Chapter 8 Therapeutic Relationship, Chapter 3 Biological Basis for Understanding Psychiatric Disorders and Treatments, Chapter 7 The Nursing Process and Standards of Care for Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing, Chapter 9 Communication and the Clinical...

A patient diagnosed with major depression shows vegetative signs of depression. Which nursing actions should be implemented? Select all that apply. a.Offer laxatives if needed. b.Monitor food and fluid intake. c.Provide a quiet sleep environment. d.Eliminate all daily caffeine intake. e.Restrict intake of processed foods.

A, B, C The correct options promote a normal elimination pattern. Although excessive intake of stimulants such as caffeine may make the patient feel jittery and anxious, small amounts may provide useful stimulation. No indication exists that processed foods should be restricted. See relationship to audience response question.

A student nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with depression reads in the patient's medical record, "This patient shows vegetative signs of depression." Which nursing diagnoses most clearly relate to the vegetative signs? Select all that apply. a. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements b. Chronic low self-esteem c. Sexual dysfunction d. Self-care deficit e. Powerlessness f. Insomnia

A, C, D, F Vegetative signs of depression are alterations in body processes necessary to support life and growth, such as eating, sleeping, elimination, and sexual activity. These diagnoses are more closely related to vegetative signs than diagnoses associated with feelings about self. See relationship to audience response question.

A patient being treated with paroxetine (Paxil) 50 mg po daily for depression reports to the clinic nurse, "I took a few extra tablets earlier today and now I feel bad." Which assessments are most critical? Select all that apply. a. Vital signs b. Urinary frequency c. Psychomotor retardation d. Presence of abdominal pain and diarrhea e. Hyperactivity or feelings of restlessness

A, D, E The patient is taking the maximum dose of this SSRI and has ingested an additional unknown amount of the drug. Central serotonin syndrome must be considered. Symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, hyperpyrexia, increased motor activity, and muscle spasms. Central serotonin syndrome may progress to a full medical emergency if not treated early. The patient may have urinary retention, but frequency would not be expected.

A patient diagnosed with major depression does not interact with others except when addressed, and then only in monosyllables. The nurse wants to show nonjudgmental acceptance and support for the patient. Which communication technique will be effective? a. Make observations. b. Ask the patient direct questions. c. Phrase questions to require yes or no answers. d. Frequently reassure the patient to reduce guilt feelings.

A Making observations about neutral topics such as the environment draws the patient into the reality around him or her but places no burdensome expectations for answers on the patient. Acceptance and support are shown by the nurse's presence. Direct questions may make the patient feel that the encounter is an interrogation. Open-ended questions are preferable if the patient is able to participate in dialogue. Platitudes are never acceptable. They minimize patient feelings and can increase feelings of worthlessness.

A patient became depressed after the last of the family's six children moved out of the home 4 months ago. Select the best initial outcome for the nursing diagnosis Situational low self-esteem related to feelings of abandonment. The patient will: a.verbalize realistic positive characteristics about self by (date). b.agree to take an antidepressant medication regularly by (date). c.initiate social interaction with another person daily by (date). d.identify two personal behaviors that alienate others by (date).

A Low self-esteem is reflected by making consistently negative statements about self and self-worth. Replacing negative cognitions with more realistic appraisals of self is an appropriate intermediate outcome. The incorrect options are not as clearly related to the nursing diagnosis. Outcomes are best when framed positively; identifying two personal behaviors that might alienate others is a negative concept.

Which documentation for a patient diagnosed with major depression indicates the treatment plan was effective? a. Slept 6 hours uninterrupted. Sang with activity group. Anticipates seeing grandchild. b. Slept 10 hours uninterrupted. Attended craft group; stated "project was a failure, just like me." c. Slept 5 hours with brief interruptions. Personal hygiene adequate with assistance. Weight loss of 1 pound. d. Slept 7 hours uninterrupted. Preoccupied with perceived inadequacies. States, "I feel tired all the time."

A Sleeping 6 hours, participating with a group, and anticipating an event are all positive events. All the other options show at least one negative finding.

An adult diagnosed with major depression was treated with medication and cognitive behavioral therapy. The patient now recognizes how passivity contributed to the depression. Which intervention should the nurse suggest? a.Social skills training b.Relaxation training classes c.Desensitization techniques d.Use of complementary therapy

A Social skill training is helpful in treating and preventing the recurrence of depression. Training focuses on assertiveness and coping skills that lead to positive reinforcement from others and development of a patient's support system. Use of complementary therapy refers to adjunctive therapies such as herbals, which would be less helpful than social skill training. Assertiveness would be of greater value than relaxation training because passivity was a concern. Desensitization is used in treatment of phobias.

A patient was diagnosed with seasonal affective disorder (SAD). During which month would this patient's symptoms be most acute? a. January b. April c. June d. September

A The days are short in January, so the patient would have the least exposure to sunlight. Seasonal affective disorder is associated with disturbances in circadian rhythm. Days are longer in spring, summer, and fall.

A community mental health nurse has worked with a patient for 3 years but is moving out of the city and terminates the relationship. When a novice nurse begins work with this patient, what is the starting point for the relationship? a. Begin at the orientation phase. b. Resume the working relationship. c. Initially establish a social relationship. d. Return to the emotional catharsis phase.

ANS: A After termination of a long-term relationship, the patient and new nurse usually have to begin at ground zero, the orientation phase, to build a new relationship. If termination is successfully completed, the orientation phase sometimes progresses quickly to the working phase. Other times, even after successful termination, the orientation phase may be prolonged.

A patient says, "I've done a lot of cheating and manipulating in my relationships." Select a nonjudgmental response by the nurse. a. "How do you feel about that?" b. "I am glad that you realize this." c. "That's not a good way to behave." d. "Have you outgrown that type of behavior?"

ANS: A Asking a patient to reflect on feelings about his or her actions does not imply any judgment about those actions, and it encourages the patient to explore feelings and values. The remaining options offer negative judgments.

Which technique is most applicable to aversion therapy? a. Punishment b. Desensitization c. Role modeling d. Positive reinforcement

ANS: A Aversion therapy is akin to punishment. Aversive techniques include pairing of a maladaptive behavior with a noxious stimulus, punishment, and avoidance training.

33. A nurse asks a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia, "What is meant by the old saying 'You can't judge a book by looking at the cover.'?" Which response by the patient indicates concrete thinking? a. "The table of contents tells what a book is about." b. "You can't judge a book by looking at the cover." c. "Things are not always as they first appear." d. "Why are you asking me about books?"

ANS: A Concrete thinking refers to an impaired ability to think abstractly. Concreteness is often assessed through the patient's interpretation of proverbs. Concreteness reduces one's ability to understand and address abstract concepts such as love or the passage of time. The incorrect options illustrate echolalia, an unrelated question, and abstract thinking. REF: Page 205-206 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

18. An acutely violent patient diagnosed with schizophrenia receives several doses of haloperidol (Haldol). Two hours later the nurse notices the patient's head rotated to one side in a stiffly fixed position, the lower jaw thrust forward, and drooling. Which intervention by the nurse is indicated? a. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 50 mg IM from the PRN medication administration record. b. Reassure the patient that the symptoms will subside. Practice relaxation exercises with the patient. c. Give trihexyphenidyl (Artane) 5 mg orally at the next regularly scheduled medication administration time. d. Administer atropine sulfate 2 mg subcut from the PRN medication administration record.

ANS: A Diphenhydramine, trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, and other anticholinergic medications may be used to treat dystonias. Swallowing will be difficult or impossible therefore, oral medication is not an option. Medication should be administered immediately, so the intramuscular route is best. In this case, the best option given is diphenhydramine. REF: Page 215-216 (Table 12-4) TOP: Nursing Process: Implementatio

Which statement shows a nurse has empathy for a patient who made a suicide attempt? a. "You must have been very upset when you tried to hurt yourself." b. "It makes me sad to see you going through such a difficult experience." c. "If you tell me what is troubling you, I can help you solve your problems." d. "Suicide is a drastic solution to a problem that may not be such a serious matter."

ANS: A Empathy permits the nurse to see an event from the patient's perspective, understand the patient's feelings, and communicate this to the patient. The incorrect responses are nurse- centered (focusing on the nurse's feelings rather than the patient's), belittling, and sympathetic.

While talking with a patient diagnosed with major depression, a nurse notices the patient is unable to maintain eye contact. The patient's chin lowers to the chest, while the patient looks at the floor. Which aspect of communication has the nurse assessed? a. Nonverbal communication b. A message filter c. A cultural barrier d. Social skills

ANS: A Eye contact and body movements are considered nonverbal communication. There are insufficient data to determine the level of the patient's social skills or whether a cultural barrier exists.

A nurse and patient discuss a problem the patient has kept secret for many years. Afterward the patient says, "I feel so relieved that I finally told somebody." Which term best describes the patient's feeling? a. Catharsis b. Superego c. Cognitive distortion d. Counter-transference

ANS: A Freud initially used talk therapy, known as the cathartic method. Today we refer to catharsis as "getting things off our chests." The superego represents the moral component of personality.

A patient is having difficulty making a decision. The nurse has mixed feelings about whether to provide advice. Which principle usually applies? Giving advice: a. is rarely helpful. b. fosters independence. c. lifts the burden of personal decision making. d. helps the patient develop feelings of personal adequacy.

ANS: A Giving advice fosters dependence on the nurse and interferes with the patient's right to make personal decisions. It robs patients of the opportunity to weigh alternatives and develop problem-solving skills. Furthermore, it contributes to patient feelings of personal inadequacy. It also keeps the nurse in control and feeling powerful.

An obese patient has a diagnosis of schizophrenia. Medications that block which receptors would contribute to further weight gain? a. H1 b. 5 HT2 c. Acetylcholine d. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

ANS: A H1 receptor blockade results in weight gain, which is undesirable for an obese patient. Blocking of the other receptors would have little or no effect on the patient's weight.

A patient diagnosed with major depression has lost 20 pounds in one month, has chronic low self-esteem, and a plan for suicide. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority? a. Implement suicide precautions. b. Offer high-calorie snacks and fluids frequently. c. Assist the patient to identify three personal strengths. d. Observe patient for therapeutic effects of antidepressant medication.

ANS: A Implementing suicide precautions is the only option related to patient safety. The other options, related to nutrition, self-esteem, and medication therapy, are important but are not priorities.

The nurse administers a medication that potentiates the action of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA). Which effect would be expected? a. Reduced anxiety b. Improved memory c. More organized thinking d. Fewer sensory perceptual alterations

ANS: A Increased levels of GABA reduce anxiety. Acetylcholine and substance P are associated with memory enhancement. Thought disorganization is associated with dopamine. GABA is not associated with sensory perceptual alterations. See relationship to audience response question.

A nurse cares for four patients who are receiving clozapine, lithium, fluoxetine, and venlafaxine, respectively. With which patient should the nurse be most alert for problems associated with fluid and electrolyte imbalance? The patient receiving: a. lithium (Lithobid). b. clozapine (Clozaril). c. fluoxetine (Prozac). d. venlafaxine (Effexor).

ANS: A Lithium is a salt and known to alter fluid and electrolyte balance, producing polyuria, edema, and other symptoms of imbalance. Patients receiving clozapine should be monitored for agranulocytosis. Patients receiving fluoxetine should be monitored for acetylcholine block. Patients receiving venlafaxine should be monitored for heightened feelings of anxiety.

During a one-on-one interaction with the nurse, a patient frequently looks nervously at the door. Select the best comment by the nurse regarding this nonverbal communication. a. "I notice you keep looking toward the door." b. "This is our time together. No one is going to interrupt us." c. "It looks as if you are eager to end our discussion for today." d. "If you are uncomfortable in this room, we can move someplace else."

ANS: A Making observations and encouraging the patient to describe perceptions are useful therapeutic communication techniques for this situation. The other responses are assumptions made by the nurse.

A patient would benefit from therapy in which peers as well as staff have a voice in determining patients' privileges and psychoeducational topics. Which approach would be best? a. Milieu therapy b. Cognitive therapy c. Short-term dynamic therapy d. Systematic desensitization

ANS: A Milieu therapy is based on the idea that all members of the environment contribute to the planning and functioning of the setting. The distracters are individual therapies that do not fit the description.

A drug causes muscarinic receptor blockade. The nurse will assess the patient for: a. dry mouth. b. gynecomastia. c. pseudoparkinsonism. d. orthostatic hypotension.

ANS: A Muscarinic receptor blockade includes atropine-like side effects, such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation. Gynecomastia is associated with decreased prolactin levels. Movement defects are associated with dopamine blockade. Orthostatic hypotension is associated with α1 antagonism.

A nurse explains to the family of a mentally ill patient how a nurse-patient relationship differs from social relationships. Which is the best explanation? a. "The focus is on the patient. Problems are discussed by the nurse and patient, but solutions are implemented by the patient." b. "The focus shifts from nurse to patient as the relationship develops. Advice is given by both, and solutions are implemented." c. "The focus of the relationship is socialization. Mutual needs are met, and feelings are shared openly." d. "The focus is creation of a partnership in which each member is concerned with growth and satisfaction of the other."

ANS: A Only the correct response describes elements of a therapeutic relationship. The remaining responses describe events that occur in social or intimate relationships.

At what point in the nurse-patient relationship should a nurse plan to first address termination? a. During the orientation phase b. At the end of the working phase c. Near the beginning of the termination phase d. When the patient initially brings up the topic

ANS: A The patient has a right to know the conditions of the nurse-patient relationship. If the relationship is to be time-limited, the patient should be informed of the number of sessions. If it is open-ended, the termination date will not be known at the outset, and the patient should know that the issue will be negotiated at a later date. The nurse is responsible for bringing up the topic of termination early in the relationship, usually during the orientation phase.

Which technique will best communicate to a patient that the nurse is interested in listening? a. Restating a feeling or thought the patient has expressed. b. Asking a direct question, such as "Did you feel angry?" c. Making a judgment about the patient's problem. d. Saying, "I understand what you're saying."

ANS: A Restating allows the patient to validate the nurse's understanding of what has been communicated. Restating is an active listening technique. Judgments should be suspended in a nurse-patient relationship. Close-ended questions such as "Did you feel angry?" ask for specific information rather than showing understanding. When the nurse simply states that he or she understands the patient's words, the patient has no way of measuring the understanding.

A nurse says, "I am the only one who truly understands this patient. Other staff members are too critical." The nurse's statement indicates: a. boundary blurring. b. sexual harassment. c. positive regard. d. advocacy.

ANS: A When the role of the nurse and the role of the patient shift, boundary blurring may arise. In this situation the nurse is becoming over-involved with the patient as a probable result of unrecognized countertransference. When boundary issues occur, the need for supervision exists. The situation does not describe sexual harassment. Data are not present to suggest positive regard or advocacy.

22. What assessment findings mark the prodromal stage of schizophrenia? a. Withdrawal, misinterpreting, poor concentration, and preoccupation with religion b. Auditory hallucinations, ideas of reference, thought insertion, and broadcasting c. Stereotyped behavior, echopraxia, echolalia, and waxy flexibility d. Loose associations, concrete thinking, and echolalia neologisms

ANS: A Withdrawal, misinterpreting, poor concentration, and preoccupation with religion are prodromal symptoms, the symptoms that are present before the development of florid symptoms. The incorrect options each list the positive symptoms of schizophrenia that might be apparent during the acute stage of the illness. REF: Page 201-202 | Page 204-205 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

38. A newly hospitalized patient experiencing psychosis says, "Red chair out town board." Which term should the nurse use to document this finding? a. Word salad c. Anhedonia b. Neologism d. Echolalia

ANS: A Word salad (schizophasia) is a jumble of words that is meaningless to the listener and perhaps to the speaker as well, because of an extreme level of disorganization. REF: Page 205-206 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

Select all that apply. A nurse is interacting with patients in a psychiatric unit. Which statements reflect use of therapeutic communication? a. "Tell me more about that situation." b. "Let's talk about something else." c. "I notice you are pacing a lot." d. "I'll stay with you a while." e. "Why did you do that?"

ANS: A, C, D The correct responses demonstrate use of the therapeutic techniques making an observation and showing empathy. The incorrect responses demonstrate changing the subject and probing, which are non-therapeutic techniques.

12. A patient is experiencing delusions of persecution about being poisoned. The patient has refused all hospital meals for 3 days. Which intervention is most likely to be acceptable to the patient? a. Allowing the patient supervised access to food vending machines b. Allowing the patient to phone a local restaurant to deliver meals c. Offering to taste each portion on the tray for the patient d. Providing tube feedings or total parenteral nutrition

ANS: A The patient who is delusional about food being poisoned is likely to believe restaurant food might still be poisoned and to say that the staff member tasting the food has taken an antidote to the poison before tasting. Attempts to tube feed or give nutrition intravenously are seen as aggressive and usually promote violence. Patients perceive foods in sealed containers, packages, or natural shells as being safer. REF: Page 205-206 (Table 12-1) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

Select all that apply. Which comments by an elderly person best indicate successful completion of the developmental task? a. "I am proud of my children's successes in life." b. "I should have given to community charities more often." c. "My relationship with my father made life more difficult for me." d. "My experiences in the war helped me appreciate the meaning of life." e. "I often wonder what would have happened if I had chosen a different career."

ANS: A, D The developmental crisis for an elderly person relates to integrity versus despair. Pride in one's offspring indicates a sense of fulfillment. Recognition of the wisdom gained from difficult experiences (such as being in a war) indicates a sense of integrity. Blaming and regret indicate despair and unsuccessful resolution of the crisis.

A drug blocks the attachment of norepinephrine to α1 receptors. The patient may experience: a. hypertensive crisis. b. orthostatic hypotension. c. severe appetite disturbance. d. an increase in psychotic symptoms.

ANS: B Sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction is essential for maintaining normal blood pressure in the upright position. Blockage of α1 receptors leads to vasodilation and orthostatic hypotension. Orthostatic hypotension may cause fainting and falls. Teach patients ways of minimizing this phenomenon.

A patient is fearful of riding on elevators. The therapist first rides an escalator with the patient. The therapist and patient then stand in an elevator with the door open for five minutes and later with the elevator door closed for five minutes. Which technique has the therapist used? a. Classic psychoanalytic therapy b. Systematic desensitization c. Rational emotive therapy d. Biofeedback

ANS: B Systematic desensitization is a form of behavior modification therapy that involves the development of behavior tasks customized to the patient's specific fears. These tasks are presented to the patient while using learned relaxation techniques. The patient is incrementally exposed to the fear.

As a patient diagnosed with a mental illness is being discharged from a facility, a nurse invites the patient to the annual staff picnic. What is the best analysis of this scenario? a. The invitation facilitates dependency on the nurse. b. The nurse's action blurs the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship. c. The invitation is therapeutic for the patient's diversional activity deficit. d. The nurse's action assists the patient's integration into community living.

ANS: B The invitation creates a social relationship rather than a therapeutic relationship.

Consider these medications: carbamazepine (Tegretol), lamotrigine (Lamictal), gabapentin (Neurontin). Which medication below also belongs with this group? a. Galantamine (Reminyl) b. Valproate (Depakote) c. Buspirone (BuSpar) d. Tacrine (Cognex)

ANS: B The medications listed in the stem are mood stabilizers, anticonvulsant types. Valproate (Depakote) is also a member of this group. The distracters are drugs for treatment of Alzheimer's disease and anxiety.

Which instruction has priority when teaching a patient about clozapine (Clozaril)? a. "Avoid unprotected sex." b. "Report sore throat and fever immediately." c. "Reduce foods high in polyunsaturated fats." d. "Use over-the-counter preparations for rashes."

ANS: B Clozapine therapy may produce agranulocytosis; therefore, signs of infection should be immediately reported to the health care provider. In addition, the patient should have white blood cell levels measured weekly. The other options are not relevant to clozapine.

6. A patient's care plan includes monitoring for auditory hallucinations. Which assessment findings suggest the patient may be hallucinating? a. Detachment and overconfidence b. Darting eyes, tilted head, mumbling to self c. Euphoric mood, hyperactivity, distractibility d. Foot tapping and repeatedly writing the same phrase

ANS: B Clues to hallucinations include eyes looking around the room as though to find the speaker, tilting the head to one side as though listening intently, and grimacing, mumbling, or talking aloud as though responding conversationally to someone. REF: Page 206-207 | Page 212-213 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

A patient presents to the emergency department with mixed psychiatric symptoms. The admission nurse suspects the symptoms may be the result of a medical problem. Lab results show elevated BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine. What is the nurse's next best action? a. Report the findings to the health care provider. b. Assess the patient for a history of renal problems. c. Assess the patient's family history for cardiac problems. d. Arrange for the patient's hospitalization on the psychiatric unit.

ANS: B Elevated BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine suggest renal problems. Renal dysfunction can often imitate psychiatric disorders. The nurse should further assess the patient's history for renal problems and then share the findings with the health care provider.

The therapeutic action of neurotransmitter inhibitors that block reuptake cause: a. decreased concentration of the blocked neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. b. increased concentration of the blocked neurotransmitter in the synaptic gap. c. destruction of receptor sites specific to the blocked neurotransmitter. d. limbic system stimulation.

ANS: B If the reuptake of a substance is inhibited, it accumulates in the synaptic gap, and its concentration increases, permitting ease of transmission of impulses across the synaptic gap. Normal transmission of impulses across synaptic gaps is consistent with normal rather than depressed mood. The other options are not associated with blocking neurotransmitter reuptake.

A nurse would anticipate that treatment for a patient with memory difficulties might include medications designed to: a. inhibit gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA). b. prevent destruction of acetylcholine. c. reduce serotonin metabolism. d. increase dopamine activity.

ANS: B Increased acetylcholine plays a role in learning and memory. Preventing destruction of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase would result in higher levels of acetylcholine, with the potential for improved memory. GABA affects anxiety rather than memory. Increased dopamine would cause symptoms associated with schizophrenia or mania rather than improve memory. Decreasing dopamine at receptor sites is associated with Parkinson's disease rather than improving memory.

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "The CIA is monitoring us through the fluorescent lights in this room. Be careful what you say." Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic? a. "Let's talk about something other than the CIA." b. "It sounds like you're concerned about your privacy." c. "The CIA is prohibited from operating in health care facilities." d. "You have lost touch with reality, which is a symptom of your illness."

ANS: B It is important not to challenge the patient's beliefs, even if they are unrealistic. Challenging undermines the patient's trust in the nurse. The nurse should try to understand the underlying feelings or thoughts the patient's message conveys. The correct response uses the therapeutic technique of reflection. The other comments are non-therapeutic. Asking to talk about something other than the concern at hand is changing the subject. Saying that the CIA is prohibited from operating in health care facilities gives false reassurance. Stating that the patient has lost touch with reality is truthful, but uncompassionate.

24. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia begins a new prescription for lurasidone HCL (Latuda). The patient is 5'6" and currently weighs 204 lbs. Which topic is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan related to this medication? a. How to recognize tardive dyskinesia c. Ways to manage constipation b. Weight management strategies d. Sleep hygiene measures

ANS: B Lurasidone HCL (Latuda) is a second-generation antipsychotic medication. The incidence of weight gain, diabetes, and high cholesterol is high with this medication. The patient is overweight now, so weight management will be especially important. The incidence of tardive dyskinesia is low with second-generation antipsychotic medications. Constipation may occur, but it is less important than weight management. This drug usually produces drowsiness. REF: Page 218-219 (Table 12-5) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

37. A patient insistently states, "I can decipher codes of DNA just by looking at someone." Which problem is evident? a. Visual hallucinations c. Idea of reference b. Magical thinking d. Thought insertion

ANS: B Magical thinking is evident in the patient's appraisal of his own abilities. There is no evidence of the distracters. REF: Page 205-206 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

A patient taking medication for mental illness develops restlessness and an uncontrollable need to be in motion. Which drug action causes these symptoms to develop? a. Anticholinergic effects b. Dopamine-blocking effects c. Endocrine-stimulating effects d. Ability to stimulate spinal nerves

ANS: B Medication that blocks dopamine often produces disturbances of movement, such as akathisia, because dopamine affects neurons involved in both thought processes and movement regulation. Anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation. Akathisia is not caused by endocrine stimulation or spinal nerve stimulation.

The patient says, "My marriage is just great. My spouse and I always agree." The nurse observes the patient's foot moving continuously as the patient twirls a shirt button. The conclusion the nurse can draw is that the patient's communication is: a. clear. b. mixed. c. precise. d. inadequate.

ANS: B Mixed messages involve the transmission of conflicting or incongruent messages by the speaker. The patient's verbal message that all was well in the relationship was modified by the nonverbal behaviors denoting anxiety. Data are not present to support the choice of the verbal message being clear, explicit, or inadequate.

The nurse prepares to assess a patient diagnosed with major depression for disturbances in circadian rhythms. Which question should the nurse ask this patient? a. "Have you ever seen or heard things that others do not?" b. "What are your worst and best times of the day?" c. "How would you describe your thinking?" d. "Do you think your memory is failing?"

ANS: B Mood changes throughout the day may be related to circadian rhythm disturbances. Questions about sleep pattern are also relevant to circadian rhythms. The distracters apply to assessment for illusions and hallucinations, thought processes, and memory.

A patient has fear as well as increased heart rate and blood pressure. The nurse suspects increased activity of which neurotransmitter? a. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) b. Norepinephrine c. Acetylcholine d. Histamine

ANS: B Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter associated with sympathetic nervous system stimulation, preparing the individual for "fight or flight." GABA is a mediator of anxiety level. A high concentration of histamine is associated with an inflammatory response. A high concentration of acetylcholine is associated with parasympathetic nervous system stimulation.

Select all that apply. Which comments by an adult best indicate self-actualization? a. "I am content with a good book." b. "I often wonder if I chose the right career." c. "Sometimes I think about how my parents would have handled problems." d. "It's important for our country to provide basic health care services for everyone." e. "When I was lost at sea for 2 days, I gained an understanding of what is important."

ANS: A, D, E Self-actualized persons enjoy privacy, have a sense of democracy, and show positive outcomes associated with peak experiences. Self-doubt, defensiveness, and blaming are not consistent with self-actualization.

26. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has taken a conventional antipsychotic medication for a year. Hallucinations are less intrusive, but the patient continues to have apathy, poverty of thought, and social isolation. The nurse would expect a change to which medication? a. Haloperidol (Haldol) c. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) b. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) d. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

ANS: B Olanzapine is a second-generation atypical antipsychotic that targets both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Haloperidol and chlorpromazine are conventional antipsychotics that target only positive symptoms. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine. See relationship to audience response question. REF: Page 219 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

Select all that apply. Which descriptors exemplify consistency regarding nurse-patient relationships? a. Encouraging a patient to share initial impressions of staff b. Having the same nurse care for a patient on a daily basis c. Providing a schedule of daily activities to a patient d. Setting a time for regular sessions with a patient e. Offering solutions to a patient's problems

ANS: B, C, D Consistency implies predictability. Having the same nurse see the patient daily and provide a daily schedule of patient activities and a set time for regular sessions will help a patient predict what will happen during each day and develop a greater degree of security and comfort. Encouraging a patient to share initial impressions of staff and giving advice are not related to consistency and would not be considered a therapeutic intervention.

Select all that apply. A patient cries as the nurse explores the patient's feelings about the death of a close friend. The patient sobs, "I shouldn't be crying like this. It happened a long time ago." Which responses by the nurse facilitate communication? a. "Why do you think you are so upset?" b. "I can see that you feel sad about this situation." c. "The loss of a close friend is very painful for you." d. "Crying is a way of expressing the hurt you are experiencing." e. "Let's talk about something else because this subject is upsetting you."

ANS: B, C, D Reflecting ("I can see that you feel sad," "This is very painful for you") and giving information ("Crying is a way of expressing hurt") are therapeutic techniques. "Why" questions often imply criticism or seem intrusive or judgmental. They are difficult to answer. Changing the subject is a barrier to communication.

Select all that apply. Questions the nurse could ask that would be nonjudgmental when obtaining information about patient use of herbal remedies include: a. "You don't regularly take herbal remedies, do you?" b. "What herbal medicines have you used to relieve your symptoms?" c. "What over-the-counter medicines and nutritional supplements do you use?" d. "What differences in your symptoms do you notice when you take herbal supplements?" e. "Have you experienced problems from using herbal and prescription drugs at the same time?"

ANS: B, C, D, E The correct responses are neutral in tone and do not express bias for or against the use of herbal medicines. The distracter, worded in a negative way, makes the nurse's bias evident.

Select all that apply. A patient is very suspicious and states, "The FBI has me under surveillance." Which strategies should a nurse use when gathering initial assessment data about this patient? a. Tell the patient that medication will help this type of thinking. b. Ask the patient, "Tell me about the problem as you see it." c. Seek information about when the problem began. d. Tell the patient, "Your ideas are not realistic." e. Reassure the patient, "You are safe here."

ANS: B, C, E During the assessment interview, the nurse should listen attentively and accept the patient's statements in a nonjudgmental way. Because the patient is suspicious and fearful, reassuring safety may be helpful, although trust is unlikely so early in the relationship. Saying that medication will help or telling the patient that the ideas are not realistic will undermine development of trust between the nurse and patient.

Select all that apply. Which activities represent the art of nursing? a. Administering medications on time to a group of patients b. Listening to a new widow grieve her husband's death c. Helping a patient obtain groceries from a food bank d. Teaching a patient about a new medication e. Holding the hand of a frightened patient

ANS: B, C, E Peplau described the science and art of professional nursing practice. The art component of nursing consists of the care, compassion, and advocacy nurses provide to enhance patient comfort and well-being. The science component of nursing involves the application of knowledge to understand a broad range of human problems and psychosocial phenomena, intervening to relieve patients' suffering and promote growth. See related audience response question.

As a nurse escorts a patient being discharged after treatment for major depression, the patient gives the nurse a necklace with a heart pendant and says, "Thank you for helping mend my broken heart." Which is the nurse's best response? a. "Accepting gifts violates the policies and procedures of the facility." b. "I'm glad you feel so much better now. Thank you for the beautiful necklace." c. "I'm glad I could help you, but I can't accept the gift. My reward is seeing you with a renewed sense of hope." d. "Helping people is what nursing is all about. It's rewarding to me when patients recognize how hard we work."

ANS: C Accepting a gift creates a social rather than therapeutic relationship with the patient and blurs the boundaries of the relationship. A caring nurse will acknowledge the patient's gesture of appreciation, but the gift should not be accepted. See relationship to audience response question.

An adolescent asks a nurse conducting an assessment interview, "Why should I tell you anything? You'll just tell my parents whatever you find out." Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "That isn't true. What you tell us is private and held in strict confidence. Your parents have no right to know." b. "Yes, your parents may find out what you say, but it is important that they know about your problems." c. "What you say about feelings is private, but some things, like suicidal thinking, must be reported to the treatment team." d. "It sounds as though you are not really ready to work on your problems and make changes."

ANS: C Adolescents are very concerned with confidentiality. The patient has a right to know that most information will be held in confidence but that certain material must be reported or shared with the treatment team, such as threats of suicide, homicide, use of illegal drugs, or issues of abuse. The incorrect responses are not true, will not inspire the confidence of the patient, or are confrontational.

A patient discloses several concerns and associated feelings. If the nurse wants to seek clarification, which comment would be appropriate? a. "What are the common elements here?" b. "Tell me again about your experiences." c. "Am I correct in understanding that . . ." d. "Tell me everything from the beginning."

ANS: C Asking, "Am I correct in understanding that..." permits clarification to ensure that both the nurse and patient share mutual understanding of the communication. Asking about common elements encourages comparison rather than clarification. The remaining responses are implied questions that suggest the nurse was not listening.

A patient tells the nurse, "I don't think I'll ever get out of here." Select the nurse's most therapeutic response. a. "Don't talk that way. Of course you will leave here!" b. "Keep up the good work, and you certainly will." c. "You don't think you're making progress?" d. "Everyone feels that way sometimes."

ANS: C By asking if the patient does not believe that progress has been made, the nurse is reflecting by putting into words what the patient is hinting. By making communication more explicit, issues are easier to identify and resolve. The remaining options are non-therapeutic techniques. Telling the patient not to "talk that way" is disapproving. Saying that everyone feels that way at times minimizes feelings. Telling the patient that good work will always result in success is falsely reassuring.

What is the desirable outcome for the orientation stage of a nurse-patient relationship? The patient will demonstrate behaviors that indicate: a. self-responsibility and autonomy. b. a greater sense of independence. c. rapport and trust with the nurse. d. resolved transference.

ANS: C Development of rapport and trust is necessary before the relationship can progress to the working phase. Behaviors indicating a greater sense of independence, self-responsibility, and resolved transference occur in the working phase.

During which phase of the nurse-patient relationship can the nurse anticipate that identified patient issues will be explored and resolved? a. Preorientation b. Orientation c. Working d. Termination

ANS: C During the working phase, the nurse strives to assist the patient in making connections among dysfunctional behaviors, thinking, and emotions and offers support while alternative coping behaviors are tried.

A nurse can anticipate anticholinergic side effects are likely when a patient takes: a. lithium (Lithobid). b. buspirone (BuSpar). c. imipramine (Tofranil). d. risperidone (Risperdal).

ANS: C Imipramine (Tofranil) is a tricyclic antidepressant with strong anticholinergic properties, resulting in dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. Lithium therapy is more often associated with fluid-balance problems, including polydipsia, polyuria, and edema. Risperidone therapy is more often associated with movement disorders, orthostatic hypotension, and sedation. Buspirone is associated with anxiety reduction without major side effects.

When a new patient is hospitalized, a nurse takes the patient on a tour, explains rules of the unit, and discusses the daily schedule. The nurse is engaged in: a. counseling. b. health teaching. c. milieu management. d. psychobiological intervention.

ANS: C Milieu management provides a therapeutic environment in which the patient can feel comfortable and safe while engaging in activities that meet the patient's physical and mental health needs. Counseling refers to activities designed to promote problem solving and enhanced coping and includes interviewing, crisis intervention, stress management, and conflict resolution. Health teaching involves identifying health education needs and giving information about these needs. Psychobiological interventions involve medication administration and monitoring response to medications.

21. The nurse assesses a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which assessment finding would the nurse regard as a negative symptom of schizophrenia? a. Auditory hallucinations c. Poor personal hygiene b. Delusions of grandeur d. Psychomotor agitation

ANS: C Negative symptoms include apathy, anhedonia, poor social functioning, and poverty of thought. Poor personal hygiene is an example of poor social functioning. The distracters are positive symptoms of schizophrenia. See relationship to audience response question. REF: Page 207-208 (Table 12-2) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

36. Which finding constitutes a negative symptom associated with schizophrenia? a. Hostility c. Poverty of thought b. Bizarre behavior d. Auditory hallucinations

ANS: C Negative symptoms include apathy, anhedonia, poor social functioning, and poverty of thought. Poor personal hygiene is an example of poor social functioning. The distracters are positive symptoms of schizophrenia. See relationship to audience response question. REF: Page 207-208 (Table 12-2) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

A patient says, "I'm still on restriction, but I want to attend some off-unit activities. Would you ask the doctor to change my privileges?" What is the nurse's best response? a. "Why are you asking me when you're able to speak for yourself?" b. "I will be glad to address it when I see your doctor later today." c. "That's a good topic for you to discuss with your doctor." d. "Do you think you can't speak to a doctor?"

ANS: C Nurses should encourage patients to work at their optimal level of functioning. A nurse does not act for the patient unless it is necessary. Acting for a patient increases feelings of helplessness and dependency.

Select the most appropriate label to complete this nursing diagnosis: ___________ related to feelings of shyness and poorly developed social skills as evidenced by watching television alone at home every evening. a. Deficient knowledge b. Ineffective coping c. Social isolation d. Powerlessness

ANS: C Nursing diagnoses are selected based on the etiological factors and assessment findings, or evidence. In this instance, the evidence shows social isolation that is caused by shyness and poorly developed social skills.

Operant conditioning is part of the treatment plan to encourage speech in a child who is nearly mute. Which technique applies? a. Encourage the child to observe others talking. b. Include the child in small group activities. c. Give the child a small treat for speaking. d. Teach the child relaxation techniques.

ANS: C Operant conditioning involves giving positive reinforcement for a desired behavior. Treats are rewards and reinforce speech through positive reinforcement.

A nurse consistently encourages patient to do his or her own activities of daily living (ADLs). If the patient is unable to complete an activity, the nurse helps until the patient is once again independent. This nurse's practice is most influenced by which theorist? a. Betty Neuman b. Patricia Benner c. Dorothea Orem d. Joyce Travelbee

ANS: C Orem emphasizes the role of the nurse in promoting self-care activities of the patient; this has relevance to the seriously and persistently mentally ill patient.

A nurse instructs a patient taking a drug that inhibits monoamine oxidase (MAO) to avoid certain foods and drugs because of the risk of: a. cardiac dysrhythmia. b. hypotensive shock. c. hypertensive crisis. d. hypoglycemia.

ANS: C Patients taking MAO-inhibiting drugs must be on a low tyramine diet to prevent hypertensive crisis. In the presence of MAO inhibitors, tyramine is not destroyed by the liver and in high levels produces intense vasoconstriction, resulting in elevated blood pressure.

A nurse cares for a group of patients receiving various medications, including haloperidol (Haldol), carbamazepine (Tegretol), trazodone (Desyrel), and phenelzine (Nardil). The nurse will order a special diet for the patient who takes: a. carbamazepine. b. haloperidol. c. phenelzine. d. trazodone.

ANS: C Patients taking phenelzine, an MAO inhibitor, must be on a low tyramine diet to prevent hypertensive crisis. There are no specific dietary precautions associated with the distracters.

9. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia exhibits little spontaneous movement and demonstrates waxy flexibility. Which patient needs are of priority importance? a. Self-esteem c. Physiological b. Psychosocial d. Self-actualization

ANS: C Physiological needs must be met to preserve life. A patient with waxy flexibility must be fed by hand or tube, toileted, given range-of-motion exercises, and so forth to preserve physiological integrity. Higher level needs are of lesser concern. REF: Page 207 | Page 209-210 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

A psychotherapist works with an anxious, dependent patient. Which strategy is most consistent with psychoanalytic psychotherapy? a. Identifying the patient's strengths and assets b. Praising the patient for describing feelings of isolation c. Focusing on feelings developed by the patient toward the therapist d. Providing psychoeducation and emphasizing medication adherence

ANS: C Positive or negative feelings of the patient toward the therapist indicate transference. Transference is a psychoanalytic concept that can be used to explore previously unresolved conflicts. The distracters relate to biological therapy and supportive psychotherapy. Use of psychoeducational materials is a common "homework" assignment used in cognitive therapy.

16. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has taken fluphenazine (Prolixin) 5 mg po bid for 3 weeks. The nurse now observes a shuffling propulsive gait, a mask-like face, and drooling. Which term applies to these symptoms? a. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome c. Pseudoparkinsonism b. Hepatocellular effects d. Akathisia

ANS: C Pseudoparkinsonism induced by antipsychotic medication mimics the symptoms of Parkinson's disease. It frequently appears within the first month of treatment and is more common with first-generation antipsychotic drugs. Hepatocellular effects would produce abnormal liver test results. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by autonomic instability. Akathisia produces motor restlessness. REF: Page 215-216 (Table 12-4) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

Which issues should a nurse address during the first interview with a patient with a psychiatric disorder? a. Trust, congruence, attitudes, and boundaries b. Goals, resistance, unconscious motivations, and diversion c. Relationship parameters, the contract, confidentiality, and termination d. Transference, countertransference, intimacy, and developing resources

ANS: C Relationship parameters, the contract, confidentiality, and termination are issues that should be considered during the orientation phase of the relationship. The remaining options are issues that are dealt with later.

A newly admitted patient diagnosed with major depression has gained 20 pounds over a few months and has suicidal ideation. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week without remission of symptoms. Select the priority nursing diagnosis. a. Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements b. Chronic low self-esteem c. Risk for suicide d. Hopelessness

ANS: C Risk for suicide is the priority diagnosis when the patient has both suicidal ideation and a plan to carry out the suicidal intent. Imbalanced nutrition, hopelessness, and chronic low self-esteem may be applicable nursing diagnoses, but these problems do not affect patient safety as urgently as would a suicide attempt.

A patient is hospitalized for severe depression. Of the medications listed below, the nurse can expect to provide the patient with teaching about: a. chlordiazepoxide (Librium). b. clozapine (Clozaril). c. sertraline (Zoloft). d. tacrine (Cognex).

ANS: C Sertraline (Zoloft) is an SSRI. This antidepressant blocks the reuptake of serotonin, with few anticholinergic and sedating side effects. Clozapine is an antipsychotic. Chlordiazepoxide is an anxiolytic. Tacrine treats Alzheimer's disease.

Which principle should guide the nurse in determining the extent of silence to use during patient interview sessions? a. A nurse is responsible for breaking silences. b. Patients withdraw if silences are prolonged. c. Silence can provide meaningful moments for reflection. d. Silence helps patients know that what they said was understood.

ANS: C Silence can be helpful to both participants by giving each an opportunity to contemplate what has transpired, weigh alternatives, and formulate ideas. A nurse breaking silences is not a principle related to silences. It is inaccurate to say that patients withdraw during long silences or that silence helps patients know that they are understood. Feedback helps patients know they have been understood.

15. A newly admitted patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "The voices are bothering me. They yell and tell me I am bad. I have got to get away from them." Select the nurse's most helpful reply. a. "Do you hear the voices often?" b. "Do you have a plan for getting away from the voices?" c. "I'll stay with you. Focus on what we are talking about, not the voices. " d. "Forget the voices and ask some other patients to play cards with you."

ANS: C Staying with a distraught patient who is hearing voices serves several purposes: ongoing observation, the opportunity to provide reality orientation, a means of helping dismiss the voices, the opportunity of forestalling an action that would result in self-injury, and general support to reduce anxiety. Asking if the patient hears voices is not particularly relevant at this point. Asking if the patient plans to "get away from the voices" is relevant for assessment purposes but is less helpful than offering to stay with the patient while encouraging a focus on their discussion. Suggesting playing cards with other patients shifts responsibility for intervention from the nurse to the patient and other patients. REF: Page 206-207 | Page 212-213 (Box 12-3)

34. The nurse is developing a plan for psychoeducational sessions for several adults diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which goal is best for this group? Members will: a. gain insight into unconscious factors that contribute to their illness. b. explore situations that trigger hostility and anger. c. learn to manage delusional thinking. d. demonstrate improved social skills.

ANS: D Improved social skills help patients maintain relationships with others. These relationships are important to management of the disorder. Most patients with schizophrenia think concretely, so insight development is unlikely. Not all patients with schizophrenia experience delusions. REF: Page 211-215 (Box 12-6) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

The parent of a 4-year-old rewards and praises the child for helping a younger sibling, being polite, and using good manners. The nurse supports this use of praise related to these behaviors. These qualities are likely to be internalized and become part of which system of the personality? a. Id b. Ego c. Superego d. Preconscious

ANS: C The superego contains the "thou shalts," or moral standards internalized from interactions with significant others. Praise fosters internalization of desirable behaviors. The id is the center of basic instinctual drives, and the ego is the mediator. The ego is the problem-solving and reality-testing portion of the personality that negotiates solutions with the outside world. The preconscious is a level of awareness from which material can be retrieved easily with conscious effort. This item relates to an audience response question.

An adult says, "I never know the answers," and "My opinion doesn't count." Which psychosocial crisis was unsuccessfully resolved for this adult? a. Initiative versus guilt b. Trust versus mistrust c. Autonomy versus shame and doubt d. Generativity versus self-absorption

ANS: C These statements show severe self-doubt, indicating that the crisis of gaining control over the environment was not met successfully. Unsuccessful resolution of the crisis of initiative versus guilt results in feelings of guilt. Unsuccessful resolution of the crisis of trust versus mistrust results in poor interpersonal relationships and suspicion of others. Unsuccessful resolution of the crisis of generativity versus self-absorption results in self-absorption that limits the ability to grow as a person.

Documentation in a patient's chart shows, "Throughout a 5-minute interaction, patient fidgeted and tapped left foot, periodically covered face with hands, and looked under chair while stating, 'I enjoy spending time with you.'" Which analysis is most accurate? a. The patient is giving positive feedback about the nurse's communication techniques. b. The nurse is viewing the patient's behavior through a cultural filter. c. The patient's verbal and nonverbal messages are incongruent. d. The patient is demonstrating psychotic behaviors.

ANS: C When a verbal message is not reinforced with nonverbal behavior, the message is confusing and incongruent. Some clinicians call it a "mixed message." It is inaccurate to say that the patient is giving positive feedback about the nurse's communication techniques. The concept of a cultural filter is not relevant to the situation because a cultural filter determines what we will pay attention to and what we will ignore. Data are insufficient to draw the conclusion that the patient is demonstrating psychotic behaviors.

Select all that apply. Which comments by a nurse demonstrate use of therapeutic communication techniques? a. "Why do you think these events have happened to you?" b. "There are people with problems much worse than yours." c. "I'm glad you were able to tell me how you felt about your loss." d. "I noticed your hands trembling when you told me about your accident." e. "You look very nice today. I'm proud you took more time with your appearance."

ANS: C, D The correct responses demonstrate use of the therapeutic techniques making an observation and showing empathy. The incorrect responses demonstrate minimizing feelings, probing, and giving approval, which are non-therapeutic techniques.

A person says, "I was the only survivor in a small plane crash. Three business associates died. I got depressed and saw a counselor twice a week for 4 weeks. We talked about my feelings related to being a survivor, and I'm better now." Which type of therapy was used? a. Milieu therapy b. Psychoanalysis c. Behavior modification d. Interpersonal psychotherapy

ANS: D Interpersonal psychotherapy returned the patient to his former level of functioning by helping him come to terms with the loss of friends and guilt over being a survivor. Milieu therapy refers to environmental therapy. Psychoanalysis would call for a long period of exploration of unconscious material. Behavior modification would focus on changing a behavior rather than helping the patient understand what is going on in his life.

31. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia and auditory hallucinations anxiously tells the nurse, "The voice is telling me to do things." Select the nurse's priority assessment question. a. "How long has the voice been directing your behavior?" b. "Does what the voice tell you to do frighten you?" c. "Do you recognize the voice speaking to you?' d. "What is the voice telling you to do?"

ANS: D Learning what a command hallucination is telling the patient to do is important because the command often places the patient or others at risk for harm. Command hallucinations can be terrifying and may pose a psychiatric emergency. The incorrect questions are of lesser importance than identifying the command. REF: Page 207-209 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

25. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "It's beat. Time to eat. No room for the cat." What type of verbalization is evident? a. Neologism c. Thought broadcasting b. Idea of reference d. Associative looseness

ANS: D Looseness of association refers to jumbled thoughts incoherently expressed to the listener. Neologisms are newly coined words. Ideas of reference are a type of delusion. Thought broadcasting is the belief that others can hear one's thoughts. REF: Page 205 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

A Puerto Rican American patient uses dramatic body language when describing emotional discomfort. Which analysis most likely explains the patient's behavior? The patient: a. has a histrionic personality disorder. b. believes dramatic body language is sexually appealing. c. wishes to impress staff with the degree of emotional pain. d. belongs to a culture in which dramatic body language is the norm.

ANS: D Members of Hispanic American subcultures tend to use high affect and dramatic body language as they communicate. The other options are more remote possibilities.

Nursing behaviors associated with the implementation phase of nursing process are concerned with: a. participating in mutual identification of patient outcomes. b. gathering accurate and sufficient patient-centered data. c. comparing patient responses and expected outcomes. d. carrying out interventions and coordinating care.

ANS: D Nursing behaviors relating to implementation include using available resources, performing interventions, finding alternatives when necessary, and coordinating care with other team members.

patient tells the nurse, "My doctor prescribed Paxil (paroxetine) for my depression. I assume I'll have side effects like I had when I was taking Tofranil (imipramine)." The nurse's reply should be based on the knowledge that paroxetine is a(n): a. selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. b. tricyclic antidepressant. c. MAO inhibitor. d. SSRI.

ANS: D Paroxetine is an SSRI and will not produce the same side effects as imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant. The patient will probably not experience dry mouth, constipation, or orthostatic hypotension.

A patient begins therapy with a phenothiazine medication. What teaching should the nurse provide related to the drug's strong dopaminergic effect? a. Chew sugarless gum. b. Increase dietary fiber. c. Arise slowly from bed. d. Report changes in muscle movement.

ANS: D Phenothiazines block dopamine receptors in both the limbic system and basal ganglia. Movement disorders and motor abnormalities (extrapyramidal side effects), such as parkinsonism, akinesia, akathisia, dyskinesia, and tardive dyskinesia, are likely to occur early in the course of treatment. They are often heralded by sensations of muscle stiffness. Early intervention with antiparkinsonism medication can increase the patient's comfort and prevent dystonic reactions. The distracters are related to anticholinergic effects.

Which nursing intervention below is part of the scope of an advanced practice psychiatric/mental health nurse only? a. Coordination of care b. Health teaching c. Milieu therapy d. Psychotherapy

ANS: D Psychotherapy is part of the scope of practice of an advanced practice nurse. The distracters are within a staff nurse's scope of practice.

A patient's history shows drinking 4 to 6 liters of fluid and eating more than 6,000 calories per day. Which part of the central nervous system is most likely dysfunctional for this patient? a. Amydala b. Parietal lobe c. Hippocampus d. Hypothalamus

ANS: D The hypothalamus, a small area in the ventral superior portion of the brainstem, plays a vital role in such basic drives as hunger, thirst, and sex. See relationship to audience response question.

A nurse supports a parent for praising a child behaving in a helpful way. When this child behaves with politeness and helpfulness in adulthood, which feeling will most likely result? a. Guilt b. Anxiety c. Humility d. Self-esteem

ANS: D The individual will be living up to the ego ideal, which will result in positive feelings about self. The other options are incorrect because each represents a negative feeling.

A nurse prepares to assess a new patient who moved to the United States from Central America three years ago. After introductions, what is the nurse's next comment? a. "How did you get to the United States?" b. "Would you like for a family member to help you talk with me?" c. "An interpreter is available. Would you like for me to make a request for these services?" d. "Are you comfortable conversing in English, or would you prefer to have a translator present?"

ANS: D The nurse should determine whether a translator is needed by first assessing the patient for language barriers. Accuracy of the assessment depends on the ability to communicate in a language that is familiar to the patient. Family members are not always reliable translators. An interpreter may change the patient's responses; a translator is a better resource.

A patient states, "I'm not worth anything. I have negative thoughts about myself. I feel anxious and shaky all the time. Sometimes I feel so sad that I want to go to sleep and never wake up." Which nursing intervention should have the highest priority? a. Self-esteem-building activities b. Anxiety self-control measures c. Sleep enhancement activities d. Suicide precautions

ANS: D The nurse would place a priority on monitoring and reinforcing suicide self-restraint because it relates directly and immediately to patient safety. Patient safety is always a priority concern. The nurse should monitor and reinforce all patient attempts to control anxiety, improve sleep patterns, and develop self-esteem, while giving priority attention to suicide self-restraint.

Select the best outcome for a patient with the nursing diagnosis: Impaired social interaction related to sociocultural dissonance as evidenced by stating, "Although I'd like to, I don't join in because I don't speak the language very well." Patient will: a. show improved use of language. b. demonstrate improved social skills. c. become more independent in decision making. d. select and participate in one group activity per day.

ANS: D The outcome describes social involvement on the part of the patient. Neither cooperation nor independence has been an issue. The patient has already expressed a desire to interact with others. Outcomes must be measurable. Two of the distracters are not measurable.

A patient asks, "What are neurotransmitters? The doctor said mine are imbalanced." Select the nurse's best response. a. "How do you feel about having imbalanced neurotransmitters?" b. "Neurotransmitters protect us from harmful effects of free radicals." c. "Neurotransmitters are substances we consume that influence memory and mood." d. "Neurotransmitters are natural chemicals that pass messages between brain cells."

ANS: D The patient asked for information, and the correct response is most accurate. Neurotransmitters are chemical substances that function as messengers in the central nervous system. They are released from the axon terminal, diffuse across the synapse, and attach to specialized receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. The distracters either do not answer the patient's question or provide untrue, misleading information.

30. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia anxiously says, "I can see the left side of my body merging with the wall, then my face appears and disappears in the mirror." While listening, the nurse should: a. sit close to the patient. b. place an arm protectively around the patient's shoulders. c. place a hand on the patient's arm and exert light pressure. d. maintain a normal social interaction distance from the patient.

ANS: D The patient is describing phenomena that indicate personal boundary difficulties and depersonalization. The nurse should maintain appropriate social distance and not touch the patient because the patient is anxious about the inability to maintain ego boundaries and merging or being swallowed by the environment. Physical closeness or touch could precipitate panic. REF: Page 204 | Page 212-213 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

20. A nurse sits with a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. The patient starts to laugh uncontrollably, although the nurse has not said anything funny. Select the nurse's best response. a. "Why are you laughing?" b. "Please share the joke with me." c. "I don't think I said anything funny." d. "You're laughing. Tell me what's happening."

ANS: D The patient is likely laughing in response to inner stimuli, such as hallucinations or fantasy. Focus on the hallucinatory clue (the patient's laughter) and then elicit the patient's observation. The incorrect options are less useful in eliciting a response: no joke may be involved, "why" questions are difficult to answer, and the patient is probably not focusing on what the nurse said in the first place. REF: Page 206-207 | Page 212-213 (Box 12-3)

The desired outcome for a patient experiencing insomnia is, "Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly within 7 days." At the end of 7 days, review of sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. The nurse will document the outcome as: a. consistently demonstrated. b. often demonstrated. c. sometimes demonstrated. d. never demonstrated.

ANS: D Although the patient is sleeping 6 hours daily, the total is not one uninterrupted session at night. Therefore, the outcome must be evaluated as never demonstrated. See relationship to audience response question.

7. A health care provider considers which antipsychotic medication to prescribe for a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia who has auditory hallucinations and poor social function. The patient is also overweight and hypertensive. Which drug should the nurse advocate? a. Clozapine (Clozaril) c. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) b. Ziprasidone (Geodon) d. Aripiprazole (Abilify)

ANS: D Aripiprazole is a third-generation atypical antipsychotic effective against both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It causes little or no weight gain and no increase in glucose, high- or low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, or triglycerides, making it a reasonable choice for a patient with obesity or heart disease. Clozapine may produce agranulocytosis, making it a poor choice as a first-line agent. Ziprasidone may prolong the QT interval, making it a poor choice for a patient with cardiac disease. Olanzapine fosters weight gain. REF: Page 215-219 (Table 12-5) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

A patient has acute anxiety related to an automobile accident 2 hours ago. The nurse should teach the patient about medication from which group? a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Antipsychotic drug c. Antimanic drugs d. Benzodiazepines

ANS: D Benzodiazepines provide anxiety relief. Tricyclic antidepressants are used to treat symptoms of depression. Antimanic drugs are used to treat bipolar disorder. Antipsychotic drugs are used to treat psychosis.

An individual hiking in the forest encounters a large poisonous snake on the path. Which change in this individual's vital signs is most likely? a. Pulse rate changes from 90 to 72. b. Respiratory rate changes from 22 to 18. c. Complaints of intestinal cramping begin. d. Blood pressure changes from 114/62 to 136/78.

ANS: D This frightening experience would stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, causing a release of norepinephrine, an excitatory neurotransmitter. It prepares the body for fight or flight. Increased blood pressure, pupil size, respiratory rate, and pulse rate signify release of norepinephrine. Intestinal cramping would be associated with stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system.

A patient says, "People should be allowed to commit suicide without interference from others." A nurse replies, "You're wrong. Nothing is bad enough to justify death." What is the best analysis of this interchange? a. The patient is correct. b. The nurse is correct. c. Neither person is correct. d. Differing values are reflected in the two statements.

ANS: D Values guide beliefs and actions. The individuals stating their positions place different values on life and autonomy. Nurses must be aware of their own values and be sensitive to the values of others.

A patient diagnosed with depression repeatedly tells staff, "I have cancer. It's my punishment for being a bad person." Diagnostic tests reveal no cancer. Select the priority nursing diagnosis. a. Powerlessness b. Risk for suicide c. Stress overload d. Spiritual distress

B A patient diagnosed with depression who feels so worthless as to believe cancer is deserved is at risk for suicide. Safety concerns take priority over the other diagnoses listed.

A patient says to the nurse, "My life doesn't have any happiness in it anymore. I once enjoyed holidays, but now they're just another day." The nurse documents this report as an example of: a. dysthymia. b. anhedonia. c. euphoria. d. anergia.

B Anhedonia is a common finding in many types of depression. It refers to feelings of a loss of pleasure in formerly pleasurable activities. Dysthymia is a diagnosis. Euphoria refers to an elated mood. Anergia means "without energy."

Priority interventions for a patient diagnosed with major depression and feelings of worthlessness should include: a.distracting the patient from self-absorption. b.careful unobtrusive observation around the clock. c.allowing the patient to spend long periods alone in meditation. d.opportunities to assume a leadership role in the therapeutic milieu.

B Approximately two-thirds of people with depression contemplate suicide. Patients with depression who exhibit feelings of worthlessness are at higher risk. Regular planned observations of the patient diagnosed with depression may prevent a suicide attempt on the unit.

A patient diagnosed with major depression tells the nurse, "Bad things that happen are always my fault." Which response by the nurse will best assist the patient to reframe this overgeneralization? a. "I really doubt that one person can be blamed for all the bad things that happen." b. "Let's look at one bad thing that happened to see if another explanation exists." c. "You are being extremely hard on yourself. Try to have a positive focus." d. "Are you saying that you don't have any good things happen?"

B By questioning a faulty assumption, the nurse can help the patient look at the premise more objectively and reframe it as a more accurate representation of fact. The incorrect responses cast doubt but do not require the patient to evaluate the statement.

What is the focus of priority nursing interventions for the period immediately after electroconvulsive therapy treatment? a. Nutrition and hydration b. Supporting physiological stability c. Reducing disorientation and confusion d. Assisting the patient to identify and test negative thoughts

B During the immediate post-treatment period, the patient is recovering from general anesthesia; hence, the priority need is to establish and support physiological stability. Reducing disorientation and confusion is an acceptable intervention but not the priority. Assisting the patient in identifying and testing negative thoughts is inappropriate in the immediate post-treatment period because the patient may be confused.

During a psychiatric assessment, the nurse observes a patient's facial expression is without emotion. The patient says, "Life feels so hopeless to me. I've been feeling sad for several months." How will the nurse document the patient's affect and mood? a. Affect depressed; mood flat b. Affect flat; mood depressed c. Affect labile; mood euphoric d. Affect and mood are incongruent.

B Mood refers to a person's self-reported emotional feeling state. Affect is the emotional feeling state that is outwardly observable by others. When there is no evidence of emotion in a person's expression, the affect is flat.

A nurse instructs a patient taking a medication that inhibits the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO) to avoid certain foods and drugs because of the risk of: a. hypotensive shock. b. hypertensive crisis. c. cardiac dysrhythmia. d. cardiogenic shock.

B Patients taking MAO-inhibiting drugs must be on a tyramine-free diet to prevent hypertensive crisis. In the presence of MAOIs, tyramine is not destroyed by the liver and in high levels produces intense vasoconstriction, resulting in elevated blood pressure.

A patient diagnosed with major depression says, "No one cares about me anymore. I'm not worth anything." Today the patient is wearing a new shirt and has neat, clean hair. Which remark by the nurse supports building a positive self-esteem for this patient? a. "You look nice this morning." b."You're wearing a new shirt." c. "I like the shirt you are wearing." d."You must be feeling better today."

B Patients with depression usually see the negative side of things. The meaning of compliments may be altered to "I didn't look nice yesterday" or "They didn't like my other shirt." Neutral comments such as making an observation avoid negative interpretations. Saying, "You look nice" or "I like your shirt" gives approval (non-therapeutic techniques). Saying "You must be feeling better today" is an assumption, which is non-therapeutic.

A nurse taught a patient about a tyramine-restricted diet. Which menu selection would the nurse approve? a. Macaroni and cheese, hot dogs, banana bread, caffeinated coffee b. Mashed potatoes, ground beef patty, corn, green beans, apple pie c. Avocado salad, ham, creamed potatoes, asparagus, chocolate cake d. Noodles with cheddar cheese sauce, smoked sausage, lettuce salad, yeast rolls

B The correct answer describes a meal that contains little tyramine. Vegetables and fruits contain little or no tyramine. Fresh ground beef and apple pie are safe. The other meals contain various amounts of tyramine-rich foods or foods that contain vasopressors: avocados, ripe bananas (banana bread), sausages/hot dogs, smoked meat (ham), cheddar cheese, yeast, caffeine drinks, and chocolate.

Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TCM) is scheduled for a patient diagnosed with major depression. Which comment by the patient indicates teaching about the procedure was effective? a. "They will put me to sleep during the procedure so I won't know what is happening." b. "I might be a little dizzy or have a mild headache after each procedure." c. "I will be unable to care for my children for about 2 months." d. "I will avoid eating foods that contain tyramine."

B Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TCM) treatments take about 30 minutes. Treatments are usually 5 days a week. Patients are awake and alert during the procedure. After the procedure, patients may experience a headache and lightheadedness. No neurological deficits or memory problems have been noted. The patient will be able to care for children.

A patient waves a newspaper and says, "I must have my credit card and use the computer right now. A store is having a big sale, and I need to order 10 dresses and four pairs of shoes." Select the nurse's appropriate intervention. The nurse: a. suggests the patient have a friend do the shopping and bring purchases to the unit. b. invites the patient to sit together and look at new fashion magazines. c. tells the patient computer use is not allowed until self-control improves. d. asks whether the patient has enough money to pay for the purchases.

B. invites the patient to sit together and look at new fashion magazines

At a unit meeting, the staff discusses decor for a special room for patients with acute mania. Which suggestion is appropriate? a. An extra-large window with a view of the street b. Neutral walls with pale, simple accessories c. Brightly colored walls and print drapes d. Deep colors for walls and upholstery

B. neutral walls with pale, simple accessories

A patient experiencing acute mania dances around the unit, seldom sits, monopolizes conversations, interrupts, and intrudes. Which nursing intervention will best assist the patient with energy conservation? a. monitor physiological functioning b. provide a subdued environment c. supervise personal hygiene d. observe for mood changes

B. provide a subdued environment

When a hyperactive patient diagnosed with acute mania is hospitalized, what is the initial nursing intervention? a. Allow the patient to act out feelings. b. Set limits on patient behavior as necessary. c. Provide verbal instructions to the patient to remain calm. d. Restrain the patient to reduce hyperactivity and aggression.

B. set limits on patient behavior as necessary

When counseling patients diagnosed with major depression, an advanced practice nurse will address the negative thought patterns by using: a.psychoanalytic therapy. b.desensitization therapy. c.cognitive behavioral therapy. d.alternative and complementary therapies.

C Cognitive behavioral therapy attempts to alter the patient's dysfunctional beliefs by focusing on positive outcomes rather than negative attributions. The patient is also taught the connection between thoughts and resultant feelings. Research shows that cognitive behavioral therapy involves the formation of new connections between nerve cells in the brain and that it is at least as effective as medication. Evidence is not present to support superior outcomes for the other psychotherapeutic modalities mentioned.

A patient diagnosed with major depression began taking a tricyclic antidepressant 1 week ago. Today the patient says, "I don't think I can keep taking these pills. They make me so dizzy, especially when I stand up." The nurse will: a. limit the patient's activities to those that can be performed in a sitting position. b. withhold the drug, force oral fluids, and notify the health care provider. c. teach the patient strategies to manage postural hypotension. d. update the patient's mental status examination.

C Drowsiness, dizziness, and postural hypotension usually subside after the first few weeks of therapy with tricyclic antidepressants. Postural hypotension can be managed by teaching the patient to stay well hydrated and rise slowly. Knowing this information may convince the patient to continue the medication. Activity is an important aspect of the patient's treatment plan and should not be limited to activities that can be done in a sitting position. Withholding the drug, forcing oral fluids, and notifying the health care provider are unnecessary actions. Independent nursing action is called for. Updating a mental status examination is unnecessary.

A patient diagnosed with major depression began taking escitalopram (Lexapro) 5 days ago. The patient now says, "This medicine isn't working." The nurse's best intervention would be to: a. discuss with the health care provider the need to increase the dose. b. reassure the patient that the medication will be effective soon. c. explain the time lag before antidepressants relieve symptoms. d. critically assess the patient for symptoms of improvement.

C Escitalopram is an SSRI antidepressant. One to three weeks of treatment is usually necessary before symptom relief occurs. This information is important to share with patients.

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder becomes hyperactive after discontinuing lithium. The patient threatens to hit another patient. Which comment by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Stop that! No one did anything to provoke an attack by you." b. "If you do that one more time, you will be secluded immediately." c. "Do not hit anyone. If you are unable to control yourself, we will help you." d. "You know we will not let you hit anyone. Why do you continue this behavior?"

C. "Do not hit anyone. If you are unable to control yourself, we will help you."

Which dinner menu is best suited for a patient with acute mania? a. Spaghetti and meatballs, salad, and a banana b. Beef and vegetable stew, a roll, and chocolate pudding c. Broiled chicken breast on a roll, an ear of corn, and an apple d. Chicken casserole, green beans, and flavored gelatin with whipped cream

C. broiled chicken breast on a roll, an ear of corn, and an apple

A nurse assesses a patient who takes lithium. Which findings demonstrate evidence of complications? a. pharyngitis, mydriasis, and dystonia b. alopecia, purpura, and drowsiness c. diaphoresis, weakness, and nausea d. ascites, dyspnea, and edema

C. diaphoresis, weakness, and nausea

A person was directing traffic on a busy street, rapidly shouting, "To work, you jerk, for perks" and making obscene gestures at cars. The person has not slept or eaten for 3 days. Which assessment findings will have priority concern for this patient's plan of care? a. Insulting, aggressive behavior b. Pressured speech and grandiosity c. Hyperactivity; not eating and sleeping d. Poor concentration and decision making

C. hyperactivity; not eating and sleeping

Consider these three anticonvulsant medications: divalproex (Depakote), carbamazepine (Tegretol), and gabapentin (Neurontin). Which medication also belongs to this classification? a. clonazepam (Klonopin) b. risperidone (Risperdal) c. lamotrigine (Lamictal) d. aripiprazole (Abilify)

C. lamotrigine (Lamictal)

A person was online continuously for over 24 hours, posting rhymes on official government websites and inviting politicians to join social networks. The person has not slept or eaten for 3 days. What features of mania are evident? a. increased muscle tension and anxiety b. vegetative signs and poor grooming c. poor judgment and hyperactivity d. cognitive deficits and paranoia

C. poor judgment and hyperactivity

A patient experiencing acute mania undresses in the group room and dances. The nurse intervenes initially by: a. quietly asking the patient, "Why don't you put your clothes on?" b. firmly telling the patient, "Stop dancing and put on your clothing." c. putting a blanket around the patient and walking with the patient to a quiet room. d. letting the patient stay in the group room and moving the other patients to a different area.

C. putting a blanket around the patient and walking with the patient to a quiet room

A patient diagnosed with depression is receiving imipramine (Tofranil) 200 mg qhs. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to collaborate with the health care provider regarding potentially hazardous side effects of this drug? a.Dry mouth b.Blurred vision c.Nasal congestion d.Urinary retention

D All the side effects mentioned are the result of the anticholinergic effects of the drug. Only urinary retention and severe constipation warrant immediate medical attention. Dry mouth, blurred vision, and nasal congestion may be less troublesome as therapy continues.

A patient diagnosed with major depression refuses solid foods. In order to meet nutritional needs, which beverage will the nurse offer to this patient? a. Tomato juice b. Orange juice c. Hot tea d. Milk

D Milk is the only beverage listed that provides protein, fat, and carbohydrates. In addition, milk is fortified with vitamins.

A nurse is caring for a patient with low self-esteem. Which nonverbal communication should the nurse anticipate from this patient? a. Arms crossed b. Staring at the nurse c. Smiling inappropriately d. Eyes pointed downward

D Nonverbal communication is usually considered more powerful than verbal communication. Downward casted eyes suggest feelings of worthlessness or hopelessness.

A nurse worked with a patient diagnosed with major depression, severe withdrawal, and psychomotor retardation. After 3 weeks, the patient did not improve. The nurse is most at risk for feelings of: a. guilt and despair. b. over-involvement. c. interest and pleasure. d.ineffectiveness and frustration.

D Nurses may have expectations for self and patients that are not wholly realistic, especially regarding the patient's progress toward health. Unmet expectations result in feelings of ineffectiveness, anger, or frustration. Nurses rarely become over-involved with patients with depression because of the patient's resistance. Guilt and despair might be seen when the nurse experiences the patient's feelings because of empathy. Interest is possible, but not the most likely result.

A newly diagnosed patient is prescribed lithium. Which information from the patient's history indicates that monitoring of serum concentrations of the drug will be challenging and critical? a. arthritis b. epilepsy c. psoriasis d. heart failure

D. heart failure

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder is dressed in a red leotard and bright scarves. The patient twirls and shadow boxes. The patient says gaily, "Do you like my scarves? Here; they are my gift to you." How should the nurse document the patient's mood? a. euphoric b. irritable c. suspicious d. confident

A. euphoric

Which documentation indicates that the treatment plan for a patient diagnosed with acute mania has been effective? a. "Converses with few interruptions; clothing matches; participates in activities." b. "Irritable, suggestible, distractible; napped for 10 minutes in afternoon." c. "Attention span short; writing copious notes; intrudes in conversations." d. "Heavy makeup; seductive toward staff; pressured speech."

A. "converses with few interruptions; clothing matches; participates in activities."

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder will be discharged tomorrow. The patient is taking a mood stabilizing medication. What is the priority nursing intervention for the patient as well as the patient's family during this phase of treatment? a. attending psychoeducation sessions b. decreasing physical activity c. increasing food and fluids d. meeting self-care needs

A. attending psychoeducation sessions

Four new patients were admitted to the behavioral health unit in the past 12 hours. The nurse directs a psychiatric technician to monitor these patients for safety. Which patient will need the most watchful supervision? A patient diagnosed with: a. bipolar I disorder b. bipolar II disorder c. dysthymic disorder d. cyclothymic disorder

A. bipolar I disorder

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder commands other patients, "Get me a book. Take this stuff out of here," and other similar demands. The nurse wants to interrupt this behavior without entering into a power struggle. Which initial approach should the nurse select? a. Distraction: "Let's go to the dining room for a snack." b. Humor: "How much are you paying servants these days?" c. Limit setting: "You must stop ordering other patients around." d. Honest feedback: "Your controlling behavior is annoying others."

A. distraction: "Let's go to the dining room for a snack."

A health teaching plan for a patient taking lithium should include instructions to: a. maintain normal salt and fluids in the diet. b. drink twice the usual daily amount of fluid. c. double the lithium dose if diarrhea or vomiting occurs. d. avoid eating aged cheese, processed meats, and red wine.

A. maintain normal salt and fluids in the diet

An outpatient diagnosed with bipolar disorder takes lithium carbonate 300 mg three times daily. The patient reports nausea. To reduce the nausea most effectively, the nurse suggests that the lithium be taken with: a. meals b. an antacid c. an antiemetic d. a large glass of juice

A. meals

A patient diagnosed with acute mania has distributed pamphlets about a new business venture on a street corner for 2 days. Which nursing diagnosis has priority? a. Risk for injury b. Ineffective coping c. Impaired social interaction d. Ineffective therapeutic regimen management

A. risk for injury

The exact cause of bipolar disorder has not been determined; however, for most patients: a. several factors, including genetics, are implicated. b. brain structures were altered by stress early in life. c. excess sensitivity in dopamine receptors may trigger episodes. d. inadequate norepinephrine reuptake disturbs circadian rhythms.

A. several factors, including genetics, are implicated

The nurse receives a laboratory report indicating a patient's serum level is 1 mEq/L. The patient's last dose of lithium was 8 hours ago. This result is: a. within therapeutic limits. b. below therapeutic limits. c. above therapeutic limits. d. invalid because of the time lapse since the last dose.

A. within therapeutic limits

A patient repeatedly stated, "I'm stupid." Which statement by that patient would show progress resulting from cognitive behavioral therapy? a. "Sometimes I do stupid things." b. "Things always go wrong for me." c. "I always fail when I try new things." d. "I'm disappointed in my lack of ability."

ANS: A "I'm stupid" is a cognitive distortion. A more rational thought is "Sometimes I do stupid things." The latter thinking promotes emotional self-control. The distracters reflect irrational or distorted thinking. This item relates to an audience response question.

29. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia begins to talks about "macnabs" hiding in the warehouse at work. The term "macnabs" should be documented as: a. a neologism. c. thought insertion. b. concrete thinking. d. an idea of reference.

ANS: A A neologism is a newly coined word having special meaning to the patient. "Macnabs" is not a known common word. Concrete thinking refers to the inability to think abstractly. Thought insertion refers to thoughts of others are implanted in one's mind. Ideas of reference are a type of delusion in which trivial events are given personal significance. REF: Page 205-206 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

A patient says, "Please don't share information about me with the other people." How should the nurse respond? a. "I will not share information with your family or friends without your permission, but I share information about you with other staff." b. "A therapeutic relationship is just between the nurse and the patient. It is up to you to tell others what you want them to know." c. "It depends on what you choose to tell me. I will be glad to disclose at the end of each session what I will report to others." d. "I cannot tell anyone about you. It will be as though I am talking about my own problems, and we can help each other by keeping it between us."

ANS: A A patient has the right to know with whom the nurse will share information and that confidentiality will be protected. Although the relationship is primarily between the nurse and patient, other staff needs to know pertinent data. The other incorrect responses promote incomplete disclosure on the part of the patient, require daily renegotiation of an issue that should be resolved as the nurse-patient contract is established, and suggest mutual problem solving. The relationship must be patient centered. See relationship to audience response question.

27. The family of a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is unfamiliar with the illness and family's role in recovery. Which type of therapy should the nurse recommend? a. Psychoeducational c. Transactional b. Psychoanalytic d. Family

ANS: A A psychoeducational group explores the causes of schizophrenia, the role of medication, the importance of medication compliance, support for the ill member, and hints for living with a person with schizophrenia. Such a group can be of immeasurable practical assistance to the family. The other types of therapy do not focus on psychoeducation. REF: Page 214 (Box 12-5) | Page 221 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

The nurse should assess a patient taking a drug with anticholinergic properties for inhibited function of the: a. parasympathetic nervous system. b. sympathetic nervous system. c. reticular activating system. d. medulla oblongata.

ANS: A Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter found in high concentration in the parasympathetic nervous system. When anticholinergic drugs inhibit acetylcholine action, blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention commonly occur.

17. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is very disturbed and violent. After several doses of haloperidol (Haldol), the patient is calm. Two hours later the nurse sees the patient's head rotated to one side in a stiff position, the lower jaw thrust forward, and drooling. Which problem is most likely? a. An acute dystonic reaction c. Waxy flexibility b. Tardive dyskinesia d. Akathisia

ANS: A Acute dystonic reactions involve painful contractions of the tongue, face, neck, and back. Opisthotonos and oculogyric crisis may be observed. Dystonic reactions are considered emergencies requiring immediate intervention. Tardive dyskinesia involves involuntary spasmodic muscular contractions that involve the tongue, fingers, toes, neck, trunk, or pelvis. It appears after prolonged treatment. Waxy flexibility is a symptom seen in catatonic schizophrenia. Internal and external restlessness, pacing, and fidgeting are characteristics of akathisia. REF: Page 215-216 (Table 12-4) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

13. A community mental health nurse wants to establish a relationship with a very withdrawn patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. The patient lives at home with a supportive family. Select the nurse's best plan. a. Visit daily for 4 days, then every other day for 1 week stay with patient for 20 minutes, accept silence state when the nurse will return. b. Arrange to spend 1 hour each day with the patient focus on asking questions about what the patient is thinking or experiencing avoid silences. c. Visit twice daily sit beside the patient with a hand on the patient's arm leave if the patient does not respond within 10 minutes. d. Visit every other day remind the patient of the nurse's identity encourage the patient to talk while the nurse works on reports.

ANS: A Severe constraints on the community mental health nurse's time will probably not allow more time than what is mentioned in the correct option yet, important principles can be used. A severely withdrawn patient should be met "at the patient's own level," with silence accepted. Short periods of contact are helpful to minimize both the patient's and the nurse's anxiety. Predictability in returning as stated will help build trust. An hour may be too long to sustain a home visit with a withdrawn patient, especially if the nurse persists in leveling a barrage of questions at the patient. Twice-daily visits are probably not possible, and leaving after 10 minutes would be premature. Touch may be threatening. Working on reports suggests the nurse is not interested in the patient. REF: Page 210-211 | Page 215 (Box 12-6) | Page 222 (Case study and Nursing Care Plan 12-1)

A patient is suspicious and frequently manipulates others. To which psychosexual stage do these traits relate? a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Genital

ANS: A The behaviors in the stem develop as the result of attitudes formed during the oral stage, when an infant first learns to relate to the environment. Anal-stage traits include stinginess, stubbornness, orderliness, or their opposites. Phallic-stage traits include flirtatiousness, pride, vanity, difficulty with authority figures, and difficulties with sexual identity. Genital-stage traits include the ability to form satisfying sexual and emotional relationships with members of the opposite sex, emancipation from parents, a strong sense of personal identity, or the opposites of these traits.

Which patient is the best candidate for brief psychodynamic therapy? a. An accountant with a loving family and successful career who was involved in a short extramarital affair b. An adult with a long history of major depression who was charged with driving under the influence (DUI) c. A woman with a history of borderline personality disorder who recently cut both wrists d. An adult male recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa

ANS: A The best candidates for psychodynamic therapy are relatively healthy and well-functioning individuals, sometimes referred to as the "worried well," who have a clearly circumscribed area of difficulty and are intelligent, psychologically minded, and well-motivated for change. Patients with psychosis, severe depression, borderline personality disorders, and severe character disorders are not appropriate candidates for this type of treatment.

A 4-year-old grabs toys from siblings and says, "I want that now!" The siblings cry, and the child's parent becomes upset with the behavior. According to Freudian theory, this behavior is a product of impulses originating in which system of the personality? a. Id b. Ego c. Superego d. Preconscious

ANS: A The id operates on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification of impulses. The ego acts as a mediator of behavior and weighs the consequences of the action, perhaps determining that taking the toy is not worth the mother's wrath. The superego would oppose the impulsive behavior as "not nice." The preconscious is a level of awareness. This item relates to an audience response question.

When a female Mexican American patient and a female nurse sit together, the patient often holds the nurse's hand. The patient also links arms with the nurse when they walk. The nurse is uncomfortable with this behavior. Which analysis is most accurate? a. The patient is accustomed to touch during conversation, as are members of many Hispanic subcultures. b. The patient understands that touch makes the nurse uncomfortable and controls the relationship based on that factor. c. The patient is afraid of being alone. When touching the nurse, the patient is reassured and comforted. d. The patient is trying to manipulate the nurse using nonverbal techniques.

ANS: A The most likely answer is that the patient's behavior is culturally influenced. Hispanic women frequently touch women they consider to be their friends. Although the other options are possible, they are less likely.

A nurse uses Maslow's hierarchy of needs to plan care for a patient with mental illness. Which problem will receive priority? The patient: a. refuses to eat or bathe. b. reports feelings of alienation from family. c. is reluctant to participate in unit social activities. d. is unaware of medication action and side effects.

ANS: A The need for food and hygiene are physiological and therefore take priority over psychological or meta-needs in care planning.

As a nurse discharges a patient, the patient gives the nurse a card of appreciation made in an arts and crafts group. What is the nurse's best action? a. Recognize the effectiveness of the relationship and patient's thoughtfulness. Accept the card. b. Inform the patient that accepting gifts violates policies of the facility. Decline the card. c. Acknowledge the patient's transition through the termination phase but decline the card. d. Accept the card and invite the patient to return to participate in other arts and crafts groups.

ANS: A The nurse must consider the meaning, timing, and value of the gift. In this instance, the nurse should accept the patient's expression of gratitude. See relationship to audience response question.

A patient with acute depression states, "God is punishing me for my past sins." What is the nurse's most therapeutic response? a. "You sound very upset about this." b. "God always forgives us for our sins." c. "Why do you think you are being punished?" d. "If you feel this way, you should talk to your minister."

ANS: A The nurse reflects the patient's comment, a therapeutic technique to encourage sharing for perceptions and feelings. The incorrect responses reflect probing, closed-ended comments, and giving advice, all of which are non-therapeutic.

When a nurse assesses an older adult patient, answers seem vague or unrelated to the questions. The patient also leans forward and frowns, listening intently to the nurse. An appropriate question for the nurse to ask would be: a. "Are you having difficulty hearing when I speak?" b. "How can I make this assessment interview easier for you?" c. "I notice you are frowning. Are you feeling annoyed with me?" d. "You're having trouble focusing on what I'm saying. What is distracting you?"

ANS: A The patient's behaviors may indicate difficulty hearing. Identifying any physical need the patient may have at the onset of the interview and making accommodations are important considerations. By asking if the patient is annoyed, the nurse is jumping to conclusions. Asking how to make the interview easier for the patient may not elicit a concrete answer. Asking about distractions is a way of asking about auditory hallucinations, which is not appropriate because the nurse has observed that the patient seems to be listening intently.

Consider this comment from a therapist: "The patient is homosexual but has kept this preference secret. Severe anxiety and depression occur when the patient anticipates family reactions to this sexual orientation." Which perspective is evident in the speaker? a. Theory of interpersonal relationships b. Classical conditioning theory c. Psychosexual theory d. Behaviorism theory

ANS: A The theory of interpersonal relationships recognizes the anxiety and depression as resulting from unmet interpersonal security needs. Behaviorism and classical conditioning theories do not apply. A psychosexual formulation would focus on uncovering unconscious material that relates to the patient problem.

The laboratory report for a patient taking clozapine (Clozaril) shows a white blood cell count of 3000 mm3. Select the nurse's best action. a. Report the results to the health care provider immediately. b. Administer the next dose as prescribed. c. Give aspirin and force fluids. d. Repeat the laboratory test.

ANS: A These laboratory values indicate the possibility of agranulocytosis, a serious side effect of clozapine therapy. These results must be immediately reported to the health care provider, and the drug should be withheld. The health care provider may repeat the test, but in the meantime, the drug should be withheld. Caution: This question requires students to apply previous learning regarding normal and abnormal values of white blood cell counts.

"QSEN" refers to: a. Qualitative Standardized Excellence in Nursing b. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses c. Quantitative Effectiveness in Nursing d. Quick Standards Essential for Nurses

ANS: B QSEN represents national initiatives centered on patient safety and quality. The primary goal of QSEN is to prepare future nurses with the knowledge, skills, and attitudes to increase the quality, care, and safety in the health care setting in which they work.

4. When a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia was discharged 6 months ago, haloperidol (Haldol) was prescribed. The patient now says, "I stopped taking those pills. They made me feel like a robot." What are common side effects the nurse should validate with the patient? a. Sedation and muscle stiffness b. Sweating, nausea, and diarrhea c. Mild fever, sore throat, and skin rash d. Headache, watery eyes, and runny nose

ANS: A Typical antipsychotic drugs often produce sedation and extrapyramidal side effects such as stiffness and gait disturbance, effects the patient might describe as making him or her feel like a "robot." The side effects mentioned in the other options are usually not associated with typical antipsychotic therapy or would not have the effect described by the patient. REF: Page 215-216 (Table 12-4) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

2. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia was hospitalized after arguing with co-workers and threatening to harm them. The patient is aloof, suspicious, and says, "Two staff members I saw talking were plotting to kill me." Based on data gathered at this point, which nursing diagnoses relate? Select all that apply. a. Risk for other-directed violence b. Disturbed thought processes c. Risk for loneliness d. Spiritual distress e. Social isolation

ANS: A, B Delusions of persecution and ideas of reference support the nursing diagnosis of disturbed thought processes. Risk for other-directed violence is substantiated by the patient's feeling endangered by persecutors. Fearful individuals may strike out at perceived persecutors or attempt self-harm to get away from persecutors. Data are not present to support the other diagnoses. REF: Page 209-210 (Table 12-3) TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis/Analysis

Select all that apply. A nurse ends a relationship with a patient. Which actions by the nurse should be included in the termination phase? a. Focus dialogues with the patient on problems that may occur in the future. b. Help the patient express feelings about the relationship with the nurse. c. Help the patient prioritize and modify socially unacceptable behaviors. d. Reinforce expectations regarding the parameters of the relationship. e. Help the patient to identify strengths, limitations, and problems.

ANS: A, B The correct actions are part of the termination phase. The other actions would be used in the working and orientation phases.

Select all that apply. A patient's sibling says, "My brother has a mental illness, but the doctor ordered a functional magnetic resonance image (fMRI) test. That test is too expensive and will just increase the hospital bill." Select the nurse's best responses. a. "Sometimes there are physical causes for psychiatric symptoms. This test will help us understand whether that is the situation." b. "Some mental illnesses are evident on fMRIs. This test will give information to help us plan the best care for your brother." c. "Tell me more about what kinds of tests your brother's health insurance plan covers." d. "It sounds like you do not truly believe your brother had a mental illness." e. "It would be better for you to discuss your concerns with the doctor."

ANS: A, B The correct responses provide information to the sibling. Modern imaging techniques are important tools in assessing molecular changes in mental disease and marking the receptor sites of drug action, which can help in treatment planning. Psychiatric symptoms can be caused by anatomical or physiologic abnormalities. There is no evidence of denial in the sibling's comment. The nurse can answer this question rather than referring it to the physician. It would be inappropriate to discuss finances with the patient's sibling.

Select all that apply. Which benefits are most associated with use of telehealth technologies? a. Cost savings for patients b. Maximize care management c. Access to services for patients in rural areas d. Prompt reimbursement by third party payers e. Rapid development of trusting relationships with patients

ANS: A, B, C Telehealth has shown it can maximize health and improve disease management skills and confidence with the disease process. Many rural parents have felt disconnected from services; telehealth technologies can solve those problems. Although telehealth's improved health outcomes regularly show cost savings for payers, one significant barrier is the current lack of reimbursement for remote patient monitoring by third party payers. Telehealth technologies have not shown rapid development of trusting relationships.

Select all that apply. A patient states, "I'm starting cognitive-behavioral therapy. What can I expect from the sessions?" Which responses by the nurse would be appropriate? a. "The therapist will be active and questioning." b. "You will be given some homework assignments." c. "The therapist will ask you to describe your dreams." d. "The therapist will help you look at your ideas and beliefs about yourself." e. "The goal is to increase subjectivity about thoughts that govern your behavior."

ANS: A, B, D Cognitive therapists are active rather than passive during therapy sessions because they help patients reality-test their thinking. Homework assignments are given and completed outside the therapy sessions. Homework is usually discussed at the next therapy session. The goal of cognitive therapy is to assist the patient in identifying inaccurate cognitions and in reality- testing and formulating new, accurate cognitions. One distracter applies to psychoanalysis. Increasing subjectivity is not desirable.

Select all that apply. An individual is experiencing problems with memory. Which of these structures are most likely to be involved in this deficit? a. Amygdala b. Hippocampus c. Occipital lobe d. Temporal lobe e. Basal ganglia

ANS: A, B, D The frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes of the cerebrum play a key role in the storage and processing of memories. The amygdala and hippocampus also play roles in memory. The occipital lobe is predominantly involved with vision. The basal ganglia influence integration of physical movement, as well as some thoughts and emotions.

Select all that apply. A nurse performing an assessment interview for a patient with a substance use disorder decides to use a standardized rating scale. Which scales are appropriate? a. Addiction Severity Index (ASI) b. Brief Drug Abuse Screen Test (B-DAST) c. Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) d. Cognitive Capacity Screening Examination (CCSE) e. Recovery Attitude and Treatment Evaluator (RAATE)

ANS: A, B, E Standardized scales are useful for obtaining data about substance use disorders. The ASI, B-DAST, and RAATE are scales related to substance abuse. AIMS assesses involuntary movements associated with anti-psychotic medications. The CCSE assesses cognitive function.

Select all that apply. A nurse prepares to administer a second-generation antipsychotic medication to a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. Additional monitoring for adverse effects will be most important if the patient has which co-morbid health problems? a. Parkinson's disease b. Grave's disease c. Hyperlipidemia d. Osteoarthritis e. Diabetes

ANS: A, C, E Antipsychotic medications may produce weight gain, which would complicate care of a patient with diabetes, and increase serum triglycerides, which would complicate care of a patient with hyperlipidemia. Parkinson's disease involves changes in transmission of dopamine and acetylcholine, so these drugs would also complicate care of this patient. Osteoarthritis and Grave's disease should have no synergistic effect with this medication.

1. A nurse at the mental health clinic plans a series of psychoeducational groups for persons newly diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which two topics take priority? a. "The importance of taking your medication correctly" b. "How to complete an application for employment" c. "How to dress when attending community events" d. "How to give and receive compliments" e. "Ways to quit smoking"

ANS: A, E Stabilization is maximized by adherence to the antipsychotic medication regimen. Because so many persons with schizophrenia smoke cigarettes, this topic relates directly to the patients' physiological well-being. The other topics are also important but are not priority topics. REF: Page 204 | Page 211-212 | Page 215 (Box 12-6) | Page 224

Select all that apply. A novice psychiatric nurse has a parent with bipolar disorder. This nurse angrily recalls feelings of embarrassment about the parent's behavior in the community. Select the best ways for this nurse to cope with these feelings. a. Seek ways to use the understanding gained from childhood to help patients cope with their own illnesses. b. Recognize that these feelings are unhealthy. The nurse should try to suppress them when working with patients. c. Recognize that psychiatric nursing is not an appropriate career choice. Explore other nursing specialties. d. The nurse should begin new patient relationships by saying, "My own parent had mental illness, so I accept it without stigma." e. Recognize that the feelings may add sensitivity to the nurse's practice, but supervision is important.

ANS: A, E The nurse needs support to explore these feelings. An experienced psychiatric nurse is a resource that may be helpful. The knowledge and experience gained from the nurse's relationship with a mentally ill parent may contribute sensitivity to compassionate practice. Self-disclosure and suppression are not adaptive coping strategies. The nurse should not give up on this area of practice without first seeking ways to cope with the memories.

A patient has disorganized thinking associated with schizophrenia. Neuroimaging would likely show dysfunction in which part of the brain? a. Hippocampus b. Frontal lobe c. Cerebellum d. Brainstem

ANS: B The frontal lobe is responsible for intellectual functioning. The hippocampus is involved in emotions and learning. The cerebellum regulates skeletal muscle coordination and equilibrium. The brainstem regulates internal organs.

A patient with a long history of hypertension and diabetes now develops confusion. The health care provider wants to make a differential diagnosis between Alzheimer's disease and multiple infarcts. Which diagnostic procedure should the nurse expect to prepare the patient for first? a. Skull x-rays b. Computed tomography (CT) scan c. Positron-emission tomography (PET) d. Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)

ANS: B A CT scan shows the presence or absence of structural changes, including cortical atrophy, ventricular enlargement, and areas of infarct, information that would be helpful to the health care provider. PET and SPECT show brain activity rather than structure and may occur later. See relationship to audience response question.

A nurse introduces the matter of a contract during the first session with a new patient because contracts: a. specify what the nurse will do for the patient. b. spell out the participation and responsibilities of each party. c. indicate the feeling tone established between the participants. d. are binding and prevent either party from prematurely ending the relationship.

ANS: B A contract emphasizes that the nurse works with the patient rather than doing something for the patient. "Working with" is a process that suggests each party is expected to participate and share responsibility for outcomes. Contracts do not, however, stipulate roles or feeling tone, and premature termination is forbidden.

Which patient statement would lead the nurse to suspect unsuccessful completion of the developmental task of infancy? a. "I have very warm and close friendships." b. "I'm afraid to allow anyone to really get to know me." c. "I'm always absolutely right, so don't bother saying more." d. "I'm ashamed that I didn't do things correctly in the first place."

ANS: B According to Erikson, the developmental task of infancy is the development of trust. The correct response is the only statement clearly showing lack of ability to trust others. Warm, close relationships suggest the developmental task of infancy was successfully completed; rigidity and self-absorption are reflected in the belief one is always right; and shame for past actions suggests failure to resolve the crisis of initiative versus guilt.

Complete this analogy. NANDA: clinical judgment: NIC: _________________ a. patient outcomes b. nursing actions c. diagnosis d. symptoms

ANS: B Analogies show parallel relationships. NANDA, the North American Nursing Diagnosis Association, identifies diagnostic statements regarding human responses to actual or potential health problems. These statements represent clinical judgments. NIC (Nursing Interventions Classification) identifies actions provided by nurses that enhance patient outcomes. Nursing care activities may be direct or indirect.

A nurse asks a patient, "If you had fever and vomiting for 3 days, what would you do?" Which aspect of the mental status examination is the nurse assessing? a. Behavior b. Cognition c. Affect and mood d. Perceptual disturbances

ANS: B Assessing cognition involves determining a patient's judgment and decision making. In this case, the nurse would expect a response of "Call my doctor" if the patient's cognition and judgment are intact. If the patient responds, "I would stop eating" or "I would just wait and see what happened," the nurse would conclude that judgment is impaired. The other options refer to other aspects of the examination.

Before assessing a new patient, a nurse is told by another health care worker, "I know that patient. No matter how hard we work, there isn't much improvement by the time of discharge." The nurse's responsibility is to: a. document the other worker's assessment of the patient. b. assess the patient based on data collected from all sources. c. validate the worker's impression by contacting the patient's significant other. d. discuss the worker's impression with the patient during the assessment interview.

ANS: B Assessment should include data obtained from both the primary and reliable secondary sources. The nurse, bearing in mind the possible effects of counter-transference, should evaluate biased assessments by others as objectively as possible.

A patient says, "All my life I've been surrounded by stupidity. Everything I buy breaks because the entire American workforce is incompetent." This patient is experiencing a: a. self-esteem deficit. b. cognitive distortion. c. deficit in motivation. d. deficit in love and belonging.

ANS: B Automatic thoughts, or cognitive distortions, are irrational and lead to false assumptions and misinterpretations. See related audience response question.

A patient says, "I always feel good when I wear a size 2 petite." Which type of cognitive distortion is evident? a. Disqualifying the positive b. Overgeneralization c. Catastrophizing d. Personalization

ANS: B Automatic thoughts, or cognitive distortions, are irrational and lead to false assumptions and misinterpretations. The stem offers an example of overgeneralization. See related audience response question.

A nurse assesses a confused older adult. The nurse experiences sadness and reflects, "The patient is like one of my grandparents...so helpless." Which response is the nurse demonstrating? a. Transference b. Countertransference c. Catastrophic reaction d. Defensive coping reaction

ANS: B Countertransference is the nurse's transference or response to a patient that is based on the nurse's unconscious needs, conflicts, problems, or view of the world. See relationship to audience response question.

An advanced practice nurse observes a novice nurse expressing irritability regarding a patient with a long history of alcoholism and suspects the new nurse is experiencing countertransference. Which comment by the new nurse confirms this suspicion? a. "This patient continues to deny problems resulting from drinking." b. "My parents were alcoholics and often neglected our family." c. "The patient cannot identify any goals for improvement." d. "The patient said I have many traits like her mother."

ANS: B Countertransference occurs when the nurse unconsciously and inappropriately displaces onto the patient feelings and behaviors related to significant figures in the nurse's past. In this instance, the new nurse's irritability stems from relationships with parents. The distracters indicate transference or accurate analysis of the patient's behavior.

By which mechanism do selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) improve depression? a. Destroying increased amounts of serotonin b. Making more serotonin available at the synaptic gap c. Increasing production of acetylcholine and dopamine d. Blocking muscarinic and α1 norepinephrine receptors

ANS: B Depression is thought to be related to lowered availability of the neurotransmitter serotonin. SSRIs act by blocking reuptake of serotonin, leaving a higher concentration available at the synaptic cleft. SSRIs prevent destruction of serotonin. SSRIs have little or no effect on acetylcholine and dopamine production. SSRIs do not produce muscarinic or α1 norepinephrine blockade.

A nurse wants to demonstrate genuineness with a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia. The nurse should: a. restate what the patient says. b. use congruent communication strategies. c. use self-revelation in patient interactions. d. consistently interpret the patient's behaviors.

ANS: B Genuineness is a desirable characteristic involving awareness of one's own feelings as they arise and the ability to communicate them when appropriate. The incorrect options are undesirable in a therapeutic relationship.

A black patient says to a white nurse, "There's no sense talking. You wouldn't understand because you live in a white world." The nurse's best action would be to: a. explain, "Yes, I do understand. Everyone goes through the same experiences." b. say, "Please give an example of something you think I wouldn't understand." c. reassure the patient that nurses interact with people from all cultures. d. change the subject to one that is less emotionally disturbing.

ANS: B Having the patient speak in specifics rather than globally will help the nurse understand the patient's perspective. This approach will help the nurse engage the patient. Reassurance and changing the subject are not therapeutic techniques.

2. A newly admitted patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is hypervigilant and constantly scans the environment. The patient states, "I saw two doctors talking in the hall. They were plotting to kill me." The nurse may correctly assess this behavior as: a. echolalia. c. a delusion of infidelity. b. an idea of reference. d. an auditory hallucination.

ANS: B Ideas of reference are misinterpretations of the verbalizations or actions of others that give special personal meanings to these behaviors for example, when seeing two people talking, the individual assumes they are talking about him or her. The other terms do not correspond with the scenario. REF: Page 206 (Table 12-1) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

10. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia demonstrates little spontaneous movement and has waxy flexibility. The patient's activities of daily living are severely compromised. An appropriate outcome would be that the patient will: a. demonstrate increased interest in the environment by the end of week 1. b. perform self-care activities with coaching by the end of day 3. c. gradually take the initiative for self-care by the end of week 2. d. accept tube feeding without objection by day 2.

ANS: B Outcomes related to self-care deficit nursing diagnoses should deal with increasing ability to perform self-care tasks independently, such as feeding, bathing, dressing, and toileting. Performing the tasks with coaching by nursing staff denotes improvement over the complete inability to perform the tasks. The incorrect options are not directly related to self-care activities, difficult to measure, and unrelated to maintenance of nutrition. REF: Page 209-210 TOP: Nursing Process: Outcomes Identification

A new staff nurse completes an orientation to the psychiatric unit. This nurse will expect to ask an advanced practice nurse to perform which action for patients? a. Perform mental health assessment interviews. b. Prescribe psychotropic medication. c. Establish therapeutic relationships. d. Individualize nursing care plans.

ANS: B Prescriptive privileges are granted to master's-prepared nurse practitioners who have taken special courses on prescribing medication. The nurse prepared at the basic level performs mental health assessments, establishes relationships, and provides individualized care planning. Note that this question was also offered for Chapter 1.

Which entry in the medical record best meets the requirement for problem-oriented charting? a. "A: Pacing and muttering to self. P: Sensory perceptual alteration related to internal auditory stimulation. I: Given fluphenazine HCL (Prolixin) 2.5 mg po at 0900 and went to room to lie down. E: Calmer by 0930. Returned to lounge to watch TV." b. "S: States, 'I feel like I'm ready to blow up.' O: Pacing hall, mumbling to self. A: Auditory hallucinations. P: Offer haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg po. I: Haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg po given at 0900. E: Returned to lounge at 0930 and quietly watched TV." c. "Agitated behavior. D: Patient muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. A: Given haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg po and went to room to lie down. E: Patient calmer. Returned to lounge to watch TV." d. "Pacing hall and muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg po administered at 0900 with calming effect in 30 minutes. Stated, 'I'm no longer bothered by the voices.'"

ANS: B Problem-oriented documentation uses the first letter of key words to organize data: S for subjective data, O for objective data, A for assessment, P for plan, I for intervention, and E for evaluation. The distracters offer examples of PIE charting, focus documentation, and narrative documentation.

Chapter 12: Schizophrenia and Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders 1. A person has had difficulty keeping a job because of arguing with co-workers and accusing them of conspiracy. Today the person shouts, "They're all plotting to destroy me. Isn't that true?" Select the nurse's most therapeutic response. a. "Everyone here is trying to help you. No one wants to harm you." b. "Feeling that people want to destroy you must be very frightening." c. "That is not true. People here are trying to help you if you will let them." d. "Staff members are health care professionals who are qualified to help you."

ANS: B Resist focusing on content instead, focus on the feelings the patient is expressing. This strategy prevents arguing about the reality of delusional beliefs. Such arguments increase patient anxiety and the tenacity with which the patient holds to the delusion. The other options focus on content and provide opportunity for argument. REF: Page 205-206 | Page 213-215 (Box 12-4)

A nurse caring for a patient taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) will develop outcome criteria related to: a. coherent thought processes. b. improvement in depression. c. reduced levels of motor activity. d. decreased extrapyramidal symptoms.

ANS: B SSRIs affect mood, relieving depression in many cases. SSRIs do not act to reduce thought disorders. SSRIs reduce depression but have little effect on motor hyperactivity. SSRIs do not produce extrapyramidal symptoms.

A nurse wants to enhance growth of a patient by showing positive regard. The nurse's action most likely to achieve this goal is: a. making rounds daily. b. staying with a tearful patient. c. administering medication as prescribed. d. examining personal feelings about a patient.

ANS: B Staying with a crying patient offers support and shows positive regard. Administering daily medication and making rounds are tasks that could be part of an assignment and do not necessarily reflect positive regard. Examining feelings regarding a patient addresses the nurse's ability to be therapeutic.

19. A patient took trifluoperazine 30 mg po daily for 3 years. The clinic nurse notes that the patient grimaces and constantly smacks both lips. The patient's neck and shoulders twist in a slow, snakelike motion. Which problem would the nurse suspect? a. Agranulocytosis c. Tourette's syndrome b. Tardive dyskinesia d. Anticholinergic effects

ANS: B Tardive dyskinesia is a neuroleptic-induced condition involving the face, trunk, and limbs. Involuntary movements, such as tongue thrusting licking, blowing, irregular movements of the arms, neck, and shoulders, rocking, hip jerks and pelvic thrusts, are seen. These symptoms are frequently not reversible even when the drug is discontinued. The scenario does not present evidence consistent with the other disorders mentioned. Agranulocytosis is a blood disorder. Tourette's syndrome is a condition in which tics are present. Anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, blurred vision, flushing, constipation, and dry eyes. REF: Page 215-216 (Table 12-4) TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation

A 26-month-old displays negative behavior, refuses toilet training, and often says, "No!" Which stage of psychosexual development is evident? a. Oral b. Anal c. Phallic d. Genital

ANS: B The anal stage occurs from age 1 to 3 years and has as its focus toilet training and learning to delay immediate gratification. The oral stage occurs between birth and 1 year. The phallic stage occurs between 3 and 5 years, and the genital stage occurs between age 13 and 20 years.

5. Which hallucination necessitates the nurse to implement safety measures? The patient says, a. "I hear angels playing harps." b. "The voices say everyone is trying to kill me." c. "My dead father tells me I am a good person." d. "The voices talk only at night when I'm trying to sleep."

ANS: B The correct response indicates the patient is experiencing paranoia. Paranoia often leads to fearfulness, and the patient may attempt to strike out at others to protect self. The distracters are comforting hallucinations or do not indicate paranoia. REF: Page 207 | Page 212-213 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

A student nurse says, "I don't need to interact with my patients. I learn what I need to know by observation." An instructor can best interpret the nursing implications of Sullivan's theory to this student by responding: a. "Interactions are required in order to help you develop therapeutic communication skills." b. "Nurses cannot be isolated. We must interact to provide patients with opportunities to practice interpersonal skills." c. "Observing patient interactions will help you formulate priority nursing diagnoses and appropriate interventions." d. "It is important to pay attention to patients' behavioral changes, because these signify adjustments in personality."

ANS: B The nurse's role includes educating patients and assisting them in developing effective interpersonal relationships. Mutuality, respect for the patient, unconditional acceptance, and empathy are cornerstones of Sullivan's theory. The nurse who does not interact with the patient cannot demonstrate these cornerstones. Observations provide only objective data. Priority nursing diagnoses usually cannot be accurately established without subjective data from the patient. The other distracters relate to Maslow and behavioral theory. This item relates to an audience response question.

A nurse influenced by Peplau's interpersonal theory works with an anxious, withdrawn patient. Interventions should focus on: a. rewarding desired behaviors. b. use of assertive communication. c. changing the patient's self-concept. d. administering medications to relieve anxiety.

ANS: B The nurse-patient relationship is structured to provide a model for adaptive interpersonal relationships that can be generalized to others. Helping the patient learn to use assertive communication will improve the patient's interpersonal relationships. The distracters apply to theories of cognitive, behavioral, and biological therapy.

The parent of an adolescent diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, "My child's doctor ordered a PET. What kind of test is that?" Select the nurse's best reply. a. "This test uses a magnetic field and gamma waves to identify problem areas in the brain. Does your teenager have any metal implants?" b. "PET means positron-emission tomography. It is a special type of scan that shows blood flow and activity in the brain." c. "A PET scan passes an electrical current through the brain and shows brain-wave activity. It can help diagnose seizures." d. "It's a special x-ray that shows structures of the brain and whether there has ever been a brain injury."

ANS: B The parent is seeking information about PET scans. It is important to use terms the parent can understand, so the nurse should identify what the initials mean. The correct response is the only option that provides information relevant to PET scans. The distracters describe MRI, CT scans, and EEG. See relationship to audience response question.

The parent of a child diagnosed with schizophrenia tearfully asks the nurse, "What could I have done differently to prevent this illness?" Select the nurse's best response. a. "Although schizophrenia results from impaired family relationships, try not to feel guilty. No one can predict how a child will respond to parental guidance." b. "Schizophrenia is a biological illness resulting from changes in how the brain and nervous system function. You are not to blame for your child's illness." c. "There is still hope. Changing your parenting style can help your child learn to cope effectively with the environment." d. "Most mental illnesses result from genetic inheritance. Your genes are more at fault than your parenting."

ANS: B The parent's comment suggests feelings of guilt or inadequacy. The nurse's response should address these feelings as well as provide information. Patients and families need reassurance that the major mental disorders are biological in origin and are not the "fault" of parents. One distracter places the burden of having faulty genes on the shoulders of the parents. The other distracters are neither wholly accurate nor reassuring.

35. A client says, "Facebook has a new tracking capacity. If I use the Internet, Homeland Security will detain me as a terrorist." Select the nurse's best initial action. a. Tell the client, "Facebook is a safe website. You don't need to worry about Homeland Security." b. Tell the client, "You are in a safe place where you will be helped." c. Administer a prn dose of an antipsychotic medication. d. Tell the client, "You don't need to worry about that."

ANS: B The patient is experiencing paranoia and delusional thinking, which leads to fear. Explaining that the patient is in a safe place will help relieve the fear. It is not therapeutic to disagree or give advice. Medication will not relieve the immediate concern. REF: Page 205-206 (Table 12-1) | Page 213-215 (Box 12-4)

3. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "My co-workers are out to get me. I also saw two doctors plotting to kill me." How does this patient perceive the environment? a. Disorganized c. Supportive b. Dangerous d. Bizarre

ANS: B The patient sees the world as hostile and dangerous. This assessment is important because the nurse can be more effective by using empathy to respond to the patient. Data are not present to support any of the other options. REF: Page 210 (Table 12-3) | Page 213 (Box 12-4)

A nurse wants to assess an adult patient's recent memory. Which question would best yield the desired information? a. "Where did you go to elementary school?" b. "What did you have for breakfast this morning?" c. "Can you name the current president of the United States?" d. "A few minutes ago, I told you my name. Can you remember it?"

ANS: B The patient's recall of a meal provides evidence of recent memory. Two incorrect responses are useful to assess immediate and remote memory. The other distracter assesses the patient's fund of knowledge.

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder has an unstable mood, aggressiveness, agitation, talkativeness, and irritability. The nurse expects the health care provider to prescribe a medication from which group? a. Psychostimulants b. Mood stabilizers c. Anticholinergics d. Antidepressants

ANS: B The symptoms describe mania, which is effectively treated by mood stabilizers, such as lithium, and selected anticonvulsants (carbamazepine, valproic acid, and lamotrigine). Drugs from the other classifications listed are not effective in the treatment of mania.

A patient had psychotherapy weekly for 5 months. The therapist used free association, dream analysis, and facilitated transference to help the patient understand conflicts and foster change. Select the term that applies to this method. a. Rational-emotive behavior therapy b. Psychodynamic psychotherapy c. Cognitive-behavioral therapy d. Operant conditioning

ANS: B The techniques are aspects of psychodynamic psychotherapy. The distracters use other techniques.

After formulating the nursing diagnoses for a new patient, what is a nurse's next action? a. Designing interventions to include in the plan of care b. Determining the goals and outcome criteria c. Implementing the nursing plan of care d. Completing the spiritual assessment

ANS: B The third step of the nursing process is planning and outcome identification. Outcomes cannot be determined until the nursing assessment is complete and nursing diagnoses have been formulated.

A parent says, "My 2-year-old child refuses toilet training and shouts 'No!' when given directions. What do you think is wrong?" Select the nurse's best reply. a. "Your child needs firmer control. It is important to set limits now." b. "This is normal for your child's age. The child is striving for independence." c. "There may be developmental problems. Most children are toilet trained by age 2." d. "Some undesirable attitudes are developing. A child psychologist can help you develop a plan."

ANS: B This behavior is typical of a child around the age of 2 years, whose developmental task is to develop autonomy. The distracters indicate the child's behavior is abnormal.

A professional football player is seen in the emergency department after losing consciousness from an illegal block. Prior to discharge, the nurse assists the patient to schedule an outpatient computed tomography (CT) scan for the next day. Which strategy should the nurse use to ensure the patient remembers the appointment? a. Write the appointment day, time, and location on a piece of paper and give it to the player. b. Log the appointment day, time, and location into the player's cell phone calendar feature. c. Ask the health care provider to admit the patient to the hospital overnight. d. Verbally inform the patient of the appointment day, time, and location.

ANS: B This player may have suffered repeated head injuries with damage to the hippocampus. The hippocampus has significant role in maintaining memory. Logging the appointment into the player's cell phone calendar will remind him of the appointment the next day. Paper will be lost, and the patient is unlikely to remember verbal instruction. Hospitalization is unnecessary. See relationship to audience response question. Caution: This question requires students to apply previous learning regarding central nervous system anatomy and physiology.

During the first interview with a parent whose child died in a car accident, the nurse feels empathic and reaches out to take the patient's hand. Select the correct analysis of the nurse's behavior. a. It shows empathy and compassion. It will encourage the patient to continue to express feelings. b. The gesture is premature. The patient's cultural and individual interpretation of touch is unknown. c. The patient will perceive the gesture as intrusive and overstepping boundaries. d. The action is inappropriate. Psychiatric patients should not be touched.

ANS: B Touch has various cultural and individual interpretations. Nurses should refrain from using touch until an assessment can be made regarding the way in which the patient will perceive touch. The other options present prematurely drawn conclusions.

A patient says to the nurse, "My father has been dead for over 10 years, but talking to you is almost as comforting as the talks he and I had when I was a child." Which term applies to the patient's comment? a. Superego b. Transference c. Reality testing d. Counter-transference

ANS: B Transference refers to feelings a patient has toward the health care workers that were originally held toward significant others in his or her life. Counter-transference refers to unconscious feelings that the health care worker has toward the patient. The superego represents the moral component of personality; it seeks perfection.

11. A nurse observes a catatonic patient standing immobile, facing the wall with one arm extended in a salute. The patient remains immobile in this position for 15 minutes, moving only when the nurse gently lowers the arm. What is the name of this phenomenon? a. Echolalia c. Depersonalization b. Waxy flexibility d. Thought withdrawal

ANS: B Waxy flexibility is the ability to hold distorted postures for extended periods of time, as though the patient were molded in wax. Echolalia is a speech pattern. Depersonalization refers to a feeling state. Thought withdrawal refers to an alteration in thinking. REF: Page 207-208 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

Select all that apply. A nurse assessed a patient who reluctantly participated in activities, answered questions with minimal responses, and rarely made eye contact. What information should be included when documenting the assessment? a. The patient was uncooperative b. The patient's subjective responses c. Only data obtained from the patient's verbal responses d. A description of the patient's behavior during the interview e. Analysis of why the patient was unresponsive during the interview

ANS: B, D Both content and process of the interview should be documented. Providing only the patient's verbal responses would create a skewed picture of the patient. Writing that the patient was uncooperative is subjectively worded. An objective description of patient behavior would be preferable. Analysis of the reasons for the patient's behavior would be speculation, which is inappropriate.

Select all that apply. What information is conveyed by nursing diagnoses? a. Medical judgments about the disorder b. Unmet patient needs currently present c. Goals and outcomes for the plan of care d. Supporting data that validate the diagnoses e. Probable causes that will be targets for nursing interventions

ANS: B, D, E Nursing diagnoses focus on phenomena of concern to nurses rather than on medical diagnoses.

Select all that apply. A novice nurse tells a mentor, "I want to convey to my patients that I am interested in them and that I want to listen to what they have to say." Which behaviors will be helpful in meeting the nurse's goal? a. Sitting behind a desk, facing the patient b. Introducing self to a patient and identifying own role c. Maintaining control of discussions by asking direct questions d. Using facial expressions to convey interest and encouragement e. Assuming an open body posture and sometimes mirror imaging

ANS: B, D, E Trust is fostered when the nurse gives an introduction and identifies his or her role. Facial expressions that convey interest and encouragement support the nurse's verbal statements to that effect and strengthen the message. An open body posture conveys openness to listening to what the patient has to say. Mirror imaging enhances patient comfort. A desk would place a physical barrier between the nurse and patient. A face-to-face stance should be avoided when possible and a less intense 90- or 120-degree angle used to permit either party to look away without discomfort.

Which behavior shows that a nurse values autonomy? The nurse: a. suggests one-on-one supervision for a patient who has suicidal thoughts. b. informs a patient that the spouse will not be in during visiting hours. c. discusses options and helps the patient weigh the consequences. d. sets limits on a patient's romantic overtures toward the nurse.

ANS: C A high level of valuing is acting on one's belief. Autonomy is supported when the nurse helps a patient weigh alternatives and their consequences before the patient makes a decision. Autonomy or self-determination is not the issue in any of the other behaviors.

A patient begins a new program to assist with building social skills. In which part of the plan of care should a nurse record the item, "Encourage patient to attend one psychoeducational group daily"? a. Assessment b. Analysis c. Implementation d. Evaluation

ANS: C Interventions are the nursing prescriptions to achieve the outcomes. Interventions should be specific.

After several therapeutic encounters with a patient who recently attempted suicide, which occurrence should cause the nurse to consider the possibility of countertransference? a. The patient's reactions toward the nurse seem realistic and appropriate. b. The patient states, "Talking to you feels like talking to my parents." c. The nurse feels unusually happy when the patient's mood begins to lift. d. The nurse develops a trusting relationship with the patient.

ANS: C Strong positive or negative reactions toward a patient or over-identification with the patient indicate possible countertransference. Nurses must carefully monitor their own feelings and reactions to detect countertransference and then seek supervision. Realistic and appropriate reactions from a patient toward a nurse are desirable. One incorrect response suggests transference. A trusting relationship with the patient is desirable. See relationship to audience response question.

Termination of a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship has been successful when the nurse: a. avoids upsetting the patient by shifting focus to other patients before the discharge. b. gives the patient a personal telephone number and permission to call after discharge. c. discusses with the patient changes that happened during the relationship and evaluates outcomes. d. offers to meet the patient for coffee and conversation three times a week after discharge.

ANS: C Summarizing and evaluating progress help validate the experience for the patient and the nurse and facilitate closure. Termination must be discussed; avoiding discussion by spending little time with the patient promotes feelings of abandonment. Successful termination requires that the relationship be brought to closure without the possibility of dependency-producing ongoing contact.

A college student received an invitation to attend the wedding of a close friend who lives across the country. The student is afraid of flying. Which type of therapy would be most helpful for this patient? a. Psychoanalysis b. Milieu therapy c. Systematic desensitization d. Short-term dynamic therapy

ANS: C Systematic desensitization is a type of therapy aimed at extinguishing a specific behavior, such as the fear of flying. Psychoanalysis and short-term dynamic therapy seek to uncover conflicts. Milieu therapy involves environmental factors.

A nurse interacts with a newly hospitalized patient. Select the nurse's comment that applies the communication technique of "offering self." a. "I've also had traumatic life experiences. Maybe it would help if I told you about them." b. "Why do you think you had so much difficulty adjusting to this change in your life?" c. "I hope you will feel better after getting accustomed to how this unit operates." d. "I'd like to sit with you for a while to help you get comfortable talking to me."

ANS: D "Offering self" is a technique that should be used in the orientation phase of the nurse-patient relationship. Sitting with the patient, an example of "offering self," helps to build trust and convey that the nurse cares about the patient. Two incorrect responses are ineffective and non-therapeutic. The other incorrect response is therapeutic but is an example of "offering hope."

A nurse listens to a group of recent retirees. One says, "I volunteer with Meals on Wheels, coach teen sports, and do church visitation." Another laughs and says, "I'm too busy taking care of myself to volunteer to help others." Which developmental task do these statements contrast? a. Trust and mistrust b. Intimacy and isolation c. Industry and inferiority d. Generativity and self-absorption

ANS: D Both retirees are in middle adulthood, when the developmental crisis to be resolved is generativity versus self-absorption. One exemplifies generativity; the other embodies self-absorption. This developmental crisis would show a contrast between relating to others in a trusting fashion and being suspicious and lacking trust. Failure to negotiate this developmental crisis would result in a sense of inferiority or difficulty learning and working as opposed to the ability to work competently. Behaviors that would be contrasted would be emotional isolation and the ability to love and commit oneself.

A patient expresses a desire to be cared for by others and often behaves in a helpless fashion. Which stage of psychosexual development is most relevant to the patient's needs? a. Latency b. Phallic c. Anal d. Oral

ANS: D Fixation at the oral stage sometimes produces dependent infantile behaviors in adults. Latency fixations often result in difficulty identifying with others and developing social skills, resulting in a sense of inadequacy and inferiority. Phallic fixations result in having difficulty with authority figures and poor sexual identity. Anal fixation sometimes results in retentiveness, rigidity, messiness, destructiveness, and cruelty. This item relates to an audience response question.

28. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been stable for a year however, the family now reports the patient is tense, sleeps 3 to 4 hours per night, and has difficulty concentrating. The patient says, "My computer is sending out infected radiation beams." The nurse can correctly assess this information as an indication of: a. the need for psychoeducation. c. chronic deterioration. b. medication noncompliance. d. relapse.

ANS: D Signs of potential relapse include feeling tense, difficulty concentrating, trouble sleeping, increased withdrawal, and increased bizarre or magical thinking. Medication noncompliance may not be implicated. Relapse can occur even when the patient is taking medication regularly. Psychoeducation is more effective when the patient's symptoms are stable. Chronic deterioration is not the best explanation. REF: Page 213-215 (Box 12-6) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

The desired outcome for a patient experiencing insomnia is, "Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly within 7 days." At the end of 7 days, review of sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. What is the nurse's next action? a. Continue the current plan without changes. b. Remove this nursing diagnosis from the plan of care. c. Write a new nursing diagnosis that better reflects the problem. d. Examine interventions for possible revision of the target date.

ANS: D Sleeping a total of 5 hours at night remains a reasonable outcome. Extending the period for attaining the outcome may be appropriate. Examining interventions might result in planning an activity during the afternoon rather than permitting a nap. Continuing the current plan without changes is inappropriate. Removing this nursing diagnosis from the plan of care would be correct when the outcome was met and the problem resolved. Writing a new nursing diagnosis is inappropriate because no other nursing diagnosis relates to the problem.

Although ego defense mechanisms and security operations are mainly unconscious and designed to relieve anxiety, the major difference is that: a. defense mechanisms are intrapsychic and not observable. b. defense mechanisms cause arrested personal development. c. security operations are masterminded by the id and superego. d. security operations address interpersonal relationship activities.

ANS: D Sullivan's theory explains that security operations are interpersonal relationship activities designed to relieve anxiety. Because they are interpersonal, they are observable. Defense mechanisms are unconscious and automatic. Repression is entirely intrapsychic, but other mechanisms result in observable behaviors. Frequent, continued use of many defense mechanisms often results in reality distortion and interference with healthy adjustment and emotional development. Occasional use of defense mechanisms is normal and does not markedly interfere with development. Security operations are ego-centered. This item relates to an audience response question.

A nurse caring for a withdrawn, suspicious patient recognizes development of feelings of anger toward the patient. The nurse should: a. suppress the angry feelings. b. express the anger openly and directly with the patient. c. tell the nurse manager to assign the patient to another nurse. d. discuss the anger with a clinician during a supervisory session.

ANS: D The nurse is accountable for the relationship. Objectivity is threatened by strong positive or negative feelings toward a patient. Supervision is necessary to work through countertransference feelings.

32. A patient receiving risperidone (Risperdal) reports severe muscle stiffness at 1030. By 1200, the patient has difficulty swallowing and is drooling. By 1600, vital signs are 102.8° F pulse 110 respirations 26 150/90. The patient is diaphoretic. Select the nurse's best analysis and action. a. Agranulocytosis institute reverse isolation. b. Tardive dyskinesia withhold the next dose of medication. c. Cholestatic jaundice begin a high-protein, high-cholesterol diet. d. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome notify health care provider stat.

ANS: D Taking an antipsychotic medication coupled with the presence of extrapyramidal symptoms, such as severe muscle stiffness and difficulty swallowing, hyperpyrexia, and autonomic symptoms (pulse elevation), suggest neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a medical emergency. The symptoms given in the scenario are not consistent with the medical problems listed in the incorrect options. REF: Page 210 (Table 12-3) | Page 219-220

A Filipino American patient had a nursing diagnosis of situational low self-esteem related to poor social skills as evidenced by lack of eye contact. Interventions were used to raise the patient's self-esteem, but after 3 weeks, the patient's eye contact did not improve. What is the most accurate analysis of this scenario? a. The patient's eye contact should have been directly addressed by role-playing to increase comfort with eye contact. b. The nurse should not have independently embarked on assessment, diagnosis, and planning for this patient. c. The patient's poor eye contact is indicative of anger and hostility that were unaddressed. d. The nurse should have assessed the patient's culture before making this diagnosis and plan.

ANS: D The amount of eye contact a person engages in is often culturally determined. In some cultures, eye contact is considered insolent, whereas in others eye contact is expected. Asian Americans, including persons from the Philippines, often prefer not to engage in direct eye contact.

A school age child tells the school nurse, "Other kids call me mean names and will not sit with me at lunch. Nobody likes me." Select the nurse's most therapeutic response. a. "Just ignore them and they will leave you alone." b. "You should make friends with other children." c. "Call them names if they do that to you." d. "Tell me more about how you feel."

ANS: D The correct response uses exploring, a therapeutic technique. The distracters give advice, a non-therapeutic technique.

A 26-month-old displays negative behavior, refuses toilet training, and often says, "No!" Which psychosocial crisis is evident? a. Trust versus mistrust b. Initiative versus guilt c. Industry versus inferiority d. Autonomy versus shame and doubt

ANS: D The crisis of autonomy versus shame and doubt relates to the developmental task of gaining control of self and environment, as exemplified by toilet training. This psychosocial crisis occurs during the period of early childhood. Trust versus mistrust is the crisis of the infant. Initiative versus guilt is the crisis of the preschool and early-school-aged child. Industry versus inferiority is the crisis of the 6- to 12-year-old child.

A nurse documents: "Patient is mute despite repeated efforts to elicit speech. Makes no eye contact. Inattentive to staff. Gazes off to the side or looks upward rather than at speaker." Which nursing diagnosis should be considered? a. Defensive coping b. Decisional conflict c. Risk for other-directed violence d. Impaired verbal communication

ANS: D The defining characteristics are more related to the nursing diagnosis of impaired verbal communication than to the other nursing diagnoses.

23. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia says, "Contagious bacteria are everywhere. When they get in your body, you will be locked up with other infected people." Which problem is evident? a. Poverty of content c. Neologisms b. Concrete thinking d. Paranoia

ANS: D The patient's unrealistic fear of harm indicates paranoia. Neologisms are invented words. Concrete thinking involves literal interpretation. Poverty of content refers to an inadequate fund of information. REF: Page 205-206 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

Which comment best indicates a patient is self-actualized? a. "I have succeeded despite a world filled with evil." b. "I have a plan for my life. If I follow it, everything will be fine." c. "I'm successful because I work hard. No one has ever given me anything." d. "My favorite leisure is walking on the beach, hearing soft sounds of rolling waves."

ANS: D The self-actualized personality is associated with high productivity and enjoyment of life. Self-actualized persons experience pleasure in being alone and an ability to reflect on events.

Which statement made by a patient during an initial assessment interview should serve as the priority focus for the plan of care? a. "I can always trust my family." b. "It seems like I always have bad luck." c. "You never know who will turn against you." d. "I hear evil voices that tell me to do bad things."

ANS: D The statement regarding evil voices tells the nurse that the patient is experiencing auditory hallucinations and may create risks for violence. The other statements are vague and do not clearly identify the patient's chief symptom.

A patient says to the nurse, "I dreamed I was stoned. When I woke up, I felt emotionally drained, as though I hadn't rested well." Which response should the nurse use to clarify the patient's comment? a. "It sounds as though you were uncomfortable with the content of your dream." b. "I understand what you're saying. Bad dreams leave me feeling tired, too." c. "So you feel as though you did not get enough quality sleep last night?" d. "Can you give me an example of what you mean by 'stoned'?"

ANS: D The technique of clarification is therapeutic and helps the nurse examine the meaning of the patient's statement. Asking for a definition of "stoned" directly asks for clarification. Restating that the patient is uncomfortable with the dream's content is parroting, a non-therapeutic technique. The other responses fail to clarify the meaning of the patient's comment.

Which remark by a patient indicates passage from orientation to the working phase of a nurse-patient relationship? a. "I don't have any problems." b. "It is so difficult for me to talk about problems." c. "I don't know how it will help to talk to you about my problems." d. "I want to find a way to deal with my anger without becoming violent."

ANS: D Thinking about a more constructive approach to dealing with anger indicates a readiness to make a behavioral change. Behavioral change is associated with the working phase of the relationship. Denial is often seen in the orientation phase. It is common early in the relationship, before rapport and trust are firmly established, for a patient to express difficulty in talking about problems. Stating skepticism about the effectiveness of the nurse-patient relationship is more typically a reaction during the orientation phase.

During an interview, a patient attempts to shift the focus from self to the nurse by asking personal questions. The nurse should respond by saying: a. "Why do you keep asking about me?" b. "Nurses direct the interviews with patients." c. "Do not ask questions about my personal life." d. "The time we spend together is to discuss your concerns."

ANS: D When a patient tries to focus on the nurse, the nurse should refocus the discussion back onto the patient. Telling the patient that interview time should be used to discuss patient concerns refocuses discussion in a neutral way. Telling patients not to ask about the nurse's personal life shows indignation. Saying that nurses prefer to direct the interview reflects superiority. "Why" questions are probing and non-therapeutic.

8. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "I eat skiller. Tend to end. Easter. It blows away. Get it?" Select the nurse's best response. a. "Nothing you are saying is clear." b. "Your thoughts are very disconnected." c. "Try to organize your thoughts and then tell me again." d. "I am having difficulty understanding what you are saying."

ANS: D When a patient's speech is loosely associated, confused, and disorganized, pretending to understand is useless. The nurse should tell the patient that he or she is having difficulty understanding what the patient is saying. If a theme is discernible, ask the patient to talk about the theme. The incorrect options tend to place blame for the poor communication with the patient. The correct response places the difficulty with the nurse rather than being accusatory. See relationship to audience response question. REF: Page 205 | Page 213-214 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation

A nurse is talking with a patient, and 5 minutes remain in the session. The patient has been silent most of the session. Another patient comes to the door of the room, interrupts, and says to the nurse, "I really need to talk to you." The nurse should: a. invite the interrupting patient to join in the session with the current patient. b. say to the interrupting patient, "I am not available to talk with you at the present time." c. end the unproductive session with the current patient and spend time with the interrupting patient. d. tell the interrupting patient, "This session is 5 more minutes; then I will talk with you."

ANS: D When a specific duration for sessions has been set, the nurse must adhere to the schedule. Leaving the first patient would be equivalent to abandonment and would destroy any trust the patient had in the nurse. Adhering to the contract demonstrates that the nurse can be trusted and that the patient and the sessions are important. The incorrect responses preserve the nurse-patient relationship with the silent patient but may seem abrupt to the interrupting patient, abandon the silent patient, or fail to observe the contract with the silent patient.

14. Withdrawn patients diagnosed with schizophrenia: a. are usually violent toward caregivers. b. universally fear sexual involvement with therapists. c. exhibit a high degree of hostility as evidenced by rejecting behavior. d. avoid relationships because they become anxious with emotional closeness.

ANS: D When an individual is suspicious and distrustful and perceives the world and the people in it as potentially dangerous, withdrawal into an inner world can be a defense against uncomfortable levels of anxiety. When someone attempts to establish a relationship with such a patient, the patient's anxiety rises until trust is established. There is no evidence that withdrawn patients with schizophrenia universally fear sexual involvement with therapists. In most cases, it is untrue that withdrawn patients with schizophrenia are commonly violent or exhibit a high degree of hostility by demonstrating rejecting behavior. REF: Page 211 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation

At what point in an assessment interview would a nurse ask, "How does your faith help you in stressful situations?" During the assessment of: a. childhood growth and development b. substance use and abuse c. educational background d. coping strategies

ANS: D When discussing coping strategies, the nurse might ask what the patient does when upset, what usually relieves stress, and to whom the patient goes to talk about problems. The question regarding whether the patient's faith helps deal with stress fits well here. It would be out of place if introduced during exploration of the other topics.

A nurse assesses an older adult patient brought to the emergency department by a family member. The patient was wandering outside saying, "I can't find my way home." The patient is confused and unable to answer questions. Select the nurse's best action. a. Record the patient's answers to questions on the nursing assessment form. b. Ask an advanced practice nurse to perform the assessment interview. c. Call for a mental health advocate to maintain the patient's rights. d. Obtain important information from the family member.

ANS: D When the patient (primary source) is unable to provide information, secondary sources should be used, in this case, the family member. Later, more data may be obtained from other information sources familiar with the patient. An advanced practice nurse is not needed for this assessment; it is within the scope of practice of the staff nurse. Calling a mental health advocate is unnecessary. See relationship to audience response question.

The nurse records this entry in a patient's progress notes: Patient escorted to unit by ER nurse at 2130. Patient's clothing was dirty. In interview room, patient sat with hands over face, sobbing softly. Did not acknowledge nurse or reply to questions. After several minutes, abruptly arose, ran to window, and pounded. Shouted repeatedly, "Let me out of here." Verbal intervention unsuccessful. Order for stat dose 2 mg haloperidol PO obtained; medication administered at 2150. By 2215, patient stopped shouting and returned to sit wordlessly in chair. Patient placed on one-to-one observation. How should this documentation be evaluated? a. Uses unapproved abbreviations b. Contains subjective material c. Too brief to be of value d. Excessively wordy e. Meets standards

ANS: E This narrative note describes patient appearance, behavior, and conversation. It mentions that less-restrictive measures were attempted before administering medication and documents patient response to medication. This note would probably meet standards. A complete nursing assessment would be in order as soon as the patient is able to participate. Subjective material is absent from the note. Abbreviations are acceptable.

The spouse of a patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder asks what evidence supports the possibility of genetic transmission of bipolar disorders. Which response should the nurse provide? a. "A high proportion of patients with bipolar disorders are found among creative writers." b. "A higher rate of relatives with bipolar disorder is found among patients with bipolar disorder." c. "Patients with bipolar disorder have higher rates of relatives who respond in an exaggerated way to daily stress." d. "More individuals with bipolar disorder come from high socioeconomic and educational backgrounds.

B. "A higher rate of relatives with bipolar disorder is found among patients with bipolar disorder."

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder is in the maintenance phase of treatment. The patient asks, "Do I have to keep taking this lithium even though my mood is stable now?" Select the nurse's appropriate response. a. "You will be able to stop the medication in about 1 month." b. "Taking the medication every day helps reduce the risk of a relapse." c. "Usually patients take medication for approximately 6 months after discharge." d. "It's unusual that the health care provider hasn't already stopped your medication."

B. "Taking the medication every day helps reduce the risk of a relapse."

A patient demonstrating characteristics of acute mania relapsed after discontinuing lithium. New orders are written to resume lithium twice daily and begin olanzapine (Zyprexa). What is the rationale for the addition of olanzapine to the medication regimen? It will: a. minimize the side effects of lithium. b. bring hyperactivity under rapid control. c. enhance the antimanic actions of lithium. d. be used for long-term control of hyperactivity.

B. bring hyperactivity under rapid control

A patient experiencing acute mania is dancing atop a pool table in the recreation room. The patient waves a cue in one hand and says, "I'll throw the pool balls if anyone comes near me." To best assure safety, the nurse's first intervention is to: a. tell the patient, "You need to be secluded." b. clear the room of all other patients. c. help the patient down from the table. d. assemble a show of force.

B. clear the room of all other patients

Outcome identification for the treatment plan of a patient experiencing grandiose thinking associated with acute mania will focus on: a. developing an optimistic outlook b. distorted thought self-control c. interest in the environment d. sleep pattern stabilization

B. distorted thought self- control

Which nursing diagnosis would most likely apply to both a patient diagnosed with major depression as well as one experiencing acute mania? a. deficient diversional activity b. disturbed sleep pattern c. fluid volume excess d. defensive coping

B. disturbed sleep pattern

This nursing diagnosis applies to a patient with acute mania: Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to insufficient caloric intake and hyperactivity as evidenced by 5-pound weight loss in 4 days.Select an appropriate outcome. The patient will: a. ask staff for assistance with feeding within 4 days. b. drink six servings of a high-calorie, high-protein drink each day. c. consistently sit with others for at least 30 minutes at meal time within 1 week. d. consistently wear appropriate attire for age and sex within 1 week while on the psychiatric unit.

B. drink six servings of a high-calorie, high-protein drink each day

An outpatient diagnosed with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. The patient telephones the nurse to say, "I've had severe diarrhea for 4 days. I feel very weak and unsteady when I walk. My usual hand tremor has gotten worse. What should I do?" The nurse will advise the patient to: a. restrict food and fluids for 24 hours and stay in bed. b. have someone bring the patient to the clinic immediately. c. drink a large glass of water with 1 teaspoon of salt added. d. take one dose of an over-the-counter antidiarrheal medication now.

B. have someone bring the patient to the clinic immediately

A patient demonstrating behaviors associated with acute mania has exhausted the staff by noon. Staff members are feeling defensive and fatigued. Which action will the staff take initially? a. Confer with the health care provider to consider use of seclusion for this patient. b. Hold a staff meeting to discuss consistency and limit-setting approaches. c. Conduct a meeting with all staff and patients to discuss the behavior. d. Explain to the patient that the behavior is unacceptable.

B. hold a staff meeting to discuss consistency and limit-setting approaches

A patient diagnosed with major depression received six electroconvulsive therapy sessions and aggressive doses of antidepressant medication. The patient owns a small business and was counseled not to make major decisions for a month. Select the correct rationale for this counseling. a. Antidepressant medications alter catecholamine levels, which impairs decision-making abilities. b. Antidepressant medications may cause confusion related to limitation of tyramine in the diet. c. Temporary memory impairments and confusion may occur with electroconvulsive therapy. d. The patient needs time to readjust to a pressured work schedule.

C Recent memory impairment and/or confusion is often present during and for a short time after electroconvulsive therapy. An inappropriate business decision might be made because of forgotten important details. The rationales are untrue statements in the incorrect responses. The patient needing time to reorient to a pressured work schedule is less relevant than the correct rationale.

A patient diagnosed with depression begins selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant therapy. The nurse should provide information to the patient and family about: a. restricting sodium intake to 1 gram daily. b. minimizing exposure to bright sunlight. c. reporting increased suicidal thoughts. d. maintaining a tyramine-free diet.

C Some evidence indicates that suicidal ideation may worsen at the beginning of antidepressant therapy; thus, close monitoring is necessary. Avoiding exposure to bright sunlight and restricting sodium intake are unnecessary. Tyramine restriction is associated with monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) therapy.

A patient being treated for depression has taken 300 mg amitriptyline (Elavil) daily for a year. The patient calls the case manager at the clinic and says, "I stopped taking my antidepressant 2 days ago. Now I am having cold sweats, nausea, a rapid heartbeat, and nightmares." The nurse will advise the patient to: a. "Go to the nearest emergency department immediately." b. "Do not to be alarmed. Take two aspirin and drink plenty of fluids." c."Take a dose of your antidepressant now and come to the clinic to see the health care provider." d. "Resume taking your antidepressants for 2 more weeks and then discontinue them again."

C The patient has symptoms associated with abrupt withdrawal of the tricyclic antidepressant. Taking a dose of the drug will ameliorate the symptoms. Seeing the health care provider will allow the patient to discuss the advisability of going off the medication and to be given a gradual withdrawal schedule if discontinuation is the decision. This situation is not a medical emergency, although it calls for medical advice. Resuming taking the antidepressant for 2 more weeks and then discontinuing again would produce the same symptoms the patient is experiencing.

Major depression resulted after a patient's employment was terminated. The patient now says to the nurse, "I'm not worth the time you spend with me. I am the most useless person in the world." Which nursing diagnosis applies? a. Powerlessness b. Defensive coping c. Situational low self-esteem d. Disturbed personal identity

C The patient's statements express feelings of worthlessness and most clearly relate to the nursing diagnosis of situational low self-esteem. Insufficient information exists to lead to other diagnoses.

The admission note indicates a patient diagnosed with major depression has anergia and anhedonia. For which measures should the nurse plan? Select all that apply. a. Channeling excessive energy b. Reducing guilty ruminations c. Instilling a sense of hopefulness d. Assisting with self-care activities e. Accommodating psychomotor retardation

C, D, E Anergia refers to a lack of energy. Anhedonia refers to the inability to find pleasure or meaning in life; thus, planning should include measures to accommodate psychomotor retardation, assist with activities of daily living, and instill hopefulness. Anergia is lack of energy, not excessive energy. Anhedonia does not necessarily imply the presence of guilty ruminations.

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder has rapidly changing mood cycles. The health care provider prescribes an anticonvulsant medication. To prepare teaching materials, which drug should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed? a. phenytoin (Dilantin) b. clonidine (Catapres) c. risperdone (Risperdal) d. carbamazepine (Tegretol)

D. carbamazepine (Tegretol)

A nurse provided medication education for a patient diagnosed with major depression who began a new prescription for phenelzine (Nardil). Which behavior indicates effective learning? The patient: a. monitors sodium intake and weight daily. b. wears support stockings and elevates the legs when sitting. c. can identify foods with high selenium content that should be avoided. d. confers with a pharmacist when selecting over-the-counter medications.

D Over-the-counter medicines may contain vasopressor agents or tyramine, a substance that must be avoided when the patient takes MAOI antidepressants. Medications for colds, allergies, or congestion or any preparation that contains ephedrine or phenylpropanolamine may precipitate a hypertensive crisis. MAOI antidepressant therapy is unrelated to the need for sodium limitation, support stockings, or leg elevation. MAOIs interact with tyramine-containing foods, not selenium, to produce dangerously high blood pressure.

A patient became severely depressed when the last of the family's six children moved out of the home 4 months ago. The patient repeatedly says, "No one cares about me. I'm not worth anything." Which response by the nurse would be the most helpful? a."Things will look brighter soon. Everyone feels down once in a while." b."Our staff members care about you and want to try to help you get better." c."It is difficult for others to care about you when you repeatedly say the same negative things." d."I'll sit with you for 10 minutes now and 10 minutes after lunch to help you feel that I care about you."

D Spending time with the patient at intervals throughout the day shows acceptance by the nurse and will help the patient establish a relationship with the nurse. The therapeutic technique is "offering self." Setting definite times for the therapeutic contacts and keeping the appointments show predictability on the part of the nurse, an element that fosters trust building. The incorrect responses would be difficult for a person with profound depression to believe, provide false reassurance, and are counterproductive. The patient is unable to say positive things at this point.

A disheveled patient with severe depression and psychomotor retardation has not showered for several days. The nurse will: a. bring up the issue at the community meeting. b. calmly tell the patient, "You must bathe daily." c. avoid forcing the issue in order to minimize stress. d. firmly and neutrally assist the patient with showering.

D When patients are unable to perform self-care activities, staff must assist them rather than ignore the issue. Better grooming increases self-esteem. Calmly telling the patient to bathe daily and bringing up the issue at a community meeting are punitive.

A patient with diagnosed bipolar disorder was hospitalized 7 days ago and has been taking lithium 600 mg tid. Staff observes increased agitation, pressured speech, poor personal hygiene, and hyperactivity. Which action demonstrates that the nurse understands the most likely cause of the patient's behavior? a. Educate the patient about the proper ways to perform personal hygiene and coordinate clothing. b. Continue to monitor and document the patient's speech patterns and motor activity. c. Ask the health care provider to prescribe an increased dose and frequency of lithium. d. Consider the need to check the lithium level. The patient may not be swallowing medications.

D. consider the need to check the lithium level. The patient may not be swallowing medications.

A patient with acute mania has disrobed in the hall three times in 2 hours. The nurse should: a. direct the patient to wear clothes at all times. b. ask if the patient finds clothes bothersome. c. tell the patient that others feel embarrassed. d. arrange for one-on-one supervision.

D. arrange for one-on-one supervision