CompTIA A+

A technician wants to ensure sensitive data is not exfiltrated from the system electronically. Which of the following should be implemented? A SLA B EAP C DLP D DMZ

(DLP)

A hub, or multiport repeater,

, is a networking device used to connect the nodes in a physical star topology network into a logical bus topology. A hub contains multiple ports that you can connect devices to. When data from the transmitting device arrives at a port, it is copied and transmitted to all other ports so that all other nodes receive the data.

Which of the following is a valid IP address assigned through APIPA? A 169.254.1.221 B 172.16.22.1 C 192.168.1.202 D 10.1.202.11

169.254.1.221 Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) configures a unique IP address for a computer on a network when the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) is configured for dynamic addressing and a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server is not available or offline. The key function of APIPA is to allow resources to be available even if the DHCP server is offline. APIPA addresses are always between 169.254.0.1 and 169.254.255.254 and use a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0.Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because these IP addresses are from a private IP address pool.

ANT+

2.4 GHz radio protocol which operates at low speeds over distances up to 30 meters, and is used primarily to manage sensors such as fitness trackers, medical devices, and watches. It is also used in remote controls, home appliances, and industrial equipment. Like Bluetooth, ANT+ can form a personal area network (PAN) around a central control device.

A customer wants to upgrade a PC's internal storage to have more room to store backups, photos, and videos. The new storage should be economical and large enough to avoid expanding again next year. Which of the following best meets these needs? 50 GB NAS B 500 GB SAN C 3 TB HDD D 5 GB SSD

3 TB HDD

An end user reports a printer error that states "Replace filament". Which of the following types of printer is most likely to give this error? Impact B Laser C 3D D Inkjet

3D

Which of the following channels would commonly be used on an 802.11b/g wireless network?

6 802.11b/g wireless network operates at 2.4 GHz frequency. In the 2.4 GHz band, 1, 6, and 11 are the only non-overlapping channels. Selecting one or more of these channels is an important part of setting up your network correctly. There are a total of 14 available channels to 802.11b/g networks, some of which may be restricted depending on the regulatory body for each country. Due to the nature of wireless signals, this leads to some overlap between each channel but there are 3 non-overlapping channels: 1, 6, and 11. While this doesn't mean there is zero interference between these two channels it does make them the best choices and this is the reason most wireless access points will default to one of these channels.

Question 65 :Smith, a technician, needs to configure a wireless network for a company. Which wireless standard can he choose to get 600 Mbps bandwidth over either the 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency spectrum? A 802.11a B 802.11n C 802.11b D 802.11g

802.11n He will select the 802.11n wireless standard that supports a wide variety of speeds, depending on its implementation. It provides speeds up to 600 Mbps and operates at 2.4 or 5 GHz (or both) frequency.Answer A is incorrect. 802.11a standard provides WLAN bandwidth of up to 54 Mbps in the 5 GHz frequency spectrum.Answer C is incorrect. 802.11b is a wireless standard that operates at 2.4 GHz frequency and provides wireless speeds of up to 11 Mbps. It uses direct-sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) for data encoding.Answer D is incorrect. 802.11g is a wireless standard that operates at 2.4 GHz frequency. It is backward compatible with 802.11b and provides data transmission of up to 54 Mbps.

Which of the following wireless connection types utilize MIMO on non-overlapping channels? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A 802.11a B 802.11b C 802.11ac D 802.11n

802.11n and 802.11ac 802.11n and 802.11ac wireless standards utilize Multiple-Input and Multiple-Output (MIMO) on non-overlapping channels. The 802.11ac wireless standard operates at 5 GHz frequency and claims to provide wireless speeds of up to 6.93 Gbps. It uses orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM) modulation and therefore is not backward compatible with 802.11b. The 802.11n wireless standard supports a wide variety of speeds, depending on its implementation. It provides speeds up to 600 Mbps and operates at 2.4 or 5 GHz (or both) frequency.Answer A is incorrect. The 802.11a wireless standard provides a WLAN bandwidth of up to 54 Mbps in the 5 GHz frequency spectrum. It uses a more efficient encoding system, OFDM, rather than frequency-hopping spread spectrum (FHSS) or direct-sequence spread spectrum (DSSS).Answer B is incorrect. The 802.11b wireless standard operates at 2.4 GHz frequency and provides wireless speeds of up to 11 Mbps. It uses DSSS for data encoding.

Digital Visual Interface (DVI)

: The oldest and widely used digital connector for computer displays

Single inline memory module (SIMM

A 32-bit module that has memory chips on one side of the package

Rambus inline memory module (RIMM

A 64-bit module mostly found on older computers which use Rambus technology

Dual inline memory module (DIMM)

A 64-bit module which can have memory chips on one or both sides of the package

High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI)

A D-shaped connector with two rows of pins designed with features useful for home theater equipment Supports all existing high-definition video formats along with enhanced definition format and standard definition formats

Liquid cooler

A device that uses water or some other fluid pumped through tubes to a heat sink away from the CPU

DisplayPort:

A digital connector rectangular in shape with a single corner cut off Designed for high-resolution computer monitors and is not commonly used on home theater equipment

Small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM

A form factor used in laptops and SFF PCs and is built using integrated circuits

Cooling fan

A form of "active cooling" that uses an air cooler to blow air and improve heat dissipation

FireWire

A general purpose serial bus that is more efficient for high speed storage and video connections

Which of the following requirements need to be considered when building a home server PC? Specialized audio cards B A gigabit NIC C RAID array D High-end video card with multi-monitor support

A gigabit NIC RAID array A gigabit network interface card (NIC) to provide the speeds necessary to perform large file transfers over the wireless network Router compatible with the gigabit-speed required by the NIC in the server Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) array to provide redundancy

Thermal paste

A heat conducting pad placed in a thin layer to improve the heat transfer by eliminating air gaps

Heat pipe

A hollow device filled with a special fluid which helps to carry heat away from the processor to the fins

hardware components required in computer-aided design/computer-aided manufacturing (CAD/CAM) workstations? A multicore processor B A high-end video/graphics card with integrated GPU C Maximum RAM D RAID controller

A multicore processor Here are the hardware components required in computer-aided design/computer-aided manufacturing (CAD/CAM) workstations: A multicore processor A high-end video/graphics card with an integrated Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) Maximum RAM supported by the motherboard and CPU A high-quality monitor with a wide color gamut

SATA

A physical interface used to connect internal hard drives, solids state drives, and optical drives to a computer

VR headset

A virtual reality (VR) headset is an enclosed headset that creates an immersive virtual reality environment using a display for each eye along with motion tracking, audio, and possibly other sensory information.

Which of the following is used primarily to manage sensors such as fitness trackers, medical devices, and watches? A Z-Wave B RFID C ANT+ D Bluetooth

ANT+

Which of the following features are used by tablets and smartphones to determine the physical orientation of the devices and detect their pattern of movement?

Accelerometer Gyroscope

Which of the following protocols do most man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks utilize? A SSL B TLS C ARP D IPSec

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

A user's smartphone is unable to send/receive calls or connect to mobile data. All applications on the device are working unless they require data connectivity. Which of the following is most likely causing the problem? A Tethering B Content filtering C Airplane mode D VPN

Airplane mode

Thunderbolt

An Apple technology that combines PCIe and DisplayPort into one serial bus, allowing it to transmit and receive data, video, audio, network data, and power

Heat sink

An aluminum or copper cooling device that conducts heat from the processor to the thin metal fins to radiate it into the air

Which of the following connectors terminates a coaxial cable? RJ-45 B ST C BNC D MT-RJ

BNC

James, a technician, is upgrading the firmware on an older KVM switch. The specifications call for a serial port to connect to the computer on one side, and an Ethernet jack to connect to the switch on the other side. Which of the following connectors does he need for this cable? BNC B MT-RJ C DB-9 D RJ-45

DB-9 RJ-45 DB-9 connector to connect to the computer on one side and the RJ-45 connector to connect to the switch on the other side. DB-9 is a commonly known connector used in Serial Asynchronous Data Transmission that is designed to work with the Electronic Industries Association (EIT)/Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA) 232 serial interface standard. RJ-45 is an 8-pin connection used for Ethernet network adapters. This connector is most commonly connected to the end of the Cat 5 cable, which is connected between a computer network card and a network device such as a network switch.

A server needs a RAM upgrade, and a technician has been tasked to retrieve the RAM from storage and then install it. Which of the following is the best RAM type for the technician to retrieve? SODIMM B SIMM C DDR4 SDRAM D RIMM

DDR4 SDRAM - Double Data Rate Fourth Generation Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory

John, a network administrator, is setting up a new server for the company's network. Which port and service should he open to allow the newly installed server to assign IP addresses for the devices connecting with the network? DHCP, 67 B DHCP, 22 C SSH, 22 D SSH, 67

DHCP, 67 John should open the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) service on the server that uses User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports 67 and 68 for dynamically assigning IP addresses to clients on the network. UDP port number 67 is the destination port of a server, and UDP port number 68 is used by the client. DHCP lets a network administrator supervise and distribute IP addresses from a central point and automatically sends a new IP address when a computer is plugged into a different place in the network.Answers B, C, and D are incorrect. Secure shell (SSH) is a remote access protocol that allows stronger authentication and encrypted transmission. It also allows other features, such as file transfers. It is used to enable a user or application to log on to another computer over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It uses port 22 as the default port.

Near field communication (NFC)

Designed for only two devices to temporarily communicate over short distances and only one of them even needs to be powered Uses encryption when transferring sensitive data Near field communication (NFC) is a wireless communication method that enables wireless devices to establish radio communications by touching them together or by bringing them into close proximity with each other, typically within 10 cm or less.

PCI slot

Designed to match notches in the card so that a card is inserted in the correct slot Used for input/output devices and is of a standard length

ExpressCard

Developed to replace PC Card (PCMCIA) and is used in laptop computers Used to provide additional connection ports for a computer

You want to print a large file on both the front and back sides of the paper. Which of the following settings will you change in the printer configuration option? Collate B Duplex C Orientation D Quality

Duplex

A technician has been informed that multiple users are receiving duplicate IP address warnings on their workstations, and they are unable to browse the Internet. Which of the following server types should the technician log in to in order to resolve the problem? A Web server Application server C DHCP server D Database server

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

An end-user device requires a specific IP address every time it connects to the corporate network. However, the corporate policy does not allow the use of static IP addresses. Which of the following will allow the request to be fulfilled without breaking the corporate policy? High availability B Firewall C DHCP reservation D Load balancer

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

Ann, a technician, wants to automatically assign IP addresses to client stations logging on to a TCP/IP network so that she need not manually assign IP addresses. Which of the following server roles should she use? Proxy B DNS C File D DHCP

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

In which of the following stages of the laser printing process does the laser project the image on the photosensitive drum? Cleaning B Charging C Exposing D Developing

Exposing

ipconfig /flushdns

command deletes the DNS cache. This command is useful when the current cache has incorrect entries.

Question 68 :A company has two geographically separate locations that need to connect using a VPN. Which of the following devices must be specifically configured to allow VPN traffic into the network?

Firewall

A technician has replaced a faulty 500 GB HDD with a 1 TB HDD in a laptop. However, after the replacement, the laptop is still detecting the old 500 GB HDD. What will the technician do to resolve this problem? Flash the BIOS. B Patch the operating system. C Replace the RAM. D Replace the CMOS battery.

Flash the BIOS.

Which of the following would be the best to keep the data on a laptop safe if the laptop is lost or stolen? Network-based firewall B Anti-malware software C Full disk encryption D Port scanner

Full disk encryption

The technician will install the SSD and dual monitors to meet the customer's specifications. A video editing workstation is a powerful computer setup that supports the editing of video recordings. The hardware and software requirements for video editing workstation includes:

High-end video card with multi-monitor support Two or more monitors Large hard drive or SSD with high read/write performance

Which custom configuration needs to support media streaming, file sharing, and print sharing? Thin client B Home server PC C Gaming PC D Thick client

Home server PC

A system administrator is configuring a server to host several virtual machines. The administrator configures the server and is ready to begin provisioning the virtual machines. Which of the following features should the administrator utilize to complete the task?

Hypervisor

Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)

Internet connection transmits digital signals over existing phone lines. It has become a popular way to connect small businesses and households to the Internet because it is affordable and provides a relatively high download speed.

expansion slot

It is a hardware interface that enables the communication between the PC and expansion devices. It is a slot located on the motherboard or riser card. It is supported by a bundle of electronic circuitry on the motherboard.

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)

It provides better security to protect against bootkit attacks. It allows boot services as well as runtime services. It supports drives larger than 2.2 terabytes. It uses a boot manager instead of a boot sector. It speeds up the startup process, including resuming from hibernation mode.

Which of the following provides a single sign-on solution for users and also provides protection for login credentials? A Kerberos B Zigbee C Honeypot D SSL

Kerberos provides a single sign-on (SSO)

Which of the following is a directory service protocol that defines how a client can access information and perform operations? A TACACS+ B RADIUS C LDAP D Kerberos

LDAP The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a directory service protocol that defines how a client can access information, perform operations, and share directory data on a directory server. It was designed for use specifically over Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) networks and on the Internet in particular. In most implementations, LDAP relies on the Domain Name System (DNS) service.Answer A is incorrect. Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+) is an authentication protocol that provides centralized authentication and authorization services for remote users. Answer B is incorrect. Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is a protocol that enables a server to provide standardized and centralized authentication for remote users.Answer D is incorrect. Kerberos is an authentication service that is based on a time-sensitive ticket-granting system. It can be used to manage access control to several services by using one centralized authentication server.

Mini-ATX

Measures 11.2 inches by 8.2 inches

Nano-ITX

Measures 4.7 inches square and only supports mini-PCIe and laptop RAM slots

Mini-ITX

Measures 6.7 inches square and has a single expansion slot

Flex-ATX

Measures 9 inches by 7.5 inches

Micro-ATX

Measures 9.6 inches square or smaller

Which of the following peripheral types is most likely to be used to input actions into a PC?Webcam B Scanner C Mouse D KVM switch

Mouse

Under which of the following layers of the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) model do ATM cells operate? A Internet B Transport C Network Interface D Application

Network Interface layer

A feature that allows users to store files in cloud-based when necessary, but can be removed when space is freed up, is known as: A measured service. B broad network access. C on-demand. D resource pooling.

On-demand

A company executive wants to view company training videos from a DVD. Which of the following components would he use to accomplish this task? Tape drive B Solid state drive C Optical drive D Hard disk drive

Optical drive

Which of the following is a series of system checks performed during the initial bootup of a computer system? POST B MBR C Hyper-threading D SFC

POST

You want to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an application. Which of the following cloud services will you use? A NaaS B IDaaS C PaaS D DaaS

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

In which physical component is the data stored in a magnetic hard disk drive? Track B Platter C Sector D Cluster

Platter

To configure two drives for maximum performance, which of the following RAID levels should be used? RAID 1 B RAID 5 C RAID 0 D RAID 10

RAID 0

You have a system with two physical drives in which you want to implement Redundant Arrays of Independent Disks (RAID) with striping. Which of the following RAID levels will you use to accomplish the task? RAID 0 B RAID 10 C RAID 1 D RAID 5

RAID 0

A technician is talking to end users about the specifications for an upgraded application server. The users of the application report that there cannot be any unscheduled downtime or data loss. Additionally, they would like the performance of the application to improve over the previous server in any way possible. The previous running server was RAID 5. Which of the following RAID solutions should be implemented according to this scenario? RAID 0 B RAID 2 C RAID 10 D RAID 3

RAID 10

ipconfig /all

command displays additional information for each interface, including name, physical address, DNS, and DHCP settings.

Joe, a technician, wants to connect his new PC to Ethernet using the CAT6 cable. Which of the following connectors will he use when terminating the cable? BNC B RJ-45 C MT-RJ D ST

RJ-45

Which of the following cloud computing concepts allows the client to rapidly scale resources outward and inward with demand? A On-demand B Metered C Rapid elasticity D Resource pooling

Rapid elasticity

Which of the following enables a server to provide standardized and centralized authentication for remote users? This task contains the radio buttons and checkboxes for options. The shortcut keys to perform this task are A to H and alt+1 to alt+9. A SSL B SMTP C RADIUS D VoIP

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) slot

Resides on the motherboard of a computer and is brown in color Used for connecting a video card to a computer

A customer asks a technician to help set up a specialized computing system for video editing. Which of the following should the technician install on the workstation to best meet the customer's specifications?

SSD Dual monitors

A customer asks a technician to help set up a specialized computing system for video editing. Which of the following should the technician install on the workstation to best meet the customer's specifications? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Hypervisor B TV tuner card C SSD D Dual monitors

SSD Dual monitors

Software as a Service (SaaS) Solution

SaaS is subscription-based access to applications or databases, sometimes known as on-demand software. It eliminates the need to install software on user devices, and it can be helpful for mobile or transient workforces. Examples of SaaS include Google Apps suite, Zoho suite, and Microsoft Office Web Apps.

Ann, a user, has requested assistance with choosing the appropriate Internet connectivity for her home. Her home is in a rural area and has no connectivity to existing infrastructure. Which of the following Internet connection methods should most likely be used? A Fiber B DSL C Satellite D Cable

Satellite

Which of the following protocols is used for file sharing between MAC OS and Windows OS workstations on a LAN? A SSH B SMB C RDP D Telnet

Server Message Block (SMB)

An end user has signed up to use a web-based calendar application. Which of the following solutions has the user purchased? A DaaS B PaaS C SaaS D NaaS

Software as a Service (SaaS)

An end user has signed up to use a web-based calendar application. Which of the following solutions has the user purchased? A IaaS B CaaS C SaaS D DaaS

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Which motherboard component is most likely having an issue if the slower onboard peripherals like USB and LAN ports are not functioning properly? Northbridge B Southbridge C CMOS battery D BIOS

Southbridge

the requirements that need to be considered when building an audio/video editing workstation

Specialized audio card High-end video card with multi-monitor support Two or more monitors Large hard drive or SSD with high read/write performance

Jennifer, a network technician, is installing a new network switch and is looking for an appropriate fiber optic patch cable. The fiber optic patch panel uses a twist-style connector. Which of the following connector types should the fiber patch cable have? A LC B SC C ST D MTRJ

Straight Tip (ST

accelerometers and gyroscopes

Tablets and smartphones use accelerometers and gyroscopes to determine the physical orientation of the devices and detect their pattern of movement. They enable automatic screen rotation, exercise step counters, and other app features that rely on the movement of the device itself.

In which of the following mobile technologies are the devices connected via a cable for sharing the Internet connection? IR B Tethering C NFC D Bluetooth

Tethering

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)

The extensible features of the UEFI allow for the support of a vast array of systems and platforms by allowing the UEFI access to system resources for storage of additional modules that can be added at any time

Bluetooth

The most common standard for wireless devices that uses authentication and encryption to secure the connection between the devices

A junior network technician is setting up a new email server on the company network. Which of the following default ports should the technician ensure is open on the firewall so the new email server can relay email? A 53 B 22 C 25 D 3389

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 25 The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send email from clients to servers, and for transferring email between servers. It is never used by clients to receive email from servers. SMTP typically uses Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 25.Answer A is incorrect. Domain Name System (DNS) is the primary name resolution service on the Internet. It uses port 53 as the default port.Answer B is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It uses port 22 and runs on TCP.Answer D is incorrect. The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol created by Microsoft for connecting to and managing devices that are not necessarily located at the same place as the administrator. It uses port 3389, runs on TCP, and works on the Application layer (layer 7) of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.

According to the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) model, at which of the following layers the application data is broken up into the segments or datagrams sent over the network?' Layer 1 B Layer 2 C Layer 3 D Layer 4

Transport Layer, Layer 3 The Transport Layer, Layer 3, manages end-to-end communication between hosts, and breaks up application data into the segments or datagrams sent over the network.Answer A is incorrect. The Network Interface layer, Layer 1, defines how nodes communicate on the local network and adapter level; it corresponds to the network interface card (NIC) on any given node.Answer B is incorrect. The Internet layer, Layer 2, controls the routing of packets across multiple logical networks.Answer D is incorrect. The Application layer, Layer 4, allows user level applications to access the other layers.

Which of the following acronyms represents the extensible technology that supersedes and improves upon the role that the BIOS plays in traditional systems? POST B UEFI C NOS D SR-IOV

UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface)

Secure Shell (SSH)

UNIX/Linux-based protocol that enables a user or application to log on to another computer over a network, execute commands, and manage files. a protocol that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It creates a shell or session with a remote system, offers strong authentication methods, and ensures that communications are secure over insecure channels.

Which of the following USB connector standards is designed for USB peripherals, such as printer, upstream port on a hub, or other larger peripheral devices? USB Mini-B B USB Micro-A C USB Type-B D USB Type-A

USB Type-B

Which of the following charging and data ports has a non-directional connector? USB Micro-B B USB Micro-A C USB Type-C D USB Type-A

USB Type-C

USB Mini-B

USB peripheral devices, but in a smaller form factor. It is a small, five-pin connector. It is two-thirds the width of an A-style connector. USB mini B is used for devices such as digital cameras, MP3 players, and some cell phones.

Which of the following combines firewall, IPS, and antivirus into one central management point? This task contains the radio buttons and checkboxes for options. The shortcut keys to perform this task are A to H and alt+1 to alt+9. A DMZ B UTM C IDS D NAS

Unified threat management (UTM)

Mini-PCI slot

Used to add an internal card to a laptop computer Have a dimension of 59.6 × 50.95 mm

Infrared (IR)

Used to be a common communication method for portable computing, wireless printers, and digital cameras Uses a focused ray of light in a modulated signal to transmit digital data

ipconfig /release

command releases the current IPv4 address for all interfaces or for a single specified interface.

You want to connect to resources from an offsite location while ensuring the traffic is secured. Which of the following will you use to gain access to the secure network? SMTP B VPN C DHCP D NAT

VPN

Maria, a network administrator, gets a call regarding intermittent network outages across the country. Which of the following should be used to connect to the network so the administrator can troubleshoot this issue from home? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A SMTP B FTP C VPN D SSH

VPN and SSH Maria should use the VPN and SSH to connect to the network to troubleshoot this issue from home. Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It creates a shell or session with a remote system, offers strong authentication methods, and ensures that communications are secure over insecure channels. A virtual private network (VPN) is a private network configured by tunneling through a public network, such as the Internet. It provides secure connections between endpoints, such as routers, clients, or servers, by using tunneling to encapsulate and encrypt data.Answer A is incorrect. The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send email from clients to servers, and for transferring email between servers. It is never used by clients to receive email from servers. Answer B is incorrect. The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) that enables the transfer of files between a user's workstation and a remote host.

Andrew, a technician, is tasked to provide outside access to a server within the company network so that sensitive documents can be worked on from home. Which of the following will help him to accomplish the task? DHCP B VPN C PAT D NAS

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

Which of the following is a technology through which one or more simulated computers run within a physical computer? A Virtual private network B Virtual local area network C Virtualization D Demilitarized zone

Virtualization

You are determining the specifications for a desktop computer that will be used at trade shows all over the world. The computer will have the maximum amount of RAM. The CPU, GPU, and storage will be typical of a business workstation. Which of the following system parameters is the most important for you to consider when choosing a power supply unit (PSU)? Efficiency rating B 12V rail amperage C Wattage D Number of SATA connectors

Wattage

Which of the following devices functions by converting light energy into digital data?Inverter B Digitizer C Webcam D Microphone

Webcam

System file checker (SFC)

Windows utility that scans systems for file corruptions on startup

Jennifer, a user, wants to use a laptop outside the house and still remain connected to the Internet. Which of the following would be the best choice for her to accomplish this task? Riser card B Daughter board C Wireless card D TV tuner card

Wireless card

ipconfig /renew

command renews the current IPv4 or IPv6 address for all interfaces or for a single specified interface. It is useful for checking or repairing DHCP settings.

Wattage

You should mainly consider wattage when choosing a power supply. Desktop PSUs typically range from 200 to 1600 watts, but most are under 1000W. A good rule of thumb for determining the wattage you need is to calculate the combined wattage required by all the components in your system, then double that number. Generally, more complex systems require more power to run. A desktop with a custom liquid cooling loop, a high-end motherboard, and dual GPUs will need a higher wattage computer power supply than a simpler system.

Which is a specification for a suite of high-level communication protocols used to create personal area networks with small and low-power digital radios? Kerberos B Zigbee C Honeypot D Rootkit

Zigbee

Mechanical Transfer Registered Jack (MT-RJ)

a Fiber Jack connector, is a compact snap-to-lock connector used with multimode fiber. It is easy to use and similar in size to the RJ-45 connector.

A home theater PC (HTPC)

a TV tuner card. HTPC is a computer system dedicated and configured to store and stream digital movies, either from the local hard drive or online.

Subscriber Connector or Standard Connector (SC)

a box-shaped connector that snaps into a receptacle. It is often used in a duplex configuration where two fibers are terminated into two SC connectors that are molded together.

Power-On Self-Test (POST)

a built-in diagnostic program that is run every time a server starts up. It checks hardware to ensure that everything is present and functioning properly.

thick client

a business computer that performs most or all computing functions on its own and does not necessarily rely on the server. It is also referred to as a fat client

Rapid elasticity

a cloud computing feature that allows the client to rapidly scale resources outward and inward with demand. The users can request additional resources, and the cloud provider allocates additional resources seamlessly to the end user. This can often be done dynamically without human interaction. is a cloud computing feature through which users can request additional resources, and the provider allocates additional resources seamlessly to the end user.

Broad network access

a cloud computing feature that refers to resources hosted in a private cloud network (operated within a company's firewall) that are available for access from a wide range of devices, such as tablets, PCs, Macs, and smartphones. is a cloud computing feature in which resources are available through the network in a standard format that allows and promotes use from a wide variety of client platforms, often including any sort of computer or mobile device.

Measured service

a cloud computing feature that refers to the cloud provider's ability to monitor and meter the customer's use of resources. This supports the customer's ability to dynamically make changes to the resources they receive. Measured service is a cloud computing feature that refers to the cloud provider's ability to monitor and meter the customer's use of resources. This supports the customer's ability to dynamically make changes to the resources they receive. is a cloud computing feature that refers to the cloud provider's ability to monitor and meter the customer's use of resources.

On-demand self-service

a cloud computing feature through which users can access additional storage, processing, and capabilities automatically, without requiring intervention from the cloud provider. cloud computing feature through which users can access additional storage, processing, and capabilities automatically, without requiring intervention from the service provider. It enables end users to request and access cloud resources as they are needed. This type of cloud service is useful for project-based needs, giving the project members access to the cloud services for the duration of the project, and then releasing the cloud services back to the hosting provider when the project is finished. This way, the organization is only paying for the services for the duration of the project.

hybrid cloud

a cloud computing method that is a combination of two or more clouds that remain distinct but are bound together, offering the benefits of multiple deployment models. It uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party public cloud services with orchestration between the two platforms.

public cloud

a cloud computing method that provides its services over a network that is open for public use. It is a type of computing in which a service provider makes resources available to the public via the Internet.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and run their own data center. It is an arrangement in which, rather than purchasing equipment and running your own data center, you rent those resources as an outsourced service.

private cloud

a cloud infrastructure operated solely for a single organization. It can be managed internally or by a third party, and hosted either internally or externally.

Bayonet-Neill-Concelman (BNC)

a coaxial connector type used to terminate a coaxial cable. It is usually used with the RG58/U cable. connector is used with the coaxial cable to carry radio frequencies to and from devices. It can be used to connect radio equipment, aviation electronics, and to carry video signals.

rootkit

a code, usually malicious, that is intended to take full or partial control of a system at the lowest levels.

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

a communication protocol that enables sending email from a client to a server or between servers.

Media Termination Recommended Jack (MT-RJ)

a compact snap-to-lock connector used with multimode fiber.

gaming PC

a computer equipped with powerful graphics capabilities, fast processing capabilities, and a large amount of memory

personal area network (PAN)

a computer network for interconnecting devices centered on an individual person's workspace. It provides data transmission among devices such as computers, smartphones, tablets, and personal digital assistants.

Full disk encryption

a cryptographic method that applies encryption to the entire hard drive including data, files, the operating system, and software programs. This encryption places an exterior guard on the internal contents of the device. Without the proper authentication key, even if the hard drive is removed and placed in another machine, the data remains inaccessible. It can be installed on a computing device at the time of manufacturing or it can be added later on by installing a special software driver.

hard disk drive (HDD) or a hard drive

a data storage device that uses magnetic recording to store and retrieve digital information. One of the primary advantages of a hard disk drive is that it is more affordable than SSD in terms of dollars per GB. The HDDs have higher storage capacity than SSDs and HDDs are easier to buy in most stores.

microphone

a device that converts sound waves into varying electrical signals. The result can be recorded, transmitted, or altered in a variety of ways, including amplification.

proxy server

a device that isolates internal networks from the servers by functioning on behalf of the client when requesting service and thus masking the true origin of the request to the resource server.

digitizer

a device that takes input from a stylus pen, such as drawings or writing, and turns it into digital form on a computer.

gateway

a device, software, or system that has the ability to convert data between incompatible systems or devices.

smart camera

a digital camera with built-in networking capabilities. While you can still save images to a memory card for physical transfer, you can also send them directly from the camera to other devices, computers, and social media sites like Facebook or Instagram.

Geotracking

a feature in cellular phones that enables cell phone companies and government agencies to use the ID or MAC address to pinpoint where a phone is at any given time.

cluster

a fixed number of contiguous sectors.

USB Type-A

a flat, rectangular connector with four pins. It is a downstream connector means it connects to the USB port on the host or hub. The Type-A connector transmits both power and data. It is primarily used on host controllers in computers and hubs.

Hyper-threading

a form of microprocessor parallelization where each physical processor is treated as two virtual processors. It is a feature of certain Intel chips that makes one physical CPU appear as two logical CPUs.

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

a form of virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) in which the VDI is outsourced and handled by a third party. It is a virtual PC desktop that is hosted in the cloud and accessed remotely by thin clients

Infrared (IR)transmission

a form of wireless transmission in which signals are sent via pulses of infrared light. In this, devices use haptic confirmation for sharing data wirelessly.

network-based firewall

a hardware/software combination that is used for general network filtering based on firewall rules and allows only authorized traffic to pass through it.

thermal printer

a heating element to create the image on the paper with dye, ink from ribbons, or directly with pins while the feed assembly moves the media through the printer.

A service level agreement (SLA)

a legally binding service contract between a service provider and the end-user. This document specifies the service levels for support, documents any penalties for the service level not being met by the provider, and describes disaster recovery plans.

A thin client

a machine that divests itself of all or most local storage and varying levels of RAM and processing power without necessarily giving up all ability to process instructions and data.

Content filtering

a method of blocking certain web content. It can be based on location, time, and user privileges. With this option, administrators have the flexibility to whitelist and blacklist websites and applications so that employees are limited to browsing trusted websites.

Fiber Internet connection

a method used to connect devices to the Internet using fiber optic cable. Fiber is mostly used in smaller areas to connect computing devices to a router. It provides a fast data exchange rate over distances of several kilometers.

modem

a network device that modulates and demodulates digital data to an analog signal that can be sent over a telephone line. A modem is a device that modulates and demodulates digital data to an analog signal that can be sent over a telephone line.

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

a network service that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) configuration information. is a network service that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) configuration information on network systems that are configured as DHCP clients.

wide area network (WAN)

a network that spans a large area, often across multiple geographical locations. WANs typically connect multiple LANs and other networks using long-range transmission media.

router

a networking device that connects multiple networks. It works a lot like a bridge or switch, but since it operates on the Internet layer it tracks logical addresses and subnets.

track

a physical division of data in a disk drive.

Collate

a printer configuration option, which refers to the gathering and arranging of printing components into a pre-determined sequence. It is used only when the number of copies is greater than 1. If collate is enabled the printer will print a complete copy of the document before the first page of the next copy is printed, and if collate is disabled the printer will print each page by the number of copies specified before printing the next page.

laser printer

a printer that uses a laser beam to project a document onto an electrically charged drum; toner adheres to the charged image and is transferred onto the paper as the paper moves through the mechanism at the same speed at which the drum rotates

laser printer

a printer that uses a laser beam to project a document onto an electrically charged drum; toner adheres to the charged image and is transferred onto the paper as the paper moves through the mechanism at the same speed the drum rotates.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

a private communication network transmitted across a public network connection, such as the Internet. With a VPN, a company can extend a virtual local area network (LAN) segment to employees working from home or other remote locations by transmitting data securely across the Internet. It is a secured network connection made over an insecure network. to provide outside access to a server within the company network so that sensitive documents can be worked on from home. It is a private network configured by tunneling through a public network, such as the Internet. It provides secure connections between endpoints, such as routers, clients, or servers, by using tunneling to encapsulate and encrypt data. (VPN) is a private network configured by tunneling through a public network, such as the Internet. It provides secure connections between endpoints, such as routers, clients, or servers, by using tunneling to encapsulate and encrypt data.

virtual private network (VPN)

a private network configured by tunneling through a public network, such as the Internet. It provides secure connections between endpoints, such as routers, clients, or servers, by using tunneling to encapsulate and encrypt data.

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

a proprietary protocol created by Microsoft for connecting to and managing computers that are not necessarily located at the same place as the administrator.

Z-Wave

a proprietary wireless standard that is commonly used for interoperable monitoring and remote control of home automation systems such as lighting control, thermostats, household appliances, and security systems.

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

a protocol that enables a server to provide standardized and centralized authentication for remote users.

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

a protocol used for mapping an Internet Protocol (IP) address to a physical machine address, such as a MAC address. The main problem with ARP is its lack of an authentication protocol. There is a possibility of the attacker sending spoofed or fake ARP messages to the Local Area Network (LAN) and mapping the attacking MAC address to the target host's IP address. As a result, the attacker can intercept all the traffic that was originally meant for the victim.

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

a security protocol that combines digital certificates for authentication with public key data encryption.

local area network (LAN)

a self-contained network that spans a small area, such as a single building, floor, or room. In a LAN, all nodes and segments are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless technologies. It does not require a leased telecommunication system to function. Due to their smaller size and fewer number of nodes, LANs provide faster data transfers than other network types. Different technologies can be implemented on a LAN depending on the configuration needs and functionality of the network.

power-on self-test (POST)

a series of system checks performed by the system BIOS and other high-end components. It runs every time a system starts up. It checks hardware to ensure that everything is present and functioning properly. The POST routine verifies the integrity of the BIOS itself. It also verifies and confirms the size of primary memory. During POST, the BIOS also analyzes and catalogs other forms of hardware, such as buses and boot devices.

authentication server

a server or server role that determines whether or not access credentials supplied by a user should enable them to access resources.

Data loss prevention, or DLP,

a set of technologies, products, and techniques that are designed to stop sensitive information from going outside an organization. It protects your organization's confidential and critical data.

Airplane mode

a setting on cell phones, smartphones, and other mobile devices that prevents the device from sending or receiving calls and text messages. Airplane mode is also known as offline mode, standalone mode, and flight mode. This mode will prevent all mobile, Wi-Fi, and Bluetooth connectivity when enabled. You may be able to turn Wi-Fi and Bluetooth back on after takeoff without disabling airplane mode entirely.

inverter

a small circuit board installed behind the liquid-crystal display (LCD) panel that takes low-voltage DC power and converts (inverts) it into high-voltage AC power for the backlight.

smart watch

a small mobile device designed to be worn on the wrist like a watch. It can be used on its own or paired with a smartphone. Smart watches offer similar functionality as a smartphone, such as making and receiving phone calls, checking caller ID, text and video messaging, Internet access, running a variety of downloadable mobile applications, fitness monitoring, Global Positioning System (GPS), and more.

Master Boot Record (MBR)

a small program that is read into memory and is executed after the BIOS bootup. The computer BIOS locates the boot device, and then loads and runs the Master Boot Record. The MBR scans the partition table to locate the active partition, loads the boot sector on the active partition into memory, and then executes it.

USB Micro-A

a small rectangular connector with a white-colored receptacle and 5 pins. It is used with USB on-the-go devices such as cellphones, Global Positioning System (GPS) units, Personal Digital Assistants (PDAs), and digital cameras.

emilitarized zone (DMZ)

a small section of a private network located between two firewalls and made available for public access.

demilitarized zone (DMZ)

a small section of a private network that is located between two firewalls and made available for public acess

Anti-malware software

a software program that is used to prevent, detect, and remove malicious software.

Zigbee

a specification for a suite of high-level communication protocols using small and low-power digital radios. a suite of high-level communication protocols used to create personal area networks with small and low-power digital radios. It is an open standard based on the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 802.15.4 personal area network (PAN) standards, maintained by the ZigBee Alliance. It can use a variety of ISM bands, with 2.4 GHz and 915 MHz bands being the most common.

USB Type-B

a square connector with slightly beveled corners. It is designed for USB peripherals, such as printer, upstream port on a hub, or other larger peripheral devices. This connector is upstream only - meaning it connects to the peripheral device and not the host. Type-B cables typically come with a Type-A connector on the downstream end.

tape drive

a storage device that stores data magnetically on a tape that is enclosed in a removable tape cartridge

Telecommunications Network (Telnet)

a terminal emulation protocol that enables users at one site to simulate a session on a remote host as if the terminal were directly attached.

dot-matrix printer

a type of impact printer that uses a set of pins to strike the ribbon. Dot-matrix printers create printed characters by using various combinations of dots.

impact printer

a type of printer that strikes a component directly against the ink ribbon to create characters on impact paper. The strike can be made with a group of pins or with a preformed type character.

port scanner

a type of software that searches a network host or a range of IP addresses for open Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports.

Voice over IP (VoIP)

a voice over data implementation in which voice signals are transmitted over IP networks.

fitness monitor

a wearable device designed to monitor and track fitness-related information, such as distance moved, number of steps, calorie consumption, heart rate, and quality of sleep.

Near field communication (NFC)

a wireless communication method that enables wireless devices to establish radio communications by touching them together or by bringing them into close proximity with each other, typically within 10 cm or less.

Bluetooth

a wireless radio technology that facilitates short-range (usually less than 30 feet) wireless communication between devices such as personal computers, laptops, mobile phones, wireless headsets, and gaming consoles, thus creating a wireless personal area network. Lesson is a wireless technology that facilitates short-range wireless communication between devices. In this, devices are paired using a code for sharing data wirelessly.

Radio frequency identification (RFID)

a wireless technology that is most commonly used for inventory tracking, identification badges, and even implanted chips to identify pets in case they're lost.

database server provides

access to databases, including those for customer information, provided by database software such as Oracle or SQL Server.

web server provides

access to personal, corporate, or education website content.

application server provides

access to shared applications, including data warehousing, data processing, and other applications shared among multiple users.

Double Data Rate Fourth Generation Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR4 SDRAM)

achieve higher speed and efficiency due to increased transfer rates and decreased voltage. DDR4 chips are expected to support transfer rates between 2133 MT/s (million transfers per second) and 3200 MT/s. This memory also uses less power, 1.2 Volts compared to 1.65 Volts of DDR3 chips.

load balancer

acts as a reverse proxy and distributes network or application traffic across multiple servers.

riser card

allows adding expansion cards to a system board while saving space within the system case. It allows the cards to stack horizontally rather than vertically within the system.

wireless or cellular card

allows remote communications, such as Internet over the mobile phone or wireless data lines such as Wi-Fi, 3G, or 4G Internet that have been provided by a cellular service provider.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

allows the use of a private IP address network for internal use and mapping it to a single public IP address connected to the Internet.

Application layer

allows user level applications to access the other layers. The protocols in this layer include Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (MIME), Transport Layer Security (TLS), Secure Sockets Layer (SSL), File Transfer Protocol (FTP), Domain Name System (DNS), Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

Network Interface layer

also known as the Network Access layer or Link layer, defines how nodes communicate on the local network and adapter level. It combines the Physical and Data Link layer functions into a single layer. Network Interface protocols can include Ethernet and Wi-Fi used in local area networks (LANs), or asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) and Frame Relay used in WANs. ATM is a dedicated-connection switching technology that organizes digital data into 53-byte cell units and transmits them over a physical medium using digital signal technology.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

an authentication framework allowing point-to-point connections.

Identity as a Service (IDaaS)

an authentication infrastructure that provides single sign-on capabilities for the cloud. It is an approach to digital identity management in which an organization or individual performs an electronic transaction that requires identity data managed by a service provider.

Kerberos

an authentication service that is based on a time-sensitive ticket-granting system. It can be used to manage access control to several services by using one centralized authentication server.

RJ-45 connector

an eight-pin connector used by twisted pair cables in networking.

Optical drive

an internal or external disc drive that reads data to and writes data from an optical disc using laser beaming technology. Optical drives include CD, DVD, and Blu-ray drives. Some optical drives provide only read capabilities, while others enable users to write, or burn, data to optical discs.

Communications as a Service (CaaS)

an outsourced enterprise communications solution that can be leased from a single vendor. It includes hosted voice, video conferencing, instant messaging, e-mail, collaboration, and all other communication services that are hosted in the cloud.

Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS)

battery provides power to the CMOS chip to ensure that the CMOS settings are not lost when the computer is switched off.

A technician wants to block remote logins to a server. Which of the following ports should be blocked? A 21 B 80 C 23 D 443

block port 23 The technician will block port 23 to block remote logins to a server. Telnet is a remote access protocol which allows a command line terminal interface with a remote system. Its features are very basic and it isn't very secure, so it's not nearly as popular as it once was. It is used to log into remote systems via a virtual text terminal interface. It uses port 23 as the default port.Answer A is incorrect. The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) that enables the transfer of files between a user's workstation and a remote host. FTP works on two TCP channels: TCP port 20 for data transfer and TCP port 21 for control commands.Answer B is incorrect. The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is used to retrieve data from web servers. It uses port 80 as the default port.Answer D is incorrect. The Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is used for secure web pages and sites which includes encryption services. It uses port 443 as the default port.

Which of the following cables contains a center conductor made of copper surrounded by a plastic jacket with a braided shield over it? Coaxial B Crossover C Fiber-optic D Twisted-pair

coaxial cable

solid state hybrid drive (SSHD)

combines the best features of solid state and magnetic data storage by combining the traditional rotating platters of a magnetic HDD and a small amount of high-speed flash memory on a single drive.

Cable Internet

connection uses a cable television connection and a specialized interface device known as a cable modem to provide high-speed Internet access to homes and small businesses.

Mechanical Transfer Registered Jack (MT-RJ)

connector is a compact snap-to-lock connector used with the multimode fiber. It is easy to use and similar in size to the RJ-45 connector.

Straight Tip (ST)

connector is similar in appearance to BNC connectors and is used to connect multimode fibers. It has a straight, ceramic center pin and bayonet lug lockdown. It is often used in network patch panels. ST connectors are perhaps the most popular types of fiber connectors.

Straight Tip (ST)

connector which is similar in appearance to BNC connectors and is used to connect multimode fibers. The connector stays in place with the help of a "twist-on/twist-off" bayonet-style lock mechanism. This connector is most often used in network patch panels. ST connectors are among the most popular types of fiber connectors.

RAID 3

consists of byte-level striping and it stripes the data onto multiple disks. The parity bit is generated for each disk section and is stored on a different dedicated disk. This RAID level overcomes the single disk failure.

twisted-pair cable

consists of multiple individually insulated wires twisted together in pairs. Sometimes a metallic shield is placed around them; hence, it is called as Shielded Twisted-Pair (STP). A cable without outer shielding is called Unshielded Twisted-Pair (UTP).

coaxial cable

contains a center conductor made of copper surrounded by a plastic jacket with a braided shield over it. It includes one physical channel that carries the signal surrounded (after a layer of insulation) by another concentric physical channel, both running along the same axis.

Internet layer

controls the routing of packets across multiple logical networks. The protocols in this layer include the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP), Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP), and Internet Protocol (IP).

Northbridge

controls the system memory and the AGP video ports, and it may also control cache memory. It is closer to the processor and communicates directly with it using a 64-bit front-side bus.

hypervisor, or virtual machine manager

core virtualization software that enables multiple virtual computers to run on a single physical host. A PC on which a hypervisor is running one or more virtual machines is called a host machine and each virtual machine is called a guest machine.

metropolitan area network (MAN)

covers an area equivalent to a city or a municipality. It is similar to a local area network (LAN) but spans an entire city.

developing stage

creates a mirror image of what is to be printed in toner on the drum.

Jennifer, a user, has installed a new monitor on an existing system. She calls a support technician and reports that everything on the new display is fuzzy. Which of the following most probably needs to be done to fix this issue? A The old graphics card does not support the new monitor. B The new monitor cable needs to have aluminum cores installed. C The display resolution needs to match the native resolution. D The new monitor requires updated drivers to be installed.

display resolution needs to match the native resolution The display resolution needs to match the native resolution in the given scenario. Native resolution is the resolution that gives the best image quality on a Liquid Crystal Display (LCD). LCD displays are unable to perform the calculations to resize an image from one resolution to another without affecting image quality. This is especially noticeable in resolutions that aren't multiples of one another. For example, if the video card sends an image signal in 1366 × 768 resolution and the native resolution of the LCD is 1920 × 1080, there isn't a one-to-one mapping of pixels. You'll notice the image distorts and quality suffers. Depending on the display, the quality difference might be minor or major. The other way around is even worse; displaying a 1920 x 1080 image on a 1366 x 768 display will either be impossible, or result in downscaling that causes fine details of the image to be lost or blurry.

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

enables a server to provide standardized and centralized authentication for remote users. It is a mechanism that allows authentication of dial-in and other network connections. It is commonly used by Internet service providers (ISPs) and in the implementation of virtual private networks (VPNs).

The single root input/output virtualization (SR-IOV)

feature allows a device, such as a network adapter, to separate access to its resources among various PCIe hardware functions.

Which of the following devices should a network administrator configure on the outermost part of the network to block unsolicited traffic? Hub B Switch C Firewall D Modem

firewall

Which of the following networking devices is used to implement network security policies for an environment? Switch B Repeater C Firewall D Gateway

firewall

solid state drive (SSD)

flash technology to retain data in special types of memory instead of on disks or tape. It uses non-volatile memory to emulate mechanical storage devices. If you are measuring the cost per GB of space, the SSD is a lot more expensive than HDD.

crossover cable

has eight wires inside the cable shield and two RJ-45 connectors at each end. In the crossover cable, two sets of wires are crossed over. Pin 1 at one end of the cable is connected to Pin 3 at the other end and Pin 2 is connected to Pin 7.

Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

has the monitoring capability of an IDS, but it can also actively work to block detected threats. This allows an IPS to take the extra steps necessary to prevent an intrusion into a system. You can configure IPSs to automatically react to certain threats while continuing to use passive responses to other incidents. Unlike with an IDS, an IPS that encounters a false positive will immediately act to block behavior that has been misidentified as malicious.

A storage area network (SAN)

high-speed data transfer network that provides access to consolidated block-level storage. A SAN moves storage resources off the network and reorganizes them into an independent, high-performance network. The main disadvantages of SANs are cost and complexity. SAN hardware tends to be expensive, and building and managing a SAN requires a specialized skill set.

Which of the following cloud types is a combination of two or more clouds that remain distinct but are bound together? This task contains the radio buttons and checkboxes for options. The shortcut keys to perform this task are A to H and alt+1 to alt+9. A Public B Hybrid C Community D Private

hybrid

RAID 0

implements striping, which is the process of spreading data across multiple drives. Striping can dramatically improve the read and write performance. Striping provides no fault tolerance, however; because the data is spread across multiple drives, if any one of the drives fails, you will lose all of your data. the process of spreading data across multiple drives. Because striping spreads data across more physical drives, multiple disks can access the contents of a file, enabling writes and reads to be completed more quickly. You must have at least two physical disk drives to implement striping. RAID 0 is best used for storage that is non-critical but requires high-speed reads and writes. RAID 0 offers faster read and write speeds compared with RAID 1.

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server

in order to resolve the problem. DHCP server runs software that automatically assigns IP addresses to client stations logging on to a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) network. It eliminates the need to manually assign permanent IP addresses. If a static IP address is configured for a network device, duplicate IP address conflicts may occur on a DHCP network. server runs software that automatically assigns IP addresses to client stations logging on to a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) network. It eliminates the need to manually assign static IP addresses. DHCP software typically runs on servers and is also found in network devices such as firewalls, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) routers, and modem routers that allow multiple users' access to the Internet. DHCP servers are configured to provide IP configuration information automatically to clients, such as an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and the address of a Domain Name System (DNS) server. reservation should be used to allow the request to be fulfilled without breaking the corporate policy. It enables you to configure a permanent IP address for a particular client on the subnet. DHCP reservations are based on the client's media access control (MAC) address. Users can configure a DHCP reservation in their DHCP server when they need to reserve an IP address assignment.

Which of the following printer types uses piezoelectric technology? Thermal B Laser C Inkjet D Dot-matrix

inkjet printer

A network administrator must install a device that will proactively stop outside attacks from reaching the LAN. Which of the following devices would best meet the organization's needs? IDS B DLP C IPS D Authentication server

intrusion prevention system (IPS)

Which of the following ipconfig commands is useful for checking or repairing DHCP settings? A ipconfig /all B ipconfig /release C ipconfig /renew D ipconfig /flushdns

ipconfig /renew

private cloud

is a cloud infrastructure operated solely for a single organization. It can be managed internally or by a third party, and hosted either internally or externally. A private cloud project requires a significant degree of engagement to virtualize the business environment.

The Bayonet Neill-Concelman (BNC) connector

is a coaxial connector type used to terminate a coaxial cable. It is usually used with the RG58/U coaxial cable.

hybrid cloud

is a combination of two or more clouds, be it private, public, or a mix, that remain distinct but are bound together, offering the benefits of multiple deployment models.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

is a device or appliance that provides only file-based data storage services to other network devices.

keyboard, video, mouse (KVM) switch

is a device that enables a computer user to control multiple computers with a single keyboard and mouse, with the display sent to a single monitor.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

is a directory service protocol that defines how a client can access information, perform operations, and share directory data on a directory server. It was designed for use specifically over Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) networks and on the Internet in particular. In most implementations, LDAP relies on the Domain Name System (DNS) service.

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

is a form of virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) in which the VDI is outsourced and handled by a third party. is a form of virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) in which the VDI is outsourced and handled by a third party. It is a virtual PC desktop that is hosted in the cloud and accessed remotely by thin clients.

daughter board

is a general computing and electronics term for any circuit board that plugs into and extends the circuitry of another circuit board.

switch

is a network device that joins multiple computers together within the same local area network (LAN). a network hardware device that joins multiple computers together within the same local area network (LAN). Unlike a hub, switches forward data only to the intended destination.

cleaning stage

is a physical and electrical process that cleans the previous image off the photosensitive drum.

Quality

is a printer configuration option that enables users to specify whether they want to print draft, normal, or high-quality output.

inkjet printer

is a printer that forms images by firing microscopic droplets of liquid ink out of microscopic inkjet nozzles mounted together on a carriage assembly that moves back and forth across the paper.

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

is a proprietary protocol created by Microsoft for connecting to and managing devices that are not necessarily located at the same place as the administrator. It uses port 3389, runs on TCP, and works on the Application layer (layer 7) of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.

Secure Shell (SSH)

is a protocol that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It uses port 22 and runs on TCP.

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

is a security protocol that protects sensitive communication from eavesdropping and tampering by using a secure, encrypted, and authenticated channel over a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) connection.

The Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

is a set of open, non-proprietary standards that you can use to secure data as it travels across the network or the Internet.

Server Message Block (SMB)

protocol used for file sharing between MAC OS and Windows OS workstations on a local area network (LAN). It helps share resources such as files, printers, and serial ports among computers. In a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) network, NetBIOS clients, such as Windows systems, use NetBIOS over TCP/IP to connect to servers, and then issue SMB commands to complete tasks such as accessing shared files and printers. Apple Filing Protocol (AFP) is a file transfer protocol similar to SMB.

firewall

is a software program or hardware device that protects networks from unauthorized data by blocking unsolicited traffic. It is a network security system that monitors and controls over all your incoming and outgoing network traffic based on advanced and a defined set of security rules. It should be configured on the outermost part of the network. used to implement network security policies for an environment. It is a software program or hardware device that protects networks from unauthorized data by blocking unsolicited traffic. It monitors and controls all your incoming and outgoing network traffic based on advanced and a defined set of security rules. The firewall must be specifically configured to allow virtual private network (VPN) traffic into the network. It is a software program or hardware device that protects networks from unauthorized data by blocking unsolicited traffic. It monitors and controls over all your incoming and outgoing network traffic based on advanced and a defined set of security rules. firewall defines a set of rules to dictate which types of traffic are permitted or denied as that traffic enters or exits a firewall interface.

disk defragmenter (DEFRAG)

is a system utility available in all versions of Windows that scans and analyzes how file fragments are arranged and accessed on the hard disk.

demilitarized zone (DMZ)

is an area of a network designed specifically for public users to access. It is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted local area network (LAN). Often a DMZ is deployed using a multihomed firewall.

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+)

is an authentication protocol that provides centralized authentication and authorization services for remote users.

Network-attached storage (NAS)

is dedicated file storage that enables multiple users and heterogeneous client devices to retrieve data from centralized disk capacity.

Network-attached storage (NAS)

is dedicated file storage that enables multiple users and heterogeneous client devices to retrieve data from centralized disk capacity. NAS appliances tend to be expensive and share the network with their computing counterparts. Hence, the NAS solution consumes more bandwidth from the network.

Which of the following network types spans a small area, such as a single building, floor, or room? WAN B MAN C LAN D PAN

local area network (LAN)

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

makes up a protocol group that operates on top of TCP to provide an encrypted session between the client and the server.

Transport layer

manages end-to-end communication between hosts, and breaks application data up into the segments or datagrams sent over the network. The protocols in this layer include the Transport Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

USB Type-C

non-directional connector. It is a small rectangular connector, with rounded edges and a symmetrical and reversible design. It is capable of transmitting USB 3.1, USB 3.0, USB 2.0, and USB 1.1 signals, whatever the individual host or device supports. It also supports Alt mode connections that carry non-USB data such as HDMI, DisplayPort, or Thunderbolt. It can be used on both host controller ports and devices which use upstream sockets.

Patch the operating system.

operating system patch is a small unit of supplemental code that fixes a problem or a bug in the software that is usually the result of technical support issues or engineering and programming changes.

Satellite

people in rural areas where Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) and cable modem connections are not available. A satellite installation can be used even where the most basic utilities are lacking if there is a generator or battery power supply that can produce enough electricity to run a desktop computer system. It is a boon for rural Internet users who require broadband access because it does not use telephone lines or cable systems. Although cable systems and digital subscriber lines (DSLs) have high download speeds, satellite systems are faster than normal modems.

mouse

peripheral device that is most likely to be used to input actions into a PC. A mouse is a small object that runs across a flat surface and has buttons that send electronic signals to the graphical user interface (GUI). Most mice today are optical; a laser detects the mouse's movement. Optical mice have no mechanical moving parts, and they respond more quickly and precisely than mechanical types of mice.

Orientation

printer configuration option that allows users to specify whether the document will be printed in a landscape or portrait orientation.

Which of the following cloud types is a cloud infrastructure operated solely for a single organization? This task contains the radio buttons and checkboxes for options. The shortcut keys to perform this task are A to H and alt+1 to alt+9. A Community B Private C Hybrid D Public

private cloud

virtual private network (VPN)

private communication network transmitted across a public, typically insecure, network connection.

file server

provides a central repository for users to store, manage, and access files on the network.

inkjet printer

uses piezoelectric technology in which a current is applied to a Piezo crystal at the rear of the ink reservoir. The current causes it to flex and force a drop of ink out of the nozzle. This is Epson's proprietary inkjet technology.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

provides access to a computing platform or software environment the customer can use to develop and host web-based applications. cloud service which provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an application. The provider manages the underlying hardware infrastructure and development tools, so the customer only has to do the actual software development. An example of PaaS includes Amazon's Relational Database Service (RDS).

public cloud

provides its services over a network that is open for public use. Rackspace and Amazon are examples of public clouds.

Network as a Service (NaaS)

provides network-based services through the cloud, including monitoring and Quality of Service (QoS) management.

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

provides the security of a message transmission on the Internet.

Southbridge

providing support to the slower onboard peripherals like Personal System/2 (PS/2), parallel ports, serial ports, universal serial bus (USB), local area network (LAN), and so on. It manages their communications with the rest of the computer and the resources allotted to them. Southbridge controls input/output functions, the system clock, drives and buses, advanced power management (APM), and various other devices. It uses the Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) bus to communicate with the Northbridge.

. RAID 2

rarely used in practice, stripes data at the bit (rather than block) level, and uses a Hamming code for error correction. The disks are synchronized by the controller to spin at the same angular orientation, so it generally cannot service multiple requests simultaneously. RAID 2 has been rarely implemented; it is the only original level of RAID that is not currently used.

USB Type-A

rectangular connector with four pins. It is a downstream connector means it connects to the USB port on the host or hub. The Type-A connector transmits both power and data. It is primarily used on host controllers in computers and hubs.

charging stage

removes any electrical charges that might remain from the previous print image.

home theater PC (HTPC)

requires a TV tuner card. HTPC is a computer system dedicated and configured to store and stream digital movies, either from the local hard drive or online.

In a virtual environment, which of the following allows all the VMs to have RAM allocated for use? A Measured service B Broad network access C Resource pooling D Rapid elasticity

resource pooling

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

s a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) that enables the transfer of files between a user's workstation and a remote host.

Home server PC

server for your house connected to multiple computing devices within the home to store videos, music, and pictures. Home server PCs have a variety of features and functions, but they all have common requirements for providing a home with the following necessary functions: Media streaming capabilities to access and play digital movies. File sharing for all home users to access the file system on the server. Print sharing.

Tethering

sharing the Internet connection of the smartphone or tablet with other devices such as laptops. Some devices will not function as a mobile hotspot but will allow you to tether a laptop (or another device) to a smartphone with a USB cable so the mobile device can share the cellular Internet connection.

USB Micro-B

similar to Micro-A in shape, size, and number of pins, but with a black-colored receptacle. It is also used with USB on-the-go devices. It is a scaled-down form of the Mini USB which allowed mobile devices to get slimmer while still maintaining the ability to connect to computers and other hubs.

An associate is seeking advice on which device to purchase for a friend who is a business owner. The friend needs the messaging ability in the device while keeping in contact with the home office network. Which of the following would be the best recommendation? Fitness monitor B VR headset C Smart watch D Smart camera

smart watch

An intrusion detection system (IDS)

software or hardware, or a combination of both, that scans, audits, and monitors the security infrastructure for signs of attacks in progress and automates the intrusion detection process.

Kerberos provides a single sign-on (SSO)

solution for users and also provides protection for login credentials. It relies upon symmetric-key cryptography using the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) symmetric encryption protocol. It also provides confidentiality and integrity for authentication traffic using end-to-end security and helps to prevent eavesdropping and replay attacks. . Kerberos provides strong authentication for client/server applications by using symmetric key cryptography.

repeater

sometimes referred to as a signal extender, is a device that regenerates a signal to improve signal strength over transmission distances.

A network operating system (NOS)

specialized operating system that controls the functioning of various network components by implementing necessary protocol stacks and device drivers appropriate for the hardware.

RAID 5

spreads data byte by byte across multiple drives, with parity information also spread across multiple drives. You need at least three physical disk drives to implement RAID 5. RAID 5 consists of block-level striping with distributed parity but requires at least three physical disk drives.

hard disk drive (HDD)

storage device that reads data from, and writes data to, a hard disk. A hard disk consists of several metal or hard plastic platters with a magnetic surface coating.

solid state drive (SSD)

storage device that uses flash technology to retain data in special types of memory instead of on disks or tape. It uses non-volatile memory to emulate mechanical storage devices

Port Address Translation (PAT)

subset of dynamic Network Address Translation (NAT) functionality that maps either one or multiple unregistered addresses to a single registered address using multiple ports.

unified threat management (UTM)

system is a type of network hardware appliance, virtual appliance, or cloud service that protects businesses from security threats in a simplified way by combining and integrating multiple security services and features. UTM is a combination of a firewall with other abilities. These abilities include intrusion prevention, antivirus, content filtering, and so on. The advantages of combining multiple security services and features into one include a reduced learning curve, a single vendor to deal with, and reduced complexity.

High availability

system-design that guarantees a certain amount of operational uptime during a given period.

Thunderbolt

t can connect DisplayPort, DVI, HDMI, and VGA displays using adapter. It has the ability to create a peer-to-peer network of two Apple computers. It can provide 10 W of power to each connected device. It can transmit and receive data at the same time. It uses the Mini DisplayPort and USB Type C connectors.

Flash the BIOS.

technician should flash the basic input/output system (BIOS) if the new 1 TB hard disk drive (HDD) is not being detected after the replacement. Sometimes, a system doesn't recognize the new installed hardware even if the latest or correct drivers have been installed. Therefore, upgrading the BIOS or flashing the BIOS will help in solving the problem. Before flashing the BIOS, the technician should back up the BIOS settings and document the complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) configuration settings.

data loss prevention (DLP)

technician should use data loss prevention (DLP) to ensure sensitive data is not exfiltrated from the system electronically. DLP is used to classify and protect your organization's confidential and critical data. Within the software, you create rules that prevent users from accidentally or maliciously sharing particular types of data outside your organization. For example, a DLP rule might prevent users from forwarding any business emails outside of the corporate mail domain.

Virtualization

technology through which one or more simulated computers run within a physical computer. It allows to taking full advantage of a server's capacity. It refers to the act of creating a virtual (rather than actual) version of something.

resource pooling

the cloud provider's resources are pooled and shared between multiple customers in a multi-tenant fashion, and can be dynamically allocated to suit changing demands. As much as possible, the customer doesn't even need to know where the resources are hosted, they just work wherever they are. allows all the virtual machines (VMs) to have RAM allocated for use. In resource pooling, the cloud provider's resources are pooled and shared between multiple customers in a multi-tenant fashion, and can be dynamically allocated to suit changing demands. As much as possible, the customer doesn't even need to know where the resources are hosted, they just work wherever they are.

TV tuner card

the computer to receive television signals and display the output on a display device.

Basic input/output sequence (BIOS)

the first program executed when you switch on a computer. When the system boots, the BIOS identifies, tests, and initializes system devices such as the video display card, hard disk, system clock, CD-ROM drive, and other hardware.

exposing stage

the laser projects the image on the photosensitive drum. Where the light hits the drum, the negative charge is dissipated to the grounded center of the drum. This results in areas with a lower negative charge than the rest of the drum. These areas create an electrical image of the print data on the surface of the drum.

Domain Name System (DNS)

the primary name resolution service on the Internet. It uses port 53 as the default port. server maintains a database of domain and host names, and their corresponding IP addresses.

Geotagging

the process of adding geographical identification metadata to various media such as a geotagged photograph or video, websites, SMS messages, QR codes, or Really Simple Syndication (RSS) feeds.

Honeypot

the security mechanism for tricking an attacker into accessing an isolated network

sector

the smallest addressable unit of a hard disk.

fiber-optic cable

transmits digital signals using light impulses rather than electricity. It is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). This cable allows light impulses to be carried on either a glass or a plastic core. Glass can carry the signal at a greater distance, but plastic costs less.

CAT6

type of twisted pair cable, which uses the RJ-45 connector when terminating the cable. The RJ-45 connector is an eight-pin connector used in networking. All four pairs of wires in the twisted pair cable use this connector.

3D

use filament and therefore can give the "Replace filament" error. Inexpensive 3D printers for homes and offices typically use forced filament fabrication (FFF), also known as fused deposition modeling (FDM). A FFF printer uses a spool of plastic filament, which the printer melts and extrudes into layers, gradually creating the output object. Different printers are designed for different filament materials, each with its own melting point and physical properties.

Local Connector (LC)

used for both single-mode and multimode fiber and a small form factor ceramic ferrule. LC connector uses an RJ-45 type latching and can be used to transition installations from twisted pair copper cabling to fiber.

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

used to send email from clients to servers, and for transferring email between servers. It is never used by clients to receive email from servers. SMTP typically uses Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 25.

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

used to send emails from clients to servers and for transferring emails between servers. It is never used by clients to receive email from servers.

Webcam

video capturing device that functions by converting light energy into digital information or data with the help of lens and image sensors. It connects directly to the computer through an input/output (I/O) interface, such as USB or WiFi, and it does not have any self-contained recording mechanism. Its sole purpose is to transfer its captured video directly to the host computer, usually for further transfer over the Internet. It is commonly used in messenger programs such as Windows Live Messenger, Skype, and Yahoo messenger services for meetings purposes.

virtual local area network (VLAN)

virtual network segment enabled by a Layer 2-compatible switch. A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a point-to-point logical network created by grouping selected hosts together, regardless of their physical location. It uses a switch or a router that controls groups of hosts receiving network broadcasts.

community cloud

where multiple organizations from a specific community with common interests share the cloud infrastructure.

Platter

which data is stored magnetically through read/write heads by way of a magnetic coating.

duplex option

which is a printer configuration option of a multi-function printer. It helps to reduce the amount of paper consumed on a multi-function printer by allowing printing on both sides of a page.

RAID 10

which provides the best performance and system redundancy. RAID 10 combines two RAID levels into one. It uses RAID 1 and RAID 0 to provide both mirroring from level 1 and striping from level 0. RAID 10 uses a minimum of four disks, in two disk mirrored blocks. combines two RAID levels into one. It uses RAID 1 and RAID 0 to provide both mirroring from level 1 and striping from level 0. This configuration gives you better performance and system redundancy. You need at least four physical disk drives to implement RAID 10. implements striping, which is the process of spreading data across multiple drives. You must have at least two physical disk drives to implement striping.

RAID 1

writes identical data to two or more hard drives, also known as disk mirroring. In RAID 1, data from an entire partition is duplicated on two identical drives by either mirroring or duplexing. RAID 1 offers slower write speeds as compared to RAID 0. By using RAID 1, you can implement a RAID array with mirroring or duplexing.