Combo with "Calculations Pharmacy Tech" and 1 other
The pharmacy technician is asked to divide 5 liters of Nystatin suspension into an equal number of 10 ml and 15 ml unit dose dispensing cups. How many 10 ml dispensing cups can be made from this quantity of suspension?
200
The pharmacy technician is asked to divide 5 liters of Nystatin suspension into an equal number of 10 ml and 15 ml unit dose dispensing cups. How many 10 ml dispensing cups can be made from this quantity of suspension?
200 bottles
A patient is to be administered Amoxicillin that has a recommended dosage of 30 mg/kg of body weight. The patient is an infant weighing 15 lb. The amount of the drug the patient is to receive is:
204 mg
The minimum age to sign the exempt narcotic log is:
21
How old must a person be to sign the exempt narcotic log:
21 years old.
1-1/2 tablespoons is equivalent to how many ml?
22.5
The recommended dose of drug XYZ is 10 mg/kg/day. What is the total daily drug XYZ for a 48.4-lb patient?
220 mg
A third party insurance program pays for only a 14 day supply of a specific medication. If the directions for use read "i - ii tabs po q3-4h prn", what is the maximum allowed quantity to be dispensed?
224 tablets
A pharmacy fills an order for 28 Septra tablets containing 0.08 g of Trimethoprim each. How much Trimethoprim is dispensed?
2240mg
You receive a prescription for Amoxicillin suspension 125 mg/5 ml, 1.5 tsp TID x 10 days. The appropriate quantity to dispense would be:
225 ml
The dose of Cefaclor for children 6 months or older is 50 mg/kg/day. What would be the daily dose range for a child who weighs 10 lbs.?
227 mg/day
From the following directions, how many tablets of Prednisone 5 mg should be dispensed? 2 tabs po qid x 2 days, then 1 tab po tid x 2 days, then 1 tab po qd x 2 days then dc
24
From the following directions, how many tablets should be dispensed? 2 tabs po qid x 2 days, then 1 tab po tid x 2 days, then ss po bid x 2 days then dc
24
How much medication would be needed for the following order? Prednisone 10 mg, one qid x 4 days, one tid x 2 days, one bid x 1 day, then stop
24
The directions for use for Deltasone 5 mg tablets reads: Sig: 2 tabs po bid for 3 days, 3 tabs po qd for 2 days, 2 tabs po qd for 2 days, 1 tab po qd for 1 day then 1/2 tab po qd for 1 day. How many tablets should be dispensed?
24
Most unit-dose systems provide each patient with a storage bin, in which can be found a supply of drugs for:
24 hours
Most unit-dose systems provide each patient with a storage bin, in which can be found a supply of drugs that will last:
24 hours
In this formula, how much Talc is needed to fill 120 grams? Nupercainal Ointment 4% Zinc Oxide 20% Talc 2%
2400 mg
A 500-ml quantity of D5W contains how many grams of dextrose?
25 gm
An IV solution containing 500 mg of aminophylline in 1000 ml of solution will completely infuse in 20 hours. How many mg of aminophylline is being infused per hour?
25 mg
A piggyback has 50 ml of antibiotic infusing at a rate of 30 gtts/min. How long will it take for this solution to be administered if the set is calibrated to deliver 15 gtts/ml?
25 min
An IV solution containing 500 mg of aminophylline in 1000 ml of solution will completely infuse in 20 hours. How many mg of aminophylline is being infused per hour?
25mg
You have a 70% solution of Dextrose. How many grams of Dextrose is in 400 ml of this solution?
280 grams
What ratio of 25% dextrose and 10% dextrose should be mixed to make a 20% dextrose solution?
2:01
What ratio of 25% dextrose and 10% dextrose should be mixed to make a 20% dextrose solution?
2:1
A Pharmacy Technician dilutes a 2 g vial of ampicillin with 6.8 ml of sterile water for injections. When properly mixed, the concentration of the drug solution is 250 mg/ml. If the prescribed dose is 750 mg, the volume of the drug solution required is:
3 ml
Rx: Cefixime 100 mg/5 ml. Sig: 60 mg po qd x 10 d. What volume of medication would be required for a single daily dose?
3 ml
You are to use 2.4 ml of diluent to reconstitute a vial of medication. What size of syringe should be used?
3 ml.
How much Elixophyllin elixir 80 mg/15 ml is required for a dose of 240 mg?
3 tbsp
The concentration of Gentamicin is 80 mg/2ml. An order is written for 130 mg of Gentamicin in 100 ml NS. How many milliliters of Gentamicin do you inject into the IVPB bag?
3.25 ml
The doctor writes a prescription for Na Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml N.S. Infuse over 8 hours. The administration set delivers 60 drops/ml. What is the flow rate in drops/min?
63 drops
One grain of Phenobarbital is equal to how many mg?
65 mg
One grain of Phenobarbital is equal to how many mg?
65 mg.
An administration set that delivers 10 gtt/ml is set up to infuse 1000 ml Ringers Solution over a 24-hr period. What flow rate will be required to deliver the 1000 ml.
7 drops/min
Oral poliovirus vaccine (live, oral) should be stored in a temperature not to exceed 46 degrees Fahrenheit. What is this temperature in Centigrade? Use this formula: Centigrade = 5/9 (F-32)
7.78 Degrees C.
What should the minimum percent of Isopropyl Alcohol be to prevent contamination of an I.V.
70%
A Tagamet IV has been ordered to run at 3 drops/min. It contains 1000 mg of Tagamet in a total of 250 ml. How many milligrams of Tagamet will the patient receive per hour if the set is calibrated to deliver 10 gtts/ml?
72 mg/hr.
How many hours will a 1000-ml IV solution last if it is infusing at a rate of 125 ml/hr?
8
If a medication is available in 100 tablet bottles and the pharmacy typically uses approximately 600 tablets per week, how many bottles should be ordered if it is anticipated that 33% more tablets will be dispensed in the following week?
8 bottles
How many hours will a 1000-ml of NaCl 0.9% last if it is infusing at a rate of 125 ml/hr?
8 hr
The cost-sharing plan in which patients pay a specified dollar amount for every prescription received is known as:
Co-payment
Which of the following is a means of contamination?
Contaminated equipment. Contaminated raw material. Personnel
For a hospital inpatient order for Ceftriaxone 1 g QD IV piggyback the technician should do all of the following except:
Convert the dosage from grams to grains so the nurse will know how much to give.
A patient who is allergic to Penicillin may exhibit an allergic response to Cefaclor because they are chemically similar. This tendency is referred to as:
Cross-sensitivity.
Which of the following is the most accurate device for measuring liquids?
Cylindrical graduate.
The labeling of Unit-dose products must include medication name and which of the following?
Dose strength, manufacturer or pharmacy code, drug expiration date.
Of the following Drug Recalls, which one is the most important in that all parties involved in the dispensing of a prescription (Doctor, Pharmacy and patient) must be notified due to the drugs potential or serious harm?
Drug Recall I.
Which drug recall is the most important in that all parties involved in the dispensing of a prescription (Doctor, Pharmacy and patient) must be notified due to the drugs potential or serious harm?
Drug Recall I.
The National Drug Code (NDC) is usually required for purchasing of pharmaceutical products. The NDC can be found in which of the following?
Drug Topics Red Book
The second field of numbers in the National Drug Code (NDC) identifies the:
Drug description.
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA 90) required pharmacists to perform the following functions for patients receiving Medicaid:
Drug therapy review and counseling.
Which of the following best describes controlled substances in Schedule I?
Drugs with no accepted medical use in the United States. & Drugs with a high potential for physical dependence. & Heroin, opium, marijuana.
The Patient Package Insert (PPI) for Estrogens is required to be dispensed:
Each time the prescription is dispensed.
The Patient Package Insert (PPI) for oral contraceptives is required to be dispensed:
Each time the prescription is dispensed.
which can not be crushed
Ecotrin- Enteric coated asprin
Which of the following is not a defining characteristic of a lipids free T.P.N.?
Effervescence.
Which of the following is not a defining characteristic of an intravenous solution?
Effervescence.
Which of the following medications is prescribed to treat CHF?
Enalapril.or Captopril.
Which dosage form is formulated to dissolve in the intestine rather than the stomach?
Enteric-coated.
The primary function of the P + T Committee is to:
Establish standards for therapeutics.
What is the primary function of the P + T Committee:
Establish standards for therapeutics.
Federal regulations required a Package Patient Insert (PPI) to be dispensed each time when which medication is dispensed?
Estrogens
If a bottle breaks under the laminar flow hood, a spill kit should be used if the bottle contained
Etoposide.
If a bottle breaks under the laminar flow hood, a spill kit should be used if the bottle contained which of the following?
Etoposide.
How often must a laminar flow hood be checked?
Every 6 months.
When dispensing Ortho-cyclen, how often must the PPI be included with the drug product?
Every time the prescription is dispensed
When dispensing Ortho-Cyclen, how often must the Patient Package Insert (PPI) be included with the drug product?
Every time the prescription is dispensed.
When dispensing Ventolin Inhaler, how often must the Patient Package Insert (PPI) be included with the drug product?
Every time the prescription is dispensed.
How often must controlled substances be physically inventoried?
Every two years.
Which class of drugs decreases the viscosity of respiratory tract secretions?
Expectorants.
Which class of drugs decreases the viscosity of respiratory tract secretions?
Expectorants. Example: Robitussin.
A patient calls the pharmacy asking why his Lanoxin is white instead of the usual yellow color. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to take?
Explain the situation to the pharmacist, correct the error, and document the error per procedures.
The process of repackaging quantities of medications that will be used in a short time usually for one patient is called:
Extemporaneous.
Adverse drug reactions and outcomes should be reported to the:
FDA
Which drug agency is responsible to regulate medical devices?
FDA
Who is responsible for recalling drugs?
FDA
Of the following, the reference source that would provide the most comprehensive indication and dosage information about a newly released Macrolide is:
Facts and Comparisons.
Which drug information source would a technician use for information concerning the dosing of a newly marketed antihypertensive?
Facts and Comparisons.
Which information source would a technician use for information concerning the dosing of a newly marketed antibiotic?
Facts and Comparisons.
Pepcid
Famotidine is used to treat dyspepsia indigestion it is an H2 antagonists
Federal law requires that all controlled substances dispensed bear the following statement on the dispensing label?
Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to another person.
which of the following medications is commercially available as a patch? morphine, meperidine, codeine, fentanyl
Fentanyl
Which of the following medications is commercially available as a patch?
Fentanyl.
Which dosage form is formulated to mask an objectionable taste of a medication?
Film-coated tablets
Which dosage form is formulated to mask an objectionable taste of a medication?
Film-coated tablets.
Which of the following dosage forms is formulated to mask an objectionable taste of a medication?
Film-coated tablets.
If medication has expired, the Pharmacy Technician should:
Follow the manufacturer's return policy.
If a pharmacy technician discovers a medication has expired, he/she should:
Follow the manufacturers return policy.
Auxiliary label for cerumenex would include the following
For the ear.
Auxiliary label for cerumenex would include the following:
For the ear.
The proper technique for cleaning a horizontal laminar flow hood (Laminar air flow workbench) is to wipe:
From back to front using side-to-side motions.
Until recently, all of the anticonvulsant drugs have been used for decades. Which of the following drugs is a new drug in the arsenal of anticonvulsant therapy?
Gabapentin.
Tagamet, Axid, and Pepcid are examples of a:
H2 receptor blocker
Cimetidine, Famotidide and Ranitidine are examples of a:
H2 receptor blocker.
tagamet, Axid, and Pepcid are examples of a:
H2 receptor blocker.
The first line of defense against infection/contamination of an IV product is:
Hand washing.
The most widely used reference book used in I.V. admixture program is the
Handbook of Injectable Drugs.
The most widely used reference of an IV admixture program is the:
Handbook of Injectable Drugs.
The pharmacist asked you to check the compatibility of parenteral Dilantin with sodium chloride 0.9%. Which reference would you select to find this information?
Handbook on Injectable Drugs.
During prescription computer entry, the technician is responsible for all of the following except:
Handling drug interaction messaging.
In performing their duties, what must a Pharmacy Technician do?
Have all labels and products checked by a pharmacist.
Pharmacy Technicians can perform their duties provided they:
Have all labels and products checked by a pharmacist.
When a prescription is received for Cortisporin Drops, use as directed, the technician should:
Have the pharmacist check whether an ophthalmic or otic product is to be dispensed.
Pastilles are:
Held in the mouth and sucked.
Which of the following inventory turnover rates is an indication of an effective inventory control area?
Higher rate.
What is the proper method of measuring a liquid in a graduated cylinder?
Hold at eye level and read the bottom of the meniscus.
When using a graduated cylinder for measuring a liquid what is the proper method.
Hold at eye level and read the bottom of the meniscus.
A "Nosocomial" infection is also known as a ______________ infection.
Hospital Borne.
The term "turnover rate" usually means:
How fast the inventory is used.
Methylphenidate (Ritalin) and Adderall are used to treat:
Hyperkinesis Disorders Hyperactivity or Attention Deficit Disorders
Methylphenidate (Ritalin) and Adderall are used to treat:
Hyperkinesis disorders.
Pseudoephedrine, a common ingredient in cold preparations, is contraindicated in which of the following disease states?
Hypertension.
Sudafed is contraindicated in which of the following disease states?
Hypertension.
______ is the process by which a government agency grants permission to an individual engaged in a given occupation.
Licensure.
Drugs are metabolized in the:
Liver
Drugs are metabolized in the:
Liver.
Etodolac
Lodine is a NSAID
When state and federal requirements differ on how long records should be kept, what should take precedence?
Longest time period.
Which of the following medications is available by prescription only?
Loratadine.
Which of the following drugs is not a beta-blocking agent? normadyne, lotensin, tenormin, lopressor
Lotensin
Which of the following types of syringes should be used in the mixing of Vinblastine?
Luer-lock.
Which of the following drugs in not an OTC product?
Luride drops.
The responsibility for the initial ordering of investigation drugs belong to whom?
MD
Who is responsible for the initial ordering of investigation drugs?
MD
Who is responsible for the initial ordering of investigation drugs?
MD.
Which of the following medications is classified as Schedule II?
MS Contin.
Of the following, which one is used to ensure the safe handling of hazardous materials?
MSDS
Which of the following is used to ensure the safe handling of hazardous materials?
MSDS
Of the following, which one is used to ensure the safe handling of hazardous materials?
MSDS.
The purpose of the P + T Committee is all the following except:
Make sure hospital receives payment.
The main goal of the formulary systems is to:
Manage the cost of rational drug therapy.
The first set of numbers of a NDC code identifies the:
Manufacturer
The first set of numbers of a National Drug Code identifies the:
Manufacturer
Refill limitations for a Schedule III controlled substance are:
Maximum of 5 refills and not more than 6 months after date of issuance.
Which of the following auxiliary labels should be affixed to a prescription for Diphenhydramine elixir?
May Cause Drowsiness.
Which of the following auxiliary labels should be affixed to a prescription for Hydroxyzine elixir?
May Cause Drowsiness.
Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance?
Meperidine & Methylphenidate
Which drug requires a follow-up "cover" prescription when dispensed as a verbal order?
Meperidine.
Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance?
Meperidine.
The process whereby a drug is transformed by the liver is referred to as:
Metabolism.
What is the process whereby a drug is transformed by the liver to another chemical:
Metabolism.
Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance?
Methylphenidate.
Which of the following medications would be prescribed to treat a bacterial infection?
Metronidazole
Which of the following medications would be prescribed to treat an amoeba infection?
Metronidazole.
Lovastatin is the generic name for
Mevacor.
The expiration date on a bottle Ceclor 500 mg tablets states 4/01. When does the drug expire?
Midnight 04/30/01.
The expiration date on a bottle Cipro 500 mg tablets states 4/03. When does the drug expire?
Midnight 04/30/03.
Sumycin and Achromycin should not be administered with which beverage
Milk.
Sumycin and Achromycin should not be administered with which of the following beverages?
Milk.
The walls of a clean room should be washed how often?
Monthly.
Patients with Opioid allergies should avoid taking:
Morphine
Patients with Opioid allergies should avoid taking:
Morphine.
What information is required to be posted on each cell of an automated counting device?
Name, strength, lot # and expiration date of drug.
Which of the following medications is an over the counter analgesic?
Naproxen tablets.
Naloxone
Narcon
Narcan is categorized as a: narcotic agonist, dopamine agonist, narcotic antagonist, dopamine antagonist
Narcotic antagonist
Naloxone (Narcan) is categorized as a:
Narcotic antagonist.
Narcan is categorized as a:
Narcotic antagonist.
Meperidine is classified as a/an:
Narcotic.
A prescriber's DEA number is:
Needed on outpatient prescriptions for controlled substances.
Filgrastim's Brand Name is
Neupogen.
Which of the following drugs is a calcium channel blocker?
Nifedipine
Which of the following is classified as a calcium-channel blocker?
Nifedipine.
All of the following medications may be administered in a plastic IV container except:
Nitroglycerin.
The Poison Prevention Packaging Act requires childproof packaging for all medications except:
Nitroglycerin.
Which of the following drugs is a coronary vasodilator?
Nitroglycerin.
Which of the following medications must be administered in a glass IV container?
Nitroglycerin.
How long may a Schedule Class II drug be refilled?
No refills.
When selling an over-the-counter nasal decongestant spray Oxymetazoline (Afrin), which question can the technician answer without referring the customer to the pharmacist?
None of the above.
Which of the following is not a means of contamination?
None of the above.
A Patient Package Insert must be dispensed with which of the following medications?
Norethindrone.
A patient package insert is mandatory when dispensing which of the following?
Norethindrone.
A "Hospital Borne" infection is also known as a ______________ infection.
Nosocomial
A "Hospital Borne" infection is also known as a ______________ infection.
Nosocomial.
When accepting a prescription for Warfarin from a patient the technician should:
Notify the pharmacist if the patient is also buying aspirin. There is an interaction with these medications.
A patient who has been on oral Cephalexin for a skin infection asks for a recommendation of an OTC vaginal yeast infection product. What should the technician do?
Notify the pharmacist of potential side effects of the antibiotic regimen.
When filling an inpatient's medication drawer, the technician notices that the fill list contains both Dyazide and Maxzide. The technician should:
Notify the pharmacist that the patient has orders for two drugs of the same class.
At cart fill, you identify an order to refill both Aspirin 81 mg and Warfarin for a patient. You should:
Notify the pharmacist. It is possible that this potential drug interaction was "missed" by the pharmacist.
According to DEA regulations, when Schedule II substances are received, which of the following items of information must be recorded on DEA Form 222?
Number of items received and date of receipt.
Which federal legislation enacted in 1990 requires Pharmacist to counsel Medicaid patients?
OBRA
Which governmental agency is responsible for safety in the workplace?
OSHA
35. Which governmental agency is responsible for safety in the workplace?
OSHA.
Safety at the work place is the responsibility of which government agency?
OSHA.
Another name for nonprescription drugs is:
OTC
nonprescription drugs are also referred to as: otc, legend, fda, closed system
OTC
Ketoprofen tablets aka Orudis
OTC analgesic
Federal Law requires prescription orders for controlled drugs (Schedules II - IV) must contain all of the following except:
Physician's telephone number
Actos
Pioglitazone Anti-Diabetic
The proper method for disposing of a used needle and syringe after mixing Cefitriaxone is:
Place the needle and syringe directly into a Sharps container.
After syringes are used for preparation of hazardous substances, the pharmacy technician should:
Place the syringes in a sealed plastic bag and dispose in special waste.
Sublingual (SL) tabs are:
Placed under the tongue.
Which of the following drugs in not an OTC product?
Poly-Vi-Flor drops.
Because of incompatibility, which of the following additives should be added first to a T.P.N. admixture that will contain calcium gluconate?
Potassium phosphate.
Pravastatin would be prescribed to:
Pravachol, is used to Decrease cholesterol.
You receive an order for Vinblastine. In preparing this drug you should
Prepare it in a biological safety cabinet.
You receive an order for Vinblastine. In preparing this drug you should:
Prepare it in a biological safety cabinet.
The purpose of complying with the "Universal Precautions" is to:
Prevent the transmission of blood-borne pathogens
Nifedipine
Procardia, Adalat CC
Upon noting the Demerol has reached its expiration date, the pharmacy technician should:
Proceed according to the pharmacy's return policy.
Which of the following suppositories should be stored in the refrigerator?
Promethazine or phenergan
What protective apparel must be worn when reconstituting Vinblastine?
Protective apparel includes 2 pair of gloves (double gloving), a hair covering, a mask and a protective barrier gown
What protective apparel must be worn when reconstituting a chemotherapeutic agent?
Protective apparel includes 2 pair of gloves (double gloving), a hair covering, a mask and a protective barrier gown.
The purpose of a horizontal laminar airflow workbench is to:
Provide a sterile environment for admixture compounding.
The purpose of a horizontal laminar flow hood is to:
Provide a sterile environment for admixture compounding.
The purpose of a laminar flow work bench.
Provide an aseptic environment for safe preparation of sterile products.
You receive the following prescription: Vancenase (Beclomethasone) inhaler Dispense #1 Sig:ii puffs inhaled bid In filling the prescription, the technician should:
Provide the patient with the "For the Patient" instructions included with the inhaler.
The Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS):
Provides information concerning hazardous substances.
The material Safety Data Sheets serve what function?
Provides information concerning hazardous substances.
The main concern of pharmacy practice today is the:
Provision of optimal drug therapy for all patients.
Sudafed
Pseudoephedrine
Which of the following medications would not interfere with the action of Tetracycline?
Pseudoephedrine
A patient presents a prescription for Furosemide. Which items should the technician alert the pharmacist if the patient wants to purchase?
Pseudoephedrine-containing decongestant
Which drug requires the auxiliary label "May Discolor Urine Red"?
Pyridium.
An ongoing, systematic process for monitoring, evaluating, and improving the quality of pharmacy services is:
Quality assurance
Accupril
Quinapril ACE inhibitor
Aciphex
Rabeprazole Proton pump inhibitor
Which of the following correctly describes the manner in which records of the receipt and disposition of all controlled substances must be kept?
Records of Schedule II substances must be maintained separately from all other records of the registrant.
Which of the following is not a function of the inventory control area?
Reduce cash flow
Which of the following is not a function of good inventory control?
Reduce cash flow.
If a patient reports experiencing nasal congestion when taking a prescribed medication, the pharmacy technician should:
Refer the patient to the pharmacist.
A physician calls the pharmacy asking about the maximum dose of Levaquin. The technician answering the phone remembers hearing the pharmacist answer this question earlier that same day. How should the technician handle this call?
Refer the question to a pharmacist.
If Phenergan suppositories is to be stored in a "cold place," the appropriate temperature range for storage is:
Refrigerator, at 2 degrees C to 8 degrees C (35 degrees F to 46 degrees F).
What is the process of making a list or being enrolled in an existing list?
Registration.
The only type of insulin that may be added to an I.V. solution is:
Regular insulin.
Insulin is to be added to an IV admixture. What type of insulin may be used?
Regular.
Which drug information source would be the pharmacy technician check for compounding information?
Remington's Pharmaceutical Sciences
The pharmacy technician is asked to assist in the compounding of a lotion. In what drug information source would this information be looked up?
Remington's Pharmaceutical Sciences.
Which drug information source would be the pharmacy technician check for compounding information?
Remington's Pharmaceutical Sciences.
Dosage forms designated with LA, SR, CD, etc. are formulated to:
Slowly release medication over an extended period of time.
All needles not used in chemo solution preparation should be discarded by:
Snipping them into a Sharps Container.
Needles used to prepare IV solutions should be discarded by:
Snipping them into a Sharps Container.
What is the program called that is used for dispensing medication in the pharmacy setting.
Software
The ability for medication to maintain chemical and physical integrity over time is termed:
Stability
Licensing and general professional oversight of pharmacists and pharmacies are carried out by:
State Board of Pharmacy
Licensing and general professional oversight of pharmacists and pharmacies are carried out by:
State Board of Pharmacy.
Placing the stock with the earliest expiration date at the front of the product supply is good:
Stock rotation.
When dispensing unit dose, what is not required on the package.
Storage requirements
Which of the following is NOT required on a unit-dosed packaged drug?
Storage requirements
Which of the following is NOT required on a unit-dosed packaged drug?
Storage requirements.
Goals, Policies and Procedures and Mission Statements are all examples of:
Strategic planning.
The process of distilling volatile solids is called
Sublimation
Which dosage form is formulated to dissolve under the tongue rather than the stomach?
Sublingual.
Corticosteroid therapy is characterized by:
Suppression of the body's production of cortisol.
Suprax suspension requires which auxiliary label?
Suprax is a suspension and must Shake Well Before Use. It is stable at room temperature and does not need refrigeration.
I.V. products containing dextrose, amino acids, trace mineral, vitamins, and other pharmacological agents are referred to as:
TPN
I.V. products containing dextrose, amino acids, trace mineral, vitamins, and other pharmacological agents are referred to as:
TPN.
Phenytoin is available in which dosage forms
Tablets. Capsules. IV injection.
Nolvadex or ____________ is an anti-estrogen type medication that is often used in the treatment of breast cancer.
Tamoxifen.
What is the generic name for Nolvadex an anti-estrogen type medication that is often used in the treatment of breast cancer?
Tamoxifen.
Jane Doe gives the technician a prescription for Coumadin 4 mg, one tablet even days and 1/2 tablet odd days. Jane picks up a bottle of Ecotrin 325 mg. What should the technician do?
Tell the Pharmacist.
A patient hands you an empty vial of Ritalin and asked for the Rx to be refilled. What should you do?
Tell the patient that the medication is not refillable.
A 70 year old patient enters the pharmacy complaining of persistent heartburn. The pharmacy technician should:
Tell the patient to speak to the pharmacist.
A patient enters the pharmacy complaining of persistent heartburn. The pharmacy technician should:
Tell the patient to speak to the pharmacist.
Another pharmacy calls for a copy of an Rx and the pharmacist is busy counseling a patient. The pharmacy technician should:
Tell them that the pharmacist is busy and to call back later.
XYZ Pharmacy calls for a copy of a prescription and the pharmacist is busy counseling a patient. The pharmacy technician should:
Tell them that the pharmacist is busy and to call back later.
The pharmacy technician receives a call from a patient that indicates their 16-month-old child has just ingested half a bottle of Children's Tylenol. What may the pharmacy technician not do?
Tell them to induce vomiting immediately
The pharmacy technician receives a call from a patient that indicates their 2-year-old child has just ingested half a bottle of Motrin Chewable. What may the pharmacy technician not do?
Tell them to induce vomiting immediately.
which of the following medications is available by prescription only? phenylephrine, loperamide, diphenhydramine, temazepam
Temazepam
Which of the following medications is available by prescription only?
Temazepam.
The Anabolic Steroids Control Act of 1990 places anabolic steroids under the regulatory provisions of the Controlled Substances Act. These drugs are defined as "any drug or hormonal substance chemically and pharmacologically related to:
Testosterone.
All the following medications must be stored in the refrigerator, but not frozen
Tetanus toxoid. Insulin. Measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine.
Pseudoephedrine does not interfere with the action of
Tetracycline
Sumycin and Achromycin are both
Tetracycline
The appearance of crystals in Mannitol injection indicates:
That the solution is cold and the crystals may be redissolved.
_______ Provides information concerning hazardous substances.
The Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS):
40. Of the following, which one deals with the issue of child-proof caps on prescription bottles?
The Poison Prevention Act.
Of the following, which one deals with the issue of child-proof caps on prescription bottles?
The Poison Prevention Act.
Of the following, which one deals with the issue of safety caps on prescription bottles?
The Poison Prevention Act.
A resource that may be used to determine if the parenteral medication must be filtered is all the following except:
The Red Book on injectable drugs.
Which of the following statements is not true regarding the technician's roll in formulary issues?
The Technician may make the judgment call on what non-formulary medication to use.
The active ingredient of a drug product is labeled USP. This standard is set forth in:
The United States Pharmacopoeia.
The active ingredient of a drug product is labeled USP. What does USP mean?
The United States Pharmacopoeia.
An order is received for Mylanta 30 cc PO q4h, Ranitidine 300 mg PO hs, enteric-coated aspirin 325 mg PO qd and Tetracycline 250 mg PO q6h. What possible problem is noticeable?
The antacid should not be given with Tetracycline.
Which statement concerning Levothyroxine is correct?
The brand name is Synthroid.
What does DAW mean on a written prescription?
The brand name is to be dispensed as written.
Which of the following is a Schedule IV controlled substance?
Valium or xanax
According to federal law, control substances must be safeguarded by all of the following EXCEPT:
Transport Records, Payment Methods
According to federal law, control substances must be safeguarded by all of the following EXCEPT:
Transport records.
Which of the following medications is a Schedule IV substance?
Triazolam
Grinding of Prednisone into a fine powder in a porcelain mortar is an example:
Trituration
Grinding of tablets into a fine powder in a porcelain mortar is an example:
Trituration
A lozenge is also know as a(n):
Troche.
How many hours of continuing education must the CPhT have before re-certification?
Twenty every two years.
Patients taking Piroxicam for an inflammation should be advised by the pharmacist to use which drug for simple headache?
Tylenol.
Hydroxyzine Atarax
Type I sedating antihistamine and should have auxiliary label "May Cause Drowsiness
This reference book contains official drug standards and is a required reference source in all licensed pharmacy settings.
USP
The directions for use of a medication is "i sl prn". The meaning:
Under the tongue.
Zantac, Tagamet and Pepcid are H2 blockers now available (OTC). What is the indication of these drugs?
Used to inhibit stomach acid secretion
Zantac, Tagamet and Pepcid are H2 blockers now available (OTC). What is the indication of these drugs?
Used to inhibit stomach acid secretion.
Enalapril
Vasotec, used for CHF Congestive Heart Failure.
Which of the following ophthalmic medications must be refrigerated?
Viroptic. or Xalatan.
Which of the following vitamins is water-soluble?
Vitamin B1.
ADEK stands for what
Vitamins A,D,E,K, all are fat soluable
The technician receives a prescription for Cyanocobalamin. What should the technician dispense?
Vitamins B-12.
Coumadin
Warfarin
Two drugs that should not be taken together because of a major drug-drug interaction would be
Warfarin-Aspirin.
The appearance of crystals in Mannitol injection would indicate that the product:
Was exposed to cold.
What would be the proper course of action if a technician accidentally had skin contact with a cytotoxic drug?
Wash hands thoroughly with soap and water immediately and seek medical attention.
Benadryl is to be given PRN. How often is Benedryl to be given?
When the patient's condition requires it.
If Domboro tablets are received from the wholesaler, where should they be stocked?
Where the bacitracin ointment is stored
If Betadine ointment is received from the wholesaler, where should they be stocked?
Where the bacitracin ointment is stored.
Which of the following is a Schedule IV controlled substance?
Xanax
Which of the following is a Schedule IV controlled substance?
Xanax.
A doctor wants to phone in a prescription for Demerol.
You inform the Pharmacist of the call and only the Pharmacist can make the determination.
A doctor wants to phone in a prescription for Percocet.
You inform the Pharmacist of the call and only the Pharmacist can make the determination.
As a technician, you are asked to prepare an IV solution with insulin.
You should use only regular insulin. The other insulin cannot be given IV.
tylenol would be safe for who to take with a headache
a NON NSAID taker
Furosemide or Lasix is used as:
a diuretic
Phenytoin Dilantin is available in
a sustained-release capsule.
the pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for cephalexin and notices in the patient's profile that the patient is taking cefaclor. this is an example of:
a therapeutic duplication
Which of the following dosage forms has the highest concentration of alcohol in it's formulation?
a tincture
A suspension is
a two-phase system of finely divided insoluble solid particles dispensed in a liquid
The process whereby a drug crosses a membrane into the blood stream is called:
absorption
the process where a drug is taken up from the site of administration and is transported to the blood stream is: absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination
absorption
the process whereby a drug crosses a membrane into the blood stream is called:
absorption
The five schedules for controlled substances were established on the basis of:
abuse potential
What is a hermetically sealed container impervious to:
air
Doxycycline, Tetracycline and Minocycline
all have the side effect of photosensitivity.
A Policy and Procedure Manual may provide guidance in each of the following areas:
all of the above
A patient is receiving Vancomycin q12 hours via a CADD Plus pump at home. Which of the following information is mandatory on a label in the home care setting?
all of the above
American Drug Index provides the following information:
all of the above
Factors affecting oral route of administration would include:
all of the above
The National Drug Code on a medication bottle gives reference to the:
all of the above
The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 mandated which of the following:
all of the above
The technician can assist the pharmacist in all of the following ways except:
all of the above
Typical data collected from the patient by the technician include:
all of the above
Which agent is used for the treatment of tuberculosis?
all of the above
Which characteristic is important when preparing an IV admixture in a Laminar Flow Hood?
all of the above
Which dosage form is Phenytoin available?
all of the above
Which of the following best describes controlled substances in Schedule I?
all of the above
Which of the following could contribute to a medication error?
all of the above
Which of the following drug pairs is most likely to be associated with a medication error?
all of the above
Which of the following drugs is prescribed for the relief of allergy symptoms?
all of the above
Which of the following drugs is prescribed for the relief of allergy symptoms? phenylpropanolamine, phenylephrine, antihistamines, all of the above
all of the above
Which of the following is a common disease treated in the home care environment?
all of the above
Which of the following is required on a prescription label?
all of the above
Which of the following would be considered a drug of abuse?
all of the above
which of the following are true about cimetidine: an over the-counter preparation is available, it reduces the acididty of the stomach, and it interacts with many other drugs, all of the above
all of the above
which of the following would be conidered a drug of abuse? opiates, alcohol, nicotine, all of the above
all of the above
which of the drugs listed below are antidotes?
all of the above: activated charcoal, digibind, naloxone
questions that may be answered by material safety data sheets include which of the following:
all of the above: what precations must be taken when preparing and dispensing adiramycin, how should an employee exposed to adriamycin be treated, and how should a chemptherapy spill be cleaned up.
If a pediatric patient is to receive oral Cefaclor as a suspension, which of the following is not necessary?
all the above are necessary.
if a patient has a severe adverse reaction after prior administration of Penicillin, this would be referred to as: an anaphylactic reaction, a drug misadventure or side effect, a drug to drug interaction, an antianxiety reaction
an anaphalatic reaction
All of the following preparations contain ibuprofen except:
anacin
which of the following OTC medication does not have ibuprofen? advil, anacin, motrin, nuprin
anacin
PCA pumps are used to administer:
analgesics
Penicillin and Cephalosporin are
antibiotics.
heparin is considered a what
anticoagulant
carbamazepine is what kind of drug
anticonvulsant
Activated charcoal. Digibind. Naloxone. are all
antidotes?
Which class of drugs would be administered for a dry hacking cough?
antitussive
for a dry, hacking cough, what class of drug would be needed?
antitussive
which class of drugs would be administered for a dry hacking cough? antitussive, expectorant, nasal decongestant, antibiotic
antitussive
Of the following Group names, which one would be used for cough?
antitussives
Bisacodyl tablets, Senokot, and Milk of Magnesia
are all laxatives.
Vicodin tablets. Valium tabs. Hydromorphone.
are scheduled narcotics except
an abnormal irregular heartbeat is referred to as: bradycardia, arrhythmia, tachycardia, fibrillation
arrhythmia
Which problem can be avoided by administering a drug IV?
aspiration
what should you avoid when taking a rx written for metronidazole (flagyl)
avoid drinking alcohol due to vomiting reaction
Bentyl is ordered to be administered "a.c." How will Bentyl be taken?
before a meal
ac
before meals
diazepam is considered what kind of drug
benzodiazepine
The percentage or fraction of the administered dose of a drug that actually reaches systemic circulation and the rate at which this occurs is the drugs:
bioavailability
Norethindrone
birth control
particulate matter can cause the formations of thrombi, which are: small, fleshy round tumors inside a wound, blood clots formed within the blood vessels or heart, redness, swelling of the veins, masses fo not dissolved matter within a vein carried throughout the body
blood clots formed within the blood vessels or heart
which of the following is an example of a side effect of flurouracil therapy? bone marrow suppression, increased red blood cell formation, increased white blood cell formation, increased platelet formation
bone marrow suppression
Which of the following is proof of receipt of Class II controlled substances?
both b and c together
au
both ears
diltiazem is part of what kind of classification
calcium channel blocker
Clonidine Catapres TTS)
can be used as a patch.
Inotropic agent. Antihypertensive agent. Vasodilator agent. are all
cardia medication
What is the process by which a non-governmental association or agency grants recognition to an individual who has met certain predetermined qualifications?
certification
______ is the process by which non-government association or agency grants recognition to an individual who has met certain predetermined qualifications specified by that association or agency.
certification
If a manufacturer's labeling results in a strong likelihood the product will cause serious adverse effect, what type FDA recall would be instituted?
class I
What type of drug recall occurs when a drug is not likely to cause a temporary adverse health consequence?
class III recall
which of the following medications is available in transdermal form?
clonidine
Which of the following documents is proof of receipt of Class III controlled substances?
commercial invoice
Nitroglycerin.
coronary vasodilator
Pravastatin would be prescribed to:
decrease cholesterol
The process of using dehydration to remove moisture from a solid substance, is called:
dessication
The last step performed in the prescription-processing function is
dispensing
Cromolyn
does not need the auxiliary label "Refrigerate".
tincture.
dosage forms has the highest concentration of alcohol in it's formulation
Cerumenex
ear drop.
When a drug is filtered by the kidney and excreted, this process is called:
elimination
when a drug is filtered by the kidney into the bladder, this process is called: absoption, distribution, elimination, none of the above
elimination
How often must a laminar flow hood be checked?
every 6 months
How often must controlled substances be physically inventoried?
every two years
which class of drugs decreases the viscosity of respiratory tract secretions? antihysitamines, vasocontrictors, antitussives, expectorants
expectorants
The appearence of crystals of mannitol injection would indicate that the product
exposed to cold substances
Which drug information source would the pharmacy technician check for a possible drug interaction?
facts and comparisons
Loop diuretics are used for
for blood pressure treatment and for fluid retention therapy.
Which auxiliary label would you use for this particular sig: ii gtts AU qhr prn:
for the ear
until recently, all of the anticonvulsant drugs have been used for decades. which of the following drugs is a new drug in the arsenal of anticonvulsant theraphy? phenobarbital, diazepam, phenytoin, gabapentin
gabapentin
Licensure is the process by which a ______ agency grants permission to an individual engaged in a given occupation.
government
The first line of defense against infection/contamination of an IV product is:
hand washing
Percodan
has ASA (aspirin).
Penicillin and Cephalosporin.
have cross sensitivity due to their similar chemical structures.
Pastilles are:
held in the mouth and sucked
Which of the following inventory turnover rates is an indication of good inventory management?
higher rate
Patient information for Cerumenex would include the following:
how to instill ear drops
patient information for cerumenex would include the following:
how to instill ear drops
What is the Latin abbreviation for "at bedtime"?
hs
methlyphenidate (ritalin) and adderall are used to treat: hypertension, hyperkinesis disorders, depression, insomnia
hyperkinesis disorders
Sudafed is contraindicated in which of the following disease states?
hypertension
sudafed is contraindicated in which of the following disease states? hypertension, diabetes, constipation, cancer
hypertension
which class of drugs stimulates insulin release in the body and is used in type II diabetes? hypoglycemic agents, hyperglycemic agents, hypoallergenic agents, hyperallergenic agents
hypoglycemic agents
if a pharmacy technician does make a mess with the cytotoxic drugs what must he or she do
immediately wash your hands and seek medical help
The directions for the use of Gentamicin Ophthalmic drops are "ii gtts au q4h x5d". The proper interpretation of "au" is:
in both ears
Label direction for a prescription read "ii gtts os q4h x 5 d". Where should this medication be instilled?
in the left eye
propanolol is the generic name for: inderal, tenormin, catapres, nefedipine
inderal
The CDC is the regulatory commission responsible for:
infection control
Toradol tablet
is a NSAID
Toradol tablets.
is a NSAID
Relafen.
is a NSAID?
Diazepam.
is a benzodiazepine
Klonopin.
is a benzodiazepine
Fluorouracil
is a chemo drug and should have the auxiliary label chemotherapy/biohazard
Phenylpropanolamine.
is a nasal decongestant.
Dulcolax. Metamucil. Colace.
is an OTC stool softener
Procainamide.
is an antiarrhythmic
Bretylol Bretylium
is an antiarrhythmic agent
Morphine
is an opioid
Ranitidine
is classified as a H2 antagonist
Fentanyl.
is commercially available as a patch
Carbamazepine.
is used in the treatment of convulsions (seizures).
Pravastatin Pravachol
is used to decrease cholesterol
NTG, or Nitroglycerin
is used to treat heart pain of angina pectoris.
Prochlorperazine Compazine
is used to treat nausea antiemetic.
Chemstrip K test for
ketones in the urine
Most drugs and their metabolites are excreted by the:
kidneys
A physician prescribes Ceclor 375 mg po bid. What is wrong with this prescription?
lacks duration of therapy
The directions for use of the Timoptic are gtts os bid. What is the meaning of os?
left eye
Prescription drugs are also known as:
legend drugs
What is the process by which a government agency grants permission to an individual engaged in a given occupation?
licensure
Most drugs are metabolized by the:
liver
Pharmaceutical manufacturers will notify the pharmacy of a drug recall in writing by listing the name of the drug and the:
lot number
Antihyperlipidemic agents are used in the treatment to
lower cholesterol
which of the following drugs is not an otc product?
luride drops
The first five digits of the NDC number identifies the:
manafacture
which of the following auxiliary labels should be affixed to a prescription for hydroxyzine elixer? may discolor urine, may cause dowsiness, take with food or milk, shake well and refrigerate
may cause drowsiness
what is the process whereby a drug is transformed by the liver to another chemical: absorption, distribution, metabolism, elmination
metabolism
amoeba infection would be treated with what
metronidazole
which of the following medications would be prescribed to treat a bacterial infection? acyclovir, loperamide, valproic acid, metronidazole
metronidazole
The device that links computers via communication lines is called the:
modem
Patients with Opioid allergies should avoid taking:
morphine
Nitroglycerin
must be administered in a glass I.V. container
Demerol is classified as a
narcotic analgesic
which of the following medications must be administered in a glass IV container? aminophylline, dopamine, nitroglycerin, potassium
nitroglycerin
Certification is the process by which a ______ association or agency grants recognition to an individual who has met certain predetermined qualifications specified by that association or agency.
non-government
A prescription can usually be refilled:
none of the above
Ung is the abbreviation for?
ointment
the most common route of administration is: per rectum, intramuscular, oral, sublingual
oral
which of the following has to be stored frozen before use? oral polio, injectable polio, influenza, pneumococoal
oral polio
Which of the following books is used for FDA's list of approved drug products?
orange book
Which of the following books is used for FDA's list of approved generics?
orange book
a patient package insert must be dispensed with which of the following medications? orval, amoxicillin, spironolactone, prednisone
ovral
estraderm is available in which dosage form? oral, patch, topical cream, IV
patch
Transderm-Nitro is available in which dosage form?
patch form
transdermal form
patches
According to federal law, control substances must be safeguarded by all of the following EXCEPT:
payment records
A "Capital Expense" includes all the following, except:
payroll
What is the Latin abbreviation for "after meals"?
pc
which of the following 2 drug classes have cross sensitivity?
penicillin and cephalosporin
What drug in a dose of 20 mg qd, is used to treat dyspepsia?
pepcid
What medication in a dose of 20 mg qd, is used to treat dyspepsia?
pepcid
bioavailability is described as what
percentage of the fraction of the administered dose of drug that reaches systemic circulation
A patient on Warfarin 2 mg therapy should never take which of the following pain medications?
percodan
a patient on warfarin 2mg therapy should never take which of the following pain medications? percocet, tylenol, demerol, percodan
percodan
Which phase of investigational drug clinical studies is usually performed on 5 -20 volunteer patients?
phase I
which of the following drugs require the auxillary label "may discolor urine red"? tetracycline, vancomycin, amoxicillin, phenazopyridine
phenazopyridine
which of the following is not an antihistamine? phenylopropanolamine, brompheniramine, diphenhydramine, chlorpheniratmine
phenylpropanolamine
If chosen for an audit, the CPhT must list all continuing education hours on the application and send ______ certificates of completion of the credits.
photocopies of the
A side effect of tetracycline is
photosensitivity
doxycycline, tetracycline, and minocycline all cause what side effect
photosensitivity
sublingual (SL) tabs are: placed under the tongue, slow release tabs, placed inside the cheek, chewed before swallowing
placed under the tongue
Ibuprofen 400 mg tabs is only available by
prescription
The sig: for Triazolam would most likely be:
qHS pm.
what is the storage requirement for the drug Neupogen? room temperature, cool temperature, refrigerate, freeze
refrigerate
What is the process of making a list or being enrolled in an existing list?
registration
______ is the process of making a list or being enrolled in an existing list.
registration
Insulin is to be added to an IV admixture. What type of insulin may be used?
regular
an overdose of MS-Contin would cause: diarrhea, enlarged pupils, cns stimulation, respiratory depression
respiratory depression
ibuprofen 400 mg is: both rx and otc, or just rx
rx only
Of the following schedules, which one deals with drugs that have no medicinal use in the United States and have a high abuse potential?
schedule I
Codeine, Meperidine, and Oxycodone all belong to which controlled schedule?
schedule II
Opiates or Narcotics are generally found in this classification:
schedule II
A tracking log should be kept for?
schedule II order forms
Suprax suspension requires which auxiliary label?
shake well
Percodan contains aspirin and
should not be given with Coumadin because aspirin and Coumadin both thin the blood.
The computer program used for dispensing medication in the pharmacy setting is referred to as:
software
Domboro tablets must be stored near what
store near bacitracin ointment
the distillation process of volatile solids is called: sublimination, collation, levigation, evaporation
sublimination
which dosage form is formulated to dissolve under the tongue rather than the stomach?
sublingual
SMZ-TMP stands for what and what can it be used for
sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim and it can be used to treat an ear infection
corticosteroid therapy is characterized by: absence of mood swings, suppression of the bodys production of cortisol, decreased water retention, decreased potential for ulcers
suppression of the bodys production of corisol
A two-phase system of finely divided insoluble solid particles dispensed in a liquid is called:
suspension.
Phenytoin is available in which dosage forms?
tablets, capsules, and I.V. injection dosage forms.
novaldex or ___________ is an anti-estrogen type medication that is often used in the treatment of breast cancer. albuterol, tamoxifen, phenytoin, nifedipine
tamoxifen
How many hours of continuing education may be earned in the practice site under the supervision of the pharmacist?
ten
Pseudoephedrine
tends to increase blood pressure.
Which drug is most likely to cause a photosensitivity reaction?
tetracycline
Who is the Pharmacy Technician accountable to?
the Pharmacist
An order is received for Mylanta 30 cc PO q4h, Ranitidine 300mg PO hs, enteric-coated aspirin 325 mg PO qd and Tetracycline 250 mg PO q6h. What possible problem is noticeable?
the antacid should not be given with tetracycline
which statement concerning levothyroxine is correct? the brand name is synthroid, the usual dose is 25-50mg/day, is is usually give tid, is it used to treat infection
the brand name is synthroid
The establishment of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) in 1990, led to most states requiring:
the counseling of patients by pharmacists
If State, Local and Federal pharmacy law differ, which law applies?
the more stringent law
the decrease of effectiveness of the drugs when Omnipen and Gentamicin are given together is an example of which incompatibility?
therapeutic
which has a higher amount of alcohol, tincture or elixer
tincture
The standard pediatric dose for Cefazolin is 20 mg/kg/day. The order is written for 150 mg TID. The infant weighs 8 lbs. Is this dose:
too high
Which of the following drugs is a NSAID?
toradol or relafen
Cisplatin, Cyclophosphamide and Etoposide are
toxic chemo drugs and must be prepared in a vertical hood to protect the Technician.
Meperidine
trade name Demerol, is used to treat pain.is classified as a narcotic.
Which of the following describes administration of medication through the skin using a flat unit?
transdermal
According to federal law, control substances must be safeguarded by all of the following EXCEPT:
transport records
Pyrazinamide. Rifampin. Ethambutol is used to treat
tuberculosis
patients taking piroxicam for an inflammation should be advised by the pharmacist to use which drug for a simple headache? tylenol, bufferin, ecotrin, ascriptin
tylenol
Glipizide (Glucotrol
used as an oral hypoglycemic
Antibiotics
used for infection
zantac, tagamet, and pepcid are H2 blockers, which are now available over-the-counter. what are these drugs used for? used as an antihistamine to alleviate runny nose, used as a decongestant to unclog nasal passages, used to inhibit stomach acid secretion, used as an antacid in that it neutralizes stomach acid
used to inhibit stomach acid secretion
Which of the following vitamins are fat soluable? vit b and c, vitamin a and d, thiamin and riboflavin, all of the above
vitamins a and d
The appearance of crystals in Osmitrol (Mannitol) injection would indicate that the product:
was exposed to cold
What precaution must be taken when working with Fluorouracil cream:
wear protective gloves when applying the cream
Mannitol
will form a crystal if refrigerated and should not be exposed to the cold.
Materials management personnel are responsible for:
All of the above
Pharmaceutical compounding may involve the following ingredient(s):
All of the above
Which of the following medications is an anticonvulsant?
Carbamazepine.
Which of the following medications is to control seizures
Carbamazepine.
Digoxin belongs to which drug classification?
Cardiac glycoside.
Lanoxin belongs to which drug classification
Cardiac glycoside.
Lanoxin belongs to which drug classification?
Cardiac glycoside.
Clonidine
Catapres
Cefaclor
Ceclor is a Cephalosporin aka antibiotic
Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided in patients allergic to Cephalexin (Keflex)?
Cefaclor (Ceclor)
Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided in patients allergic to Cephalexin (Keflex)?
Cefaclor (Ceclor).
All of the following medications must be prepared in a vertical laminar airflow hood except:
Ceftriaxone.
Cephalexin and Cefaclor are both
Cephalsporins
______ is the process by which non-government association or agency grants recognition to an individual who has met certain predetermined qualifications specified by that association or agency.
Certification.
Which is not an example of quality control measures utilized when preparing an IVPB:
Checking with the Director of Nursing to see which Pharmacist mixed the IVPB.
You are asked to make fluorouracil 3000 mg in 1000 ml of sodium chloride 0.9%. What auxiliary label should be placed on the prepared admixture?
Chemotherapy/biohazard.
Which of the following medication might cause heart palpitation?
Claritin-D 12 hour.
What type of prescription balance must be used for compounding 120 mg of a 1% topical anti fungal cream?
Class A prescription balance.
What type of prescription balance must be used for weighing 120 mg of a 1% Hydrocortisone cream?
Class A prescription balance.
Schedule drugs within which class of controlled substances contain no legal use in the United States?
Class I
When use of or exposure to a product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death, it's recall is designated:
Class I
When use of or exposure to a product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death, it's recall is designated:
Class I.
If a manufacturer's labeling results in a temporary, but reversible adverse effects or little likelihood of serious effects, what type of FDA recall would be instituted?
Class II.
The computer term "mnemonic" is defined as:
A shortened term used to facilitate data entry.
A small volume intravenous bag specifically used to deliver medication, which is hung higher than the primary IV bag, is called an:
A small volume intravenous bag specifically used to deliver medication, which is hung higher than the primary IV bag, is called an:
A caplet is:
A tablet shaped like a capsule.
A prescription is written for Tylenol caplet. What is a caplet?
A tablet shaped like a capsule.
The pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for Cephalexin and notices in the patient profile that the patient is taking Cefaclor. This is an example of:
A therapeutic duplication.
The pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for Zithromax and notices in the patient profile that the patient is taking EES tablets. This is an example of:
A therapeutic duplication.
Which of the following are fat-soluble vitamins?
A, D, E and K are fat-soluble vitamins.
Which of the following is a type of amino acid product used in admixing TPN?
All of the above
which type of drug would be considered a drug of abuse? opiates, alcohol, nicotine, all of the above
All of the above
In most states signature logs are required for which of the following:
All of the above.
Materials management refers to:
All of the above.
The NDC on a medication bottle refers to the:
All of the above.
The following term(s) may be used to describe a repackaged unit:
All of the above.
When filling a prescription for Acetaminophen with Codeine 60 mg, a technician should do which of the following:
All of the above.
Which of the following are true about a formulary?
All of the above.
Which of the following functions may a Pharmacy Technician participate in?
All of the above.
Which of the following is a "Capital Expense".
All of the above.
Which of the following statements is true regarding quality?
All of the statements are true.
Which of the following medications is Schedule IV substance?
Alprazolam
Which of the following medications is a Schedule IV controlled substance?
Alprazolam (Xanax)
You are to use 7.6 ml of sterile water to reconstitute a vial of medication. What size of syringe should be used?
Always use a syringe size closest to the amount of fluid that needs to be measured.10 ml.
What do the initials APhA stand for?
American Pharmaceutical Association.
Which of the following medications must be protected from light?
Amphotericin B.
Which of the following drugs are used to treat AIDS?
Amphotericin B. Ganciclovir. Foscarnet.
If a patient has a severe adverse reaction after prior administration of Penicillin, this would be referred to as:
An anaphylactic reaction.
Tobramycin ophthalmic ung refers to:
An ointment used for the eye.
Tobrex ophthalmic ung refers to:
An ointment used for the eye.
All of the following preparations contain ibuprofen except:
Anacin.
PCA pumps administer:
Analgesics.
Naproxen
Anaprox, Naprosyn
NTG is prescribed for the treatment of:
Angina Pectoris.
NTG or nitroglycerin is prescribed for the treatment of:
Angina Pectoris.
Nitroglycerin is prescribed for the treatment of:
Angina Pectoris.
Which of the following types of medications is not commonly used on the skin?
Anthelmintics.
Which of the following types of medications would not be used on the skin?
Anthelmintics.
Which of the following is not a type of respiratory system medication
Antibiotic.
Which of the following is not a type of respiratory system medication?
Antibiotic.
An "automatic stop order" in the institutional setting would apply to which category of drugs?
Antibiotics
An "automatic stop order" in the hospital setting would apply to which category of drugs?
Antibiotics.
Heparin belongs to which pharmacological category?
Anticoagulant.
Prochlorperazine belongs to what classification of drugs?
Antiemetic.
To which drug classification does the drug prochlorperazine belong?
Antiemetic.
Which of the following is not a type of respiratory system medication? bronchodilator, nasal decongestant, antifungal, expectorant
Antifungal
Which of the following is not a type of respiratory system medication?
Antifungal.
Which of the following is not a type of cardiac medication?
Antihyperlipidemic agent.
Ethambutol, Rifampin, and Isoniazid are examples of:
Antitubercular agents.
Which class of drugs would be administered for a dry hacking cough?
Antitussive.
Syringes for oral use:
Are unable to accept a Luer-lock needle
Abilify
Aripiprazole Anti-psychotic
An abnormal irregular heartbeat is referred to as:
Arrhythmia.
Mr. Smith has an abnormal irregular heartbeat. This condition is referred to as:
Arrhythmia.
The procedures for preparation of sterile products that is designed to prevent contamination is called:
Aseptic technique
The procedures for preparation of sterile products that is designed to prevent contamination is called:
Aseptic technique.
If a patient with a Veetids prescription has experienced a allergic reaction to penicillin, the technician should:
Ask the patient the type of allergic reaction experienced, note the patient's response, and alert the pharmacist.
Which problem can be avoided by administering Promethazine I.V.?
Aspiration.
OSHA's main purpose is to:
Assure a safe and healthful workplace.
The purpose of OSHA is to:
Assure a safe and healthful workplace.
How far within a laminar flow hood should the pharmacy technician work?
At least 6 inches within the hood.
Which of the following medications is available in transdermal form?
Clonidine or catapres
Which drug can be used as a patch?
Clonidine.
The last step performed in the prescription-processing function is:
Dispensing.
What auxiliary label should be affixed to a Metronidazole prescription
Do Not Drink Alcoholic Beverages.
What auxiliary label should be affixed to a Metronidazole prescription?
Do not drink alcoholic beverages
The process of producing a smooth dispersion of a drug with a spatula is called:
Levigation
All aseptic manipulations in the horizontal laminar flow hood should be performed at least:
Six inches within the hood.
Which of the following describes administration of medication through the skin using a flat unit?
Transdermal.
U-100 insulin contains: 100 units per 10 ml, 100 units per 1 ml, 100 units per 1/2 ml, none of the above
100 units per 1 ml
U-100 insulin contains:
100 units per 1 ml.
If 15 gallons of distilled water cost $42.00, how much will 4 gallons cost?
11.20
A home care pharmacy compounds 30 TPN orders daily. Which device would assist in the preparation of these orders?
Automix
A home care pharmacy compounds 30 TPN orders daily. Which device would assist in the preparation of these orders?
Automix.
All of the following are required when filling and dispensing a prescription for a Cromolyn oral metered dose inhaler except:
Auxiliary label: Refrigerate.
The term "AWP" stands for:
Average Wholesale Price
The abbreviation "AWP" used in pharmacy stands for:
Average Wholesale Price.
The term "AWP" stands for:
Average Wholesale Price.
Which of the following are water soluble vitamins?
B and C.
What type of medication recall occurs when a medication is not likely to cause a temporary adverse health consequence?
Class III recall
Meperidine belongs to which category of controlled substances?
CII.
Methylphenidate belongs to which schedule of controlled substances?
CII.
Ritalin belongs to which schedule of controlled substances?
CII.
Which of the following statements is appropriate for a laminar flow hood?
Clean the hood from back to front.
Which of the following statements is true for a laminar flow hood?
Clean the hood from back to front.
Which federal legislation enacted in 1970 regulates the use and distribution of substances with high abuse potential?
CSA
Which federal legislation enacted in 1970 regulates the use and distribution of substances with high abuse potential?
CSA.
The Technician receives an order for KCl 15 mEq PO bid. What volume of KCl elixir containing 40 mEq/30 ml will be required to deliver a single dose?
11.25 ml
A vial of reconstituted Adriamycin breaks inside a vertical flow hood. What should the technician do?
Clean up the spill with a "spill kit".
A vial of reconstituted Mutamycin breaks inside a vertical flow hood. What should the technician do?
Clean up the spill with a "spill kit".
Which of the following Diagnostic Kit tests for glucose in the urine?
Clinistix
How much medication would be needed for the following order? Deltasone 10 mg, one qid x 3 days, one tid x 2 days, one bid x 1 day, then stop
20 tablets
The AWP for a gallon (3785 ml) of Promethazine DM cough syrup is $18.75, with an additional 20% discount from the wholesaler. What is the cost of 16 oz of the medication?
$1.87.
A third-party insurance program reimburses a pharmacy at 85% of the AWP, plus a $2.00 dispensing fee. If the acquisition cost of a drug is $8.50 and the AWP is $10.00, how much will the pharmacy be reimbursed for the prescription?
$10.50.
A compounded prescription required using 12 capsules costing $30.00 per 50 capsules and 120 gm of an ointment base costing $7.50 per pound. If a $5.00 dispensing fee is included, how much should the patient be charged?
$14.18
The cost of 500 tablets of ibuprofen 400 mg is $62.28. If your pharmacy marks up the cost by 13% and adds a $2.35 dispensing fee, what would be the retail charge for 120 tablets?
$19.24
The cost of 500 tablets of Trazodone 50 mg is $81.15. If your pharmacy marks up the cost by 10% and adds a $3.50 dispensing fee, what would be the retail charge for 90 tablets.
$19.57
The AWP for a drug is $24.65 with a 17% discount from the wholesaler. What would be the net cost of this drug?
$20.46
The pharmacy bases its prices on $4.00 plus AWP of the drug. The prescription reads 1 tab qid X 10 days. The AWP of drug is $49.00 per 100 tabs. What will be the retail price?
$23.60
What is the cost of 65 tablets if 120 tablets cost $8.73?
$4.73
The markup for a $36.75 vial of antibiotic is 18%. What is the retail price for this medication?
$43.37
The cost of 120 grams of Triamcinolone 0.1% cream is $45.00. What would be the cost of 15 grams?
$5.63
The cost of 1 lb of Triamcinolone 0.1% cream is $171.00. What would be the cost of 15 grams?
$5.65
A 500 tablet bottle of Carisoprodol costs $62.88. What would be the cost of 45 tablets?
$5.67
A pharmacy wants to mark up a product by 33 percent. How much would an item cost with mark up, if it's original cost was $6.50?
$8.65
RT is a 4 year old who weighs 36 lbs. What is an acceptable dose of Captoril for RT? Usual adult dose, ORAL is 12.5 bid or tid. Use Young's Rule.
(4/4+12)*12.5 = 3.12 mg bid-tid
Diphenhydramine
(Benadryl
Mylanta and Donnatal are to be combined in a 2:1 ratio. How much of each is required to make 90 ml of the suspension?
60 ml/30 ml.
Nitrostat 1 /150 gr is equivalent to how many milligrams?
0.4 mg
In this formula, how much Neomycin is needed to fill 60 grams? Aquaphor Ointment 4% Zinc Oxide 20% Neomycin 1%
600mg
The purchasing of drugs directly from the manufacturer requires:
A minimum order set by the manufacturer.
The purchasing of drugs directly from the manufacturer usually requires:
A minimum order set by the manufacturer.
Digoxin Elixir is available in a concentration of 0.05 mg/ml. What quantity is required for a 0.125 mg dose?
.05mg/1ml=.125ml/X = 2.5ml
Amphotericin B is available in a concentration of 50 mg/10 ml. What quantity is required for a 3 mg test dose?
.6 ml
Heparin is available in a vial labeled 20,000U/ml. How many ml are required for a 12,500U dose?
.625 ml
Digoxin is available in a concentration of 0.1 mg/ml. How many ml are required to administer a 75 mcg dose?
.75 ml
What volume of pediatric digoxin injection 0.1 mg/ml is required for a 75 mcg dose?
.75 ml
What is the seventh digit of the following DEA number, BC369145 ______?
0
What size filter is considered a sterilizing filter?
0.22 micron.
A patient weighing 110 lbs is to receive 5 mcg/kg/min of an IV solution containing Dopamine 600 mg in 250 ml D5W. The calculated IV dose rate is:
0.25 mg/min
Lanoxin Elixir is available in a concentration of 0.05 mg/ml. What quantity is required for a 0.25 mg dose?
0.25/0.05=5ml
Nitrostat 1 /200 gr is equivalent to how many milligrams?
0.3 mg
Amphotericin B is available in a concentration of 50 mg/10 ml. What quantity is required for a 3 mg test dose?
0.6 ml
Reconstitution with Ampicillin (Omnipen) IVPB should be done with:
0.9% NaCl.
Stability of Ampicillin IVPB is better with:
0.9% NaCl.
What percent of NaCl is contained in normal saline (NS):
0.9% NaCl.
The dose of Cefamandole for children 3 months or older is 50-100 mg/kg/day. What would be the daily dose range for a child who weighs 40 lbs.?
0.9-1.8gm per day
The concentration of Lasix is 20 mg/2.5 ml. What volume would be required for an 8 mg dose?
1 ml
The concentration of an Furosemide is 40 mg/5 ml. What volume would be required for an 8 mg dose?
1 ml
16 ounces
1 pint
If a prescription states "refill prn", for how long may this RX be refilled?
1 year
If a prescription for Fosamax states "refill prn", for how long may this RX be refilled?
1 year.
The infusion rate of an I.V. is over 12 hours. The total exact volume is 800 ml. What would be the infusion rate in mls per minute?
1.11 ml
The doctor writes for Aminophylline 125 mg po QID x 10 days. You only have the solution 250 mg/5 ml. How much would be needed for the treatment?
100 ml
Heparin is available in a vial labeled 10,000U/ml. How many ml are required for a 12,500U dose?
1.25ml
45 ml is equivalent to how many fluid ounces?
1.5
What is the resultant percentage concentration when 30 gms of codeine phosphate is dissolved in 2 liters of solution?
1.5%
What volume of a 100 mg/ml injectable should be drawn up for a 150 mg dose?
1.5ml
The doctor writes for Aminophylline 125 mg po QID x 10 days. You only have the solution 250 mg/5 ml. How much would be needed for one dose?
1/2 teasppon
A formula for a cough syrup contains 1 gr of codeine per fluid ounce. How many grains are contained in one teaspoonful?
1/6
What type of measuring device should be used to measure 3 ml of a liquid for compounding?
10 ml cylindrical graduate.
What type of measuring device should be used to measure 5 ml of a liquid for compounding?
10 ml cylindrical graduate.
The pharmacy technician is asked to divide 5 liters of Nystatin suspension into an equal number of 10 ml and 15 ml unit dose dispensing cups. How many 10 ml dispensing cups can be made from this quantity of suspension?
10+15=25ml. 5L= 5000 ml. 5000/25= 200 cups
An IV order calls for the addition of 45 mEq of CaCO3 (Calcium Carbonate). You have a 25 ml vial of CaCo3 4.4 mEq/ml. How many ml's of this concentrate do you need to add to this IV?
10.2 ml
Using Clark's Rule, what is the dose of drug for an eight-year-old boy weighing 50 pounds? (The normal adult dose is 300 mg.)
100 mg
Which of the following Diagnostic Kit tests for glucose in the urine?
Clinistix.
If the manufacturer's expiration date for a drug is 11/01, the drug is considered okay to dispense until which date:
11/30/2001
A third party insurance program pays for only a 14 day supply of Skelaxin. If the directions for use read "i - ii tabs po tid-qid", what is the maximum allowed quantity to be dispensed?
112 tablets
How many mg's of diazepam are contained in 2.5 ml of a diazepam 10 mg 2 ml injection?
12.5 mg
If the manufacturer's expiration date for a drug is 12/03, the drug is considered okay to dispense until which date:
12/31/03.
If a third party payer specifies a maximum 1-month supply for a specific drug and the directions for use state "I cap po qid", how many units of the drug may be dispensed?
120
Using Young's Rule, what is the dose of drug for an eight-year-old boy weighing 50 pounds? (The normal adult dose is 300 mg.)
120 mg
How many 10 mg Minoxidil tablets would be needed to make 60 ml of a 2% solution?
120 tablets
How much of 95% ethanol must be mixed with 20% ethanol to make 1 pint of a 40% ethanol solution?
126 ml
How much of 95% ethanol must be mixed with 20% ethanol to make 1 pint of a 40% ethanol solution?
126 ml of 95%
Which of the following is the least desirable source of drug information to be given to the patient:
A package insert.
The initial dose of Theophylline for an adult is 0.8 mg/kg/hr for 12 hours. How many ml of an IV solution containing 800 mg per 100 ml would be required for a 250 lb male over this 12 hour period?
136 ml
Cefaclor oral suspension is stable in a refrigerator for how many days after reconstitution?
14 days
reconstituted Ceclor is stable in the refrigerator for: 10 days, 14 days, 21 days, 28 days
14 days
Reconstituted Ceclor is stable in the refrigerator for:
14 days at 36 to 46 degree F.
Reconstituted Keflex is stable in the refrigerator for:
14 days.
The definition of "controlled room temperature" is:
15 - 30 degrees Centigrade.
How many 250 mg doses are in a 5 oz bottle of 125 mg/5 ml Cefaclor suspension?
15 doses
What amount of 6% Nitroglycerin ointment must be diluted with Lanolin Petrolatum base to fill an order for 1 pound of 2% Nitroglycerin? (Assume 1 lb = 454 g)
151 grams
How many ounces are contained in one pint?
16
Fentanyl has a concentration of 0.05 mg/ml. How many milliliters do you need for a 800-mcg dose?
16 ml
one pint
16 ounces
To prepare 400 ml of a 40% (w/v) solution of sodium bicarbonate, how many grams of solute are needed?
160 gram
Fentanyl has a concentration of 0.05 mg/ml. How many milliliters do you need for a 800-mcg dose?
16ml
How much diluent do you need to add to a 4 gm vial to get a concentration of 250 mg/ml? Disregard the space the powder may occupy.
16ml
How many gallons are contained in 144 pints?
18
What volume of Betadine Solution would be needed to prepackage 152 pints?
19 gallons
The concentration of an Furosemide is 40 mg/5 ml. What volume would be required for an 8 mg dose?
1ml
At which temperature should procaine penicillin G be stored?
2 - 8 degrees Centigrade.
procaine penicillin G should be be stored
2 - 8 degrees Centigrade.
The usual dose of M.O.M. is 30 cc. This is equivalent to:
2 TBS
What household measurement is 30 ml?
2 tablespoonfuls.
30 ml
2 tablespoons
You receive an order for Donnagel 30 ml tid pc. How many tablespoonful is one dose equal to?
2 tablespoons
You receive an order for Donnagel 30 ml tid pc. How many tablespoonful is one dose equal to?
2 tablespponfulls
How many 60 mg KMNO4 (Potassium Permanganate) tablets are needed to make the following Solution: KMNO4 1:5000 600 ml.
2 tablets
If an insurance company will pay for a 30 day supply only and the prescription reads "i-ii q4-6h," what is the maximum number of units that can be dispensed?
2 tabs every 4-6 hr. 12 tabs/daily*30 days= 360 tabs
A cash discount of $130 on a pharmacy invoice for $6,500 represents a percentage cash discount of:
2%
Mr. Smith receives and I.V. infusion order for KCl 20 mEq in 1000 ml of NaCl 0.9% to be infused at 125 ml/hr. What amount of KCl will Mr. Smith receive per hour?
2.5 meq/hr
What is the total amount of hydrocortisone found in eight 1-ounce tubes of hydrocortisone cream 2.5%?
2.5/100=X/240= 6 gm
Digoxin Elixir is available in a concentration of 0.05 mg/ml. What quantity is required for a 0.125 mg dose?
2.5ml
How many 100 mg tablets will be needed to make 500 cc of 1:250 solution?
20
You receive an order to prepare 250 mg of dobutamine in a 100-ml pump cassette with NS as the diluent. Dobutamine is available as a 12.5-mg/ml solution. How many milliliters of dobutamine do you need to prepare this prescription?
20 Ml
Determine the flow rate of an IVPB containing 120 ml of gentamicin, if the solution is to be infused over a 1 hour period and the administration set is calibrated to deliver 10 drops per ml.
20 gtts/min
Cefzil suspension is available in a concentration of 125 mg/5 ml. How many ml are required for a 500 mg dose?
20 ml
Cleocin suspension is available in a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml. How many ml are required for a 300 mg dose?
20 ml
You receive an order to prepare 250 mg of dobutamine in a 100-ml pump cassette with NS as the diluent. Dobutamine is available as a 12.5-mg/ml solution. How many milliliters of dobutamine do you need to prepare this prescription?
20 ml
Cleocin suspension is available in a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml. How many ml are required for a 300 mg dose?
20 ml.
How many 100 mg tablets will be needed to make 1/2 liter of 1:250 solution?
20 tablets
An order specified Suprax 75 mg qd for 10 days. If a 100 mg/5 ml suspension is used, the volume of each daily dose will be:
3.75 ml
tylenol no. 3 contains 325mg acetmenophen and ___mg of codeine
30
How many days will the following prescription last? Paxil 10 mg #120 Sig: 2 PO BID
30 days
How many days will the following prescription last? Prozac 10 mg #120 Sig: 2 po bid
30 days
How many days will the following prescription last? Paxil 10 mg #120 Sig: 2 PO BID
30 days.
An order calls for Hytone 1% cream, Lotrimin 1% cream, aa q.s. How many grams of Lotrimin cream would be needed to make a total of 60 g of cream?
30 grams
To prepare sterile products, the vertical flow hood should be running for a minimum of:
30 minutes
To prepare sterile products, the laminar flow hood should be running for a minimum of:
30 minutes.
How many units of NPH U-I 00 would be administered if the patient's noon dose was 0.3 ml?
30 units.
How much Neomycin powder must be added to Triamcinolone 1% cream to dispense an order for 60 g Neomycin 0.5% cream in Triamcinolone 1% cream?
300 mg
How much Neomycin powder must be added to Triamcinolone 1% cream to dispense an order for 60 g Neomycin 0.5% cream in Triamcinolone 1% cream?
300 mg.
What volume of 24% citric acid is needed to prepare eight 3 ounce bottles of 10% citric acid solution?
300 ml
You receive an order for Ceclor suspension (125 mg/5 ml) with a dose of 250 mg TID for 10 days. How many milliliters do you need to dispense?
300 ml
Assuming that one-pint is equal to 473 ml., how many pints can be found in 3 liters?
3000ml/473 ml/pt= 6.3 pints
How much Neomycin powder must be added to Triamcinolone 1% cream to dispense an order for 60 g Neomycin 0.5% cream in Triamcinolone 1% cream?
300mg
What volume of 24% trichloroacetic acid (TCA) is needed to prepare eight 3 ounce bottles of 10% TCA solution?
300ml
You receive an order for Ceclor suspension (125 mg/5 ml) with a dose of 250 mg TID for 10 days. How many milliliters do you need to dispense?
300ml
Tylenol No. 3 is Acetaminophen 325 mg and Codeine ______ mg.
30mg
what is the storage requirement for reconstituted Cefaclor 250 mg/5 ml? 4 to 14 degress f, 36 to 46 degrees f, 46 to 59 degrees f, 59 to 86 degrees f
36 to 46 degrees F
What is the storage requirement for reconstituted Cefaclor 250 mg/5 ml?
36 to 46 degrees F.
What is the normal body temperature in Centigrade.
37 degrees
What is the normal body temperature in Centigrade.
37 degrees C.
The Technician receives an order for Prednisone 2 mg 2 qid pc and hs. How much of the drug needs to be placed in the medication drawer for a 24-hour period?
4 doses
The doctor wants to give a dose of Amoxicillin 200 mg bid to a 4 year old female. You have Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 ml in 100 ml bottles. What would the dose be in ml?
4 ml
How many gallons are contained in 72 quarts?
4 quarts per gal. 72/4 = 18
How many 30 mg KMNO4 (Potassium Permanganate) tablets are needed to make the following Solution: KMNO4 1:5000 600 ml.
4 tabs
What quantity of Benadryl 12.5 mg/5 ml will be required for a 50 mg dose?
4 teaspoons
If a Kg of Hydrocortisone ointment contains 45 gms of active ingredient, what is the percentage strength of the ointment?
4.5%
Determine the flow rate of an IVPB containing 120 ml of Flagyl, if the solution is to be infused over a 1 hour period and the administration set is calibrated to deliver 20 drops per ml.
40 gtts/min
To prepare 400 ml of a 40% (w/v) solution of sodium bicarbonate, how many grams of solute are needed?
400*.4=160g
You have a 70% solution of Dextrose. How many grams of Dextrose is in 400 ml of this solution?
400*.7=280 grams.
What volume of Donnatal would be dispensed to administer a dose of 1 1/2 oz?
45ml
The smallest gelatin capsule used for extemporaneous compounding is size:
5
What is the smallest gelatin capsule used for compounding?
5
What should the last digit be of Doctor Albert Doe DEA number AD431762___
5
What should the last digit be of this DEA number? AB431762___
5
What is the maximum number of refills permitted for a Schedule III medication?
5 refills
What is the maximum number of refills permitted for a Schedule III medication?
5 refills.
A piggyback has 100 ml of ANCEF infusing at a rate of 30 gtts/min. How long will it take for this solution to be administered if the set is calibrated to deliver 15 gtts/ml?
50 minutes
A pharmacy technician is preparing heparin 25,000 units in 500 ml of NS. What concentration should appear on the label?
50 units/ml
A pharmacy technician re-packs bulk solid dosage forms into unit dosed packages. What expiration date will appear on the package?
50% of labeled expiration date to a maximum of 1 year.
A patient weighting 220 lb is to receive 5 mcg/kg/min of an IV solution containing Dobutamine 600 mg in 250 ml D5W. The calculated IV dose rate is:
500 mcg/min
Fentanyl has a concentration of 0.05 mg/ml. How many milliliters do you need for a 800-mcg dose?
50mcg/1ml = 800 mcg/x = 16ml
A pharmacy technician wishes to add 500 mg of Amino Acids to 500 ml of D5W. The Amino Acid solution is supplied in a 10% concentration. The volume of the 10% concentration required to supply 500 mg of the drug is:
5ml
Lanoxin Elixir is available in a concentration of 0.05 mg/ml. What quantity is required for a 0.25 mg dose?
5ml
What is the total amount of hydrocortisone found in eight 1-ounce tubes of hydrocortisone cream 2.5%?
6 gm
Sterile products should be prepared at least ______ inches inside the laminar airflow workbench.
6 inches
What quantity of dexamethasone 0.75 mg tablets will be required for a 4.5 mg dose?
6 tabs
Assuming that one-pint is equal to 473 ml., how many pints can be found in 3 liters?
6.3 pints
Tylenol No. 4 is Acetaminophen 325 mg and Codeine ______ mg.
60 mg.
You receive a prescription for Amoxicillin 75 mg QID for ten days. How many ml's of Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 cc do you need?
60 ml amoxicliilnin
An IV order calls for the addition of 35 mEq of Calcium Carbonate. You have a 50 ml vial of CaCo3 4.4 mEq/ml. How many ml's of this concentrate do you need to add to this IV?
8 ml
How much diluent do you need to add to a 2 gm vial of Rocephin to get a concentration of 250 mg/ml? Disregard the space the powder may occupy.
8 ml
The doctor wants to give a dose of Amoxicillin 400 mg bid to a 13 year old male. You have Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 ml in 150 ml bottles. What would be the dose in ml?
8 ml
A prescription reading "Septra viii ounces" indicates that:
8 ounces of Septra should be dispensed.
A 20 ml dose of a mixture prescribed for pain relief contains 10 mg Demerol, 25 mg Phenergan, 5 ml alcohol, 5 ml cherry syrup, qs with water. How many 30 mg Demerol tablets are needed to prepare 480 ml of this solution?
8 tabs
Lanoxin contains 0.25 mg/ml. How much Lanoxin will 3.5L contain?
875 mg
A Zantac IV has been ordered to run as 2.5 drops/min. It contains 875 mg of Zantac in a total of 250 ml. How many milligrams of Zantac will the patient receive per hour if the set is calibrated to deliver 15 gtts/ml?
875mg/250 ml=3.5 mg/ml. 60 min*2.5 drops/min= 150 drops/hour. 150 drops/hr/15 drops/ml= 10 ml/hr. 3.5 mg/ml*10 ml/hr= 35 mg/hr
An IV order calls for the addition of 35 mEq of Calcium Carbonate. You have a 50 ml vial of CaCo3 4.4 mEq/ml. How many ml's of this concentrate do you need to add to this IV?
8ml
How much diluent do you need to add to a 2 gm vial of Rocephin to get a concentration of 250 mg/ml? Disregard the space the powder may occupy.
8ml
Rx: Cefaclor 125 mg/5 ml. Sig: 100 mg po bid x 10 d. What volume of medication would be required for a daily dose?
8ml
What volume of Albuterol Solution would be needed to prepackage 72 pints?
9 gallons
If a third party payer specifies a maximum 1-month supply for a specific drug and the directions for use state "I cap po tid", how many units of the drug may be dispensed?
90 caps
3 fluid ounces
90 ml
Thirty-four degrees Celsius (34 degrees C) would be how many degrees Fahrenheit?
93.2
A dose is written for 5 mg/kg tid for one day. The adult to take this medication weighs 145 pounds. How much of a drug will be needed to fill this order?
989 mg
Furosemide or Lasix is used as:
A diuretic.
HCTZ or Hydrochlorothiazide is used as:
A diuretic.
If a prescription is written Amoxicillin and is marked "may not substitute":
A generic drug can usually be dispensed (state law may vary).
Tylenol sinus would be contraindicated in a patient with:
A history of hypertension.
The purpose of a formulary is a document:
A listing of committee-approved pharmaceuticals and therapeutics in stock.
Federal laws requires the following information to be documented daily.
A log of controlled substances dispensed.
Federal laws requires which of the following information to be documented on a daily basis?
A log of controlled substances dispensed.
When receiving a drug-drug, drug-disease state, or drug-allergy interaction computer message, the technician should:
Alert the pharmacist to the problem.
A good reason(s) why a technician should refer patients with medication or health-related questions to a pharmacist include:
All of the above
Factors affecting giving medication by oral route include:
All of the above
Naproxen tablets
ALEVE
Which of the following drugs is prescribed for the relief of allergy symptoms?
ALL OF THE ABOVE: Phenylpropanolamine. Phenylephrine. Antihistamines.
Which of the following are true concerning patient participation in an investigational drug study:
ALL OF THE ABOVE: The patient must sign an informed consent. & Participation is voluntary. & The patient may withdraw from the study at any time.
The process whereby a drug crosses a membrane into the blood stream is called:
Absorption.
The five schedules for controlled substances were established on the basis of:
Abuse potential.
Which of the following duties may a pharmacy technician not do?
Accept a verbal medication order from a dentist
The "computer access code" for pharmacy software is used to:
Access prescription files.
If a patient cannot tolerate a NSAID, which one of the following medications may he/she take?
Acetaminophen
Which of the following nonprescription analgesics would be the safest choice for a patient taking Warfarin (Coumadin)?
Acetaminophen (Tyleno
If a patient cannot tolerate a NSAID, which one of the following medications may he/she take?
Acetaminophen Tylenol
Which of the following is a Schedule III controlled substance under federal law?
Acetaminophen with Codeine.
A prescriber's DEA number is needed to prescribe which drugs?
Acetaminophen with Codeine. & Talwin NX.
A patient who cannot tolerate NSAID's medication for dental pain may take
Acetaminophen.
If a patient cannot tolerate a NSAID, which one of the following medications may he/she take?
Acetaminophen.
Aminosyn is an Amino Acid often times used in TPN orders to provide protein for cellular repair and growth. A physician writes an order for Aminosyn 2.5% 500 ml. You look on the shelf and have only Aminosyn 8.5% 500 ml. How are you going to prepare this order using a sterile evacuated container?
Add 147 ml of Aminosyn 8.5% and qs with sterile water to 500 ml.
All of the following are requirements for a prescription label except
Address of patient.
All the following are correct when opening an ampule except:
After wiping with an alcohol pad, dry the neck with a paper towel
Which procedure would you not do when opening an ampule?
After wiping with an alcohol pad, dry the neck with a paper towel.
The pharmacist asks you to prepare the following prescription: Amoxicillin suspension 5 ml PO TID x 10 days. The technician should:
Alert the pharmacist to the problem
A patient presents a prescription order for Morphine Sulfate tablets, prescribed by John Doe, M.D. Which of the following DEA registration numbers is consistent with the prescriber?
BD 4695283.
Scanning for drug prices and stock levels would be accomplished with which device?
Barcode reader.
Which of the following drugs is not a beta-blocking agent?
Benazepril.
Which of the following dosage forms has the highest concentration of alcohol in its formulation?
Benzoin Compound tincture.
The fraction of the administered dose of Demerol that reaches systemic circulation and the rate at which this occurs is the Demerol's:
Bioavailability.
A semi-rigid cup-like plastic package that is normally used for tablets and capsules and sealed with a foil type material is called a:
Blister package.
Particulate matter can cause the formations of thrombi, which are:
Blood clots formed within the blood vessels or heart.
Loop diuretics are used for:
Blood pressure treatment.
Thiazide diuretics are used for:
Blood pressure treatment.
Which of the following is an example of a side effect of Fluorouracil therapy?
Bone marrow suppression.
A prescriber's DEA number is needed to prescribe which drugs?
Both A and C.
Which of the following is a type of amino acid product used in admixing TPN?
Branched-chain amino acid solutions. Essential amino acid solutions. Mixed essential and non-essential amino acid solutions
Which of the following is a type of amino acid product used in admixing TPN?
Branched-chain amino is acid solution, essential amino acid solutions, and mixed essential and non-essential amino acid solutions are used in admixing TPN.
Beta -2 receptor blockers belong to which drug classification?
Bronchodilator.
How would you identify a medication in a drug recall situation?
By the drug's lot #.
Certification is the process:
By which a non-governmental agency or association grants recognition to an individual who has met certain predetermined qualifications specified by that agency or association.
What is the proper procedure for cleaning a laminar flow hood?
Clean the hood from side to side starting from the back of the hood towards the front of the hood
Schedule III medications must be ordered in which of the following ways?
Calling the wholesaler directly.
Schedule V medications must be ordered in which of the following ways?
Calling the wholesaler directly.
Schedule drugs within which class of controlled substances contain no legal use in the United States?
CI.
Meperidine belongs to which category of controlled substances?
CII
Cocaine belongs to which category of controlled substances
CII.
Following the preparation of an Vinblastine I.V. admixture, the needle and syringe should be:
Disposed of in an approved container without recapping or clipping.
The form number for ordering Schedule II drugs is:
DEA Form 222.
Selenium sulfide is an active ingredient often used in the treatment of:
Dandruff
Selenium sulfide is an active ingredient often used in the treatment of:
Dandruff.
A prescription order of Flagyl is added to a patient's computerized profile by means of a:
Database program
Lovastatin would be prescribed to:
Decrease cholesterol
The set dollar amount which a patient must accumulate in pharmacy costs before the insurance company contributes to pharmacy cost is the:
Deductible.
Which of the following groups is usually not a member of the P + T Committee?
Dental representative or Physical Therapy representative
The process, which utilized dehydration to remove moisture from a solid substance, is called:
Desiccation
Which of the following medications belong to the same class of drugs as Etodolac?
Diclofenac.
Which of the following medications belongs to the same class of drugs as etodolac?
Diclofenac.
An example of a drug used as an anticonvulsant is:
Dilantin. Phenytoin. Phenobarbital.
Which drug requires a follow-up "cover" prescription when dispensed with an emergency verbal order?
Dilaudid.
Which of the following drugs is a calcium channel blocker?
Diltiazem
Which of the following drugs is a calcium channel blocker?
Diltiazem.
Which of the following drugs is a coronary calcium channel blocker?
Diltiazem.
What is the generic name for Benadryl?
Diphenhydramine.
What is the therapeutic generic equivalent for Benadryl?
Diphenhydramine.
If you believe someone has presented a fraudulent prescription at your pharmacy, the best action would be to:
Discreetly notify the pharmacist so that the appropriate action may be taken.
A prescription states "Norvasc 5 mg #100 1 tab po qd". If the third party coverage limits the dispensing to a 30 day supply, the pharmacy should:
Dispense a 30 day supply with refills
A prescription states "Procardia XL 30 mg #100 1 tab po qd". If the third party coverage limits the dispensing to a 30 day supply, the pharmacy should:
Dispense a 30 day supply with refills.
Which class of drugs stimulates insulin release in the body and is used in Type II Diabetes?
Hypoglycemic agents
Which category of drugs stimulates insulin release in the body?
Hypoglycemic agents.
Which type of IV solution can cause the red blood cells to burst?
Hypotonic
Red blood cells can burst when exposed to _______ I. V. solution.
Hypotonic.
Which type of IV solution can cause the red blood cells to burst?
Hypotonic.
Which routes of administration produces the quickest onset of action of Promethazine?
IV
A 50 ml Intravenous bag specifically used to deliver medication, which is hung higher than the primary IV bag, is called an:
IVPB.
Which of the following drugs is not an OTC product?
Ibuprofen 400 mg tabs.
Which of the following drugs is not a laxative?
Imodium.
The "C" designation for controlled substances must appear on a controlled prescription:
In red in the lower right hand corner of the Rx.
The one inch "C" designation for controlled substances must appear on a controlled prescription
In red in the lower right hand corner of the Rx.
The one inch "C" designation for controlled substances must appear on a controlled prescription:
In red in the lower right hand corner of the Rx.
Gowns used in preparing Cancer Chemotherapy drugs must close:
In the back.
The counseling under OBRA 90 may be made:
In writing. & Orally. & By Pharmacist only.
Propranolol is the same as:
Inderal.
While a mother is waiting for an Amoxicillin prescription for her 8-year old, she asks the technician what to give the child for fever. The technician should:
Inform the pharmacist that the mother would like help choosing a nonprescription product.
A MSDS provides what type of product information?
Information regarding product ingredients.
What information may a Pharmacy Technician get from a MSDS.
Information regarding product ingredients.
If a patient tells you that his 9-month-old child ingested "ferrous sulfate" tablets, the pharmacy technician is responsible for:
Instructing the parent to call the local Poison Control Center.
Which route is injecting medication into the top skin layers
Intradermal.
Preservative-free drugs must be used when drugs will be injected by which route of administration?
Intrathecal.
Which solution is recommended for cleaning a Biological Safety Cabinet
Isopropyl alcohol.
Which solution is recommended for cleaning a laminar flow hood?
Isopropyl alcohol.
Which solution is safest for a newborn?
Isotonic.
Which solution is safest for a patient?
Isotonic.
Cimetidine (Tagamet)
It is used to reduce stomach acid and it does interact with many other drugs. [It will interact with Aminophylline and Barbiturates in I.V. solutions.]
Which non-governmental agency is responsible for the accreditation of institutional settings?
JCAHO.
Which of the following drugs is a benzodiazepine? fiorinal, percodan, demerol, klonopin
Klonapin
Which of the following drugs is a benzodiazepine?
Klonopin.
Digoxin
Lanoxin Cardiac glycoside.
Digoxin
Lanoxin used to increase muscle contraction of the heart.
The dispensing label on an outpatient pharmacy prescription requires:
Legal name of pharmacy and address.
The prescription label on an outpatient pharmacy medication requires:
Legal name of pharmacy and address.
Prescription drugs are also known as:
Legend drugs.
Which drug is used as a "RESCUE" from toxicity of methotrexate?
Leucovorin.
Which medication is used as a rescue therapy from toxicity of Methotrexate?
Leucovorin.
The following federal regulations requires that a pharmacist counsel Medicaid patients?
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990.
Which of the following federal regulations requires that a pharmacist counsel Medicaid patients?
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act.
How often must Schedule II controlled substances be physically inventoried?
Once every two years.
The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO) verifies that laminar flow hoods should be certified at least:
Once per year.
Which type of drug would be considered a drug of abuse?
Opiates. Alcohol. Nicotine.
A Pharmacy with a DEA Form 222 is allowed to:
Order controlled substances.
DEA Form 222 allows the pharmacy to:
Order controlled substances.
A Patient Package Insert must be dispensed with which of the following medications?
Ovral birth control pills
Which of the following substances is not classified as a Schedule II controlled substance?
Oxazepam.
The pharmacist must complete DEA Form 222 to obtain which of the following medications?
Oxycodone.
Which of the following may only be ordered by completing the DEA Form 222?
Oxycodone.
Who implements formulary review for new drugs?
P & T Committee
Who implements formulary review?
P & T Committee.
The last two of digits of the NDC represents:
Package size
All of the drugs listed below are laxatives except:
Pancreas capsules.
Estraderm is available in which dosage form?
Patch.
The abbreviation "PCN" means what?
Penicillin
Which of the following 2 drug classes have cross sensitivity?
Penicillin and Cephalosporin.
Famotidine is the generic name for
Pepcid
What medication in a dose of 20 mg qd, is used to treat dyspepsia?
Pepcid
A patient on Warfarin therapy should never take which of the following medications?
Percodan
If a patient has had an anaphylactic reaction to ASA, which analgesic may they not take?
Percodan
The medication profile of John Doe: Cardizem CD 120 mg PO qd, Coumadin 5 mg PO qd, Synthroid 0.088 mg PO qd John Doe presents new prescriptions for: Percodan i to ii OI q4-6h prn severe pain. Zocor 20 mg PO qd. What possible drug interaction exists?
Percodan and Coumadin.
Which of the following products would be contraindicated in a patient who has had an anaphylactic reaction to ASA?
Percodan.
Latex gloves, gowns, respirators, face shields, and chemical splash goggles used in Antineoplastic agent preparation are known as:
Personal protective equipment.
Who is legally responsible by virtue of state licensure for the care and safety of patients served by the pharmacy?
Pharmacist
Pharmacy technicians are defined as individuals working in a pharmacy who, under the supervision of a licensed pharmacists, assist in pharmacy activities not requiring the professional judgment of the ______.
Pharmacist.
Which of the following phase of investigational drug clinical studies is usually performed on 5 -20 volunteer patients?
Phase I
Which of the following drugs require the auxiliary label "May Discolor Urine Red"?
Phenazopyridine.
Which of the following is not an antihistamine?
Phenylpropanolamine
Which of the following is not an antihistamine?
Phenylpropanolamine.
A patient comes in wondering whether he/she can take Claritan with Benadryl. As a Pharmacy Technician what should you do?
Request the patient see the pharmacist for a consult.
A patient comes in wondering whether he/she can take a certain medication with another one. As a Pharmacy Technician what should you do?
Request the patient see the pharmacist for a consult.
An overdose of MS-Contin would cause:
Respiratory depression.
An overdose of Morphine would cause:
Respiratory depression.
An investigational drug Isoxicam has been discontinued by the Physician. The remaining drug should be:
Returned to the person(s) responsible for investigational drugs.
Actonel
Risedronate Bone Resorption Inhibitor
Morphine Sulfate oral solution 20 mg/5 ml and morphine sulfate oral solution concentrate 20 mg/1 ml should be stored at what temperature?
Room Temperature, at 15 degrees C to 30 degrees C (59 degrees F to 86 degrees F) for both.
Ear infections can be treated with which of the following?
SMZ-TMP
the abbreviation for Sulfamethoxozole and Trimethoprim
SMZ-TMP
Ear infections can be treated with which of the following?
SMZ-TMP.
Which schedule deals with drugs that have no medicinal use in the United States and have a high abuse potential?
Schedule I
Of the following schedules, which one deals with drugs that have no medicinal use in the United States and have a high abuse potential?
Schedule I.
Which schedule deals with drugs that have no medicinal use in the United States and have a high abuse potential?
Schedule I.
According to the Controlled Substances Act, a prescription for Dexedrine should be filed under which schedule?
Schedule II
Schedule II narcotic prescriptions may be refilled how many times?
Schedule II Narcotic prescriptions may not be refilled.
A tracking log should be kept for?
Schedule II order forms.
It is a good idea to keep a tracking log for:
Schedule II order forms.
Codeine, Demerol and Percodan all belong to which controlled schedule?
Schedule II.
Codeine, Meperidine, and Oxycodone all belong to which controlled controlled schedule?
Schedule II.
Codeine, Meperidine, and Oxycodone all belong to which controlled schedule?
Schedule II.
The "C" designation for controlled substances applies to:
Schedule III - V
The "C" designation for controlled substances applies to:
Schedule III - V.
The 1 inch Red Letter "C" designation for controlled substances applies to:
Schedule III - V.
The red "C" in the lower right corner of a prescription designates that the drug is:
Schedule III, IV or V controlled substance.
According to the Federal Controlled Substance Act, a prescription for Acetaminophen No. 4 would be filed in which schedule?
Schedule III.
In which controlled substance schedule is Fioricet with Codeine classified?
Schedule III.
In which controlled substance schedule is Tylenol No. 2 classified?
Schedule III.
The red "C" in the lower right corner of a prescription designates that the drug is:
Scheduled III, IV or V controlled substances.
The two basic parts of a needle are the:
Shaft and hub.
Needles used to prepare sterile IV solutions should be disposed in:
Sharp's Container
Needles used to prepare sterile IV solutions should be disposed in:
Sharp's Container.
Efudex cream:
Should be applied with gloves or a nonmetallic object.
Fluorouracil cream:
Should be applied with gloves or a nonmetallic object.
All of the following are the technician's responsibility except?
Signing the DEA form from a wholesaler can only be signed by a registered pharmacist.
All of the following are the technician's responsibility except?
Signing the DEA form from the wholesaler.
Which of the following is NOT a technician's responsibility?
Signing the DEA form from the wholesaler.
When developing a policy and procedure for ensuring the safety of a medication in a multi-dose vial, all the following should be considered except:
The cost of the medication.
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1990, led to most states requiring:
The counseling of patients by pharmacists.
Needle gauge represents:
The diameter of the needle.
The gauge of a needle represents:
The diameter of the needle.
The dose of Ceclor in children is 20 mg/kg/day in divided doses. A prescription for an 82-lb youngster prescribes 375 mg PO TID. After bringing this prescription to the attention of the pharmacist, the pharmacist agrees that there is a problem with this prescription. The problem is:
The dose prescribed is an overdose.
The dose of Cefaclor in children is 20 mg/kg/day in divided doses. A prescription for an 82 lb. youngster prescribes 375 mg PO TID. After bringing this to the attention of the pharmacist, the pharmacist agrees that there is a problem with the prescription. The problem is:
The dose prescribed is an overdose.
According to most insurance coverage, if a prescription is written for a brand name product and "may substitute" is marked:
The generic drug must be dispensed.
If State and Federal pharmacy law differ, which law applies?
The more stringent law.
If State, Local and Federal pharmacy law differ, which law applies?
The more stringent law.
The computer insurance error message "patient not found" or "invalid ID number" indicates:
The patient does not appear to be enrolled in the insurance program; check for errors such as misspelling of the patient's name, ID number.
The computer error message "refill too soon" indicates:
The patient is attempting to get the prescription earlier than the "day supply" indicated.
The middle set of digits in a National Drug Code (00013-5112-10) number represents:
The product strength and dosage form.
The middle set of digits in a National Drug Code (NDC) number represents:
The product strength and dosage form.
What is the ratio strength (w/v) of a solution containing 300 g of solute in 1500 ml of solution?
The ratio strength (W/V) of a solution 300 gm of solute in 1500 ml of solution can be written as 1:5, 1/5, 300/1500.
The two parts of the syringe that should not be touched and remain sterile are:
The tip and plunger.
The two parts of the syringe that should not be touched are:
The tip and plunger.
A bulk vial of Claforan indicates an expiration date of May 2002. Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of the Claforan vial?
The vial can be used through the last day of May 2002.
When using a Class A Torsion balance to weigh Acetaminophen powder:
The weight goes on the right pan and the powder goes on the left pan.
When using a Class A Torsion balance:
The weight goes on the right pan and the powder goes on the left pan.
The AB letter code assigned by the Orange Book indicates the:
Therapeutic equivalence of generic drugs.
The two letter code assigned by the Orange Book indicates the:
Therapeutic equivalence of generic drugs.
The decrease of effectiveness of the drugs when Omnipen and Gentamicin are given together is an example of which incompatibility?
Therapeutic.
What is the meaning of Therapeutic Equivalency?
They have the same quantity of active ingredient.
Which of the following is proof of receipt of Class II controlled substances?
Third copy DEA Form 222C & Commercial invoice.
The laminar flow workbench should be left operating continuously. If it is turned off, it should not be used until it has been running for at least:
Thirty minutes.
Benazepril
This drug is classified as a ACE inhibitor.
Lotensin
This drug is classified as an ACE inhibitor.
ATS solution should be stored in the
Topical section.
ATS solution should be stored in the:
Topical section.
Which of the following drugs is a NSAID?
Toradol.
I.V. products containing dextrose, amino acids, trace mineral, vitamins, and other pharmacological agents are referred to as:
Total Parenteral Nutrition.
Metronidazole.
would be prescribed to treat a bacterial infection?
Which of the following medications is a Schedule IV controlled substance?
xanax
