Chapter 36-41

Liver transaminase elevations in which aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is markedly greater than alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is characteristic of a. cirrohosis b. viral hepatitis c. acetaminophen toxicity d. alcohol-induced injury

d

Pathophysiologically, esophageal varices can be attributed to a. diminished protein metabolism b. fluid accumulation c. elevated bilirubin d. portal hypertension

d

The warning signs for colon cancer include a. weight loss b. black tarry or pencil-shaped stool c. a change in bowel habits d. all of the above

d

a patient will be diagnosed as diabetes mellitus if... a. the HbA1c level is greater than 6.5% b. the patient has polyuria, polydipsia and unexplained weight loss c. a patient has a casual plasma glucose level higher than 200mg/dl d. all of the above

d

all of the followings are the causative factors in peptic ulcer disease EXCEPT a. long-term use of NSAID b. stress c. infection with helicobacter pylori d. long term use of antibodies

d

more than half of the initial cases of pancreatitis are associated wiht a. high cholesterol b. trauma c. stones d. alcoholism

d

patients with chronic gastritis should be tested for a. biliary obstruction b. hepatitis c. colon cancer d. H. Pylori infection

d

Postrenal acute kidney injury may be caused by severe hypotension. glomerulonephritis. bilateral kidney stones. acute tubular necrosis.

bilateral kidney stones.

Chronic pancreatitis may lead to a. gallstones b. crohn disease c. celiac sprue d. diabetes mellitus

d

Signs consistent with a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis include anuria. proteinuria. red blood cell casts in the urine. foul-smelling urine.

proteinuria.

Match the following absence of peristalsis in a portion of the esophagus... difficulty swallowing... herniations in the bowel wall... painful swallowing...

... achalasia ... dysphagia ... diverticulosis ... odynophagia

Infection by ________ accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis. Chlamydia trachomatis Candida albicans Neisseria gonorrhoeae Pseudomonas

Candida albicans

What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence? Rectocele Menopause Cystocele Cervicitis

Cystocele

Cervical cancer can be detected in the early, curable stage by the ________ test. Papanicolaou human papillomavirus gonorrhoeae vaginal pH

Papanicolaou

Infection can lead to bladder stone formation. True False

True

The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI) is prevention. True False

True

What problem is a patient likely to experience in end-stage renal disease? Hypokalemia Polyuria and nocturia Uremia Hematuria

Uremia

Acute right lower quadrant pain associated with rebound tenderness and systemic signs of inflammation are indicative of a. appendicitis b. cholecystitis c. gastritis d. peritonitis

a

H. pylori increase cancer risk a. true b. false

a

What indicator is most helpful in evaluating long-term blood glucose management in patients with diabetes mellitus? a. HbA1c b. urine glucose levels c. clinical manifestations of hyperclycemia d. blood glucose levels

a

dysphagia type II is when____ a. there is a problem with transport of bolus down the esophagus b. there is a volvulus in the colon c. the food can't go past the pharynx d. the bolus can't enter the stomach

a

microvascular complications if diabetes mellitus are seen in... a. retinopathy and nephropathy b. damage to large blood vessels supplying the brain c. hemorrhagic cerebrovascular accidents d. ischemic cerebrovascular accidents

a

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is caused by endometrial inflammation. reproductive tract malignancies. endometrial fibroid tumors. absent or diminished levels of progesterone.

absent or diminished levels of progesterone.

Brain injury secondary to high serum bilirubin is called a. encephalitis b. kernicterus c. hepatic meningitis d. hepatic encephalopathy

b

Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis are two types of irritable bowel syndrome a. true b. false

b

Hep B is usually transmitted by exposure to a. feces b. blood or semen c. hap vaccine d. contaminated food

b

Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with____ a. toxic effects of alcohol on brain cells b. increased blood ammonia levels c. best managed with H2 antagonists d. hyperuricemia

b

Proton pump inhibitors may be used in the management of peptic ulcer diseases to a. inhibit secretion of pepsinogen b. decrease hydrochloric acid (HCL) secretion c. neutralized gastric acid d. increase gastric motlity

b

The underlying pathogenic mechanism for type 2 diabetes is... a. impaired glucose transport into cells b. insulin resistance and b-cell dysfunction c. lack of exercise and chronic overeating d. pancreatic B-cell destruction

b

Which of the following hormones will not increase serum glucose level? a. catecholamine b. vasopressin c. glucagon d. growth hormones

b

a patient who should be routinely evaluated for peptic ulcer disease is one who is a. experiencing chronic diarrhea b. being treated with high-dose oral glucocorticoids c. taking 6 to 8 tablets of acetaminophen per day d. routinely drinking alcoholic beverages

b

diabetes insipidus is condition a. characterized by oliguria b. resulting from inadequate ADH secretion c. associated with thyroid gland dysfunction d. characterized by glycosuria

b

most gallstones are composed of___ a. uric acid salts b. cholesterol c. bile d. calcium

b

Ascites is related to which of the following? a. advanced liver disease primarily? b. increased systemic blood pressure c. portal hypertension d. gradient problems in the kidney

c

It is true that gallstones are. a. more common in men b. a minimal risk for Native American c. more common in women d. at highest risk among Asians

c

Jaundice is a common manifestation of A. malabsorption syndromes. B. anemia. C. liver disease. D. cholecystitis.

c

Patients with acute pancreatitis are generally not allowed to eat and may require continuous gastric suctioning to ____ a. prevent mechanical obstruction of the intestine b. prevent hyperglycemia associated with loss of insulin secretion c. remove the usual stimuli for pancreatic secretion d. prevent abdominal distention

c

an early indicator of colon cancer is a. bloody diarrhea b. jaundice c. a change in bowel habits d. rectal pain

c

Constipation in an elderly patient can be best treated by a. maintaining the current level of activity b. maintaining a low fiber diet c. fecal disimpaction d. increasing fiber in the diet

d

Elevated serum lipase and amylase levels are indicative of a. peritonitis b. gallbladder disease c. appendicitis d. pancreatitis

d

Fecal leukocyte screening would be indicated in a patient with suspected a. lactose intolerance b. laxative abuse c. giardiasis d. enterocolitis

d

GERD can be caused by___ a. caffeine b. stress c. smoking d. all of the above

d

A breast lump that is painless, hard, and unmoving is most likely fibrocystic breast disease. fibroadenoma. papilloma. carcinoma.

carcinoma.

A patient has ureteral colic. The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is severe flank pain. vomiting. pink-tinged urine. chills and fever.

chills and fever.

Barrett esophagus is a a. gastrin secreting lesion b. benign condition c. gastrin-secreting tumor d. preneoplastic lesion

d

Endometriosis is a condition in which the endometrium sloughs continuously. ectopic endometrial tissue is present. an abnormal Pap smear is diagnostic. the endometrium proliferates and does not shed.

ectopic endometrial tissue is present.

A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for endocrine disorders. vascular abnormalities. female sex assignment. epispadias.

endocrine disorders.

The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as hypospadias. urethral fistula. epispadias. priapism.

epispadias

A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically experience fever. oliguria. edema. hypertension.

fever.

The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance. fever and diminishing cognition. sodium retention and potassium loss in the urine. magnesium and phosphorous loss in the urine.

fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance.

Nephrotic syndrome does not usually cause hyperlipidemia. proteinuria. hematuria. generalized edema.

hematuria.

The condition associated with end-stage chronic renal disease that is the most immediately life threatening is azotemia. increased creatinine. hypertension. hyperkalemia.

hyperkalemia.

The difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence occurs in women, whereas urge incontinence occurs in both men and women. occurs during sleep, whereas urge incontinence occurs during the waking hours. is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle. is caused by a detrusor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a neurologic problem.

is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle.

The normal post-void residual urine in the bladder is less than 100 mL. 150 to 200 mL. 250 to 300 mL. none of these; no normal residual volume is identified.

less than 100 mL.

The pain that accompanies kidney disorders is called nephritic. nephralgia. nephrotic. nephronitis.

nephralgia.

Glomerular disorders include pyelonephritis. obstructive uropathy. interstitial cystitis. nephrotic syndrome.

nephrotic syndrome.

The disorder characterized by a neurologic lesion that affects bladder control is neurogenic bladder. detrusor inactivity. bladder prolapse. cystitis.

neurogenic bladder.

The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis includes the presence of WBCs and RBCs. nitrites. casts. bacteria.

nitrites.

Urinary retention with consistent or intermittent dribbling of urine is called mixed incontinence. enuresis. stress incontinence. overflow incontinence.

overflow incontinence.

A person is unaware that his bladder is full of urine, but complains that he is leaking urine almost constantly. The most accurate term for this type of incontinence is overflow. stress. urge. mixed.

overflow.

Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) ________ to hold the uterus in place. catheter. IUD. pessary. endopelvic mesh implant.

pessary.

If acute tubular necrosis (ATN) does not resolve and continued tubular dysfunction ensues, the patient will then experience oliguria and sodium retention. infections and sepsis. magnesium and phosphorus loss in urine. polyuria and sodium wasting.

polyuria and sodium wasting.

Nephrotic syndrome involves loss of large amounts of ________ in the urine. blood sodium glucose protein

protein

The main clinical manifestation of a kidney stone obstructing the ureter is oliguria. renal colic. urge incontinence. an abdominal mass.

renal colic.

The most commonly ordered diagnostic test for evaluation of the urinary system is KUB. cystogram. ultrasonography. cystography.

ultrasonography.