 1. Falls 2. Motor vehicle or motorcycle crashes 3. Auto-pedestrian collisions 4. Blast injuries A) 2, 3 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 4 D) 1, 2, 3
1, 2, 3, 4
Which of the following is NOT appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury? A. Treat for shock if you think there are internal injuries even if the patient's vital signs are normal. B. Anticipate vomiting. C. Splint any swollen, deformed extremities. D. All of the above are appropriate.
All of the above are appropriate.
Although many of the signs and symptoms of shock are the same no matter what the cause, the symptoms follow a logical progression as shock develops and worsens. Arrange the following signs and symptoms in the likely order that they will appear. 1. Altered mental status 2. Dropping blood pressure 3. Nausea and vomiting 4. Pale, cool, and clammy skin 5. Increased pulse 6. Increased respirations A) 2, 5, 6, 3, 4, 1 B) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2 C) 1, 4, 3, 6, 5, 2 D) 5, 3, 4, 2, 6, 1
1, 4, 3, 6, 5, 2
In the average adult, the sudden loss of ________ cc of blood is considered serious. A) 150 B) 1,000 C) 500 D) 750
1,000
What is an appropriate-sized landing zone for a helicopter? A. 75 feet by 75 feet B. 25 feet by 25 feet C. 50 feet by 50 feet D. 100 feet by 100 feet
100 feet by 100 feet
When actively rewarming a frostbitten extremity in warm water, you should change the water when the temperature falls below ________ °F. A. 115-120 B. 100-105 C. 85-95 D. 80-90
100-105
3) In general, a child is considered an adolescent when he reaches the age of ________ years. A) 9 B) 7 C) 12 D) 4
12
1) The anterior fontanelle should be closed between the ages of ________ and ________. A) 3 months; 6 months B) 24 months; 36 months C) 6 months; 10 months D) 12 months; 18 months
12 months; 18 months
33) Artificial ventilations for a 5-year-old child should be provided at a rate of ________ per minute. A) 24/28 B) 28/32 C) 12/20 D) 22/26
12/20
What is the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) measurement of altered mental status, which according to CDC guidelines necessitates transport to a trauma center? A. 13 B. 12 C. 8 D. 14
13
What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of your adult male patient who has fallen off a horse, has his eyes open, can follow your commands to squeeze his hands, but is confused about what happened and his whereabouts? A. 12 B. 13 C. 15 D. 14
14
According to the Rule of Nines for infants and young children, the patient's head and neck account for what percentage of the total body surface area? A. 13.5 percent B. 14 percent C. 9 percent D. 18 percent
18 percent
Your patient is a 40-year-old man who was burned when he spilled gasoline on his pants as he was standing near the pilot light of his hot water heater. He has partial thickness burns from his feet to just above his knees, and circumferentially around both legs. Using the rule of nines, which of the following most accurately represents the extent of body surface area burned? A. 18 percent B. 9 percent C. 36 percent D. 4.5 percent
18 percent
The elderly population is at least ________ times as likely to use the EMS system as patients in other age groups. A. 5 B. 10 C. 2 D. 0.5
2
You arrive on the scene and find an unresponsive homeless man lying in the alleyway clutching a wine bottle. He is wearing a long-sleeved shirt, but does not have pants on. His skin feels cold to the touch. The week's temperatures have not been above 50°F. Which of the following should you do immediately after ensuring the patient has an adequate airway? A. Apply the AED. B. Provide manual stabilization of the cervical spine. C. Begin passive rewarming. D. Check the pulse.
Check the pulse
A respiratory rate of less than ________ in infants is a significant finding and indicates a critical patient, who should be immediately transported to a trauma center if secondary to trauma. A. 25 B. 20 C. 18 D. 30
20
Hyperventilation of a patient with a severe brain injury due to an impaled object means that bag-valve-mask ventilations are provided at a rate of ________ per minute. A. 34 B. 24 C. 30 D. 20
20
What is the height from which an adult fall would meet trauma triage criteria set forth by the CDC? A. 20 feet B. 15 feet C. 10 feet D. 25 feet
20 feet
Of the older patients seen in the emergency department due to a fall, ________% will die within 1 year. A. 10 B. 50 C. 35 D. 25
25
When the body is in water, how many times faster does it lose heat than when it is in still air? A. 2 B. 100 C. 10 D. 25
25
A patient-carrying device should have at least ________ straps to hold the patient securely. A. 3 B. 2 C. 5 D. 1
3
The chest cavity can hold up to ________ liter(s) of blood in an adult, leading to the possibility of massive internal hemorrhage without any external blood loss. A. 5 B. 0.5 C. 3 D. 1
3
When submerged in water, biological death may be delayed if the water temperature is below ________ °F. A. 70 B. 98.6 C. 50 D. 32
70
You are assessing a newborn patient 1 minute after delivery. You notice the patient has blue extremities with a pink trunk, a pulse of 120, and strong crying with good movement of all extremities. What is the newborn's APGAR score? A. 8 B. 7 C. 10 D. 9
9
A diastolic blood pressure over ________ mmHg is considered hypertensive. A. 65 B. 80 C. 50 D. 90
90
According to CDC guidelines, a systolic blood pressure (BP) of less than ________ indicates a patient should be transported to a trauma center. A. 110 B. 90 C. 100 D. 80
90
A body mass index (BMI) above ________ is considered obese. A. 40 B. 30 C. 35 D. 25
30
Obesity is defined as a body mass index greater than: A. 35. B. 40. C. 30. D. 25.
30
In a patient with extreme hypothermia who appears to be in cardiac arrest, you should assess the pulse for how long? A. 30 to 45 seconds B. 20 to 30 seconds C. 5 to 10 seconds D. 15 to 20 seconds
30 to 45 seconds
By definition, a premature infant is one who is born before how many weeks of the pregnancy? A. 28 B. 37 C. 40 D. 34
37
Jarl is a male who is 5 foot 7 inches tall and weighs 250 pounds. What is Jarl's body mass index (rounded to the nearest tenth)? A. 36.5 B. 38.4 C. 39.1 D. 35.2
39.1
54) A 3-year-old child who burns both legs and arms has burned approximately ________% of his entire body surface area. A) 54 B) 45 C) 72 D) 36
45
An infant's birth weight is considered low if it is less than ________ pounds. A. 3.5 B. 5.5 C. 4.5 D. 2.5
5.5
Safety studies have shown that drivers of other vehicles do not usually see or hear ambulances or other emergency vehicles until they are within ________ feet of it. A. 150 to 200 B. 50 to 100 C. 100 to 150 D. 200 to 250
50 to 100
Normal maternal blood loss during delivery of an infant usually does not exceed how much? A. 1,000 cc B. 500 cc C. 250 cc D. 100 cc
500 cc
ICS systems recognize that the manageable span of control is: A. 24 people B. 18 people C. 12 people D. 6 people.
6 people.
How many cervical vertebrae are there? A. 7 B. 5 C. 4 D. 12
7
When clamping the umbilical cord, the clamp closest to the baby should be approximately ________ inch(es) from the infant's body. A. 12 B. 1 C. 7 D. 3
7
What is the definition of multiple trauma? A. A trauma that requires the response of multiple agencies. B. A trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury. C. A trauma in which there are multiple casualties. D. Multiple injuries that affect more than one body system.
A trauma in which the patient has more than one serious injury.
Which of the following is caused by trapped nitrogen gas in the tissues due to a rapid ascent from a scuba dive? A. "Squeeze" injuries of the ear and sinuses B. Pulmonary embolism C. Decompression sickness D. Nitrogen narcosis
Decompression sickness
21) Which of the following is NOT a component of the pediatric assessment triangle? A) Appearance B) Breathing C) Circulation D) Abdomen
Abdomen
Your patient is an 80-year-old male complaining of lower back pain that radiates through to the abdomen. He describes the pain as "ripping" in nature. He is pale, diaphoretic, and anxious, and has a blood pressure of 210/100 mmHg, a pulse of 112 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely? A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm B. Bowel obstruction C. Diverticulitis D. Gallbladder disease
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
The condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall is known as which of the following? A. Placenta previa B. Preeclampsia C. Abruptio placentae D. Ectopic pregnancy
Abruptio placentae
Someone who has more hair than average on his body is at a higher risk than someone with less hair to be exposed to a toxin by which of the following routes? A. Ingestion B. Absorption C. Injection D. Inhalation
Absorption
Which of the fol lowing BEST describes the origins of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A. Acquired disease B. Congenital disease C. Either a congenital or acquired disease D. Neither a congenital nor acquired disease
Acquired disease
Which of the following is NOT an example of a specialty rescue team? A. Confined space B. Water rescue C. High angle rescue D. Advanced cardiac life support
Advanced cardiac life support
Which of the following is a consideration in determining a burn's severity? A. Other illnesses or injuries the patient may have B. Body surface area involved in the burn C. The type of agent that caused the burn D. All of the above
All of the Above
20) Careful assessment and ongoing evaluation of the pediatric patient is critical for which of the following reasons? A) Childhood injuries and illnesses as a result of abuse or neglect may be missed if the EMT is not thorough. B) Signs of significant illness and injury may be subtle and easily overlooked. C) A sick or injured child who initially appeared stable can deteriorate very rapidly. D) All of the above
All of the above
35) Which of the following is an indication of shock in an infant or small child? A) Capillary refill greater than 2 seconds B) Absence of tears when crying C) Not producing wet diapers D) All of the above
All of the above
4) Which of the following should be considered by the EMT as a result of the proportionally larger size of a small child's head? A) Adaptations in positioning for cervical spine immobilization B) Different injury patterns than in adults C) Differences in positioning to maintain an open airway D) All of the above
All of the above
57) Which of the following should increase your suspicion of child abuse? A) Indications of alcohol and/or drug abuse in the home B) Improperly healed fractures, resulting in deformity of extremities C) Bruises on the back and/or buttocks in various stages of healing D) All of the above
All of the above
59) Which of the following children may be at a higher risk for child abuse? A) Child with disabilities B) Twin child C) Premature child D) All of the above
All of the above
60) Which of the following is a classic characteristic of a child abuser? A) Parent who spends majority of time with child B) Parent who was abused as child C) Parent who is experiencing financial or marital stress D) All of the above
All of the above
63) Your patient is an infant being treated for bronchopulmonary dysplasia. He is being weaned off his respirator by a process called intermittent mandatory ventilation. When you arrive, you find the infant obviously hypoxic and sick-looking. Which of the following treatments is indicated? A) Oxygen administration B) Ventilator support C) Prompt transport to a neonatal center D) All of the above
All of the above
A terrorist incident may have features in common with which of the following types of incidents? A. Mass casualty B. Infectious disease C. Hazardous materials D. All of the above
All of the above
Anthrax can infect an individual through which of the following routes of exposure? A. Inhalation B. Skin C. Ingestion D. All of the above
All of the above
At which of the following locations is an EMT likely to encounter a patient using an advanced medical device? A. Private residence B. Nursing home C. Specialty care center D. All of the above
All of the above
A 44-year-old male involved in a collision at 50 mph struck the windshield of his vehicle with his face. Which of the following injuries should you prepare to treat? A. Brain injury B. Airway obstruction C. Cervical spine trauma D. All of the above
All of the above
During a power failure, how should the EMT verify adequate ventilations are being administered to an unresponsive patient with a tracheostomy tube using a bag-valve mask? A. Observe for improving skin color. B. Observe for chest rise and fall. C. Ensure a good connection between the bag-valve mask and the tracheostomy tube. D. All of the above
All of the above
In which of the following settings should the EMT be alert to the possibility of hazardous materials emergencies? A. Shipping ports B. Manufacturing industries C. Farm service agencies D. All of the above
All of the above
In which of the following situations should the mother be transported immediately? A. Delivery is not imminent and there is about 500 cc of painless, bright red bleeding. B. The mother experiences a severe, tearing sensation in her abdomen during labor and the outline of the fetus can be felt through the abdominal wall. C. The infant's arm is the presenting part. D. All of the above
All of the above
Obesity increases the risk for which of the following health problems? A. Type 2 diabetes B. Respiratory problems C. Liver disease D. All of the above
All of the above
The extent of radiation depends on which of the following factors? A. Shielding from the source B. Duration of exposure C. Distance from the source D. All of the above
All of the above
Under which of the following conditions are safety vests with reflective trim effective in increasing the visibility of the EMT? A. On sunny days B. At night C. On cloudy days D. All of the above
All of the above
9) Which of the following is true regarding the EMT's approach to the pediatric patient? A) An EMT does not have to attempt to obtain a blood pressure on patients younger than 3 years old. B) It is not necessary to use Standard Precautions when dealing with pediatric patients. C) Scene safety is not an important consideration in the care of pediatric patients. D) It is not possible to develop an initial impression of the pediatric patient without a detailed physical examination.
An EMT does not have to attempt to obtain a blood pressure on patients younger than 3 years old.
Although it can be difficult to definitively determine hip dislocation in the field, certain signs and symptoms are usually there. Which of the following statements is false? A. A posterior hip dislocation presents with a bent knee and the foot may hang loose. B. An anterior hip dislocation would probably present with the entire lower limb rotated inward and the hip would usually be flexed. C. Often there is lack of sensation in the limb. D. The posterior hip dislocation is the most common.
An anterior hip dislocation would probably present with the entire lower limb rotated inward and the hip would usually be flexed.
What constitutes a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)? A. An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources B. An incident with 3 to 15 patients that the service handles without calling for additional resources C. Any event that requires more than one ambulance to adequately transport the patients from the scene D. An event that unfolds over a long period of time and requires federal, state, and local response
An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials emergency? A. Decontaminating injured victims B. Staying in the cold zone C. Treating injured patients D. Rehabilitating the hazmat team
Decontaminating injured victims
You are beginning triage at the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which a commuter train has derailed. Which of the following should you do first? A. Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building B. Do a quick pulse check on all patients at the scene C. Identify all Priority 1 patients D. Check the airway status of all patients who do not appear to be moving.
Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building
What type of trauma triage criteria regarding transport would a finger amputation receive? A. Patient's choice of destination B. Any hospital C. Any hospital with surgical facilities D. Trauma center
Any hospital with surgical facilities
A fracture of which of the following bones would be considered a skull fracture? A. Nasal bones B. Temporal bone C. Maxilla D. Any of the above
Any of the above
Which of the following traumatic chest injuries may result in massive, often fatal internal hemorrhage? A. Aortic dissection B. Hemopneumothorax C. Cardiac tamponade D. Hemothorax
Aortic dissection
23) Your protocols call for you to use the pediatric assessment triangle when assessing young children. You know that the second leg of the triangle assesses the "work of breathing" and the bottom leg of the triangle assesses "circulation to the skin." What does the first leg of the triangle stand for? A) Appearance B) Airway C) Alteration of mental status D) Assessment
Appearance
Your patient is a 25-year-old man who picked up an iron skillet with a very hot handle. He has a reddened area with blisters across the palm of his hand. Which of the following must be avoided in the prehospital management of this wound? A. Application of a dry, sterile dressing B. Application of antibiotic ointment C. Elevation of the wound above the level of the heart D. Keeping the site clean
Application of antibiotic ointment
Which of the following could worsen the effects of a snake bite? A. Application of ice B. Cutting and suctioning out the venom C. Constricting bands above and below the bite D. All of the above
Application of ice
Your patient is a 38-year-old male driver of a vehicle that left the roadway and struck a bus stop shelter and a tree. He is conscious and alert, he has some abrasions on his forehead, his skin is warm and dry, and he has a strong radial pulse and no difficulty breathing. Which of the following descriptions represents the MOST appropriate way for removing the patient from the vehicle? A. Place the backboard on the stretcher and have the patient stand, turn, and lie down on the backboard while you maintain manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine. B. Apply a cervical collar and short spine immobilization device before removing to a long backboard. C. Apply a cervical collar and perform rapid extrication onto a long backboard. D. Have the patient stand up and then do a "standing take-down" onto a long backboard.
Apply a cervical collar and short spine immobilization device before removing to a long backboard.
Your patient is a 35-year-old female who spilled a cup of hot coffee on herself. She has an area about twice the size of the palm of her hand on her right thigh that is red and painful, but without blisters. When caring for this injury in the prehospital setting, which of the following is appropriate? A. Apply an antibiotic ointment. B. Apply a lotion containing a topical anesthetic and aloe vera. C. Apply a plastic bag full of ice to the skin. D. Apply a dry sterile dressing.
Apply a dry sterile dressing.
50. A 37-year-old male was hit by a trolley and his foot was almost severed. It is only connected by some skin and crushed bone. What should you do? a. Immediately apply a tourniquet to control bleeding. b. Complete the amputation. It will make the injury much easier to handle. c. Because of the seriousness of the injury, wait for ALS before providing any care. d. Apply a pressure dressing to control bleeding, stabilize the foot by splinting, apply oxygen, and transport as a priority patient.
Apply a pressure dressing to control bleeding, stabilize the foot by splinting, apply oxygen, and transport as a priority patient.
In caring for a 27-year-old male who has a large laceration on his anterior forearm, you have noticed that your pressure dressing has become saturated with blood. Which of the following should you do next? A. Remove the saturated dressings and apply a large trauma dressing. B. Apply an ice pack over the original dressing. C. Apply a tourniquet. D. Apply additional dressing material over the top of the original dressing and bandage it in place.
Apply additional dressing material over the top of the original dressing and bandage it in place.
When assisting with a delivery in the field, which of the following should be done as the head begins to emerge from the vagina? A. Check for crowning. B. Pull on the baby. C. Advise the mother not to push or strain. D. Apply gentle pressure to the head with your gloved hand.
Apply gentle pressure to the head with your gloved hand
44. You are dispatched to an industrial plant for a burn. You arrive and find a 60-year-old male who came in contact with a broken steam line and appears to have partial thickness burns on both hands and arms. He is lying on the ground and coworkers are gently spraying him with water from a nearby hose. What should you do? a. Because of his age, immediately put him in your ambulance and transport him to a burn center. b. Call for air transport and continue to pour water on the burns until transport arrives. c. Care for the burn and do a complete patient assessment, including cervical spine precautions. d. Before doing treatment, call the local burn center for instruction.
Care for the burn and do a complete patient assessment, including cervical spine precautions.
51. Which of the following is not considered soft tissue? a. The skin b. Muscles c. Membranes d. Cartilage
Cartilage
Which of the following allows for smooth movement of bone surfaces against one another at joints? A. Smooth muscle B. Ligaments C. Peritoneum D. Cartilage
Cartilage
Which of the following may be a source of ignition when an ambulance is parked off the roadway in a field of dried grass? A. Mobile radio B. Leaking coolant C. Battery D. Catalytic converter
Catalytic converter
Which of the following distinguishes decompensated shock from compensated stage of shock? A. Altered mental status B. Cell damage and death in the vital organs C. Low blood pressure D. Delayed capillary refill time
Cell damage and death in the vital organs
Which portions of the spine are the most vulnerable to injury? A. Thoracic and lumbar B. Cervical and lumbar C. Thoracic and sacra D. Cervical and sacra
Cervical and lumbar
Your patient is a 10-year-old male whose jacket hood caught on a branch as he jumped out of a tree. He was momentarily suspended about 12 inches off the ground but was immediately lowered to the ground by his brothers. Which of the following injuries should you suspect? A. Thoracic spine injury B. Cervical spine injury C. Lumbar spine injury D. Soft-tissue injury of the neck only
Cervical spine injury
A painter falls from his ladder and tells you he has dislocated his shoulder again. When you attempt to splint the shoulder it "pops back into place." What should your next step be? A. Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient. B. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient. C. Check distal CSM, apply a traction splint, and transport the patient. D. Continue splinting and report the popping sound to the triage nurse when you arrive at the hospital.
Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient.
Your patient is an 11-year-old male who has a swollen, painful, and angulated right lower arm after falling from his bicycle onto his hands. Which of the following should be considered in the immobilization of his injured extremity? A. Check pulse, movement, and sensation distal to the injury before and after splinting. B. Immobilize from the shoulder to the wrist. C. Use an upper extremity traction splint. D. Do not attempt to realign the extremity before splinting.
Check pulse, movement, and sensation distal to the injury before and after splinting.
Assessing blood pressure on a patient with an AV shunt, fistula, or graft could lead to which of the following? A. Inaccurate blood pressure readings B. Damage to the AV shunt, fistula, or graft, requiring surgery C. Uncontrollable hemorrhage in the extremity D. Nothing, as there is no need to avoid assessing blood pressure in a patient's arm with an AV fistula, shunt, or graft.
Damage to the AV shunt, fistula, or graft, requiring surgery
You are called for a young man who was diving head first off a dock into a lake. Bystanders say he struck his head on the bottom because the water was too shallow. They said he was not breathing when they pulled him from the water and they have been performing rescue breathing for him. He is awake, but he is unable to breathe on his own. What type of damage or injury does this indicate? A. Open head injury B. Damage to his thoracic spine C. Closed head injury D. Damage to C-3, C-4, or C5
Damage to C-3, C-4, or C5
Which of the following is the most significant mechanism of injury for a driver in a vehicle accident? A. Rear-end collision B. Spidering of the windshield C. Encroachment greater than 12 inches of the driver's compartment D. Death of a passenger in the same vehicle
Death of a passenger in the same vehicle
50) Which of the following statements is true regarding SIDS? A) It usually occurs between the ages of 1 and 3 years. B) Death usually occurs during sleep. C) It is usually caused by external suffocation. D) All children are at equal risk.
Death usually occurs during sleep.
Which of the following BEST describes a disease such as deafness? A. Neither a congenital nor acquired disease B. Either a congenital or acquired disease C. Acquired disease D. Congenital disease
Either a congenital or acquired disease
Which of the following groups is MOST likely to be successful in a suicide attempt? A. Young women B. Middle-aged men C. Teenagers D. Elderly men
Elderly men
Your patient is a 12-year-old boy who ran his arm through a glass window and has an 8-inch laceration on his anterior forearm. You have applied a pressure dressing and bandage, but these have become saturated due to continued bleeding. Which of the following should you do now? A. Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply direct pressure with your gloved hand, and elevate the arm. B. Apply additional dressing material, bandage it in place, and apply pressure to the brachial artery. C. Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply an ice pack to the wound, and bandage it in place with an elastic bandage. D. Elevate that arm and prepare to apply a tourniquet or consider administering a hemostatic agent.
Elevate that arm and prepare to apply a tourniquet or consider administering a hemostatic agent.
Which of the following is the LEAST effective method of controlling bleeding? A. Direct pressure B. Hemostatic agent C. Tourniquet D. Elevation
Elevation
The medical acronym EMD stands for which of the following? A. Emergency Medical Dispatch B. Emergency Medical Director C. Emergency Medical Doctor D. Emergency Medical Driver
Emergency Medical Dispatch
Which of the following is a resource for specific actions to be taken by personnel dealing with a hazardous materials incident? A. Medical dictionary B. Emergency Response Guidebook C. Medical protocols D. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) toll-free hotline
Emergency Response Guidebook
38) Which of the following is NOT likely to be a cause of respiratory distress in a 2-year-old child? A) Epiglottitis B) A cold C) Foreign body airway obstruction D) Emphysema
Emphysema
When should the EMT calculate a GCS with a patient who suffered a fall of 20 feet from his apartment building? A. En route to the hospital B. Before departing from the scene C. As he approaches the patient D. At the hospital before writing the care report
En route to the hospital
Which of the following is the highest priority during extrication? A. Controlling major bleeding B. Gaining access to the patient C. Ensuring your personal safety D. Maintaining the patient's airway
Ensuring your personal safety
Which of the following is the outermost layer of the skin? A. Dermis B. Epidermis C. Adipose tissue D. Fascia
Epidermis
If you are first on scene of a multiple-casualty incident, what should you do first in determining where and how should you park your apparatus? A. Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking. B. Use apparatus to institute "downstream blocking" of the scene to protect the work area. C. Provide downstream blocking if you are driving one of the larger units. D. Immediately park in the same direction and in single file.
Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking.
Your patient is a 60-year-old woman who stepped off a curb and injured her ankle. Your exam shows that her left ankle is swollen and painful. Which of the following should you do? A. Explain to the patient that her ankle is fractured and you must splint her ankle to prevent further injury and reduce pain. B. Explain to the patient that you cannot tell if her ankle is sprained or fractured until she is X-rayed at the emergency department, then splint the ankle. C. Transport the patient immediately to a trauma center, applying high-concentration oxygen en route. D. Explain to the patient that her ankle is sprained and transport her with her ankle elevated on a pillow and a cold pack applied to the injury.
Explain to the patient that you cannot tell if her ankle is sprained or fractured until she is X-rayed at the emergency department, then splint the ankle.
Based on the following presentations of patient injuries, which one would be considered MOST severe, justifying immediate transportation to a trauma center? A. Open (compound) midshaft femur fracture B. Flail chest C. Midline cervical spine pain D. Scalp laceration
Flail chest
Which of the following animals is the direct source of exposure of the bacterium that causes the plague to humans? A. Squirrels B. Rats C. Fleas D. Bees
Fleas
Which of the following is a common hazard associated with the inner circle of a typical auto extrication? A. Penetrating injury from extrication tools B. Flying glass and metal fragments C. Carbon monoxide poisoning D. Both A and C
Flying glass and metal fragments
Which of the following increases a scuba diver's risk of decompression sickness? A. Taking cold or sinus medications before a dive B. Flying within several hours after a dive C. Diving on a full stomach D. Breathing 100 percent oxygen before a dive
Flying within several hours after a dive
Which of the following is the opening at the base of the skull? A. Temporomandibular joint B. Spinous process C. Orbits D. Foramen magnum
Foramen magnum
The PASG may be used as a splinting device for patients with which of the following suspected injuries? A. Hip dislocation B. Compression fracture of the lumbar or sacral spine C. Fractured pelvis D. None of the above
Fractured pelvis
Which one of the following statements is NOT true concerning a knee injury? A. Fractures can occur to the proximal femur. B. Fractures can occur to the proximal tibia and fibula. C. There could be pain and tenderness. D. Fractures can occur to the patella.
Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.
You are caring for a 27-year-old male who has a puncture wound to the right upper chest. The patient was stabbed with a serrated steak knife by his ex-girlfriend. You have placed an occlusive dressing to the site and began emergent transport to the closest trauma center. However, while en route the patient begins to complain of increasing shortness of breath. You notice a decrease in ventilatory volume and an increase in thoracic diameter. Which of the following options would be the best step to perform next? A. Call dispatch for an ALS intercept en route to the hospital. B. Begin providing CPR to the patient. C. Begin providing BVM-assisted ventilations to the patient. D. Free a corner or edge of the dressing and have the patient exhale to release pressure buildup. And re-seal the wound.
Free a corner or edge of the dressing and have the patient exhale to release pressure buildup. And re-seal the wound.
Which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in terrorist attacks? A. Low virulence B. Low potency C. Instability D. High infectivity
High infectivity
What is the underlying cause of bluish or reddish facial discoloration following a traumatic asphyxiation? A. High pressure on the chest leads to blood being forced from the right atrium into the face and neck. B. Bluish or reddish facial discoloration is not associated with traumatic asphyxiation; a pale discoloration is usually present. C. The patient has become hypoxic due to a chest injury and the finding suggests central cyanosis. D. The physiological strain of the body results in a flushed appearance and increased risk of a hypertensive event.
High pressure on the chest leads to blood being forced from the right atrium into the face and neck.
You are assessing a 30-year-old male patient that had his arm caught in a piece of machinery. By the time you arrive he has been freed. The patient tells you that he does not understand why you were called, but as you inspect the injured limb you notice a small puncture wound. You should have a high index of suspension of which of the following injuries? A. Puncture B. Crush injury C. Chemical burn D. High-pressure injection
High-pressure injection
Which of the following is NOT indicated in the management of a patient in shock? A. High-speed ambulance transportation B. Minimizing on-scene time C. On-scene spinal precautions, if indicated D. Delaying a detailed exam until en route to the hospital
High-speed ambulance transportation
Which of the following is NOT advisable following complete birth of the infant? A. Place the infant on his side with his head slightly lower than his body. B. Hold the infant by the ankles to allow the airway to drain. C. Keep the infant at the level of the mother's vagina until the cord is clamped and cut. D. Dry the infant and wrap him in a blanket.
Hold the infant by the ankles to allow the airway to drain
In most cases, which of the following is the correct way to provide initial management of a suspected cervical spine injury? A. Maintain the patient's head and neck in the position they are found. B. Gently apply pressure to the top of the patient's head. C. Hold the patient's head still in a neutral, "eyes forward" position. D. Provide approximately 15 pounds of upward cervical traction.
Hold the patient's head still in a neutral, "eyes forward" position.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding an electrical injury? A. Treatment of a source burn is the same as for other thermal burns. B. Patients with burns that appear insignificant are treated as having critical injuries. C. Injury is usually limited to the area around the source and ground burns. D. Patients with electrical burns may be treated with the automated external defibrillator (AED) and CPR.
Injury is usually limited to the area around the source and ground burns.
Your patient is a 16-year-old male who was ejected from an all-terrain vehicle and struck his head on a large rock. He was not wearing a helmet. He is unresponsive with shallow, irregular respirations; a blood pressure of 170/110 mmHg; and a heart rate of 50 beats per minute. Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate? A. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and give oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 10 lpm. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate via bag-valve mask at 20 breaths per minute. C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) and ventilate via bag-valve mask (BVM) at 30 breaths per minute. D. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen by nonrebreather mask (NRB) at 15 lpm.
Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate via bag-valve mask at 20 breaths per minute.
You have responded to a local pool for a drowning patient. Lifeguards have pulled the patient out of the pool prior to your arrival. You find the 16-year-old patient unresponsive with agonal respirations and a weak carotid pulse. What is your first action? A. Apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. B. Apply high-concentration oxygen by bag-valve mask. C. Insert a Combitube. D. Insert an oropharyngeal airway.
Insert an oropharyngeal airway.
You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 24-year-old male patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient is breathing 28 times a minute. The patient's friends state they were diving when he unexpectedly came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. What is your first action? a. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. b. Place the patient on high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. c. Place the patient on high-concentration oxygen by bag-valve mask. d. Suction the airway
Insert an oropharyngeal airway.
Your patient is a 35-year-old woman who was driving a minivan that was struck in the driver's side door by another vehicle. You notice that when you apply pressure to her sternum with your knuckles she extends her legs and flexes her arms and wrists. When giving your radio report, which of the following terms should you use to describe this? A. Tonic-clonic activity B. Posturing C. Cushing's reflex D. Battle's sign
Posturing
Your patient is a 55-year-old male who was found in the parking lot behind a tavern. He states that he was assaulted and robbed by three individuals. He is complaining of being "hit in the face and kicked and punched in his ribs and stomach." Your examination reveals contusions and swelling around both eyes, bleeding from the nose, a laceration of his upper lip, and multiple contusions of the chest, abdomen, and flanks. Which of the following should cause the greatest concern regarding the prehospital care of this patient? A. The presence of any defensive wounds the patient may have sustained B. The swelling around his eyes, which may be reduced by applying a cold pack C. Potential internal injuries D. Getting a description of the assailants
Potential internal injuries
Your patient is a 20-year-old college student who has fallen from a third-level balcony onto a wooden deck below. The patient responds to verbal stimuli, is pale in color with moist skin, and has a very obvious deformity with protruding bone ends of his right forearm. Which of the following is the BEST sequence of intervention for this patient? A. Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; transport; and splint the extremity en route if time and resources allow. B. Open the airway; assess breathing; check the carotid pulse; splint the forearm injury; immobilize the patient to a long backboard; apply high-concentration oxygen; and transport. C. Provide immediate manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine; apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask; perform a focused history and assessment; apply the cervical collar; apply a padded board splint, sling, and swathe to the forearm injury; and transport. D. Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; and check with medical control about the need to splint the forearm injury prior to transport.
Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; transport; and splint the extremity en route if time and resources allow.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the rehabilitation sector in a hazardous materials incident? A. Taking baseline vital signs before rescuers enter the operations area B. Providing a decontamination corridor from the hot zone C. Performing medical assessment of rescue crews D. Providing for hydration of rescue crews
Providing a decontamination corridor from the hot zone
Which of the following activities should NOT occur during the scene size-up? A. Determining the mechanism of injury B. Determining the need for additional resources C. Providing airway management D. Determining the extent of the patient's entrapment
Providing airway management
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Emergency Medical Dispatcher? A. Coordinating with other public safety agencies B. Prioritizing calls that come in C. Providing medical direction to the responding units D. Providing emergency instructions to the caller
Providing medical direction to the responding units
Which of the following fractures is most common among elderly women due to falls? A. Distal femur B. Mid-shaft femur C. Proximal femur D. Pelvis
Proximal femur
Which type of wound has a small opening into the skin, but may be quite deep, and is often caused by instruments such as nails, ice picks, or pencils? A. Avulsion B. Laceration C. Puncture D. Incision
Puncture
Which of the following correctly states characteristics of blast injuries? a. Primary injuries occur because of the intense high pressure that hits the patients. b. Secondary injury is the result of projectiles such as debris hitting the patient. c. Tertiary injuries can include not just soft-tissue injuries but also fractures, avulsions, and amputations. d. Quaternary injuries involve the lower quarter of the body, which is almost always injured during a blast.
Quaternary injuries involve the lower quarter of the body, which is almost always injured during a blast
While performing night operations, which of the following combinations of lights provide maximum visibility? A. Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights ON, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON B. Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON C. Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights ON, fog lights ON, and traffic directional boards ON D. Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards OFF
Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON
An unresponsive patient is found sitting in the front seat of a vehicle with his legs pinned under the dash. Once his legs have been freed, which of the following methods should be used for removal of the patient? A. Rapid take-down B. Rapid extrication technique C. Scoop stretcher D. Quick extraction
Rapid extrication technique
What is the most important intervention an EMT can perform for an unstable multisystem trauma patient? A. Oxygen B. Cervical spine precautions C. Rapid transport D. Airway management
Rapid transport
Which of the following describes vehicle glass that is designed to break into small pieces rather than shattering into sharp fragments? A. Alloy glass B. Tempered glass C. Leaded glass D. Plexiglas
Tempered glass
Which one of the following statements is NOT true? A. Ligaments are connective tissues that connect bone to bone. B. Muscles are the tissues or fibers that cause movement of body parts or organs. C. Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles. D. Cartilage is connective tissue that covers the outside of the bone end and acts as a surface for articulation.
Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles.
Which one of the following definitions is NOT true? A. Tendons connect muscles to ligaments. B. Joints are places where bones articulate. C. A sprain is the stretching and tearing of ligaments. D. Another name for manual traction is tension.
Tendons connect muscles to ligaments.
A patient with jugular vein distention (JVD) is most likely suffering from which of the following injuries? A. Pneumothorax B. Tension pneumothorax C. Hemopneumothorax D. Hemothorax
Tension pneumothorax
Which of the following patients is at greatest risk of respiratory failure and should be carefully monitored for ventilatory status throughout treatment and transport? A. Flail chest B. Abdominal evisceration C. Hemopneumothorax D. Tension pneumothorax
Tension pneumothorax
Which of the following is true in regards to touching a patient who is being shocked with an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)? A. It depends on the AICD model as to whether or not the EMT can feel the shock. B. The EMT will always feel the shock, but it is not very painful. C. The EMT cannot feel the shock of an AICD when delivered to the patient. D. The EMT will always feel the shock, and it is very dangerous to the EMT as well.
The EMT cannot feel the shock of an AICD when delivered to the patient.
17) Which of the following is a concern when dealing with an adolescent patient? A) The adolescent patient will generally be more truthful about what happened in front of his parents than in front of his peers. B) Physiologically, adolescents are very different from adults. C) The adolescent patient fears permanent disfigurement from injuries. D) Adolescents usually lack the sophistication to understand explanations of what you are doing and why.
The adolescent patient fears permanent disfigurement from injuries.
A new EMT who is treating a suspected femur injury asks his partner, "How much traction should I pull?" The partner's BEST reply is which of the following? A. No traction splint applied in the field pulls true traction; they must pull 20 pounds of countertraction. B. Pull enough traction to give the patient some relief from the pain. C. The amount of traction applied should be roughly 10 percent of the patient's body weight and not exceed 15 pounds. D. The amount of traction applied should be 15 pounds.
The amount of traction applied should be roughly 10 percent of the patient's body weight and not exceed 15 pounds.
Regarding drowning in adults, which of the following statements is true? A. Colder water improves survival chances in saltwater drowning but not in freshwater drowning. B. Water temperature makes no difference in the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning. C. The colder the water, the better the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning. D. The warmer the water, the better the chances of survival in saltwater drowning.
The colder the water, the better the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning.
You are assessing an 83-year-old female who is having hip pain. When you count her pulse you notice that the rate is irregularly irregular. What is your treatment for this patient? A.Check distal circulation, sensory, and motor sensation, apply a pelvic wrap, place on a traction splint, and transport the patient. B. The irregularity is not a reason for concern in itself. C. Contact medical control for permission to have the patient transported by helicopter from the scene. D. Alert paramedics to respond for a possible cardiac patient.
The irregularity is not a reason for concern in itself.
Most radiant heat is lost through which part of the body? A. The hands and feet B. The head C. The buttocks D. The torso
The head
You have just delivered a full-term baby girl and she is doing well. You have dried her off and wrapped her in a warm blanket. You are preparing to cut the umbilical cord. Which of the following is normally true regarding cutting the umbilical cord? A. You should hold the baby above the level of the mother when cutting the cord. B. The infant must be breathing on his or her own before you cut the cord. C. The cord should be cut immediately following delivery. D. You must try to cut the cord before it stops pulsating.
The infant must be breathing on his or her own before you cut the cord.
Which of the following is true concerning prehospital delivery of twins? A. This is a true emergency and cannot be managed outside the hospital setting without additional help. B. There are always two placentas. C. The umbilical cord of the first infant must not be cut until the second infant is born. D. The infants will probably be smaller than a single infant and need attention in keeping them warm.
The infants will probably be smaller than a single infant and need attention in keeping them warm.
Regarding ambulance warning devices, which of the following statements is NOT true? A. The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately. B. Four-way flashers should not be used as emergency lights. C. The use of strobes is controversial. D. In most states it is illegal to drive at night with only one headlight.
The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately.
55. Which of the following is a description of the rule of nines for an adult? A) The rules of nines assigns 9 percent to the head and neck, each upper extremity, the chest, the abdomen, the upper back, the lower back and buttocks, the front of each lower extremity, and the back of each lower extremity, then 1 percent to the genital region B) The rules of nines assigns 9 percent to the head and neck, as well as each upper extremity; 10 percent to the chest, the abdomen, and the upper back; 8 percent to the lower back and buttocks, the front of each lower extremity, and the back of each lower extremity, then 1 percent to the genital region. C) The rules of nines assigns 9 percent to the head and neck, each upper extremity, the chest, the abdomen, the upper back, and the lower back and buttocks; 8 percent to the front of each lower extremity; and 10 percent for the back of each lower extremity, then 1 percent to the genital region. D) The rules of nines assigns 9 percent to the head and neck; 6 percent to each upper extremity; 12 percent to the chest and abdomen; 9 percent to the upper back, the lower back and buttocks, the front of each lower extremity, and the back of each lower extremity, then 1 percent to the genital region.
The rules of nines assigns 9 percent to the head and neck, each upper extremity, the chest, the abdomen, the upper back, the lower back and buttocks, the front of each lower extremity, and the back of each lower extremity, then 1 percent to the genital region.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding the skin's status in the case of a closed chest injury? A. The skin is not penetrated. B. Internal contusions and lacerations cannot occur. C. The skin may be penetrated and occluded. D. The skin is penetrated.
The skin is not penetrated.
Which of the following BEST describes a partial thickness burn? A. The skin is red, but dry and painful. B. The skin is charred or blackened and lacks sensation. C. The skin is white and dry with no sensation of pain. D. The skin is red and moist with blister formation.
The skin is red and moist with blister formation.
You are getting ready to transport an unresponsive 25-year-old female patient. She was hit by a vehicle while crossing the street. She is 26 weeks pregnant. You are 10 minutes away from the nearest facility, 15 minutes away from a Level I Trauma Center, and 15 minutes away from a hospital that specializes in high-risk obstetrics. You should transport the patient to which hospital? A. The trauma center: the patient will need specialized trauma surgeons B. The high-risk obstetric hospital: the fetus will need specialized neonatology surgeons C. The nearest facility: she is unresponsive and unstable D. The trauma center: the fetus will need specialized neonatology surgeons
The trauma center: the patient will need specialized trauma surgeons
Which of the following is required in the management of all open soft-tissue injuries? A. Application of a disinfectant solution during clean-up B. Cervical spine precautions C. Provision of high-concentration oxygen to the patient D. The use of Standard Precautions by the EMT
The use of Standard Precautions by the EMT
Which of the following observations may the EMT use to rule out a spinal injury in a trauma patient? A. Patient is able to walk at the scene. B. There is a lack of numbness and paralysis of the extremities. C. There is a lack of mechanism of injury. D. Patient denies pain in his spine.
There is a lack of mechanism of injury.
Which of the following is a common sign of a pre-delivery emergency? A. The placenta fails to deliver within 20 minutes of the infant's birth. B. The amniotic sac ruptures. C. Contractions become more intense and closer together. D. There is profuse vaginal bleeding.
There is profuse vaginal bleeding.
Which statement regarding the diamond-shaped placards involved in the transportation of dangerous goods is FALSE? A. These placards are always carefully vetted and accurate. B. These placards bear a division number for the material. C. These placards may have a four-digit identification number for the material. D. These placards show the hazard class.
These placards are always carefully vetted and accurate.
37) You are standing in line waiting to get a prescription filled for your mother. A woman walks in with a young boy in her arms. As she places him in a nearby chair, he begins to seize. Which of the following is true regarding childhood seizures? A) They usually accompany a high fever. B) Most are due to head injuries. C) They usually last from 1 to 2 minutes. D) They are due to a rapid rise in temperature.
They are due to a rapid rise in temperature.
Why are infants and young children more prone to hypothermia than adults? A. Their immune system is not fully developed B. They are unable to recognize how cold they are C. They shiver more than adults D. They have less fat than adults
They have less fat than adults
45. You are dispatched to a local industrial plant for an "electrical injury." You arrive on-scene and find a 46-year-old male lying supine in front of an electrical panel. You are told he was attempting to make a repair and somehow received an electrical shock and was thrown to the ground. The scene is safe and the electricity is off. Your initial exam reveals a conscious person, breathing adequately. Vital signs are normal and there are no obvious signs of burns. Coworkers state that he was unconscious until your arrival. What is the next step? a. Load and go—conduct any other care in the ambulance en route due to the potential seriousness of the burns. b. Put the patient on oxygen and help him into your ambulance. c. Stay with the patient awhile, and if he does not appear to be in distress, encourage him to refuse care. d. While on the scene, rapidly do a complete assessment, provide oxygen, provide care for potential spine injuries, and transport as soon as possible after the exam.
While on the scene, rapidly do a complete assessment, provide oxygen, provide care for potential spine injuries, and transport as soon as possible after the exam
The term blanching, used to describe localized cold injury, means the tissue has turned to which of the following colors? A. White or lighter B. Blue or purple C. Red D. Black
White or lighter
Which of the following is NOT used to calculate a patient's GCS? A. Motor response B. Eye movement C. Verbal response D. Work of breathing
Work of breathing
47. You are treating the amputation of three fingers on a 40-year-old male. The fingers were torn off while he was cleaning his snow blower. You have stopped the bleeding. What should you do with the amputated fingers? a. Fingers cannot be reattached so you can discard them in red bag trash. b. Because it is cold out, you merely need to wrap them in a 5 x 9 dressing and give them to the staff at the ED. c. Wrap them in a sterile dressing, put them in a plastic bag, and keep them cool. d. Place the fingers directly on ice or use cold packs, as they must be kept very cold.
Wrap them in a sterile dressing, put them in a plastic bag, and keep them cool.
Which of the following is appropriate when caring for a premature baby? A. Deeply suctioning the airway with a rigid tonsil-tip B. Applying high-concentration oxygen with a neonatal nonrebreather mask C. Encouraging family members to hold the infant D. Wrapping the infant in a blanket, covering his head, and keeping the temperature in the ambulance between 90°F and 100°F
Wrapping the infant in a blanket, covering his head, and keeping the temperature in the ambulance between 90°F and 100°F
Which of the following is the easiest way for an EMT to communicate with a patient with drastic hearing loss? A. Speak loudly and directly into the patient's ear. B. Use a TDD/TYY telephone. C. Slow down your speech so that the patient can read your lips. D. Write your questions using paper and pen.
Write your questions using paper and pen.
If you do not have specialized training in hazardous materials, which of the following statements is TRUE? A. You may render a scene involving hazardous materials safe. B. You are a layperson when it comes to hazardous materials. C. You may work at a scene involving hazardous materials. D. You understand hazardous materials.
You are a layperson when it comes to hazardous materials.
You have transported a stable patient with complaints of having abdominal pain for the last three weeks to the hospital. On arrival, you notice the emergency department is very busy and there are no empty beds to be found. You have attempted to get the attention of a hospital staff member to transfer the patient, but all are currently helping other patients. Your partner tells you to take the patient to the waiting room and leave him since the dispatcher of your service is holding several serious calls. What could possibly happen to you if you leave the patient in this fashion? A. Nothing; there are other people who are in need of an ambulance. B. You could possibly be charged with false imprisonment. C. You could possibly be charged with abandonment. D. Nothing, provided that your supervisor authorizes this action.
You could possibly be charged with abandonment.
49. You are caring for a 23-year-old female who fell off of a bicycle and sustained a severe laceration on the inside of her upper thigh. Her slacks are torn, and you can see most of the wound. What is the next step? a. You can treat the wound without total exposure as exposing a wound in that area of the body could be embarrassing. b. You need to expose the wound completely because you need to clear away any embedded particles and debris from the wound. c. You need to expose the wound completely, control bleeding, clean the surface by simply removing large pieces of foreign matter if any, and dress and bandage the wound. d. You need to make sure the wound is very clean before trying to control bleeding by exposing the wound completely and cleaning it with alcohol.
You need to expose the wound completely, control bleeding, clean the surface by simply removing large pieces of foreign matter if any, and dress and bandage the wound.
You are called for a possible imminent delivery. Your patient is a 15-year-old girl who is in your estimation about 8 months pregnant. She tells you that she has been hiding her pregnancy. You are especially concerned about problems she might have during the delivery. Which of the following are findings that may indicate the need for neonatal resuscitation? A. Patient with a blood pressure of 130/82 B. Mother who has had five previous births C. Patient whose water has already broken D. Young mother who has not had prenatal care
Young mother who has not had prenatal care
When an elderly patient complains of abdominal pain, the EMT should consider this symptom to be: A. cardiac-related until proven otherwise. B. an indication of a potentially serious problem. C. non-life-threatening unless accompanied by other symptoms. D. related to a gastrointestinal problem.
an indication of a potentially serious problem.
When palpating the pulse of an elderly patient, you notice that there is an irregular pulsation without any kind of pattern or cycle to it. This is called: A. pulsus paradoxus. B. pulsus alternans. C. an irregularly irregular pulse. D. heart failure.
an irregularly irregular pulse.
54. The meatus is: a. an orifice of the urethra. b. in a male, the area between the scrotum and the anus. c. the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. d. the canal through which urine is discharged from the bladder to the exterior of the body.
an orifice of the urethra.
While palpating the radial pulses of a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash, you notice a difference in the strength of the pulses bilaterally. This is a finding that you suspect may be associated with: A. commotio cordis. B. aortic dissection. C. tension pneumothorax. D. flail chest.
aortic dissection.
A teenage male has fallen onto a railing while skateboarding. He complains of right-sided chest pain and moderate dyspnea. Exposure of the chest reveals a section of his ribs that is moving opposite of the rest of the ribs. You should: A. apply a bulky dressing over the section. B. roll the patient over onto his right side. C. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. D. begin positive pressure ventilation.
apply a bulky dressing over the section.
18) You are trying to assess Judy, a 16-year-old girl, who has abdominal cramps with nausea and vomiting. Her mother, Mrs. Smith, is attempting to give you her daughter's past medical history. It is important that you get the history of the present illness. Therefore, you should: A) ask Mrs. Smith to go write down their physician's name and phone number. B) ignore Mrs. Smith and ask Judy if she is sexually active. C) ask Mrs. Smith if there is a chance Judy could be pregnant. D) skip the history of current illness and suggest that Judy should visit her physician.
ask Mrs. Smith to go write down their physician's name and phone number.
A study of emergency collisions demonstrated that the majority of collisions occurred A. at night. B. during turning. C. at intersections. D. during inclement weather.
at intersections.
The part of the skeleton that is made up from the skull and spinal column is called the: A. appendicular skeleton. B. boney skeleton. C. axial skeleton. D. torso.
axial skeleton
A type of harm that you may be exposed to as an EMT responding to a terrorist incident that is characterized by a resulting post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is typically called a(n): A. etiological harm. B. radiological harm. C. psychological harm. D. thermal harm.
psychological harm.
As it pertains to hazardous materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers to: A. document the appropriate level of training for each employee. B. ensure there is at least one person on-site trained at the technician level. C. have knowledge of all hazardous materials on the premises. D. train employees to handle any type of hazardous materials incident.
document the appropriate level of training for each employee.
The most common form of a hemostatic agent is hemostatic: A. tourniquet. B. dressings. C. granules. D. powders.
dressings.
Police escorts of ambulances driving at emergency status are typically discouraged because: A. there is no guarantee that the police officer knows where the call is located. B. police officers are not accustomed to driving an ambulance. C. drivers who pull over for the police officer often pull back in front of the ambulance. D. ambulances do not move as fast as police cruisers.
drivers who pull over for the police officer often pull back in front of the ambulance.
You are called for a woman with severe abdominal pain. During your assessment and interview, she tells you that she is sexually active and there is a chance she could be pregnant. Her vital signs are pulse 122, respirations 22, blood pressure 96/62, and skin cool and pale. You should immediately suspect: A. internal bleeding. B. placenta previa. C. ectopic pregnancy. D. appendicitis.
ectopic pregnancy.
Tertiary injuries from a blast include: A. extremity fractures. B. lung injuries. C. bowel perforations. D. impaled objects.
extremity fractures
The term for a baby developing inside the mother's womb after week 8 is: A. neonate. B. chorion. C. infant. D. fetus.
fetus
Your pregnant patient is in active labor. You note that her contractions are getting closer together and much stronger as the baby moves deeper into the birth canal. The muscle contraction mechanism that moves the baby toward birth is the same mechanism that moves: A. fluid into and out of the cell. B. food from the esophagus to the stomach. C. air down the bronchial tubes to the alveoli. D. sweat to the surface of the skin.
food from the esophagus to the stomach.
Your patient is a 3-year-old girl who is unable to move her elbow after her mother picked her up by the forearm. Proper splinting of this injury would be to immobilize from the ________ to the ________. A. wrist; elbow B. wrist; shoulder C. forearm; humerus D. fingertips; shoulder
forearm; humerus
27) You respond to a 5-year-old child who has been injured while playing in his backyard. It appears that he has broken his arm, but you cannot tell how it occurred. You will need to gather some information regarding what exactly happened. Therefore, you should: A) speak only to the mother to find out what happened. B) tell the child that you will not hurt him. C) get down to the child's eye level to talk to him. D) tell the child that big boys don't cry.
get down to the child's eye level to talk to him.
You have been called for a 32-year-old female who is in active labor. During your assessment and interview, you note that she is 37 weeks along, this is her first child, and her contractions are 5 minutes apart. She also tells you that her pregnancy is considered "high risk." Your first concern should be: A. completing a thorough secondary exam. B. calling for a back-up unit. C. getting to the hospital. D. assembling your delivery kit.
getting to the hospital
You are the first on the scene of a two-car vehicle collision. Your patient is a front passenger who is unresponsive inside the vehicle. The patient is trapped and the vehicle is on fire. The fire department is still en route. You should: A. have the fire department rescue the patient. B. perform an emergency move. C. use your fire extinguisher to put out the fire. D. perform an urgent move.
have the fire department rescue the patient.
An EMT trained at a First Responder Awareness level would be able to: A. plug, patch, or stop the release of a hazardous material. B. recognize a hazardous materials incident and initiate a response from the proper organizations. C. respond to releases or potential releases of hazardous materials to protect people, property, and the environment. D. command and support activities at the incident site.
recognize a hazardous materials incident and initiate a response from the proper organizations.
29) You are trying to ventilate an 18-month-old baby who has stopped breathing. You have laid him down on a flat surface to ventilate him, but you are unable to get his chest to rise. You should: A) tip his head back farther to open his airway. B) flex his neck toward his chest. C) place a folded towel under his shoulders. D) suction his mouth to clear secretions.
place a folded towel under his shoulders.
Your pregnant patient is in active labor. She has been lying on her back throughout her labor and is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. Her vital signs are pulse rate 118, respirations 22, blood pressure 96/62, and skin cool and diaphoretic. The BEST way to treat her is to: A. give her some fluids to drink to help elevate her blood pressure. B. cover her up with a blanket to maintain body heat. C. place a rolled blanket under her left hip to displace the uterus. D. elevate her legs to increase the blood return to the heart.
place a rolled blanket under her left hip to displace the uterus
When delivering a baby, you should do all of the following except: A. place your fingers in the armpit to assist with delivery of the shoulders. B. have someone stay at the mother's head if possible. C. position your gloved hands at the vaginal opening. D. suction the mouth first, then the nose.
place your fingers in the armpit to assist with delivery of the shoulders.
You find a middle-aged male is sitting against a wall in obvious distress. The patient appears to be extremely short of breath and has an open wound to his chest that is making a sucking sound. You should: A. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. B. place a trauma dressing over the wound. C. place your gloved hand over the wound. D. place the patient on high-concentration oxygen.
place your gloved hand over the wound.
You are assessing a pregnant woman whose chief complaint is vaginal bleeding. She is 8 months pregnant and has moderate, bright red bleeding. She says that her doctor was concerned about the location of the placenta. This condition is known as: A. placenta previa. B. placenta disruption. C. abruptio placenta. D. unstable placenta.
placenta previa.
When deciding whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and siren activated for any patient, the driver should consider: A. the patient's preference for lights and siren. B. how many calls are waiting for an available ambulance. C. potential risks of making the patient's condition worse. D. the patient's past medical history.
potential risks of making the patient's condition worse.
An EMT's BEST defense against potential legal liability is: A. practicing excellent prehospital care. B. relying on Good Samaritan immunity. C. documenting as little as possible on the run sheet. D. purchasing medical malpractice insurance.
practicing excellent prehospital care.
You respond to a call for a patient in active labor with her second child. Your interview with the patient shows that she is 40 weeks pregnant and has been in active labor for several hours. You determine that her vital signs are all within normal limits. After your physical exam, you determine the baby is crowning. You should next: A. begin transport and plan to deliver in the ambulance. B. delay delivery until arrival at the hospital. C. contact medical direction for orders. D. prepare to deliver the baby on-scene.
prepare to deliver the baby on-scene.
13) A 4-year-old child is generally categorized as a(n): A) preschooler. B) toddler. C) school-age child. D) adolescent.
preschooler.