Chapter 9 Quiz
Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should: A) remove all bystanders. B) request another ambulance. C) move the patient to safety D) ensure that you are safe.
.D) ensure that you are safe.
A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: 10 14 12 13
13
Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? A) "What seems to be the matter?" B) "When did the chest pain begin?" C) "Are you having trouble breathing?" D) "Do you have a history of diabetes?"
A) "What seems to be the matter?"
During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least ________ times. A. 2 B.3 C.6 D.4
A. 2
Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms? A. a 61 y/o female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis B. a 55 y/o male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea C. a 44 y/o male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness D. a 49 y/o female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears
A. a 61 y/o female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis
Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: A. alleviate the pain B. initiate the pain C. change the pain D. worsen the pain
A. alleviate the pain
You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she: A. as bradycardia and diminished muscle tone B. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward C. has an increased heart rate and retractions D. is restless and is working hard to breathe
A. as bradycardia and diminished muscle tone
Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs: A. auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope B. evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis C. looking for the presence of accessory muscle use D. applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO2
A. auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope
When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to: A. become smaller B. dilate C. become larger D. not react
A. become smaller
During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions: A. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact B. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding C. before you load the patient into the ambulance D. immediately after completion of your primary assessment
A. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact
Which of the following assessments would be the MOST useful in determining the possible cause of a patient's altered mental status? A. blood glucose level B. respiratory rate C. blood pressure D. capillary refill time
A. blood glucose level
When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should: A. count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading B. count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by 2 C. count the pulse rate for atleast 30 seconds to ensure accuracy D. count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by 4
A. count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading
If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient, you should: A. immediately begin CPR B. assess for adequate breathing C. apply an AED at once D. palpate at another pulse site
A. immediately begin CPR
Which of the following statements regarding stridor is correct? A. it is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound B. it is caused by incorrect airway positioning C. it is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway D. it suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs
A. it is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound
In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the: A. lips or oral mucosa B. forehead and face C. dorsum of the hand D. back of the neck
A. lips or oral mucosa
The goal of the sytematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to: A. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment B. definitively rule out significant internal injuries C. assess only the parts of the body that are injured D. detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries
A. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment
Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall? A. only one section of the chest rises on inspiration, while another area falls B.a marked decrease in chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing C.one side of the chest wall moves opposite the direction of the other D. multiple rib fractures that cause a marked deformity of the chest wall
A. only one section of the chest rises on inspiration, while another area falls
An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? A. opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain B. opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion C. eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension D. opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain
A. opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: A. radiating B. referred C. provoking D. palliating.
A. radiating
When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by: A. repeating statements back to him or her B. interrupting hi or her as needed for clarification C. using medical terminology whenever possible D. maintaining constant eye contact with him or her
A. repeating statements back to him or her
You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: A. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible B. perform CPR and transport the patient immediately C. notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance D. ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease
A. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible
Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions? A. systematic head-to-toe examination B. focused secondary assessment C. assessment of oxygen saturation D. noninvasive blood pressure monitoring
A. systematic head-to-toe examination
Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? A. the MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries B. a significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability C. the exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI D. a non significant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma
A. the MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries
The Golden Hour begins when an injury occurs and ends when: A. the patient receives definitive care B. you depart the scene for the hospital C. the patient is admitted to the ICU D. you arrive at the emergency dept
A. the patient receives definitive care
When a patient's respirations are shallow: A. tidal volume is markedly reduced B. oxygenation occurs more efficiently C. carbon dioxide elimination is increased D. chest rise will be easily noticeable
A. tidal volume is markedly reduced
Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient's pulse rate to be slower than normal? A) Anxiety or severe stress B) Beta-blocker medications C) Internal bleeding from trauma D) Lack of a regular exercise routine
B) Beta-blocker medications
When performing the secondary assessment on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle sign. This is defined as: A) unequal pupils. B) bruising behind the ear. C) swelling to the orbital area. D) fluid drainage from the nose.
B) bruising behind the ear.
Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct? A. BP falls early in patients with hypoperfusion B. BP is usually not measured n children younger than 3 yrs C. the systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation D. BP is the most reliable indicator of perfusion
B. BP is usually not measured n children younger than 3 yrs
Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after: A. the number of patients is known B. all the patients have been triaged C. area hospitals have been notified D. a physician arrives at the scene
B. all the patients have been triaged
When you inspect a patient's pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by: A. enlarging B. constricting C. dilating D. fluttering
B. cosntricting
Which of the following questions would you ask to a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history? A. how long have you had your chest pain B. how much tylenol do you take each day C. when was the last time you ate a meal D. have you ever had any major surgeries
B. how much tylenol do you take each day
After performing a primary assessment, a rapid scan of the body should be performed in order to: A. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion. B. identify less obvious injuries that require immediate transport. C. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. D. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.
B. identify less obvious injuries that require immediate transport.
Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in obvious distress. Your first action should be to: A. obtain a set of baseline vital signs B. introduce yourself to the patient C. ask the patient what's wrong D. assess the patient's airway status
B. introduce yourself to the patient
With regard to the assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in: A. patients who are older than 70 years of age B. patients who are younger than 6 years of age. C. patients who were exposed to cold temperatures D. patients who are significantly hypotensive.
B. patients who are younger than 6 years of age.
Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: A. flushed, cool and dry B. pink, warm and dry C. pink, warm and moist D. pale, cool and moist
B. pink, warm and dry
Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse? A. use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating B. place the tips pf your index and long fingers over the pulse point C. avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure D. apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers
B. place the tips pf your index and long fingers over the pulse point
A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to e: A. completely unresponsive B. responsive to painful stimuli C. responsive to verbal stimuli D. conscious and alert
B. responsive to painful stimuli
A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called:Select one: A. Korotkoff sounds. B. subcutaneous emphysema C. crepitus D. rhonchi.
B. subcutaneous emphysema
When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the: A. diastolic blood pressure B. systolic blood pressure C. pulse pressure D. cardiac output pressure
B. systolic blood pressure
While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: A. atria contracting B. ventricles relaxing C. ventricles contracting D. atria relaxing
B. ventricles relaxing
When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the patient to: A. note any changes in temperature B. wiggle his or her toes on command C. feel you touching the extremity D. identify different types of stimuli
B. wiggle his or her toes on command
For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between: A 50 and 60 beats/min B 70 ans 110 beats/min C 60 and 100 beats/min D 50 and 70 beats/min
C 60 and 100 beats/min
When you assess capillary refill time (CRT) in an infant, normal color to the tested area should return within: A. 1 second B. 3 seconds C. 2 seconds D. 4 seconds
C. 2 seconds
Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in toddlers and _______ breaths per minute in infants.Select one: A. 20, 30 B. 18, 28 C. 40, 60 D. 30, 40
C. 40, 60
Which of the following patient responses would establish the "E" in the SAMPLE history? A. I was in the hospital a week ago B. the chest pain started 45 minutes ago C. I was mowing the lawn when the pain began D. I am not having any difficulty breathing
C. I was mowing the lawn when the pain began
An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. You assess her level of consciousness as unresponsive using the AVPU scale. Your initial care should focus on: A. obtaining baseline vital signs B. gathering medical history data C. airway, breathing and circulation D. providing immediate transport
C. airway, breathing and circulation
Capnography is used to: A. assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin B. assess how much oxygen is reaching the body's tissues C. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled. D. trend a patient's blood pressure and asses for shock
C. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.
A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a:Select one: A. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading. B. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading. C. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading. D. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading.
C. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.
A decrease in blood pressure may indicate: A. arterial constriction B. increased blood volume C. loss of vascular tone D. forceful cardiac contraction
C. loss of vascular tone
As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: A. look in the ears for gross bleeding B. assess the rest of the body for bleeding C. maintain stabilization of the head D. prepare the immobilization equipment.
C. maintain stabilization of the head
The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the: A. most life threatening condition that you discover B. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment C. most serious thing the patient is concerned about D. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem
C. most serious thing the patient is concerned about
You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to: A. assess his blood pressure B. apply a pulse oximeter C. provide assisted ventilation D. request a paramedic unit
C. provide assisted ventilation
Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following except: A. gasping attempts to breath B. use of accessory muscles C. shallow chest movement D. superclavicular retractions
C. shallow chest movement
You should gently palpate a patient's pelvis only if:Select one: A. you note gross deformity to the pelvic area. B. the possibility of a pelvic fracture has been ruled out. C. the patient does not complain of pelvic pain. D. the MOI suggests significant trauma to the pelvis.
C. the patient does not complain of pelvic pain.
A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover:Select one: A. one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow B. one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow C. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow D. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow.
C. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow
In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min A. 50, 110 B. 30, 130 C. 40, 120 D. 60, 100
D. 60, 100
In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified? A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse. B. A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times. C. A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts every time she takes a deep breath. D. A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.
D. A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.
A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: A.. elevate his legs and keep him warm B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen C. ensure that his airway is patent D. apply direct pressure to the wound
D. apply direct pressure to the wound
You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to: A. immediately transport the child to the hospital B. begin chest compressions and request backup C. open the airway and give 2 rescue breaths D. assess for a brachial purse for 5 to 10 seconds
D. assess for a brachial purse for 5 to 10 seconds
An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: A. have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min. B. assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing. C. exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs. D. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.
D. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.
What part of the patient assessment process focuses on obtaining additional information about the patient's chief complaint and any medical problems he or she may have? A. primary assessment B. secondary assessment C. general impression D. history taking
D. history taking
A patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. His head and chin are thrust forward. This position indicates that he: A. has abdominal muscle spasms B. has a decreased level of consciousness C. is experiencing severe back pain D. is experiencing difficulty breathing
D. is experiencing difficulty breathing
What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with trauma A. head tilt neck lift B. tongue jaw lift C. head tilt chin lift D. jaw thrust maneuver
D. jaw thrust maneuver
A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect:Select one: A. acute pancreatitis. B. renal insufficiency. C. gallbladder disease. D. liver dysfunction.
D. liver dysfunction.
The diastolic blood pressure represents the: A. average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle B. difference in pressure between ventricular contraction and relaxation C. increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction D. minimum amount of pressure that is always in the arteries
D. minimum amount of pressure that is always in the arteries
A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should: A. apply a pressure dressing to the patient's arm B. tilt the patient's head back and lift up on his chin C. apply a cervical collar and suction his airway D. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver
D. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver
A palpable pulse is created by: A. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction B. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart C. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries D. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction
D. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction
Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport? A. responsiveness and ability to follow commands B. mild pain in the lower abdomen C. decreased ability to move an extremity D. severe chest pain and cool, pale skin
D. severe chest pain and cool, pale skin
The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the : A. blood pressure B.diastolic pressure C.pulse pressure D. systolic pressure
D. systolic pressure
When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: A. document your findings and perform a detailed assessment B. conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age C. apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm D. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit
D. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit
A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: A. with shallow depth B. at a normal rate C. without difficulty D. without assistance
D. without assistance
Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear: cyanotic ashen flushed pink
ashen
When auscultating the blood pressure in a patient's upper extremity, you should place the diaphragm (head) of the stethoscope over the _________ artery. brachial radial apical femoral
brachial
When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called: cyanosis flushing pallor mottling
cyanosis
Cyanosis of the skin is caused by A. increased blood oxygen B. descreased blood oxygen C. peripheral vasodilation D. venous vasoconstriction
decreased blood oxygen
A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: flushed plethoric edematous diaphoretic
diaphoretic
A pulse with a consistent patter is considered to be: regular strong weak irregular
regular
Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? rales crackles rhonchi stridor
stridor
