Comprehensive Respiratory Disorders #1 Nurselabs
Guaifenesin 300 mg four times daily has been ordered as an expectorant. The dosage strength of the liquid is 200mg/5ml. How many mL should the nurse administer each dose? Fill in the blank and record your final answer using one decimal place. mL?
7.5 ml When the medicine is a solution of specific strength, calculations can become more complicated. Liquids (solutions and suspensions) are frequently used in children's nursing - for example for children who find swallowing tablets difficult or patients who have medicines administered via a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube.
The nurse is teaching the client how to use a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to administer a Corticosteroid drug. Which of the following client actions indicates that he is using the MDI correctly? Select all that apply. A. The inhaler is held upright. B. Head is tilted down while inhaling the medication. C. Client waits 5 minutes between puffs. D. Mouth is rinsed with water following administration. E. Client lies supine for 15 minutes following administration.
A & D Inhaled respiratory medications are often taken by using a device called a metered-dose inhaler, or MDI. The MDI is a pressurized canister of medicine in a plastic holder with a mouthpiece. When sprayed, it gives a reliable, consistent dose of medication.
Auscultation of a client's lungs reveals crackles in the left posterior base. The nursing intervention is to: A. Repeat auscultation after asking the client to deep breathe and cough. B. Instruct the client to limit fluid intake to less than 2000 ml/day. C. Inspect the client's ankles and sacrum for the presence of edema. D. Place the client on bedrest in a semi-Fowler's position.
A. Repeat auscultation after asking the client to deep breathe and cough. Although crackles often indicate fluid in the alveoli, they may also be related to hypoventilation and will clear after a deep breath or a cough. Assess cough effectiveness and productivity. Coughing is the most effective way to remove secretions. Pneumonia may cause thick and tenacious secretions to patients.
A female client is scheduled to have a chest radiograph. Which of the following questions is of most importance to the nurse assessing this client? A. "Is there any possibility that you could be pregnant?" B. "Are you wearing any metal chains or jewelry?" C. "Can you hold your breath easily?" D. "Are you able to hold your arms above your head?"
A. "Is there any possibility that you could be pregnant?" The most important item to ask about is the client's pregnancy status because pregnant women should not be exposed to radiation. The risk of side effects of an X-ray while the client is pregnant is extremely minimal, but it is always important to protect the developing fetus from harm.
A client with COPD reports steady weight loss and being "too tired from just breathing to eat." Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be most appropriate when planning nutritional interventions for this client? A. Altered nutrition: Less than body requirements related to fatigue. B. Activity intolerance related to dyspnea. C. Weight loss related to COPD. D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to alveolar hypoventilation.
A. Altered nutrition: Less than body requirements related to fatigue. The client's problem is altered nutrition—specifically, less than required. The cause, as stated by the client, is the fatigue associated with the disease process. Instruct the patient to frequently eat high caloric foods in smaller portions. COPD patients expend an extraordinary amount of energy simply on breathing and require high caloric meals to maintain body weight and muscle mass.
Basilar crackles are present in a client's lungs on auscultation. The nurse knows that these are discrete, non continuous sounds that are: A. Caused by the sudden opening of alveoli. B. Usually more prominent during expiration. C. Produced by airflow across passages narrowed by secretions. D. Found primarily in the pleura.
A. Caused by the sudden opening of alveoli Basilar crackles are usually heard during inspiration and are caused by sudden opening of the alveoli. Basilar crackles are a bubbling or crackling sound originating from the base of the lungs. They may occur when the lungs inflate or deflate. They're usually brief, and may be described as sounding wet or dry. Excess fluid in the airways causes these sounds.
When developing a discharge plan to manage the care of a client with COPD, the nurse should anticipate that the client will do which of the following? A. Develop infections easily. B. Maintain current status. C. Require less supplemental oxygen. D. Show permanent improvement.
A. Develop infections easily. A client with COPD is at high risk for development of respiratory infections. In emphysema, an irritant (e.g., smoking) causes an inflammatory response. Neutrophils and macrophages are recruited and release multiple inflammatory mediators. Oxidants and excess proteases leading to the destruction of the air sacs. The protease-mediated destruction of elastin leads to a loss of elastic recoil and results in airway collapse during exhalation.
Which of the following health promotion activities should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan for a client with asthma? A. Incorporate physical exercise as tolerated into the treatment plan. B. Monitor peak flow numbers after meals and at bedtime. C. Eliminate stressors in the work and home environment. D. Use sedatives to ensure uninterrupted sleep at night.
A. Incorporate physical exercise as tolerated into the treatment plan. Physical exercise is beneficial and should be incorporated as tolerated into the client's schedule. Peak flow numbers should be monitored daily, usually in the morning (before taking medication). Encourage breathing exercises and controlled breathing and relaxation. Prevents attack before it begins and increases ventilation.
Which of the following ABG abnormalities should the nurse anticipate in a client with advanced COPD? A. Increased PaCO2 B. Increased PaO2 C. Increased pH D. Increased oxygen saturation
A. Increased PaCO2 As COPD progresses, the client typically develops increased PaCO2 levels and decreased PaO2 levels. This results in decreased pH and decreased oxygen saturation. These changes are the result of air trapping and hypoventilation. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis provides the best clues as to acuteness and severity of disease exacerbation.
Which of the following physical assessment findings would the nurse expect to find in a client with advanced COPD? A. Increased anteroposterior chest diameter. B. Underdeveloped neck muscles. C. Collapsed neck veins. D. Increased chest excursions with respiration.
A. Increased anteroposterior chest diameter. Increased anteroposterior chest diameter is characteristic of advanced COPD. Air is trapped in the overextended alveoli, and the ribs are fixed in an inspiratory position. The result is the typical barrel-chested appearance. In addition, coarse crackles beginning with inspiration may be heard.
A client is prescribed metaproterenol (Alupent) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), two puffs every 4 hours. The nurse instructs the client to report side effects. Which of the following are potential side effects of metaproterenol? A. Irregular heartbeat B. Constipation C. Pedal edema D. Decreased heart rate.
A. Irregular heartbeat Irregular heart rates should be reported promptly to the care provider. Metaproterenol may cause irregular heartbeat, tachycardia, or anginal pain because of its adrenergic effect on the beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart. It is not recommended for use in clients with known cardiac disorders. Metaproterenol does not cause constipation, pedal edema, or bradycardia.
An elderly client has been ill with the flu, experiencing headache, fever, and chills. After 3 days, she developed a cough productive of yellow sputum. The nurse auscultates her lungs and hears diffuse crackles. How would the nurse best interpret these assessment findings? A. It is likely that the client is developing a secondary bacterial pneumonia. B. The assessment findings are consistent with influenza and are to be expected. C. The client is getting dehydrated and needs to increase her fluid intake to decrease secretions D. The client has not been taking her decongestants and bronchodilators as prescribed.
A. It is likely that the client is developing a secondary bacterial pneumonia. Pneumonia is the most common complication of influenza, especially in the elderly. The development of a purulent cough and crackles may be indicative of a bacterial infection that is not consistent with a diagnosis of influenza.
Which of the following is a priority goal for the client with COPD? A. Maintaining functional ability. B. Minimizing chest pain. C. Increasing carbon dioxide levels in the blood. D. Treating infectious agents.
A. Maintaining functional ability A priority goal for the client with COPD is to manage the s/s of the disease process so as to maintain the client's functional ability. Evaluate the level of activity tolerance. Provide a calm, quiet environment. Limit a patient's activity or encourage bed or chair rest during the acute phase. Have patient resume activity gradually and increase as individually tolerated.
Assessing a client who has developed atelectasis postoperatively, the nurse will most likely find: A. A flushed face. B. Dyspnea and pain. C. Decreased temperature. D. Severe cough and no pain.
B. Dyspnea and pain Atelectasis is a collapse of the alveoli due to obstruction or hypoventilation. Clients become short of breath, have a high temperature, and usually experience severe pain but do not have a severe cough. The shortness of breath is a result of decreased oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange at the alveolar level. Postoperative atelectasis typically occurs within 72 hours of general anesthesia and is a well-known postoperative complication.
If a client continues to hypoventilate, the nurse will continually assess for a complication of: A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis
A. Respiratory acidosis Respiratory acidosis represents an increase in the acid component, carbon dioxide, and an increase in the hydrogen ion concentration (decreased pH) of the arterial blood. The respiratory centers in the pons and medulla control alveolar ventilation. Chemoreceptors for PCO2, PO2, and pH regulate ventilation. Central chemoreceptors in the medulla are sensitive to changes in the pH level. A decreased pH level influences the mechanics of ventilation and maintains proper levels of carbon dioxide and oxygen. When ventilation is disrupted, arterial PCO2 increases and an acid-base disorder develops.
The nurse is planning to teach a client with COPD how to cough effectively. Which of the following instructions should be included? A. Take a deep abdominal breath, bend forward, and cough 3 to 4 times on exhalation. B. Lie flat on back, splint the thorax, take two deep breaths and cough. C. Take several rapid, shallow breaths and then cough forcefully. D. Assume a side-lying position, extend the arm over the head, and alternate deep breathing with coughing.
A. Take a deep abdominal breath, bend forward, and cough 3 to 4 times on exhalation. The goal of effective coughing is to conserve energy, facilitate the removal of secretions, and minimize airway collapse. The client should assume a sitting position with feet on the floor if possible. The client should bend forward slightly and, using pursed-lip breathing, exhale. After resuming an upright position, the client should use abdominal breathing to slowly and deeply inhale. After repeating this process 3 or 4 times, the client should take a deep abdominal breath, bend forward and cough 3 or 4 times upon exhalation ("huff" cough)
A nurse is assessing a client with chronic airflow limitation and notes that the client has a "barrel chest." The nurse interprets that this client has which of the following forms of chronic airflow limitation? A. Chronic obstructive bronchitis B. Emphysema C. Bronchial asthma D. Bronchial asthma and bronchitis
B. Emphysema The client with emphysema has hyperinflation of the alveoli and flattening of the diaphragm. These lead to increased anteroposterior diameter, which is referred to as "barrel chest." The client also has dyspnea with prolonged expiration and has hyperresonant lungs to percussion.
A client is admitted to the hospital with acute bronchitis. While taking the client's VS, the nurse notices he has an irregular pulse. The nurse understands that cardiac arrhythmias in chronic respiratory distress are usually the result of: A. Respiratory acidosis B. A build-up of carbon dioxide C. A build-up of oxygen without adequate expelling of carbon dioxide. D. An acute respiratory infection.
B. A build-up of carbon dioxide. The arrhythmias are caused by a build-up of carbon dioxide and not enough oxygen so that the heart is in a constant state of hypoxia. The majority of arrhythmias observed in these patients appeared to take the form of premature ventricular and/or supraventricular beats and less frequently of atrial fibrillation and/or attacks of supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia. Cardiac rhythm alterations were observed using Holter monitoring in 70-90% of patients. No cardiac rhythm disorder is specific to this pathological condition.
A client has just returned to a nursing unit following bronchoscopy. A nurse would implement which of the following nursing interventions for this client? A. Encouraging additional fluids for the next 24 hours B. Ensuring the return of the gag reflex before offering foods or fluids C. Administering atropine intravenously D. Administering small doses of midazolam (Versed).
B. Ensuring the return of the gag reflex before offering foods or fluids After bronchoscopy, the nurse keeps the client on NPO status until the gag reflex returns because the preoperative sedation and the local anesthesia impair swallowing and the protective laryngeal reflexes for a number of hours. Although bronchoscopy can be done without sedation, most procedures are done under moderate conscious sedation with the use of various sedatives based on the clinician's preference (e.g., benzodiazepines, opioids, dexmedetomidine).
A client states that the physician said the tidal volume is slightly diminished and asks the nurse what this means. The nurse explains that the tidal volume is the amount of air: A. Exhaled forcibly after a normal expiration. B. Exhaled after there is a normal inspiration. C. Trapped in the alveoli that cannot be exhaled. D. Forcibly inspired over and above a normal respiration.
B. Exhaled after there is a normal inspiration. Tidal volume (TV) is defined as the amount of air exhaled after a normal inspiration. Tidal volume is the amount of air that moves in or out of the lungs with each respiratory cycle. It measures around 500 mL in an average healthy adult male and approximately 400 mL in a healthy female. It is a vital clinical parameter that allows for proper ventilation to take place
A client's arterial blood gas levels are as follows: pH 7.31; PaO2 80 mm Hg, PaCO2 65 mm Hg; HCO3- 36 mEq/L. Which of the following signs or symptoms would the nurse expect? A. Cyanosis B. Flushed skin C. Irritability D. Anxiety
B. Flushed skin The high PaCO2 level causes flushing due to vasodilation. The client also becomes drowsy and lethargic because carbon dioxide has a depressant effect on the CNS. On the contrary, chronic respiratory acidosis may be caused by COPD where there is a decreased responsiveness of the reflexes to states of hypoxia and hypercapnia.
A client with COPD has developed secondary polycythemia. Which nursing diagnosis would be included in the plan of care because of the polycythemia? A. Fluid volume deficit related to blood loss. B. Impaired tissue perfusion related to thrombosis. C. Activity intolerance related to dyspnea. D. Risk for infection related to suppressed immune response.
B. Impaired tissue perfusion related to thrombosis. Chronic hypoxia associated with COPD may stimulate excessive RBC production (polycythemia). This results in increased blood viscosity and the risk of thrombosis. The other nursing diagnoses are not applicable in this situation. The most common causes of secondary polycythemia include obstructive sleep apnea, obesity hypoventilation syndrome, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
The nurse would anticipate which of the following ABG results in a client experiencing a prolonged, severe asthma attack? A. Decreased PaCO2, increased PaO2, and decreased pH. B. Increased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and decreased pH. C. Increased PaCO2, increased PaO2, and increased pH. D. Decreased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and increased pH.
B. Increased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and decreased pH. As the severe asthma attack worsens, the client becomes fatigued and alveolar hypotension develops. This leads to carbon dioxide retention and hypoxemia. The client develops respiratory acidosis. Therefore, the PaCO2 level increases, the PaO2 level decreases, and the pH decreases, indicating acidosis.
The physician has scheduled a client for a left pneumonectomy. The position that will most likely be ordered postoperatively for his is the: A. Nonoperative side or back B. Operative side or back C. Back only D. Back or either side.
B. Operative side or back Following pneumonectomy, the client is positioned on the operative side to allow the fluid left in the lung space to consolidate and avoid the heart from shifting to the operative side. Pneumonectomy is defined as the surgical removal of the entire lung. Extrapleural pneumonectomy is an expanded procedure that also involves resection of parietal and visceral pleura, ipsilateral hemidiaphragm, pericardium, and mediastinal lymph nodes.
A female client comes into the emergency room complaining of SOB and pain in the lung area. She states that she started taking birth control pills 3 weeks ago and that she smokes. Her VS are: 140/80, P 110, R 40. The physician orders ABG's, results are as follows: pH: 7.50; PaCO2 29 mm Hg; PaO2 60 mm Hg; HCO3- 24 mEq/L; SaO2 86%. Considering these results, the first intervention is to: A. Begin mechanical ventilation. B. Place the client on oxygen. C. Give the client sodium bicarbonate. D. Monitor for pulmonary embolism.
B. Place the client on oxygen The pH (7.50) reflects alkalosis, and the low PaCO2 indicates the lungs are involved. The client should immediately be placed on oxygen via mask so that the SaO2 is brought up to 95%. Encourage slow, regular breathing to decrease the amount of CO2 she is losing.
A client has an order to have radial ABG drawn. Before drawing the sample, a nurse occludes the: A. Brachial and radial arteries, and then releases them and observes the circulation of the hand. B. Radial and ulnar arteries, releases one, evaluates the color of the hand, and repeats the process with the other artery. C. Radial artery and observes for color changes in the affected hand. D. Ulnar artery and observes for color changes in the affected hand.
B. Radial and ulnar arteries, releases one, evaluates the color of the hand, and repeats the process with the other artery. Before drawing an ABG, the nurse assesses the collateral circulation to the hand with Allen's test. This involves compressing the radial and ulnar arteries and asking the client to close and open the fist. This should cause the hand to become pale. The nurse then releases pressure on one artery and observes whether circulation is restored quickly. The nurse repeats the process, releasing the other artery. The blood sample may be taken safely if collateral circulation is adequate.
The client with asthma should be taught which of the following is one of the most common precipitating factors of an acute asthma attack? A. Occupational exposure to toxins. B. Viral respiratory infections. C. Exposure to cigarette smoke. D. Exercising in cold temperatures.
B. Viral respiratory infections. The most common precipitator of asthma attacks is viral respiratory infection. Clients with asthma should avoid people who have the flu or a cold and should get yearly flu vaccinations. Asthma is a condition of acute, fully reversible airway inflammation, often following exposure to an environmental trigger. The pathological process begins with the inhalation of an irritant (e.g., cold air) or an allergen (e.g., pollen), which then, due to bronchial hypersensitivity, leads to airway inflammation and an increase in mucus production. This leads to a significant increase in airway resistance, which is most pronounced on expiration.
When teaching a client with COPD to conserve energy, the nurse should teach the client to lift objects: A. While inhaling through an open mouth. B. While exhaling through pursed lips. C. After exhaling but before inhaling. D. While taking a deep breath and holding it.
B. While exhaling through pursed lips. Exhaling requires less energy than inhaling. Therefore, lifting while exhaling saves energy and reduces perceived dyspnea. When one practices regularly, breathing exercises can help exert oneself less during daily activities. They can also potentially aid in return to exercising, which can lead to feeling more energetic overall.
A nurse teaches a client about the use of a respiratory inhaler. Which action by the client indicated a need for further teaching? A. Removes the cap and shakes the inhaler well before use. B. Press the canister down with your finger as he breathes in. C. Inhales the mist and quickly exhales. D. Waits 1 to 2 minutes between puffs if more than one puff has been prescribed.
C. Inhales the mist and quickly exhales. Take the inhaler out of the mouth. If the client can, he should hold his breath as he slowly counts to 10. This lets the medicine reach deep into the lungs. The client should be instructed to hold his or her breath at least 10 to 15 seconds before exhaling the mist.
A client has been taking flunisolide (Aerobid), two inhalations a day, for treatment of asthma. He tells the nurse that he has painful, white patches in his mouth. Which response by the nurse would be the most appropriate? A. "This is an anticipated side-effect of your medication. It should go away in a couple of weeks." B. "You are using your inhaler too much and it has irritated your mouth." C. "You have developed a fungal infection from your medication. It will need to be treated with an antifungal." D. "Be sure to brush your teeth and floss daily. Good oral hygiene will treat this problem."
C. "You have developed a fungal infection from your medication. It will need to be treated with an antifungal." Use of oral inhalant corticosteroids, such as flunisolide, can lead to the development of oral thrush, a fungal infection. Oral candidiasis (thrush) is another common complaint among users of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS). This risk increases in elderly patients and patients who are also taking oral steroids, high dose ICS, or antibiotics.
Which of the following individuals would the nurse consider to have the highest priority for receiving an influenza vaccination? A. A 60-year-old man with a hiatal hernia. B. A 36-year-old woman with 3 children. C. A 50-year-old woman caring for a spouse with cancer. D. A 60-year-old woman with osteoarthritis.
C. A 50-year-old woman caring for a spouse with cancer. Individuals who are household members or home care providers for high-risk individuals are high-priority targeted groups for immunization against influenza to prevent transmission to those who have a decreased capacity to deal with the disease. The wife who is caring for a husband with cancer has the highest priority of the clients described.
An acceleration in oxygen dissociation from hemoglobin, and thus oxygen delivery to the tissues, is caused by: A. A decreasing oxygen pressure in the blood. B. An increasing carbon dioxide pressure in the blood. C. A decreasing oxygen pressure and/or an increasing carbon dioxide pressure in the blood. D. An increasing oxygen pressure and/or a decreasing carbon dioxide pressure in the blood.
C. A decreasing oxygen pressure and/or an increasing carbon dioxide pressure in the blood. The lower the PO2 and the higher the PCO2, the more rapidly oxygen dissociated from the oxyhemoglobin molecule. Factors that contribute to a right-shift in the oxygen dissociation curve and favor the unloading of oxygen correlate with exertion. These include increased body temperature, decreased pH (due to increased production of CO2), and increased 2,3-BPG. (Figure) This right shift of the oxyhemoglobin curve can be viewed as an adaptation for physical exertion.
A cyanotic client with an unknown diagnosis is admitted to the E.R. In relation to oxygen, the first nursing action would be to: A. Wait until the client's lab work is done. B. Not administer oxygen unless ordered by the physician. C. Administer oxygen at 2 L flow per minute. D. Administer oxygen at 10 L flow per minute and check the client's nail beds.
C. Administer oxygen at 2 L flow per minute. Administer oxygen at 2 L/minute and no more, for if the client is emphysemic and receives too high a level of oxygen, he will develop CO2 narcosis and the respiratory system will cease to function. With prolonged oxygen therapy there is an increase in blood oxygen level, which suppresses peripheral chemoreceptors; depresses ventilator drive and increase in PCO2. high blood oxygen level may also disrupt the ventilation: perfusion balance (V/Q) and cause an increase in dead space to tidal volume ratio and increase in PCO2.
A fifty-year-old client has a tracheostomy and requires tracheal suctioning. The first intervention in completing this procedure would be to: A. Change the tracheostomy dressing. B. Provide humidity with a trach mask. C. Apply oral or nasal suction. D. Deflate the tracheal cuff.
C. Apply oral or nasal suction. Before deflating the tracheal cuff, the nurse will apply oral or nasal suction to the airway to prevent secretions from falling into the lung. Dressing change and humidity do not relate to suctioning. Airway suctioning is a procedure routinely done in most care settings, including acute care, sub-acute care, long-term care, and home settings. Suctioning is performed when the patient is unable to effectively move secretions from the respiratory tract.
A client with acute asthma is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy. What is the rationale for the use of steroids in clients with asthma? A. Corticosteroids promote bronchodilation. B. Corticosteroids act as an expectorant. C. Corticosteroids have an anti-inflammatory effect. D. Corticosteroids prevent development of respiratory infections.
C. Corticosteroids have an anti-inflammatory effect. Corticosteroids have an anti-inflammatory effect and act to decrease edema in the bronchial airways and decrease mucus secretion. At a physiologic level, steroids reduce airway inflammation and mucus production and potentiate beta-agonist activity in smooth muscles and reduce beta-agonists tachyphylaxis in patients with severe asthma. Corticosteroids do not have a bronchodilator effect, act as expectorants, or prevent respiratory infections.
Immediately following a thoracentesis, which clinical manifestations indicate that a complication has occurred and the physician should be notified? A. Serosanguineous drainage from the puncture site. B. Increased temperature and blood pressure. C. Increased pulse and pallor. D. Hypotension and hypothermia.
C. Increased pulse and pallor Increased pulse and pallor are symptoms associated with shock. A compromised venous return may occur if there is a mediastinal shift as a result of excessive fluid removal. Usually, no more than 1 L of fluid is removed at one time to prevent this from occurring.
The most reliable index to determine the respiratory status of a client is to: A. Observe the chest rising and falling. B. Observe the skin and mucous membrane color. C. Listen and feel the air movement. D. Determine the presence of a femoral pulse.
C. Listen and feel the air movement. To check for breathing, the nurse places her ear and cheek next to the client's mouth and nose to listen and feel for air movement. During the inspection, the examiner should pay attention to the pattern of breathing: thoracic breathing, thoracoabdominal breathing, coastal markings, and use of accessory breathing muscles. The use of accessory breathing muscles (i.e., scalenes, sternocleidomastoid muscle, intercostal muscles) could point to excessive breathing effort caused by pathologies.
The nurse teaches a client with COPD to assess for s/s of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following s/s would be included in the teaching plan? A. Clubbing of nail beds B. Hypertension C. Peripheral edema D. Increased appetite
C. Peripheral edema Right-sided heart failure is a complication of COPD that occurs because of pulmonary hypertension. Signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure include peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, and weight gain due to increased fluid volume. Right heart failure is most commonly a result of left ventricular failure via volume and pressure overload. Clinically, patients will present with signs and symptoms of chest discomfort, breathlessness, palpitations, and body swelling.
Aminophylline (theophylline) is prescribed for a client with acute bronchitis. A nurse administers the medication, knowing that the primary action of this medication is to: A. Promote expectoration. B. Suppress the cough. C. Relax smooth muscles of the bronchial airway. D. Prevent infection.
C. Relax smooth muscles of the bronchial airway. Aminophylline is a bronchodilator that directly relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchial airway. Theophylline causes non-selective inhibition of type III and type IV isoenzymes of phosphodiesterase, which leads to increased tissue cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) and cyclic 3?,5? guanosine monophosphate concentrations, resulting in smooth muscle relaxation in lungs and pulmonary vessels, diuresis, CNS and cardiac stimulation.
A client with allergic rhinitis asks the nurse what he should do to decrease his symptoms. Which of the following instructions would be appropriate for the nurse to give the client? A. "Use your nasal decongestant spray regularly to help clear your nasal passages." B. "Ask the doctor for antibiotics. Antibiotics will help decrease the secretion." C. "It is important to increase your activity. A daily brisk walk will help promote drainage." D. "Keep a diary when your symptoms occur. This can help you identify what precipitates your attacks."
D. "Keep a diary when your symptoms occur. This can help you identify what precipitates your attacks." It is important for clients with allergic rhinitis to determine the precipitating factors so that they can be avoided. Keeping a diary can help identify these triggers. Patients often underestimate the severity of this condition and fail to seek medical therapy. It is important to adequately control AR, especially due to the link between AR and asthma, with poor control of rhinitis predicting poor control of asthma.
A 34-year-old woman with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse notes that the client is dyspneic, with a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/minute, nasal flaring, and use of accessory muscles. Auscultation of the lung fields reveals greatly diminished breath sounds. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse take to initiate care of the client? A. Initiate oxygen therapy and reassess the client in 10 minutes. B. Draw blood for an ABG analysis and send the client for a chest x-ray. C. Encourage the client to relax and breathe slowly through the mouth. D. Administer bronchodilators.
D. Administer bronchodilators. In an acute asthma attack, diminished or absent breath sounds can be an ominous sign indicating lack of air movement in the lungs and impending respiratory failure. The client requires immediate intervention with inhaled bronchodilators, intravenous corticosteroids, and possibly intravenous theophylline.
Which of the following outcomes would be appropriate for a client with COPD who has been discharged to home? The client: A. Promises to do pursed lip breathing at home. B. States actions to reduce pain. C. States that he will use oxygen via a nasal cannula at 5 L/minute. D. Agrees to call the physician if dyspnea on exertion increases.
D. Agrees to call the physician if dyspnea on exertion increases. Increasing dyspnea on exertion indicates that the client may be experiencing complications of COPD, and therefore the physician should be notified. There are things that everyone with COPD should do to manage their disease; quitting smoking (if they smoke) is the most important. In addition, there are other non-medication treatments that can help relieve symptoms and improve quality of life.
The nurse assesses the respiratory status of a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of COPD secondary to an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following findings would be expected? A. Normal breath sounds B. Prolonged inspiration C. Normal chest movement D. Coarse crackles and rhonchi
D. Coarse crackles and rhonchi Exacerbations of COPD are frequently caused by respiratory infections. Coarse crackles and rhonchi would be auscultated as air moves through airways obstructed with secretions. Crackles are usually due to airway secretions within a large airway and disappear on coughing. These crackles are scanty, gravity-independent, usually audible at the mouth, and strongly associated with severe airway obstruction.
A client has been taking benzonatate (Tessalon Perles) as prescribed. A nurse concludes that the medication is having the intended effect if the client experiences: A. Decreased anxiety level. B. Increased comfort level. C. Reduction of N/V. D. Decreased frequency and intensity of cough.
D. Decreased frequency and intensity of cough. Benzonatate is a locally acting antitussive the effectiveness of which is measured by the degree to which it decreases the intensity and frequency of cough without eliminating the cough reflex. Benzonatate is an oral antitussive drug used in the relief and suppression of cough in patients older than ten years of age. Currently, benzonatate is the only non-narcotic antitussive available as a prescription drug. It works to reduce the activity of cough reflex by desensitizing the tissues of the lungs and pleura involved in the cough reflex.
Which of the following would be an expected outcome for a client recovering from an upper respiratory tract infection? The client will: A. Maintain a fluid intake of 800 ml every 24 hours. B. Experience chills only once a day. C. Cough productively without chest discomfort. D. Experience less nasal obstruction and discharge.
D. Experience less nasal obstruction and discharge. A client recovering from an URI should report decreasing or no nasal discharge and obstruction. Decongestants and combination antihistamine/decongestant medications can limit cough, congestion, and other symptoms in adults. Avoid cough preparations in children. H1-receptor antagonists may offer a modest reduction of rhinorrhea and sneezing during the first 2 days of a cold in adults.
Which of the following diets would be most appropriate for a client with COPD? A. Low fat, low cholesterol B. Bland, soft diet C. Low-Sodium diet D. High calorie, high-protein diet
D. High-calorie, high-protein diet The client should eat high-calorie, high-protein meals to maintain nutritional status and prevent weight loss that results from the increased work of breathing. The client should be encouraged to eat small, frequent meals. Eat 20 to 30 grams of fiber each day, from items such as bread, pasta, nuts, seeds, fruits and vegetables. Eat a good source of protein at least twice a day to help maintain strong respiratory muscles. Good choices include milk, eggs, cheese, meat, fish, poultry, nuts and dried beans or peas.
Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) has been ordered as a nasal decongestant. Which of the following is a possible side effect of this drug? A. Constipation B. Bradycardia C. Diplopia D. Restlessness
D. Restlessness Side effects of pseudoephedrine are experienced primarily in the cardiovascular system and through sympathetic effects on the CNS. The most common CNS effects include restlessness, dizziness, tension, anxiety, insomnia, and weakness. Common cardiovascular side effects include tachycardia, hypertension, palpitations, and arrhythmias.
A client is receiving isoetharine hydrochloride (Bronkosol) via a nebulizer. The nurse monitors the client for which side effect of this medication? A. Constipation B. Diarrhea C. Bradycardia D. Tachycardia
D. Tachycardia Side effects that can occur from a beta 2 agonist include tremors, nausea, nervousness, palpitations, tachycardia, peripheral vasodilation, and dryness of the mouth or throat. Due to the vasodilatory effect of peripheral vasculature and subsequent decrease in cardiac venous return, compensatory mechanisms manifest as tachycardia are relatively common, especially within the first weeks of usage.
Which of the following is the primary reason to teach pursed-lip breathing to clients with emphysema? A. To promote oxygen intake. B. To strengthen the diaphragm. C. To strengthen the intercostal muscles. D. To promote carbon dioxide elimination.
D. To promote carbon dioxide elimination. Pursed lip breathing prolongs exhalation and prevents air trapping in the alveoli, thereby promoting carbon dioxide elimination. By prolonged exhalation and helping the client relax, pursed-lip breathing helps the client learn to control the rate and depth of respiration. Pursed-lip breathing does not promote the intake of oxygen, strengthen the diaphragm, or strengthen intercostal muscles.
The best method of oxygen administration for client with COPD uses: A. Cannula B. Simple Face mask C. Non-rebreather mask D. Venturi mask
D. Venturi mask Venturi delivers controlled oxygen. An air-entrainment (also known as venturi) mask can provide a pre-set oxygen to the patient using jet mixing. As the percent of inspired oxygen increases using such a mask, the air-to-oxygen ratio decreases, causing the maximum concentration of oxygen provided by an air-entrainment mask to be around 40%.
