Combo with "AP1" and 15 others
Exposure
Contact
Diaphragm
Dome-shaped breathing muscle that seperates the thoracic and abdominal cavities.
parietal layer
a layer of serous membrane which lines the inside of a body cavity.
visceral layer
a layer of serous membrane which lines the outside of a body organ.
epithelial membrane
a membrane made up of an epithelial tissue layer as well as an underlying connective tissue layer. Examples include cutaneous, mucous, and serous membranes.
Crest
a narrow prominent ridge.
Before entering the Krebs cycle, pyruvate is converted to
acetyl-CoA
Enzymes
act as catalysts for all biochemical reactions, increase reaction rates by lowering activation energy
thyroid functions
act on nearly every cell in the body. increase the basal metabolic rate, affect protein synthesis, help regulate long bone growth; essential to proper development ; regulate protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism
simple squamous
an epithelial tissue consisting of a single row of cells.
stratified squamous
an epithelial tissue consisting of multiple layers of squamous cells (e.g., skin).
holocrine
an exocrine gland in which entire cells and their secretions accumulate as the gland's secretory product. Discharged cells are replaced by new ones (e.g., sebaceous or oil glands).
merocrine
an exocrine gland which secretes its product from intact cells (e.g., salivary glands).
Ligaments
Tissue connecting bone to bone.
Suppress
To stop or subdue
4 sections of the colon
ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon and sigmoid flexure
Hormones
chemical messengers produced in one tissue and carried by the blood to act on other parts of the body.
Olfactory receptors:
chemical sensors in the olfactory membrane, in the nostrils
Taste buds:
chemical sensory cells located on the tongue, soft palate, and the epiglottis.
Pancreas functions:
exocrine secretes hormones into small intestine; endocrine secretes hormones into bloodstream; Insulin stimulates muscles to remove glucose from the blood when glucose levels are high (like after a meal); Islets of Langerhans secrete glucagon that respond to low levels of blood glucose
Nervous system and endocrine system
two communication systems that coordinate the activities of different tissues and organs
The urethra leads to the outside,
via the penis in the male or via the urethral opening superior to vaginal opening in the female.
What structures in the small intestine increase this organ's surface area allowing increased absorption of digested nutrients:
villi
The air passages involved in respiration consist of:
the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli.
lumen
the space within a blood vessel or hollow organ.
mesenchyme
the embryonic connective tissue from which all other connective tissue eventually arises.
Sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine
increase heart rate
The dermis is classified s a(n)
organ
The epidermis is classified as a(n):
organ
kidney
organ that produces urine
Cones
photoreceptors that respond to high-intensity illumination and color
"What is the function of the thymus?"
"Controls maturation of lymphocytes"
"The property when organisms respond to changes in their immediate environment is called:"
"Irritability"
"What are the organs of the RUQ?"
"Liver, gallbladder"
"What monitors the composition of lymph and contains cells that engulf pathogens and stimulate immune response?"
"Lymph nodes"
"Name the layer covering the opposing surface of the visceral pericardium"
"Parietal pericardium"
"What is the purpose of the skeletal system?"
"Provides support; protects tissues; stores minerals and forms blood."
"The study of physiology of specific organs is referred to as:"
"Special physiology"
"pronus"
"inclined forward; prone"
Types of Nouns
*Common Noun - general, not particular name of person, place or thing. (ex: nurse, hospital, syringe) *Proper Noun - official name of person, place or thing. (ex: Fred, Paris, Brookshire Brothers) *Abstract Noun - name of a quality or general idea. (ex: persistence, democracy) *Collective Noun - noun that represents a group of persons, animals or things. (ex: family, flock, furniture)
Indirect Object
*Is the person or thing that is indirectly affected by the action of the verb. *Sentence can have an indirect object only if it has a direct object. *Indirect object answers the question to whom, for whom, to what, for what after an action verb. *Comes between the verb and the direct object. (ex: The professor gave his class the test results.)
BE AWARE OF unclear or vague pronoun.
*Makes a sentence confusing. --> The teacher and the student knew that she she was wrong. --> WHO WAS WRONG? *Rewrite: The teacher and the student knew the student was wrong.
Which vs That
*Which is used to introduce nonessential clauses. Use commas to set off a non essential clause. --> The hospital, which flooded last july, is down the street. *That is used to introduce essential clauses. (adds something to make sentence clear) Do not use commas. --> The hospital that flooded last july is down the street.
Antecedent
*Word or group of words to which a pronoun refers. ex: The students wanted their work returned to them.
"What are the six components of the respiratory system?"
"1. Nasal cavities, paranasal cavities 2. Pharynx 3. Larynx 4. Trachea 5. Bronchi 6. Lungs"
"What are the nine organs / components of the endocrine system?"
"1. Pineal gland 2. Pituitary gland 3. Thyroid gland 4. Parathyroid glands 5. Thymus 6. Adrenal glands 7. Kidneys 8. Pancreas 9. Gonads"
"All living things perform the following basic functions:"
"1. Responsiveness 2. Growth 3. Reproduction 4. Movement 5. Metabolism"
Which of the following describes how a bacterium reproduces?
Binary fission
tRNA
Binds specific amino acids and carries them to the ribosomes during protein synthesis.
Pulmonary Circulation
Blood flow through a network of vessels between the heart and the lungs for the oxygenation of blood and the removal of carbon dioxide.
*Veins
Blood passing through capillaries is led into ________ that connect to the heart.
What does the parathyroid hormone regulate?
Calcium
What mineral is responsible for muscle contraction?
Calcium
What mineral is responsible for muscle contractions?
Calcium
Which cellular process results in the formation of sugar from carbon dioxide?
Calvin cycle
Which are correctly related:
Cardiac muscle:Involuntary action
Where are the pressoreceptors and chemoreceptors (specialized sensory nerves that assist with the regulation of circulation and respiration) located?
Carotid Body
Arteries
Carriers blood from the heart to the tissue of the body.
Veins (thin walls)
Carries blood back to the heart from the capillaries.
What is the basic unit of life and the building block of tissues and organs?
Cell
What is the fundamental unit of biology?
Cell
Direction and Location
...
Evolution
...
A woman received a bottle of perfume as a present. The bottle contains ½ oz of perfume. How many milliliters is this?
15 mL
45 minims (m) =
3 mL
Access
A means to obtain entry or a means to approach
Glucose
A simple sugar found in certain foods, especially fruits.
Cell Wall
A tough rigid structure made up of cellulose chitin
Keratin
A tough, fibrous, insoluble protein forming the primary components of skin, hair, nails, and tooth enamel.
Amino Acid
The building block of proteins.
Homeostasis
The physiologic steady state that is naturally maintained within the body.
Mucous Membrane
Thin sheets of tissue cells that line body openings or canals that open to the outside of the body.
The respiratory tract is divided into 3 segments:
Upper respiratory tract, Respiratory airways, and Lungs
The x cranial nerve is the
Vagus nerve
pericardium
a loose serous membrane enclosing the heart.
SYSTEM LEVEL
an association of organs that have a common function; there are 11 major systems in the human body, including digestive, nervous, endocrine, circulatory, respiratory, urinary, reproductive, muscular, lymphatic, skeletal, and integumentary.
simple
an epithelial tissue consisting of a single row of cells.
Electrolytes are present in the human body
and the balance of the electrolytes in our bodies is essential for normal function of our cells and our organs.
Appendicular skeleton
bones of the appendages and pectoral and pelvic girdles
ventricles
bottom two chambers of heart
What is the function of glucocorticoids that are secreted from the adrenal cortex?
carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism
What are the products to kreb cycle?
carbon dioxide, ATP, and energy carriers
There are three types of muscle present in the human body: smooth, skeletal, and:
cardiac
Trachea
carries air through the vulnerable throat protected by flexible but strong rings of cartilage.
Arteries
carry blood away from the heart (a for away)
Frontal plane
divides the body into front and rear sections. Also called the coronal plane.
Coronal Plane
divides the body into front and rear sections. Also called the frontal plane.
Midsagittal Plane
divides the body into right and left halves. Also called the median plane.
pseudostratified columnar
epithelial tissue made up of simple columnar cells whose nuclei are situated at different levels, giving the appearance of stratification (e.g. lining of trachea).
Cortisol controls rate of metabolism for
fasts, proteins and carbohydrates.
GI tract may also be divided into
foregut, midgut, and hindgut
Ventral
front side of the body, also known as anterior.
Nephron
functional unit of the kidneys known as
Skull
includes both the cranium and mandible.
What does the word 'pulmonary' mean?
lungs
Sensory neurons and motors neurons make up the
peripheral nervous system
Which of the following cell types has no nucleus
red blood cells
Chemical digestion begins in the mouth, where salivary glands produce
saliva, which lubricates food and begins starch digestion.
Aerobic respiration is divided into two processes
the Krebs cycle, and the Electron Transport Chain, which produces ATP
dermis
the connective tissue layer of skin.
Which of the following is necessary for cell diffusion
water
Homeostasis example
In humans, homeostasis happens when the body regulates body temperature in an effort to maintain an internal temperature around 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit. For example, we sweat to cool off during the hot summer days, and we shiver to produce heat during the cold winter season.
A cell is in a solution in which the concentration of the solutes is higher inside the cell than outside the cell. What would you expect to happen to the cell?
It will swell and possibly burst
Which type of cell contains no defined nucleus?
Prokaryotic cell
If you wanted to determine the probability of a genotype, which of the following would you use?
Punnett square
What is the best description for the term combination?
Putting two or more things together
Which of the followingepithelial types is correctly matchedwith its major function?
Simple columnar epithelium - secretion or absorption
Homeostasis
The ability of the body or a cell to seek and maintain a condition of equilibrium or stability within its internal environment when dealing with external changes
"What are the organs of the RLQ?"
"Appendix, bladder"
"What is the smallest stable unit of matter?"
"Atoms"
"Give an example of positive feedback"
"Blood clotting"
"What organ stores bile for release into the small intestine?"
"Gallbladder"
"How many chambers does the thoracic cavity have?"
"Three. The pericardial cavity and a pair of plueral cavities"
"What is the portion of serous membrane called that covers a visceral organ?"
"Visceral layer"
"What is differentiation?"
"When individual cells become specialized to perform particular functions."
"venter"
"belly of abdomen; ventral"
"Resistance to xray penetration is called:"
"radiodensity"
"medianus"
"situated in the middle; median"
"-stasis"
"standing; homeostasis"
"T/F: Homeostatic mechanisms using negative feedback usually ignore minor variations because they maintain a normal range rather than a fixed value."
"true"
"homeo-"
"unchanging; homeostasis"
Phrase
*A group of 2 or more words that acts as a single part of speechin a sentence. *Can be used as a noun, adjective or adverb. *Phrase lacks a subject and a predicate.
Predicate Adjective
*Follows a linking verb and helps to explain the subject. --> My professors are wonderful.
Lie vs Lay
*Lie - to recline or rest. Lie, lay, lain and lying. Forms of lie are never followed by a direct object. *Lay - to put or place. lay, laid, laying
How is mitosis different from meiosis?
Meiosis creates cells with half the chromosomes of the parent cell
* Circulatory System
The system involved in transport of nutrients to different parts of the body.
Ingest
To eat food and drink.
Dilate
To enlarge or expand
Adhere
To hold fast or stick together
Retain
To hold or keep
Expand
To increase in size or amount
Elevate
To lift up or place in a higher position
Superior
above or near the head, also known as cranial.
Cranial
above or near the head, also known as superior.
simple columnar
an epithelial tissue consisting of a single row of columnar cells (e.g., inner lining of stomach).
Cliches (cleshay?)
*Expressions or ideas that have lost their originality or impact overtime because of excessive use.
Predicate Nominative
*Noun or pronoun that follows a linking verb and helps to explain or rename the subject. --> Professors are teachers.
Compound Sentences
*Use a conjunction (and, but, or, nor) and place a comma before the conjunction. ex: ______, but_______.
Pronoun Case
*When pronoun is subject us nominative - He/She/We/I --> When compound pronoun, plug in one pronoun and see if it makes sense. *When pronoun is the object of preposition use to/of. *When pronoun replaces a positive noun use him/her.
"What removes water from fecal material and stores waste?"
"The large intestine"
"What is lymph?"
"Water and proteins"
Transverse Plane
An imaginary line dividing the body or body parts into top and bottom portions.
Sagittal
An imaginary line running from front to back that divides the body into right and left portions.
Symptom
An indication of a problem
Complication
An undesired problem that is the result of some other event
The enzyme maltase does the following:
Breaks down maltose to glucose
What does parathyroid hormone regulate?
Calcium
Pathogenic
Causing or able to disease
Abdominopelvic
Cavity Composed of the abdomen and the pelvis.
Labile
Changing rapidly and often
Occluded
Closed or obstructed
Status
Condition
Impaired
Diminished or lacking some usual quality or level
Which answer choice below is NOT part of the human skeletal system?
clavicle humorous uterer spaucla (uterer)
The cardiovascular systems of humans are
closed, meaning that the blood never leaves the network of blood vessels
Trachea
connects larynx to bronchi
Posterior pituitary gland (in brain)
direct extension of nervous tissue from hypothalamus. Nerve signals cause hormone release. Secretes two hormones: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin and oxytocin.
Initiate
To begin or put into practice
Dilute
To make a liquid less concentrated
Urinate
Excrete or expel urine
Extensor
extends or straightens the bones at a joint
Respiration
Inhalation and exhalation of air
Trauma
Injury, wound
nucleolus
an area where synths of ribosomal genes rRNA takes place
The ability of the renal system to function depends upon the presence of two hormones.
antidiuretic hormone, or ADH and aldosterone.
In which phase of cell division do the chromosome replicate
Interphase
duodenum
first section of the small intestine, responsible for the breakdown of food in the small intestine, using enzymes.
* Small Intestine
Most of nutrients in food are absorbed here.
The innate leukocytes (WBC) include:
Natural killer cells, mast cells, eosinophils, basophils; and the phagocytic cells including macrophages, neutrophils and dendritic cells, and function within the immune system by identifying and eliminating pathogens that might cause infection
Cardiac
Of or relating to the heart
Renal
Of or relating to the kidneys
Neurologic
Of or relating to the nervous system
Neurovascular
Of or relating to the nervous system and blood vessels
Therapeutic
Of or relating to the treatment of a disease or a disorder
Compensatory
Offsetting or making up for something
Tendons connect
bone to muscle
Antibody
Special proteins that protect the body from foreign substances.
In the hierarchic system of classification, which of the following is the least inclusive?
Species
Sudoriferous Glands
Sweat glands.
Muscle contractions that normally move food along the human digestive system are known as:
peristalsis
An improper balance between calcium and which substance can adversely affect the growth of healthy bone tissue?
phosphorus
What organelle is responsible for protein synthesis?
ribosome
what is the name of the organelle that organizes protein synthesis
ribosome
Physical factors such temperature and pH can alter enzyme activity because they have an effect on the enzyme's ___.
shape
Ethmoid bone
sieve-like spongy bone located in the anterior part of the floor of the cranium between the orbits. The ethmoid is the principal supporting structure of the nasal cavity.
Somatic Motor Nervous System
skeletal movement, voluntary movement, conscious control
The axial skeletal system does NOT include: skull ribs breastbone skeletal muscles
skeletal muscles
Most human digestion takes place in
small intestine
Most of the nutrients in food are absorbed in the body's
small intestine
Nasal bone
small oblong bones that meet at the middle and superior part of the face. Their fusion forms the superior part of the bridge of the nose.
parathyroid glands
small pea-like organs that regulate calcium and phosphate balance in blood, bones, and other tissues
Three types of muscle tissue in vertebrates:
smooth, skeletal and cardiac
Common electrolytes that are measured by doctors with blood testing include
sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate.
spiral shaped bacteria
spirilla
Anabolism
synthesis from simple to complex molecules
Hydrolysis
the chemical breakdown of a compound due to reactions with water
ground substance
the chemical component of the matrix of connective tissue.
matrix
the intercellular material, or "glue" of connective tissue, made up of protein fibers and ground substance.
Suture
the line formed by the junction of two bones or an immovable joint between two bones, especially of the skull [compare to epiphysis and symphysis].
Bone Marrow
the site where the formation of blood cells takes place, a hollow cavity within each long bone is filled with this
Veins
thin walled; deoxygenated; conduct blood at low pressures; no pulse; have valves to prevent backflow
Systolic pressure
top number on a blood pressure reading
What is the typical result of mitosis in humans?
two diploid cells
These are the principle filtration units of the renal system.
two kidneys located on each side of the abdomen in the lower region of the back where wastes are removed from the fluid.
Skeletal muscles
voluntary muscles that cause body movement
"What are the four components of the lymphatic system?"
"1. Lymphatic vessels 2. Lymph nodes 3. Spleen 4. Thymus"
A Worker is filling out his timesheet. He worked 8 hours, 7.5 hours, 8.75 hours, 4 hours, 8.25 hours. If he ears $14.35 per hour what will be his gross pay?
$523.775
1 Kilogram =______Grams?
1,000
1 Liter =_____ Millimeters?
1,000
1 kilometer = ____ Meters?
1,000
How many grams in a kilogram?
1,000 grams to 1 kilogram
32 oz =
1,000 mL
How many meter in a kilometer?
1,000 meter to 1 kilometer
micro
1,000,000
1 Mile = _____ Yards?
1,760
What number in Arabic Numerals is Roman Number MCMXLIV
1,944
leukocytes
All white blood cells (WBC), able to move freely and interact with and capture cellular debris, foreign particles, or invading microorganisms.
Which structure is divided into four lobes?
liver
The liver
located in the upper right-hand portion of the abdominal cavity, beneath the diaphragm and on top of the stomach, right kidney, and intestines
Central nervous system (processes and stores information)
made up of brain enclosed within the cranium and a spinal cord
Flexor
muscle that serves to bend a joint at an acute angle
Thalamus (brain)
nervous impluses and sensory information
*Nervous System
Enables organisms to receive and respond to stimuli from their external and internal environments.
Void
Excrete, or expel urine
Coronal Plane
Imaginary line passing through the body from head to feet that divides the body into front and back portions.
Triage
Process used to determine the priority of treatment for patients according to the severity of a patient's condition and likelihood of benefit from the treatment
Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. His _metabolism_ could not tolerate the new medication.
Processing Reactions
Exogenous
Produced outside the body
Endogenous
Produced within the body
Potent
Producing a strong effect
Bile
Product of the liver that emulsifies fat.
cutaneous membrane
the membrane which covers the outer surface of the body (the skin).
Segments of a polypeptide chain can coil or fold as a result of hydrogen bonds, adding to a protein's structural conformation. What is this structure called?
Secondary structure
In men, spermatozoa develop within the _______ of each testis.
Seminiferous tubules
Proximal
closer to the point of attachment
You have been given a sample of tissue that has pillar-shaped cells arranged tightly together. The tissue you have is:
columnar epithelium
Blood enters the lungs from which chamber of the heart?
right ventricle
"What organ system eliminates excess water
salts, and waste products?","The urinary system"
"bios"
"life; biology"
"paries"
"wall; parietal"
During which phase is the chromosome number reduced from diploid to haploid
Meiosis I
Subject-Verb Agreement
*Singular subject - singular verb *Plural subject - plural verb *When the subject and verb are separated, find them and make sure they agree. *When the subject is a collective noun acting as a single entity it is a singular verb. If acting seperately it is a plural verb. *When the subject is a compound subject connected by and, it is plural (plural verb). If connected by or/either, neither/nor, not only/but it is a singular verb. When it is connected by the above and subject consists of singular and plural words, choose verb that agrees with subject closest to verb.
Participle
*Type of verb that functions as an adjective usually ending in -ing or -ed.
1 is to 5 as 2 is to __
...
Bone Morphology
...
Bones of the Skull
...
Cell Structure & Function
...
Components of a cell
...
1 Pint =______ Cups?
2
1 Quart =______ Pints?
2
30 mL =
2 Tbsp
1 oz =
30mL
What is the best description for the word laceration?
A deep, ragged tear
Deficit
A deficiency or lack of something
What is necessary for active transport through a membrane to take place?
ATP
Audible
Able to be heard
Preexisting
Already present
Hardening of the arteries is known as
Atherioscierosis
Paroxsymal
Beginning suddenly or abruptly;convulsive
Symmetric
Being equal or the same in size, shape, and relative position
Concise
Brief, to the point
Parasympahtetic nervous system
associated with rest-and-digest response; lowers heart rate; no affect on breathing rate; increases digestive rate; doesn't cause pupil dilation
Potential
Capable of occurring or likely to occur
Which of the following is the blood vessel where exchanges take place between blood and the cells of the body?
Capillary
Venous refers to which part of the body system?
Circulation
Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. His skin was unevenly _pigmented_ by the disease.
Colored
Cease
Come to an end or bring to an end
Which of the following shows how information is transformed to make a protein?
DNA-RNA-protein
Consistency
Degree of viscosity, how thick or thin a fluid is
Contingent
Dependent
Lungs
Designed to move air between the exterior atmosphere and an interior air space that is in close contact with capillaries.
Discrete
Distinct, seperate
Comply
Do as directed
Phagocytosis
Engulfing of materials by certain cells of the body.
Which hormone initiates the preparation of the endometrium of the uterus for pregnancy?
Estrogen
Defecate
Expel feces
Distal
Farther from the point of attachment
What is the name for the small, tail-like projection from the cellular membrane that is used for locomotion?
Flagella
Select the word or phrase that will make the sentence grammatically correct. The patient asked the doctor to help him complete the ___ needed to approve the surgery.
Form
Bone functions
Formation of blood cells, protection of vital organs and framework for movement.
How do RNA and DNA derive their names?
From the sugar each contains
Oral
Given through or affecting the mouth
Syndrome
Group of symptoms that, when occurring together, reflect a specific disease or disorder
Cast
Hard protective device applied to protect a broken bone while the bone heals
* Red Blood Cells
Have no nucleus.
Carbohydrates
Include starches and sugars
What is the correct electron configuration for neon?
Is22s22p6
What is the ground state electron configuration for zinc?
Is22s22s63s23p64s23d10
What is the phloem tissue in plant stems?
It conducts the energy of light to leaves
*Ventricles
Larger more muscular chambers that pump blood through the body.
Tough elastic tissues found in the joints that connect bones are called
Ligaments
Impending
Likely to occur soon
Flaccid
Limp, Lacking tone
Beeswax is an example of what kind of molecule
Lipid
Synovial Membranes
Loose, connective tissue that lines the joint cavity.
Which of the following bones is the only moveable bone of the skull?
Mandible
In a cell, reactions take place in a series of steps called:
Metabolic pathways
Which of the following are the distinct organelles that produce cell energy?
Mitochondrion and chloroplast
Why is it important for cells to undergo mitosis?
Mitosis produces cells for growth and repair of body tissue
Cerebellum
Motor Coordination
Upper motor neurons originate in which area of the body?
Motor area of the cerebral hemispheres
* Cerebellum
Motor coordination
Which are the functional units of the kidney?
Nephrons
enables organs to receive and respond to stimuli from external and internal environments.
Nervous system
Select the word or phrase that makes this sentence grammatically correct. She has lived in Texas ____ she was a child.
Since
Which of the biologic molecules are components of the molecules of inheritance?
Nucleic acids
Organelles
Nucleus, Golgi Apparatus, Lysosome
Which structure is the primary "control center" for cellular activities?
Nucleus.
Overt
Obvious, easily observed
Priority
Of great importance
Patent
Open
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
Organelle of the muscle fiber that stores calcium.
Redox reactions are those that occur with a transfer of electrons. What would cause an increase in the oxidation number?
Oxidation
Insulin is created in the body's
Pancreas
What kind of symbiosis exists between a pneumonia bacterium and a human
Parasitism
Because genetics is the study of heredity, many human disorders can be determined by studying a person's chromosomes or by creating which of the following?
Pedigree
What process is responsible for actively transporting small particles across the cell membrane?
Pinocytosis
Hypothalamus
Portion of the brain that regulates body temperature, sleep and appetite.
Pathology
Processes, causes, and effects of a disease; abnormality
Cell Nucleus
RNA and DNA synthesis occurs here.
Vasodilation and vasoconstriction result from which of the following?
Relaxation and contraction of smooth muscle in the arterial wall
Fatal
Resulting in death
What are the two categories of fatty acids?
Saturated fats and unsaturated fats
Gender
Sex of an individual, as in Male or Female
What is the best description for the word contraction?
Spasm
What does an enzyme do?
Speeds up chemical reaction
Select the word or phrase that will make the sentence grammatically correct. The nurse has a _____ to the Journal of nursing Education.
Subscription
* Alveoli
The absorption of oxygen from the atmosphere into the blood.
Keratinized Epithelium
The dead cells of the epidermis.
Diameter
The distance across the center of an object
Zygote
The fertilized egg, from the time it is fertilized until it is implanted in the uterus.
Plasma
The liquid portion of blood.
Muscular System
The human muscular system comprises of more than 600 muscles. Read more about them here. The human muscular system is made up of over 600 muscles, which act in groups. Muscles, in turn, are made up of fibers and cells. Muscles are what enable you to do just about everything - from walking to lifting heavy objects to helping to pump blood throughout the body. Muscles are distinguished as either involuntary or voluntary. Involuntary muscles function within the body automatically, without you being able to control them. Voluntary muscles are the ones that are under your control. All muscles are made up of the same type of material - a kind of an elastic tissue, akin to what rubber bands are made of. Each muscle is made up of thousands of tiny fibers. There are three kinds of muscles in the human muscular system: the skeletal muscle; the cardiac muscle; and the smooth muscle. Plus, the facial muscles and the tongue are a unique kind by themselves. The Skeletal Muscles: These are the voluntary type of muscles in the human muscular system. This means that they can be controlled by you. For example, you cannot pick up that mug of coffee with your hand unless you want your hand to do so. They are referred sometimes as striated muscles, because the dark and light fibrous material make them seem striped. These are also known as the musculoskeletal system, or the combination of the muscles and the bones that make up the skeleton. Generally, skeletal muscles are attached to the ends of bones, stretching all across the joint and then attached once more to another bone. Tendons, which are cords or bands of inelastic tissue, are what attach the muscles to the bones. Skeletal muscles are of different shapes and sizes, which enable them to perform a variety of tasks. The gluteus maximus, or the muscle that occurs in the buttocks, is the largest skeletal muscle in the human muscular system. Some of the other major skeletal muscles are the deltoid muscle in the shoulders, the biceps and triceps in the arm, the pectoralis in the chest, the rectus abdominus in the abdomen, the quadriceps and the hamstring muscles in the legs. The Cardiac Muscle: The heart is made up of the cardiac muscle, which is also referred to as the myocardium. These muscles are thick and contract in order to pump out the blood and then relax in order to allow more blood in. The cardiac muscle is an involuntary muscle, or the type that works without your volition. Special type of cells in the cardiac muscle, called the pacemaker, help in controlling the heartbeat. The Smooth Muscles: These are the involuntary muscles of the human muscular system, and they generally occur in layers or sheets, with one muscle layer behind another. These muscles are not under your control. The brain and the body control these muscles in performing their functions without any conscious volition from your part. Some of the examples of smooth muscles are the stomach and the digestive system, which contract and relax in order to pass food through the alimentary canal of the body. The bladder is another example of smooth muscle, and so is the uterus in women. Smooth muscles also occur in the eyes, which help to keep the eyes focused. According to scientists, the eyes can move over 100,000 times in a day, making them the busiest muscles in the human muscular system. The Facial Muscles: There are more than 30 muscles in the face. Not all of the facial muscles are attached to bones, as is the case in the other parts of the body. Many of the facial muscles are attached to the underside of facial skin. The contractions of these muscles are what give the face its various expressions, such as frowning, laughter, surprise, sadness and so on. The Tongue: And another unique muscle is the tongue, which is free at one end and only attached on the other end. The tongue actually comprises of a group of muscles, which work in unison, enabling you to chew and swallow food, and talk.
Colon
The main function of colon is to absorb water, but it also contains bacteria that produce beneficial vitamins like Vitamin K.
Digestion
The mechanical and chemical breakdown of food.
What is the best description for the word triage?
The order in which patients are to be treated
How many milligrams are in 34 grams?
There are 1,000 milligrams in a gram, so 34X1,000=34,000 milligrams
* Proteins (chemical digestion)
They are broken down into amino acids.
*Polysaccharides (chemical digestion)
They are broken down into glucose.
Recur
To occur again
Apply
To place, put on, or spread something
Identical twins
Twins from a single egg.
Sublingual
Under the tongue
Atria
Upper chambers of the heart.
The respiratory tract is a common site for infections.
Upper respiratory tract infections are probably the most common infections in the world.
Deteriorating
Worsening
Why is yeast used to make bread rise?
Yeast carries out fermentation, producing ethanol and carbon dioxide
Urinary System:
Your body takes nutrients from food and uses them to maintain all bodily functions including energy and self-repair. After your body has taken what it needs from the food, waste products are left behind in the blood and in the bowel. The urinary system works with the lungs, skin, and intestines—all of which also excrete wastes—to keep the chemicals and water in your body balanced. Adults eliminate about a quart and a half of urine each day. The amount depends on many factors, especially the amounts of fluid and food a person consumes and how much fluid is lost through sweat and breathing. Certain types of medications can also affect the amount of urine eliminated. The urinary system removes a type of waste called urea from your blood. Urea is produced when foods containing protein, such as meat, poultry, and certain vegetables, are broken down in the body. Urea is carried in the bloodstream to the kidneys. The kidneys are bean-shaped organs about the size of your fists. They are near the middle of the back, just below the rib cage. The kidneys remove urea from the blood through tiny filtering units called nephrons. Each nephron consists of a ball formed of small blood capillaries, called a glomerulus, and a small tube called a renal tubule. Urea, together with water and other waste substances, forms the urine as it passes through the nephrons and down the renal tubules of the kidney. From the kidneys, urine travels down two thin tubes called ureters to the bladder. The ureters are about 8 to 10 inches long. Muscles in the ureter walls constantly tighten and relax to force urine downward away from the kidneys. If urine is allowed to stand still, or back up, a kidney infection can develop. Small amounts of urine are emptied into the bladder from the ureters about every 10 to 15 seconds. The bladder is a hollow muscular organ shaped like a balloon. It sits in your pelvis and is held in place by ligaments attached to other organs and the pelvic bones. The bladder stores urine until you are ready to go to the bathroom to empty it. It swells into a round shape when it is full and gets smaller when empty. If the urinary system is healthy, the bladder can hold up to 16 ounces (2 cups) of urine comfortably for 2 to 5 hours. Circular muscles called sphincters help keep urine from leaking. The sphincter muscles close tightly like a rubber band around the opening of the bladder into the urethra, the tube that allows urine to pass outside the body. Nerves in the bladder tell you when it is time to urinate, or empty your bladder. As the bladder first fills with urine, you may notice a feeling that you need to urinate. The sensation to urinate becomes stronger as the bladder continues to fill and reaches its limit. At that point, nerves from the bladder send a message to the brain that the bladder is full, and your urge to empty your bladder intensifies. When you urinate, the brain signals the bladder muscles to tighten, squeezing urine out of the bladder. At the same time, the brain signals the sphincter muscles to relax. As these muscles relax, urine exits the bladder through the urethra. When all the signals occur in the correct order, normal urination occurs.
hyaluronic acid
a complex molecule (glycosaminoglycan) which is one of several types of ground substance. It is a thick, lubricating substance which binds cells together and lubricates joints.
On a tongue, taste buds pick up tastes that are sweet, sour, salty and
bitter
What is the lowest level of organization with all the properties of life
cells
Optic nerves:
conduct visual information to the brain
Medulla oblongata (brain)
controls vital functions like breathing, heart rate, and detection of carbon dioxide
What kind of none connects sugar and phosphate in DNA
covalent bonds
The cochlea and pinna are parts of the
ear
squamous
flat, tile-like cells.
exocrine
glands that deliver their secretions through ducts into body cavities or to the outside.
cilia
hairlike projections of lining epithelial cells which help move substances through the lumen by a coordinated waving motion.
Increased potassium is known as
hyperkalemia
keratin
insoluble protein found in skin and epidermal appendages.
Which outcome measure would most likely indicate that a sample of water contains acid?
pH
Supra-
prefix meaning above or over.
What is the name for a cell that does not contain a nucleus?
prokaryote
Skin
protects the body from microbial invasion and environmental stresses like dry weather and wind
What type of muscle tissue moves bones?
skeletal muscle
epidermis
the epithelial layer of skin.
Mandible
the lower jaw.
Cerebral cortex (brain)
voluntary motor activity
Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. In medicine, the _desired_ outcome is recovery.
Wished for
"What are the three components of the cardiovascular system?"
"1. Heart 2. Blood vessels 3. Blood"
Telophase
Phase of mitosis in which new nuclear membranes form around sets of chromosomes
Verbal
Spoken, using words
Strict
Stringent, exact, complete
Conjunction
*Word that joins words, phrases or clauses. - coordination conjunction - and, but, or, so , nor, for and yet. - correlative conjunction - working pairs to join words or phrases: neither/nor, either/or. - subordinating conjunction - joins 2 clauses or thoughts: after, because, before, until, since, when. ex: While the nurse was away, the hospital flooded.
1 Meter= ______ Centimeters?
100
How many centimeters to a meter?
100
centi
100
1 pint =
16 oz
A nurse works in a military hospital from 1300 - 2000 hours. What time of day is this?
1pm - 8pm Early afternoon - bedtime
What is the probability that a recessive trait would be expressed in offspring if two parents who are both heterozygous for the desired trait were crossed?
25%
A hospital day staff consists of 25 RN's, 75 unlicensed assistants, 5 phlebologists, 6 receptionists and 45 Doctor's. One summer day the staff was at 68% strength.
25,75,5,6,45 = 156 - 68% = 106.08
8 oz =
250 mL
0 Degrees Celsius
32 degrees Fahrenheit (Freezing Point of Water)
I quart =
32 oz
During cell respiration, the conversion of glucose results in an overall production of how many ATP molecules?
32-36
72 Chromosomes undergo meiosis. How many chromosomes will be in each gamete?
36
Evaluate 3x² - 2x + 7 if x = ⁻3
3× ⁻3² - 2 × ⁻3 + 7 3 × 9 − 2 × ⁻3 + 7 27 + 6 +7 = 40
1 Gallon =______Quarts?
4
How many different types of nucleotides are there in DNA
4 (cytosine, guanine, adenine, thyamine)
1 Mile = _____ Feet?
5,280
16 oz =
500 mL
The production of ammonia also helps to keep the processed fluid at a pH in kidneys of between
7.37 and 7.43. This range is critical for the proper function of the body.
1 Cup =_____ Ounces?
8
1 cup =
8 oz
Phenolphthalein changes from colorless to pink in basic solutions. At what pH value would the solution remain colorless?
8.4
3 oz =
90 mL
add: 9.98 + 0.065
= 10.045
Multiply: (7.2) (0.34)
= 2.448
Add: 23.5 + 7.025
= 30.525
Vasoconstriction
A narrowing of the diameter of a blood vessel.
ATP
Abbreviation for adenosine triphosphate, which is the energy of the cell.
CNS
Abbreviation for central nervous system, which is made up of the brain and spinal cord.
The absorption of oxygen from the atmosphere into the blood takes place in the:
Alveoli
Names a final step in protein synthesis
Amino acid bonds
Proteins are polymers of which of the following?
Amino acids
Volume
Amount of space occupied by a fluid
Enzymes in human cells:
Are proteins, typically work best at pH 7.2
Joints
Articulations between adjoining bones.
What are the three domains of living organisms
Bacteria, Archea, Eukarya
Transdermal
Crossing through the skin
Condition of rickets is associated with a deficiency in which vitamin?
D
Which of the following is not involved in translation? tRNA, mRNA, ribosome, DNA
DNA
What is the function of the baroreceptors?
Decrease heart rate
Sebaceous Glands
Oil glands of the skin.
Ventral Horns
The anterior columns of the gray matter of the spinal cord.
Appendicular Skeleton: The Upper Extremities The Lower Extremities The Shoulder Girdle The Pelvic Girdle--(the sacrum and coccyx are considered part of the vertebral column)
The appendicular skeleton is composed of bones that anchor the appendages to the axial skeleton.
Formed Elements
The blood cells.
Lateral
away from the midline.
rod shaped bacteria
bacilli
Posterior
back side of the body, also known as the dorsal.
Dorsal
back side of the body, also known as the posterior.
Solve for X ⁻7x + 9 = ⁻47
⁻7x + 9 = ⁻47 ⁻7x = ⁻47 − 9 x = 56 ÷ ⁻7 x= 8
"What are the two essential functions of body cavities?"
"1. They protect delicate organs 2. They permit significant changes in the size and shape of internal organs"
"What are the nine components of the digestive system?"
"1.Salivary glands 2.Phaynx 3.Esophagus 4.Stomach 5.Small intestine 6.Liver 7.Gallbladder 8.pancreas 9.Large intestine"
"What is a tissue?"
"A group of similar cells working together to perform a specific function."
"What is an eponym?"
"A naming of an anatomical structure or clinical condition after the most famous victim or founder."
"What lines the walls of internal cavities and covers the surface of enclosed viscera?"
"A serous membrane"
"The capacity to make longer-term changes as they adjust to their environment is called:"
"Adaptability"
"What are the functions of the adrenal glands?"
"Adjusts water balance, tissue metabolism, cardiovascular and respiratory activity"
"Metabolism refers to:"
"All the chemical operations under way in the body."
"What is the purpose of the muscular system?"
"Allows for locomotion; provides support; produces heat."
"What is the study of internal and external structure and the physical relationships between body parts?"
"Anatomy"
"What is the cornerstone of human physiology?"
"Cell physiology"
"What is th smallest living unit in the the body?"
"Cells"
"What is the function of the pituitary gland?"
"Controls other endocrine glands; regulates growth and fluid balance."
"What is the function of the thyroid gland?"
"Controls tissue metabolic rate; regulates calcium levels"
"Name the flat muscular sheet that divides the ventral body cavity into a superior thoracic cavity and an inferior abdominopelvic cavity."
"Diaphragm"
"The process by which complex foods are broken down into simpler components that can be transported and absorbed easily."
"Digestion"
"What is the purpose of the nervous system?"
"Directs immediate response to stimuli, usually by coordinating the activities of other organ systems."
"What is the name of the picture produced by an ultrasound?"
"Echogram"
"The study of the functions of the human body."
"Human Physiology"
"How is the abdominopelvic cavity subdivided?"
"Into a superior abdominal cavity, and an inferior pelvic cavity"
"Why is positive feedback important?"
"It accelerates processes that must proceed to completion rapidly"
"This type of anatomical study considers features visible with the unaided eye."
"Macroscopic (Gross) Anatomy"
"What is the function of the pineal gland?"
"May control timing of reproduction and set day/night rhythms."
"What concerns structures that cannot be seen without magnification?"
"Microscopic anatomy"
Rationale
The underlying reason
Lymphocytes
White blood cells
Gaping
Wide open
cecum
beginning of the large intestine, a pouch, connecting the ileum with the ascending colon of the large intestine.
Which sturcture is an example of a long bone?
metatarsal
Regular activating system (brain)
network of neurons that processes signs to alter the activity levels of alertness and attention
Physiology
science that describes how organisms FUNCTION and survive in continually changing environments
Inflammation
secondary defense against pathogens
"Biology"
"The study of life"
F =
(C x 1.8) + 32
The pancreas is what to the esophagus
proximal (meaning closer to the body's trunk
Plasma Membrane
Contains phospholipids as a structural component.
Depth
Downward measurement from a surface
Site
Location
How could water be boiled at room temperature?
Lower the pressure
pH
Measurement associated with acids and bases.
Hemoglobin
The oxygen-carrying component of red blood cells.
Osmosis
Water diffuses into and out of cells.
The respiratory tract is covered in an epithelium
animal tissue, can be smooth, straitened, etc.
alveoli
only part of the lung that exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide with the blood.
"What are the six organs / components of the integument?"
"1. Cutaneous membrane 2. Hair follicles 3. Sweat glands 4. Nails 5. Sensory receptors 6. Subcutaneous layer"
"Name the eleven organ systems."
"1. Integument 2. Skeletal 3. Muscular 4. Nervous 5. Endocrine 6. Cardiovascular 7.Lymphatic 8. Respiratory 9.Digestive 10. Urinary 11. Reproductive "
"Homeostatic regulation usually involves three things. What are they?"
"1. A receptor that is sensitive to a particular stimulus. 2. A control center which receives and processes information from the receptor. 3. An effector, which responds to the commmands of the control center and whose activity opposes or reinforces the stimulus."
"What are the four organ / components of the skeletal system?"
"1. Bones 2. Cartilage 3. Joints 4. Bone marrow."
"What is the study of the effects of diseases on organ or system functions?"
"Pathology"
"What does the relationship between the heart and the pericardial cavity resemble?"
"A fist pushing into a balloon"
kilo
0.001
hecto
0.01
Deka
0.1
A single "turn" of the Krebs cycle will yield
1 ATP, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2.
15 mL =
1 Tbsp
250 mL =
1 cup
2 Tbsp =
1 oz
500 mL =
1 pint
1,000 mL =
1 quart
5 mL =
1 tsp
A strong base is in which pH ranges?
11.2-12
Evaluate ab² − ac if a = 3, b=⁻4, c= ⁻5
3 × ⁻4² − 3 × ⁻5 3 ÷ 16 − 3 × ⁻5 48 + 15 = 63
1/2 oz =
15 mL
1 Yard = ______Feet?
3
1 Ounces =_____Millimeters (Cubic Centimeters)
30
Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and animals is that in plants:
A cell plate begins to form at telophase, whereas in animals a cleavage furrow is intiated at that stage
Foramen Magnum
A passage in the skull bone through which the spinal cord enters the spinal column.
Median Plane
An imaginary line dividing the body or body part into right and left portions.
Cavity
An opening or an empty area
Gamete
Contains a total of 23 chromosomes.
During which phase of cell reproduction does the cell divide forming two separate identical cells?
Cytokinesis
Laceration
Cut/Tear
Which part of cellular respiration produces the greatest amount of ATP?
Electron Transport Chain
Which step in cellular respiration yields the greatest amount of ATP?
Electron Transport Chain
Which part of cellular respiration directly produces a pH gradient during the oxidative metabolism of glucose?
Electron transport chain
What is the exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the blood through the alveoli called?
External respiration
Fatigue
Extreme tiredness, exhaustion
Stomata in plant leaves closes at night to prevent the loss of:
H20
A molecule of water is bonded with another molecule of water by what type of bond?
Hydrogen
What are saturated fats saturated with?
Hydrogen atoms
Which of the following associations of brain structure and function is false?
Hypothalamus: Appetite Cerebellum:Motor Coordination Cerebral cortex: Higher intellectual function Medulla: Basic emotional Drive Medulla: Basic emotional drives (false)
After observing an event, you develop an explanation. This statement is referred to as which of the following?
Hypothesis
Pre-initiation
In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase, and therefore the initiation of transcription, requires the presence of a core promoter sequence in the DNA. Promoters are regions of DNA which promote transcription and in eukaryotes, are found at -30, -75 and -90 base pairs upstream from the start site of transcription. Core promoters are sequences within the promoter which are essential for transcription initiation. RNA polymerase is able to bind to core promoters in the presence of various specific transcription factors.
Invasive
Inserting or entering into a body part
High levels of billirubin in the blood stream can result in:
Jaundice
* Small Intestine
Most human digestion takes place here.
Nerve tissue is composed of neurons and connective tissue cells that are referred to as which of the following?
Neuroglia
All actions of the nervous system depend on the transmission of nerve impulses over which of the following?
Neurons
specialized cells designed to transmit information in the form of electrochemical signals called action potentials.
Neurons
Incidence
Occurence
Annual
Occurring every year
Hematologic
Of or relating to blood
Vascular
Of or relating to blood vessels
Musculoskeletal
Of or relating to muscle and skeleton
elastic fiber
One of three types of fiber embedded in the matrix between cells of connective tissue. Smaller than collagen fibers, these allow tissues to stretch. Found in blood vessel walls and lung tissue.
Foods with a high salt content do not have to be refrigerated. What natural process prevents these foods from spoiling?
Osmosis
If a bacteria are placed in a strong solution of salt water, they will shrink as water moves out of the bacteria. What is this process called?
Osmosis
Which of the following terms is used to describe the appearance of the organism?
Phenotype
Erythrocytes
Red blood cells
Flushed
Reddened or Ruddy appearance
Inflamed
Reddened, swollen, warm, and often tender
Concave
Rounded inward
Contour
Shape or outline of a shape
Muscles controlled by conscious thought
Straiated
Nutrient
Substance or ingredient that provides nourishment
Thoracic Cavity
The chest cavity.
Metabolism
The sum total of uses of ATP in the body.
How do phospholipids function in cells?
They are integral components of the plasma membrane
How are lipids different that other organic molecules?
They are not water soluble
Which organelle provides storage space for the cell?
Vacuole
In the nursing process, the evaluation component examines the effectiveness of nursing interventions in achieving client outcomes (D). (A) is an evaluation of client satisfaction, not outcomes. (B) is a written record of the plan of care. Although (C) may occur when client outcomes are achieved, evaluation is best determined by attainment of measurable client outcomes. Correct Answer: D
What activity should the nurse use in the evaluation phase of the nursing process? A. Ask a client to evaluate the nursing care provided. B. Document the nursing care plan in the progress notes. C. Determine whether a client's health problems have been alleviated. D. Examine the effectiveness of nursing interventions toward meeting client outcomes.
Mobilization and ambulation increase oxygen use, so it is most important to assess the client's respiratory rate (A)before ambulation to determine tolerance for activity. (B, C, and D) are also important, but are of lower priority than (A). Correct Answer: A
Which client assessment data is most important for the nurse to consider before ambulating a postoperative client? A. Respiratory rate. B. Wound location. C. Pedal pulses. D. Pain rating.
Condyle
a smooth rounded projection for articulation with another bone.
Name the hierarchal levels of life from simplest to more complex
atoms--> molecules--> organelles--> cells--> tissues--> organs--> organisms --> population --> community--> biosphere
The chambers of vertebrate hearts include:
atria and ventricles
Outer ear consists of the:
auricle (pinna) and the auditory canal
What is the name of the process by which a bacterial cell splits into two new cells?
binary fission
The Phalynx is a(n)
bone
Transverse Plane
divides the body into a superior (or upper) and an inferior (or lower) section. Also called the horizontal plane.
Horizontal Plane
divides the body into a superior (or upper) and an inferior (or lower) section. Also called the transverse plane.
In the human digestive system, food moves from the mouth to the stomach through the:
esophagus
In what organ do muscles push food into the stomach via the process of peristalsis?
esophagus
As food leaves the mouth, the
esophagus takes it to the stomach
Anterior pituitary gland (in brain) secretes many hormones:
growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), Prolactin, Follicle-stimulating hormone, Luteinizing hormone
lysosomes
intracellular digestion; contain a potent brew of digestive enzymes
Smooth muscle
involuntary muscle present in the arteries, gastrointestinal tract, and elsewhere
Hypersensitivity
is an immune response that damages the body's own tissues. Type I hypersensitivity is an immediate or anaphylactic reaction, often associated with allergy.
What is not found in bacterial cell?
mitochondria
The Krebs cycle occurs in the
mitochondrion
Name the 5 biological kingdom
monera, protista, fungi, plantae, animalia
What is the primary sympathetic neurohormone?
norepinephrine
The air passages involved in respiration include:
nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles and the alveoli
Transport
not a function of kidneys
Parietal bones
one of the two quadrilateral bones on either side of the cranium forming part of the superior and lateral surfaces of the skull, and joining each other in the midline at the sagittal suture. The parietal bones form the greater portion of the sides and roof of the cranial cavity.
The function of the pulmonary veins is to carry ________________?
oxygenated blood to the left atrium
What glad listed below is not paired up with a hormone it produces?
ovaries/estrogen thyroid gland/thyroxin posterior pituitary/cortisol thymus/thymosin posterior pituitary not matched correctly, it produces oxytocin and vasopressin.
Infra-
prefix meaning below or under.
Pulmonary
refers to the lungs
human gastrointestinal tract
refers to the stomach and intestine,and sometimes to all the structures from the mouth to the anus
Autonomic Nervous System
regulates involuntary functions of the body, heart and blood vessels, reparation, muscles of eye, etc.
A decreased concentration of sodium (hyponatremia)
relative increase in the amount of body water relative to sodium (diseases of the liver and kidney, in patients with congestive heart failure)
Excretion
removal of metabolic wastes produced in the body
Blood with a pH of 1.3 indicates the blood samples is
strongly acidic
Epiphysis
the end of a long bone that is originally separated from the main bone by a layer of cartilage but that later becomes united to the main bone through ossification [compare to suture and symphysis]. The epiphysis is the rounded end of a long bone, at its joint with adjacent bone(s). Between the epiphysis and diaphysis (the long midsection of the long bone) lies the metaphysis, including the epiphyseal plate (growth plate). At the joint, the epiphysis is covered with articular cartilage; below that covering is a zone similar to the epiphyseal plate, known as subchondral bone (see Wiktionary:subchondral). The epiphysis is filled with red bone marrow, which produces erythrocytes (red blood cells).
From the kidney, urine passes into a
ureter tube through the bladder where it is stored until it passes through the urethra. (kidney - ureter tube - bladder - urethra)
Tubes that connect the kidneys to the urinary bladder
ureters
urine out the bottom of the bladder and into a narrow tube called the
urethra.
Cerebellum (brain)
muscle activity coordinated
Structure of a typical bacterium
...
Tour of a cell
...
whats the ratio if there 5 boys and 10 girls
...
"What is the simplest unit of life?"
"Cells"
Posterior
Located behind; in the back
What is the correct formula for magnesium chloride?
MgCl2
Line
a narrow raised ridge.
Cytoskeleton
provides cell shape
Planes of the Body
...
Glycolysis produces
2 pyruvate molecules, which are converted into acetyl CoA,
1 Ton =_____Pounds?
2,000
The initial reaction of the Krebs cycle involves the addition of a
2-carbon molecule to a 4-carbon molecule.
What is the best description for the term quotient?
A math term naming the answer in a division question.
Serous Membranes
Thin sheets of tissue that line body cavities not having exits to the outside.
Where are the baroreceptors located?
Aorta
Affect
Appearance of observable emotions
Hypothalamus
Appetite
*Atria
Chambers where blood from veins collects and is pumped into ventricles.
Iodine and carbon dioxide undergo sublimation at room temperature and atmospheric pressure. What is this process?
Changing from a solid to a gas
Why is DNA important for metabolic activities of the cell?
Controls synthesis of enzymes
*Medulla Oblongata
Controls the rate of breaking.
What separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?
Diaphragm
The orthopedic surgeon informs you that you have broken the middle region of the humerus. What area is he describing?
Diaphysis
The orthopedic surgeon informs you that you have broken the middle region of the humerus. What is he describing?
Diaphysis
Lethargic
Difficult to arouse
Which of the following proteins catalyze different reactions or processes?
Enzyme
A tissue examined under the microscope exhibits the following characteristics: cells found on internal surface of stomach, no extracellular matrix, cells tall and thin, no blood vessels in the tissue. What type of tissue is this?
Epithelial
Lipids are better known as fats, but what are they specifically?
Fatty acids Phospholipids Steroids
Lacteal Vessels
Found within the villi of the intestinal wall, where fat nutrients are absorbed.
supporting and retaining the cytoplasm
Functions include: supporting and retaining the cytoplasm being a selective barrier The cell is separated from its environment and needs to get nutrients in and waste products out. Some molecules can cross the membrane without assistance, most cannot. Water, non-polar molecules and some small polar molecules can cross. Non-polar molecules penetrate by actually dissolving into the lipid bi-layer. Most polar compounds such as amino acids, organic acids and inorganic salts are not allowed entry, but instead must be specifically transported across the membrane by proteins.
What is the first step in the conversion of glucose to pyruvate?
Glycolysis
Select he word or phrase that makes this sentence grammartically correct. She has always been afraid of ______ to the doctor.
Going
In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum?
Heel of the foot
Pancreas
Insulin is created here.
What is the function of aldosterone?
It conserves sodium in the body
Why is DNA important for metabolic activities of the cell?
It controls the synthesis of enzymes
Fermentation
It is anaerobic, requires glucose and produces energy.
What is the primary purpose of the flagella on the surface of cells?
Movement of the cell
External
Located outside the body
Internal
Located within the body
Hygiene
Measures contributing to cleanliness and good health
Which of the following associations of brain structure and function is false? Hypothalamus: Appetite Cerebellum:Motor Coordination Cerebral cortex: Higher intellectual function Medulla: Basic emotional Drive
Medulla: Basic emotional drives (false)
A cell division occurs in a human. The resulting cells contain 23 chromosomes. This is a description of gametes formed by which process?
Meiosis
Which type of cell division takes place in the gonads?
Meiosis
Diffusion
Movement of materials from high concentration to lower concentration.
The conversion of incoming nutrients to energy for the body's various processes generates waste.
Much of this waste is soluble, that is, it can dissolve in water (and so in blood, which is largely comprised of water). This waste must be removed from the water and expelled from the body.
In which of the following locations would the urinary bladder and internal reproductive organs be found?
Pelvic cavity
An experiment is performed to measure the temperature of boiling water at sea level. The actual boiling point in 100C. The data taken during the experiment show values of 104.6C, 104.5C, and 104C. What term best describes these data?
Precise
Embryo
Prenatal development time between the zygote and the fetus.
Depress
Press downward
What components of the blood helps maintain glomerular oncotic pressure at a normal level of 33mm Hg, which in turn keeps a large amount of water from escaping the capillary?
Protein
Athletes are often concerned with the question of what they need in their diets to increase muscle mass and strength. What biological molecule would you recommend that would accomplish this?
Proteins
Which of the biologic molecules are considered the most significant contributor to cellular function?
Proteins
Rods and cones are light-sensitive cells inside the eyes:
Retina
If an impulse is traveling from a sense receptor toward the spinal cord, it is traveling along what type of neuron?
Sensory neuron
Mediastinum
Space within the thoracic cavity that houses all the organs of the chest except the lungs.
What is the role of progesterone in the female reproductive system?
Stimulates the development of the endometrium
What is the function of water in photosynthesis?
Supply electrons in the light reactions
Which of the following are functions of the skeletal system? (Select all that apply)
Support the body Hemopoiesis (process by which new blood cells are formed; bone marrow) Provide protection
How does the trachea remain open like a hollow tube?
Supporting cartilaginous rings keep it open
Nucleus
The control center of the cell.
Endoplasmic reticulum
The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is a special membrane structure found only in eukaryotic cells. Some ER has ribosomes on the surface (rough endoplasmic reticulum) --the cell's protein-making machinery. Proteins that require special conditions or are destined to become part of the cell membrane are processed in the ER and then handed off to another organelle called the Golgi apparatus. The Golgi functions as a cellular post office. Proteins that arrive there are sorted, packaged and transported to various destinations in the cell. Scientists are studying many aspects of the ER and Golgi apparatus, including a built-in quality control mechanism cells use to ensure that proteins are properly made before leaving the ER
Polysomes
The functional clusters of ribosomes.
Systemic Circulation
The general blood circulation of the body, not including the lungs.
Jeff has contracted bulbar poliomyelitis, and it has affected the medulla oblongata. The doctors warned the family that his condition is grave and death may be imminent. What functions of the medulla oblongata have warrated such a dire prognosis?
The medulla oblongata contains vital centers that control heart action, blood vessel diameter, and respiration
Capillaries
Thin-walled vessels that permits the exchange of materials between the blood and the body's cells.
Cartilage
Tissue made of cells and fibers that connect and support.
Constrict
To draw together or become smaller
Contract
To draw together, to reduce in size
Predispose
To make more susceptible or more likely to occur
Which word means "the thickness of a liquid"?
Viscosity
Skin aids in maintaining the calcium and phosphate levels of the body by participating in the production of which of the following?
Vitamin D
Which of the following is a benefit of the intermolecular hydrogn bonding of water?
Water has a relatively high specific heat value Water has strong cohesive and adhesive properties Polarity of water allows it to act as a versatile solvent
How does water affect the temperate of a living thing
Water keeps temperature stable
gap junction
a cellular junction which allows the two-way spread of action potentials from one cell to the next.
Marfan's syndrome
a hereditary disorder leading to a defect in elastic fibers.
small intestine
absorption of nutrients and minerals found in food, where much of the digestion and absorption of food takes place.
Red blood cells are the most
abundant cells present in blood & their primary function is to transport oxygen
Sympathetic Nervous System
activates body during emergency situations (fight or flight response)
Autoimmune diseases
arise from an overactive immune response of the body against substances and tissues normally present in the body. In other words, the immune system mistakes some part of the body as a pathogen and attacks its own cells. (Cancer, lupus,diabetes)
Sympathetic nervous system
associated with fight or flight response; increases heart rate; increases breathing rate; lowers digestive rate; causes pupil dilation
A layer of light-sensitive cells called what make up one of the layers of the retina?
cones and rods
Esophagus
connects stomach to the mouth
Golgi Body
connects with the smooth ER, completes lipid synthesis and sorters proteins to their correct destination in small vesicles
Adrenal glands
consist of the adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla, on top of the kidneys
What is the longest phase in the life of a cell
interphase
What kind of macromolecule is hemoglobin
proteins
Saliva in the mouth begins the process of breaking down:
starch
stroma
the supportive tissue of an organ, as opposed to the functioning tissue.
basal surface
the surface of an epithelial cell which is attached to the underlying basement membrane.
thyroxine
the thyroid hormone, accelerates oxidative metabolism though out the body
Skeletal muscles
voluntary muscle, intentional physical movements, contain large multinucleate fiber containing light and dark bands called striations
Smooth muscle
walls of arteries and veins, bladder and utereus, contract in response to action potentials
"Is thermoregulation a homeostatic mechanism that involves negative feedback or positive feedback? If yes
which one?","Yes. Negative feedback"
"What are the two organ / components of the muscular system?"
"1. Skeletal muscles 2. Tendons"
"What are the three approaches to gross anatomy?"
"1. Surface anatomy 2. Regional Anatomy 3. Systemic Anatomy"
"What is the name of the inner layer that lines the inner surface of the body wall or chamber?"
"Parietal layer"
The nurse noted in the chart,"The patient is lethargic." How was the patient behaving?
Difficult to arouse
Lysosomes
Digestive enzymes for intracellular use.
Cerebral cortex
Higher intellectual function
What are chemical messengers that control growth, differentiation, and the metabolism of specific target cells called?
Hormones
Intact
In place, unharmed
Endometrium
Inner lining of the uterus.
Absorption
Movement of nutrients from the digestive tube into the bloodstream.
How do you convert Celsius to Fahrenheit?
Multiply the temperature by 1.8 and add 32.
Two organisms live in a relationship from which both benefit. What is this called?
Mutualism
Latent
Present but not active or visible
Bilateral
Present on two sides
Precaution
Preventive measure
Which of the following statements about prostaglandins is NOT true? Prostaglandins promote inflammation Prostaglandins can only constrict blood vessels. Prostaglandins are made in the renal medulla Prostaglandins can lead to pain and fever
Prostaglandins can only constrict blood vessels (FALSE)
*Blood
The fluid through the body by the circulatory system, which is composed of a liquid component, plasma, and cells.
The Lower Extremities
The lower extremity is composed of the bones of the thigh, leg, foot, and the patella (commonly known as the kneecap). The Thigh The thigh is the region between the hip and the knee and is composed of a single bone called the femur or thighbone. The femur is the longest, largest, and strongest bone in the body. The Leg The leg is technically only the region from the knee to the ankle. It is formed by the fibula on side away from the body (lateral side) and the tibia, also called the shin bone, on the side nearest the body (medial side). The tibia connects to the femur to form the knee joint and with the talus, a foot bone, to allow the ankle to flex and extend. The tibia is larger than the fibula because it bears most of the weight, while the fibula serves as an area for muscle attachment. The Foot The foot, or pes, contains the 26 bones of the ankle, instep, and the five toes. The ankle, or tarsus, is composed of the 7 tarsal bones which correspond to the carpals in the wrist. The largest tarsal bone is called the calcaneus or heel bone. The talus rests on top of the calcaneus and is connected to the tibia. Directly in front of the talus is the navicular bone. The remaining bones from medial to lateral are the medial, intermediate, the lateral cuneiform bones, and the cuboid bone. The metatarsal and phalanges bones of the foot are similar in number and position to the metacarpal and phalanges bones of the hand. The five metatarsal bones are numbered I to V starting on the medial side with the big toe. The first metatarsal bone is larger than the others because it plays a major role in supporting the body's weight. The 14 phalanges of the foot, as with the hand, are arranged in a proximal row, a middle row, and a distal row, with the big toe, or hallux, having only a proximal and distal phalanx. The foot's two arches are formed by the structure and arrangement of the bones and are maintained by tendons and ligaments. The arches give when weight is placed on the foot and spring back when the weight is lifted off of the foot. The arches may fall due to a weakening of the ligaments and tendons in the foot. The Patella The patella or kneecap is a large, triangular sesamoid bone between the femur and the tibia. It is formed in response to the strain in the tendon that forms the knee. The patella protects the knee joint and strengthens the tendon that forms the knee. The bones of the lower extremities are the heaviest, largest, and strongest bones in the body because they must bear the entire weight of the body when a person is standing in the upright position.
Coughing during or after meals is a manifestation of dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, which places the client at risk for aspiration (C). Dysphagia can lead to aspiration pneumonia, but the client is not currently exhibiting any symptoms of breathing difficulty (A) or impaired gas exchange (B). Although (D) may be related to an ineffective cough, the client's coughing is an effective response when solids or liquids are taken orally. Correct Answer: C
The nurse notes that a client consistently coughs while eating and drinking. Which nursing diagnosis is most important for the nurse include in this client's plan of care? A. Ineffective breathing pattern. B. Impaired gas exchange. C. Risk for aspiration. D. Ineffective airway clearance.
Bone Cells
There are five main types of bone cells in bone tissue. Osteogenic cells respond to traumas, such as fractures, by giving rise to bone-forming cells and bone-destroying cells. Osteoblasts (bone-forming cells) synthesize and secrete unmineralized ground substance and are found in areas of high metabolism within the bone. Osteocytes are mature bone cells made from osteoblasts that have made bone tissue around themselves. These cells maintain healthy bone tissue by secreting enzymes and controlling the bone mineral content; they also control the calcium release from the bone tissue to the blood. Osteoclasts are large cells that break down bone tissue. They are very important to bone growth, healing, and remodeling. The last type of cells are bone-lining cells. These are made from osteoblasts along the surface of most bones in an adult. Bone-lining cells are thought to regulate the movement of calcium and phosphate into and out of the bone.
*Absorption
Through ingestion and digestion, organisms make nutrients available to cells through:
Ingest
To swallow for digestion
Supplement
To take in addition to or to complete
The ABCs of caring for clients are airway, breathing, and circulation. Impaired gas exchange (B) implies that the client is having trouble with breathing, which has the highest priority of the nursing diagnoses listed. Though an immobilized client presents a multitude of nursing care challenges, (A, C, and D) do not have the priority of (B). Correct Answer: B
When caring for an immobile client, what nursing diagnosis has the highest priority? A. Risk for fluid volume deficit. B. Impaired gas exchange. C. Risk for impaired skin integrity. D. Altered tissue perfusion.
synovial membrane
a membrane which lines joints, which has only an areolar connective tissue layer.
villus
a multicellular projection of lining epithelium in areas specialized for absorption or secretion.
Vomer
a roughly triangular bone that forms the inferior and posterior of the nasal septum. The vomer is one of the unpaired facial bones of the skull. It is located in the midsagittal line, and articulates with the sphenoid, the ethmoid, the left and right palatine bones, and the left and right maxillary bones.
Occipital bone
a single trapezoid-shaped bone situated at the posterior and inferior part of the cranium. The occipital bone forms the back part of the skull and the base of the cranium. It joins with the parietal and temporal bones. In the center, underside (inferior) portion of the cranium, there is a large opening called the foramen magnum (fig. 3-5), through which nerve fibers from the brain pass and enter into the spinal cord. Figure 3-4.—Temporal bone. 3-2
nose
adds moisture and warmth to inhaled air and helps to filter it, removing particles and organisms before the air passes to the next air passage.
Peroxisomes
break down fatty acids, amino acids, alcohol
Increased sodium (hypernatremia)
in the blood occurs whenever there is excess sodium in relation to water. (kidney disease)
Endocrine system
network of glands and tissues that secrete hormones
Immunodeficiencies
occur when one or more of the components of the immune system are inactive. AIDS and some types of cancer cause acquired immunodeficiency
Pituitary gland
small gland with two lobes lying at the base of the brain: anterior and posterior
When a neuron reaches a target cell, the axon ends in a synaptic terminal, with a gap called the
synapse between the neuron and the target cell.
In the nervous system, membrane potential in converted to chemical signal, or neurotransmitter, that is released across a small gap between the neuron and target cell. The gap is celled a
synaptic cleft.
basement membrane
the thin extracellular layer which attaches the epithelium to the underlying connective tissue. It is made up of a superficial basal lamina and an underlying reticular lamina.
Which part of the aerobic respiration uses oxygen
electron transposrt chain
Nervous system
enables organs to receive and respond to stimuli from external and internal environments
Cell, or Plasma, membrane
encloses every human cell
Offactory lobe (brain)
center for reception and integration of olfactory input
Going from superior to inferior, the sequence of the vertebral column is:
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
round shaped bacteria
cocci
Cardiac cycle
the heartbeat a doctor hears through a stethoscope is the sound of the chambers of the heart contracting in a regular pattern called the cardiac cycle
simple cuboidal
an epithelial tissue consisting of a single row of cuboidal cells (e.g., thyroid follicles).
ORGAN LEVEL
an organ consists of 2 or more tissues that perform a particular function (e.g., heart, liver, stomach, and so on)
Over the week 34 baby boys were born. This was 54% of all babies born. How many were girls?
x = total number of babies x(54/100) = 34 54x = 3400 x= 63 total number of babies 63-34 = 29 baby girls
Pharynx
involved in diverting ingested material into the esophagus and away from the lungs to prevent choking
T cells are involved in cell-mediated immune response.
involves the activation of macrophages, natural killer cells (NK)
Hypokalemia, or decreased potassium
kidney diseases
What is the most general taxonomic category
kingdom
Name the taxonomical classification of living things, in order of increasing specificity.
kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
lacks ribosome; site of lipid synthesis
What is a byproduct of fermentation in muscle cells?
lactic acid
"What organ system defends against infection and disease?"
"The lymphatic system"
"What are the two organs / components of the nervous system?"
"1. Central Nervous System 2. Peripheral Nervous System"
"Name the levels of organization from submicroscopic to macroscopic."
"1. Chemical (or molecular) level 2. Cellular level 3. Tissue level 4. Organ level 5. Organ system 6. Organism"
Phagocytes
'eating cell'. These are immune cells that engulf, i.e. phagocytose, pathogens or particles
C =
(F-32)/1.8
Among vs Between
*Among - show relationship involving more than 2 persons or things being considered as a group. -->The teacher will distribute textbooks among the students in his class. *Between - to show relationship involving 2 persons or things. To compare one person or thing with a group. To compare more than 2 things in a group if each is considered individually.
Can vs May (could vs might)
*Can & Could - imply ability or power. --> I can make an A in that class. *May & Might - imply permission or possibility. --> You may leave early. --> I may leave early.
Clause
*Group of words that has a subject and predicate. *When starting with dependant clause, use a comma to set it apart from the independant clause.
Misplaced Modifier
*Words or groups of words that are not located properly in relation to the words they modify. --> I fear my teaching assistant may have discarded the test I was grading in the trash can. --> In the trash can is a misplaced modifier. *Modifier should be next to the word, phrase or clause it modifies. --> I fear the test I was grading may have been discarded in the trash can by my teaching assistant.
ie vs eg
*i.e. - that is. --> I like chemistry, i.e., the science dealing with the composition and properties of matter. *e.g. - for example. --> I like chemistry, e.g., chemical equations, atomic structure and molar relationships.
Cell membranes | Cells, cytoplasm, & organelles | DNA & protein synthesis | Cell environment | Movement across membranes | Cellular metabolism
...
Cytoplasm consists of a gelatinous solution and contains microtubules (which serve as a cell's cytoskeleton) and organelles (literally 'little organs')
...
Histology Terms
...
Levels of Organization:
...
Organelles include:
...
Parts of the Human Skull
...
What is the concentration of 58.5g of a NaCl in 2L of solution (atomic weights of each element are as follows: Na=23g/mol, CL=35/5 g/mol0?
0.5 mol NaCl
What is the expected pH of the stomach?
0.90 to 1.50
1 Milliliter =_____ Cubic Centimeters?
1
2.54 Centimeters = ______ Inches?
1
milli
1,000
1 Pound =_____Ounces?
16
GRAM
1.0
1 liter = ____ quarts
1.0567
How many centimeters in a millimeter:
1/10
1 Tbsp =
1/2 oz
1 Centimeter = _____ Millimeters?
10
The metric system of measurement was developed in France during the Napoleon reign. It is based on what multiplication factor?
10
deci
10
A shopper spends $75.64 at one store and $22.43 at the next store. The shopper started with $100.00. How much does he have left?
100 − 75.64 −22.43 = $1.93
1 Gallon =_____ Ounces?
128
Structure
2 primary building blocks include protein (about 60% of the membrane) and lipid, or fat (about 40% of the membrane). The primary lipid is called phospholipid, and molecules of phospholipid form a 'phospholipid bilayer' (two layers of phospholipid molecules). This bilayer forms because the two 'ends' of phospholipid molecules have very different characteristics: one end is polar (or hydrophilic) and one (the hydrocarbon tails below) is non-polar (or hydrophobic):
1 Pound =____Kilograms?
2.2
To convert pounds to kilograms, what factor is used?
2.2 × pounds = kilograms
There are 2.54cm in an inch. How many centimeters in 1 Foot?
2.54 × 12 inches = 30.48 centimenters
100 Degrees Celsius
212 degrees Fahrenheit (Boiling Point of Water)
A diploid germ cell containing 72 chromosomes undergoes meiosis. How many chromosomes will be in each gamete?
36
A nurse is reviewing the daily intake and outtake of a patient consuming clear liquids. The uninary drainage bag is 1,000 ML for 24hrs. The total intake is: 2- 8oz cups of coffee 1- 16oz clear soup 1- pint of water How much is the deficient in milliliters?
440
How many ounces are in 2 quarts:
64 ounces
A seamstress is measuring a model for a new dress. The tape measure is marked in centimeters. The seamstress needs to convert into inches. If the model's waist is 65.4cm what is it in inches?
64.4 ÷ 2.54 = 25.74 inches
A farmer raises chickens for eggs and meat. Any chicken that does not lay at least 1 egg a week is killed. The farmer has 765 chickens that can lay 1 egg each day. Each day 80% of chickens lay eggs. How many eggs does the farmer collect each day?
765 - 80% = 612 eggs
The most beneficial nursing intervention is to use nonjudgmental reflective listening techniques, to allow the client to feel comfortable expressing his concerns (D). (A and B) are not therapeutic. The client should be consulted before implementing (C). Correct Answer: D
A male client has a nursing diagnosis of "spiritual distress." What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client? A. Use distraction techniques during times of spiritual stress and crisis. B. Reassure the client that his faith will be regained with time and support. C. Consult with the staff chaplain and ask that the chaplain visit with the client. D. Use reflective listening techniques when the client expresses spiritual doubts.
When death is impending, it is essential for the nurse to determine who is legally empowered to make decisions regarding the use of life-saving measures for the client (D). (A) will be abnormal and will worsen without dialysis, so are not of immediate concern. (B) may help improve the client's quality of life prior to death, but is of less immediacy than determining whether actions should be taken to save a client's life. If the nurse remains unable to determine who is empowered to make decisions in this situation, the nurse may choose to contact the ethics committee (C) for a resolution. Correct Answer: D
A 75-year-old client who has a history of end stage renal failure and advanced lung cancer, recently had a stroke. Two days ago the healthcare provider discontinued the client's dialysis treatments, stating that death is inevitable, but the client is disoriented and will not sign a DNR directive. What is the priority nursing intervention? A. Review the client's most recent laboratory reports. B. Refer the client and family members for hospice care. C. Notify the hospital ethics committee of the client situation. D. Determine who is legally empowered to make decisions.
Parameter
A characteristic or constant factor, limit
Biofeedback involves the use of various monitoring devices that help people become more aware and able to control their own physiologic responses, such as heart rate, body temperature, muscle tension, and brain waves. (D) is an accurate statement concerning its use for clients with Raynaud's disease. (A, B, and C) do not provide correct information about biofeedback. Correct Answer: D
A client with Raynaud's disease asks the nurse about using biofeedback for self-management of symptoms. What response is best for the nurse to provide? A. The responses to biofeedback have not been well established and may be a waste of time and money. B. Biofeedback requires extensive training to retrain voluntary muscles, not involuntary responses. C. Although biofeedback is easily learned, it is mostly often used to manage exacerbation of symptoms. D. Biofeedback allows the client to control involuntary responses to promote peripheral vasodilation.
Serum albumin has a long half-life and is the best long-term indicator of the body's entry into a catabolic state following protein depletion from malnutrition or stress of chronic illness (C). While (A) is a good indicator of iron-binding capacity in a healthy adult, it is an unreliable measure in the client with a chronic illness. (B) has a short half-life, and is a sensitive indicator of recent catabolic changes, but it is not as effective as (C) in indicating long-term protein depletion. While (D) is a good indicator of a negative nitrogen balance, it is not as good an indicator of long-term protein catabolism as is (C). Correct Answer: C
A client with chronic renal disease is admitted to the hospital for evaluation prior to a surgical procedure. Which laboratory test indicates the client's protein status for the longest length of time? A. Transferrin. B. Prealbumin. C. Serum albumin. D. Urine urea nitrogen.
The current availability of many herbal supplements lacks federal regulation, research, control and standardization in the manufacture of its purity and dose. Manufacturers that provide evidence of quality control (C), such as labeling that contains scientific generic name, name and address of the manufacturer, batch or lot number, date of manufacture, and expiration date, is the best information to provide. (A, B, and D) are misleading. Correct Answer: C
A female client informs the nurse that she uses herbal therapies to supplement her diet and manage common ailments. What information should the nurse offer the client about general use of herbal supplements? A. Most herbs are toxic or carcinogenic and should be used only when proven effective. B. There is no evidence that herbs are safe or effective as compared to conventional supplements in maintaining health. C. Herbs should be obtained from manufacturers with a history of quality control of their supplements. D. Herbal therapies may mask the symptoms of serious disease, so frequent medical evaluation is required during use.
The components of every pain assessment should include sensory patterns, area, intensity, and nature (PAIN) of the pain (A) and are essential in identifying appropriate therapy for the client's specific type and severity of pain, which may indicate the onset of disease progression or complications. Triggers (B), current drug usage (C), and sympathetic responses (D), such as tachycardia, diaphoresis, and elevated blood pressure, are important, but should be obtained after focusing on (A). Correct Answer: A
A female client who has breast cancer with metastasis to the liver and spine is admitted with constant, severe pain despite around-the-clock use of oxycodone (Percodan) and amitriptyline (Elavil) for pain control at home. During the admission assessment, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain? A. Sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of the pain. B. Trigger points identified by palpation and manual pressure of painful areas. C. Schedule and total dosages of drugs currently used for breakthrough pain. D. Sympathetic responses consistent with onset of acute pain.
Even if this is only one incident, the nurse may be suspected of taking medications on a regular basis and the incident could be interpreted as diversion (A), or diverting narcotics for her own use, which should be reported to the peer review committee and to the State Board of Nursing. (B, C, and D) are also of concern, but (A) is the most serious possible outcome. Correct Answer: A
A female nurse who sometimes tries to save time by putting medications in her uniform pocket to deliver to clients, confides that after arriving home she found a hydrocodone (Vicoden) tablet in her pocket. Which possible outcome of this situation should be the nurse's greatest concern? A. Accused of diversion. B. Reported for stealing. C. Reported for a HIPAA violation. D. Accused of unprofessional conduct.
Any possible break in surgical asepsis that is identified when others are unaware should be considered contaminated and new sterile supplies added to maintain the sterile field (D). Reporting the healthcare provider is not indicated (A). When sterility is suspect during aseptic technique, it should not be questioned (C) but all members of the team should move forward with reestablishing a sterile field. Allowing the procedure to progress under unsterile conditions (B) places the client at risk for infection and is an act of omission (negligence) by the nurse and other healthcare team members. Correct Answer: D
A healthcare provider is performing a sterile procedure at a client's bedside. Near the end of the procedure, the nurse observes the healthcare provider contaminate a sterile glove and the sterile field. What is the best action for the nurse to implement? A. Report the healthcare provider for the violation in aseptic technique. B. Allow the completion of the procedure. C. Ask if the glove and sterile field are contaminated. D. Identify the break in surgical asepsis and provide another set of sterile supplies.
adipose
A loose connective tissue made up of specialized cells called adipocytes, which store triglycerides. Adipose tissue is a major reserve of body energy and supports and protects various organs. In histology, adipose tissue or body fat or just fat is loose connective tissue composed of adipocytes. It is technically composed of roughly only 80% fat; fat in its solitary state exists in the liver and muscles. Adipose tissue is derived from lipoblasts. Its main role is to store energy in the form of fat, although it also cushions and insulates the body. Obesity or being overweight in humans and most animals does not depend on body weight but on the amount of body fat—to be specific, adipose tissue. Two types of adipose tissue exist: white adipose tissue (WAT) and brown adipose tissue (BAT). Adipose tissue also serves as an important endocrine organ[1] by producing hormones such as leptin, resistin, and the cytokine TNFα. The formation of adipose tissue appears to be controlled by the adipose gene. Adipose tissue was first identified by the Swiss naturalist Conrad Gessner in 1551.
Advance directives are written statements of a person's wishes regarding medical care, and verbal directives may be given to a healthcare provider with specific instructions in the presence of two witnesses. To obtain this prescription, the client should discuss his choice with the healthcare provider (B). (A) is insufficient to implement the client's request without legal consequences. Although (C and D) provide legal protection of the client's wishes, the present request needs additional action. Correct Answer: B
A male client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops cryptococcal meningitis and tells the nurse he does not want to be resuscitated if his breathing stops. What action should the nurse implement? A. Document the client's request in the medical record. B. Ask the client if this decision has been discussed with his healthcare provider. C. Inform the client that a written, notarized advance directive, is required to withhold resuscitation efforts. D. Advise the client to designate a person to make healthcare decisions when the client is unable to do so.
(A) provides the best schedule, because QID means four times per day. (B, C, and D) provide incorrect dosages. Correct Answer: A
A medication is prescribed to be given QID. What schedule should the nurse use to administer this prescription? A. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000. B. 800. C. Every other day at 0800. D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000, 0000, 0400.
The nurse should deal with the issue immediately and explain that a client's records are the property of the hospital and cannot be removed (D), even with the client's permission (C). Next, the clinical instructor should be notified (B)so that all students can be educated regarding copying and removing clinical records from the healthcare agency. The nursing supervisor (A) should also be alerted to ensure appropriate supervision of students as well as protection of client information. Correct Answer: D
A nurse observes a student nurse taking a copy of a client's medication administration record. When questioned, the student states, Another student is scheduled to administer medications for this client tomorrow, so I am going to make a copy to help my friend prepare for tomorrow's clinical. What response should the nurse provide first? A. Ask the nursing supervisor to meet with the students. B. Notify the student's clinical instructor of the situation. C. Ask the student if permission was obtained from the client. D. Explain that the records are hospital property and may not be removed.
collagen
A protein which is the main component of connective tissue. Collagen is a group of naturally occurring proteins. In nature, it is found exclusively in animals.[1][clarification needed] It is the main protein of connective tissue. It is the most abundant protein in mammals,[2] making up about 25% to 35% of the whole-body protein content. In muscle tissue it serves as a major component of endomysium. Collagen constitutes 1% to 2% of muscle tissue, and accounts for 6% of the weight of strong, tendinous muscles.[3] Gelatin, which is used in food and industry, is derived from collagen.
The client was not properly informed of the procedure, and failure to obtain informed consent constitutes assault and battery (C). (A) is injury to economics and dignity, such as invasion of privacy or defamation of character. This is not an incident of failure to respect the client's autonomy (B). An unintentional tort (D) is an act in which the outcome was not expected, such as negligence or malpractice. Correct Answer: C
A signed consent form indicated a client should have an electromyogram, but a myelogram was performed instead. Though the myelogram revealed the cause of the client's back pain, which was subsequently treated, the client filed a lawsuit against the nurse and healthcare provider for performing the incorrect procedure. The court is likely to rule in favor of the plaintiff because these events represent what infraction? A. A quasi-intentional tort because a similar mistake can happen to anyone. B. Failure to respect client autonomy to choose based on intentional tort law. C. Assault and battery with deliberate intent to deviate from the consent form. D. An unintentional tort because the client benefited from having the myelogram.
Organelle
A structurally discrete component of a cell that performs a specific function.
endocrine
A system of glands without ducts that deliver their secretions directly into the bloodstream.
cuboidal
A type of epithelial tissue whose cells are shaped like cubes or blocks.
Vasodilation
A widening of the diameter of a blood vessel.
* Hypothalamus
Appetite
ECG
Abbreviation for electrocardiogram, which is a record of the electrical activity of the heart.
During the process of transcription, a sequence of RNA is generated in which the RNA base cytosine (C) is inserted complementary to the DNA base guanine (G). Which RNA base is inserted complementary to the DNA base thymine (T)?
Adenine
Untoward
Adverse or negative
Once a client has been premedicated for surgery with any type of sedative, legal informed consent is not possible, so the nurse must notify the surgeon (A). (B, C, and D) are not legally viable options for ensuring informed consent. Correct Answer: A
After a client has been premedicated for surgery with an opioid analgesic, the nurse discovers that the operative permit has not been signed. What action should the nurse implement? A. Notify the surgeon that the consent form has not been signed. B. Read the consent form to the client before witnessing the client's signature. C. Determine if the client's spouse is willing to sign the consent form. D. Administer an opioid antagonist prior to obtaining the client's signature.
Promoter clearance
After the first bond is synthesized, the RNA polymerase must clear the promoter. During this time there is a tendency to release the RNA transcript and produce truncated transcripts. This is called abortive initiation and is common for both eukaryotes and prokaroytes[7]. Abortive initiation continues to occur until the σ factor rearranges, resulting in the transcription elongation complex (which gives a 35 bp moving footprint). The σ factor is released before 80 nucleotides of mRNA are synthesized[8]. Once the transcript reaches approximately 23 nucleotides, it no longer slips and elongation can occur. This, like most of the remainder of transcription, is an energy-dependent process, consuming adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Promoter clearance coincides with phosphorylation of serine 5 on the carboxy terminal domain of RNA Pol in eukaryotes, which is phosphorylated by TFIIH.
A client who can stand can safely be assisted to pivot and transfer with the use of a transfer belt (D). A mechanical lift (A) is usually used for a client who is obese, unable to be weight-bearing, and who is unable to assist. Roller boards (B) placed under a sheet are used to facilitate the transfer of a recumbent client who is being transferred to and from a stretcher. Lifting a client (C) out of bed places the client and nurses at risk for injury and should only be implemented by skilled lift teams. Correct Answer: D
An older client who is able to stand but not to ambulate receives a prescription to be mobilized into a chair as tolerated during each day. What is the best action for the nurse to implement when assisting the client from the bed to the chair? A. Use a mechanical lift to transfer from the bed to a chair. B. Place a roller board under the client who is sitting on the side of the bed and slide the client to the chair. C. Lift the client out of bed to the chair with another staff member using a coordinated effort on the count of three. D. Place a transfer belt around the client, assist to stand, and pivot to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed.
A 4-year-old typically has a vivid imagination and lacks concrete thinking abilities. The mother's assistance (C) can provide a stabilizing presence to help soothe the preschooler, who may perceive the invasive procedure as mutilating. To preserve the child's sense of security associated with the hospital room, it is best to perform difficult or painful procedures in another area (A). (B) may be necessary to prevent injury if the child is unable to cooperate with the mother's coaxing. (D) is best done before going to the treatment room when the child feels less threatened. Correct Answer: C
As the nurse prepares the equipment to be used to start an IV on a 4-year-old boy in the treatment room, he cries continuously. What intervention should the nurse implement? A. Take the child back to his room. B. Recruit others to restrain the child. C. Ask the mother to be present to soothe the child. D. Show the child how to manipulate the equipment.
Chromosomes
Bodies within the nucleus made of DNA and proteins called histones.
Characteristics of Proteins
Can act as hormones, catalyze chemical reactions and act in cell membrane trafficking.
Blood type: O
Can be donated to anyone.
Of all the molecules that are significant to biology, which of the following are considered the most important?
Carbohydrates, lipids, protein, and nucleic acids
Orbits
Cavities containing the eyes.
Which component of the cell contributes to the protection, communication, and passage of substances into and out of the cell?
Cell membrane
Which tissue serves as the framework of the body by providing support and structure for the organs?
Connective
What is the function of aldosterone?
Conserves sodium in the body
Retina
Contains rods and cones that are light sensitive cells.
In order for inhalation to occur, what must happen?
Contraction of the diaphragm, which enlarges the chest cavity and draws air into the lungs
Striated
Controls muscles by conscious thought.
What is another word for skull?
Cranium
Dorsal Horn
Crescent-shaped projection of gray matter within the spinal cord where the sensory neurons enter the spinal cord.
Zygote
Derived from the Greek meaning 'yoked', a zygote is the cell that results from fertilization. It is the union of a spermatozoon and an ovum — the mature germ cells, known also as the male and female gametes (from the Greek for husband and wife). Each of the two gametes is haploid, meaning that the nucleus has half the number of chromosomes of normal body cells. Their union results in the diploid zygote, with a full set of chromosomes, carrying the combination of genes that will determine all the bodily characteristics of the new individual. When, as a result of this union, matched genes (alleles) at particular sites on the newly paired chromosomes are different from each other, the zygote, and hence the resulting individual, is heterozygous with respect to those genes. It is homozygous if the pairs are identical. Since one of a dissimilar pair of genes can dominate the other, whereas identical pairs can act in unison, this is crucial to the suppression or emergence of the relevant inherited trait. The zygote carries within its single cell continuing threads in the immemorial lifespan of the human race, as well as the mixed-and-matched microscopic material from which will stem the intricacies common to all human bodies, yet with the remarkable uniqueness of a particular person.
What is the weakest of all the intermolecular forces?
Dispersion
Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence/ The medication will make the patient _photosensitive__.
Easily burned when in direct sunlight
What are the glands of skin that produce a thin, watery secretion?
Eccrine glands
Motor or ______ neurons transmit nerve impulses away from the CNS.
Efferent
Epithelial Tissues
Epithelial tissue covers the whole surface of the body. It is made up of cells closely packed and ranged in one or more layers. This tissue is specialised to form the covering or lining of all internal and external body surfaces. Epithelial tissue that occurs on surfaces on the interior of the body is known as endothelium. Epithelial cells are packed tightly together, with almost no intercellular spaces and only a small amount of intercellular substance. Epithelial tissue, regardless of the type, is usually separated from the underlying tissue by a thin sheet of connective tissue; basement membrane. The basement membrane provides structural support for the epithelium and also binds it to neighbouring structures. Types of Epithelial Tissue Epithelial tissue can be divided into two groups depending on the number of layers of which it is composes. Epithelial tissue which is only one cell thick is known as simple epithelium. If it is two or more cells thick such as the skin, it is known as stratified epithelium.
At the heart of the immune response is the ability to distinguish between self and non-self.
Every body cell carries distinctive molecules that distinguish it as "self." Normally the body's defenses do not attack tissues that carry a self marker; rather, immune cells coexist peaceably with other body cells in a state known as self-tolerance (Source: National Cancer Institute).
Primary
First or most significant
Enzymes
Functional proteins; their names usually end in ase.
Which cell organelle functions to transport materials from the endoplasmic reticulum throughout the cell?
Golgi apparatus
Which structure is found in protists but not in monerans?
Golgi apparatus
What is the best description for the term febrile?
Having a fever
* Cerebral Cortex
High intellectual function
What is a benefit of water's ability to make hydrogen bonds?
High specific heat
Select the word or phrase that makes this sentence grammatically correct. I want _____ to sing.
Him
What substance causes extreme dilation of arterioles and capillaries, stagnating blood flow within the tissues and leading to profound shock?
Histamine
The nurse should be careful to keep the soiled linens from contaminating the fresh linens, and should handle the soiled linens like any other dirty linen (C). (A, B, and D) are not indicated. Correct Answer: C
How should the nurse handle linens that are soiled with incontinent feces? A. Put the soiled linens in an isolation bag, then place it in the dirty linen hamper. B. Place an isolation hamper in the client's room and discard the linens in it. C. Place the soiled linens in a pillow case and deposit them in the dirty linen hamper. D. Ask the housekeeping staff to pick up the soiled linen from the dirty utility room.
Diagnosis
Identification of an injury or disease
Endocrine System
In animal anatomy the endocrine system is a system of glands, each of which secretes a type of hormone into the bloodstream to regulate the body. The endocrine system is an information signal system like the nervous system. Hormones regulate many functions of an organism, including mood, growth and development, tissue function, and metabolism. The field of study that deals with disorders of endocrine glands is endocrinology, a branch of internal medicine. The endocrine system is made up of a series of ductless glands that produce chemicals called hormones. A number of glands that signal each other in sequence is usually referred to as an axis, for example, the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. Typical endocrine glands are the pituitary, thyroid, and adrenal glands. Features of endocrine glands are, in general, their ductless nature, their vascularity, and usually the presence of intracellular vacuoles or granules storing their hormones. In contrast, exocrine glands, such as salivary glands, sweat glands, and glands within the gastrointestinal tract, tend to be much less vascular and have ducts or a hollow lumen. In addition to the specialised endocrine organs mentioned above, many other organs that are part of other body systems, such as the kidney, liver, heart and gonads, have secondary endocrine functions. For example the kidney secretes endocrine hormones such as erythropoietin and renin.
Deep palpation may be required to palpate the femoral pulse; and, when palpated, the nurse should document the presence and volume of the pulse (B). The site is best palpated with the client supine; elevation of the head of the bed requires even deeper palpation (A). The use of deep palpation to feel the femoral pulse does not indicate a problem requiring further assessment, such as (C), and does not reflect the presence of edema (D). Correct Answer: B
In assessing a client's femoral pulse, the nurse must use deep palpation to feel the pulsation while the client is in a supine position. What action should the nurse implement? A. Elevate the head of the bed and attempt to palpate the site again. B. Document the presence and volume of the pulse palpated. C. Use a thigh cuff to measure the blood pressure in the leg. D. Record the presence of pitting edema in the inguinal area.
In evaluating care, the nurse should first determine if the expected outcomes of the plan of care were achieved (A). As indicated, the nurse may then review the initial nursing actions and the rationales for those actions (B), document successful completion of the care plan goals (C), and revise the plan of care (D). Correct Answer: A
In evaluating client care, which action should the nurse take first? A. Determine if the expected outcomes of care were achieved. B. Review the rationales used as the basis of nursing actions. C. Document the care plan goals that were successfully met. D. Prioritize interventions to be added to the client's plan of care.
How does meiosis differ from mitosis?
In meiosis, each of the daughter cells contains half as many chromosomes as the parent
Meiosis
In biology, meiosis (pronounced maɪˈoʊsɨs (help·info)) is a process of reductional division in which the number of chromosomes per cell is cut in half. In animals, meiosis always results in the formation of gametes, while in other organisms it can give rise to spores. As with mitosis, before meiosis begins, the DNA in the original cell is replicated during S-phase of the cell cycle. Two cell divisions separate the replicated chromosomes into four haploid gametes or spores. Meiosis is essential for sexual reproduction and therefore occurs in all eukaryotes (including single-celled organisms) that reproduce sexually. A few eukaryotes, notably the Bdelloid rotifers, have lost the ability to carry out meiosis and have acquired the ability to reproduce by parthenogenesis. Meiosis does not occur in archaea or bacteria, which reproduce via asexual processes such as binary fission. During meiosis, the genome of a diploid germ cell, which is composed of long segments of DNA packaged into chromosomes, undergoes DNA replication followed by two rounds of division, resulting in four haploid cells. Each of these cells contains one complete set of chromosomes, or half of the genetic content of the original cell. If meiosis produces gametes, these cells must fuse during fertilization to create a new diploid cell, or zygote before any new growth can occur. Thus, the division mechanism of meiosis is a reciprocal process to the joining of two genomes that occurs at fertilization. Because the chromosomes of each parent undergo homologous recombination during meiosis, each gamete, and thus each zygote, will have a unique genetic blueprint encoded in its DNA. Together, meiosis and fertilization constitute sexuality in the eukaryotes, and generate genetically distinct individuals in populations. In all plants, and in many protists, meiosis results in the formation of haploid cells that can divide vegetatively without undergoing fertilization, referred to as spores. In these groups, gametes are produced by mitosis. Meiosis uses many of the same biochemical mechanisms employed during mitosis to accomplish the redistribution of chromosomes. There are several features unique to meiosis, most importantly the pairing and recombination between homologous chromosomes. Meiosis comes from the root -meio, meaning less.
The nurse's first priority is to notify the family of the resident's impending death (C). The family may request that hospice care is initiated (A). Reporting the client's acuity level (B) does not have the priority of informing the family of the client's condition. Once the family is contacted, the nurse can also contact the chaplain (D). Correct Answer: C
In providing care for a terminally ill resident of a long-term care facility, the nurse determines that the resident is exhibiting signs of impending death and has a "do not resuscitate" or DNR status. What intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Request hospice care for the client. B. Report the client's acuity level to the nursing supervisor. C. Notify family members of the client's condition. D. Inform the chaplain that the client's death is imminent.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
In response to stress, ACTH secretes steroid hormones called cortiocosteriods
T cells
In the human immune system, responsible for recognizing non self cells
Small Intestine
In vertebrates, the small intestine is the part of the gastrointestinal tract (gut) following the stomach and followed by the large intestine, and is where the vast majority of digestion and absorption of food takes place. In invertebrates such as worms, the terms "gastrointestinal tract" and "large intestine" are often used to describe the entire intestine. This article is primarily about the human gut, though the information about its processes are directly applicable to most mammals.[2] (A major exception to this are cows; for information about digestion in cows and other similar mammals, see ruminants.) Size and divisions The small intestine in an adult human measures on average about 5 meters (16 feet), with a normal range of 3 - 7 meters; it can measure around 50% longer at autopsy because of loss of smooth muscle tone after death. It is approximately 2.5-3 cm in diameter. Although the small intestine is much longer than the large intestine (typically around 3 times longer), it gets its name from its comparatively smaller diameter. Although as a simple tube the length and diameter of the small intestine would have a surface area of only about 0.5m2, the surface complexity of the inner lining of the small intestine increase its surface area by a factor of 500 to approximately 200m2, or roughly the size of a tennis court. The small intestine is divided into three structural parts: .. Duodenum 26 cm (9.8 in) in length Jejunum 2.5 m (8.2 ft) Ileum 3.5 m (11.5 ft)
Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The _proliferation_ of resistant bacteria as alarmed medical professionals.
Increase
Insulin overdose
Increased conversion of glucose to glycogen.
* Cardiac Muscle
Involuntary action
* Medulla Oblongata
Involuntary centers that controls the rate of breathing.
What happens to mRNA as it reached the cytoplasm?
It attaches to a ribosome
Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood does which of the following?
It is converted to bicarbonate ions by carbonic anhydrase within red blood cells
What happens to glucose during glycolysis?
It splits into molecules of pyretic acid
Subcutaneous Tissue
Layer of tissue under the dermis that contains adipose tissue.
Ventricles
Lower chambers of the heart.
Which word refers to the lowest region of the spinal cord?
Lumbar
Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The client's condition was _exacerbated_ in fall.
Made Worse
What is the correct name of MgSo4?
Magnesium sulfate
communication (via receptors)
Membrane receptors generally function by binding the signal, or ligand and causing the production of a second signal (second messenger) that causes a cellular response. The diagram shows how the receptor for insulin functions. A pair of insulin molecules bind to receptors, causing a change in the protein structure that exposes a kinase or phosphate transferring enzyme inside the cell. The activated receptor kinase transfers a phosphate group to adjacent receptor molecules, leading to the activation of sub-cellular proteins and a cellular response to insulin. The receptors must be integral membrane proteins that pass through the lipid bi layer. Through this system, an insulin molecule can cause a response inside the cell without passing through the lipid bi layer.
What is the sum of all chemical reactions that occur in an organism?
Metabolism
Virus
Microscopic infectious agent capable of replicating only in living cells, usually causing infectious disease
Eye movement and papillary reflexes originate in which part of the central nervous system?
Midbrain
Select the word or phrase that will make the sentence grammatically correct. Within the ________ of the hospital, great emphasis is placed on calmness.
Milieu
A cell from heart muscle would more than likely contain an unusual high proportion of:
Mitochondria
Excess
More than what is needed or usual
Membranes, Glands, and Cartilage
Mucous, serous, synovial, and cutaneous are the principal kinds of membranes and are composed mainly of epithelial tissue. Types of glands include sudoriferous, sebaceous, and ceruminous. Cartilage is replaced by bone in embryonic development and is found mainly in the joints, the thorax, and various rigid tubes.
Prune juice is a natural laxative that stimulates peristalsis, and warming the prune juice (B) facilitates peristalsis. (A) is also helpful in promoting peristalsis but is less likely to relieve the client's constipation. (C) reduces discomfort during ambulation, but will not help relieve the client's constipation. Defecation is not painful following most surgeries, and many analgesics used postoperatively cause constipation, so (D) is contraindicated. Correct Answer: B
On the third postoperative day following thoracic surgery, a client reports feeling constipated. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote bowel elimination? A. Remind the client to turn every two hours while lying in bed. B. Provide warm prune juice before the client goes to bed at night. C. Teach the client to splint the incision while walking to the bathroom. D. Administer an analgesic before the client attempts to defecate.
During pregnancy, what organ produces the hormones that maintain the endometrium and prepare the breasts for milk production?
Placenta
The nurse is analyzing (B) data to establish an individualized nursing diagnosis, such as, "Risk for injury related to side effects of drugs." This analysis is based on assessment (A) and guides the planning and implementation (C) of care, such as the decision to monitor the client frequently. (D) provides the nurse with information about the effectiveness of the plan of care. Correct Answer: B
Prior to administering a newly prescribed medication to a client, the nurse reviews the adverse effects of the medication listed in a drug reference guide and determines the priority risks to the client. While performing this action, the nurse is engaged in which step of the nursing process? A. Assessment. B. Analysis. C. Implementation. D. Evaluation.
What are the two functions of the male and female sex organs?
Production of gametes and production of hormones
At which phase of meiosis does crossing over occur?
Prophase 1
Which of the following statements about prostaglandins is NOT true?
Prostaglandins promote inflammation Prostaglandins can only constrict blood vessels. Prostaglandins are made in the renal medulla Prostaglandins can lead to pain and fever Prostaglandins can only constrict blood vessels (FALSE)
Actin
Protein making up the I band of the Sarcomere.
Respiration
Provides oxygen and removes CO2.
Accountable
Responsible
Ribosomes-
Ribosomes are the components of cells that make proteins from amino acids. primary function is to produce proteins. One of the central tenets of biology is that DNA makes RNA, which then makes protein. The DNA sequence in genes is copied into a messenger RNA (mRNA). Ribosomes then read the information in this RNA and use it to produce proteins. Ribosomes do this by binding to a messenger RNA and using it as a template for the correct sequence of amino acids in a particular protein. The amino acids are attached to transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules, which enter one part of the ribosome and bind to the messenger RNA sequence. The attached amino acids are then joined together by another part of the ribosome. The ribosome moves along the mRNA, "reading" its sequence and producing a chain of amino acids. Ribosomes are made from complexes of RNAs and proteins. Ribosomes are divided into two subunits, one larger than the other. The smaller subunit binds to the mRNA, while the larger subunit binds to the tRNA and the amino acids. When a ribosome finishes reading a mRNA these two subunits split apart. Ribosomes have been classified as ribozymes, since the ribosomal RNA seems to be most important for the peptidyl transferase activity that links amino acids together. Ribosomes from bacteria, archaea and eukaryotes (the three domains of life on Earth), have significantly different structure and RNA sequences. These differences in structure allow some antibiotics to kill bacteria by inhibiting their ribosomes, while leaving human ribosomes unaffected. The ribosomes in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells resemble those in bacteria, reflecting the evolutionary origin of this organelle.[1] The word ribosome comes from ribonucleic acid and the Greek: soma (meaning body).
*Starch
Saliva in the mouth begins the process of breaking down:
The cell membrane consists of a bilayer of phospholipids with proteins, cholesterol, and glycoproteins. This bilayer creates a hydrophobic region between two layers of lipids, making it which of the following?
Selectively permeable
The heart has an intrinsic beat that is initiated by which of the following?
Sinoatrial node
Cilia
Small hairlike projections on some cells.
Bile is secreted into which organ?
Small intestines
Which organelle wold you expect to be present in a cell responsible for detoxifying multiple molecules?
Smooth ER (endoplasmic reticulum)
Insidious
So gradual as to not become apparent for a long time
Which mineral is responsible for regulating fluid in the body?
Sodium
Which of the following are tropic hormones? (Select all that apply)
Somatotropin Follicle-stimulating hormone Thyroid-stimulating hormone
You have been given a sample of tissue that has open spaces partially filled by an assemblage of needlelike structures. What is the tissue?
Spongy bone
How do you convert Fahrenheit to Celsius?
Subtract 32 from temperature, and divide by 1.8.
Cells also contain a nucleus within which is found DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) in the form of chromatin (or chromosomes during cell division) plus nucleoli (within which ribosomes are formed)
The Nucleus and Nucleolus The nucleus is the most obvious organelle in any eukaryotic cell. It is a membrane-bound organelle and is surrounded by a double membrane. It communicates with the surrounding cytosol via numerous nuclear pores. Within the nucleus is the DNA responsible for providing the cell with its unique characteristics. The DNA is similar in every cell of the body, but depending on the specific cell type, some genes may be turned on or off - that's why a liver cell is different from a muscle cell, and a muscle cell is different from a fat cell. When a cell is dividing, the DNA and surrounding protein condense into chromosomes (see photo) that are visible by microscopy. The prominent structure in the nucleus is the nucleolus. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, which move out of the nucleus to positions on the rough endoplasmic reticulum where they are critical in protein synthesis.
Prognosis
The anticipated or expected course or outcome
Spinal Column
The backbone that protects the spinal cord, which runs inside of it.
Lymphocytes
The cells of the adaptive immune system are special types of leukocytes, called lymphocytes. B cells and T cells are the major types of lymphocytes.
According to states' nurse practice acts, it is the responsibility of the nurse to function within the scope of competency (D), and in this case safe nursing practice constitutes refusal to perform the procedure because of a lack of experience. Although state mandates, agency policies, and continued education and experience identify tasks that are within the scope of nursing practice, nurses should first refuse to perform tasks that are beyond their proficiency, and then pursue opportunities to enhance their competency (A, B, and C). Correct Answer: D
The charge nurse assigns a nursing procedure to a new staff nurse who has not previously performed the procedure. What action is most important for the new staff nurse to take? A. Review the steps in the procedure manual. B. Ask another nurse to assist while implementing the procedure. C. Follow the agency's policy and procedure. D. Refuse to perform the task that is beyond the nurse's experience.
Human Anatomy Terms
The following terms are those which are used to identify the location of parts of the human body in medicine and academic study. These terms are often used to describe a specific portion of a structure or to compare the locations of two different structures. "The hand is distal to the forearm" or "the medial portion of the frontal bone contains the frontal sinus" are examples of this. We have organized this list of terms by keeping similar pairs or groups of terms together instead of by alphabetical order so that you will find them easier to learn and remember. Superior - toward the head Inferior - away from the head Anterior - the front of the body or body part Posterior - the back of the body or body part Medial - toward the midline that divides left and right Lateral - to the side away from the midline Proximal - closer to the torso Distal - farther away from the torso Anatomical position - standing erect, facing the observer, arms are at the sides with palms facing forward.
Analysis of behavior patterns using Erikson's framework can identify age-appropriate or arrested development of normal interpersonal skills. Erikson describes the successful resolution of a developmental crisis in the later years (older than 65-years) to include the achievement of a sense of integrity and fulfillment, wisdom, and a willingness to face one's own mortality and accept the death of others (B). Depression is a component of normal grieving, and (A) does not represent susceptible adaptation to the developmental crisis of an older adult, Integrity vs despair. (C and D) are judgmental and not therapeutic. Correct Answer: B
The daughter of an older woman who became depressed following the death of her husband asks, "My mother was always well-adjusted until my father died. Will she tend to be sick from now on?" Which response is best for the nurse to provide? A. She is almost sure to be less able to adapt than before. B. It's highly likely that she will recover and return to her pre-illness state. C. If you can interest her in something besides religion, it will help her stay well. D. Cultural strains contribute to each woman's tendencies for recurrences of depression.
The three fibers of the cytoskeleton-microtubules in blue, intermediate filaments in red, and actin in green-play countless roles in the cell.
The cyotoskeleton represents the cell's skeleton. Like the bony skeletons that give us stability, the cytoskeleton gives our cells shape, strength, and the ability to move, but it does much more than that. The cytoskeleton is made up of three types of fibers that constantly shrink and grow to meet the needs of the cell: microtubules, microfilaments, and actin filaments. Each type of fiber looks, feels, and functions differently. Microtubules consists of a strong protein called tubulin and they are the 'heavy lifters' of the cytoskeleton. They do the tough physical labor of separating duplicate chromosomes when cells copy themselves and serve as sturdy railway tracks on which countless molecules and materials shuttle to and fro. They also hold the ER and Golgi neatly in stacks and form the main component of flagella and cilia. Microfilaments are unusual because they vary greatly according to their location and function in the body. For example, some microfilaments form tough coverings, such as in nails, hair, and the outer layer of skin (not to mention animal claws and scales). Others are found in nerve cells, muscle cells, the heart, and internal organs. In each of these tissues, the filaments are made of different proteins. Actin filament are made up of two chains of the protein actin twisted together. Although actin filaments are the most brittle of the cytoskeletal fibers, they are also the most versatile in terms of the shapes they can take. They can gather together into bundles, weblike networks, or even three-dimensional gels. They shorten or lengthen to allow cells to move and change shape. Together with a protein partner called myosin, actin filaments make possible the muscle contractions necessary for everything from your action on a sports field to the automatic beating of your heart.
Female Reproductive System:
The female reproductive system (or female genital system) contains two main parts: the uterus, which hosts the developing fetus, produces vaginal and uterine secretions, and passes the male's sperm through to the fallopian tubes; and the ovaries, which produce the female's egg cells. These parts are internal; the vagina meets the external organs at the vulva, which includes the labia, clitoris and urethra. The vagina is attached to the uterus through the cervix, while the uterus is attached to the ovaries via the Fallopian tubes. At certain intervals, the ovaries release an ovum, which passes through the Fallopian tube into the uterus. If, in this transit, it meets with sperm, the sperm penetrate and merge with the egg, fertilizing it. The fertilization usually occurs in the oviducts, but can happen in the uterus itself. The zygote then implants itself in the wall of the uterus, where it begins the processes of embryogenesis and morphogenesis. When developed enough to survive outside the womb, the cervix dilates and contractions of the uterus propel the fetus through the birth canal, which is the vagina. The ova are larger than sperm and have formed by the time a female is born. Approximately every month, a process of oogenesis matures one ovum to be sent down the Fallopian tube attached to its ovary in anticipation of fertilization. If not fertilized, this egg is flushed out of the system through menstruation.
apical surface
The free or unattached surface of an epithelial cell. Epithelia are sheets of cells that provide the interface between masses of cells and a cavity or space (a lumen). •The portion of the cell exposed to the lumen is called its apical surface. •The rest of the cell (i.e., its sides and base) make up the basolateral surface. Tight junctions seal adjacent epithelial cells in a narrow band just beneath their apical surface. Tight junctions perform two vital functions: •They prevent the passage of molecules and ions through the space between cells. So materials must actually enter the cells (by diffusion or active transport) in order to pass through the tissue. This pathway provides control over what substances are allowed through. •They block the movement of integral membrane proteins (red and green ovals) between the apical and basolateral surfaces of the cell. Thus the special functions of each surface, for example ◦receptor-mediated endocytosis at the apical surface ◦exocytosis at the basolateral surface can be preserved.
Diarrhea can lead to fluid volume loss, which is potentially life-threatening, so the highest priority is to prevent a fluid volume imbalance (D). Diarrhea and bowel incontinence can also lead to (A, B, and C), but these are of less potential harm than a fluid volume deficit. Correct Answer: D
The home health nurse visits an elderly client who lives at home with her husband. The client is experiencing frequent episodes of diarrhea and bowel incontinence. Which problem, for which the client is at risk, has the greatest priority when planning the client's care? A. Disturbed sleep pattern. B. Caregiver role strain. C. Impaired skin integrity. D. Fluid volume imbalance.
Male Reproductive System:
The human male reproductive system (or male genital system) consists of a number of sex organs that are a part of the human reproductive process. In the case of men, these sex organs are located outside a man's body, around the pelvic region. The main male sex organs are the penis and the testes which produce semen and sperm, which as part of sexual intercourse fertilize an ovum in a woman's body and the fertilized ovum (zygote) gradually develops into a fetus, which is later born as a child
Skeletal System
The human skeleton consists of both fused and individual bones supported and supplemented by ligaments, tendons, muscles and cartilage. It serves as a scaffold which supports organs, anchors muscles, and protects organs such as the brain, lungs and heart. The biggest bone in the body is the femur in the upper leg, and the smallest is the stapes bone in the middle ear. In an adult, the skeleton comprises around 14% of the total body weight,[1] and half of this weight is water. Fused bones include those of the pelvis and the cranium. Not all bones are interconnected directly: There are three bones in each middle ear called the ossicles that articulate only with each other. The hyoid bone, which is located in the neck and serves as the point of attachment for the tongue, does not articulate with any other bones in the body, being supported by muscles and ligaments.
endoderm
The innermost of the three primary embryonic germ layers, which gives rise to the GI tract, urinary bladder and urethra, and respiratory tract.
Which sentence is grammatically correct?
The little girl wanted him to read a story to her.
Red Blood Cells
The most abundant cells present in blood, and their primary function is to transport oxygen.
Oral Cavity
The mouth; also known as the buccal cavity.
If resistance is encountered during the initial insertion of an enema tube, the client should be instructed to relax while a small amount of solution runs through the tube into the rectum (D) to promote dilation. (A) is unlikely to resolve the problem. (B) may cause injury. (C) should not be implemented until other, less invasive actions, such as (D) have been taken. Correct Answer: D
The nurse encounters resistance when inserting the tubing into a client's rectum for a tap water enema. What action should the nurse implement? A. Withdraw the tube and apply additional lubricant to the tube. B. Encourage the client to bear down and continue to insert the tube. C. Remove the tube and check the client for a fecal impaction. D. Ask the client to relax and run a small amount of fluid into the rectum.
collagen fiber
The most common of three types of fiber embedded in the matrix between cells of connective tissue. These lie in parallel rows, and add great strength. Collagen fibers are an essential component of the body as it is a type of protein. Given below is some interesting information about these collagen fibers, so take a look. As it is well known, collagen fibers are naturally occurring proteins found exclusively in animals and they are the main proteins in the connective tissues. Collagen fiber is the most commonly found protein in mammals and it makes up 25 to 35% of the whole body protein. Since 1930s scientists have been performing active research on the conformation of the collagen monomer which is sheet like or microfibrillar. This monomeric structure of the collagen fibers was described by Fraser, Miller and Wess with close observation. The collagen molecule is also called the 'tropocollagen' and is a aggregate of larger collagen fibrils. Given below is a detailed description about collagen fibers and their function. Collagen Fiber Information Tropocollagen, is approximately 300 nm in length and 1.5 nm in diameter. It is made up of polypeptide strands known as the alpha chains and each of them is a left handed helix in conformation. There are three such left handed helices which are twisted together to form a right handed triple helix or super helix which are bonded to each other with hydrogen bonds. This entire molecule which is collectively called the collagen fiber is made up of a regular arrangement of amino acids and hence it's called a protein. Read on for information about the formation, types and function of these collagen fibers. More on collagen injections. Collagen Fiber Types Collagen is found in many parts of the body but the most common is the collagen fibers connective tissue. Throughout the body there are 29 types of collagen which have been identified till date. However more than 80% of the collagen in the body are of the types I, II, III and IV, each type found in different parts of the body. •Collagen I is found in the skin, organs, bones and tendons. •Collagen II is found in cartilages all over the body. •Collagen III is a major component of reticular fibers and along type I. •Collagen IV is found in the cell basement membrane. The most commonly found collagen type is the first one and so we have discussed the formation of the collagen type I for you to get a better idea on how it is formed.
Nervous System
The nervous system is an organ system containing a network of specialized cells called neurons that coordinate the actions of an animal and transmit signals between different parts of its body. In most animals the nervous system consists of two parts, central and peripheral. The central nervous system contains the brain, spinal cord, and retina. The peripheral nervous system consists of sensory neurons, clusters of neurons called ganglia, and nerves connecting them to each other and to the central nervous system. These regions are all interconnected by means of complex neural pathways. The enteric nervous system, a subsystem of the peripheral nervous system, has the capacity, even when severed from the rest of the nervous system through its primary connection by the vagus nerve, to function independently in controlling the gastrointestinal system. Neurons send signals to other cells as electrochemical waves travelling along thin fibres called axons, which cause chemicals called neurotransmitters to be released at junctions called synapses. A cell that receives a synaptic signal may be excited, inhibited, or otherwise modulated. Sensory neurons are activated by physical stimuli impinging on them, and send signals that inform the central nervous system of the state of the body and the external environment. Motor neurons, situated either in the central nervous system or in peripheral ganglia, connect the nervous system to muscles or other effector organs. Central neurons, which in vertebrates greatly outnumber the other types, make all of their input and output connections with other neurons. The interactions of all these types of neurons form neural circuits that generate an organism's perception of the world and determine its behavior. Along with neurons, the nervous system contains other specialized cells called glial cells (or simply glia), which provide structural and metabolic support. Nervous systems are found in most multicellular animals, but vary greatly in complexity.[1] Sponges have no nervous system, although they have homologs of many genes that play crucial roles in nervous system function, and are capable of several whole-body responses, including a primitive form of locomotion. Placozoans and mesozoans—other simple animals that are not classified as part of the subkingdom Eumetazoa—also have no nervous system. In Radiata (radially symmetric animals such as jellyfish) the nervous system consists of a simple nerve net. Bilateria, which include the great majority of vertebrates and invertebrates, all have a nervous system containing a brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. The size of the bilaterian nervous system ranges from a few hundred cells in the simplest worms, to on the order of 100 billion cells in humans. Neuroscience is the study of the nervous system.
Passive ROM exercise for the hip and knee is provided by supporting the joints of the knee and ankle (D) and gently moving the limb in a slow, smooth, firm but gentle manner. (A) should be done before the exercises are begun to prevent injury to the nurse and client. (B) is carried out after both joints are supported. After the knee is bent, then the knee is moved toward the chest to the point of resistance (C) two or three times. Correct Answer: D
The nurse is providing passive range of motion (ROM) exercises to the hip and knee for a client who is unconscious. After supporting the client's knee with one hand, what action should the nurse take next? A. Raise the bed to a comfortable working level. B. Bend the client's knee. C. Move the knee toward the chest as far as it will go. D. Cradle the client's heel.
The nurse should address the healthcare provider with the written report and discuss why he/she did not tell the client the truth--this may be at the family's request (A). (B, C, and D) may be indicated, but first the nurse should confer with the healthcare provider to obtain all needed information. Correct Answer: A
The nurse overhears the healthcare provider explaining to the client that the tumor removed was non-malignant and that the client will be fine. However, the nurse has read in the pathology report that the tumor was malignant and that there is extensive metastasis. Who should the nurse consult with first regarding the situation? A. Healthcare provider. B. Client's family. C. Case manager. D. Chief of staff.
Electron Transport Chain
The part of cellular respiration that directly produces a pH gradient during the oxidative metabolism of glucose.
What is the best description for the word distal?
The part of the body farthest from the injury
Respiratory System:
The respiratory system's function is to allow oxygen exchange through all parts of the body. The space between the alveoli and the capillaries, the anatomy or structure of the exchange system, and the precise physiological uses of the exchanged gases vary depending on organism. In humans and other mammals, for example, the anatomical features of the respiratory system include airways, lungs, and the respiratory muscles. Molecules of oxygen and carbon dioxide are passively exchanged, by diffusion, between the gaseous external environment and the blood. This exchange process occurs in the alveolar region of the lungs.[1] Other animals, such as insects, have respiratory systems with very simple anatomical features, and in amphibians even the skin plays a vital role in gas exchange. Plants also have respiratory systems but the directionality of gas exchange can be opposite to that in animals. The respiratory system in plants also includes anatomical features such as holes on the undersides of leaves known as stomata.
Why is polarity the most important characteristic of water?
The results of the polarity are hydrogen bonding, a high specific heat value, and its versatile solvent properties.
Sternum
The sternum is a flat, dagger shaped bone located in the middle of the chest. Along with the ribs, the sternum forms the rib cage that protects the heart, lungs, and major blood vessels from damage. The sternum is composed of three parts: The manubrim, also called the "handle", is located at the top of the sternum and moves slightly. It is connected to the first two ribs. The body, also called the "blade" or the "gladiolus", is located in the middle of the sternum and connects the third to seventh ribs directly and the eighth through tenth ribs indirectly. The xiphoid process, also called the "tip", is located on the bottom of the sternum. It is often cartilaginous (cartilage), but does become bony in later years. These three segments of bone are usually fused in adults. The sternum serves an important function in the body. The ribs are connected to it by the costal cartilage. Without the sternum, there would be a hole in the bone structure in the middle of your chest, right above your heart and lungs. The sternum protects this vital area and completes the circle of the rib cage.
Sphenoid bone
The sphenoid bone (from Greek sphenoeides, "wedgelike") is an unpaired bone situated at the base of the skull in front of the temporal bone and basilar part of the occipital bone. The sphenoid bone is one of the seven bones that articulate to form the orbit. Its shape somewhat resembles that of a butterfly or bat with its wings extended. A single, irregular, wedge-shaped bone at the base of the skull, which forms a part of the floor of the anterior, middle, and posterior cranial fossae. This bone is referred to as the keystone of the cranial floor because it articulates with all the other cranial bones.
The Upper Extremities
The upper extremity consists of three parts: the arm, the forearm, and the hand. The Arm The arm, or brachium, is technically only the region between the shoulder and elbow. It consists of a single long bone called the humerus. The humerus is the longest bone in the upper extremity. The top, or head, is large, smooth, and rounded and fits into the scapula in the shoulder. On the bottom of the humerus, are two depressions where the humerus connects to the ulna and radius of the forearm. The radius is connected on the side away from the body (lateral side) and the ulna is connected on the side towards the body (medial side) when standing in the anatomical position. Together, the humerus and the ulna make up the elbow. The bottom of the humerus protects the ulnar nerve and is commonly known as the "funny bone" because striking the elbow on a hard surface stimulates the ulnar nerve and produces a tingling sensation. The Forearm The forearm is the region between the elbow and the wrist. It is formed by the radius on the lateral side and the ulna on the medial side when the forearm is viewed in the anatomical position. The ulna is longer than the radius and connected more firmly to the humerus. The radius, however, contributes more to the movement of the wrist and hand than the ulna. When the hand is turned over so that the palm is facing downwards, the radius crosses over the ulna. The top of each bone connects to the humerus of the arm and the bottom of each connects to the bones of the hand. The Hand The hand consists of three parts (the wrist, palm, and five fingers) and 27 bones. The wrist, or carpus, consists of 8 small bones called the carpal bones that are tightly bound by ligaments. These bone are arranged in two rows of four bones each. The top row (the row closest to the forearm) from the lateral (thumb) side to the medial side contains the scaphoid, lunate, triquetral, and pisiform bones. The second row from lateral to medial contains the trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate. The scaphoid and lunate connect to the bottom of the radius. The palm or metacarpus consists of five metacarpal bones, one aligned with each of the fingers. The metacarpal bones are not named but are numbered I to V starting with the thumb. The bases of the metacarpal bones are connected to the wrist bones and the heads are connected to the bones of the fingers. The heads of the metacarpals form the knuckles of a clenched fist. The fingers are made up of 14 bones called phalanges. A single finger bone is called a phalanx. The phalanges are arranged in three rows. The first row (the closest to the metacarpals) is called the proximal row, the second row is the middle row, and the farthest row is called the distal row. Each finger has a proximal phalanx, a middle phalanx, and a distal phalanx, except the thumb (also called the pollex) which does not have a middle phalanx. The digits are also numbered I to V starting from the thumb.
Vertebral Column
The vertebral column (also called the backbone, spine, or spinal column) consists of a series of 33 irregularly shaped bones, called vertebrae. These 33 bones are divided into five categories depending on where they are located in the backbone. The first seven vertebrae are called the cervical vertebrae. Located at the top of the spinal column, these bones form a flexible framework for the neck and support the head. The first cervical vertebrae is called the atlas and the second is called the axis. The atlas' shape allows the head to nod "yes" and the axis' shape allows the head to shake "no". The next twelve vertebrae are called the thoracic vertebrae. These bones move with the ribs to form the rear anchor of the rib cage. Thoracic vertebrae are larger than cervical vertebrae and increase in size from top to bottom. After the thoracic vertebrae, come the lumbar vertebrae. These five bones are the largest vertebrae in the spinal column. These vertebrae support most of the body's weight and are attached to many of the back muscles. The sacrum is a triangular bone located just below the lumbar vertebrae. It consists of four or five sacral vertebrae in a child, which become fused into a single bone after age 26. The sacrum forms the back wall of the pelvic girdle and moves with it. The bottom of the spinal column is called the coccyx or tailbone. It consists of 3-5 bones that are fused together in an adult. Many muscles connect to the coccyx. These bones compose the vertebral column, resulting in a total of 26 movable parts in an adult. In between the vertebrae are intervertebral discs made of fibrous cartilage that act as shock absorbers and allow the back to move. As a person ages, these discs compress and shrink, resulting in a distinct loss of height (generally between 0.5 and 2.0cm) between the ages of 50 and 55. When looked at from the side, the spine forms four curves. These curves are called the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and pelvic curves. The cervical curve is located at the top of the spine and is composed of cervical vertebrae. Next come the thoracic and lumbar curves composed of thoracic and lumbar vertebrae respectively. The final curve called the pelvic or sacral curve is formed by the sacrum and coccyx. These curves allow human beings to stand upright and help to maintain the balance of the upper body. The cervical and lumbar curves are not present in an infant. The cervical curves forms around the age of 3 months when an infant begins to hold its head up and the lumbar curve develops when a child begins to walk. In addition to allowing humans to stand upright and maintain their balance, the vertebral column serves several other important functions. It helps to support the head and arms, while permitting freedom of movement. It also provides attachment for many muscles, the ribs, and some of the organs and protects the spinal cord, which controls most bodily functions.
*Triglycerides (chemical digestion)
They are hydrolyzed into fatty acids and glycerol.
Cilia and Flagella
These whiplike appendages extend from the surface of many types of eukaryotic cells. •If there are many of them, they are called cilia; •if only one, or a few, they are flagella. Flagella also tend to be longer than cilia but are otherwise similar in construction. Flagellum is relatively long and there's typically just one Function Cilia and flagella move liquid past the surface of the cell. •For single cells, such as sperm, this enables them to swim. •For cells anchored in a tissue, like the epithelial cells lining our air passages, this moves liquid over the surface of the cell (e.g., driving particle-laden mucus toward the throat). Structure Both cilia and flagella consist of: •a cylindrical array of 9 filaments consisting of: ◦a complete microtubule extending into the tip of the cilium; ◦a partial microtubule that doesn't extend as far into the tip. ◦cross-bridges of the motor protein dynein that extend from the complete microtubule of one filament to the partial microtubule of the adjacent filament. •a pair of single microtubules running up through the center of the bundle, producing the "9+2" arrangement. •The entire assembly is sheathed in a membrane that is an extension of the plasma membrane. This electron micrograph (courtesy of Peter Satir) shows a cilium in cross section. Each cilium (and flagellum) grows out from, and remains attached to, a basal body embedded in the cytoplasm. Basal bodies are identical to centrioles and are, in fact, produced by them. For example, one of the centrioles in developing sperm cells — after it has completed its role in the distribution of chromosomes during meiosis — becomes a basal body and produces the flagellum. The Sliding-Filament Model of Bending The bending of cilia (and flagella) has many parallels to the contraction of skeletal muscle fibers. Link to discussion of the sliding-filament model of skeletal muscle. In the case of cilia and flagella, dynein powers the sliding of the microtubules against one another — first on one side, then on the other.
Exacerbate
To make worse or more severe
A client with chronic pain is more likely to have adapted physiologically to vital sign changes, localization or intensity, so pain assessment should focus on any interference with daily activities (D), sleep, relationships with others, physical activity, and emotional well-being. Exacerbation of acute symptoms, such as pain distribution, patterns, intensity, and descriptors illicit specific assessment findings, whereas (A, B, and C) are limiting, closed-end questions, and can be answered with a yes, no, or a number. Correct Answer: D
To obtain the most complete assessment data for a client with chronic pain, which information should the nurse obtain? A. Can you describe where your pain is the most severe? B. What is your pain intensity on a scale of 1 to 10? C. Is your pain best described as aching, throbbing, or sharp? D. Which activities during a routine day are impacted by your pain?
Abstain
To voluntarily refrain from something
Device
Tool or piece of equipment
During protein synthesis, what process uses an RNA strand to produce a complementary strand of DNA?
Transcription
Transcription
Transcription, or RNA synthesis, is the process of creating an equivalent RNA copy of a sequence of DNA[1]. Both RNA and DNA are nucleic acids, which use base pairs of nucleotides as a complementary language that can be converted back and forth from DNA to RNA in the presence of the correct enzymes. During transcription, a DNA sequence is read by RNA polymerase, which produces a complementary, antiparallel RNA strand. As opposed to DNA replication, transcription results in an RNA complement that includes uracil (U) in all instances where thymine (T) would have occurred in a DNA complement. Transcription is the first step leading to gene expression. The stretch of DNA transcribed into an RNA molecule is called a transcription unit and encodes at least one gene. If the gene transcribed encodes for a protein, the result of transcription is messenger RNA (mRNA), which will then be used to create that protein via the process of translation. Alternatively, the transcribed gene may encode for either ribosomal RNA (rRNA) or transfer RNA (tRNA), other components of the protein-assembly process, or other ribozymes. A DNA transcription unit encoding for a protein contains not only the sequence that will eventually be directly translated into the protein (the coding sequence) but also regulatory sequences that direct and regulate the synthesis of that protein. The regulatory sequence before (upstream from) the coding sequence is called the five prime untranslated region (5'UTR), and the sequence following (downstream from) the coding sequence is called the three prime untranslated region (3'UTR). Transcription has some proofreading mechanisms, but they are fewer and less effective than the controls for copying DNA; therefore, transcription has a lower copying fidelity than DNA replication.[2] As in DNA replication, DNA is read from 3' → 5' during transcription. Meanwhile, the complementary RNA is created from the 5' → 3' direction. Although DNA is arranged as two antiparallel strands in a double helix, only one of the two DNA strands, called the template strand, is used for transcription. This is because RNA is only single-stranded, as opposed to double-stranded DNA. The other DNA strand is called the coding strand, because its sequence is the same as the newly created RNA transcript (except for the substitution of uracil for thymine). The use of only the 3' → 5' strand eliminates the need for the Okazaki fragments seen in DNA replication. Transcription is divided into 5 stages: pre-initiation, initiation, promoter clearance, elongation and termination.
Two types of cells that make up all living things on earth: prokaryotic and eukaryotic. Prokaryotic cells, like bacteria, have no 'nucleus', while eukaryotic cells, like those of the human body, do. So, a human cell is enclosed by a cell, or plasma, membrane. Enclosed by that membrane is the cytoplasm (with associated organelles) plus a nucleus.
Two types of cells that make up all living things on earth: prokaryotic and eukaryotic. Prokaryotic cells, like bacteria, have no 'nucleus', while eukaryotic cells, like those of the human body, do. So, a human cell is enclosed by a cell, or plasma, membrane. Enclosed by that membrane is the cytoplasm (with associated organelles) plus a nucleus.
Cone and Rods
Two types of specialized photoreceptor cells in the eye that respond to light:
In an emergency, a person with type AB antigen in his red blood cells may receive a transfusion of:
Type O, A or B (Type AB is a Universal acceptor)
*In an emergency, an individual with type AB antigen in his red blood cells may receive a transfusion of:
Type O, A or B blood
Adverse
Undesired, possibly harmful
Bathing often makes a client feel weak, and if a client is already feeling weak (B), assistance is required during the bathing process to ensure the client's safety. (A and C) do not pose safety issues. Although (D) may pose a safety issue, further assessment is needed to determine if this in fact poses a safety issue for the client. Correct Answer: B
What client statement indicates to the nurse that the client requires assistance with bathing? A. I wasn't able to pack a bag before I left for the hospital. B. I don't understand why I'm so weak and tired. C. I only bathe every other day. D. I left my eyeglasses at home.
The Unna's paste boot becomes rigid after it dries, so it is important to check distally for adequate circulation (A). Kerlix is often wrapped around the outside of the boot and an ace bandage may be used to cover both, but no bandage should be put under it (B). The Unna's paste boot should be applied from the foot and wrapped towards the knee (C). The Unna's paste boot acts as a sterile dressing, and should not be removed q8h. Weekly removal is reasonable (D). Correct Answer: A
What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who is being treated with an Unna's paste boot for leg ulcers due to chronic venous insufficiency? A. Check capillary refill of toes on lower extremity with Unna's paste boot. B. Apply dressing to wound area before applying the Unna's paste boot. C. Wrap the leg from the knee down towards the foot. D. Remove the Unna's paste boot q8h to assess wound healing.
Physical contact, such as touching the head, in some cultures is a sign of respect, whereas in others, it is strictly forbidden. So asking permission before touching a client (A) demonstrates culturally sensitive care. (B, C, and D) do not demonstrate cultural awareness. Correct Answer: A
What action by the nurse demonstrates culturally sensitive care? A. Asks permission before touching a client. B. Avoids questions about male-female relationships. C. Explains the differences between Western medical care and cultural folk remedies. D. Applies knowledge of a cultural group unless a client embraces Western customs.
The prone position (B) using a small pillow below the diaphragm maintains alignment and provides the best pressure relief over the sacral bony prominence. Using protective (restraining) devices (A) is not indicated. Raising the head and bed gatch (C) may reduce shearing forces due to sliding down in bed, but it interferes with venous return from the legs and places pressure on the sacrum, predisposing to ulcer formation. Sitting in a wheelchair (D) places the body weight over the ischial tuberosities and predisposes to a potential pressure point. Correct Answer: B
What action should the nurse implement to prevent the formation of a sacral ulcer for a client who is immobile? A. Maintain in a lateral position using protective wrist and vest devices. B. Position prone with a small pillow below the diaphragm. C. Raise the head and knee gatch when lying in a supine position. D. Transfer into a wheelchair close to the nurse's station for observation.
Wet or damp areas on a sterile field allow organisms to wick from the table surface and permeate into the sterile area, so the field is considered contaminated if it becomes wet (B). Outdated liquids may be contaminated and should be discarded, not used (A). The container's cap should be removed, placed facing up, and off the sterile field, not (C). To prevent contamination of the sterile field, liquids should be held close (6 inches) to the receptacle when pouring to prevent splashing, and the receptacle should be placed near the front edge to avoid reaching over or across the sterile field (D). Correct Answer: B
What action should the nurse implement when adding sterile liquids to a sterile field? A. Use an outdated sterile liquid if the bottle is sealed and has not been opened. B. Consider the sterile field contaminated if it becomes wet during the procedure. C. Remove the container cap and lay it with the inside facing down on the sterile field. D. Hold the container high and pour the solution into a receptacle at the back of the sterile field.
Centrioles
What are centrioles? Centrioles are cylindrical structures that are composed of groupings of microtubules arranged in a 9 + 3 pattern. The pattern is so named because a ring of nine microtubule "triplets" are arranged at right angles to one another. Centrioles are found in animal cells and play a role in cell division. Centrioles replicate in interphase stage of mitosis and they help to organize the assembly of microtubules during cell division. Centrioles called "basal bodies" form cilia and flagella. located near the nucleus
C (The nursing process is a problem-solving approach that provides an organized, systematic, decision making process to effectively address the client's needs and problems. The nursing process includes an organized framework using knowledge, judgments, and actions by the nurse as the client's plan of care is determined, and encompasses assessment, analysis, planning, implementation, and evaluation of client care (C). (A, B, and D) do not support the basis for using the nursing process. Correct Answer: C)
What is the rationale for using the nursing process in planning care for clients? A. As a scientific process to identify nursing diagnoses of a clients' healthcare problems. B. To establish nursing theory that incorporates the biopsychosocial nature of humans. C. As a tool to organize thinking and clinical decision making about clients' healthcare needs. D. To promote the management of client care in collaboration with other healthcare professionals.
Skin turgor is assessed by pinching the skin and observing for tenting. This finding confirms the diagnosis of fluid volume deficit, so the nurse should continue interventions to restore the client's fluid volume (C). Jugular vein distention (A) is a sign of fluid volume overload. High protein snacks (B) will not resolve the fluid volume deficit. Changes in the client's skin integrity are not evident (D). Correct Answer: C
When assessing a client with a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit, the nurse notes that the client's skin over the sternum "tents" when gently pinched. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Confirm the finding by further assessing the client for jugular vein distention. B. Offer the client high protein snacks between regularly scheduled mealtimes. C. Continue the planned nursing interventions to restore the client's fluid volume. D. Change the plan of care to include a nursing diagnosis of impaired skin integrity.
Maintaining a closed urinary drainage system is important to prevent infection, so the most immediate priority is to close the clamp (B) to reduce the risk for ascending microorganisms. If the drainage tubing is secured over the siderail (A), urine will not be able to flow out of the bladder, so the nurse should next reposition the tubing. (C and D) indicate correct care of the urinary drainage system, so documentation of an intact system is the last intervention needed. Correct Answer: B
When assessing a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, which observation requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse? A. The drainage tubing is secured over the siderail. B. The clamp on the urinary drainage bag is open. C. There are no dependent loops in the drainage tubing. D. The urinary drainage bag is attached to the bed frame.
A bed cradle is used to keep the top bedclothes off the client, so the nurse should drape the top sheet and covers loosely over the cradle (D). A client using a bed cradle may still be able to ambulate independently (A) and does not require raised side rails (B). (C) causes the nurse to use poor body mechanics. Correct Answer: D
When making the bed of a client who needs a bed cradle, which action should the nurse include? A. Teach the client to call for help before getting out of bed. B. Keep both the upper and lower side rails in a raised position. C. Keep the bed in the lowest position while changing the sheets. D. Drape the top sheet and covers loosely over the bed cradle.
Adequate visualization or palpation of the perineum (A) is essential to ensure correct placement of the catheter. (B) is not necessary to perform self-catheterization. During a self-catheterization, the client typically allows the urine to drain into an open collection device, rather than a drainage bag (C), and uses a straight catheter without a balloon (D). Correct Answer: A
When teaching a female client to perform intermittent self-catheterization, the nurse should ensure the client's ability to perform which action? A. Locate the perineum. B. Transfer to a commode. C. Attach the catheter to a drainage bag. D. Manipulate a syringe to inflate the balloon.
(C) is an open-ended question that encourages the client to discuss personal feelings. (A) devalues the client and hinders further communication. Acting defensively and asking why questions such as (B) are likely to elicit more anger and block communication. By deferring to the client advocate (D), the nurse fails to even address the client's feelings of anger and exasperation. Correct Answer: C
When the nurse enters a client's room to do an initial assessment, the client shouts, "Get out of my room! I'm tired of being bothered!" How should the nurse respond? A. There is no reason to be so angry. B. Why do I need to leave your room? C. What is concerning you this morning? D. Let me call the client advocate for you.
-blast
a suffix which denotes a less differentiated precursor cell. It may or may not retain mitotic capability. Examples: myeloblast (white cell precursor), osteoblast (bone cell precursor).
Possible contact with body secretions, excretions, or broken skin is an indication for wearing barrier (nonsterile) gloves. Emptying a urine drainage bag requires the use of gloves (D). (A, B, and C) do not require gloves. Correct Answer: D
Which client care requires the nurse to wear barrier gloves as required by the protocol for Standard Precautions? A. Removing the empty food tray from a client with a urinary catheter. B. Washing and combing the hair of a client with a fractured leg in traction. C. Administering oral medications to a cooperative client with a wound infection. D. Emptying the urinary catheter drainage bag for a client with Alzheimer's disease.
The best intervention to reduce the risk for urosepsis (spread of an infectious agent from the urinary tract to systemic circulation) is removal of the urinary catheter as quickly as possible (D). (A, B, and C) are helpful to reduce the risk of infection, but are of less priority than (D) in reducing the risk of urosepsis. Correct Answer: D
Which nursing intervention is most beneficial in reducing the risk of urosepsis in a hospitalized client with an indwelling urinary catheter? A. Ensure that the client's perineal area is cleansed twice a day. B. Maintain accurate documentation of the fluid intake and output. C. Encourage frequent ambulation if allowed or regular turning if on bedrest. D. Obtain a prescription for removal of the catheter as soon as possible.
Palatine bone
a bone of extremely irregular form on each side of the skull that is situated in the posterior part of the nasal cavity between the maxilla and the pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone and that consists of a horizontal plate which joins the bone of the opposite side and forms the back part of the hard palate and a vertical plate which is extended into three processes and helps to form the floor of the orbit, the outer wall of the nasal cavity, and several adjoining parts called also palate bone palatine. One of two irregularly shaped bones (L-shaped) forming the posterior part of the hard palate, the lateral wall of the nasal fossa between the medial pterygoid plate and the maxilla, and the posterior part of the floor of the orbit. The posterior part of the hard palate, which separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity, is formed by the horizontal plates.
anchoring junction
a cellular junction which serves to anchor cells to one another or to extracellular material; seen in tissues subjected to friction and stretching (e.g., muscle tissue of heart). Bricks in a building must be stuck together and also tied somehow to the foundation. Similarly, cells within tissues and organs must be anchored to one another and attached to components of the extracellular matrix. Cells have developed several types of junctional complexes to serve these functions, and in each case, anchoring proteins extend through the plasma membrane to link cytoskeletal proteins in one cell to cytoskeletal proteins in neighboring cells as well as to proteins in the extracellular matrix. Three types of anchoring junctions are observed, and differ from one another in the cytoskeletal protein anchor as well as the transmembrane linker protein that extends through the membrane:
Pons (brain)
relay center for cerebral cortical fibers
mitochondria
a double membrane bound organelle that makes ATP for cellular energy
membrane
a flexible sheet of tissue which may line cavities, or cover organs, joints, or the whole body.
Sulcus
a groove. In neuroanatomy, a sulcus (Latin: "furrow", pl. sulci) is a depression or fissure in the surface of the brain. It surrounds the gyri, creating the characteristic appearance of the brain in humans and other large mammals. Large furrows (sulci) that divide the brain into lobes are often called fissures. The large furrow that divides the two hemispheres—the interhemispheric fissure—is very rarely called a "sulcus".
subcutaneous layer (superficial fascia)
a sheet made up of connective tissue and adipose tissue which lies just below the dermis of the skin, but above the deep fascia of muscle.
-cyte
a suffix which denotes a differentiated or mature cell. It has usually lost its mitotic potential. Examples: osteocyte (mature bone cell), adipocyte (mature fat cell).
Lacrimal bone
a thin scalelike bone, roughly resembling a fingernail in size and shape, at the anterior part of the medial wall of the orbit, articulating with the frontal and ethmoidal bones and the maxilla and inferior nasal concha. The lacrimal bone, the smallest and most fragile bone of the face, is situated at the front part of the medial wall of the orbit. It has two surfaces and four borders.
TISSUE LEVEL
a tissue is a group of cells that perform a specific function and the basic types of tissues in the human body include epithelial, muscle, nervous, and connective tissues
Sinoatrial node
aka pacemaker region, during each cardiac cycle, heart gives the signal to contract
Cornea
at the front of the eye, bends and focuses light rays
Cholesterol is a fat normally found in humans. Excess cholesterol in the blood is often the cause of:
atherosclerosis
Inferior
below also, toward the feet.
Catabolism
break down of complex molecules to simpler molecules
Pepsin is a substance used by the body to
break down proteins
Medullar oblongata
breathing rate is controlled by, part of the brain that monitors carbon dioxide content in the blood
"What organ secretes digestive enzymes
buffers, and hormones; absorbs nutrients?","Small intestine"
Anus
control the expulsion of feces
CELLULAR LEVEL
cells are the basic structural and functional units of the human body & there are many different types of cells (e.g., muscle, nerve, blood, and so on)
Where are the pressoreceptors and chemoreceptors located?
carotid body
Peripheral Nervous system
carry signals to effector organs such as muscles and glands to take actions in response to nervous impulses
stratified
consisting of many layers of cells.
Golgi complex
consists of a series of flattened sacs (or cisternae) functions include: synthesis (of substances likes phospholipids), packaging of materials for transport (in vesicles), and production of lysosomes The Golgi apparatus is a membrane-bound structure with a single membrane. It is actually a stack of membrane-bound vesicles that are important in packaging macromolecules for transport elsewhere in the cell. The stack of larger vesicles is surrounded by numerous smaller vesicles containing those packaged macromolecules. The enzymatic or hormonal contents of lysosomes, peroxisomes and secretory vesicles are packaged in membrane-bound vesicles at the periphery of the Golgi apparatus.
Larynx
contains a membrane that vibrates in a controlled manner with the passage of air to create the voice
Nucleus
contains chromatin: a combination of DNA and associated proteins
Retina
contains photoreceptors that transfuse light into action potentials
Parasympathetic Nervous System
deactivates or shows down activities of muscles and glands (rest-and-digest response); slowing down of heart rates, pupillary constriction
Lungs
designed to move air between the exterior atmosphere and an interior space that is in close contact with the capillaries.
Rods:
detect low-intensity illumination and are important for night vision
Median Plane
divides the body into right and left halves. Also called the midsagittal plane.
organ of corti is found in what area of the body?
ear
Chemical reactions in living systems preceed along catabolic pathways, and there tends to be an increase in _______/
entropy
Cartilage
firm, flexible, principle component of embryonic skeletons, takes longer to heal than bone
Frontal bone
forms the forehead, the roofs of the orbits, and most of the anterior part of the cranial floor.
Anterior
front side of the body, also known as ventral.
In humans, red blood cells:
have no nucleus (red blood cells are made in the bone marrow, they lose their nuclei to make room for hemoglobin, so they cannot reproduce or repair themselves)
Mitochondria
have a double-membrane: outer membrane & highly convoluted inner membrane. Mitochondria are the energy factories of the cells. The energy currency for the work that animals must do is the energy-rich molecule adenosine triphosphate (ATP). The ATP is produced in the mitochondria using energy stored in food. Just as the chloroplasts in plants act as sugar factories for the supply of ordered molecules to the plant, the mitochondria in animals and plants act to produce the ordered ATP molecules as the energy supply for the processes of life. A typical animal cell will have on the order of 1000 to 2000 mitochondria. So the cell will have a lot of structures that are capable of producing a high amount of available energy. This ATP production by the mitochondria is done by the process of respiration, which in essence is the use of oxygen in a process which generates energy. This is a very efficient process for using food energy to make ATP. One of the benefits of "aerobic exercise" is that it improves your body's ability to make ATP rapidly using the respiration process. All living cells have mitochondria. Hair cells and outer skin cells are dead cells and no longer actively producing ATP, but all cells have the same structure. Some cells have more mitochondria than others. Your fat cells have many mitochondria because they store a lot of energy. Muscle cells have many mitochondria, which allows them to respond quickly to the need for doing work. Mitochondria occupy 15 to 20 percent of mammalian liver cells according to Karp. Mitochondria are found exclusively in eukaryotic cells. These organelles are often called the "power plants" of the cell because their main job is to make energy (ATP). Mitochondria are highly unusual--they contain their own genetic material and protein-making machinery enwrapped in a double membrane. Many scientists believe mitochondria were once free-living bacteria that colonized complex cells sometime during evolution. (Source: NSF).
Cardiac muscle
heart is composed of these specialized muscle tissue, they are connected together in an electrical network that transmits nervous impulses throughout the muscle to stimulate contraction
Hypothalamus (brain)
hunger, thirst, pain, temperature, regulation
Fluid passing through the kidneys is monitored and the proper concentrations of ions such as
hydrogen, sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, sulfate, and phosphate
What is the term for the breakdown of glycogen into glucose subunits?
hydrolysis
Phospholipid bilayer has ____ head and ___ tail
hydrophilic (polar); hydrophophobic (nonpolar)
Hormones are secreted by a variety of tissues, including the:
hyphothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroids, adrenals, pancreas, testes, ovaries, pineal, kindneys, heart and thymus.
body planes
imaginary lines used for reference; they include the median plane, the coronal plane, and the transverse plane.
Caudal
in quadrapeds, the tail end [see inferior].
CHEMICAL LEVEL
includes all chemical substances (atoms, ions, & molecules) necessary for life (e.g., genes and proteins or, shown below, a small portion - a heme group - of a hemoglobin molecule); together form the next higher level
Calvarium
includes the brain case.
Cranium
includes the face and the calvarium.
"What organ system transports cells and dissolved materials
including nutrients, wastes, and gases?","The cardiovascular system"
Two other important functions of the renal system, which are also performed by the kidneys,
is regulating and maintaining the balance of electrolytes and the pH of the fluid that has been processed.
B cells are involved in the humoral immune responses
is the aspect of immunity that is mediated by secreted antibodies. Secreted antibodies bind to antigens on the surfaces of invading microbes (such as viruses or bacteria), which flags them for destruction.
In humans the respiratory tract
is the part of the anatomy involved with the process of respiration.
Which chamber of the heart pumps blood to the systemic circulation?
left
Lens
light continues through this in the eye, which is behind the pupil
Pupil
light rays travel through this opening
Which of the following forms of water is the densest?
liquid
Peripheral Nervous system
made up of sensory neurons and motor neurons
Bone
makes of most of the skeleton in mature higher vertebrates, including humans; made up of calcium, phosphates salts and collagen
Disruptions in the normal bicarbonate level
measures CO2 or carbon dioxide in blood , The bicarbonate ion acts as a buffer to maintain the normal levels of acidity (pH) in blood and other fluids in the body. may be due to diseases that interfere with respiratory function, kidney diseases, metabolic conditions, or other causes.
Which hormone is produced by the pineal gland?
melatonin
Lysosomes
membrane-enclosed spheres that contain powerful digestive enzymes functions include destruction of damaged cells (which is why they are sometimes called 'suicide bags') & digestion of phagocytosed materials (such as bacteria) . Lysosomes, Peroxisomes, Secretory Vesicles A variety of small membrane-bound organelles differ primarily in their contents. Lysosomes: Lysosomes (common in animal cells but rare in plant cells) contain hydrolytic enzymes necessary for intracellular digestion. In white blood cells that eat bacteria, lysosome contents are carefully released into the vacuole around the bacteria and serve to kill and digest those bacteria. Uncontrolled release of lysosome contents into the cytoplasm is also a component of necrotic cell death. Peroxisomes: This organelle is responsible for protecting the cell from its own production of toxic hydrogen peroxide. As an example, white blood cells produce hydrogen peroxide to kill bacteria. The oxidative enzymes in peroxisomes break down the hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. Secretory Vesicles: Cell secretions - e.g. hormones, neurotransmitters - are packaged in secretory vesicles at the Golgi apparatus. The secretory vesicles are then transported to the cell surface for release.
microvilli
microscopic projections of the plasma membrane of individual epithelial cells, to increase surface area in areas specialized for absorption or secretion (e.g., GI tract). Do not confuse these with villi (multicellular), or with cilia.
Axial skeleton
midline basic framework of the body, the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
Which nerve is responsible for regulating the amount of light entering the eye?
oculomotor nerve
Temporal bone
one of the two irregular bones on either side of the skull forming part of the lateral surfaces and base of the skull, and containing the organs of hearing. The temporal bones form the inferior sides of the cranium and part of the cranial floor. The temporal bones are situated at the sides and base of the skull, and lateral to the temporal lobes of the cerebrum. The temporal bone supports that part of the face known as the temple.
Inferior Nasal Conchae
one of three scroll-like bones that project from the lateral wall of the nasal cavity. The inferior nasal conchae articulate with the ethmoid, maxilla, lacrimal and paltine bones and form the lower part of the lateral wall of the nasal cavity.
reticular fiber
one of three types of fiber embedded in the matrix between cells of connective tissue. Thinner than collagen fibers, this fiber forms branching networks, and helps form the stroma of many organs.
renal system consists of
pair of kidneys, ureters, bladder, and the urethra.
Maxillae
paired bones uniting to form the upper jawbone. The maxillae articulate with every bone of the face except the mandible, or lower jawbone. The maxilla (plural: maxillae), also known as the mustache bone, is a fusion of two bones along the palatal fissure that form the upper jaw. This is similar to the mandible (lower jaw), which is also a fusion of two halves at the mental symphysis. Sometimes (e.g. in bony fish), the maxilla is sometimes called "upper maxilla", with the mandible being the "lower maxilla". Conversely, in birds the upper jaw is often called "upper mandible".
Capillaries
permit the exchange of materials between the blood and the body's cells, thin-walled vessels that are very small in diameter; red blood cells must pass through them in single file.
Spinal cord
part of the CNS. routs for axons to travel out of brain, center for reflex actions like knee-jerk reflex
medulla oblongata, cerebrum, cerebellum
parts of the human brain
Chloroplast
plants only; a double membrane- bound organelle that makes sugar from sunlight and CO2 duronh photosynthesis
Blood is composed of red blood cells, white blood cells platelets, and
plasma
What glad listed below is not paired up with a hormone it produces? ovaries/estrogen thyroid gland/thyroxin posterior pituitary/cortisol thymus/thymosin
posterior pituitary not matched correctly, it produces oxytocin and vasopressin. Cortisol controls rate of metabolism for fasts, proteins and carbohydrates.
Skin
primary defense for the body against pathogens and infection
kidneys
principle organs of exception in humans, form urine to remove nitrogenous wastes and regulate the volume and salt content of extracellular fluids.
Feedback loop
principle that regulates the production and secretion of hormones in a chain
functions of the liver?
production of bile, which helps carry away waste and break down fats in the small intestine during digestion; production of certain proteins for blood plasma; production of cholesterol and special proteins to help carry fats through the body; conversion of excess glucose into glycogen for storage (This glycogen can later be converted back to glucose for energy.); regulation of blood levels of amino acids, processing of hemoglobin for use of its iron content (The liver stores iron.); conversion of poisonous ammonia to urea (Urea is one of the end products of protein metabolism that is excreted in the urine.); clearing the blood of drugs and other poisonous substances; regulating blood clotting; resisting infections by producing immune factors and removing bacteria from the bloodstream
Villi
projections of cell membrane that serve to increase surface area of a cell (which is important, for example, for cells that line the intestine). In all humans, the villi together increase intestinal absorptive surface area approximately 30-fold and 60-fold, respectively, providing exceptionally efficient absorption of nutrients in the lumen. This increases the surface area so there are more places for food to be absorbed. There are also enzymes on the surface for digestion. Villus capillaries collects amino acids and simple sugars taken up by the villi into the blood stream. Villus lacteals (Lymph capillary) collect absorbed chylomicrons, which are lipoproteins composed of triglycerides, cholesterol and amphipathic proteins, and are taken to the rest of the body through the Lymph fluid.
Proteins
provide cells with the ability to carry out functions: chemical messangers, transport substances movement, immune defense,
Which of the following best describes the biomechanics of breathing?
pump handle motion
Left ventricle
pumps blood through the aorta to the rest of the body
Right ventricle
pumps blood to the lungs into the pulmonary artery
Without a nucleus,
red blood cells cannot make new proteins to repair themselves
Alveoli are tiny air sacs that allow for gas exchange. They are part of the
respiratory system
Cones:
respond to high-intensity illumination and are sensitive to color
Rods
respond to low-intensity illumination (important in night vision), but do not detect color well
Lymph nodes:
responsible for filtering lymph to rid it of foreign particles, maintaining the proper glance of fluids in tissues of the body, and transporting chylomicrons as part of fat metabolism.
"How are vital functions such as growth
responsiveness, reproduction, and movement dependent on metabolism?","Metabolism refers to all the chemical operations nder way in the body. Organisms rely on complex chemical reactions to provide the energy required for responsiveness, growth, reproduction, and movement."
Cytoplasm
semifluid "soup" of proteins, enzymes, dissolved salts, sugars. All the organelles and the nucleus float in the cytoplasm
The axial skeletal system does NOT include:
skull ribs breastbone skeletal muscles (skeletal muscles)
Bile is secreted into which organ?
small intestine
The lower gastrointestinal tract includes
small intestine and all of the large intestine, and anus
Neurons
specialized cells designed to transmit information in the form of electrochemical signals called action potentials.
What is the second part of an organism;s scientific name?
species
electrolytes
substances that become ions in solution and acquire the capacity to conduct electricity
Endocrine glands
such as the pancreas or adrenal cortex can be targets of the autonomic nervous system
The gap between two nerve cells is called a
synapse
Glycolysis
takes glucose, a sugar molecule with 6 carbon atoms and breaks it down to 2 pyruvate molecules, each with 3 carbon atoms to make NADH then make ATP through the electron transport chain.
rectum
temporary storage site for feces
reticular lamina
the deeper of two layers (along with the basal lamina) making up the basement membrane. It is produced by the underlying connective tissue.
The main components of the human cardiovascular system are
the heart, blood and blood vessels
Iris
the diameter of the pupil is controlled by this pigmented, muscular eye part
The upper gastrointestinal tract consists of the
the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum
Lymph vessels:
the foundation for the lymphatic system that carries extracellular fluid at a very low pressure, without cells.
parenchyma
the functional tissue of an organ, as opposed to the supportive structures.
mesoderm
the middle of the three primary embryonic germ layers, which gives rise to connective tissue and most muscle.
basal lamina
the more superficial of two layers (along with the reticular lamina) making up the basement membrane. It is produced by the overlying epithelial tissue. 1 : the part of the gray matter of the embryonic neural tube from which the motor nerve roots arise 2 : a thin extracellular layer composed chiefly of collagen, proteoglycans, and glycoproteins (as laminin and fibronectin) that lies adjacent to the basal surface of epithelial cells or surrounds individual muscle, fat, and Schwann cells and that separates these cells from underlying or surrounding connective tissue or adjacent cells
peritoneum
the serous membrane which lines the abdominal cavity and covers the abdominal organs.
pleura
the serous membrane which lines the thoracic cavity and covers the lungs.
epithelial tissue (epithelium)
the tissue which forms the superficial layer of skin and some organs. It also forms the inner lining of blood vessels, ducts, body cavities, and the interior of the respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems.
Zygomatic bone
the triangular bones on either side of the face below the eyes, commonly referred to as the cheekbones, they form the prominences of the cheeks and part of the outer wall and floor of the orbits. It is situated at the upper and lateral part of the face and forms the prominence of the cheek, part of the lateral wall and floor of the orbit, and parts of the temporal and infratemporal fossae [Fig. 1]. It presents a malar and a temporal surface; four processes, the frontosphenoidal, orbital, maxillary, and temporal; and four borders.
mucous membrane (mucosa)
the type of membrane which lines body cavities which are open to the exterior.
serous membrane (serosa)
the type of membrane which lines body cavities which do not open to the exterior. It also covers organs which lie within those cavities.
Circulatory system
through ingestion and digestion, organisms make nutrients available to cells through absorption. These nutrients are transported through the body to be used.
Cardiac muscle
tissue that makes up the heart
Vesicles
transport proteins and lipid to the cell surface; bring proteins and lipids into cells from the cell surface, digest compounds
"The absorption
transport, and use of oxygen by cells is referred to as:","Respiration"
If you wanted to separate the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity, which plan would you use?
transverse
What is adhesive property
water is attracted to other substance
What is a cohesive property?
water is attracted to water
Plasma is composed of:
water, salts, proteins, glucose, hormones, lipids
Birds and mammals have four-chambered hearts,
with two atria and two ventricles
Ratio and Proportion: 0.8 : 10 :: x : 100
x = 8
"The two specialties of microscopic anatomy that consider features within a characteristic range of sizes:"
"1. Cytology 2. Histology"
"What are the two types of anatomy?"
"1. Gross Anatomy 2. Microscopic Anatomy"
"Would a histologist more likely be considered a specialist in microscopic anatomy or gross anatomy? Why?"
"Microscopic anatomy. Histologist study tissues and therefore would use microscopes to study their field."
"What is the name of the corrective mechanism involving an action that directly opposes a variation from normal limits?"
"Negative feedback"
"Why is homeostatic regulation important to humans?"
"Physiological systems can function normally only under carefully controlled conditions. Homeostatic regulation prevents potentially disruptive changes in the body's internal environment."
"What is the study of how living organisms perform their vital functions>"
"Physiology"
"What is the name of the response when the initial stimulus produces a response that reinforces the stimulus?"
"Positive feedback"
"What appears when failure of homeostatic regulation causes organ systems to malfunction?"
"Presentation of symptoms of disease"
"Purpose of the integumentary system."
"Protects against environmental hazards; helps control body temperature."
"What is homeostasis?"
"Refers to the existence of a stable internal environment."
"What considers all of the superficial and internal features in a specific region of the body?"
"Regional anatomy"
"What is the function of the parathyroid glands?"
"Regulate calcium levels"
"What is the function of the pancreas?"
"Regulates blood glucose levels"
"What produces enzymes that begin digestion?"
"Salivary glands"
"What are the organs of the LUQ?"
"Spleen, stomach"
"What refers to the study of general form and superficial markings?"
"Surface anatomy"
"What considers the structure of major organ systems?"
"Systemic anatomy"
"This type of physiology considers all aspects of the function of specific organ systems."
"Systemic physiology"
"What cavity contains the peritoneal cavity or the peritoneum?"
"The abdominopelvic cavity"
"The term homeostatic regulation refers to:"
"The adjustments in physiological systems that preserve homeostasis."
"What organ system processes food and absorbs nutrients?"
"The digestive system"
"What organ system directs long-term changes in activities of other organ systems?"
"The endocrine system"
"Boundaries of microscopic anatomy are established by:"
"The limits of the equipment used."
"What organ secretes bile; regulates nutrient composition of the blood?"
"The liver"
"What organ system produces sex cells and hormones?"
"The reproductive system"
"What organ system delivers air to sites where gas exchange can occur between air and circulating blood?"
"The respiratory system"
"Give an example of negative feedback"
"Thermoregulation"
"What is an organ?"
"Two or more different tissues working together to perform a specific function."
"Name the layer covering the heart"
"Visceral pericardium"
"A form of high-energy radiation that can penetrate living things"
"X-rays"
"Name some of the important radiological procedures."
"Xrays, CT scans, MRI, ultrasound"
"The internal organs within the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities are called:"
"viscera"
Affect vs Effect
*Affect - used as a verb that means to influence or change. As a noun, it's an emotional response or disposition. *Effect - used as a verb that means to bring about or accomplish. As a noun, means result or outcome.
Farther vs Further
*Farther - refers to a measurable distance. --> The wall is much farther than I expected. *Further - refers to a figurative distance. Means to a greater degree or to a greater extent. --> I will have to study further to make better grades.
Fewer vs Less
*Fewer - refers to number... things that can be counted or numbered and is used with plural nouns. --> The professor has fewer students in his morning class than in his afternoon class. *Less - refers to degree or amount... things in buld or in the abstract and is used with singular nouns and when referring to numeric or statistical terms. --> Fewer patients means less work for the staff. --> It's less than 2 miles to school.
There are no such things as possessive pronouns with apostrophes. DO NOT USE APOSTROPHES.
*Hers *Ours *Yours *Theirs *Its
Linking Verb
*Joins the subject of the sentence to a noun, pronoun or predicate adjective. *Does not show action *Most common: Forms of be - am, is, were, was, being, been. (ex: That is my professor.) *Sometimes relates to 5 senses: look, sound, taste, smell, touch. (ex: The exam looks different.) *Sometimes reflects a state of being: appear, seem, become, grow, turn, prove, remail. (ex: The man seems tired.)
Euphemism
*Mild, indirect or vague term that has been substituted for one that is considered harsh, blunt or offensive. *Can be used in a sympathetic matter.
Direct Object
*Person or thing that is directly affected by the action of the verb. *Answers question what or whom after a transitive verb. --> The students watched the professor distribute exams. Whom? the professor is the direct object.
Interjection
*Word or phrase that expresses emotion or exclamation. *Does not have any grammatical connection to oter words in the sentence. ex: yikes, that test was hard. whew, that test was easy.
Preposition
*Word that shows the relationship of a noun or pronoun to some other word in sentence. *Compound Preposition - Preposition is made up of more than one word. *Prepositional Phrase - Group of words that begins with a preposition and ends with a noun or pronoun, which is the object of the preposition. -->Sam left the classroom at noon. The student learned the basics of grammar.
1 Gram =_____Milligrams?
1,000
How many milliliters are in 1 liter?
1,000 milliters to 1 liter
1 kilometer = ______ meters
1000 meters
1 Foot =______ Inches?
12
What Temperature in Fahrenheit is 50° C
122 ° F
How many pairs of homologous chromosomes do humans have?
23
To provide moisture and loosen the necrotic tissue, the eschar should be covered first with wet to moist dressings (C), which are discontinued and then a hydrogel alginate can be placed in the prepared wound bed to prevent further damage of granulating any surrounding tissue. Although a hydrogel (A) liquefies necrotic tissue of slough and rehydrates the wound bed, it does not address wicking the purulent drainage from the wound. Exudate absorbers (B) provide a moist wound surface, absorb exudate, and support debridement, but do not prepare the wound bed for proper healing. Transparent dressings (D) are used to protect against contamination and friction while maintaining a clean moist surface. Correct Answer: C
A client is admitted with a stage four pressure ulcer that has a black, hardened surface and a light-pink wound bed with a malodorous green drainage. Which dressing is best for the nurse to use first? A. Hydrogel. B. Exudate absorber. C. Wet to moist dressing. D. Transparent adhesive film.
The Doctor tells patients to cut back on coffee. The patient usually has 4 - 8 oz cups of coffee per day. If the Doctor told him to cut back by 25% how many oz of coffee can he have?
4 × 8 = 32 oz 32 - 25% = 8 32-8 = 24 oz of coffee
A positive Chvostek's sign is an indication of hypocalcemia, so the client should be assessed for the subjective symptoms of hypocalcemia, such as numbness or tingling of the hands (B) or feet. (A and C) are unrelated assessment data. (D) is contraindicated because the client is hypocalcemic and needs additional dietary calcium. Correct Answer: B
A client is demonstrating a positive Chvostek's sign. What action should the nurse take? A. Observe the client's pupil size and response to light. B. Ask the client about numbness or tingling in the hands. C. Assess the client's serum potassium level. D. Restrict dietary intake of calcium-rich foods.
When postural hypotension occurs, the body attempts to restore arterial pressure by stimulating the baro-receptors to increase the heart rate (B), not decrease it (A). Peripheral vasoconstriction, not dilation (C), of the veins and arterioles occurs with venous incompetence through the baro-receptor reflex. A decrease in cardiac output, not an increase (D), occurs when orthostatic hypotension occurs. Correct Answer: B
A male client with venous incompetence stands up and his blood pressure subsequently drops. Which finding should the nurse identify as a compensatory response? A. Bradycardia. B. Increase in pulse rate. C. Peripheral vasodilation. D. Increase in cardiac output.
Competent clients have the right to refuse treatment, so the nurse should first ensure that the client is competent (D). (A and C) are not necessary for a competent client to refuse treatment. The nurse cannot document (C) until the healthcare provider is notified of the client's wishes and a discharge prescription is obtained. Correct Answer: D
A 35-year-old female client with cancer refuses to allow the nurse to insert an IV for a scheduled chemotherapy treatment, and states that she is ready to go home to die. What intervention should the nurse initiate? A. Review the client's medical record for an advance directive. B. Determine if a do-not-resuscitate prescription has been obtained. C. Document that the client is being discharged against medical advice. D. Evaluate the client's mental status for competence to refuse treatment.
Answering questions simply and directly provides comfort for the preschool-age child and builds confidence in the health care team (D). (A) uses language (i.e. 'incision') that could create anxiety for the child. Four-year-olds are in the Initiative vs. Guilt stage (Erikson's psychosocial development), and (B) contributes to guilt when the child hurts. (C) is not helpful because the child may associate being put to sleep with the postoperative throat pain and then become fearful of going to sleep. Correct Answer: D
A 4-year-old boy who is scheduled for a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy asks the nurse, Will it hurt to have my tonsils and adenoids taken out? Which response is best for the nurse to provide? A. It may hurt a little because of the incision made in your throat. B. It won't hurt because you're such a big boy. C. It won't hurt because we put you to sleep. D. It may hurt but we'll give you medicine to help you feel better.
A client's dietary habits should be determined first by the client's dietary recall (B) before suggesting protein sources or supplements (A and C) as options in the client's diet. Although grains and legumes (D) contain incomplete proteins that reduces the essential amino acid pools inside the cells, the client's cultural preferences should be illicited after confirming the client's dietary history. Correct Answer: B
A 73-year-old Hispanic client is seen at the community health clinic with a history of protein malnutrition. What information should the nurse obtain first? A. Amount of liquid protein supplements consumed daily. B. Foods and liquids consumed during the past 24 hours. C. Usual weekly intake of milk products and red meats. D. Grains and legume combinations used by the client.
Hopefulness is necessary to sustain a meaningful existence, even close to death. The nurse should help the client set short-term goals, and recognize the achievement of immediate goals (B), such as seeing a family member, or listening to music. (A) is too vague to be a helpful intervention. (C) does not help the client deal with this nursing diagnosis. (D) might be implemented, but does not have the priority of (B). Correct Answer: B
A client has a nursing diagnosis of, "Spiritual distress related to a loss of hope, secondary to impending death." What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client? A. Help the client to accept the final stage of life. B. Assist and support the client in establishing short-term goals. C. Encourage the client to make future plans, even if they are unrealistic. D. Instruct the client's family to focus on positive aspects of the client's life.
An audible gurgling sound produced by a dying client is characteristic of ineffective clearance of secretions from the lungs or upper airways, causing a rattling sound as air moves through the accumulated fluid. The nursing priority in this situation is to convey to the family that the client's death is imminent (D). Although culturally sensitive care should be observed throughout the client's plan of care (A), this is not the priority at this time. Administration of oxygen may be expected care, but a flow rate greater than 2 L/minute (B) is not palliative care. (C) may provide additional information, but is not necessary as death approaches. Correct Answer: D
A client in hospice care develops audible gurgling sounds on inspiration. Which nursing action has the highest priority? A. Ensure cultural customs are observed. B. Increase oxygen flow to 4L/minute. C. Auscultate bilateral lung fields. D. Inform the family that death is imminent.
Intractable pain is highly resistant to pain relief measures, so it is important to promote comfort (A) during all activities. A client with intractable pain may develop drug tolerance and dependence, but (B) is inappropriate for a UAP. Since intractable pain is resistant to relief measures, (C) may not be possible. Psychogenic pain (D) is a painful sensation that is perceived but has no known cause. Correct Answer: A
A client is admitted to the hospital with intractable pain. What instruction should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is preparing to assist this client with a bed bath? A. Take measures to promote as much comfort as possible. B. Report any signs of drug addiction to the nurse immediately. C. Wait until the client's pain is gone before assisting with personal care. D. This client's pain will be difficult to manage, since the cause is unknown.
Direct questions should be used after the client's opening narrative to fill in any details that have been left out or during the review of systems to elicit specific facts (D) about past health problems. (A and B) are time consuming, and may require the client's permission to access information about other hospitalizations. (C) may not produce the specific data needed. Correct Answer: D
A client provides the nurse with information about the reason for seeking care. The nurse realizes that some information about past hospitalizations is missing. How should the nurse obtain this information? A. Solicit information on hospitalization from the insurance company. B. Look up previous medical records from archived hospital documents. C. Ask the client to discuss previous hospitalizations in the last 5 years. D. Elicit specific facts about past hospitalizations with direct questions.
The nurse should implement (D), because orthostatic hypotension is a common result of immobilization, causing the client to feel dizzy when first getting out of bed following a period of bedrest. To prevent this problem, it is helpful to have the body acclimate to a standing position by sitting upright for a short period (D) before rising to a standing position. (A) is unlikely to alleviate the dizziness. (B) may result in a loss of consciousness. (C) is not indicated and will increase the potential for complications associated with prolonged immobility. Correct Answer: D
A client who has been on bedrest for several days now has a prescription to progress activity as tolerated. When the nurse assists the client out of bed for the first time, the client becomes dizzy. What action should the nurse implement? A. Encourage the client to take several slow, deep breaths while ambulating. B. Help the client to remain standing by the bedside until the dizziness is relieved. C. Instruct the client to remain on bedrest until the healthcare provider is contacted. D. Advise the client to sit on the side of the bed for a few minutes before standing again.
Based on the WHO pain relief ladder, adjunct medications, such as gabapentin (Neurontin), an antiseizure medication, may be used at any step for anxiety and pain management, so (A) should be implemented. Nonopiod analgesics, such as ibuprofen (A) and aspirin (C) are Step 1 drugs. Step 2 and 3 include opioid narcotics (D), and to maintain freedom from pain, drugs should be given around the clock rather than by the client s PRN requests. Correct Answer: A
A client who has moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily. If Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented? A. Continue gabapentin. B. Discontinue ibuprofen. C. Add aspirin to the protocol. D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.
Joints
A joint, or articulation, is the place where two bones come together. There are three types of joints classified by the amount of movement they allow: immovable, slightly movable, and freely movable. Immovable joints are synarthroses. In this type of joint, the bones are in very close contact and are separated only by a thin layer of fibrous connective tissue. An example of a synarthrosis is the suture in the skull between skull bones. Slightly movable joints are called amphiarthroses. This type of joint is characterized by bones that are connected by hyaline cartilage (fibro cartilage). The ribs that connect to the sternum are an example of an amphiarthrosis joint. Most of the joints in the adult human body are freely movable joints. This type of joint is called a diarthrosis joint. There are six types of diarthroses joints. These are: Ball-and-Socket: The ball-shaped end of one bone fits into a cup shaped socket on the other bone allowing the widest range of motion including rotation. Examples include the shoulder and hip. Condyloid: Oval shaped condyle fits into elliptical cavity of another allowing angular motion but not rotation. This occurs between the metacarpals (bones in the palm of the hand) and phalanges (fingers) and between the metatarsals (foot bones excluding heel) and phalanges (toes). Saddle: This type of joint occurs when the touching surfaces of two bones have both concave and convex regions with the shapes of the two bones complementing one other and allowing a wide range of movement. The only saddle joint in the body is in the thumb. Pivot: Rounded or conical surfaces of one bone fit into a ring of one or tendon allowing rotation. An example is the joint between the axis and atlas in the neck. Hinge: A convex projection on one bone fits into a concave depression in another permitting only flexion and extension as in the elbow joints. Gliding: Flat or slightly flat surfaces move against each other allowing sliding or twisting without any circular movement. This happens in the carpals in the wrist and the tarsals in the ankle.
Potato chips (A) are high in sodium. Tuna (B) is high in protein. Bacon (C) and crackers (E) are high in sodium. Only (D) is a meal that is in compliance with a low sodium, low protein diet. Correct Answer: A, B, C, E
A low-sodium, low-protein diet is prescribed for a 45-year-old client with renal insufficiency and hypertension, who gained 3 pounds in the last month. The nurse determines that the client has been noncompliant with the diet, based on which report from the 24-hour dietary recall? (Select all that apply.) A. Snack of potato chips, and diet soda. B. Lunch of tuna fish sandwich, carrot sticks, fresh fruit, and coffee. C. Breakfast of eggs, bacon, toast, and coffee. D. Dinner of vegetable lasagna, tossed salad, sherbet, and iced tea. E. Bedtime snack of crackers and milk.
Written informed consent is required prior to any invasive procedure. The healthcare provider must explain the procedure to the client, but the nurse can witness the client's signature on a consent form (A). (B) is not necessary since written consent must be obtained. (C) is not correct because written consent has not been obtained. (D) must occur after written consent is obtained. Correct Answer: A
A male client arrives at the outpatient surgery center for a scheduled needle aspiration of the knee. He tells the nurse that he has already given verbal consent for the procedure to the healthcare provider. What action should the nurse implement? A. Witness the client's signature on the consent form. B. Verify the client's consent with the healthcare provider. C. Notify the healthcare provider that the client is ready for the procedure. D. Document that the client has given consent for the needle aspiration.
A macrobiotic diet is high in whole-grain cereals, vegetables, sea vegetables, beans, and vegetarian soups, and the client needs essential amino acids to provide complete proteins to heal the infected wound. Although a macrobiotic diet contains no source of animal protein, essential amino acids should be obtained by combining plant (incomplete) proteins to provide complete (all essential amino acids) proteins (B) for anabolic processes. (A, C, and D) do not provide the client with food choices consistent with a macrobiotic diet and protein needs. Correct Answer: B
A male client with an infected wound tells the nurse that he follows a macrobiotic diet. Which type of foods should the nurse recommend that the client select from the hospital menu? A. Low fat and low sodium foods. B. Combination of plant proteins to provide essential amino acids. C. Limited complex carbohydrates and fiber. D. Increased amount of vitamin C and beta carotene rich foods.
Many female Muslim clients are very modest and prefer to receive personal care from another female because of their religious and cultural beliefs. The most culturally sensitive response is for the male nurse to ask a female colleague to perform this task (B). (A and D) are less respectful of the client's cultural and spiritual preferences. (C) delays the client's care. Correct Answer: B
A male nurse is assigned to care for a female Muslim client. When the nurse offers to bathe the client, the client requests that a female nurse perform this task. How should the male nurse respond? A. May I ask your daughter to help you with your personal hygiene? B. I will ask one of the female nurses to bathe you. C. A staff member on the next shift will help you. D. I will keep you draped and hand you the supplies as you need them.
Healthy middle-aged adults focus on establishing the next generation by nurturing and guiding, which is describe by Erikson as the developmental stage of generativity (A), and is characteristic of middle adulthood. (B, C and D) are not stages of this age group according to Erickson's psychosocial developmental theory. Correct Answer: A
A middle-aged woman who enjoys being a teacher and mentor feels that she should pass down her legacy of knowledge and skills to the younger generation. According to Erikson, she is involved in what developmental stage? A. Generativity. B. Ego integrity. C. Identification. D. Valuing wisdom.
*Peristalsis (mechanical digestion)
A wavelike muscular action conducted by smooth muscle that lines the gut in the esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.
Acknowledging a client's beliefs and customs related to sickness and health care are valuable components in the plan of care that prevents conflict between the goals of nursing and the client's cultural practices. Cultural sensitivity begins with examining one's own cultural values (B) to compare, recognize, and acknowledge cultural bias. (A and C) do not consider the family's needs to care for the client and are not the best ways to cope with the nurse's frustration. Although (D) may be an option, examining one's cultural differences allows the nurse to cope, empathize, and implement culturally specific interventions pertaining to the needs of the client and the family. Correct Answer: B
A nurse is becoming increasingly frustrated by the family members' efforts to participate in the care of a hospitalized client. What action should the nurse implement to cope with these feelings of frustration? A. Suggest that other cultural practices be substituted by the family members. B. Examine one's own culturally based values, beliefs, attitudes, and practices. C. Explain to the family that multiple visitors are exhausting to the client. D. Allow the situation to continue until a family member's action may harm the client.
The presence of rectal bleeding is generally a contraindication for the insertion of a rectal suppository, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider (C). (A and D) may cause increased rectal bleeding. Prior to asking the pharmacist for another form of the medication, the nurse must have a new prescription from the healthcare provider (B). Correct Answer: C
A nurse is preparing to insert a rectal suppository and observes a small amount of rectal bleeding. What action should the nurse implement? A. Administer the medication as scheduled after assessing the client's vital signs. B. Ask the pharmacist to send an alternate form of the prescribed medication to the unit. C. Withhold the administration of the suppository until contacting the healthcare provider. D. Insert the suppository very gently being careful not to further injure the rectal mucosa.
Advderb
A word, phrase or clause that modifies a verb, adjective or another adverb. --> Verb: The doctor operates quickly. Adj: The nurse wears very colorful uniforms. Adv: The student scored quite badly on the test.
Myosin
A protein that makes up nearly half the proteins in muscle cells.
Contradiction
A reason why something is not advisable or why it should not be done.
The nurse should first assess what the client desires (C). (A) is somewhat judgmental and attempts to solve the problem for the client without eliciting the client's feelings. Though a referral to the social worker (B) may be indicated, the nurse should first offer support. Time is likely to help the client cope with this news (D), but the nurse should first provide support and assess what the client wants to see happen with her children. Correct Answer: C
A single mother of two teenagers, ages 16 and 18, was just told that she has advanced cancer. She is devastated by the news, and expresses her concern about who will care for her children. Which statement by the nurse is likely to be most helpful at this time? A. Your children are old enough to help you make decisions about their futures. B. The social worker can tell you about placement alternatives for your children. C. Tell me what you would like to see happen with your children in the future. D. You have just received bad news, and you need some time to adjust to it.
desmosome
A type of anchoring junction which forms a firm attachment with other cells in a manner resembling a "spot weld." Desmosomes are molecular complexes of cell adhesion proteins and linking proteins that attach the cell surface adhesion proteins to intracellular keratin cytoskeletal filaments. The cell adhesion proteins of the desmosome, desmoglein and desmocollin, are members of the cadherin family of cell adhesion molecules. They are transmembrane proteins that bridge the space between adjacent epithelial cells by way of homophilic binding of their extracellular domains to other desmosomal cadherins on the adjacent cell. Both have five extracellular domains, and have calcium-binding motifs. The extracellular domain of the desmosome is called the Extracellular Core Domain (ECD) or the Desmoglea, and is bisected by an electron-dense midline where the desmoglein and desmocollin proteins bind to each other. These proteins can bind in a W, S, or λ manner. On the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane, there are two dense structures called the Outer Dense Plaque (ODP) and the Inner Dense Plaque (IDP). These are spanned by the Desmoplakin protein.[1] The Outer Dense Plaque is where the cytoplasmic domains of the cadherins attach to desmoplakin via plakoglobin and plakophillin. The Inner Dense Plaque is where desmoplakin attaches to the intermediate filaments of the cell.
apocrine
An exocrine gland which accumulates its secretory product at the apical surface of each cell. That part of each cell then separates from the remainder to from a secretion in the lumen of the gland. The cells then repair themselves (e.g., mammary glands). Apocrine is a term used to classify exocrine glands in the study of histology. Cells which are classified as apocrine bud their secretions off through the plasma membrane producing membrane bound vesicles in the lumen. Apocrine glands are a type of human sweat gland that are present in areas such as the axillae (armpits), areola, in the perineum (genital areas), around the belly button and in the external auditory canal(as wax-secreting glands). Specialized types of apocrine glands present on the eyelids are called Moll's glands. Apocrine sweat glands are inactive until they are stimulated by hormonal changes in puberty. Apocrine glands secrete a milky, viscous odourless fluid which only develops a strong odour when it comes into contact with bacteria on the skin surface. Apocrine glands secrete this fluid by a method called decapitation secretion. That is, the apical portion of the secretory cell of the gland pinches off and enters the lumen of the gland. In contrast to this mechanism of secretion, Eccrine glands secrete by a method called merocrine secretion and sebaceous glands secrete by a method called holocrine secretion. Apocrine sweat glands are mainly thought to function as olfactory pheremones, chemicals important in attracting a potential mate.
Manifestation
An indication or sign of a condition
The nurse should first provide an immediate comfort measure to address the client's complaint about the linens and drape the linens over the footboard of the bed (D) instead of tucking them under the mattress, which can add pressure perceived by the client as the source of her pain. (A, B, and C) may be components of the client's plan of care, but the nurse should first address the client's complaint. Correct Answer: D
An older female client with rheumatoid arthritis is complaining of severe joint pain that is caused by the weight of the linen on her legs. What action should the nurse implement first? A. Apply flannel pajamas to provide warmth. B. Administer a PRN dose of ibuprofen. C. Perform range of motion exercises in a warm tub. D. Drape the sheets over the footboard of the bed.
Termination
Bacteria use two different strategies for transcription termination. In Rho-independent transcription termination, RNA transcription stops when the newly synthesized RNA molecule forms a G-C rich hairpin loop followed by a run of Us, which makes it detach from the DNA template. In the "Rho-dependent" type of termination, a protein factor called "Rho" destabilizes the interaction between the template and the mRNA, thus releasing the newly synthesized mRNA from the elongation complex. Transcription termination in eukaryotes is less understood but involves cleavage of the new transcript followed by template-independent addition of As at its new 3' end, in a process called polyadenylation.
The nurse took the correct action and should document the events that occurred in the nurses' notes (C). (A) did not occur and (B) is not indicated. The medication administration record is part of the client's medical record and should be placed in the chart, (D) when no longer current. Correct Answer: C
Before administering a client's medication, the nurse assesses a change in the client's condition and decides to withhold the medication until consulting with the healthcare provider. After consultation with the healthcare provider, the dose of the medication is changed and the nurse administers the newly prescribed dose an hour later than the originally scheduled time. What action should the nurse implement in response to this situation? A. Notify the charge nurse that a medication error occurred. B. Submit a medication variance report to the supervisor. C. Document the events that occurred in the nurses' notes. D. Discard the original medication administration record.
Cranial Cavity
Body cavity containing the brain.
Testicular activity is under the control of which hormone(s)?
Both FSH and LH
Which of the following statements is true about the Krebs cycle and the Calvin cycle?
Both result in a net production of ATP and NADH
The stomach muscle churns and mixes food, turning the mass into a soupy substance called which of the following?
Chyme
Infection
Contamination or invasion of body tissue by pathogenic organisms
Ongoing
Continuous
Distended
Enlarged or expanded from pressure
What are the two catabolic pathways that lead to cellular energy production?
Fermentation and cellular respiration
Ceruminous Gland
Gland of the ear that produces earwax.
recognition
How do cells recognize each other? Each of your cells has a set of 'identity tags' on its surface, which mark it out as part of your body and no one else's. Some are only found on cells from the same tissue or organ. These identity tag molecules are called antigens. Your set of antigens is unique, unless you have an identical twin. Your immune system recognizes invading germs because they have unfamiliar antigens on their surfaces.
Dysfunction
Impaired or abnormal functions
Initiation
In bacteria, a domain of prokaryotes, transcription begins with the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter in DNA. RNA polymerase is a core enzyme consisting of five subunits: 2 α subunits, 1 β subunit, 1 β' subunit, and 1 ω subunit. At the start of initiation, the core enzyme is associated with a sigma factor (number 70) that aids in finding the appropriate -35 and -10 base pairs downstream of promoter sequences. Transcription initiation is more complex in eukaryotes. Eukaryotic RNA polymerase does not directly recognize the core promoter sequences. Instead, a collection of proteins called transcription factors mediate the binding of RNA polymerase and the initiation of transcription. Only after certain transcription factors are attached to the promoter does the RNA polymerase bind to it. The completed assembly of transcription factors and RNA polymerase bind to the promoter, forming a transcription initiation complex. Transcription in the archaea domain is similar to transcription in eukaryotes.
If a diabetic accidentally overdosed on insulin, which of the following would be likely to occur?
Increased conversion of glucose to glycogen.
Oxytocin
Increases uterine contractions during childbirth.
first responses of the immune system to infection.
Inflammation, signs, redness, swelling, heat, and pain which are caused by increased blood flow into a tissue.
All the nutrients that enter the hepatic portal vein are routed where for decontamination?
Liver
transport
Many of the proteins in the membrane function to help carry out selective transport. These proteins typically span the whole membrane, making contact with the outside environment and the cytoplasm. They often require the expenditure of energy to help compounds move across the membrane
Mitosis (cell division)
Mitosis is the process by which a eukaryotic cell separates the chromosomes in its cell nucleus into two identical sets in two nuclei.[1] It is generally followed immediately by cytokinesis, which divides the nuclei, cytoplasm, organelles and cell membrane into two cells containing roughly equal shares of these cellular components. Mitosis and cytokinesis together define the mitotic (M) phase of the cell cycle - the division of the mother cell into two daughter cells, genetically identical to each other and to their parent cell. This accounts for approximately 10% of the cell cycle. Mitosis occurs exclusively in eukaryotic cells, but occurs in different ways in different species. For example, animals undergo an "open" mitosis, where the nuclear envelope breaks down before the chromosomes separate, while fungi such as Aspergillus nidulans and Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast) undergo a "closed" mitosis, where chromosomes divide within an intact cell nucleus.[2] Prokaryotic cells, which lack a nucleus, divide by a process called binary fission. The process of mitosis is complex and highly regulated. The sequence of events is divided into phases, corresponding to the completion of one set of activities and the start of the next. These stages are prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. During the process of mitosis the pairs of chromosomes condense and attach to fibers that pull the sister chromatids to opposite sides of the cell. The cell then divides in cytokinesis, to produce two identical daughter cells.[3] Because cytokinesis usually occurs in conjunction with mitosis, "mitosis" is often used interchangeably with "mitotic phase". However, there are many cells where mitosis and cytokinesis occur separately, forming single cells with multiple nuclei. This occurs most notably among the fungi and slime moulds, but is found in various different groups. Even in animals, cytokinesis and mitosis may occur independently, for instance during certain stages of fruit fly embryonic development.[4] Errors in mitosis can either kill a cell through apoptosis or cause mutations that may lead to cancer.
Golgi Apparatus
Modification and glycosylaction of proteins.
Which leukocytes are correctly matched with their function or description? (Select all that apply)
Monocytes - become macrophages Lymphocytes - important in immune response Neutrophils - phagocytize microorganisms
Gastrointestinal
Of or relating to the stomach and the intestines
Select the word or phrase that will identify the correct meaning of the underlined word. _Progeny_ is a term used to describe a person's ___________.
Offspring
Elongation
One strand of DNA, the template strand (or noncoding strand), is used as a template for RNA synthesis. As transcription proceeds, RNA polymerase traverses the template strand and uses base pairing complementarity with the DNA template to create an RNA copy. Although RNA polymerase traverses the template strand from 3' → 5', the coding (non-template) strand and newly-formed RNA can also be used as reference points, so transcription can be described as occurring 5' → 3'. This produces an RNA molecule from 5' → 3', an exact copy of the coding strand (except that thymines are replaced with uracils, and the nucleotides are composed of a ribose (5-carbon) sugar where DNA has deoxyribose (one less oxygen atom) in its sugar-phosphate backbone). Unlike DNA replication, mRNA transcription can involve multiple RNA polymerases on a single DNA template and multiple rounds of transcription (amplification of particular mRNA), so many mRNA molecules can be rapidly produced from a single copy of a gene. Elongation also involves a proofreading mechanism that can replace incorrectly incorporated bases. In eukaryotes, this may correspond with short pauses during transcription that allow appropriate RNA editing factors to bind. These pauses may be intrinsic to the RNA polymerase or due to chromatin structure.
Which vessel transports blood from the lung to the heart?
Pulmonary vein
Precipitous
Rapid, uncontrolled
transitional
a stratified epithelial tissue consisting of cells which vary in appearance between squamous and cuboidal. This depends on whether the tissue is stretched or relaxed (e.g., urinary bladder).
Cells reproduce by different processes, all of which fall into what two catagories?
Sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction
Reproductive System:
Sexual reproduction is the process of producing offspring for the survival of the species, and passing on hereditary traits from one generation to the next. The male and female reproductive systems contribute to the events leading to fertilization. Then, the female organs assume responsibility for the developing human, birth, and nursing. The male and female gonads (testes and ovaries) produce sex cells (ova and sperm) and the hormones necessary for the proper development, maintenance, and functioning of the organs of reproduction and other organs and tissues. The reproductive system comprises the reproductive organs. In the male, the organs include the testes, accessory ducts, accessory glands, and penis. In the female, the organs include the uterus, uterine tubes, ovaries, vagina, and vulva.
Ominous
Significantly important and dangerous
Abrupt
Sudden
In the human immune system, responsible for recognizing non self cells
T-cells
The Pelvic Girdle
The Pelvic Girdle, also called the hip girdle, is composed to two coxal (hip) bones. The coxal bones are also called the ossa coxae or innominate bones. During childhood, each coxal bone consists of three separate parts: the ilium (denoted in purple above), the ischium (denoted in red above), and the pubis (denoted in blue above). In an adult, these three bones are firmly fused into a single bone. In the picture above, the coxal bone on the left side has been divided into its component pieces while the right side has been preserved. In the back, these two bones meet on either side of the sacrum. In the front, they are connected by a muscle called the pubic symphysis (denoted in green above). The pelvic girdle serves several important functions in the body. It supports the weight of the body from the vertebral column. It also protects and supports the lower organs, including the urinary bladder, the reproductive organs, and the developing fetus in a pregnant woman. The pelvic girdle differs between men and woman. In a man, the pelvis is more massive and the iliac crests are closer together. In a woman, the pelvis is more delicate and the iliac crests are farther apart. These differences reflect the woman's role in pregnancy and delivery of children. When a child is born, it must pass through its mother's pelvis. If the opening is too small, a cesarean section may be necessary. **The picture above is of a female pelvis. All divisions are approximations only.**
The Shoulder Girdle
The Shoulder Girdle, also called the Pectoral Girdle, is composed of four bones: two clavicles and two scapulae . The clavicle, commonly called the collarbone, is a slender S-shaped bone that connects the upper arm to the trunk of the body and holds the shoulder joint away from the body to allow for greater freedom of movement. One end of the clavicle is connected to the sternum and one end is connected to the scapula. Thescapula is a large, triangular, flat bone on the back side of the rib cage commonly called the shoulder blade. It overlays the second through seventh rib and serves as an attachment for several muscles. It has a shallow depression called the glenoid cavity that the head of the humerus (upper arm bone) fits into. Usually, a "girdle" refers to something that encircles or is a complete ring. However, the shoulder girdle is an incomplete ring. In the front, the clavicles are separated by the sternum. In the back, there is a gap between the two scapulae. The primary function of the pectoral girdle is to provide an attachment point for the numerous muscles that allow the shoulder and elbow joints to move. It also provides the connection between the upper extremities (the arms) and the axial skeleton.
A 20-pound box is safely lifted by bending the knees (D), holding the box close to the center of gravity, and extending the legs using the quadriceps muscles. (A and B) might be helpful, but the charge nurse should use this opportunity to reinforce proper body mechanics techniques. Pushing the box against the wall (C) does not assist with lifting. Correct Answer: D
The charge nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) bending at the waist to lift a 20-pound box of medical supplies off the treatment room floor. What instruction should the charge nurse provide to the UAP? A. Ask another staff member for assistance. B. Request that supplies are delivered in smaller containers. C. Push the box against the wall to provide support while lifting. D. Bend at the knees when lifting heavy objects.
*Alimentary Canal
The entire path food follows through the body: oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and rectum.
Which of the following statements is anatomically correct?
The hip is proximal to the knee
Scatter rugs (C) pose a safety hazard because the client can trip on them when ambulating, so this finding has the greatest significance in planning this client's care. Psychological support of the caregiver (A) is a less acute need than that of client safety. The nurse needs to obtain more information about (B), but this is not a safety issue. (D) is not a significant increase, and additional assessment might provide information about the reason for the increase (anxiety, exercise, etc.). Correct Answer: C
The home health nurse visits an elderly female client who had a brain attack three months ago and is now able to ambulate with the assistance of a quad cane. Which assessment finding has the greatest implications for this client's care? A. The husband, who is the caregiver, begins to weep when the nurse asks how he is doing. B. The client tells the nurse that she does not have much of an appetite today. C. The nurse notes that there are numerous scatter rugs throughout the house. D. The client's pulse rate is 10 beats higher than it was at the last visit one week ago.
Circulatory System:
The human circulatory system functions to transport blood and oxygen from the lungs to the various tissues of the body. The heart pumps the blood throughout the body. The lymphatic system is an extension of the human circulatory system that includes cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immune systems. The components of the human circulatory system include the heart, blood, red and white blood cells, platelets, and the lymphatic system.
Digestive System:
The human digestive system is a complex series of organs and glands that processes food. In order to use the food we eat, our body has to break the food down into smaller molecules that it can process; it also has to excrete waste. Most of the digestive organs (like the stomach and intestines) are tube-like and contain the food as it makes its way through the body. The digestive system is essentially a long, twisting tube that runs from the mouth to the anus, plus a few other organs (like the liver and pancreas) that produce or store digestive chemicals.
connective tissue
The most common of four basic tissue types in the human body. Functions as support for epithelial tissues and as the binding (or "glue") of various organs. The major types of connective tissue are: 1) loose connective tissue; 2) adipose tissue; 3) blood; 4) collagen, sometimes called fibrous or dense connective tissue; 5) cartilage; and 6) bone. Loose connective tissue is a mass of widely scattered cells whose matrix is a loose weave of fibers. Many of the fibers are strong protein fibers called collagen. Loose connective tissue is found beneath the skin and between organs. It is a binding and packing material whose main purpose is to provide support to hold other tissues and organs in place. Adipose tissue consists of adipose cells in loose connective tissue. Each adipose cell stores a large droplet of fat that swells when fat is stored and shrinks when fat is used to provide energy. Adipose tissue pads and insulates the animal body. Blood is a loose connective tissue whose matrix is a liquid called plasma. Blood consists of red blood cells, erythrocytes, white blood cells, leukocytes, and thrombocytes or platelets, which are pieces of bone marrow cell. Plasma also contains water, salts, sugars, lipids, and amino acids. Blood is approximately 55 percent plasma and 45 percent formed elements. Blood transports substances from one part of the body to another and plays an important role in the immune system of the animal. Collagen (from the Greek kolla, meaning "glue," and genos, meaning "descent") is a dense connective tissue, also known as fibrous connective tissue. It has a matrix of densely packed collagen fibers. There are two types of collagen: regular and irregular. The collagen fibers of regular dense connective tissue are lined up in parallel. Tendons, which bind muscle to bone, and ligaments, which join bones together, are examples of dense regularconnective tissue. The strong covering of various organs, such as kidneys and muscle, is dense irregular connective tissue. Cartilage (from the Latin cartilago, meaning "gristle") is a connective tissue with an abundant number of collagen fibers in a rubbery matrix. It is both strong and flexible. Cartilage provides support and cushioning. It is found between the discs of the vertebrae in the spine, surrounding the ends of joints such as knees, and in the nose and ears. Bone is a rigid connective tissue that has a matrix of collagen fibers embedded in calcium salts. It is the hardest tissue in the body, although it is not brittle. Most of the skeletal system is comprised of bone, which provides support for muscle attachment and protects the internal organs.
(D) will help to move and drain respiratory secretions and prevent pneumonia from occurring, so this intervention has the highest priority. Older adults often have an increased BP, and a PRN antihypertensive medication is usually prescribed for a BP over 140 systolic and 90 diastolic (A). Older adults often run a lower temperature, particularly in the morning, and (B) does not have the priority of (D). Even though the client has adequate output, (C) might be encouraged because the urine is concentrated, but this intervention does not have the priority of (D). Correct Answer: D
The nurse assesses an immobile, elderly male client and determines that his blood pressure is 138/60, his temperature is 95.8° F, and his output is 100 ml of concentrated urine during the last hour. He has wet-sounding lung sounds, and increased respiratory secretions. Based on these assessment findings, what nursing action is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Administer a PRN antihypertensive prescription. B. Provide the client with an additional blanket. C. Encourage additional fluid intake. D. Turn the client q2h.
The nursing diagnosis of ineffective health maintenance refers to an inability to identify, manage, and/or seek out help to maintain health, and is best exemplified in the client belief or understanding about diet and health maintenance (D). (A) indicates noncompliance with an action to be done in the management of diabetes. (B) represents inattentiveness. (C) reflects knowledge deficit. Correct Answer: D
The nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of, "Ineffective health maintenance related to lack of motivation" for a client with Type 2 diabetes. Which finding supports this nursing diagnosis? A. Does not check capillary blood glucose as directed. B. Occasionally forgets to take daily prescribed medication. C. Cannot identify signs or symptoms of high and low blood glucose. D. Eats anything and does not think diet makes a difference in health.
If the client's elbow is bent, the IV may be unable to infuse, resulting in an obstruction alarm, so the nurse should first attempt to reposition the client's arm to alleviate any obstruction (B). After other sources of occlusion are eliminated, the nurse may need to check for a blood return (A), remove the dressing (C), or flush the saline lock (D) and then resume the intermittent infusion. Correct Answer: B
The nurse is administering an intermittent infusion of an antibiotic to a client whose intravenous (IV) access is an antecubital saline lock. After the nurse opens the roller clamp on the IV tubing, the alarm on the infusion pump indicates an obstruction. What action should the nurse take first? A. Check for a blood return. B. Reposition the client's arm. C. Remove the IV site dressing. D. Flush the lock with saline.
Active, rather than passive, ROM is best to restore strength and (B) is an effective schedule. Passive ROM 4 times a day (A) is not as beneficial for the client as (B). With weights (C), the client may fatigue quickly and develop muscle soreness. ROM is not performed beyond the point of resistance or pain (D) because of the risk of damage to underlying structures. Correct Answer: B
The nurse is caring for a client who is weak from inactivity because of a 2-week hospitalization. In planning care for the client, the nurse should include which range of motion (ROM) exercises? A. Passive ROM exercises to all joints on all extremities four times a day. B. Active ROM exercises to both arms and legs two or three times a day. C. Active ROM exercises with weights twice a day with 20 repetitions each. D. Passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond.
The nurse should document the client's complaints (A) as subjective data--symptoms only the client can describe. (B) should be documented as objective data, which is collected via the nurse's observation. (C and D) are documented as intervention results. Correct Answer: A
The nurse is completing the plan of care for a client who is admitted for benign prostatic hypertrophy. Which data should the nurse document as a subjective findings? A. Complains of inability to empty bladder. B. Temperature of 99.8° F and pulse of 108. C. Post-voided residual volume of 750 ml. D. Specimen collection for culture and sensitivity.
Parasympathetic reaction can occur as a result of digital stimulation of the anal sphincter, which should be stopped if the client experiences a vagal response, such as bradycardia (B). (A, C, and D) do not warrant stopping the procedure. Correct Answer: B
The nurse is digitally removing a fecal impaction for a client. The nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted? A. Temperature increases from 98.8° to 99.0° F. B. Pulse rate decreases from 78 to 52 beats/min. C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 24 breaths/min. D. Blood pressure increases from 110/84 to 118/88 mm/Hg.
Vitamin B12 is normally found in liver, kidney, meat, fish and dairy products. A vegan who consumes only vegetables without careful dietary planning and supplementation may develop peripheral neuropathy due to a deficiency in vitamin B12 (D). (A, B, and C) are commonly adequate in vegtables and fruits. Correct Answer: D
The nurse is discussing dietary preferences with a client who adheres to a vegan diet. Which dietary supplement should the nurse encourage the client to include the dietary plan? A. Fiber. B. Folate. C. Ascorbic acid. D. Vitamin B12.
The nurse should plan to implement (A, B, D, and F). Pre-medicating the client with an analgesic (A) reduces the client's pain during mobilization and maximizes compliance. To ensure the client's cooperation and promote independence, the nurse should inform the client about the plan for moving to the chair (B) and encourage the client to participate by pushing the IV pole when walking to the chair (D). The nurse should assess the client's blood pressure (F) prior to mobilization, which can cause orthostatic hypotension. (C and E) are not indicated. Correct Answer: A, B, D, F
The nurse is preparing a male client who has an indwelling catheter and an IV infusion to ambulate from the bed to a chair for the first time following abdominal surgery. What action(s) should the nurse implement prior to assisting the client to the chair? (Select all that apply.) A. Pre-medicate the client with an analgesic. B. Inform the client of the plan for moving to the chair. C. Obtain and place a portable commode by the bed. D. Ask the client to push the IV pole to the chair. E. Clamp the indwelling catheter. F. Assess the client's blood pressure.
A cassette pump (B) should be used to accurately deliver large volumes of fluid over longer periods of time with extreme precise, such as ml/hour. A syringe pump (A) is accurate for low-dose continuous infusion of low-dose medication at a basal rate, but not large fluid volume replacement. Volumetric (C) and nonvolumetric (D) controllers count drops/minute to administer fluid volume and are inherently inaccurate because of variation in drop size. Correct Answer: B
The nurse is preparing to give a client with dehydration IV fluids delivered at a continuous rate of 175 ml/hour. Which infusion device should the nurse use? A. Portable syringe pump. B. Cassette infusion pump. C. Volumetric controller. D. Nonvolumetric controller.
To irrigate an indwelling urinary catheter, the nurse should first apply gloves, then draw up the irrigating solution into the syringe (B). The syringe is then attached to the catheter and the fluid instilled, using aseptic technique (D). Once the irrigating solution is instilled, the client's catheter should be secured to the drainage tubing (C). The urinary drainage bag can be emptied (A) whenever intake and output measurement is indicated, and the instilled irrigating fluid can be subtracted from the output at that time. Correct Answer: B
The nurse is preparing to irrigate a client's indwelling urinary catheter using an open technique. What action should the nurse take after applying gloves? A. Empty the client's urinary drainage bag. B. Draw up the irrigating solution into the syringe. C. Secure the client's catheter to the drainage tubing. D. Use aseptic technique to instill the irrigating solution.
Serous drainage is clear watery plasma, so (C) provides accurate documentation based on the information provided. Information to stage this pressure score (A) is not provided, and sero-sanguineous drainage is pale and watery with a combination of plasma and red cells, and may be blood-streaked. Exudate (B) is fluid such as pus and serum. Purulent drainage (D) is thick, yellow, green, or brown indicating the presence of dead or living organisms and white blood cells. Correct Answer: C
The nurse removes the dressing on a client's heel that is covering a pressure sore one-inch in diameter and finds that there is straw-colored drainage seeping from the wound. What description of this finding should the nurse include in the client's record? A. Stage 1 pressure sore draining sero-sanguineous drainage. B. Pressure sore at bony prominence with exudate noted. C. One-inch pressure sore draining serous fluid. D. Pressure sore on heel with a small amount of purulent drainage.
Select the sentence that is grammatically correct.
The nurse spoke to my sister and me about our mother's condition.
Which statements uses a euphemism?
The nurse told the family, "I'm sorry, your father has passed away."
Experiences with the same type of pain that has successfully been relieved makes it easier for a client to interpret the pain sensation, and as a result, the client is better prepared to take steps to relieve the pain (D). (A, B, and C) are having new experiences with pain. Correct Answer: D
The nurse working in the emergency department is assessing four clients' ability to tolerate pain. Which client is likely to tolerate a higher level of pain? A. A 10-year-old who was burned by a camp fire earlier today. B. A 70-year-old who has a postoperative infection from a surgery one week ago. C. A 23-year-old woman who sprained her knee while bicycling. D. A 55-year-old woman who has had moderate low back pain for three months.
The nurse should first slow the IV flow rate to keep vein open (KVO) rate (B) to prevent further risk of fluid volume overload, then gather additional assessment data, such as when the IV solution was started (A) and the appearance of the IV insertion site (C) before contacting the healthcare provider (D) for further instructions. Correct Answer: B
The nurses determines a client's IV solution is infusing at 250 ml/hr. The prescribed rate is 125 ml/hr. What action should the nurse take first? A. Determine when the IV solution was started. B. Slow the IV infusion to keep vein open rate. C. Assess the IV insertion site for swelling. D. Report the finding to the healthcare provider.
Ribosome
The organelle of the cell where protein synthesis takes place.
ectoderm
The outermost of the three primary embryonic germ layers, which gives rise to nervous tissue and the epidermis. The ectoderm is the outer layer of the embryo. It emerges first and forms from the outer layer of germ cells. Generally speaking, the ectoderm differentiates to form the nervous system, tooth enamel and the epidermis (the outer part of integument). In vertebrates, the ectoderm has three parts: external ectoderm (also known as surface ectoderm), the neural crest, and neural tube. The latter two are known as neuroectoderm.
Ribs The clavicle in the shoulder is the most commonly broken bone in the body because it transmits forces from the arm to the trunk.
The ribs are thin, flat, curved bones that form a protective cage around the organs in the upper body. They are comprised 24 bones arranged in 12 pairs. These bones are divided into three categories: The first seven bones are called the true ribs. These bones are connected to the spine (the backbone) in back. In the front, the true ribs are connected directly to the breastbone or sternum by a strips of cartilage called the costal cartilage. The next three pairs of bones are called false ribs. These bones are slightly shorter than the true ribs and are connected to the spine in back. However, instead of being attached directly to the sternum in front, the false ribs are attached to the lowest true rib. The last two sets of rib bones are called floating ribs. Floating ribs are smaller than both the true ribs and the false ribs. They are attached to the spine at the back, but are not connected to anything in the front. The ribs form a kind of cage the encloses the upper body. They give the chest its familiar shape. The ribs serve several important purposes. They protect the heart and lungs from injuries and shocks that might damage them. Ribs also protect parts of the stomach, spleen, and kidneys. The ribs help you to breathe. As you inhale, the muscles in between the ribs lift the rib cage up, allowing the lungs to expand. When you exhale, the rib cage moves down again, squeezing the air out of your lungs.
Skin
The skin is the outer covering of the body. In humans, it is the largest organ of the integumentary system made up of multiple layers of ectodermal tissue, and guards the underlying muscles, bones, ligaments and internal organs.[1] Human skin is not unlike that of most other mammals except that it is not protected by a pelt and appears hairless though in fact nearly all human skin is covered with hair follicles. There are two general types of skin, hairy and glabrous skin.[2] The adjective cutaneous literally means "of the skin" (from Latin cutis, skin). Because it interfaces with the environment, skin plays a key role in protecting (the body) against pathogens[3] and excessive water loss.[4] Its other functions are insulation, temperature regulation, sensation, synthesis of vitamin D, and the protection of vitamin B folates. Severely damaged skin will try to heal by forming scar tissue. This is often discolored and depigmented. In humans, skin pigmentation varies among populations, and skin type can range from dry to oily. Such skin variety provides a rich and diverse habit for bacteria which number roughly a 1000 species from 19 phyla
Axial Skeleton: Skull, Sternum, Ribs, Vertebral Column
The skull is the bony framework of the head. It is comprised of the eight cranial and fourteen facial bones. Cranial Bones The cranial bones makeup the protective frame of bone around the brain. The cranial bones are: The frontal forms part of the cranial cavity as well as the forehead, the brow ridges and the nasal cavity. The left and right parietal forms much of the superior and lateral portions of the cranium. The left and right temporal form the lateral walls of the cranium as well as housing the external ear. The occipital forms the posterior and inferior portions of the cranium. Many neck muscles attach here as this is the point of articulation with the neck. The sphenoid forms part of the eye orbit and helps to form the floor of the cranium. The ethmoid forms the medial portions of the orbits and the roof of the nasal cavity. The joints between bones of the skull are immovable and called sutures. The parietal bones are joined by the sagittal suture. Where the parietal bones meet the frontal is referred to as the coronal suture. The parietals and the occipital meet at the lambdoidal suture. The suture between the parietals and the temporal bone is referred to as the squamous suture. These sites are the common location of fontanelles or "soft spots" on a baby's head. Facial Bones The facial bones makeup the upper and lower jaw and other facial structures. The facial bones are: The mandible is the lower jawbone. It articulates with the temporal bones at the temporomandibular joints. This forms the only freely moveable joint in the head. It provides the chewing motion. The left and right maxilla are the upper jaw bones. They form part of the nose, orbits, and roof of the mouth. The left and right palatine form a portion of the nasal cavity and the posterior portion of the roof of the mouth. The left and right zygomatic are the cheek bones. They form portions of the orbits as well. The left and right nasal form the superior portion of the bridge of the nose. The left and right lacrimal help to form the orbits. The vomer forms part of the nasal septum (the divider between the nostrils). The left and right inferior turbinate forms the lateral walls of the nose and increase the surface area of the nasal cavity.
Why are skeletal muscles also called voluntary muscles?
They are under conscious control
Restrict
To limit
Translation
Translation is the first stage of protein biosynthesis (part of the overall process of gene expression). In translation, messenger RNA (mRNA) produced in transcription is decoded to produce a specific amino acid chain, or polypeptide, that will later fold into an active protein. Translation occurs in the cell's cytoplasm, where the large and small subunits of the ribosome are located, and bind to the mRNA. The ribosome facilitates decoding by inducing the binding of tRNAs with complementary anticodon sequences to that of the mRNA. The tRNAs carry specific amino acids that are chained together into a polypeptide as the mRNA passes through and is "read" by the ribosome in a fashion reminiscent to that of a stock ticker and ticker tape. A ribosome translating a protein that is secreted into the endoplasmic reticulum. tRNAs are colored dark blue.In many instances, the entire ribosome/mRNA complex will bind to the outer membrane of the rough endoplasmic reticulum and release the nascent protein polypeptide inside for later vesicle transport and secretion outside of the cell. Many types of transcribed RNA, such as transfer RNA, ribosomal RNA, and small nuclear RNA, do not undergo translation into proteins. Translation proceeds in four phases: activation, initiation, elongation and termination (all describing the growth of the amino acid chain, or polypeptide that is the product of translation). Amino acids are brought to ribosomes and assembled into proteins. In activation, the correct amino acid is covalently bonded to the correct transfer RNA (tRNA). The amino acid is joined by its carboxyl group to the 3' OH of the tRNA by a peptide bond. When the tRNA has an amino acid linked to it, it is termed "charged". Initiation involves the small subunit of the ribosome binding to 5' end of mRNA with the help of initiation factors (IF). Termination of the polypeptide happens when the A site of the ribosome faces a stop codon (UAA, UAG, or UGA). No tRNA can recognize or bind to this codon. Instead, the stop codon induces the binding of a release factor protein that prompts the disassembly of the entire ribosome/mRNA complex. A number of antibiotics act by inhibiting translation; these include anisomycin, cycloheximide, chloramphenicol, tetracycline, streptomycin, erythromycin, and puromycin, among others. Prokaryotic ribosomes have a different structure from that of eukaryotic ribosomes, and thus antibiotics can specifically target bacterial infections without any detriment to a eukaryotic host's cells.
Transmission
Transfer, such as of a disease, from one person to another
Trochanter
Trochanter: One of the bony prominences toward the near end of the thigh bone (the femur). There are two trochanters: •The greater trochanter: A powerful protrusion located at the proximal (near) and lateral (outside) part of the shaft of the femur; •The lesser trochanter: A pyramidal prominence projecting from the proximal (near) and medial (inside) part of the shaft of the femur. The greater trochanter is also called the major trochanter, the outer trochanter, and the lateral process of the femur. The lesser trochanter is alternatively called the minor trochanter, the inner trochanter and the medial process of the femur. The trochanters are points at which hip and thigh muscles attach. The greater trochanter gives attachment to a number of muscles (including the gluteus medius and minimus, piriformis, obturator internus and externus, and gemelli muscles) while the lesser trochanter receives the insertion of several muscles (including the psoas major and iliacus [iliopsoas] muscles). A large rounded projection for muscle attachment.
Foramen
a true hole in the bone [e.g. foramen magnum, incisive foramen. Foramen: A natural opening. Although a foramen is usually through bone, it can be an opening through other types of tissue, as with the foramen ovale in the heart. The plural of foramen is foramina.
When plants do not receive enough water their photosynthetic rated drops. This is because:
Water is a raw material for the light reactions in photosynthesis
What is the primary cause of water molecules moving into or out of the cell?
Water molecule pressure gradient along the cell membrane
A waist-high bed height (A) is a comfortable and safe working height to maintain the nurse's proper body mechanics and prevent back injury. The head should be flat for a Sim's side-lying position, not raised (B). (C) is implemented after the client is positioned laterally. (D) brings the client closer to the nurse when being turned. Correct Answer: A
What action is most important for the nurse to implement when placing a client in the Sim's position? A. Raise the bed to a waist-high working level. B. Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees. C. Place a pillow behind the client's back. D. Bring the client to one edge of the bed.
columnar
a type of epithelial tissue whose cells are shaped like columns. The tissue resembles a series of dominoes laid side by side.
Aspiration of a blood return in the lumen of a central venous catheter indicates that the catheter is in place and the medication can be administered. The nurse should flush the tubing with the saline solution, administer the medication (A), then flush the lumen with saline again. (B and C) are not necessary. The aspirated blood can be flushed back through the closed system into the client's bloodstream, but does not need to be withdrawn (D). Correct Answer: A
When preparing to administer an intravenous medication through a central venous catheter, the nurse aspirates a blood return in one of the lumens of the triple lumen catheter. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Flush the lumen with the saline solution and administer the medication through the lumen. B. Determine if a PRN prescription for a thrombolytic agent is listed on the medication record. C. Clamp the lumen and obtain a syringe of a dilute heparin solution to flush through the tubing. D. Withdraw the aspirated blood into the syringe and use a new syringe to administer the medication.
The durable power of attorney is a legal document or a form of advance directive that designates another person to voice healthcare decisions when the client is unable to do so. A durable power of attorney for health directives is legally binding (A). (B, C and D) do not include the legal parameters that must be determined by the client in the event the client is unable to make a healthcare decision, which can be changed by the client at any time. Correct Answer: A
Which statement best describes durable power of attorney for health care? A. The client signs a document that designates another person to make legally binding healthcare decisions if client is unable to do so. B. The healthcare decisions made by another person designated by the client are not legally binding. C. Instructions about actions to be taken in the event of a client's terminal or irreversible condition are not legally binding. D. Directions regarding care in the event of a terminal or irreversible condition must be documented to ensure that they are legally binding.
An objective should contain four elements: who will perform the activity or acquire the desired behavior, the actual behavior that the learner will exhibit, the condition under which the behavior is to be demonstrated, and the specific criteria to be used to measure success. (C) is a concise statement that is a learning objective that defines exactly how the client will demonstrate mastery of the content. (A, B, and D) lack one or more of these elements. Correct Answer: C
Which statement correctly identifies a written learning objective for a client with peripheral vascular disease? A. The nurse will provide client instruction for daily foot care. B. The client will demonstrate proper trimming toenail technique. C. Upon discharge, the client will list three ways to protect the feet from injury. D. After instruction, the nurse will ensure the client understands foot care rationale.
The first part of the nursing diagnosis statement is the diagnostic label and is followed by related to the cause, which should direct the nurse to the appropriate interventions. (D) best fits this criteria. (A and B) contain a medical diagnosis. (C) includes an observable cause, but (D) focuses on the client's response, which the nurse can provide support, reflection, and dialogue. Correct Answer: D
Which statement is an example of a correctly written nursing diagnosis statement? A. Altered tissue perfusion related to congestive heart failure. B. Altered urinary elimination related to urinary tract infection. C. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to client's refusal to turn. D. Ineffective coping related to response to positive biopsy test results.
The most important factor in performing a physical assessment is following a consistent and systematic technique (C) each time an assessment is performed to minimize variation in sequence which may increase the likelihood of omitting a step or exam of an isolated area. The method of completing a physical assessment (A, B, and D) may be at the discretion of the examiner, but a consistent sequence by the examiner provides a reliable method to ensure thorough review of the clients' history, complaints, or body systems. Correct Answer: C
Which technique is most important for the nurse to implement when performing a physical assessment? A. A head-to-toe approach. B. The medical systems model. C. A consistent, systematic approach. D. An approach related to a nursing model.
Members of the Asian culture have high respect for others, especially those in positions of authority. Extended family members need to be included in the nursing care plan (A). Southeast Asians do not necessarily refuse Western medications (B). Asians also believe that touching strangers is not acceptable, particularly health professionals whom they have not previously known, so the husband should be allowed to remain with his wife during the pelvic exam (C). Provided that the presence of other family members is not harmful to the client's well-being, (D) is not correct. Correct Answer: A
While caring for a child and mother from Cambodia, what action should the nurse implement to accommodate the clients' cultural needs? A. Speak initially with the oldest family member to show respect. B. Realize that Southeast Asians may not take Western medications. C. Ask the husband to step out during the mother's pelvic examination. D. Tell the family that planning health care is provided in private with the client.
During administration of a rectal suppository, the client is asked to take slow deep breaths through the mouth to relax the anal sphincter (D). Bearing down (A) will push the suppository out of the rectum, so the suppository should not be inserted while the client is bearing down (B). Further data is needed before performing an invasive digital exam to check for fecal impaction (C). Correct Answer: D
While preparing to insert a rectal suppository in a male adult client, the nurse observes that the client is holding his breath while bearing down. What action should the nurse implement? A. Advise the client to continue to bear down without holding his breath. B. Gently insert the lubricated suppository four inches into the rectum. C. Perform a digital exam to determine if a fecal impaction is present. D. Instruct the client to take slow deep breaths and stop bearing down.
When a client receiving a tube feeding begins to vomit, the nurse should first stop the feeding (A) to prevent further vomiting. (C) should then be implemented to reduce the risk of aspiration. After that, (B and D) can be implemented as indicated. Correct Answer: A
While the nurse is administering a bolus feeding to a client via nasogastric tube, the client begins to vomit. What action should the nurse implement first? A. Discontinue the administration of the bolus feeding. B. Auscultate the client's breath sounds bilaterally. C. Elevate the head of the bed to a high Fowler's position. D. Administer a PRN dose of a prescribed antiemetic.
Meatus
a small tubular opening. In anatomy, a meatus is a natural body opening or canal (Latin, 4th declension pl. meatus, or meatuses - often incorrectly meati). Examples include: the external acoustic meatus, the opening of the ear canal The internal auditory meatus, a canal in the temporal bone of the skull the urinary meatus, which is the opening of the urethra, situated on the glans penis in males, and in the vulva in females the superior meatus, middle meatus and inferior meatus of the nose
tight junction
a cellular junction which forms a fluid-tight seal between cells (e.g., lining epithelial cells of large intestine).
wastes are concentrated into
a waste product called urine
areolar
a widely distributed connective tissue made up of a number of different types of cells; combines with adipose tissue to form the subcutaneous layer of the body. Areolar tissue exhibits interlacing,[1] loosely organized fibers,[2] abundant blood vessels, and significant empty space. Its fiber run in random directions and are mostly collagenous, but elastic and reticular fibers are also present. Areolar tissue is highly variable in appearance. In many serous membranes, it appears as a loose arrangement of collagenous and elastic fibers, scattered cells of various types; abundant ground substance; numerous blood vessels. In the skin and mucous membranes, it is more compact and sometimes difficult to distinguish from dense irregular connective tissue. It is the most widely distributed connective tissue type in vertebrates. It is sometimes equated with "loose connective tissue".[3] In other cases, "loose connective tissue" is considered a parent category that includes mucous connective tissue, reticular connective tissue and adipose tissue.
Salivary amylase (ptyalin)
an enzyme in saliva that breaks the complex starch polysaccharide into maltose (a disaccharide)
The urethra is susceptible to infection
because of growth of microorganisms from the outside that infiltrate the urethral tubes.
"What body cavity contains organs of the respiratory
cardiovascular, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems?","The ventral body cavity. (Coelom)"
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid)
controls cell function via transcription and translation (in other words, by controlling protein synthesis in a cell). DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in humans and almost all other organisms. Nearly every cell in a person's body has the same DNA. Most DNA is located in the cell nucleus (where it is called nuclear DNA), but a small amount of DNA can also be found in the mitochondria (where it is called mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA). Tucked away inside the DNA of all of your genes are the instructions for how to construct a unique individual. Our genetic identity is "coded" in the sense that four building blocks, called nucleotides, string together to spell out a biochemical message—the manufacturing instructions for a protein. DNA's four nucleotides, abbreviated A, T, G, and C, can only match up in specific pairs: A links to T and G links to C. An intermediate in this process, called mRNA (messenger ribonucleic acid), is made from the DNA template and serves as a link to molecular machines called ribosomes. Inside every cell, ribosomes read mRNA sequences and hook together protein building blocks called amino acids in the order specified by the code: Groups of three nucleotides in mRNA code for each of 20 amino acids. Connector molecules called tRNA (transfer RNA) aid in this process. Ultimately, the string of amino acids folds upon itself, adopting the unique shape that is the signature of that particular protein. The information in DNA is stored as a code made up of four chemical bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Human DNA consists of about 3 billion bases, and more than 99 percent of those bases are the same in all people. The order, or sequence, of these bases determines the information available for building and maintaining an organism, similar to the way in which letters of the alphabet appear in a certain order to form words and sentences. DNA bases pair up with each other, A with T and C with G, to form units called base pairs. Each base is also attached to a sugar molecule and a phosphate molecule. Together, a base, sugar, and phosphate are called a nucleotide. Nucleotides are arranged in two long strands that form a spiral called a double helix. The structure of the double helix is somewhat like a ladder, with the base pairs forming the ladder's rungs and the sugar and phosphate molecules forming the vertical sidepieces of the ladder. An important property of DNA is that it can replicate, or make copies of itself. Each strand of DNA in the double helix can serve as a pattern for duplicating the sequence of bases. This is critical when cells divide because each new cell needs to have an exact copy of the DNA present in the old cell.
The performance of the renal system can also be adversely affected by
diabetes mellitus. The excess glucose in the blood may not be removed by the kidneys, leading to the appearance of glucose in the urine.
Within liver cells, glycogen can be decomposed to yield glucose. For this process to occur, which substance must also be present?
glucagon and epinephrine
thyroid hormones
hormones produced by the thyroid gland primarily responsible for regulation of metabolism
Epinephrine
increases the conversion of glycogen to glucose in liver and muscle tissue, causing a rise in blood glucose levels and an increase in the basal metabolic rate.
A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by ___________.
lowering the activation energy
What is the name of the physical presentation of an organism's genes?
phenotype
Hyphothalamus
section of the posterior forebrain, located above the pituitary glad. Connects nervous system with the endocrine system.
Which of the following is true of skeletal muscle?
skeletal muscle attaches to bones by tendons muscle contraction helps keep the body warm skeletal muscles continuously contract to maintain posture
Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
sorts and modifies protein chains delivered by bound ribosomes
goblet cells
specialized epithelial cells which secrete mucous for lubrication.
Mandible
the bone forming the lower jaw; the largest and strongest bone of the face, presenting a body and a pair of rami, which articulate with the skull at the tempromandibular joints.
Symphysis
the line or junction formed by a cartilaginous articulation between two bones without an intervening synovial membrane, this articulation often fuses as in the two bones and the two halves of the mandibles [compare to suture and epiphysis].
Arteries functions and characteristics:
thick walled; oxygenated; conduct blood at high pressures; have a pulse; no valves to prevent backflow
Alveoli
tiny air sacs that are the site of gas exchange in the lungs
Cardiac Muscle
tissue that make up the heart, characteristics of both skeletal and smooth muscle; has an internal pace maker responsible for heart beat that is modified by the nervous system
Medial
toward the midline.