Chapter 36 (1) - HIV/AIDS
What test will the nurse assess to determine the client's response to antiretroviral therapy?
Viral load Viral load should be measured at baseline and on a regular basis thereafter because viral load is the most important indicator of response to ART. The other tests are not used in this way.
Kaposi sarcoma (KS) is diagnosed through
biopsy. KS is diagnosed through biopsy of the suspected lesions. Visual assessment will not confirm a diagnosis. A computed tomography scan will not assist in determining skin cell changes. Skin scraping is a procedure to collect cells, not to evaluate cells.
During assessment of a patient with Kaposi's sarcoma, the nurse knows to look for the initial sign of:
Deep purple cutaneous lesions. Localized cutaneous lesions may be the first manifestation of this HIV-related malignancy, which appears in 90% of patients as immune function deteriorates. Other symptoms develop over time as the lesions increase in size and spread to other locations.
Antiretroviral medications should be offered to clients with T-cell counts less than
350 cells/mm3. In general, antiretroviral medications should be offered to individuals with a T-cell count less than 350 cells/mm3 or plasma HIV RNA levels exceeding 100,000 copies/mL.
The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to pneumocystis pneumonia and increased bronchial secretions for a client with AIDS. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?
Assist with chest physiotherapy every 2 to 4 hours. The nurse should include interventions such as assisting with and/or performing chest physiotherapy every 2 to 4 hours to prevent stasis of secretions, assist the client to attain the semi- or high Fowler's position to facilitate breathing and airway clearance, allow for frequent rest periods to prevent excessive fatigue, and maintain a fluid intake of at least 3 liters per day unless contraindicated.
Which is usually the most important consideration in the decision to initiate antiretroviral therapy?
CD4+ counts The most important consideration in decisions to initiate antiretroviral therapy is CD4+ counts.
A nurse is working in a support group for clients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which point is most important for the nurse to stress?
Following safer-sex practices It's essential for clients with AIDS to follow safer-sex practices to prevent transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus. Although it's helpful if clients with AIDS avoid using recreational drugs and alcohol, it's more important that I.V. drug users use clean needles and dispose of used needles for purposes of avoiding transmission. Whether the client with AIDS chooses to tell anyone about the diagnosis is his decision; there is no legal obligation to do so.
Which of the following indicates that a client with HIV has developed AIDS?
Herpes simplex ulcer persisting for 2 months A diagnosis of AIDS cannot be made until the person with HIV meets case criteria established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. The immune system becomes compromised. The CD4 T-cell count drops below 200 cells and develops one of the opportunistic diseases, such as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, candidiasis, cytomegalovirus, or herpes simplex.
A patient had unprotected sex with an HIV-infected person and arrives in the clinic requesting HIV testing. Results determine a negative HIV antibody test and an increased viral load. What stage does the nurse determine the patient is in?
Primary infection The period from infection with HIV to the development of HIV-specific antibodies is known as primary infection, or stage 1. Initially, there is a period during which those who are HIV positive test negative on the HIV antibody blood test, although they are infected and highly infectious, because their viral loads are very high.
A client is prescribed didanosine (Videx) as part of his highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). Which instruction would the nurse emphasize with this client?
"Be sure to take this drug about 1/2 hour before or 2 hours after you eat." Didanosine should be taken 30 to 60 minutes before or 2 hours after meals. Other antiretroviral agents, such as abacavir, emtricitabine, or lamivudine can be taken without regard to meals. High-fat meals should be avoided when taking amprenavir. Atazanavir should be taken with food and not with antacids.
A client is beginning highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The client demonstrates an understanding of the need for follow up when he schedules a return visit for viral load testing at which time?
6 weeks Viral load tests are measured immediately before initiating antiretroviral therapy and then again in 2 to 8 weeks. In most clients, adherence to a regimen of potent antiretroviral agents should result in a large decrease in the viral load by 2 to 8 weeks. Therefore, a return visit at 6 weeks would be in this time frame. By 16 to 20 weeks, the viral load should continue to decline, dropping below detectable levels.
Which condition is an early manifestation of HIV encephalopathy?
Headache Early manifestations of HIV encephalopathy include headache, memory deficits, difficulty concentrating, progressive confusion, psychomotor slowing, apathy, and ataxia. Later stages include hyperreflexia, a vacant stare, and hallucinations.
The nurse's base knowledge of primary immunodeficiencies includes which of the following statements?
Primary immunodeficiencies develop early in life after protection from maternal antibodies decreases. These disorders may involve one or more components of the immune system. Primary immunodeficiencies are seen primarily in infants and young children. Primary immunodeficiencies are rare disorders with genetic origins. Without treatment, infants and children with these disorders seldom survive to adulthood.
A client that is HIV+ has been diagnosed with Pneumocystis pneumonia caused by P. jiroveci. What medication does the nurse expect that the client will take for the treatment of this infection?
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole To prevent and treat Pneumocystis pneumonia, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) is prescribed. The other medications are antifungals and used to treat candidiasis.
A client with suspected exposure to HIV has been tested with the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) with positive results twice. The next step for the nurse to explain to the client for confirmation of the diagnosis is to perform a:
Western blot test for confirmation of diagnosis. The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test, an initial HIV screening test, is positive when there are sufficient HIV antibodies; it also is positive when there are antibodies from other infectious diseases. The test is repeated if results are positive. If results of a second ELISA test are positive, the Western blot is performed. The p24 antigen test and the polymerase chain reaction test determine the viral load, and the T4-cell count is not used for diagnostic confirmation of the presence of HIV in the blood.
The term used to define the amount of virus in the body after the initial immune response subsides is
viral set point. The amount of virus in the body after the initial immune response subsides is referred to as the viral set point, which results in an equilibrium between HIV levels and the immune response that may be elicited. During the primary infection period, the window period occurs because a person is infected with HIV but negative on the HIV antibody blood test. The period from infection with HIV to the development of antibodies to HIV is known as the primary infection stage. The amount of virus in circulation and the number of infected cells equals the rate of viral clearance.
A client receiving antiretroviral therapy reports "not urinating enough." What is the nurse's best action?
Assess blood urea nitrogen and creatinine. Adverse effects associated with antiretroviral therapy include potential nephrotoxicity. Assessing blood urean nitrogen and creatinine for clients who have decreased urination is appropriate. The other answers will not assist the nurse in determining the client's problem, which should be assessed before intervention are administered.
A client who is HIV positive is receiving highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) that includes a protease inhibitor (PI). The client comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Assessment reveals lipoatrophy of the face and arms. The client states, "I'm thinking the side effects of the drug are worse than the disease. Look what's happening to me." The nurse would most likely identify which nursing diagnosis as the priority?
Disturbed body image related to loss of fat in the face and arms The client is experiencing lipoatrophy, which results in a localized loss of subcutaneous fat in the face (manifested as sinking of the cheeks, eyes, and temples), arms, legs, and buttocks. These changes as well as his statement about the side effects of the drug being worse than the disease indicate that he is concerned about how he appears to others. Therefore, the nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image would be the priority. Deficient knowledge, risk for infection, and risk for impaired liver function may be applicable; however, they are not concerns at this time.
A client with AIDS is admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea and dehydration. The physician suspects an infection with Cryptosporidium. What type of specimen should be collected to confirm this diagnosis?
Stool specimen for ova and parasites A stool specimen for ova and parasites will give a definitive diagnosis. The organism is spread by the fecal-oral route from contaminated water, food, or human or animal waste. Those infected can lose from 10 to 20 L of fluid per day. Losing this magnitude of fluid quickly leads to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
