Chapter 32. Skin Integrity
A client's pressure injury is superficial and presents clinically as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. How would the nurse document this pressure injury? Stage I Stage II Stage III Stage IV
Correct response:Stage II Explanation: A stage II pressure injury involves partial thickness loss of dermis and presents as a shallow, open ulcer. A stage II injury could present as a blister, abrasion, or shallow crater. A stage I pressure injury is a defined area of intact skin with nonblanchable redness of a localized area, usually over a bony prominence. Darkly pigmented skin may not have visible blanching; its color may differ from the surrounding skin. The area may be painful, firm, soft, warmer, or cooler as compared to adjacent tissue. A stage III injury presents with full-thickness tissue loss. Subcutaneous fat may be visible, but bone, tendon, or muscle is not exposed. Slough that may be present does not obscure the depth of tissue loss. Injuries at this stage may include undermining and tunneling. Stage IV injuries involve full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Slough or eschar may be present on some part of the wound bed and often include undermining and tunneling.
A postoperative client is being transferred from the bed to a gurney and states, "I feel like something has just given away." What should the nurse assess in the client? Infection of the wound Herniation of the wound Dehiscence of the wound Evisceration of the viscera
Correct response: Dehiscence of the wound Explanation: Dehiscence is the partial or total separation of wound layers as a result of excessive stress on wounds that are not healed. Clients at greater risk for these complications include those who are obese or malnourished, smoke tobacco, use anticoagulants, have infected wounds, or experience excessive coughing, vomiting, or straining. An increase in the flow of fluid from the wound between postoperative days 4 and 5 may be a sign of an impending dehiscence. The client may say that "something has suddenly given way." If dehiscence occurs, cover the wound area with sterile towels moistened with sterile 0.9% sodium chloride solution and notify the physician. Once dehiscence occurs, the wound is managed like any open wound. Manifestations of infection include redness, warmth, swelling, and heat. With herniation, there is protrusion through a bodily opening. Evisceration is a term that describes protrusion of intra-abdominal contents.
The nurse is performing frequent skin assessment at the site where cold therapy has been in place. The nurse notes pallor at the site and the client reports "it feels numb." What is the best action by the nurse at this time? a. Discontinue the therapy and assess the client. b. Notify the health care provider of the findings. c. Document the findings in the client's medical record. d. Gently rub and massage the area to warm it up.
Correct response: Discontinue the therapy and assess the client. Explanation: The best action by the nurse at this time is to discontinue the therapy and assess the client; this should be done before notifying the health care provider or documenting the event. Gently rubbing the area or massaging it would not be appropriate at this time.
After 30 minutes, the nurse is preparing to remove the cold therapy application when the client asks if it can be left on a little longer. What is the best action by the nurse? a. Explain that leaving cold therapy on for longer than 30 minutes can cause tissue necrosis. b. Leave the therapy on for 10 more minutes and return to remove it after that time. c. Assist the client to get out of bed and sit up in a chair for a short while. d. Explain to the client that this is not possible because of the health care provider's prescription.
Correct response: Explain that leaving cold therapy on for longer than 30 minutes can cause tissue necrosis. Explanation: The best response by the nurse is to explain the possible complications of leaving cold therapy in place for too long, including cell death and tissue necrosis. This response not only answers the client's question but teaches at the same time the rationale and reason for limiting the cold therapy. Leaving the therapy on for 10 more minutes places the client at increased risk of tissue injury. Assisting the client out of bed ignores the client's request. Using the health care provider's prescription as the reason displays lack of understanding by the nurse and does not aid the client in understanding the rationale for the time limit.
The nurse is caring for a client who has a wound to the right forearm following a motor vehicle accident. The primary care provider has ordered culture of the wound. Which action should the nurse perform in obtaining a wound culture? Cleanse the wound after obtaining the wound culture. Stroke the culture swab on surrounding skin first. Utilize the culture swab to obtain cultures from multiple sites. Keep the swab and the inside of the culture tube sterile.
Correct response: Keep the swab and the inside of the culture tube sterile. Explanation: The swab and the inside of the culture tube should be kept sterile. The wound should be cleansed prior to obtaining the culture. The culture swab should not touch the skin surrounding the wound site. In addition, if multiple sites have to be cultured then separate culture swabs should be used.
A nurse is evaluating a client who was admitted with partial-thickness or second-degree burns. Which describes this type of burn? a. Usually moist with blisters, which may be pink, red, pale ivory, or light yellow-brown b. Superficial, which may be pinkish or red with no blistering c. May vary from brown or black to cherry red or pearly white; bullae may be present d. A superficial partial-thickness burn, which can appear dry and leathery
Correct response: Usually moist with blisters, which may be pink, red, pale ivory, or light yellow-brown Explanation: Second-degree burns are moderate to deep partial-thickness burns that may be pink, red, pale ivory, or light yellow-brown. They are usually moist with blisters. First-degree burns are superficial and may be pinkish or red with no blistering. Third-degree burns are full-thickness burns and may vary from brown or black to cherry-red or pearly-white; bullae may be present; can appear dry and leathery.
The nurse is caring for a client who has reported to the emergency department with a steam burn to the right forearm. The burn is pink and has small blisters. The burn is most likely: first degree or superficial second degree or partial thickness third degree or full thickness fourth degree or fat layer
Correct response: second degree or partial thickness Partial-thickness burns may be superficial or moderate to deep. A superficial partial-thickness burn (first degree; epidermal) is pinkish or red with no blistering; a mild sunburn is a good example. Moderate to deep partial-thickness burns (second degree; dermal or deep dermal) may be pink, red, pale ivory, or light yellow-brown. They are usually moist with blisters. Exposure to steam can cause this type of burn. A full-thickness burn (third degree) may vary from brown or black to cherry red or pearly white. Thrombosed vessels and blisters or bullae may be present. The full-thickness burn appears dry and leathery.
A nurse is caring for a 78-year-old client who was admitted after a femur fracture. The primary care provider placed the client on bed rest. Which action should the nurse perform to prevent a pressure injury? elevate the head of the bed 90 degrees use pillows to maintain a side-lying position as needed provide incontinent care every 4 hours as needed place a foot board on the bed
Correct response: use pillows to maintain a side-lying position as needed Explanation: Using pillows to maintain a side-lying position allows the nursing staff to change position to alleviate and alternate pressure on client's bony prominences. The client's position should be changed a minimum of every 2 hours. In addition, incontinent care should be performed a minimum of every 2 hours and as needed to decrease moisture and irritation of the skin. A foot board prevents foot drop but does not decrease the risk for pressure injury.
The nurse is assessing the wounds of clients in a burn unit. Which wound would most likely heal by primary intention? a. a surgical incision with sutured approximated edges b. a large wound with considerable tissue loss allowed to heal naturally c. a wound left open for several days to allow edema to subside d. a wound healing naturally that becomes infected.
Correct response: a surgical incision with sutured approximated edges Explanation: Wounds healed by primary intention are well approximated (skin edges tightly together). Intentional wounds with minimal tissue loss, such as those made by a surgical incision with sutured approximated edges, usually heal by primary intention. Wounds healed by secondary intention have edges that are not well approximated. Large, open wounds, such as from burns or major trauma, which require more tissue replacement and are often contaminated, commonly heal by secondary intention. If a wound that is healing by primary intention becomes infected, it will heal by secondary intention. Wounds that heal by secondary intention take longer to heal and form more scar tissue. Connective tissue healing and repair follow the same phases in healing. However, differences occur in the length of time required for each phase and in the extent of new tissue formed. Wounds healed by tertiary intention, or delayed primary closure, are those wounds left open for several days to allow edema or infection to resolve or fluid to drain, and then are closed.