CPT 7 N

*You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session? Select one: a. 6 to 8 drills b. 4 to 5 drills c. 9 or 10 drills d. 2 to 4 drills

a. 6 to 8 drills

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Posterior deltoid c. Rhomboids d. Middle and lower trapezius

a. Latissimus dorsi

Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations? Select one: a. Self-efficacy b. Resilience c. Self-image d. Self-esteem

a. Self-efficacy

What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients? Select one: a. 12 hours b. 48 to 72 hours c. 1 week d. 24 hours

b. 48 to 72 hours

When a client indicates that she finds it difficult to complete a workout on her own, she is likely in need of which type of support? Select one: a. Instrumental support b. Companionship support c. Emotional support d. Informational support

b. Companionship support

*Which chronic disease is the leading cause of death in the world today? Select one: a. Cancer b. Coronary artery disease c. Diabetes d. Dementia

b. Coronary artery disease

Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source? Select one: a. Grains b. Dairy foods c. Beans d. Legumes

b. Dairy foods

*Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Box jumps b. Depth jumps c. Ice skaters d. Single-leg hops

b. Depth jumps

*Which term best describes a class of chronic respiratory dysfunctions that are characterized by increased breathlessness, airflow limitation, and accelerated decline of lung function? Select one: a. Lung cancer b. Asthma c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) d. Hypertension

c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

*Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge? Select one: a. Moving a grocery cart b. Getting in and out of the car c. Cleaning d. Raking leaves

c. Cleaning

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising consistently for 6 months or longer? Select one: a. Action b. Contemplation c. Maintenance d. Precontemplation

c. Maintenance

Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint? Select one: a. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization b. Single-leg hop forward c. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization d. Multiplanar hop with stabilization

c. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

What type of communication includes posture, hand gestures, proximity to others, and facial expressions? Select one: a. Motivational interviewing b. Reflective listening c. Nonverbal communication d. Verbal communication

c. Nonverbal communication

Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints? Select one: a. Osteoporosis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Osteoarthritis d. Osteopenia

c. Osteoarthritis

Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips? Select one: a. Upper crossed syndrome b. Knee valgus c. Pes planus distortion syndrome d. Lower crossed syndrome

c. Pes planus distortion syndrome

In which of the following phases of the OPT model is suspended bodyweight training considered ideal? Select one: a. Phases 4 and 5 b. Phases 1 and 3 c. Phases 1 and 2 d. Phases 3 and 4

c. Phases 1 and 2

What is a prospect? Select one: a. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal b. A method of creating a service identified by specific characteristics c. A potential career advancement opportunity d. An individual who has been identified as a potential client

d. An individual who has been identified as a potential client

Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves? Select one: a. Cervical and sacral b. Thoracic and sacral c. Thoracic and lumbar d. Cervical and thoracic

d. Cervical and thoracic

*Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification. Select one: a. 1.5 b. 4.5 c. 3 d. 2

d. 2

*At what age is the adolescent brain considered to be fully developed? Select one: a. 18 b. 30 c. 22 d. 25

d. 25

Vitamin C has a role in which of these functions? Select one: a. Increasing bone density b. Collagen synthesis only c. Immunity only d. Collagen synthesis and immunity

d. Collagen synthesis and immunity

*The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators c. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

*Resistance band exercises are best utilized in which phases of the OPT model? Select one: a. Phases 3 and 4 b. Phase 2 and 3 c. Phase 1 and Phase 4 d. Phase 2 and 5

d. Phase 2 and 5

Which statement best describes the second stage of the sales process? Select one: a. Discussing discounts on various personal training packages b. Discussing the customer's budget c. Communicating the negative side effects of a sedentary lifestyle d. Communicating solutions for the customer's needs

d. Communicating solutions for the customer's needs

Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body? Select one: a. Muscle power b. Muscle endurance c. Muscle strength d. Muscle hypertrophy

d. Muscle hypertrophy

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels? Select one: a. Strength Endurance b. Maximal Strength c. Stabilization Endurance d. Muscular Development

d. Muscular Development

At her first visit to her new fitness trainer, Alisha's BMI was 26. According to this information, how would Alisha be classified? Select one: a. Healthy weight b. Underweight c. Obese d. Overweight

d. Overweight

*Empathy is best described as? Select one: a. Providing instrumental support to an individual b. Listening to a client but not providing any support c. Being positive and outgoing during training sessions d. The ability to identify with how another person feels

d. The ability to identify with how another person feels

*Which vitamin is the most transient? Select one: a. Vitamin E b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin C

d. Vitamin C

*A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client's bone mineral density? Select one: a. Swimming b. Cycling c. Water aerobics d. Walking

d. Walking

Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT? Select one: a. Eating b. Structured exercise c. Sleeping d. Walking

d. Walking

What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell? Select one: a. A dumbbell is safer. b. Kettlebells and dumbbells are the same. c. A kettlebell is heavier. d. With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

d. With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise? Select one: a. Cables b. Tubing c. Medicine ball d. Wobble board

d. Wobble board

You are working with a new client who recently started a low-carbohydrate diet for weight loss. However, she complains of being tired and lacking energy for her training sessions. What might be the reason for her low energy? Select one: a. Inadequate carbohydrate intake b. Inadequate protein intake c. Excess fat intake d. Inadequate fat intake

a. Inadequate carbohydrate intake

Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization? Select one: a. Increases intensity while decreasing volume b. Involves training multiple styles each week c. Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring d. Changes acute variables on a weekly basis

a. Increases intensity while decreasing volume

*What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise? Select one: a. Squat jump b. Ice skaters c. Depth jumps d. Proprioceptive plyometrics

b. Ice skaters

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core? Select one: a. Cable chop b. Medicine ball woodchop throw c. Reverse crunch d. Bird dog

b. Medicine ball woodchop throw

Which type of support is the most common provided by a fitness professional? Select one: a. Instrumental support b. Informational support c. Companionship support d. Emotional support

b. Informational support

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics? Select one: a. Speed b. Power c. Neuromuscular stabilization d. Strength

c. Neuromuscular stabilization

Which common cause of death is the most preventable? Select one: a. Stroke b. Cancer c. Obesity d. Dementia

c. Obesity

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires the use of appropriate professional communication in all verbal, nonverbal, and written transactions? Select one: a. Confidentiality b. Legal and ethical c. Professionalism d. Business practice

c. Professionalism

What is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments? Select one: a. Biomechanics b. Kinesthetic awareness c. Proprioception d. Kinesiology

c. Proprioception

The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones? Select one: a. Insulin-like growth factor b. Growth hormone c. Testosterone d. Insulin

d. Insulin

What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Stretch reflex c. Autogenic inhibition d. Pattern overload

d. Pattern overload

*Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Multifidus c. Gluteus maximus d. Erector spinae

b. Multifidus

Which is a primary adaptation of the Strength Endurance training phase? Select one: a. Postural alignment b. Muscular endurance c. Mobility and flexibility d. Maximal muscular strength

b. Muscular endurance

What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training? Select one: a. Osteopenia b. Muscular hypertrophy c. Sarcopenia d. Muscular atrophy

b. Muscular hypertrophy

At his first visit to his new fitness trainer, Robert's BMI was 37. According to this information, how would Robert be classified? Select one: a. Overweight b. Obese c. Healthy weight d. Underweight

b. Obese

Which is a primary adaptation of the Power Training phase? Select one: a. Stability b. Rate of force production c. Muscle growth d. Muscular endurance

b. Rate of force production

Which of the following best describes the term power? Select one: a. Muscle growth b. Rate of force production c. Sport-specific skills d. Joint protection

b. Rate of force production

Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space? Select one: a. Hearing system b. Visual system c. Somatosensory system d. Vestibular system

b. Visual system

*Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity? Select one: a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin B6

b. Vitamin A

What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness? Select one: a. Rockport walk test b. V̇O2max c. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test d. YMCA 3-minute step test

b. V̇O2max

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Select one: a. Zone 4 b. Zone 3 c. Zone 1 d. Zone 2

b. Zone 3

What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps? Select one: a. 90 to 120 seconds b. 180 to 240 seconds c. 120 to 180 seconds d. 0 to 90 seconds

d. 0 to 90 seconds

*Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese? Select one: a. 0.6 b. 0.2 c. 0.8 d. 0.4

d. 0.4

*What is the RDA for protein? Select one: a. 1.2 g/kg of body weight b. 1.6 g/kg of body weight c. 2.0 g/kg of body weight d. 0.8 g/kg of body weight

d. 0.8 g/kg of body weight

What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients? Select one: a. 0 sessions per week b. 5 to 7 sessions per week c. 3 or 4 sessions per week d. 1 or 2 sessions per week

d. 1 or 2 sessions per week

*Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals? Select one: a. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight b. 1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight c. 1.0 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight d. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

d. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

How many calories are in 1 gram of protein? Select one: a. 4 b. 2 c. 9 d. 6

a. 4

What types of foods contain carbohydrates? Select one: a. Proteins b. Animal and plant foods c. Plant foods and dairy d. All foods

c. Plant foods and dairy

*Which two electrolytes are most commonly supplemented by athletes to replace those lost in sweat? Select one: a. Sodium and calcium b. Potassium and manganese c. Sodium and potassium d. Magnesium and sodium

c. Sodium and potassium

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface. Select one: a. Sensorimotor function b. Vestibular c. Somatosensation d. Vision

c. Somatosensation

Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise? Select one: a. Pulling b. Hip hinge c. Squatting d. Pushing

c. Squatting

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly? Select one: a. Depth jump b. Single-leg squat c. Step-ups d. Barbell clean

c. Step-ups

Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides? Select one: a. Extension b. Transverse c. Frontal d. Sagittal

d. Sagittal

What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down? Select one: a. 5 to 10 minutes b. 1 to 2 minutes c. 3 to 4 minutes d. 4 minutes

a. 5 to 10 minutes

Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Quadratus lumborum c. Multifidus d. Diaphragm

a. Erector spinae

*How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described? Select one: a. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted b. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint c. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary d. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle

a. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted

*What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. A faster tempo, similar to daily life b. Slow and controlled movements c. Stabilization of the LPHC d. Use of heavy weights

a. A faster tempo, similar to daily life

During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body? Select one: a. Carbohydrates b. Lipids c. Proteins d. Amino acids

a. Carbohydrates

Food is composed of which three compounds? Select one: a. Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins b. Amino acids, ATP, and glycogen c. Ketones, insulin, and ADP d. ATP, glucose, and pyruvate

a. Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins

Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature? Select one: a. Close grip bench press b. Seated cable row c. Lat pulldown d. Ball cobra

a. Close grip bench press

*A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used? Select one: a. Complex training b. Pyramid system c. Drop set d. Giant set

a. Complex training

The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body? Select one: a. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region b. Scapular region c. Leg region d. Back region

a. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region

Which of the following statements is the most accurate when discussing strength-training machines? Select one: a. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise. b. Machines are superior to free weights for improving core stability because they increase core stability demands. c. Machines always work well for those who are obese or are smaller or taller than average. d. Machines work in multiple planes and allow for greater gains in strength development.

a. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise.

A client is asked, "Why do you want to lose weight?" This is an example of what kind of question? Select one: a. Open-ended b. Directive c. Contemplation d. Closed-ended

a. Open-ended

Which of the following statements is true about proprietary blends? Select one: a. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed. b. Proprietary blends never contain efficacious doses of ingredients. c. Proprietary blends are featured on all supplements. d. Proprietary blends are used by companies so they can add illegal ingredients.

a. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed.

*What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury? Select one: a. Proprioception b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. External feedback d. Force velocity

a. Proprioception

*What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ? Select one: a. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change b. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse c. Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening d. Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion

a. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle? Select one: a. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change b. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening c. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion d. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse

a. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

What is the most accurate description of motor control? Select one: a. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements b. The integration of motor control processes through practice c. The cumulative changes in motor behavior over time, throughout the life span d. The motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli

a. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements

What is an example of an external factor that may influence the risk of falling in older adults? Select one: a. The environment b. Muscle strength c. Ligament integrity d. Joint stability

a. The environment

*What is forecasting? Select one: a. A rapport-building technique where fitness professionals walk around the gym floor talking to members without overtly presenting a sale b. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal c. A system for learning about the needs of a potential client to be able to identify and present a number of solutions for those needs d. A relationship in which two people understand each other's ideas, have respect for one another, and communicate well

b. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal

What are the two components of a sarcomere? Select one: a. Epimysium and endomysium b. Actin and myosin c. Tropomyosin and troponin d. Muscle fiber and muscle cell

b. Actin and myosin

Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body? Select one: a. The brain b. Autonomic nervous system c. Mechanoreceptors d. Somatic nervous system

b. Autonomic nervous system

At the beginning of an exercise session, a client has shared that they are in a bad mood and would rather skip the session. Which of the following observations should the fitness professional share with the client? Select one: a. Exercise can only affect mood when done for at least 60 minutes, so it would be best to stay longer than normal. b. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy. c. Exercise is known to exacerbate a bad mood; therefore, stopping the session is a good idea. d. Exercise cannot improve mood, so it would be best to reschedule the session for another day.

b. Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.

Waist circumference acts as an important indicator for diseases such as what? Select one: a. Osteoporosis b. Heart disease and diabetes c. Cancer d. Alzheimer's disease

b. Heart disease and diabetes

Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics? Select one: a. Knee extension b. Hip abduction c. Ankle plantar flexion d. Hip extension

b. Hip abduction

Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw? Select one: a. Diaphragm b. Latissimus dorsi c. Quadriceps d. Multifidus

b. Latissimus dorsi

*Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? Select one: a. Left ventricle b. Left atrium c. Pulmonary veins d. Right atrium

b. Left atrium

* Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body? Select one: a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right atrium d. Right ventricle

b. Left ventricle

*What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise? Select one: a. Anterior chain b. Posterior chain c. Deep cervical flexors d. Intrinsic core musculature

b. Posterior chain

*What stage of change is a person in if they are planning to begin exercising soon and have taken steps toward it? Select one: a. Action b. Preparation c. Precontemplation d. Maintenance

b. Preparation

*Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? Select one: a. Hip hinge b. Pushing c. Squatting d. Pulling

b. Pushing

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term? Select one: a. Altered reciprocal inhibition b. Synergistic dominance c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Altered length-tension relationship

b. Synergistic dominance

*What is osteoporosis? Select one: a. Chronic inflammation of the joints b. Lower than normal bone density c. A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile d. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults

c. A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile

*What statement best describes a nonprofit health club? Select one: a. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment b. A health club that offers complimentary memberships and free childcare services for low-income families c. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives d. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services

c. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives

*When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Stretch reflex c. Autogenic inhibition d. Isometric contraction

c. Autogenic inhibition

Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement? Select one: a. Standing cable chest press b. Push-up c. Ball squat, curl to press d. Romanian deadlift

c. Ball squat, curl to press

Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Compression of the myofascia "tightens" the tissues by decreasing local blood flow, which increases myofascial restriction. b. Compression of the myofascia increases psychological alertness and stimulates release of growth hormones. c. Compression to the local myofascia "relaxes" the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions. d. Compression of the myofascia causes the delayed onset of muscle soreness within 48 hours of rolling.

c. Compression to the local myofascia "relaxes" the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.

Mac, an NASM-CPT, has been working as a personal trainer at a health club for almost 3 years. He has consistently received positive job evaluations, making him eligible for a promotion. What opportunity would be the most appropriate to pursue, given his experience? Select one: a. Group fitness manager b. Area fitness manager c. Fitness manager d. General manager

c. Fitness manager

*When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise? Select one: a. Resting heart rate b. Body composition c. Flexibility d. Blood pressure

c. Flexibility

What equation represents power? Select one: a. Time ÷ work b. a2 + b2 = c2 c. Force x velocity d. Y = mx + b

c. Force x velocity

How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Select one: a. Three b. Six c. Four d. Seven

c. Four

*Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed? Select one: a. Lack of fatty acids b. Depletion of phosphocreatine c. Free hydrogen ions d. Lack of pyruvate

c. Free hydrogen ions

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion? Select one: a. Little motion b. Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion c. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing d. No motion

c. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing

What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action? Select one: a. Coping plan b. Self-monitoring c. Implementation intention d. Guided practice

c. Implementation intention

*Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier? Select one: a. Let them know you understand it is a difficult decision to participate and you will give them time to think about it. b. Let them know that you will not take no for an answer because exercise is good for everyone. c. Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate. d. Provide information about the benefits of participating and hope they decide to participate.

c. Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.

What is the best choice of attire to an interview at a health club? Select one: a. Brand-new workout clothes b. Business casual c. Professional business attire d. Jeans and a polo shirt

c. Professional business attire

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer? Select one: a. Resistance training is contraindicated for clients with diagnosed cancer. b. Core training poses serious risks to the vertebral column. c. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments. d. Balance training poses serious risks to the hips and pelvis.

c. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee valgus? Select one: a. The hip shifting toward one side or the other b. The knees bowing outward c. The knees collapsing inward d. An upright trunk and knees in front of toes

c. The knees collapsing inward

Social physique anxiety is best defined by which statement? Select one: a. When someone has general anxiety about physical activity b. When someone has anxiety about how their physique looks in the mirror c. When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body d. When someone has anxiety about social situations

c. When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body

Which food would be classified as a high biological value protein source? Select one: a. Lentils b. Peas c. Whole eggs d. Beans

c. Whole eggs

*What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension? Select one: a. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher b. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic c. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg d. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

d. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

*The PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process reflects what three health indicators? Select one: a. An individual's desired exercise intensity, body composition, and gender b. An individual's habits related to exercise, diet, and sleep c. An individual's current level of physical activity, age, and weight d. An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity

d. An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity

What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes? Select one: a. Energy imagery b. Technique imagery c. Positive self-talk d. Appearance imagery

d. Appearance imagery

How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise? Select one: a. Thighs parallel to the ground b. Knees at 80 degrees of flexion c. Knees at 90 degrees of flexion d. As far as can be controlled without compensating

d. As far as can be controlled without compensating

Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Adequate core stability b. Power exercise familiarity c. Adequate joint stability d. Deconditioning

d. Deconditioning

For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders? Select one: a. Elevated and slightly protracted b. Elevated and slightly retracted c. Depressed and slightly protracted d. Depressed and slightly retracted

d. Depressed and slightly retracted

When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following benefits to users? Select one: a. Decreased opportunities to perform full-body movements b. Increased user safety c. Decreased challenges to balance and stability d. Increased multiplanar movement

d. Increased multiplanar movement

*Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion? Select one: a. Athletic performance is a universal goal. b. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane. c. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury. d. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

d. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.

Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training? Select one: a. Sports skills b. Body composition c. Height d. Injury history

d. Injury history

*Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury. Select one: a. Rehabilitation b. Performance c. Posture d. Injury resistance

d. Injury resistance

Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation? Select one: a. Amotivation b. Incentive motivation c. Extrinsic motivation d. Intrinsic motivation

d. Intrinsic motivation

*A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in? Select one: a. Action b. Maintenance c. Precontemplation d. Preparation

d. Preparation

How often should elastic resistance bands be checked? Select one: a. Only when there are signs of wear b. Once a week c. Once a day d. Prior to every use

d. Prior to every use

This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone's static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance. Select one: a. Seated weight-training exercises b. Flat floor c. Static balance d. Proprioceptively enriched

d. Proprioceptively enriched

What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change? Select one: a. Encourage them to make plans to exercise b. Tell them to exercise with a friend c. Help them identify barriers to exercise d. Provide them with education and knowledge

d. Provide them with education and knowledge

If the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed? Select one: a. Reach to their waist b. Reach to their toes c. Reach to their shin d. Reach to their knee

d. Reach to their knee

*A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client? Select one: a. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows. b. The dumbbell overhead press exercise should be spotted to increase client safety. c. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise. d. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.

d. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.

Which of the following is not a negative side effect of stress? Select one: a. Restricted blood flow b. Atherosclerosis c. Hypertension d. The release of endorphins

d. The release of endorphins

Beth is considering opportunities for how to begin her career as a fitness professional. If her primary goal is to earn a stable income by helping clients reach their fitness goals, which of the following would provide the best option? Select one: a. Offering in-home training services b. Working for a low-cost health club company c. Creating online coaching programs d. Working for a premium health club company

d. Working for a premium health club company

*Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor? Select one: a. Barbell squats b. Suspended bodyweight crunch c. Medicine ball catch and pass d. Stability ball plank

c. Medicine ball catch and pass

When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure? Select one: a. The head of the participant b. An imaginary point 4 inches lateral to the hip of the participant c. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing d. The midline of the pelvis of the participant

c. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing

Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise? Select one: a. Venous pooling b. Decreased venous return c. Increased ventricular filling d. Decreased ventricular filling

c. Increased ventricular filling

*Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action? Select one: a. Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction b. The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion c. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation d. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula

c. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver? Select one: a. It involves expiring against a closed glottis. b. It can raise an individual's heart rate and blood pressure. c. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension. d. It increases intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.

c. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Cancer and bleeding disorders b. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension c. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis d. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis

c. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

What is the ideal landing position when performing the squat jump exercise? Select one: a. Knees inside the first toe b. Knee valgus c. Knees over second and third toes d. Knee varus

c. Knees over second and third toes

For a Certified Personal Trainer, what would provide the most time-efficient option for increasing income potential? Select one: a. Pursuing a degree in exercise science b. Becoming a registered dietitian nutritionist (RDN) to provide nutritional counseling c. Learning how to lead group training programs d. Earning a massage therapy license to be able to offer massage treatments

c. Learning how to lead group training programs

What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber? Select one: a. Larger in size b. Quick to fatigue c. Less force production d. Fewer capillaries

c. Less force production

Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise? Select one: a. High-impact activity b. Proprioceptive training c. Low-impact activity d. Loaded movement training

c. Low-impact activity

*Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility? Select one: a. 40-yard dash b. Vertical jump c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) d. Pro shuttle

c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

*Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water? Select one: a. 0.6 b. 0.8 c. 0.5 d. 0.4

a. 0.6

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Cervical extensors c. Lower trapezius d. Serratus anterior

c. Lower trapezius

Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness? Select one: a. ViPR b. Sandbag c. Medicine ball d. Kettlebell

c. Medicine ball

Which part of a cell is responsible for using nutrients to create energy for the cell? Select one: a. Effector sites b. Organelles c. Mitochondria d. Electrolytes

c. Mitochondria

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching? Select one: a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions b. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions c. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, and repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions d. 4 to 6 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 3 repetitions

a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions

According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis? Select one: a. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight b. 2.4 to 3.5 g/kg of body weight c. 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight d. 3.5 to 5.0 g/kg of body weight

a. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

*Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times? Select one: a. 10% b. 30% c. 5% d. 20%

a. 10%

*Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what measurement? Select one: a. 120/80 mm Hg b. 80/120 mm Hg c. 120/60 mm Hg d. 125/75 mm Hg

a. 120/80 mm Hg

*What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest? Select one: a. 15 breaths per minute b. 7 breaths per minute c. 25 breaths per minute d. 19 breaths per minute

a. 15 breaths per minute

*What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for beginner clients? Select one: a. 15 to 60 seconds b. 60 to 90 seconds c. 90 to 120 seconds d. 0 to 15 seconds

a. 15 to 60 seconds

*Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Tuck jump b. Butt kick c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization d. Power step-up

c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

Which of the following movements trains a client in all three planes of motion? Select one: a. BOSU squat b. Barbell squat c. Multiplanar lunge d. Dumbbell renegade row

c. Multiplanar lunge

Low-intensity activity burns a higher proportion of fat as fuel, but if someone wanted to burn the most total calories from any substrate, which of the following activities would be most effective? Select one: a. 20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity b. 5 minutes of high-intensity activity c. 20 minutes of walking d. 20 minutes of low-intensity activity

a. 20 minutes of moderate-intensity activity

How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)? Select one: a. 30 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 45 minutes d. 90 minutes

a. 30 minutes

*What are the current physical activity recommendations for youth? Select one: a. 60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day b. 50 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day c. 40 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day d. 30 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day

a. 60 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity per day

*What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? Select one: a. 75 minutes per week b. 90 minutes per week c. 120 minutes per week d. 60 minutes per week

a. 75 minutes per week

Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity? Select one: a. Afferent nerve function b. Vestibular function c. Neuromuscular function d. Sensory function

c. Neuromuscular function

What is a professional development technique that helps individuals identify their personal strengths and weaknesses, opportunities for growth, and potential threats to success? Select one: a. A SWOT analysis b. A unique selling proposition (USP) c. Forecasting d. Building rapport

a. A SWOT analysis

Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients? Select one: a. Pushing assessment b. Pulling assessment c. Overhead squat d. Single-leg squat

c. Overhead squat

*If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity? Select one: a. Glycolysis b. The ATP-PC system c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. Beta-oxidation

c. Oxidative phosphorylation

What is the principle of specificity? Select one: a. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it b. The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle c. The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts d. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium

a. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the body? Select one: a. A very low-carbohydrate diet b. A caloric surplus c. A low-protein diet d. High-intensity exercise

a. A very low-carbohydrate diet

*What are the end products of the electron transport chain? Select one: a. ATP and water b. ADP and hydrogen ions c. ATP and oxygen d. ADP and water

a. ATP and water

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Abdominals b. Adductor complex c. Hip flexors d. Lower trapezius

a. Abdominals

*What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)? Select one: a. About 5-15% b. About 50% c. About 90% d. About 30%

a. About 5-15%

What is defined as the level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action? Select one: a. Adherence b. Hypertrophy c. Overtraining d. Goals

a. Adherence

What is defined as steady-state exercise? Select one: a. Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity b. Exercise performed for a short duration of time c. Exercise that goes on for a long time d. Exercise that burns a lot of calories

a. Aerobic exercise performed at a constant intensity

*Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control? Select one: a. Agility b. Stride rate c. Speed d. Quickness

a. Agility

*What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2? Select one: a. An RPE of 5 to 6 b. An RPE of 9 to 10 c. An RPE of 3 to 4 d. An RPE of 7 to 8

a. An RPE of 5 to 6

What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow? Select one: a. Movement assessments b. Body composition c. Performance assessments d. Biometric data

c. Performance assessments

What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate? Select one: a. Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed b. The point at which the body's energy system converts glycogen to glucose without the use of oxygen c. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources d. The point at which glucose provides nearly all the energy for the activity.

a. Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed

*What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Stretch reflex d. Isometric contraction

a. Autogenic inhibition

What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Synergistic dominance d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

a. Autogenic inhibition

When it comes to barriers to exercise, which statement is correct? Select one: a. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active. b. Barriers never change; therefore, individuals need to focus on motives. c. It is impossible to ever fully overcome all barriers. d. All individuals have "lack of time" as a barrier.

a. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.

Stored energy from an efficiently functioning stretch-shortening cycle is released during which muscle action? Select one: a. Concentric b. Eccentric c. Isokinetic d. Isometric

a. Concentric

Robert is a recently retired military veteran. He has earned his NASM-CPT credential because he wants to help young people prepare for the physical demands of serving in the military. Which employment options provide him with the greatest access to potential clients in all geographic locations? Select one: a. Conducting online coaching and personal training b. Hosting boot camps in a local park c. Working as an in-home independent personal trainer d. Working in a nonprofit facility

a. Conducting online coaching and personal training

*How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout? Select one: a. Continuous talking becomes challenging b. Normal conversation is maintained. c. Only a few words can be produced between breaths d. Inability to speak at all

a. Continuous talking becomes challenging

What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned on the opposite side of the body? Select one: a. Contralateral b. Lateral c. Ipsilateral d. Posterior

a. Contralateral

A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome? Select one: a. Convenience b. Ambivalence c. Lack of social support d. Lack of time

a. Convenience

*The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term? Select one: a. Core stability b. Core power c. Core strength d. Core endurance

a. Core stability

What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment? Select one: a. Correct technique b. Both feet on the floor c. A stable floor d. The absence of perturbations

a. Correct technique

*What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish? Select one: a. Deceleration b. Acceleration c. Stabilization d. Amortization

a. Deceleration

*Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following? Select one: a. Decreased blood flow b. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE) c. Increased cardiac output d. Lower body temperature

a. Decreased blood flow

*What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior? Select one: a. Determinants b. Self-efficacy c. Attitudes d. Behavior change techniques

a. Determinants

*Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1? Select one: a. Develop an appropriate aerobic base b. Develop aerobic efficiency c. Improve anaerobic capacity and power d. Develop anaerobic capacity

a. Develop an appropriate aerobic base

Which of the following is not a component of an integrated approach to exercise? Select one: a. Diet supplementation b. Speed, agility, and quickness c. Core strength and stability d. Balance

a. Diet supplementation

What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises? Select one: a. Dual-foot drills b. Side-to-side hops c. Sport skills d. Depth jumps

a. Dual-foot drills

*Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance? Select one: a. Dynamic balance b. Stationary balance c. Static balance d. Semi-dynamic balance

a. Dynamic balance

*What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise? Select one: a. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption b. Thermic effect of food c. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis d. Exercise activity thermogenesis

a. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption

What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings? Select one: a. Flexibility exercises b. Strengthening exercises c. Plyometric exercises d. Balance exercises

a. Flexibility exercises

*Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin? Select one: a. Folate b. Pantothenic acid c. Vitamin C d. Niacin

a. Folate

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United States? Select one: a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) c. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) d. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)

a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? Select one: a. Gluconeogenesis b. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Glycolysis d. Oxidation

a. Gluconeogenesis

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Rectus abdominis c. Gastrocnemius and soleus d. Hip flexor complex

a. Gluteus maximus

Apart from energy intake and physical activity, which of the following factors also influence weight management? Select one: a. Hormones and medications b. Blood flow c. Body temperature d. Vitamin and mineral supplements

a. Hormones and medications

Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal? Select one: a. I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months. b. I want to lose 20 pounds in the next month. c. I want to lose weight. d. I want to lose 20 pounds.

a. I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.

*Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion? Select one: a. Iliopsoas b. Latissimus dorsi c. Rectus abdominis d. Erector spinae

a. Iliopsoas

What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise? Select one: a. Increased heart rate b. Decreased stroke volume c. Decreased heart rate d. Increased end-systolic volume

a. Increased heart rate

What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for? Select one: a. Individuals with performance goals b. Elderly individuals c. Deconditioned individuals d. Individuals recovering from an injury

a. Individuals with performance goals

The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally? Select one: a. Inferiorly b. Superiorly c. Medially d. Laterally

a. Inferiorly

Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training? Select one: a. Instability training using a stability ball b. Planking on a stable surface c. Prone dead bugs on floor d. Marching on a stable surface

a. Instability training using a stability ball

How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production? Select one: a. It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle. b. It builds up extra heat in the muscles, which makes them more powerful. c. The amortization phase helps generate additional forces. d. Eccentric contractions are minimized.

a. It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle.

*Which type of cholesterol tends to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease? Select one: a. LDL (low-density lipoprotein) b. EDL (elevated-density lipoprotein) c. HDL (high-density lipoprotein) d. MDL (medium-density lipoprotein)

a. LDL (low-density lipoprotein)

Which of the following is magnesium classified as? Select one: a. Macromineral b. Macronutrient c. Vitamin d. Trace mineral

a. Macromineral

At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest? Select one: a. Maintenance b. Precontemplation c. Contemplation d. Preparation

a. Maintenance

Before studying to become an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, Kim worked as a copywriter for a large ad agency. Now that she is working as a personal trainer at a fitness studio, she is looking for additional income opportunities. Which of the following would provide her with the best option for increasing her earning potential? Select one: a. Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area b. College football conditioning coach c. College instructor d. Becoming an NASM Master Instructor

a. Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area

*What part of a SMART goal involves being able to track progress? Select one: a. Measurable b. Attainable c. Specific d. Timely

a. Measurable

What area of the chest contains the heart? Select one: a. Mediastinum b. Atrium c. Ventricle d. Myofibril

a. Mediastinum

*What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence? Select one: a. Motivational interviewing b. Reflective listening c. Affirming d. Collecting summaries

a. Motivational interviewing

What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time? Select one: a. Muscular endurance b. Rate of force production c. Muscular hypertrophy d. Stabilization

a. Muscular endurance

What is credible nutrition information? Select one: a. Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science b. Nutrition information that is supported by news and media c. Nutrition information that is believable d. Nutrition information that is reported to be true

a. Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science

SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions? Select one: a. Osteopenia b. Lung cancer c. There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this condition. d. Arthritis

a. Osteopenia

*What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis? Select one: a. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling. b. Osteoporosis is considered more than a precaution for myofascial rolling. c. Osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercises. d. Osteoporosis is not considered a precaution for static stretching.

a. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.

What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer? Select one: a. PAR-Q+ b. An annual physical c. Dietary assessment d. Overhead squat assessment

a. PAR-Q+

Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest? Select one: a. Parasympathetic nervous system b. Central nervous system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Somatic nervous system

a. Parasympathetic nervous system

Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility? Select one: a. Performance assessment b. Static posture assessment c. Overhead squat assessment d. Dynamic posture assessment

a. Performance assessment

*What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body? Select one: a. Peripheral vasodilation b. Thermoregulation c. Heart rate d. Blood pressure

a. Peripheral vasodilation

Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next? Select one: a. Phase 2 b. Phase 3 c. Phase 5 d. Phase 4

a. Phase 2

What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under? Select one: a. Phase 3 b. Phase 1 c. Phase 5 d. Phase 2

a. Phase 3

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength? Select one: a. Power Training b. Stabilization Endurance Training c. Strength Endurance Training d. Muscular Development Training

a. Power Training

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production? Select one: a. Power Training b. Stabilization Endurance Training c. Muscular Development Training d. Strength Endurance Training

a. Power Training

Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client? Select one: a. Previous injury b. Laxity of a joint c. Prime-mover relaxation d. Stabilizer muscle relaxation

a. Previous injury

The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach? Select one: a. Progressive overload b. Systematic approach c. All-or-nothing principle d. SAID principle

a. Progressive overload

*Which of the macronutrients has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF)? Select one: a. Protein b. Glucose c. Carbohydrates d. Lipids

a. Protein

*Which of the following is not considered an open-chain exercise? Select one: a. Push-up b. Lat pulldown c. Bench press d. Machine leg extension

a. Push-up

Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat? Select one: a. Quadriceps b. Adductor longus c. Biceps brachii d. Gluteus medius

a. Quadriceps

What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Length-tension relationship d. Muscle imbalance

a. Reciprocal inhibition

*Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day? Select one: a. Resting metabolic rate b. Thermic effect of food c. Exercise d. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis

a. Resting metabolic rate

Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure? Select one: a. Resting metabolism b. Thermic effect of food c. Exercise d. Thermic effect of activity

a. Resting metabolism

What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down? Select one: a. Restore optimal length-tension relationships b. Improve sports skills c. Increase maximal strength d. Correct muscle imbalances

a. Restore optimal length-tension relationships

What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs? Select one: a. Restrictive lung disease b. Peripheral arterial disease c. Osteoporosis d. Rheumatoid arthritis

a. Restrictive lung disease

If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize? Select one: a. SMR/static stretching b. SMR/dynamic stretching c. SMR/active stretching d. Dynamic/active stretching

a. SMR/static stretching

Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4 and 5 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Sandbags b. Battle ropes c. Strength machines d. TRX Rip Trainer

a. Sandbags

*What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments? Select one: a. Knee dominance, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome b. Low-back arches, shoulders elevate, and head juts forward c. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome d. Pes planus distortion syndrome, knees cave inward, and arms fall forward

c. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome

*When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called? Select one: a. Oxidation b. Transformation c. Phosphorylation d. ATP-PC

c. Phosphorylation

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms? Select one: a. Plasma b. White blood cells c. Platelets d. Red blood cells

c. Platelets

*Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise? Select one: a. Stabilization training b. Power training c. Plyometric training d. SAQ training

c. Plyometric training

Selectorized machines provide all the following benefits except for which one? Select one: a. Are often accompanied by instructional diagrams or pictures b. Offer users the ability to change resistance easily c. Provide an increased range of motion d. Are often less intimidating than free weights for novice exercisers

c. Provide an increased range of motion

What statement best describes a mid-market health club? Select one: a. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services b. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment c. A health club that provides all the features of low-cost clubs and additional amenities like higher-end locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership d. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives

c. A health club that provides all the features of low-cost clubs and additional amenities like higher-end locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership

What is the Valsalva maneuver? Select one: a. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium b. The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts c. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability d. The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach

c. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

During an interview with the hiring manager at a large health club, Sarah, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is asked how she can contribute as a personal trainer even though she has no formal experience working in the field. What would be the most appropriate response? Select one: a. Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor. b. Sarah discusses her experience as a high school athlete. Because she was a good athlete, she thinks she will be a good personal trainer. c. Sarah mentions her experience as a cashier at a snack bar. She thinks this demonstrates her ability to run a cash register and complete daily cash reports. d. Sarah mentions her experience training for figure competitions. She thinks that experience means that she can help clients train for their competitions.

a. Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor.

Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise? Select one: a. Seated leg extension b. Barbell squat c. Bench press d. Overhead press

a. Seated leg extension

What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion? Select one: a. Self-myofascial techniques b. Dynamic stretching c. Active stretching d. Static stretching

a. Self-myofascial techniques

*Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed? Select one: a. Small intestine b. Esophagus c. Large intestine d. Stomach

a. Small intestine

Which term refers to a person's education, income, and occupation? Select one: a. Socioeconomic status b. Behavioral health c. Emotional health d. Global state of health

a. Socioeconomic status

Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"? Select one: a. Stability b. Endurance c. Strength d. Power

a. Stability

What is the primary action of the multifidus? Select one: a. Stabilize and extend the spine b. Support the contents of the pelvis c. Regulate inspiration d. Increase intra-abdominal pressure

a. Stabilize and extend the spine

Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises? Select one: a. Standing b. Sitting c. Kneeling d. Lying down on back

a. Standing

What is defined as the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance? Select one: a. Stride rate b. Stride length c. Power d. Agility

a. Stride rate

What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned above an identified reference point? Select one: a. Superior b. Inferior c. Anterior d. Posterior

a. Superior

Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold measurements? Select one: a. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site. b. Take skinfold measurements immediately after exercise. c. Do not give clients prior instructions about measurement protocol, as this can skew results. d. Do not open the jaw of the caliper before removing it from the site.

a. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site.

*Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body? Select one: a. The approximate midpoint of the body b. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface c. The highest elevation of the body in space when walking d. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support

a. The approximate midpoint of the body

Social support is best described by which statement? Select one: a. The intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior b. Posting on social media about the recent successes of clients c. Rearranging a schedule to accommodate a client's availability d. Providing counseling sessions with clients who exhibit signs of depression

a. The intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior

*Which feature of a food label would enable a client to assess the nutrient composition of a food product? Select one: a. The nutrition facts panel b. The percent reference intake c. The nutrient-to-ingredient ratio d. The ingredients list

a. The nutrition facts panel

What is atherosclerosis? Select one: a. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow b. The state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream. c. A normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable d. The state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream

a. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts, or tartan tracks? Select one: a. The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk. b. Only athletes need plyometric training. c. They protect the exerciser from real-world movement. d. The surfaces are unstable and proprioceptively enriched.

a. The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.

What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle? Select one: a. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance b. Muscle hypertrophy, altered neuromuscular inhibition, poor flexibility, muscle ache, swelling, and tissue bruising c. Muscle atrophy, neuromuscular recruitment, increased flexibility, muscle pain, bruising, and tissue edema d. Muscle spasm, neuromuscular pain, increased psychological fear, poor flexibility, muscle pain, and bruising

a. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance

What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin? Select one: a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Prediabetes d. Gestational

a. Type 1

Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation? Select one: a. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis b. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis c. Type 2 diabetes d. Type 1 diabetes

a. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

If a client performs a stabilization workout on Monday, a power workout on Wednesday, and an SAQ sports workout on Saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle? Select one: a. Undulating b. Linear c. Macrocycle d. Mesocycle

a. Undulating

Which postural distortion is characterized by a forward head and rounded shoulders? Select one: a. Upper crossed syndrome b. Pes planus distortion syndrome c. Knee valgus d. Lower crossed syndrome

a. Upper crossed syndrome

Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure? Select one: a. Validity b. Reliability c. Appropriateness d. Relevance

a. Validity

What is the definition of energy balance? Select one: a. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs b. When protein intake is higher than protein breakdown c. When daily food intake is consistent d. When carbohydrates are consumed before a workout

a. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs

Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens? Select one: a. When goals are not adjusted b. When only one goal is set c. When outcome goals are objective d. When process goals are too specific

a. When goals are not adjusted

What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching? Select one: a. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions b. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises c. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises d. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions

b. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

*What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? Select one: a. 300 minutes per week b. 150 minutes per week c. 125 minutes per week d. 75 minutes per week

b. 150 minutes per week

What BMI score is considered within normal limits? Select one: a. 35 to 39.9 b. 18.5 to 24.9 c. 25 to 29.9 d. 30 to 34.9

b. 18.5 to 24.9

What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual's maximal heart rate? Select one: a. VO2max x % intensity desired b. 208 - (0.7 x age) c. [(HRmax - HRrest) x % intensity desired] + HRrest d. HRmax x % intensity desired

b. 208 - (0.7 x age)

At what BMI threshold does a person's chance for obesity-related health problems increase? Select one: a. 20 b. 30 c. 18.5 d. 22.5

b. 30

*How many B vitamins are there? Select one: a. 12 b. 8 c. 3 d. 21

b. 8

Circuit training is best described as what? Select one: a. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight to load exercise movements b. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements c. Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each movement d. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement, such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended crunch

b. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements

What best describes the all-or-nothing principle? Select one: a. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers b. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all. c. All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do. d. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers

b. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.

*Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout? Select one: a. Client's choice b. Activation c. Skill development d. Resistance training

b. Activation

The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Hamstrings and erector spinae b. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

b. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators

What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? Select one: a. Altered length-tension relationship b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance

b. Altered reciprocal inhibition

What are the building blocks of body proteins? Select one: a. Ketone bodies b. Amino acids c. Glucose d. Triglycerides

b. Amino acids

What are nonessential amino acids? Select one: a. The by-product of the breakdown of animal proteins b. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate c. Amino acids that are not required in the body d. Amino acids that must be consumed in dietary protein and cannot be created by the body

b. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate

What is a drop set? Select one: a. A progressive or regressive step approach that either increases weight with each set or decreases weight with each set b. An approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set c. A system that consists of a series of exercises that an individual performs one after the other, with minimal rest between each exercise d. A system that alternates a heavy resistance exercise with an explosive power exercise that is biomechanically similar in movement

b. An approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set

*What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics? Select one: a. Ankle dorsiflexion, hip flexion of the lead leg, and elbow flexion b. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg c. Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg d. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the rear leg

b. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg

*When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used? Select one: a. Hip abduction b. Ankle plantar flexion c. Knee flexion d. Ankle dorsiflexion

b. Ankle plantar flexion

*Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion? Select one: a. Failure of diastolic blood pressure to rise by more than 15 mm Hg b. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms c. Labored or heavy breathing associated with exertion d. An elevation of systolic blood pressure to 220 mm Hg

b. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms

What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle? Select one: a. Ketosis b. Beta-oxidation c. Glycolysis d. Acidosis

b. Beta-oxidation

What duration does the National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM) typically recommend for the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up? Select one: a. Between 1 and 3 minutes b. Between 5 and 10 minutes c. Between 10 and 15 minutes d. Between 3 and 5 minutes

b. Between 5 and 10 minutes

*Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Select one: a. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac c. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh d. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest

b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

*Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins? Select one: a. Biologically active forms are less efficient. b. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels. c. Biologically active forms lead to toxicity. d. Biologically active forms lead to deficiency.

b. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.

*For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal? Select one: a. Decreased volume and intensity b. Body fat loss c. Muscle mass atrophy d. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss

b. Body fat loss

What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone? Select one: a. Sarcopenia b. Bone density c. Osteoporosis d. Osteopenia

b. Bone density

What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates? Select one: a. Carbohydrates that are difficult to digest b. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch c. Carbohydrates used for high-intensity exercise d. Carbohydrates from beans and legumes

b. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch

The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to remove what waste product? Select one: a. Water b. Carbon dioxide c. Oxygen d. Platelets

b. Carbon dioxide

Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity? Select one: a. Central to the right and posterior to the spine b. Central to the left and anterior to the spine c. Central to the left and posterior to the spine d. Central to the right and anterior to the spine

b. Central to the left and anterior to the spine

What is the correct order of segments for the spine, starting at the top? Select one: a. Thoracic, cervical, and lumbar b. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar c. Cervical, lumbar, and thoracic d. Lumbar, cervical, and thoracic

b. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

Which of these approaches is best in terms of safety and performance when using the box jump-up exercise with clients? Select one: a. Choosing only small step boxes b. Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities c. Choosing the highest box available d. Letting the client choose the box size

b. Choosing a box height in line with their capabilities

What stage of change is a person in if they are planning on exercising within the next 6 months? Select one: a. Maintenance b. Contemplation c. Action d. Precontemplation

b. Contemplation

What should be the first step in a client's program after the assessment? Select one: a. Designing the speed, agility, and quickness portion of the program b. Designing the flexibility portion of the program c. Telling the client to eat some type of complex carbohydrate d. Having the client do their cardiovascular exercise for weight loss

b. Designing the flexibility portion of the program

Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure? Select one: a. The ileum of the small intestine b. Duodenum of the small intestine c. Duodenum of the large intestine d. The ileum of the large intestine

b. Duodenum of the small intestine

*Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability? Select one: a. High-level balance b. Dynamic balance c. Static balance d. Semi-dynamic balance

b. Dynamic balance

Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/86 mm Hg fall? Select one: a. Stage 1 hypertension b. Elevated c. Stage 2 hypertension d. Normal

b. Elevated

For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward? Select one: a. Knee varus b. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt c. Knee valgus d. Knee dominance

a. Knee varus

Which of the following is considered the gold standard measurement for cardiorespiratory fitness? Select one: a. VO2max b. Maximal heart rate c. Ventilatory threshold d. Steady-state heart rate

a. VO2max

Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves? Select one: a. Cervical and thoracic b. Cervical and lumbar c. Thoracic and lumbar d. Cervical and sacral

b. Cervical and lumbar

Self-esteem and body image are said to have which type of relationship? Select one: a. Autonomous b. Reciprocal c. Unequal d. Independent

b. Reciprocal

Which joints are most associated with human movement? Select one: a. Nonsynovial b. Synovial c. Saddle d. Nonaxial

b. Synovial

Which of the following is not a goal of Phase 1 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Improving mobility b. Proper movement patterns c. Increasing strength d. Improving stability

c. Increasing strength

*What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body? Select one: a. Regional interdependence b. Kinesiology c. Osteokinematics d. Biomechanics

d. Biomechanics

How often does an NASM Certified Personal Trainer need to renew their certification? Select one: a. Every 3 years b. Every year c. Every 5 years d. Every 2 years

d. Every 2 years

*What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries? Select one: a. Heart valve problem b. Arrhythmia c. Hypertension d. Ischemic heart disease

d. Ischemic heart disease

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Teres major b. Latissimus dorsi c. Pectoralis major d. Middle and lower trapezius

d. Middle and lower trapezius

*What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test? Select one: a. 12 inches b. 10 inches c. 16 inches d. 14 inches

a. 12 inches

*Kettlebells were first used in which setting? Select one: a. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales b. Eastern European gymnastic programs c. By the Greeks and Egyptians as a training tool for gladiators d. The Russian military

a. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales

Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise? Select one: a. Medicine ball soccer throw b. Bench press c. Barbell squat d. Single-leg cable row

a. Medicine ball soccer throw

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities? Select one: a. Squat b. Single-leg squat c. Overhead squat d. Lunge

a. Squat

*During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase? Select one: a. Transverse b. Axial c. Sagittal d. Frontal

a. Transverse

*What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training? Select one: a. Isokinetic b. Isometric c. Concentric d. Eccentric

b. Isometric

Which source of social support for exercise is the most influential for children and adolescents? Select one: a. Exercise groups b. Parents c. The community d. Peers

b. Parents

In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur? Select one: a. Frontal b. Transverse c. Dorsal d. Sagittal

b. Transverse

Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration? Select one: a. Fruit juice b. Water c. A hypertonic sports drink d. An isotonic sports drink

b. Water

Roderick, an NASM-CPT, has submitted his application to be a personal trainer through the website of a large health club company. What will provide the best opportunity to get noticed by the hiring manager? Select one: a. Posting workout videos to a social media account and tagging the health club and hiring managers b. Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person c. Showing up at the club in workout clothes, explaining that he is an applicant, and asking for a free workout d. Calling the health club, asking to speak to the hiring manager, and explaining he is perfect for the job

b. Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults? Select one: a. 5 or 6 sets b. 3 or 4 sets c. 1 or 2 sets d. 6 to 8 sets

c. 1 or 2 sets

Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed? Select one: a. Overhead squat b. Pro shuttle c. 40-yard dash d. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

c. 40-yard dash

If Joe takes a 6-second heart rate count on his client and notes 8 beats, what would his client's heart rate be? Select one: a. 72 beats per minute b. 64 beats per minute c. 80 beats per minute d. 66 beats per minute

c. 80 beats per minute

What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person? Select one: a. 50 beats per minute b. 120 beats per minute c. 80 beats per minute d. 105 beats per minute

c. 80 beats per minute

*What is homeostasis? Select one: a. Any abnormal condition that negatively affects the structure or function of a part of the body b. A combination of influences that include education, income, and occupation c. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium d. A situation in which the human body is rapidly changing all the time

c. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium

*Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Upper trapezius c. Gastrocnemius and soleus d. Hip flexors

c. Gastrocnemius and soleus

Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension? Select one: a. Osteoporosis b. Arthrokinematics c. Osteokinematics d. Arthropathy

c. Osteokinematics

What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements? Select one: a. Imagery b. Stopping c. Reverse listing d. Cognitive fusion

c. Reverse listing

What is the most effective way to learn more about a large health club company before an interview with a hiring manager? Select one: a. Reading the reviews of the company and its programs on ratings websites b. Visiting the club to ask members what they think about their experience at the club c. Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered d. Following the most popular instructors from the club on social media

c. Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered

Which postural deviation is most likely to negatively impact ventilation? Select one: a. Adducted and internally rotated knees b. Posterior pelvic tilt with small low-back arch c. Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture d. Anterior pelvic tilt and pronated feet

c. Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture

Which of the following would be a credible source of nutrition information? Select one: a. A newspaper review article b. The Washington Post c. The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics d. Social media

c. The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics

*Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Select one: a. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle b. Having more fat stored on their body c. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle d. Having more mitochondria in their muscle

d. Having more mitochondria in their muscle

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Gluteus medius c. Hamstrings complex d. Hip flexors

d. Hip flexors

A client wants to improve their mile time. Which of the following is an outcome goal? Select one: a. I want to run 3 times per week. b. I want to run in the morning before work. c. I want to run outside. d. I want to run a 6-minute mile.

d. I want to run a 6-minute mile.

Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise? Select one: a. Stability ball Russian twist b. Supine reverse crunches c. Supine floor crunches d. Incline plank

d. Incline plank

Which type of motivation would be characterized by a client who enjoys the process of becoming more fit? Select one: a. Achievement motivation b. Affiliation motivation c. Extrinsic motivation d. Intrinsic motivation

d. Intrinsic motivation

You read an article in a popular magazine explaining the weight-loss benefits of including a certain nutrient in your diet. What should you consider in deciding if this is credible nutrition information? Select one: a. Is the magazine article in a recent publication or is it outdated? b. Has the information been reported on the news and in other media? c. Is the nutrient available as a supplement, given the purported weight-loss benefits? d. Is the information supported by research, and has it been reviewed by other qualified individuals?

d. Is the information supported by research, and has it been reviewed by other qualified individuals?

Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement? Select one: a. It decreases vertical jump height. b. It requires less eccentric deceleration. c. It requires the use of less elastic energy. d. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.

d. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.

Carbohydrate intake prior to intense or long-duration exercise serves which of the following functions? Select one: a. It is the primary energy source for low-intensity and long-duration exercise. b. It provides adequate energy for muscle protein synthesis during training. c. It replenishes depleted amino acid stores prior to high-intensity training. d. It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance.

d. It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance.

Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved? Select one: a. Pectoralis major b. Anterior deltoid c. Gluteus maximus d. Latissimus dorsi

d. Latissimus dorsi

Which leadership component refers to the leader being a great example for how to live a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable? Select one: a. The requirements of the leader b. The personality of the leader c. Leader's style d. Leader's qualities

d. Leader's qualities

*If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total calories), what type of exercise should they do? Select one: a. High-intensity exercise for 10 to 15 minutes b. Walking for 5 minutes c. High-intensity exercise for less than 10 minutes d. Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes

d. Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes

Which condition is an example of a chronic disease? Select one: a. Strep throat b. Flu c. Appendicitis d. Type 2 diabetes

d. Type 2 diabetes

Which type of muscle fiber is predominantly used during movements that require high levels of force and power, such as a sprint? Select one: a. Type I b. Type Ia c. Type III d. Type II

d. Type II

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? Select one: a. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line b. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) c. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) d. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

c. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

*Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise? Select one: a. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual b. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual c. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual d. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual

c. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to her question? Select one: a. Suggest that she avoid eating carbohydrates during the week to promote fat loss. b. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable. c. Explain that fat loss occurs in a caloric deficit and she should cut her caloric intake drastically over the next week to drop fat fast. d. Suggest that she avoid eating any fat during the week to promote fat loss.

b. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.

During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production? Select one: a. Concentric b. Stabilization c. Amortization d. Eccentric

c. Amortization

What types of foods provide all the essential amino acids? Select one: a. Fortified foods b. Legumes c. Animal proteins d. Plant proteins

c. Animal proteins

*Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Upper trapezius c. Anterior and posterior tibialis d. Abdominals

c. Anterior and posterior tibialis

Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations? Select one: a. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch b. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch c. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch d. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch

c. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch

Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle? Select one: a. Peripheral b. Lateral c. Appendicular d. Axial

c. Appendicular

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? Select one: a. At least 5 times a week b. At least 2 times a week c. At least 3 times a week d. At least 4 times a week

c. At least 3 times a week

Which joint is the most mobile, able to move in all three directions? Select one: a. Hinge b. Saddle c. Ball-and-socket d. Pivot

c. Ball-and-socket

What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual's fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted? Select one: a. Action phase b. Set point c. Baseline value d. Transformation phase

c. Baseline value

A client reports that he was recently told by his doctor that he has high blood sugar and that he should try to reduce it through dietary changes before considering medication. He asks you for advice. What would be the most appropriate course of action? Select one: a. Say that you cannot help him because this is a medical issue, and tell him he needs to follow up with his doctor again. b. Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling. c. Agree to review his diet and provide him with specific dietary guidelines on what foods to eat and what to avoid. d. Give him a diabetic meal plan that you find on the internet.

b. Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling.

From the list of assessments provided, which should be conducted first to preserve its validity? Select one: a. Flexibility b. Cardiorespiratory fitness c. Body composition d. Muscular fitness

c. Body composition

*A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her? Select one: a. Autonomy motivation b. Extrinsic motivation c. Affiliation motivation d. Intrinsic motivation

b. Extrinsic motivation

What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement? Select one: a. Feedback b. Feed-forward c. Synergist function d. Antagonist function

b. Feed-forward

What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Full-depth squat b. Femur parallel to ground c. Knees to 45 degrees d. Butt to heels

b. Femur parallel to ground

What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Stretching straps, stability balls, and BOSU balls b. Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls c. BOSU balls, air-filled discs, and stability balls d. Stretching straps, battle ropes, and sandbags

b. Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls

For what is vitamin D most important? Select one: a. Eyesight b. Hair growth c. Bone health d. Skin pigmentation

c. Bone health

What artery is used to measure blood pressure? Select one: a. Radial artery b. Femoral artery c. Brachial artery d. Carotid artery

c. Brachial artery

How is upper crossed syndrome characterized? Select one: a. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips b. Forward head and protracted shoulders c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine d. Excessive forward lean and arms fall forward

b. Forward head and protracted shoulders

Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion? Select one: a. Transverse and frontal b. Frontal and sagittal c. All planes of motion d. Sagittal and transverse

b. Frontal and sagittal

What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins? Select one: a. Pilates b. Gentle static stretching c. General cardiovascular exercise d. Deep soft-tissue massage

b. Gentle static stretching

Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training? Select one: a. Speed b. Power c. Change of direction d. Strength

c. Change of direction

*Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury? Select one: a. Interneurons b. Golgi tendon organs c. Joint receptors d. Muscle spindles

b. Golgi tendon organs

Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling? Select one: a. Leg press b. Handstand push-up c. Chin-ups d. Sit-ups

b. Handstand push-up

*The most well-known and well-researched effect of omega-3 fats relates to which of the following? Select one: a. Athletic performance b. Heart health c. Endocrine health d. Bone health

b. Heart health

*Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics? Select one: a. Ankle dorsiflexion b. Hip extension c. Hip flexion d. Knee flexion

b. Hip extension

Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization? Select one: a. Consistent in its approach b. Increasing intensity while decreasing volume c. Changing acute variables on a weekly basis d. Predetermined timelines

c. Changing acute variables on a weekly basis

Self-esteem is defined by which of the following? Select one: a. When someone is anxious about how others view their body b. How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially c. How someone conceptualizes their place in society d. How someone views their physical self or how they visualize their body

b. How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially

*Which statement best describes the first stage of the sales process? Select one: a. Discussing pricing options b. Identifying a customer's needs c. Promoting the benefits of personal training for improving health and longevity d. Asking for referrals

b. Identifying a customer's needs

Creatine is most effective for what purpose? Select one: a. Damaging the kidneys b. Improving strength and muscle size c. Improving heart health d. Improving endurance

b. Improving strength and muscle size

What are the basic two types of disease? Select one: a. Chronic and noncommunicable b. Acute and contagious c. Chronic and acute d. Chronic and not contagious

c. Chronic and acute

How could the personal trainer make the "single-leg throw and catch" balance exercise more difficult for the client? Select one: a. Decreasing the distance between the client and the personal trainer b. Increasing the velocity of each throw c. Throwing the ball at the same height each time d. Decreasing the velocity of each throw

b. Increasing the velocity of each throw

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner? Select one: a. Legal and ethical b. Business practice c. Confidentiality d. Professionalism

c. Confidentiality

*A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting? Select one: a. Establish short- and long-term goals. b. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating. c. Start establishing an emotional support system. d. Create a plan for overcoming barriers.

b. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.

Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement? Select one: a. Core endurance b. Core stability c. Core strength d. Core power

c. Core strength

Which of the following hormones, if increased at baseline, may be indicative of overtraining? Select one: a. Testosterone b. Growth hormone c. Cortisol d. Thyroxin

c. Cortisol

*What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart? Select one: a. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure b. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure c. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure d. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure

b. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the atrioventricular (AV) node? Select one: a. Left bundle branch b. Internodal pathway c. Right bundle branch d. Intercalated discs

b. Internodal pathway

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following? Select one: a. Pneumonia b. Pulmonary hypoplasia c. Dyspnea d. Hypoxia

c. Dyspnea

*Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function? Select one: a. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability b. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency c. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability d. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency

b. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)? Select one: a. EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods between exercise intervals. b. EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise. c. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise. d. EPOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise.

c. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises? Select one: a. Ankle stability b. Increased amortization c. Eccentric loading d. Concentric contractions

c. Eccentric loading

What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Concentric unloading, amortization, eccentric loading b. Amortization, concentric loading, eccentric unloading c. Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading d. Eccentric unloading, concentric loading, amortization

c. Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading

What does the first law of thermodynamics state? Select one: a. Food increases metabolic rate. b. All energy is converted to heat. c. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. d. Metabolic rate is constant.

c. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? Select one: a. Multifidus b. Pelvic floor muscles c. Erector spinae d. Transverse abdominis

c. Erector spinae

When NASM recommends relying on the current best information in making decisions about client care, what is it referring to? Select one: a. Popular theories and methods posted on online fitness forums b. Peer-observed procedure c. Evidence-based practice d. Traditional compliance

c. Evidence-based practice

Which individual is suffering from an acute disease? Select one: a. Roger, who has type 2 diabetes b. Jorge, who is sick with the flu c. Tricia, who has type 1 diabetes d. Perry, who suffers from a congenital heart condition

b. Jorge, who is sick with the flu

Which barrier is most often cited as a top barrier among most individuals? Select one: a. Lack of social support b. Lack of time c. Lack of energy d. Lack of enjoyment

b. Lack of time

Having poor body image is most likely to be associated with which of the following? Select one: a. Low levels of motivation b. Low self-esteem c. Low body mass index d. Low levels of social support

b. Low self-esteem

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect? Select one: a. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods. b. Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. c. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. d. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

b. Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration? Select one: a. Kettlebell b. Medicine ball c. Resistance band d. Suspended bodyweight training

b. Medicine ball

What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target? Select one: a. Lateral triceps brachii b. Middle deltoid c. Medial gastrocnemius d. Lateral hamstrings

b. Middle deltoid

*Which of the following does plyometric training help increase? Select one: a. Core stability b. Motor unit recruitment c. Balance d. Overall base strength

b. Motor unit recruitment

What is the difference between open-ended and closed-ended questions? Select one: a. Open-ended is asked by the trainer; closed-ended is asked by the client. b. Open-ended allows for elaboration, while closed-ended allows for one-word answers. c. Closed-ended is asked in private; open-ended is not. d. Closed-ended allows for elaboration, while open-ended allows for one-word answers.

b. Open-ended allows for elaboration, while closed-ended allows for one-word answers.

What is an example of the role of the Certified Personal Trainer in working on balance training with a client? Select one: a. Prescribing medications or supplements to improve components of the balance system (e.g., vision, vestibular, somatosensation) b. Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history c. Performing medical rehabilitation with the client for their balance deficits d. Diagnosing balance disorders

b. Prescribing progressive, appropriate balance training exercises with knowledge/awareness of the client's medical history

A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use? Select one: a. Helping them make a plan b. Providing information on the health benefits c. Helping make the exercises fun d. Improving their confidence for their technique

b. Providing information on the health benefits

Which of the following muscle groups work both eccentrically and concentrically in the sagittal plane during a squat? Select one: a. Gluteus medius b. Quadriceps c. Adductor longus d. Biceps brachii

b. Quadriceps

What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible? Select one: a. Integrated performance paradigm b. Rate of force production c. Stretch-shortening cycle d. Core stabilization

b. Rate of force production

*Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective? Select one: a. Metabolic equivalents b. Ratings of perceived exertion c. Percentage of maximal heart rate d. Percentage of VO2max

b. Ratings of perceived exertion

Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions? Select one: a. Voluntary contractions b. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions c. Preplanned voluntary contractions d. No muscle contractions are involved in balance training.

b. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions

What is the process by which bone is constantly renewed? Select one: a. Neuroplasticity b. Remodeling c. Wolff's law d. Osteoporosis

b. Remodeling

*During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what? Select one: a. Pull the elbows into extension b. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction c. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction d. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction

b. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

Which system is comprised of the airways and lungs? Select one: a. Digestive b. Respiratory c. Endocrine d. Cardiovascular

b. Respiratory

*Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance? Select one: a. Static balance b. Semi-dynamic balance c. Stable balance d. Dynamic balance

b. Semi-dynamic balance

For which movement impairment would you see the shoulders moving upward toward the ears? Select one: a. Forward lean b. Shoulder elevation c. Scapular winging d. Arms fall forward

b. Shoulder elevation

To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create? Select one: a. Steady-state treadmill workouts b. Small circuits c. Long continuous runs d. Heart rate cardio

b. Small circuits

The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation describes which term? Select one: a. Income status b. Socioeconomic status c. Social influence d. Net worth

b. Socioeconomic status

Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system? Select one: a. Digestive b. Somatosensory c. Vestibular d. Vision

b. Somatosensory

Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles? Select one: a. Visual system b. Somatosensory system c. Vestibular system d. Hearing system

b. Somatosensory system

Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body? Select one: a. Knees b. Spine c. Ankles d. Shoulders

b. Spine

During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body? Select one: a. Multiplanar step-up b. Squat, curl to two-arm press c. Ball squat d. Single-leg Romanian deadlift

b. Squat, curl to two-arm press

Maintaining one's balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance? Select one: a. Dynamic balance b. Static balance c. Semi-dynamic balance d. Motion balance

b. Static balance

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control in a stationary position? Select one: a. Dynamic balance b. Static balance c. Low-level balance d. Semi-dynamic balance

b. Static balance

Which type of assessment is typically performed first in the assessment flow? Select one: a. Bench press strength b. Static posture c. 40-yard dash d. Single-leg squat

b. Static posture

*An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following? Select one: a. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching. b. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily. c. Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling. d. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities.

b. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

*What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target? Select one: a. Infraspinatus b. Subscapularis c. Anterior tibialis d. Scalenes

b. Subscapularis

A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice? Select one: a. Recommend she increase only her protein intake at every meal. b. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals. c. Suggest she increase consumption of high-calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza, and cake. d. Recommend she eat high-calorie "cheat meals" more often.

b. Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.

What is the most appropriate response from a Certified Personal Trainer if a client insists on using a steroid or other harmful substance? Select one: a. Tell them no. b. Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice. c. Provide them with a plan and all the information they may need for use. d. Tell them it could help with their training.

b. Tell them no, and refer them to a licensed medical professional for further advice.

What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP? Select one: a. The ATP-PC system, digestion, and oxidative phosphorylation b. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation c. Ketosis, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation d. Phosphorylation, glycolysis, and the electron transport chain

b. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation

Core stability is best described as: Select one: a. The ability to generate power and rotation in the lumbar spine b. The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving c. The ability to decrease ROM in the thoracic spine, while increasing engagement of the rectus abdominus for spinal extension d. The ability to transfer power from the upper body to the lower body for sports performance

b. The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving

*The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. The assembled environment b. The built environment c. The manufactured environment d. The constructed environment

b. The built environment

When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate? Select one: a. Heart rate monitors provide the user with positive motivation and 100% accuracy. b. Wrist-worn heart rate monitors are as accurate as chest strap monitors. c. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort. d. Taking longer for heart rate to return to normal after vigorous exercise is a good indicator of a healthy heart.

c. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

What is the definition of anthropometry? Select one: a. A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body b. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion c. The assumption that stating the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface d. The measurement of a person's weight relative to their height, which is used to estimate the risks of obesity

b. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Hip flexor complex b. Latissimus dorsi c. Gluteus maximus d. Lumbar extensors

c. Gluteus maximus

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Lower trapezius c. Gluteus maximus and medius d. Tensor fascia latae

c. Gluteus maximus and medius

A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client? Select one: a. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists. b. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits. c. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise. d. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows.

b. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.

A client plans to go for a 10-mile run, but they become fatigued after 7 miles, so they stop. What is the most likely cause of this fatigue? Select one: a. Fatty acid stores were exhausted. b. Phosphocreatine was depleted. c. Glycogen stores were exhausted. d. ADP was depleted.

c. Glycogen stores were exhausted.

Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining? Select one: a. Lower levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment b. Elevated levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment c. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment d. Low levels of cortisol, which lead to an environment that is catabolic

c. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment

*During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back? Select one: a. Hip internal rotation b. Hip flexion c. Hip extension d. Hip adduction

c. Hip extension

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Abdominals b. Adductor complex c. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors d. Upper trapezius

c. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors

What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2? Select one: a. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels b. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes c. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources d. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds

b. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes

What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. The person has suffered a metatarsal stress fracture. b. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness. c. The person is experiencing improvement in aerobic capacity. d. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular hypertrophy.

b. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

*What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)? Select one: a. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise b. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel c. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise d. The point at which it is still possible to talk during exercise

b. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel

*What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation? Select one: a. The trunk leaning forward b. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears c. The arms falling forward d. The scapula protruding excessively from the back

b. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears

Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch? Select one: a. The stretch is too complicated for the older client. b. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee. c. This stretch is too advanced for the average person. d. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles.

b. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.

*What is cardiac output? Select one: a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction

b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body? Select one: a. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes. b. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism. c. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training. d. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism.

b. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch? Select one: a. This stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles. b. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine. c. This stretch is too complicated for the older client. d. This stretch is too advanced for the average person.

b. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.

Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where? Select one: a. Lumbar spine b. Thoracic spine c. Frontal plane d. Sagittal plane

b. Thoracic spine

What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals? Select one: a. Volume b. Training frequency c. Intensity d. Recovery

b. Training frequency

Which of the following two modalities are the most alike? Select one: a. TRX Rip Trainer and ViPR b. ViPR and sandbag c. Dumbbell and medicine ball d. TRX suspension and ViPR

b. ViPR and sandbag

*Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease? Select one: a. WHR of 0.83 b. WHR of 0.88 c. WHR of 0.78 d. WHR of 0.72

b. WHR of 0.88

*Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol? Select one: a. When the individual says it is "somewhat easy" to talk during the activity b. When the individual responds with "no" when asked, "Can you speak competently?" c. When the individual responds with "yes" when asked, "Can you speak competently?" d. When the individual says it is "challenging" to speak during the activity

b. When the individual responds with "no" when asked, "Can you speak competently?"

*In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging? Select one: a. Zone 4 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 1 d. Zone 3

b. Zone 2

What are the recommended training variables for static stretching? Select one: a. 5 to 10 sets, hold each stretch for 10 seconds b. 2 to 5 sets, hold each stretch for 5 minutes c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds d. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 2 minutes

c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds

What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients? Select one: a. 12,000 kcal b. 500 kcal c. 1,200 kcal d. 5,000 kcal

c. 1,200 kcal

*How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes? Select one: a. Less than 15 seconds b. 90 to 120 seconds c. 15 to 60 seconds d. 60 to 90 seconds

c. 15 to 60 seconds

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed? Select one: a. 2 seconds b. 3 seconds c. 4 seconds d. 1 second

c. 4 seconds

*Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements? Select one: a. A client who has been training 2 months with some improvements in strength b. A client who has been exercising for 4 months with some strength c. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength d. An overweight client with adequate strength

c. A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength

What effect would sleep deprivation have on growth hormone and cortisol levels? Select one: a. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and cortisol levels. b. Inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone and cortisol levels. c. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels. d. Inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone levels and decrease cortisol levels.

c. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels.

Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded? Select one: a. Increased catabolic hormone stimulation b. Decreased anabolic hormone stimulation c. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation d. Decreased catabolic hormone stimulation

c. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation

Denise has just earned her NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and has been hired at a health club. She hopes to attract and retain clientele to grow her business. What qualities would most help Denise be successful in her new career? Select one: a. Providing a custom exercise prescription with an added meal plan for each client b. Offering her services as an in-home trainer to people in her immediate area c. Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results d. Creating a social media page to post client results and a hashtag that her clients can use to help grow her following

c. Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results

Jane is a high school hockey goalie. Which type of SAQ training best relates to the physical skills needed at her position? Select one: a. Olympic weightlifting b. Powerlifting c. Quickness training d. Speed training

c. Quickness training

Which of the following is a component of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE)? Select one: a. Nonexercise anabolic thermogenesis (NEAT) b. Thermic effect of fasting (TEF) c. Resting metabolic rate (RMR) d. Elapsed activity thermogenesis (EAT)

c. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of? Select one: a. Law of thermodynamics b. Archimedes' principle c. SAID principle d. Theory of general relativity

c. SAID principle

*Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training? Select one: a. There is no evidence to support this adaptation. b. SAQ training decreases the risk of cancer. c. SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia. d. SAQ training increases LDL cholesterol.

c. SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.

When a Certified Personal Trainer wants to enhance a client's self-efficacy by breaking down exercises or goals into easier-to-achieve tasks, what behavior change technique are they using? Select one: a. Experience mastery b. Provide instructions c. Set specific tasks d. Verbal persuasion

c. Set specific tasks

Abnormal breathing may be associated with which of the following effects? Select one: a. Slow inhalation with expansion of the stomach b. Deep breaths with use of the diaphragm c. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid d. Slow inhalation through the nose with limited chest movement

c. Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid

What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder? Select one: a. Rotator cuff tear b. Frozen shoulder c. Shoulder impingement d. Dislocation of the shoulder

c. Shoulder impingement

What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"? Select one: a. Intercalated discs b. Right bundle branch c. Sinoatrial node d. Atrioventricular node

c. Sinoatrial node

*What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength? Select one: a. Maximal Strength b. Power c. Strength Endurance d. Stabilization Endurance

c. Strength Endurance

*Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the OPT model? Select one: a. Power b. Stabilization c. Strength Endurance d. Strength

c. Strength Endurance

*Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold? Select one: a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) c. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale. d. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

c. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

When working in a health club, what piece of equipment would it be essential to know the location of? Select one: a. Rags and cleaning supplies b. The vacuum cleaner, in case a personal trainer has to clean during the shift c. The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member d. The remote control for the TVs or sound system

c. The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member

What is stroke volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction c. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

c. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction

*What is a kilocalorie (kcal)? Select one: a. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. b. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories. c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. d. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius.

c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

*Which of the following defines the limits of stability of the body? Select one: a. The approximate midpoint of the body b. The highest elevation of the body in space c. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support d. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface

c. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support

The field of psychology focuses on which of the following domains? Select one: a. Pathology of disease b. Physiological systems c. The mind and behavior d. Neuromuscular adaptations

c. The mind and behavior

What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)? Select one: a. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise b. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise c. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise d. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise

c. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise

How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined? Select one: a. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods b. An aerobic test that measures the participant's ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels c. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources d. The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake

c. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources

How are open-ended questions best used during the sales process? Select one: a. The questions help a personal trainer learn if the customer's workout schedule fits within the personal trainer's availability. b. The questions are easy for the customer to answer, as they can be answered with a simple yes or no. c. The questions identify the customer's wants, needs, fears, and desires. d. The questions help a personal trainer learn about a customer's family medical history.

c. The questions identify the customer's wants, needs, fears, and desires.

What is the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body? Select one: a. Peripheral vasodilation b. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) c. Thermoregulation d. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

c. Thermoregulation

Iodine has a major role in which bodily process? Select one: a. Heart function b. Liver function c. Thyroid function d. Kidney function

c. Thyroid function

What is defined as the specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, and specific exercises to be performed? Select one: a. Macrocycle b. Periodization c. Training plan d. Acute variables

c. Training plan

*The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. External obliques c. Transverse abdominis d. Diaphragm

c. Transverse abdominis

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power? Select one: a. Biceps brachii b. Quadriceps c. Triceps brachii d. Latissimus dorsi

c. Triceps brachii

*Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? Select one: a. Front medicine ball oblique throw b. Soccer throw c. Two-arm push press d. Medicine ball chest pass

c. Two-arm push press

What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers? Select one: a. Type I fibers are "fast twitch." b. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of mitochondria than type II fibers. c. Type I fibers are "slow twitch." d. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of capillaries than type II fibers.

c. Type I fibers are "slow twitch."

What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Variables and progression b. Velocity and pattern c. Volume and progression d. Variables and pattern

c. Volume and progression

Dan, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, completed what he felt was a very successful interview with the hiring manager at a top fitness studio. What is the best course of action if Dan is interested in moving on to the next phase of the interview process? Select one: a. Posting a video on social media showing him working out at the health club b. Sending a text to the manager saying, "Thanks for your time." c. Writing a handwritten note to thank the hiring manager for the opportunity to interview for the job d. Calling the manager to ask when the first day of work will be scheduled

c. Writing a handwritten note to thank the hiring manager for the opportunity to interview for the job

If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes total per week? Select one: a. 125 minutes per week b. 180 minutes per week c. 150 minutes per week d. 165 minutes per week

d. 165 minutes per week

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations? Select one: a. 2 sets, 12 repetitions, 75% 1RM b. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM c. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM d. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

d. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds? Select one: a. 2,250 pounds b. 675 pounds c. 6,750 reps d. 6,750 pounds

d. 6,750 pounds

*When family members are not supportive of exercise-related behaviors, it can be viewed as which of the following? Select one: a. Amotivation to exercise b. Ambivalence toward exercise c. An influence on exercise d. A barrier to exercise

d. A barrier to exercise

Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training? Select one: a. Increased hypertrophy (size increase) of muscle fibers b. A reduction in blood pressure at rest c. A decrease in heart rate/pulse at rest d. A decrease in metabolic rate

d. A decrease in metabolic rate

*What is acidosis in muscle? Select one: a. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength b. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue c. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength d. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

d. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

*What statement best describes a premium health club? Select one: a. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment b. A private health club offered only at luxury resorts and golf courses c. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives d. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities

d. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities

What is the high-energy compound used by the body to do work? Select one: a. Fat b. ADP c. Glucose d. ATP

d. ATP

What are the components of ATP? Select one: a. Adenine, ribose, and two phosphate groups b. Adenine, amino acids, and three phosphate groups c. Adenine, glucose, and one phosphate group d. Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups

d. Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups

What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training? Select one: a. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power b. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed c. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed d. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

d. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined? Select one: a. An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-, moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout b. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods c. An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4 minutes d. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

d. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

*What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body's sprinting direction in response to that stimulus? Select one: a. Quickness b. Speed c. Power d. Agility

d. Agility

Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise? Select one: a. A steady-state intensity would be used. b. Carbohydrates would not be a major energy source. c. Fat would be the main energy source. d. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.

d. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.

*Which of the following describes structural scoliosis? Select one: a. Improper muscle balance in the lower extremity b. Improper muscle balance in the spine c. Altered bone shape through the lower extremity d. Altered bone shape through the spine

d. Altered bone shape through the spine

*Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility? Select one: a. Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods b. Ability to stretch only one muscle c. Ability to stretch in small increments d. Altered movement patterns

d. Altered movement patterns

What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay? Select one: a. Isometric b. Concentric c. Eccentric d. Amortization

d. Amortization

*Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action? Select one: a. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases. b. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases. c. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant. d. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

d. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

What is the main role of a personal trainer? Select one: a. Teach, lead, and motivate individuals through large-group exercise classes b. Provide advanced strength and conditioning programs for competitive athletes c. Provide nutritional advice, therapy, and counseling to a wide range of clients d. Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes

d. Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes

When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial? Select one: a. Barbell squats b. Machine leg press c. Sandbag squat d. BOSU squat

d. BOSU squat

Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels? Select one: a. Bench press b. Triceps extension c. Calf raise d. Back squat

d. Back squat

Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset? Select one: a. Deadlifts and squats b. Single-leg hops and ball push-ups c. Power step-ups and ice skaters d. Bench press and stability ball push-ups

d. Bench press and stability ball push-ups

*Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up? Select one: a. Triceps brachii b. Brachialis c. Biceps brachii d. Brachioradialis

d. Brachioradialis

During the course of a training session, a client remarks that he is "cutting out all carbs" from his diet and just eating protein and vegetables to lose weight. How might you best respond to this, while staying within your scope of practice as a fitness professional? Select one: a. Carbohydrates are not required unless training for long periods of time; so, as long as sessions are kept short, this strategy should be fine. b. Carbohydrates contribute excess calories in our diet, and avoiding them is an effective weight-loss strategy during training. c. Carbohydrates provide more calories per gram than protein and fat, so they should be limited for effective weight loss. d. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.

d. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.

Which statement about cancer is most accurate? Select one: a. There is a lack of cell growth in the body. b. It is most common in adults between the ages of 30 and 55. c. Almost all cancers are preventable. d. Cells in the body grow abnormally.

d. Cells in the body grow abnormally.

What disease is a condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction due to mucus production? Select one: a. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis b. Type 1 diabetes c. Type 2 diabetes d. Chronic obstructive lung disease

d. Chronic obstructive lung disease

Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening? Select one: a. Isometric action b. Eccentric action c. Isokinetic action d. Concentric action

d. Concentric action

*What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise? Select one: a. Psychological concern b. Precaution c. Cardiovascular precaution d. Contraindication

d. Contraindication

Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing? Select one: a. Internal intercostals b. Abdominals c. Scalenes d. Diaphragm

d. Diaphragm

What is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats? Select one: a. Systolic blood pressure b. Pulse c. Hypertension d. Diastolic blood pressure

d. Diastolic blood pressure

According to the "iceberg effect," which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level"? Select one: a. Mobility b. Stability c. Proper movement d. Endurance

d. Endurance

How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined? Select one: a. The rate at which the body expends energy (calories) when fasted and at complete rest, such as asleep or lying quietly b. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest c. Energy expenditure through structured exercise alone, such as strength training and cardiorespiratory exercise d. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs

d. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs

What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial? Select one: a. Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium b. Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium c. Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium d. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

d. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

*What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins? Select one: a. Essential amino acids only b. Carbon molecules c. Peptide bonds d. Essential and nonessential amino acids

d. Essential and nonessential amino acids

Which statement is the most accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to pregnancy? Select one: a. Most recreational pursuits are inappropriate for pregnant women. b. The fetus will be harmed by increased blood circulation during physical activity. c. The fetus will be harmed by decreased oxygen supply during physical activity. d. Exercise has beneficial effects on the physiology and health of both the mother and the developing fetus.

d. Exercise has beneficial effects on the physiology and health of both the mother and the developing fetus.

A client who is training with you to improve his body composition states that he only sleeps 4 or 5 hours a night because he thinks that any more is a waste of time. How might you respond to him in view of his body composition goals? Select one: a. Explain that 4 or 5 hours may not be enough for his requirements and that he should aim for 6 to 7 hours per day. b. Explain that as long as he spends the extra hours engaged in physical activity, he should be able to meet his body composition goals. c. Express understanding that he has a busy schedule and that sleep may not be a priority, and explain that this should not affect his body composition goals, as sleep and weight are unrelated. d. Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management.

d. Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management.

What is the definition of kinesiophobia? Select one: a. Fear of heights b. Fear of stairs c. Fear of standing d. Fear of movement

d. Fear of movement

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints? Select one: a. Sight, smell, taste, touch, hearing b. Tibia, fibula, femur, ilium, coccyx c. Metacarpals, ulna, radius, humerus, clavicle d. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

d. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells? Select one: a. Feet, ankles, hips, shoulders, neck b. Feet, knees, hips, elbows, shoulders c. Ankles, knees, wrists, shoulders, head d. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

d. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

Which surface would be the easiest for a new client starting a balance training program? Select one: a. Foam pad b. Wobble board c. BOSU ball d. Firm surface

d. Firm surface

What two activities are part of a client's warm-up? Select one: a. Resistance b. Core c. Plyometrics d. Flexibility and cardio

d. Flexibility and cardio

*What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers? Select one: a. Venous pooling b. Peripheral resistance c. Valsalva maneuver d. Frank Starling Law of the Heart

d. Frank Starling Law of the Heart

When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2? Select one: a. From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2 b. Below VT1 c. Above VT2 d. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

d. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream? Select one: a. Hypotension b. Hypertension c. Hypoglycemia d. Hyperglycemia

d. Hyperglycemia

*Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following? Select one: a. Power development b. Force production c. Core stability d. Landing mechanics

d. Landing mechanics

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment? Select one: a. Serratus anterior b. Cervical extensors c. Upper trapezius d. Lower trapezius

d. Lower trapezius

Calcium is of principal importance for what? Select one: a. Clearing toxins b. Maintaining a strong immune system c. Nutrient absorption d. Maintaining strong bones

d. Maintaining strong bones

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength b. Davis's law and Wolf's law c. Pain response and muscle spasm d. Mechanical and neurophysiological response

d. Mechanical and neurophysiological response

Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane? Select one: a. Kettlebells b. Strength machines c. BOSU balls d. Medicine balls

d. Medicine balls

Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Erector spinae c. Iliopsoas d. Multifidus

d. Multifidus

What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program? Select one: a. Sarcopenia b. Muscle hypertrophy c. Muscle atrophy d. Neural adaptations

d. Neural adaptations

*What principle describes the nervous system's ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement? Select one: a. Eccentric control b. All-or-nothing principle c. Concentric control d. Neuromuscular efficiency

d. Neuromuscular efficiency

Humans can learn new things at any stage of life, due to which process that causes the brain to reform neural pathways? Select one: a. Remodeling b. Neurocircuitry c. Neuromotor skills d. Neuroplasticity

d. Neuroplasticity

How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise? Select one: a. 11 to 15% of body weight b. 16 to 20% of body weight c. At least 21% of body weight d. No more than 10% of body weight

d. No more than 10% of body weight

Recently, what has become an effective way to deliver customized exercise solutions to clients based on their individual needs? Select one: a. Teaching group fitness workouts b. Offering customized meal plans for each client c. Creating exercise programs to heal injured body parts d. Offering online coaching programs

d. Offering online coaching programs

In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27? Select one: a. Obese b. Healthy weight c. Class II obesity d. Overweight

d. Overweight

*Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important employees within a health club? Select one: a. Personal trainers are often in great physical shape, which demonstrates that belonging to a health club can produce results members want. b. Personal trainers study exercise science and have the knowledge to help members get results. c. Personal trainers are very outgoing and can help create a fun atmosphere in a fitness facility. d. Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.

d. Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.

What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult? Select one: a. Somatosensation b. Neuromuscular control c. Sensorimotor function d. Perturbation

d. Perturbation

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client's shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance? Select one: a. Somatosensation b. Sensorimotor function c. Neuromuscular control d. Perturbation

d. Perturbation

*Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause? Select one: a. Stretch the ankle dorsiflexor musculature b. Place a small board under the toes c. Stretch the ankle eversion musculature d. Place a small board under the heels

d. Place a small board under the heels

What three joint actions comprise triple extension? Select one: a. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion b. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion c. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension d. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

d. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase? Select one: a. Core strength b. Rate of force production c. Maximal muscular strength d. Postural alignment

d. Postural alignment

*What is the correct order of the Stages of Change? Select one: a. Precontemplation, action, preparation, contemplation, maintenance b. Contemplation, precontemplation, preparation, action, maintenance c. Preparation, precontemplation, contemplation, action, maintenance d. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

d. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

*Which type of professionals are qualified to counsel individuals who are diagnosed with depression, using exercise as a supplemental treatment? Select one: a. Corrective exercise specialist or certified exercise physiologist b. Registered dietitian or nutritionist c. Certified Personal Trainer or certified fitness professional d. Psychologist or psychiatrist

d. Psychologist or psychiatrist

What is the resting metabolic rate (RMR)? Select one: a. RMR is the number of calories burned after exercise. b. RMR is the number of calories burned through fidgeting. c. RMR is the number of calories burned through digestion. d. RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function.

d. RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function.

What differentiates change of direction from agility? Select one: a. Deceleration b. Acceleration c. Changing directions d. Reaction to a signal

d. Reaction to a signal

Which component of a monthly training plan should always be performed before moving to the next month's mesocycle? Select one: a. Cardio b. SAQ c. Resistance d. Reassessment

d. Reassessment

*This is a conversational technique that helps the listener express the supposed meaning of what was just heard. Select one: a. Closed-ended questions b. Open-ended questions c. Active listening d. Reflections

d. Reflections

What type of listening involves making a best guess as to what the speaker means, then stating it back to the speaker? Select one: a. Active listening b. Motivational interviewing c. Affirming d. Reflective listening

d. Reflective listening

How are dietary supplements defined? Select one: a. Dietary materials essential for achieving fitness goals b. Regulated substances that are too dangerous to discuss with clients c. Dietary products useful only for bodybuilders d. Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component

d. Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component

Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism? Select one: a. Warm-up b. Activation c. Skill development d. Resistance training

d. Resistance training

*What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise? Select one: a. Upward rotation b. Elevation c. Protraction d. Retraction

d. Retraction

Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins? Select one: a. Right ventricle b. Left ventricle c. Left atrium d. Right atrium

d. Right atrium

What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the shoulder blades so that they become closer together? Select one: a. Scapular protraction b. Scapular depression c. Scapular elevation d. Scapular retraction

d. Scapular retraction

Increasing which of the following is the best way to improve a client's adherence to an exercise plan? Select one: a. Strength b. Length-tension relationship c. Cool-down d. Self-efficacy

d. Self-efficacy

*A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using? Select one: a. Goal setting b. Action planning c. Coping planning d. Self-monitoring

d. Self-monitoring

Which behavior change technique allows individuals to identify external triggers that lead them to behave in certain ways? Select one: a. Action planning b. Enlisting social support c. Coping planning d. Self-monitoring

d. Self-monitoring

When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility? Select one: a. Dynamic stretches b. Active stretches c. Sports drills d. Self-myofascial techniques

d. Self-myofascial techniques

*Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support? Select one: a. Static balance b. Moderate-level balance c. Dynamic balance d. Semi-dynamic balance

d. Semi-dynamic balance

*Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership? Select one: a. Leader's qualities b. Follower's qualities c. Leadership styles d. Situational factors

d. Situational factors

Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels? Select one: a. Warm-up b. Cool-down c. Resistance d. Skill development

d. Skill development

Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo? Select one: a. Rest interval b. Intensity c. Training duration d. Speed

d. Speed

What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex? Select one: a. Plantar fasciitis and shin splints b. Achilles tendonitis and athlete's foot c. Strains and heel spurs d. Sprains and plantar fasciitis

d. Sprains and plantar fasciitis

What is defined as the body's ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements? Select one: a. Muscular endurance b. Muscular hypertrophy c. Strength d. Stabilization

d. Stabilization

When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased? Select one: a. Explosiveness b. Speed c. Rate of force production d. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing

d. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing

*What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement b. Move the trunk c. Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities d. Stabilize vertebral segments

d. Stabilize vertebral segments

Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise? Select one: a. Stage 3 b. Stage 5 c. Stage 4 d. Stage 2

d. Stage 2

*In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1? Select one: a. Stage 3 training b. Stage 4 training c. Stage 1 training d. Stage 2 training

d. Stage 2 training

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly? Select one: a. Depth jump b. Single-leg squat c. Barbell clean d. Step-ups

d. Step-ups

*Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability? Select one: a. Terra-Core b. Suspended bodyweight training c. Resistance bands d. Strength machines

d. Strength machines

*Speed is the product of what two variables? Select one: a. Acceleration and deceleration b. Quickness and agility c. Power and time d. Stride rate and stride length

d. Stride rate and stride length

*When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called? Select one: a. A collecting summary b. Change talk c. An affirmation d. Sustain talk

d. Sustain talk

Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion? Select one: a. Antagonist b. Agonist c. Stabilizer d. Synergist

d. Synergist

What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form? Select one: a. Cognitive fusion b. Energy imagery c. Appearance imagery d. Technique imagery

d. Technique imagery

What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do? Select one: a. The ETC uses proteins to create ADP. b. The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions. c. The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP. d. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.

d. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.

*What is end-diastolic volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute c. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

*How should an eccentric muscle action be described? Select one: a. The development of muscle tension without shortening or lengthening of the contractile tissue b. The development of muscle tension at a fixed speed during both shortening and lengthening of the contractile tissue c. The development of muscle tension during shortening of the contractile tissue d. The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue

d. The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the contractile tissue

The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following? Select one: a. The target cell releases the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to the gland to exert a particular action. b. The gland secretes the hormone, which bypasses the bloodstream and binds to a receptor on the target cell to exert a particular action. c. The hormone is secreted by the bloodstream and travels to the gland to exert a particular effect. d. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.

d. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.

*What is meant by the term tolerable upper limit (UL)? Select one: a. The amount of a specific nutrient in a single serving b. The same as daily value (DV) c. The amount recommended for the average person to take d. The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect

d. The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect

*What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength. b. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness. c. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power. d. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

d. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate? Select one: a. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA. b. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle. c. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation. d. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.

d. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.

What is explained by the sliding filament theory? Select one: a. The Z-lines moving farther apart b. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction c. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere d. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

d. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn't use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs? Select one: a. The unused energy is stored for the next jump. b. The attempt at jumping will fail. c. The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain. d. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

d. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training? Select one: a. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power b. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions c. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity d. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

d. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries? Select one: a. Type IIx b. Type III c. Type IIa d. Type I

d. Type I

Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization? Select one: a. Localized periodization b. Direct periodization c. Linear periodization d. Undulating periodization

d. Undulating periodization

If a new client indicates that they are frustrated with their lack of expected results, which barrier are they likely experiencing? Select one: a. Ambivalence b. Social physique anxiety c. Lack of social support d. Unrealistic goals

d. Unrealistic goals

Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Lower trapezius c. Hip flexors d. Upper trapezius

d. Upper trapezius

Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power? Select one: a. 40-yard dash b. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) c. Pro shuttle d. Vertical jump

d. Vertical jump

*Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space? Select one: a. Visual system b. Somatosensory system c. Hearing system d. Vestibular system

d. Vestibular system

Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system? Select one: a. Somatosensory system b. Vestibular system c. Auditory system d. Visual system

d. Visual system

What are the three micronutrients? Select one: a. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids b. Protein, carbohydrates, and fluids c. Vitamins, minerals, and lipids d. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients

d. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients

Which of the following is a question that may promote change? Select one: a. Why don't you just do this? b. What makes you think that you're not at risk? c. Why can't you make this change to your schedule? d. What might you want to change?

d. What might you want to change?