Course Test 5 Shortened Version

Ace your homework & exams now with Quizwiz!

Does the common ion effect alter the Ksp of a solid?

NO!!! The common ion effect just shifts reactions accordingly due to Le Chatilier's principle. Ksp is constant and the only thing that would change this is a change in temperature.

If a reaction is coupled to ATP hydrolysis, then this reaction is most likely?

NONSPOTANEOUS and needs spontaneous hydrolysis of ATP to drive the reaction in forward direction. ex: ATP used for: F-6-P ---> F,1-6-BP

Is the di for a virtual image formed by a lens positive or negative?

Negative because virtual images form on the same side as the object

Reciprocity

The exchange of resources, goods, and services among people of relatively equal status; meant to create and reinforce social ties Can also add stress when people's positive deeds put pressure on others to "return the favor", such as with gift-giving.

True or False: Cranial nerves are part of the CNS

FALSE! They are part of the Peripheral nervous system and thus are myelinated by Schwann cells

True or False: Inhibitors alter the substrate's concentration

FALSE; they just affect substrate binding and its subsequent effects.

True or False: Amphoteric and amphiphilic/amphipathic are the same thing

False; Amphoteric means can act as acid or base whereas amphiphilli/amphipathic means that the molecule has a hydrophobic portion and hydrophillic portion (usually a molecule that is one is the other as well but don't confuse the concepts!)

True or False: An endothermic reaction will reach equilibrium faster due to Le Chatilier's principle.

False; Reaches equilibrium faster due to increased frequency of collisions Le Chatiliers is only applicable AT EQUILIBRIUM.

True or False: Phospholipids are amphoteric, in that they have hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties or regions.

False; amphoteric means can act as acid or base amphiphilic/amphipathic = hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions phospholipids are both amphoteric and amphiphilic

True or False: Increasing temperature causes a reaction to reach equilibrium faster because of Le Chatilier's principle.

False; only depends on if catalyst is present (increases rate of forward and reverse rxn to reach equilibrium faster) and increasing temperature increases number of collisions (kinetic molecular theory) but this is not related to Le Chatilier's

What is a null cell line?

"null" means that they are missing the specific gene/molecule

How do you convert revolution per min (rpm) to radians per second (rad/s) ?

(revolutions/min) x (1 min/60 secs) x (2pi radians/revolutions)

True or False: Cis and trans isomers are tautomers

False; tautomers are interconversions of the same molecule and cis and trans isomers are two separate molecules Tautomerization involves movement of alpha proton and electrons.

True or False: Antigens must infect B lymphocytes prior to production of antibodies

False; they only bind to B cells which then produce antibodies (proliferation) against foreign substance or recruit other cells to destroy them.

All amino acids have pIs between _____ and _____. Nonpolar amino acids and polar amino acids typically have pIs between _____ and ____. Acidic amino acids typically have pIs between ____ and ____. Basic amino acids typically have pIs between _____ and ______.

5;11; 5;6; 2;3; 8;10 12 is too high of a pI...

Suppose that Subject 67 (quoted in the passage) is at a party for gay men and overhears a group of other men, including the party's host, having a conversation about him. The host mentions that Subject 67 is bisexual and indicates that this would be a disadvantage in terms of dating him, and almost all of the men in the group readily agree. One of the group members states that he wouldn't mind dating Subject 67 despite his bisexuality, but another member quickly rejects this statement and changes the subject. This type of censorship within a group in order to avoid disharmony is known as: A. mindguarding. B. social comparison. C. informational influence. D. group polarization.

A.

In a human liver cell, approximately how many glucose molecules would be required to synthesize a 750-amino acid protein? A. 100 B. 250 C. 750 D. 3000

A. 4 ATP per amino acid... 750 x 4 = 3,000 ATP needed Glucose metabolism ---> 30 ATP 3,000 ATP x (1 glucose/30 ATP) = 100 glucose needed

A cancer-inducing virus was found that incorporates the sequence of a proto-oncogene into its DNA. The gene in the viral genome was transcribed in infected cells at a much higher rate than the same gene in the genome of the host cell. The induction of cancer is most likely due to: A. uncontrolled cell growth resulting from the over expression of the gene product. B. mutation of the host-cell genome. C. tissue exhibiting contact inhibition. D. removal of oncogenes within the affected tissues.

A. A proto-oncogene being transcribed at a higher rate than normal could result in uncontrolled cell growth and cancer (choice A is correct). While mutation of the host-cell genome could cause cancer, this is not occurring in this case. The viral genome is merely being transcribed at a high rate (choice B is wrong). Contact inhibition is a means by which normal tissues can control their growth and division. A tissue exhibiting contact inhibition is not a cancerous tissue (choice C is wrong). Removal of oncogenes within the affected tissues would reduce the rate of cancer, not cause cancer (choice D is wrong).

Emotion plays a critical role in attitude change, and a great deal of attitude research notes the importance of affective/emotional components. Important factors to consider with regard to the impact of emotion on attitude are: self-efficacy, attitude accessibility, issue involvement, and message source/features. Of these factors, which has the greatest potential to change people's emotional self-perception (i.e., the way that individuals feel about themselves)? A. Self-efficacy B. Attitude accessibility C. Issue involvement D. Message source/features

A. Attitude accessibility refers to the activation of an attitude from memory. Studies have shown that accessible attitudes are change-resistant (choice B is wrong). Issue involvement is the relevance and salience of an issue or situation to an individual; it is correlated with attitude access and attitude strength, both of which are distinct from perception (choice C is wrong). Message source and the features of the message being sent are on an object-subject correlative; they are not directly relevant to perception (choice D is wrong).

What would Albert Bandura suggest as one of the reasons why the children whose mothers watched the videotaped training scored higher than the children in the control group and the children whose mothers were trained in the dialogic technique face-to-face? A. Those who trained with the videotape could model their behavior on the trainer from the tape. B. Those who trained with the videotape could watch the tape at home and thus were more relaxed and receptive to its teachings. C. Those who trained with the videotape could pause the tape when they wanted to take notes, a luxury denied people who are trained face-to-face in real time. D. Those who trained with the videotape preferred the direct instruction technique.

A. Bandura is proponent of social learning theory which occurs through modeling behaviors (observational learning)

The 1H NMR spectrum of pyruvate would contain one resonance composed of a: A. singlet. B. doublet. C. triplet. D. quartet.

A. Proton spin-spin splitting occurs when nonequivalent Hs are bonded to neighboring atoms. Since this molecule has only one kind of equivalent H, it will not experience any splitting, so its 1H NMR spectrum presents only one singlet

If a drug is applied to a rod cell which blocks sodium channels in the absence of light, this will result in: A. the hyperpolarization of the retinal rod plasma membrane. B. the repolarization of the retinal rod plasma membrane. C. an increase in the sodium concentration in the cell. D. the conversion of all trans-retinal to 11-cis-retinal.

A. Rod cells are depolarized in absence of light. If Na channels are blocked, then Na can no longer enter Rod cell and hyper-polarization will result from K leaving making cell more negative.

The concentration of hypochlorite ion can be determined via a redox titration using I-(aq) as the titrant. The relevant half-reactions are given below. 2e- + I3- → 3I- Eo = +0.53 V 2e- + 2H2O + 2ClO- → Cl2 + 4OH- Eo = +0.89 V At the equivalence point of the titration: A. I- will have been oxidized at a potential of +0.18 V. B. I3- will have been oxidized at a potential of +0.18 V. C. I- will have been oxidized at a potential of +0.36 V. D. I3- will have been oxidized at a potential of +0.36 V.

A. The equivalence point is like the half way point... At the equivalence point, the potential will be equal to the half of the Eo(ox) and Eo(red), so for this titration, it will be (-0.53 + 0.89)/2 = +0.36/2 = +0.18 V, or choice A. IF run to full completion... the Ecell would be +0.36

Bicycle helmets are designed to minimize the peak energy delivered to the head during a collision, which in turn minimizes the risk of permanent brain damage. They are single-use items requiring replacement after a low-speed or high-speed impact. Which of the following best describes the properties of the Expandable PolyStyrene foam used in most bicycle helmets? (coefficient of restitution, ε, which is defined as the ratio of the relative velocity of separation after the collision to the relative velocity of approach before the collision) A. It has a low coefficient of restitution, which ensures both a high conversion of kinetic energy to thermal and deformation energies, and a long duration of the collision from the moment of impact to the time at which the helmet and head stop moving. B. It has a low coefficient of restitution, which ensures both a minimal conversion of kinetic energy to thermal and deformation energies, and a long duration of the collision from the moment of impact to the time at which the helmet and head stop moving. C. It has a high coefficient of restitution, which ensures both a high conversion of kinetic energy to thermal and deformation energies, and a long duration of the collision from the moment of impact to the time at which the helmet and head stop moving. D. It has a high coefficient of restitution, which ensures maximal bounce-back of the helmet and head during collision.

A. You thought B because of the minimal conversion (you thought minimal transfer to the brain) but you would want high conversion of KE to thermal and deformation OF THE HELMET in this case (not the brain).

As Reaction below proceeds, the pressure in the reaction chamber will: 2H2(g) + 2NO(g) → 2H2O(g) + N2(g) A. decrease. B. increase. C. first decrease, then increase. D. first increase, then decrease.

A. decrease because there are less moles on the product side than there are on the reactant side

If the heat of formation of H2O(g) is -242 kJ/mol, what is the heat of formation of NO(g)? ΔH = -664 kJ/mol): 2H2(g) + 2NO(g) → 2H2O(g) + N2(g) A. 90 kJ/mol B. 180 kJ/mol C. 211 kJ/mol D. 422 kJ/mol

A. deltaH(formation)= deltaH(products) - deltaH(reactants) -664 = ((2(-242) + 0)) - ((2(0) + 2x)) -664 + 484 = -2x -180 = -2x 90 = x *REMEMBER ATOMS IN ELEMENTAL STATE = ZERO

Calcium sulfate is added to 1 L of distilled water at 350 K until no more salt dissolves. If a few drops of 2 M calcium chloride is added to the solution, which of the following would most likely occur? A. Calcium sulfate would precipitate out of solution. B. There would be no effect. C. The Ksp of CaSO4 would decrease. D. More sulfate ion would be present in solution.

A. Due to common ion effect, the Ca2+ produced from calcium chloride dissolution will increase the Ca2+ concentration on both product sides, thus pushing Calcium sulfate dissolution toward reactant side (solid/precipitate side). Ksp does not change with common ion effect because this is a constant value that can only change if temperature is changed.

H. M. was an American medical patient who suffered from severe seizures following a bicycle accident as a child. In 1953, he was treated by removing approximately 2/3 of his left and right hippocampi, as well as parts of other brain structures. He subsequently suffered from which disorder? A. Anterograde amnesia B. Epilepsy C. Schizophrenia D. Procedural amnesia

A. H. M. suffered from complete anterograde amnesia following the removal of most of his hippocampi, meaning that he could no longer form new episodic memories (choice A is correct). While H. M. did suffer from epilepsy, that existed prior to his surgery, and the seizures were largely eradicated by the treatment (choice B is wrong). Schizophrenia is believed to be an inherited disorder, although its expression is still impacted by the environment; H.M. did not exhibit schizophrenic symptoms (choice C is wrong). H. M. was able to acquire new skills, though he was unable to remember having learned them (choice D is wrong).

Under physiological conditions, which of the following amino acids is most likely to be found on the exterior of a body protein after folding is complete? A. E B. I C. M D. Y

A. because charged under physiological conditions (O is negative) You thought maybe Y (Tyrosine) because it is also polar, however it has a large hydrophobic ring which makes it considerably less polar than Glutamate

How does increasing temperature cause a reaction to reach equilibrium faster?

According to the kinetic molecular theory, temperature is a measure of the average speed (velocity) of the particles. Increasing temperature increases speed, which in turn increases the frequency of collisions between the particles and the vessel.

Salt bridges are formed between what two types of amino acids and what two types of bonds are formed?

Acidic and basic amino acids; 1) Electrostatic interactions (weak/partial ionic bond) 2) Hydrogen bonds (b/w hydrogens and oxygens/nitrogens)

If a nucleotide is deleted during the transcription process this event would most likely lead to: A. no change in the protein. B. the destruction of the correct reading frame. C. an mRNA without a cap. D. a DNA gene with the incorrect base pairs.

B. This would affect OPR during translation so there would be a change in the protein. The mRNA would still be processed the same way with a 5' cap, splicing and poly-A tail. The deletion occurred during transcription so the gene itself will not have an incorrect base pair.

How far from a converging lens with a focal length of 6 cm must an object be placed in order to form a virtual upright image at a distance of 12 cm from the lens? A. 3 cm B. 4 cm C. 6 cm D. 12 cm

B. You know focal length is 6 cm for the converging lens. If a virtual image is formed, then the di is negative because it is on the NEGATIVE IMAGE DISTANCE SIDE. 1/6 = -1/12 + 1/do 1/6 + 1/12 = 1/do 3/12 = 1/do 4 cm = do

Ice packs absorb heat from the surrounding so the salt with what deltaH value will be best to utilize?

Most positive deltaH = endothermic (absorbs heat from surrounding) thus cooling temperature of system

Rank the following in decreasing polarity: carboxylic acid, amide, esters, alkane, ether, alcohol, ketone, aldehyde, amine

Amide > Carboxylic Acid > Alcohol > Ketone ~ Aldehyde > Amine > Ester > Ether > Alkane

What is the square root of 0.5?

Around 0.7 square root of 0.5 is about the same as square root of 0.49 (close to 0.50) and this is equal to 0.7 (bc 0.7 x 0.7 = 0.49)

During a mastectomy, the lymph nodes are often removed in addition to the tumor. This surgical procedure will most likely: A. render the patient less susceptible to viral infections. B. stop the spread of breast cancer to the rest of the body. C. increase the number of circulating lymphocytes. D. remove the oncogenes within the affected tissue.

B.

Nativists contend that language will be acquired by all normally developing humans, assuming they are exposed to language: A. after the post-conventional stage. B. before the critical period. C. along with positive reinforcement. D. through conditioning.

B. Noam Chomsky is the main theorist associated with the nativist perspective of language development, which contends that all normally functioning humans who are exposed to language before a critical period will develop language

Why is there a latent period in the production of antibodies during the primary response? A. The pathogen must first proliferate before the immune system can mount a response. B. Time is required for B lymphocytes to proliferate. C. Antibodies must be produced by T lymphocytes. D. The antigen must infect B lymphocytes prior to the production of antibodies.

B. D - incorrect because antigens do not infect B cells, they just bind to them.

Which one of the following mutations would be most likely to convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene? A. Silent mutation B. Missense mutation C. Nonsense mutation D. Deletion mutation

B. In order for the mutation to have the described effect, it must modify the protein without completely eliminating it or destroying its effect. (therefore Missense is best because it changes a single amino acid without destroying whole protein product's function) Silent mutations do not alter sequence; nonsense mutations and deletions can alter reading frame and lead to premature stop codon

According to Noam Chomsky, children learn all their vocabulary: A. solely from universal grammar. B. from a complex interaction of genetic and environmental factors. C. solely from environmental factors, such as parents and teachers reading to them from an early age. D. from a genetic predisposition to good reading and vocabulary skills.

B. Noam Chomsky believed that a complex interaction of genetic and environmental factors is involved in building children's vocabularies (choice B is correct). However, he believed that the ability to learn language itself is innate (an idea that was eventually referred to as "universal grammar," a feature unique to humans that allows them to develop language skills but is not predictive of vocabulary

In an experiment, various concentations of streptomycin were added to a culture of E. coli. At low concentrations of streptomycin, increased amount of misreading of the mRNA was observed. At high streptomycin concentrations, the initiation of protein translation was inhibited. Which of the following statements is consistent with these results? A. Streptomycin inhibits the large subunit (50S) of the ribosome. B. Streptomycin inhibits the small subunit (30S) of the ribosome. C. Streptomycin binds to RNA polymerase and blocks its function. D. Streptomycin binds to the mRNA and targets it for degradation.

B. The role of small subunit (30S) of ribosome is to initiate translation by recognizing the first AUG start site and recruiting the tRNAfmet and the large subunit.

The following are products of fatty acid (beta) oxidation except: A. FADH2. B. CoA-SH. C. NADH. D. Acetyl-CoA.

B. is a reactant

Why is a salt bridge the strongest type of a noncovalent bond?

Because it involves both ionic bonds (although weaker electrostatic intxn) and hydrogen bonding (strengthens bond even more)

If a primary immune response confers immunity, why do individuals get the common cold more than once? A. The common cold virus does not trigger the proliferation of T lymphocytes. B. The common cold virus does not have receptors. C. Individuals are not exposed to the same virus. D. There are too few common cold viruses that circulate in the blood.

C

Jackson is nearly involved in a car accident; when starting out at an intersection, he witnesses another driver running a red light. According to the fundamental attribution error, he is most likely to believe that the other driver: A. must have had a good reason for running the red light. B. is running away from the police. C. is careless and/or reckless. D. is having mechanical problems with his breaks.

C

Fatty acid synthase is most likely suppressed by all of the following hormones EXCEPT: A. glucagon. B. thyroid hormone. C. insulin. D. cortisol.

C.

Individuals with immune deficiencies are found to be more susceptible to cancer than are healthy individuals. Which of the following reasons is the most likely explanation? A. The lymph vessels contain tumor cells. B. These individuals produce an abundant amount of lymphocytes in their bone marrow. C. The immune system is compromised and cannot eliminate cancerous cells. D. The lymphocytes are no longer able to make antigens.

C.

Lysine is an amino acid with a basic side chain. Its isoelectric point would be closest to: A. 6. B. 7. C. 8. D. 12.

C. pI is calculated as average of pKas pKa of amino group = 10 pKa of carboxyl group = 2 Lysine's side chain has additional amino group... 12 > 10 + 10 + 2 / 3 > 7 closest to 8.

In the autoimmune disease MG patient's autoantibodies are generated against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (AChR) in the neuromuscular junction (NMJ). Which of the following antibody-mediated actions is NOT supported? A. Antibody binding mediates destruction of AChRs and NMJ by immune cells. B. Antibody binding to the AChRs interferes with acetylcholine binding. C. Antibody binds to an inhibitory element on the DNA and down-regulates the expression of AChR gene, thus decreasing the synthesis of AChR. D. Antibody binding causes internalization and degradation of the AChRs.

C. Antibodies are proteins that cannot cross the membrane easily so they will not act as transcription factors!

If an individual is reinfected with the same virus the immune system will: A. elicit a slow immune response. B. require a greater amount of the virus than the first response. C. destroy the pathogen before it has time to cause disease. D. reject the pathogen before it has a chance to proliferate in the body.

C. D - incorrect bc pathogen is not rejected by body, it is destroyed

Which of the following represents the major products of the saponification of linolein, a triacylglycerol in which glycerol is esterified with linoleic acid? A. 1 Glycerol and 1 linoleic acid B. 3 Glycerol and 1 potassium linoleate C. 1 Glycerol and 3 potassium linoleate D. 1 Glycerol and 3 linoleic acid

C. Saponification yields --> free glycerol + 3 carboxylate SALTS You chose option D because you know three FA are produced. You had a feeling it was option C! (go with your gut!)

If a rotor with a radius of 10 cm spins at a rate of 60,000 rpm, how many gees (that is, how many times the acceleration of gravity) of centrifugal acceleration are experienced within test tubes at the outer rim? Fc = m x w^2 x r w = angular acceleration A. 4,000g B. 40,200g C. 402,000g D. (4 × 107)g

C. m x a = m x w^2 x r a = w^2 x r 60,000 revolutions/min x (1 min/60 seconds) x (2pi radians/revolution) = 6,000 radians/second 10cm x (1m/100cm) = 0.1 m a = (6000 radians/s)^2 x (0.1m) = 3600000 or 3.6 x 10^6g which is closest to option C.

Conflict theorists are concerned with stratification in societies. Which of the following arguments is LEAST consistent with this perspective? A. Stratification is the result of competition between different social classes. B. Stratification is the result of the exploitation of subordinate groups. C. Stratification is the result of the need for maintenance of social order. D. Stratification is the result of capitalist motivation to accumulate wealth.

C. This is a functionalist perspective

Rad21 functions in double-strand break repair and is also a subunit of the chromatid cohesin complex, necessary to keep sister chromatids connected. Cells with non-functional Rad21 due to mutation will display all the following phenotypes EXCEPT: A. increased sensitivity to UV and reactive oxygen species. B. decreased ability to maintain chromosomes in the 2x state. C. faster than usual mitotic phase due to increased chromosome motility. D. increased probability of cell cycle arrest at the G2/M transition.

C. Mutations --> Impairements would not increase mitotic phase of cell cycle... A - double strand breaks can be caused by UV damage or ROS B - If Rad21 keep sister chromatids together, then a mutation in Rad21 would cause sister chromatids that are joined to separate (cell goes from 2n --> 4n) C - The G2/M checkpoint checks for mutations and if there are many present they will arrest the cell cylcle

Tony has recently come out to his friends as transgender; despite his female anatomical features, he wants to live and function socially as a man. Tony's friends are very supportive, but it bothers Tony that his friends make such a big deal about his gender transition when introducing him to new acquaintances or when just socializing. Based on this information, which of the following best describes Tony's transgender identity? A. It is his ascribed status. B. It is his achieved status. C. It is his master status. D. It is his status symbol.

C. dominant status (voluntary) -ascribed is assigned (involuntary) -achieved is based on merit/success

FA synthesis begins with ________ being converted to Acetyl CoA which is then carboxylated to form _____________. This molecule is then elongated to form __________ and other free fatty acids.

Citrate; Malonyl CoA; Palmitate.

All of the following are true concerning the side chain of cysteine EXCEPT: A. the sulfur is sp3 hybridized. B. it can help stabilize tertiary protein structure. C. the sulfur has two lone pairs of electrons. D. it undergoes hydrogen bonding.

D H bonding only b/w N, O, F

Jax, a gay teenager, was asked to leave his parents' house when he came out as gay. Now he lives with a community of other teenagers in a youth center and he considers this community to be his family. Which of the following specific types of groups is this community for Jax? I. An in-group II. A primary group III. A reference group A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

D.

Which of the following laboratory techniques could be used to detect prions? I. PCR II. ELISA III. Western blotting A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only

D. PCR is used to amplify segments of DNA. Prions are proteins, and thus, PCR would not be an appropriate laboratory technique (choices A and C can be eliminated). Both remaining choices include Item II so it must be true: ELISA uses antibodies to test for proteins, and could be (and is) used to detect prion proteins. Item III is also true: Western blotting uses antibody probes to detect proteins (after separating them on a gel using gel electrophoresis and transferring them to a filter).

The researcher could NOT have discovered the rate law for the homogeneous reaction by measuring the change in total pressure in the reaction chamber if the reaction had: A. used a catalyst. B. taken place at room temperature. C. been allowed to proceed to completion. D. produced the same molar quantities of products as reactants.

D. Rates are determined by changes in pressure for gases or molar concentrations. If the reaction produced the same amount of product and reactants, then no pressure change would be observed and it would be impossible to measure the rate law.

Fructose-6-phosphate and glucose-6-phosphate are best characterized as: A. epimers. B. enantiomers. C. stereoisomers. D. structural isomers.

D. Same formula, different connectivity

For a redox titration, at the equivalence point, what is the cell potential equal to?

Eo(oxid) + Eo(red)/2 Basically half of what the Ecell would normally be because half of the reaction has taken place

True or False: Acidic amino acids behave like acids at physiological pH

FALSE! They are de-protonated and thus cannot behave as acids (proton donors) at physio pH. When pH decreases, they will accept protons like bases do

True or False: Basic amino acids behave like bases at physiological pH

FALSE! They are protonated and thus cannot behave as bases (proton acceptors) at physio pH. When pH increases, they will donate their protons like acids do.

PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ΔHo = 92.5 kJ/mol Two identical reaction vessels, X and Y, are charged with equal amounts of gaseous PCl5, and both trials are allowed to reach equilibrium. If flask X is held at 300 K while flask Y is maintained at 500 K, which of the following will be true about the reactions? A. Equilibrium is reached faster in flask Y because higher temperatures shift the reaction toward products. B. Equilibrium is reached faster in flask Y because ΔGY is more negative than ΔGX. C. Equilibrium is established at the same rate in both flasks because the K value of a reaction is a constant. D. Equilibrium is reached faster in flask Y due to the increased collision frequency of reactant molecules.

D. The speed that equilibrium is reached is based on the kinetics of the forward and reverse reactions and not on any thermodynamic parameters. Since both the forward and reverse reactions of the equilibrium will be sped up by increasing temperature, flask Y will reach equilibrium faster (eliminate choice C). The reason must be a kinetic principle, not a thermodynamic principle, so using ΔG or Le Châtelier's Principle, both thermodynamic concepts, as explanations must be wrong (eliminate choices A and B). According to the kinetic molecular theory, temperature is a measure of the average speed (velocity) of the particles. Increasing temperature increases speed, which in turn increases the frequency of collisions between the particles and the vessel.

Acoustic neuroma is a cancer of myelin-producing cells of the vestibulocochlear nerve that hinders action potential propagation and kills vestibulocochlear nerve neurons. What type of cell is the origin of an acoustic neuroma? A. Microglia B. Astrocyte C. Oligodendrocyte D. Schwann cell

D. You thought it was C because of hearing being in the head and thus associated with brain... HOWEVER, Cranial nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system, so they are myelinated by Schwann cells

Which of the following would most likely become a major concern of mortality in MG patients? A. Cardiac failure B. Muscle weakness in the upper limbs C. Paralysis of the facial muscles D. Respiratory distress

D. You thought option B because this is what MG causes HOWEVER question asked "MAJOR CONCERN OF MORTALITY" (READ CAREFULLY!) MG is a disease affecting skeletal muscle; therefore, all skeletal muscles in the body are susceptible (eliminate choice A). A very important skeletal muscle in humans is the diaphragm; in severe MG patients, death can occur due to respiratory distress or arrest. Paralysis of facial muscles and weakness of upper limbs can occur; however, they are generally not the primary cause of mortality (eliminate choices B and C; choice D is correct).

Solutions of D-glucose consist of mixtures of α- and β-anomers. The α- and β-anomers individually display +112° and +18.7° optical rotation values, respectively. If the optical rotation of a solution of D-glucose at 40°C is +52.3° in water and +61.6° in DMSO, we can conclude that: A. the optical rotation of DMSO is +9.3°. B. the ratio of α- and β-anomers is greater in water than in DMSO. C. the ratio of α- and β-anomers is the same in water as in DMSO. D. the ratio of α- and β-anomers is lower in water than in DMSO.

D. alpha anomer has greater optical rotation value than beta anomer: Since the optical rotation in DMSO is greater than the optical rotation in water, we can assume that there is a greater ratio of alpha to beta anomers in DMSO and smaller ratio of alpha to beta anomers in water.

cDNA (complementary DNA) is often reverse transcribed from mature (processed) eukaryotic mRNA in order to create DNA without introns. The enzyme reverse transcriptase is used to create the initial complementary DNA strand, and requires a short sequence of DNA to act as primer. Which of the following sequences would make a good primer? A. Any random sequence of DNA could be used, as long as it has a free 3' end for reverse transcriptase to act on. B. Any random sequence of DNA could be used, as long as it has a free 5' end for reverse transcriptase to act on. C. UUUUUUUU D. TTTTTTTTT

D. because mRNA has a poly-A tail and poly-T primer would be best poly-U wont work because requires a short sequence of DNA to act as primer

Dihydroxyacetone phosphate can leave the glycolytic pathway by being converted to glycerol-3-phosphate using the enzyme glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase. This molecule would then most likely be used in the production of which of the following? A. Palmitate (a free fatty acid) B. Pyruvate C. Insulin D. Triglyceride

D. glycerol = backbone molecule for triglycerides A = wrong because free fatty acids are made from Acetyl CoA and Malonyl CoA

According to Piaget's theory of development, at which stage do children learn that things can be represented through words and images? A. Formal operational stage B. Sensorimotor stage C. Concrete operational stage D. Preoperational stage

D. Helps with language development A - abstract thinking/reasoning and moral B - explores world with 5 senses and movements C - math and logic

A mixture of acetic acid and which of the following will be LEAST effectively separated via distillation? A. C2H6 B. C15H31COOH C. CH3CHO D. CH2ClCH2OH

D. alcohol will have a more similar boiling point to acetic acid You thought C because it is an aldehyde but an aldehyde cannot accept protons like a carboxylic acid or alcohol can.

Transformation of a normal cell to a cancerous cell may begin with any of the following EXCEPT: A. a series of mutations. B. conversion of a proto-oncogene to an oncogene. C. infection of a cell with a virus that changes the nuclear genome. D. a delay in prophase of mitotic division.

D. irrelevant

The enzyme reverse transcriptase is used to create the initial complementary DNA strand, and requires a short sequence of _______ (DNA/RNA) to act as primer. What is this sequence most likely?

DNA; TTTTTTTTTTTTT to pair with mRNAs poly A tail

Cis and trans isomers can be thought of as?

Diastereomers (not chiral but not mirror images of eachother either)

Le Chatilier's principle is only relevant when a reaction is at _____________.

EQUILIBRIUM So increases in temperature/pressure BEFORE equilibrium increase rate due to increased number of collisions but NOT BECAUSE OF LE CHATILIER'S shifts.

Main difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria:

Gram positive - NO outer membrane and THICK peptidoglycan layer thus stain purple Gram negative (membrane more extensive to make up for lack of thick peptidoglycan layer) - Lipopolysaccharide (endotoxic) OUTER membrane and THIN peptidoglycan layer thus stain pink

When acidic and basic amino acids react with one another, is the resulting product more hydrophobic or hydrophilic?

HYDROPHOBIC (bc charge has been neutralized!)

Traditional M-M curves are _________. In separate cases, the slope can start off as being linear and then curve/level off. When the slope is linear, what does this mean for substrate concentration compared with enzyme concentration?

HYPERBOLIC; There is an excess of free enzymes, compared to substrate concentration [E] >>> [S] (WHEN LINEAR) [S] >>> [E] (WHEN HYPERBOLIC)

Acidic amino acids only behave like acids at what pH?

High pH (they are deprotonated/donate protons)

Basic amino acids only behave like bases at what pH?

Low pH (because they are protonated/accept protons)

Can the rate law be determined for a reaction that produces the same amount of products than there are reactants?

No because the rate law must be determined experimentally by CHANGES in concentrations (molar or pressure) and if there is no change then no rate law can be determined

universal grammar

Noam Chomsky's theory that all the world's languages share a similar underlying structure -a set of highly abstract, unconscious rules that are common to all languages

Is the di for a real image formed by a lens positive or negative?

Positive because real images form on the opposite side of the object where light actually shines through

Mindgaurding

Prevent dissenting opinions from permeating group by filtering out info and facts that go against belief of group Grouthink will occur when there is a mindgaurd that attempts to diminish any debates that may occur so everyone can agree.

True or False: Cranial nerves are part of the Peripheral Nervous System.

TRUE

status symbol

a material sign that informs others of a person's specific status (utilized in impression management)

Rate the following in increasing boiling point (all have same amount of carbons): carboxylic acid, aldehyde, alcohol

aldehyde < alcohol < carboxylic acid

The sarcolemma in muscle cells is analogous to what in other cells?

cellular membrane This is where ligands bind so that depolarization can occur and Na+ can enter, leading to Ca2+ release/entrance ---> contraction

Conjugation _________ (increases/decreases) when absorbing light of shorter wavelengths.

decreases; (ex: violet light absorbed, yellow light reflected/shown)

When rod and cone cells are functioning in the dark, they both have a ___________ (hyper/depolarized) resting membrane potential but when exposed to light, they both have a ___________ (hyper/depolarized) resting membrane potential.

depolarized; hyperpolarized You got an answer wrong because in the graph potential looked like it was going back to baseline at time 1 second (light stimulus applied) which is what normally happens during repolarization BUT THIS IS INCORRECT because following a light stimulus, rod cells and cone cells are both hyperpolarized continuously until you enter the dark. THEY WERE ASKING what is the present state at time point 1 which was hyperpolarization, and they didn't ask what follows afterwards which would be repolarization...

When is it "glutamate" and when is it "glutamic acid?"

glutamate in de-protonated form (@ physio pH) glutamic acid in protonated form (@ lower pHs)

Conjugation _________ (increases/decreases) when absorbing light of longer wavelengths.

increases (ex: red light absorbed, green light reflected/shown)

Counterion

ion that accompanies an ionic species in order to maintain electric neutrality (thus making hydrophobic overall) ex: Glutamic acid acts as a counterion with Lysine to maintain the hydrophobicity of the binding site. ex: In table salt (NaCl), the sodium ion (positively charged) is the counterion for the chlorine ion (negatively charged) and vice versa.

The speed that equilibrium is reached is based on the __________ of the forward and reverse reactions and not on what?

kinetics; thermodynamics (deltaG or Le Chatilier's)

The _________ (more extensive/less extensive) the conjugated pi system of an aromatic, the ___________ (longer/shorter) wavelength of light is absorbed.

more extensive; longer less extensive; shorter

When an error is made during production of an RNA transcript, this is most likely due to?

the poor editing ability of RNA polymerase. (cannot proof read like DNA polymerase can)

Saponification

the reaction between a fat (triglyceride) and a strong base (NaOH) to produce glycerol and the SALT of a fatty acid (soap)

Universalism (language)

thought determines language completely


Related study sets

Concepts of Biology Chapter 3 Section 3.2

View Set

Google Chrome Keyboard Shortcuts

View Set

Cultural Anthropology: Chapter Five- Globalization and Culture Quiz

View Set

Nutr: L05: Chapter 14 - Introduction to Food Safety

View Set

Ch. 9 SPA101 Exam study guide pg. 226-231

View Set

สอบปฏิบัติเวชกรรมไทย (2)

View Set