CSCS

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Following resistance training, augmented neural drive to the working musculature is the result of I. increased agonist muscle recruitment II. muscle hypertrophy III. improved firing rate IV. greater synchronization a. all of the above b. I and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. I, II, and IV only

d. I, II, and IV only

Which of the following is NOT part of caffeine's role in improving athletic performance? a. increased power production b. decreased glycogen depletion c. increased fat oxidation d. decreased urine production

d. decreased urine production

The bench press, vertical jump, and 10 m (11-yard) sprint are the MOST valid tests for which of the following American football positions? a. quarterback b. defensive back c. wide receiver d. defensive lineman

d. defensive lineman

A-band

dark area; extends length of the thick filaments

power

force and velocity

work

force x distance

Force, distance, work, time, and power are measured in

force- N distance= m work= J joules (neuton-meters) t= sec power- watts (J/s)

bipennate muscle

forms an angle with a tendon; do not move as far as parallel; contains more myofibrils than parallel muscles; develop more tension than parallel muscles; fibers on both sides of tendon; ex: rectus femoris

powerlifting

high force, low speed (less power)

longitudinal muscle

muscle fibers aligned lengthwise rectus abdominis

angular velocity

rate of change of angular displacement; objects rotational speed rad/s

exercise-induced decrease in muscle cell pH is referred to as... Acidic Muscleitis Lactate Threshold Metabolic Acidosis Lactic Acid Accumulation Hypoglycemia

rrect Answer:Metabolic Acidosis Incorrect Answers:Acidic Muscleitis — this is just a totally made up thing. Lactate Threshold — the exercise intensity at which blood lactate begins an abrupt increase above baseline concentrations. Lactic Acid Accumulation — Lactic acid does not accumulate in muscle; it dissociates into lactate and an H+. Hypoglycemia — low blood sugar

Metabolic Equivalent (MET)

same as resting VO2 1Met= 3.5 ml/kg/min for 70 kg person

Fusiform

spindle shaped (biceps brachii)

2 sources of fluid resistance

surface drag- friction passing along surface form drag- fluid presses against front or rear of object passing through it

Ventilatory equivalent for oxygen

the ratio between the volume of air ventilated and the amount of oxygen consumed; indicates breathing economy

I-Band

thin filaments only (actin) also shrinks along with H zone

stair stepper height

4-8in

Z-line

A dark thin protein band to which actin filaments are attached in a striated muscle fiber, marking the boundaries between adjacent sarcomeres.

What can be done to increase the intensity of a depth jump to second box? Go backward Move the boxes farther apart Move the boxes closer together

A depth jump to second box is a high-level plyometric exercise that uses boxes from 12 to 42 inches tall. To start, the boxes should be about 24 inches apart, but to increase the level of intensity, the distance between the boxes can increase, making the second jump more challenging.

achievement motivation

Achievement motivation refers to the efforts that an athlete makes to master a task, achieve excellence, overcome obstacles, and engage in competition. If you have two evenly matched athletes, it will be the athlete who has achievement motivation that will come out on top.

adenylate kinase

Another important single-enzyme reaction that can rapidly replenish ATP is the adenylate kinase (also called myokinase) reaction: 2ADP (↔adenylate kinase ↔) ATP + AMP This reaction is particularly important because AMP, a product of the adenylate kinase (myokinase) reaction, is a powerful stimulant of glycolysis

All of the following are important signal mechanisms for IGF release EXCEPT?A. Growth Hormone.B. Testosterone.C. Nutritional Status.D. Insulin Levels.

Which of the following would represent an appropriate daily consumption of carbohydrate and protein for a 5'" 60 kg marathon runner?A. 540 g carbohydrate and 30 g of protein.B. 600 g carbohydrate and 78 g protein.C. 360 g carbohydrate and 66 g of protein.D. 480 g carbohydrate and 42 g of protein.

B 211PROTEIN10-15% or .8g/kg but for aerobic athletes can go to 1.4g/kgCARBS45-65%Aerobic athletes need 7-10g/kg carbs.FAT20-35% (<10% from saturated fats)

A male wrestler is 5'6 and weighs 127 lbs. Using BMI, how would this athlete be classified?A. Underweight.B. Normal.C. Overweight.D. Obese.

B 219Kilos/meters*2(LBS/Inches*2) x 703Normal 18.5 - 24.9Overweight 25.0 - 29.9Obesity > 30.0Extreme Obesity > 40

Which of the following is an appropriate rest interval for a 10k runner performing 1 km intervals at race pace in 3 minutes and 30 seconds?A. 1 minute 15 seconds.B. 3 minutes 30 seconds.C. 7 minutes.D. 10 minutes 30 seconds.

B5 - 10 s = 1:12 to 1:2015 - 30 s = 1:51-3 min = 1:3 to 1:4> 3 min = 1:1

en perforwhming the hexagon test, how many revolutions (of jumps) around the hexagon does the athlete make? 4 2 3 1

Correct Correct Answer:3 revolutions

Approximately what daily carbohydrate intake is needed to prevent ketosis? 100g - 150g 50g - 100g 200g - 250g 150g - 200g

Correct Correct Answer:50g - 100g

The men's tennis coach at your university comes into your office and says that he's heard that some of the other schools in your division are utilizing the Margaria-Kalamen test to assess athletic performance of their players. The coach is excited to try something new with his players so he gathers them up and tells them that you will be conducting the Margaria-Kalamen test with them. The coach and his team start to head out to the tennis courts, but you tell him to hold up because the Margaria-Kalamen test requires... ...a hexagon with 24 inches sides taped to the ground. ...two parallel lines, 25 yards apart on a flat surface. ...a staircase with nine or more steps. ...three parallel lines, 5 yards apart on a flat field.

Correct Answer:...a staircase with nine or more steps. Explanation:The hexagon test uses a hexagon with 24 inches sides taped to the ground.The pro agility test uses three parallel lines, 5 yards apart on a flat field.The 300-yard shuttle uses two parallel lines, 25 yards apart on a flat surface.

During glycolysis, how many ATP are "invested" in the metabolism of one molecule of glucose from glycogen? 4 3 2 1

Correct Answer:1 ATP Explanation:One molecule of ATP is invested in the metabolism of one molecule of glucose from glycogen. The ATP is used by the enzyme phosphofructokinase (PFK) to phosphorylate fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate.Glucose from glycogen is already phosphorylated so it only requires the investment of 1 additional ATP molecule. Glucose from the blood, however, requires investment of 2 molecules of ATP for glycolysis.

What is the athlete's starting position for the 40-yard sprint test? Select any or all correct answers. Standing relatively upright with feet at staggered length 3-point stance Crouched down in a ball 4-point stance Incorrect

Correct Answer:3-point or 4-point stance

What box height should be used for the step-up? 20-24'' 12-18'' 18-20''

Correct answer: 12-18" The box height used in the step-up should place the lifter's knee in approximately a 90-degree angle when the lifter is standing on the ground and places one foot on the box. For most individuals, this will be between 12 and 18 inches. Lower heights can certainly be used for individuals with less experience or lower strength levels.

During speed testing what is the minimum distance needed beyond the finish line to allow for deceleration? 15 yards 10 yards 20 yards

Correct answer: 20 yards For safety reasons, there should be an adequate deceleration zone beyond the finish line when conducting speed testing. This allows the athletes to reduce their speed slowly instead of stopping abruptly. Stopping too quickly can increase injury risk. The minimum distance that should be provided is 20 yards. Other safety considerations for speed testing include: Ensuring there is a flat running surface Providing an adequate warm up or allowing time for athletes to warm up thoroughly Proper footwear

What is the recommended box height for someone performing the single-leg push-off box drill for the first time? 12" 18" 6"

Correct answer: 6" The single-leg push-off is a low-intensity box drill. To perform this exercise, place one foot on top of the box and then use that leg to jump as high as possible before landing on that same leg. It is recommended to start with a 6-inch box. Over time, the box height can be increased in order to increase intensity.

An athlete is entering a carbohydrate-loading phase. How many grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of body weight should the athlete consume per day of the loading phase? 12-14 grams 8-10 grams 5-8 grams

Correct answer: 8-10 grams Carbohydrate loading is an effective strategy to increase glycogen stores in the body in preparation for an aerobic endurance event. The additional glycogen can help delay fatigue that occurs as glycogen is depleted. 8 to 10 grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of body weight per day during the loading period is the minimum amount necessary for athletes to benefit from carbohydrate loading and should be higher than their normal intake.

Which of the following statements is false? Descriptive statistics are a summary of all the data collected from a large group A difference score describes the difference in testing results between two athletes Inferential statistics allow the results collected from a sample of a specific population to represent the entire population

Correct answer: A difference score describes the difference in testing results between two athletes Inferential statistics relies on the information gathered during testing of a sample of a specific population and uses this information as a representation of what would be true for the entire population. Descriptive statistics are a summary of all the data collected for a group. This may include the mean (average), median (middle score), and mode (most frequent score). A difference score refers to the difference in testing scores for the same athlete at different times, such as the beginning and end of a training program or season. It does not refer to the difference in scores between different athletes.

Which of these statements is false regarding zinc? It aids in metabolism It is a building block for bone growth It aids in wound healing

Correct answer: It is a building block for bone growth Zinc is one of the main minerals in the body and plays a role in many different systems, including things like digestion, metabolism, reproduction, and wound healing. While it may play a role in bone production, zinc itself is not a building block for bone growth.

Which of the following is classified as a disaccharide?A. Starch.B. Fiber.C. Glycogen.D. Lactose.

D 184Disaccharide: sucrose, lactose, and maltosePolysaccharides: starch, fiber and glycogenMonosaccharides: glucose, fructose, and galactose

drive theory

Drive theory states that the more psyched up an athlete becomes, the better they perform. While this might be true in some cases, this is not a universal idea. Some sports and activities can be negatively impacted by too high a state of arousal.

Which of the following groups often have an increased risk of iron deficiency? Female non-athletes Female strength athletes Female aerobic endurance athletes Hide ExplanationUnflag Question

Explanation Details Correct answer: Female aerobic endurance athletes The most common nutritional deficiency is iron deficiency and, because iron helps transport oxygen throughout the body, this can be detrimental to athletic performance. Females lose iron through menstruation, which is why females have a greater risk of deficiency than males, especially when coupled with other risk factors. For example, those who lose a lot of blood with each cycle are at an increased risk of iron deficiency. Aerobic endurance athletes are also at greater risk for deficiency than other athletes; in fact, a recent study showed that more than 25% of female aerobic endurance athletes were deficient in iron.

When dealing with levers, the longer the moment arm of muscular force... ...the less force needed to overcome the resistive force ...the longer the moment arm of the resistive force ...the more force needed to overcome the resistive force ...the shorter the moment arm of the resistive force

Explanation:The longer the moment arm of the muscular force, the more efficient the lever becomes. Greater efficiency means that less muscular force is needed.

Multipennate

Fascicles attach obliquely from many directions to several tendons deltoid

How many trials should be allowed when conducting jump testing for the vertical jump, reactive jump, and standing long jump? 1 3 5

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 3 Individuals should be allowed to make three attempts when performing jumps during testing. The best score should be recorded. Performance often improves after the initial jump. However, performing too many attempts can result in fatigue and decreased performance. Therefore, the guidelines for jump testing suggest allowing three attempts.

Aerobic endurance athletes training for 90 minutes or more each day should consume how many grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of body weight per day? 5 to 6 grams 8 to 10 grams 10 to 15 grams

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 8 to 10 grams Aerobic endurance athletes should restore their levels of glycogen by consuming 8-10 grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight each day. Maintaining glycogen levels is important to help improve work output and performance as well as to delay fatigue during training and competition. An athlete weighing 75 kg (165 pounds) should consume 600 to 750 grams of carbohydrate daily. Athletes involved in strength, sprint, or skill-based training should consume 5 to 6 grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of body weight per day.

What is the recommended daily carbohydrate intake for aerobic endurance athletes? 5 to 6 grams per kilogram of body weight 8 to 10 grams per kilogram of body weight 16 to 20 grams per kilogram of body weight

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 8 to 10 grams per kilogram of body weight Sufficient carbohydrate intake may help delay fatigue for endurance athletes such as long-distance runners, cyclists, triathletes and cross-country skiers. Athletes who train for 90 minutes or more per day at a moderate intensity should consume 8 to 10 grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight per day. As an example, a person weighing 165 pounds (75 kg) should eat approximately 600 to 750 grams per day.

An endurance athlete has injured her shoulder. If the athletic trainer recommends that she maintain her aerobic capabilities by using a stationary bike, this activity would be considered: Remodeling A rehabilitation An indication

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: An indication An indication is an acceptable activity for an athlete to perform during rehabilitation. This is in contrast with a contraindication, which is an activity that is inadvisable for an athlete to perform due to an injury. Because the athletic trainer has approved biking as an acceptable way for this athlete to maintain some cardiovascular activity, using the stationary bike is then indicated for the athlete. Remodeling refers to part of the process of tissue healing. A rehabilitation exercise would include movements prescribed to help the athlete with their shoulder injury.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the selection of pre-training foods for athletes using the glycemic index? Athletes should try both lower and higher GI foods to determine which works better for them Athletes should always select foods with a higher GI rating Athletes should always select foods with a lower GI rating

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Athletes should try both lower and higher GI foods to determine which works better for them While foods with a higher GI rating have been shown to be the best choice during and immediately following training to replenish glycogen stores, the research is inconclusive regarding pre-training nutrition. Therefore, it is best if individual athletes experiment with trying both low and high GI foods prior to practice sessions in order to determine which works better for them.

A superset that involves a back squat immediately followed by cycled split squat jumps is an example of which of the following types of training? Supersets Complex training Max strength training

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Complex training Complex training involves alternating an exercise that uses the stretch-shortening cycle (SSC), such as a plyometric movement, with a heavy resistance exercise such as a squat, in order to enhance their benefits. Complex training is based on post-activation potentiation, an advanced method of enhancing subsequent performance. Supersets involve two resistance training exercises that work opposing muscle groups.

An athlete performing a set of bench presses followed immediately by a set of push-ups is performing which of the following types of resistance training strategies? Non-alternating set Compound set Superset

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Compound set In a compound set, an athlete performs two exercises for the same muscle group back-to-back. The stress on the working muscle is increased because both exercises recruit the same muscle area. Supersets involve performing exercises of opposing muscle groups back-to-back. Although efficient in terms of time, both compound sets and supersets are deliberately more demanding, and therefore may be unsuitable for unconditioned athletes.

Where should the arms be during an abdominal crunch? Reaching toward the feet Clasped behind the head Folded across the chest or abdomen

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Folded across the chest or abdomen Placing the arms across the chest or abdomen helps prevent an individual from pulling on the head and neck to complete the movement. To perform the crunch, place the heels on an elevated surface such as a bench and bend the knees to about 90 degrees. Curl up until the upper back comes off the ground without moving the feet, hips, legs or arms. Perform the movement slowly and with control.

Which term is used to refer to activities that enable a muscle to reach maximal force in the shortest possible time? Plyometric exercise Power Potentiation

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Plyometric exercise Plyometric exercise utilizes the characteristics of the series elastic component (SEC) and the stretch-shortening cycle (SSC) to enhance the power of the subsequent movement. Plyometric training is typically associated with jumping activities and utilizes a countermovement for the pre-stretch, typically followed by some sort of jumping movement. Plyometric training helps increase an athlete's speed and power.

A well-trained, experienced athlete with a long history of strength training is trying to increase their stride rate during maximal velocity sprinting. Which of the following training options would most affect this component of sprint speed? Single leg squats Heavy squats Plyometric training

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Plyometric training Stride rate relies on the rapid and vertical application of high force in order to propel the athlete forward. An athlete who has already developed a good base of strength will likely achieve the best results toward improving their stride rate by including plyometric training in their program. This will focus on emphasizing the stretch-shortening cycle (SSC) as well as their rate of force development (RFD). If an athlete were not as well trained, heavy squats could be a good addition as well, in order to improve the amount of ground force they could apply during their stance phase. This increase could result in a shorter ground contact time and as a result, also a potentially faster stride rate

An athlete suggests adding the pro-agility test before the season. Which of the following characteristics of this test is the most important when determining whether to add it to a testing battery? Reliability Specificity Inter-rater agreement

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Specificity The most important thing to consider when deciding whether to add this test to the test battery is its specificity. The test needs to measure a parameter of performance that is specific to the sport and is not already being tested by another test in the battery. After a test is deemed to be specific to the sport and chosen to be added, then it is important to also ensure that the test has good validity and reliability.

in general, periodization for sport typically starts off with... Lower Volume and Higher Intensity Higher Volume and Lower Intensity

Higher Volume and Lower Intensity

Type IIa fibers

Intermediate fibers Fast-oxidative glycolytic fibers greater capacity for aerobic metabolism and more capillaries than IIx

Overtraining Continuum

Overload stimulus ---> Acute fatigue ---> Overreaching --->nonfunctional overreaching ---> Overtraining

What is the order of the 4 distinct periods of the conventional periodization model? First Transition, Preparatory, Second Transition, Competition First Transition, Competition, Second Transition, Preparatory Competition, First Transition, Preparatory, Second Transition Preparatory, First Transition, Competition, Second Transition

Preparatory, First Transition, Competition, Second Transition

In general, periodization for sport typically starts off with... Complex skills Simple skills

Simple skills

Type I fibers

Slow-twitch fibers Slow-oxidative fibers low myosin ATPase

Self confidence definition

The belief a person has in their overall capability

allosteric regulation

The binding of a regulatory molecule to a protein at one site that affects the function of the protein at a different site. Allosteric regulation occurs when the end product of a reaction or series of reactions feeds back to regulate the turnover rate of key enzymes in the metabolic pathways. Allosteric inhibition occurs when an end product binds to the regulatory enzyme and decreases its turnover rate and slows product formation

first class lever

The fulcrum is positioned between the effort and resistance triceps ext

H zone

The region at the center of an A band of a sarcomere that is made up of myosin only. The H zone gets shorter (and may disappear) during muscle contraction.

2 mechanisms for resynthesizing ATP

There are two primary mechanisms for resynthesizing ATP during metabolism: 1. Substrate-level phosphorylation 2. Oxidative phosphorylation Phosphorylation is the process of adding an inorganic phosphate (Pi ) to another molecule. For example, ADP + Pi ĺ ATP is the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP. Oxidative phosphorylation refers to the resynthesis of ATP from ADP. In contrast, substrate-level phosphorylation refers to the direct resynthesis of ATP from ADP during a single reaction in the metabolic pathways.

Fick's equation for cardiac output

VO2= Q (cardiac output) x a-vO2 difference expresses the relationship of cardiac output, oxygen uptake, and arteriovenous oxygen difference:

A youth female athlete has been placed in Stage 4 of Tanner's Classification. What does this classification assess?A. Biological Age.B. Training Age.C. Chronological Age.D. Psychological Age.

Which of the following is the equation for the tension generated by a resistance band?A. Stiffness (k) X Deformation (d)B. Stiffness (k) / Deformation (d)C. Deformation (d) / Stiffness (k)D. Force (N) X Time (s)

Which of the following upper body plyometric drills is generally considered the most intense?a) Power Drop.b) Depth Push-Up.c) Two Hand Side to Side Throw.d) Single Arm Throw.

torque

a force that causes rotation expressed in Nm but dont confuse w/ work The difference is that the distance component of the torque unit refers to the length of the moment arm (which is perpendicular to the line of action of the force), while the distance component of the work unit refers to the distance moved along the line of action of the force. Just as for movement through space, the work done in rotating an object is measured in joules (J), and power in watts (W).

To maintain hydration during competition lasting less than 1 hour, it is recommended that athletes consume 3 to 8 ounces of water or a sports drink about every a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 60 minutes d. 2 hours

a. 15 minutes

Which of the following work-to-rest ratios is the MOST appropriate to assign to a plyometric training workout? a. 1:5 b. 1:4 c. 1:3 d. 1:2

a. 1:5

What type of resistance training workout promotes the highest growth hormone increases following the exercise session? Rest Volume Sets a. 30 seconds High 3 b. 30 seconds Low 1 c. 3 minutes High 1 d. 3 minutes Low 3

a. 30 seconds High 3

Which of the following types of activity is inappropriate during the inflammatory response phase of a medial collateral ligament sprain? a. lower extremity plyometrics b. submaximal isometric quadriceps strengthening c. hip joint stretching d. upper extremity ergometry

a. lower extremity plyometrics

Cartilaginous joints

allow only slight movement and consist of bones connected entirely by cartilage - intervetebral discs

Angluar displacement

angle through which an object rotates - SI unit is radian

For a high school soccer player, which of the following best describes the relationship between resistance exercise intensity and volume at the end of the preparatory period?a) High intensity, High volume.b) High intensity, Low volume.c) Low intensity, High volume.d) Low intensity, Low volume.

Anaerobic capacity is quantified as the maximal power output achieved during activity lasting a. less than 10 seconds b. 30 to 90 seconds c. 2 to 3 minutes d. longer than 5 minutes

b. 30 to 90 seconds

The medium-sized training cycle that lasts two to six weeks in duration is referred to as a I. block of training II. macrocycle III. microcycle IV. mesocycle a. II and III only b. I and IV only c. I, II, and IV only d. III and IV only

b. I and IV only

Which of the following dietary supplements is (are) considered a stimulant? I. creatine II. caffeine III. HMB IV. citrus aurantium a. I and II b. II and IV c. III and IV d. I and III

b. II and IV

Which of the following protein sources does not contain all essential amino acids in appreciable quantities? a. poultry b. eggs c. lentils d. beef

b. eggs

Following prolonged periods of detraining in elite strength/power athletes, which of the following physical characteristics will likely show the largest reduction as a consequence of the removal of an anaerobic training stimulus? a. total fat mass b. fast-twitch fiber cross-sectional area c. slow-twitch fiber cross-sectional area d. total Type I muscle fiber content

b. fast-twitch fiber cross-sectional area

Which of the following is NOT typically the result of overuse? a. stress fracture b. grade III joint sprain c. tendinitis d. microtraumatic injury

b. grade III joint sprain

The primary movement during the second pull phase of the power clean exercise is a. hip flexion b. hip extension c. knee flexion d. dorsiflexion

b. hip extension

With regard to core training, when is instability exercise best applied? a. with untrained athletes who are relatively weak b. in trained athletes who are rehabilitating from an injury c. with trained athletes who are trying to optimize strength and power d. with untrained athletes who are new to the exercise

b. in trained athletes who are rehabilitating from an injury

During which of the following exercises should a spotter's hands be placed on the athlete's forearms near the wrists? a. bench press b. incline dumbbell bench press c. upright row d. lying barbell triceps extension

b. incline dumbbell bench press

The following is the most likely contributor to fatigue and poor performance: a. low protein intake b. iron deficiency c. low calcium intake d. omega-3 fatty acid deficiency

b. iron deficiency

Which of the following is NOT one of the phases of healing following an injury? a. inflammatory response b. reconditioning hypertrophy c. maturation-remodeling d. fibroblastic repair

b. reconditioning hypertrophy

During which stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome does the body physiologically adapt to heavier training loads? a. alarm b. resistance c. exhaustion d. restoration

b. resistance

Which of the following is the correct foot pattern in the step-up exercise? a. step up left foot, step up right foot, step down left foot, step down right foot b. step up right foot, step up left foot, step down left foot, step down right foot c. step up left foot, step down left foot, step up right foot, step down right foot d. step up right foot, step up left foot, step down right foot, step down left foot

b. step up right foot, step up left foot, step down left foot, step down right foot

All of the following procedures should be followed when testing an athlete's cardiovascular fitness in the heat EXCEPT a. performing the test in an indoor facility b. using salt tablets to retain water c. scheduling the test in the morning d. drinking fluids during the test

b. using salt tablets to retain water

Fasciculi

bundles of muscle fibers within a muscle surrounded by CT called perimysium

C 414 A professional baseball player would like to train a 6RM load in the bench press with the addition of chains. Presently the athlete's 6 RM is 200 lbs. How much weight should be placed on the barbell if the athlete applies a 24.4 lb. chain?A. 175 lbs.B. 178 lbs.C. 188 lbs.D. 195 lbs."

For women still having a menstrual cycle, which of the following hormones is higher than men at rest?A. Cortisol.B. Insulin.C. Growth Hormone.D. Testosterone.

Using the Karvonen method, what is the target heart rate of a 65 year old male who will be working out at 50-60% of his functional capacity? He is 6 foot tall and weighs 175 lbs with a resting heart rate of 80 beats per min.a) 88-95b) 100-110c) 118-125d) 148-155.

Which of the following protein sources does not contain all essential amino acids in appreciable quantities?a. poultry.b. eggs.c. lentils.d. beef.

You are instructing a female volleyball player on the Two Arm Kettlebell swing. At what level should she forcefully swing the kettlebell to?A. Umbilicus.B. Nipple.C. Eye.D. Full arm extension above the cranium.

Which of the following performance or physiological characteristics is NOT usually observed in a state of nonfunctional overreaching (NFOR) within athlete populations? a. stagnation and a decrease in performance b. hormonal disturbances c. mood disturbances and depression d. increased levels of fatigue

c. mood disturbances and depression

fibrous joints

consists of inflexible layers of dense connective tissue, holds the bones tightly together (sutures of the skull) ALLOW VIRTUALLY NO MOVEMENT

fibrous cartilage

very tough form of cartilage found in the intervertebral disks of the spine and at the junctions where tendons attach to bone

work

work/time

The soccer team is transitioning from off-season to preseason training. How should the team's resistance training frequency be altered? a. Increase frequency to improve muscular endurance. b. Do not change frequency and add plyometrics . c. Decrease frequency to allow increased sport skill practice. d. Design a split routine with three days on and one day off.

. c. Decrease frequency to allow increased sport skill practice.

Administer tests in this order:

1. Nonfatiguing tests (e.g., height, weight, flexibility, skinfold and girth measurements, vertical jump) 2. Agility tests (e.g., T-test, pro agility test) 3. Maximum power and strength tests (e.g., 1RM power clean, 1RM squat) 4. Sprint tests (e.g., 40 m sprint with split times at 10 m and 20 m) 5. Local muscular endurance tests (e.g., push-up test) 6. Fatiguing anaerobic capacity tests (e.g., 300-yard [275 m] shuttle) 7. Aerobic capacity tests (e.g., 1.5-mile [2.4 km] run or Yo-Yo intermittent recovery test)

How much work is required to lift a 100 kg barbell 2 m for 5 repetitions?a. 9,800 J.b. 1,000 J.c. 1,000 W.d. 9,800 W.

A Force applied to counter the weight of the bar (F1 ) = 9.8 m/s2 ∙ 100 kg ∙ cos 0° = 980 N 2. Calculate the additional force (F2 ) required to accelerate the bar mass upward at a given rate. (Force required to lower the bar in a controlled manner is calculated later.) For example, if the desired acceleration rate upward is 2 m/s2 , the force required would be Force applied to accelerate the bar upward (F2 ) = 2 m/s2 ∙ 100 kg ∙ cos 0° = 200 N 3. Apply equation 2.2 to calculate the work for 10 repetitions in Joules: Work (positive) (Page 44).

A 6'4" male has an average daily intake of 2,900 kilocalories. This has allowed him to maintain a weight of 77 kg. He would like to gain an additional 7 kg of muscle. A general guideline would be for him to consume which of the following each day?A. 500 additional kilocalories and 131 g of proteinB. 500 additional kilocalories and 92 g of proteinC. 300 additional kilocalories and 124 g of proteinD. 300 additional kilocalories and 170 g of protein

A 2171.5 to 2.0 g per/kilo for weight gainLIMITS TO WEIGHT GAIN/LOSS.5-1kg/week = 500-1000 calories/dayPROTEIN10-15% or .8g/kg but for aerobic athletes can go to 1.4g/kgHeavy resistance can go to 1.8g/kg-2.7g/kg

Which of the following defines momentum?A. The relationship between the mass of an object and the velocity of movement.B. The relationship between force and time.C. How fast an object is moving and what direction.D. Push or a pull exerted on one object by another.

A 524B = ImpulseC = VelocityD = Force

Phosphofructokinase (PFK)

An allosteric enzyme important in glycolysis (PFK) rate limiting step

Rate Pressure Product (RPP)

An estimate of the myocardial oxygen consumption, calculated as the product of heart (HR) and systolic blood pressure (SBP)

self-efficacy

An individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. specific task in specific situition

Symptoms of anorexia include:

Brittle hair and nails Dry, yellowish skin Constipation Lethargy Low blood pressure, slow breathing or heart rate

Which of the following structures of a sarcomere shrinks in the pectoralis major muscle during the concentric action of a bench press?A. A-band.B. M-line.C. H-zone.D. Z-line.

C 6

Mehvish is a 20-year-old, female basketball player. On the first day of the "preparatory" period, she is assigned to use the lat pulldown machine. What set and repetition range would be most appropriate for her? 1 - 3 sets x 1 - 3 repetitions per set 3 - 5 sets x 2 - 5 repetitions per set 3 - 5 sets x 4 - 8 repetitions per set 3 - 6 sets x 10 - 20 repetitions per set

Correct Correct Answer:3 - 6 sets x 10 - 20 repetitions per set Explanation:In general, periodization for sport typically starts off with high volume and low intensity. The preparatory period is subdivided into three phases: 1) hypertrophy and endurance, 2) basic strength, and 3) strength / power. Since this is the first day of the preparatory period, Mehvish is in the "hypertrophy and endurance" phase. This phase typically lasts from 1 - 6 weeks and its goals are to increase lean body mass, develop muscular endurance, or both. Set / Rep Ranges by Period / Phase:Preparatory Period / Hypertrophy & Endurance Phase: 3 - 6 sets x 10 - 20 repetitions per setPreparatory Period / Basic Strength Phase: 3 - 5 sets x 4 - 8 repetitions per setFirst Transition Period / Strength & Power Phase: 3 - 5 sets x 2 - 5 repetitions per setCompetition Period / Peaking Phase: 1 - 3 sets x 1 - 3 repetitions per set

Today is family visitation day at your university and you've been assigned to oversee a fun workshop on the track. You'll be teaching the siblings of your school's track team how their older brothers and sisters sprint. You tell your young students to get down on the starting blocks in a four-point stance. You tell your group that the angle of their front knee should be about _____ degrees and their back knee should be between ____ degrees. 90 degrees (front knee), 150 - 180 degrees (back knee) 90 degrees (front knee), 110 - 130 degrees (back knee) 25 degrees (front knee), 150 - 180 degrees (back knee) 45 degrees (front knee), 150 - 180 degrees (back knee)

Correct Correct Answer:90 degrees (front knee), 110 - 130 degrees (back knee)

When observing one of your sprinters in a four-point stance at the starting blocks, you notice that he has too much weight on his arms. Which of the following is a possible correction to this situation? Move hips upward and backward Move hips downward and forward Straighten rear leg Flex arms more

Correct Correct Answer:Move hips upward and backward Explanation:Too much weight on the arms is caused by holding the hips too far forward. Move the athlete's hips backward and upwards to reduce the weight distribution on the arms. The arms can also be straightened to even out the weight distribution.

Vishal is a 22-year-old, male college student. He runs for recreation, but would like to obtain a better time in an upcoming 10 kilometer race. What range of work-to-rest ratios will you recommend to him so that he trains the appropriate energy system? 1:12 to 1:20 1:3 to 1:5 1:3 to 1:4 1:1 to 1:3

Correct Answer:1:1 to 1:3 Explanation:A 10 kilometer race is a relatively low-intensity activity (as compared to something high intensity, like a 1RM back squat). Low-intensity activities longer than 3 minutes in duration utilize the oxidative system for regeneration of ATP.

There are 3 energy systems used by the body to regenerate ATP. Which of the following is not a type of energy system used by the body to regenerate ATP in skeletal muscle? Phosphagen Glycolysis Oxidative Aerobic

Correct Answer:Aerobic Explanation:"Aerobic" is not an energy system. The oxidative system uses an aerobic mechanism for producing ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate). The 3 Energy Systems are: 1) Glycolysis, 2) Phosphagen, and 3) Oxidative.

As the head strength and conditioning coach of a big, Division I university, you get questions about physical training from random people all the time. Today a woman in the grocery store wants to know what part of her foot should touch the ground first when she's sprinting during a CrossFit class that she attends. You tell her that when she's at max velocity during her sprint, only the __________ of her foot should be touching the ground. Instep Ball Toes Heel

Correct Answer:Ball Explanation:At maximum velocity, only the ball of the foot touches the ground. The foot makes contact directly underneath, or slightly ahead, of the center of gravity.

The men's basketball coach comes into your office and says that he's read an article online about basketball players at other schools using "complex training" to get faster and stronger. "This sounds like the kind of training we need!" says the basketball coach. Unfortunately, the basketball coach didn't finish reading the article and has no idea of what a "complex training" program might look like. He asks if you can give him an example of a "complex training" training day so he can get a better idea of what it entails. You respond that a "complex training" day might involve... Back Squats, Bench Press, Deadlifts, and Bent-Over Rows Depth Jumps, Back Squats, Double-Leg Zig-Zag Hops, and Deadlifts Depth Jumps, Medicine Ball Chest Passes, Double-Leg Zig-Zag Hops, and Power Drops Bench Press, Flat Dumbbell Flys, Incline Bench Press, and Incline Dumbbell Flys

Correct Answer:Depth Jumps, Back Squats, Double-Leg Zig-Zag Hops, and Deadlifts Explanation:"Complex Training" involves alternating stretch-shortening cycle tasks with heavy resistance training. As seen in the answer choice here, depth jumps and double-leg zig-zag hops are plyometric exercises that utilize the stretch-shortening cycle. Back squats and deadlifts are heavy resistance training exercises.

You are observing an athlete perform power cleans on a lifting platform. As the athlete performs the "second pull" phase of the lift, they are unable to bring the bar up to their target height for the "catch" phase. What should the athlete do in this situation? Lower their body to a full squat position in order to "catch" the bar Drop the bar or push it forward / away from their body Call for a spotter Move underneath the bar so that it lands behind them

Correct Answer:Drop the bar or push it forward / away from their body Explanation:Power exercises are never spotted so athletes are taught to move away from the bar during a failed attempt. Since the power clean is performed in front of the body, the athlete would simply drop the bar or push the bar away slightly to get away from it in the case of a failed attempt. As per the Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning textbook, the "catch" phase of the power clean is performed from a quarter-squat position. Dropping down to a full-squat position is not recommended.

True or False: A typical creatine supplementation routine involves a maintenance dose of 20 - 25 grams of creatine per day. True False

Correct Answer:False Explanation:A typical maintenance dose is 2 grams creatine per day. The "loading" phase typically involves 20 - 25 grams of creatine consumed per day for five days.

True or False: State anxiety is the personality characteristic that represents a disposition to find an environment threatening. False True

Correct Answer:False Explanation:State anxiety is the actual experience of apprehension and uncontrolled arousal. Trait anxiety is the personality characteristic that represents a disposition to find an environment threatening. For example: An athlete that has trait anxiety in which he perceives basketball courts to be threatening environments. As a result of this trait anxiety, the athlete experiences state anxiety (apprehension and uncontrolled arousal) when they step onto a basketball court.

True or False: Within the human body, sucrose is the monosaccharide that circulates in the blood? True False

Correct Answer:False Explanation:Sucrose is a disaccharide, not a monosaccharide, and it does not circulate in the blood. Glucose is the monosaccharide that circulates in the blood.

During the "preparatory" period of the conventional periodization model, sport-specific technique training is of high priority. True False

Correct Answer:False Explanation:The preparatory period involves high volume, lower intensity training which fatigues the athlete and requires a significant time commitment. The fatigue and increased time commitment of the preparatory period reduce the priority for technique training.

True or False: A general daily recommended protein intake for men and women is 0.8g protein / 1.0lbs body weight. False True

Correct Answer:False Explanation:The recommendation is for 0.8g protein / 1.0kg body weight. There are 2.2 pounds per 1.0 kilogram.

True or False: Lipids are not one of the six essential classes of nutrients True False

Correct Answer:False Explanation:The six essential nutrients are carbohydrates, lipids, minerals, protein, vitamins, and water.

One ATP is "invested" in the metabolism of one molecule of glucose. Where did that molecule of glucose come from? Blood Oxygen Glycogen

Correct Answer:Glycogen Explanation:Glucose that comes from glycogen is already phosphorylated (glucose-1-phosphate) and therefore does not need a phosphate group added to it for it to become glucose-6-phosphate. Glucose from glycogen requires one ATP to be invested in the step that PFK enzyme turns fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1,6-bisphosphate. Two ATP are invested if the glucose molecule came from the bloodstream. Glucose does not come from oxygen.

Which enzyme phosphorylates blood glucose so that it can enter the glycolysis pathway? Aldolase Hexokinase Phosphorylase Lactate Dehydrogenase

Correct Answer:Hexokinase Explanation:Hexokinase is the enzyme that phosphorylates glucose from the blood to form glucose-6-phosphate.

Negative reinforcement works to __________ the probability that a target behavior will be performed. Increase Decrease

Correct Answer:Increase Explanation:The "reinforcement" of negative reinforcement refers to action(s) taken to encourage and increase the probability of a player performing a target behavior. When looking at positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement, both forms of reinforcement encourage an athlete to perform a target behavior. The two types of reinforcement differ in how they encourage a player to repeat the target behavior. Positive reinforcement gives / rewards the player with something they value (praise, stickers, etc.). Negative reinforcement removes / takes away something that the player doesn't like (wind sprints, etc.)For example, if a football linebacker makes an interception, a coach may tell the player that he gets to skip wind sprints the following week since he performed the target behavior (making an interception). The reinforcement the player receives for performing the target action comes from the removal (negative) of something the player doesn't want. NOTE: The form of "negative reinforcement" that you are used to using in America refers to the encouragement of bad behavior. This definition is not used in the context of the CSCS exam. Be sure to learn the correct usage of positive / negative punishment and reinforcement.

Which of the following would take place during the Resistance Phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome? Increased recruitment of motor units Reduced performance Allow sufficient recovery before competition Decreased contractile protein synthesis Generation of new motor neurons

Correct Answer:Increased recruitment of motor units Explanation:3 Phases of the General Adaptation Syndrome:Shock / Alarm Phase: the body experiences a new stress, performance decreases, and soreness / stiffness may be experienced. Resistance Phase: the body adapts to the training stimulus and function returns to normal. Neurological and physiological adaptations are made by the body. Exhaustion Phase: persistent stress causes the athlete to lose the ability to adapt to the stressor. Fatigue, soreness, stiffness can return.

In order for lactate to be cleared from within the muscle in which it was produced, the lactate must be... Oxidized Reduced

Correct Answer:Lactate must be oxidized to be cleared from the muscle. Explanation:"Oxidation" is the process of giving up electrons. Lactate is formed when pyruvate is "reduced" by receiving electrons from NADH. Lactate is oxidized when it gives up electrons.

Which of the following body parts is not one of the 5-points of body contact when performing seated or supine exercises on a bench? Shoulders / Upper Back Head Right Foot Lower Back Left Foot Buttocks

Correct Answer:Lower Back Explanation:When performing seated / supine resistance exercises on a bench, the athlete should maintain 5-points of body contact with the bench. The body makes contact with the bench at the head, shoulders / upper back, buttocks, and feet. This position promotes stability and spinal support.

Monosaccharides are single-sugar molecules. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide? Fructose Galactose Glucose Maltose

Correct Answer:Maltose Explanation:The three main monosaccharides are glucose, fructose, and galactose. Maltose is a disaccharide.

it's the middle of summer and you're in charge of coordinating conditioning practice for the football team. The current temperature is 87 degrees Fahrenheit and the relative humidity is 60%. Is this temperature / humidity acceptable to perform strenuous exercise testing? No Yes Humidity doesn't matter Temperature doesn't matter

Correct Answer:No Explanation:A temperature / humidity limit for strenuous exercise / testing exists at 80 degrees Fahrenheit and 51% - 90% humidity. As the current temperature is 87 degrees Fahrenheit and the relative humidity is 60%, it would be too hot to safely conduct strenuous exercise or testing at this time.

Even when performing very low-intensity activity, anaerobic mechanisms supply energy at the very start of the activity. The anaerobic mechanism contribution to the energy cost of the activity is called... EPOC Lactate Threshold Oxygen Debt Oxygen Deficit

Correct Answer:Oxygen deficit Incorrect Answers:Oxygen Debt — the amount of increased oxygen uptake following activity used to restore the body to pre-activity condition. EPOC — "Excess Post-Exercise Oxygen Consumption" is the same as "Oxygen Debt." Lactate Threshold — The exercise intensity at which blood lactate concentrations begin an abrupt increase above baseline concentrations.

Kenya is a track athlete practicing by herself during the off-season. After running the 400-meter sprint, Kenya sees that her time is 1 second slower than her fastest time during the season. For running slower than expected, Kenya forces herself to do 20 push-ups. This is an example of __________. Positive Punishment Negative Reinforcement Negative Punishment Positive Reinforcement

Correct Answer:Positive Punishment Explanation:In the strength and conditioning context (as per the NSCA's main textbook) here's how to understand "positive" and "negative":1) "Positive" means giving the athlete something good or bad.2) "Negative" means taking away from the athlete something good or bad. In the strength and conditioning context (as per the NSCA's main textbook) here's how to understand reinforcement and punishment:1) "Reinforcement" means that the action encourages the desired behavior (e.g. good technique, making the basket, catching the pass, etc.)2) "Punishment" means that the action discourages undesirable behavior (e.g. bad technique, missing the basket, dropping the pass, etc.) When you put the two components together... "Negative reinforcement" means to take away something so that the desired behavior is encouraged. The athlete will continue to do the desired behavior if you take away something they don't like (e.g. taking away wind sprints). "Negative punishment" means to take away something so that the undesirable behavior is discouraged. The athlete will stop the undesirable behavior if you take away something they like (e.g. taking away ice cream). "Positive reinforcement" means to give the athlete something so that the desired behavior is encouraged. The athlete will continue to do the desired behavior is you give them something they like (e.g. giving ice cream). "Positive punishment" means to give the athlete something so that the undesirable behavior is discouraged. The athlete will stop the undesirable behavior if you give them something they don't like (e.g. giving them wind sprints). The form of "negative reinforcement" that you are commonly used to using in America refers to the reinforcement / encouragement of undesireable behavior. This definition is not used in the context of the CSCS exam. Be sure to learn the correct usage of positive / negative punishment and reinforcement.

An athlete starts off with the barbell in front of their shoulders, dips down slightly and then moves the bar above their head. What is this exercise called? Push Press Power Clean Clean and Press Snatch

Correct Answer:Push Press

The men's track coach comes into your office looking for assistance with his 100-meter sprinters. He wants to know what area of training he should focus on so that his athletes run faster times. The areas of training focus he suggests are: acceleration, reaction time, speed-endurance, and maximum speed. "Well," you reply, "don't bother focusing your training efforts on..." Acceleration Maximum Speed Reaction Time Speed-Endurance

Correct Answer:Reaction Time Explanation:Reaction time is relatively untrainable and correlates poorly with performance in many explosive events (such as the 100-meter sprint).

Which of the following would take place during the Shock / Alarm Phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome? Decreased muscle soreness / stiffness Improved performance Reduced performance Increased contractile protein synthesis

Correct Answer:Reduced performance Explanation:3 Phases of the General Adaptation Syndrome:Shock / Alarm Phase: the body experiences a new stress, performance decreases, and soreness / stiffness may be experienced. Resistance Phase: the body adapts to the training stimulus and function returns to normal. Neurological and physiological adaptations are made by the body. Exhaustion Phase: persistent stress causes the athlete to lose the ability to adapt to the stressor. Fatigue, soreness, stiffness can return.

Meilin is in the second week of a 12 week strength training program. She has been sore for the past few days but reports that she finally feels back to normal today. Which phase of General Adaptation Syndrome is Meilin in? Exhaustion Phase Resistance Phase Shock / Alarm Phase

Correct Answer:Resistance Phase Explanation:3 Phases of the General Adaptation Syndrome:Shock / Alarm Phase: the body experiences a new stress, performance decreases, and soreness / stiffness may be experienced. Resistance Phase: the body adapts to the training stimulus and function returns to normal. Neurological and physiological adaptations are made by the body. Exhaustion Phase: persistent stress causes the athlete to lose the ability to adapt to the stressor. Fatigue, soreness, stiffness can return.

Which type of anxiety is a personality variable relating to the probability that one perceives an environment as threatening? Trait Anxiety State Anxiety

Correct Answer:Trait Anxiety

True or False: When expressed as a percentage of daily caloric intake, an average person should be getting 10% - 15% of their daily calories from protein. True False

Correct Answer:True Explanation:10% to 15% is a good general guideline. Think before you answer! Do the calculation in your head quickly to see if it makes sense. Protein has 4 calories per gram. If you eat 2,000 calories daily, 10% - 15% would be eating 200 - 300 calories-worth of protein. If each gram of protein has 4 calories, that's 50g - 75g protein consumed. Given the average protein intake guidelines of 0.8g / kilogram body weight, 50g - 75g protein would be expected for someone weighing between 62.5kg (137.5lbs) and 93.75kg (206.25lbs)..

In the starting position for the deadlift, where should the bar be in relation to the shins? 3" in front of the shins 1" in front of the shins Touching the shins

Correct answer: 1" in front of the shins The correct starting position for the deadlift is important to ensure good technique on the rest of the lift. Some of the key points for the starting position include: Feet between hip and shoulder distance apart and feet flat (heels on the ground) Hips lower than the shoulders but above the knees Shoulders above or slightly in front of the bar Arms straight and outside the knees Bar 1" away from the shins As the lift begins, the lifter should attempt to keep the bar as close to the shins as possible throughout the initial pull.

How many grams of protein per kg of body weight should strength athletes consume each day? 0.8-1.0 g/kg/day 1.4-1.7 g/kg/day 1.0-1.6 g/kg/day

Correct answer: 1.4-1.7 g/kg/day The current dietary reference intake is 1.4 to 1.7 g/kg/day of protein for strength athletes. Protein intake above recommended levels is not advised because the additional protein in an athlete's diet may prevent the athlete from consuming adequate amounts of carbohydrates and/or fats. However, athletes who are on a reduced-calorie diet for weight loss may need to consume more protein per day to preserve muscle tissue during weight loss. In this case, the recommended range increases to 1.8 to 2.7 g/kg/day. - The average adult (non-athlete) should consume 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg/day - Aerobic endurance athletes should consume 1.0 to 1.6 g/kg/day

How many cups of dark green vegetables does MyPlate recommend an adult female consume each week? 5 cups 1.5 cups 3.5 cups

Correct answer: 1.5 cups The vegetable food group in MyPlate provides weekly intake recommendations for five different vegetable subgroups, including: Dark green vegetables Red and orange vegetables Beans and peas Starchy vegetables Other vegetables Adult females should eat 1.5 cups of dark green vegetables every week. Men 19 to 50 years should consume 2 cups per week, and men 51 and over should consume at least 1.5 cups per week. It is important to remember that the guidelines provided by MyPlate are geared toward the general population. Intake requirements for athletes can be different, based on their training needs.

Dylan lost 2.5 pounds during his first lacrosse game in a tournament and needs to play again in a few hours. How much fluid does he need to consume to rehydrate and be prepared for the next game? 2 liters 1.5 liters 3 liters

Correct answer: 1.5 liters When dehydration levels are high or when an athlete has fewer than 12 hours before their next training session or competition, they should rehydrate more aggressively. It is also important to ensure sufficient electrolytes are included during rehydration to prevent hyponatremia. If dehydration is mild or the athlete has more than 12 hours before they need to train or perform, rehydration can be more gradual, but still should contain electrolytes. For aggressive fluid replacement, the current recommendation is to consume 1.5 liters for every kilogram of body weight lost. Dylan lost 2.5 pounds which equals 1.1 kilograms. For calculation purposes, round down to 1 kg. Therefore, to replace the 1 kg of weight lost during his game, he should consume 1.5 liters of fluid along with sufficient sodium or electrolytes.

When using PNF stretching with a client, you should perform a pre-stretch. How long should you hold this pre-stretch? 30 seconds 1 minute 10 seconds

Correct answer: 10 seconds Every type of PNF stretch requires a pre-stretch, and this is to be held for 10 seconds. This pre-stretch should be a stretch of mild discomfort.

What is the standard recommended load increase per set for a lower body exercise when conducting 1RM testing? 5-10% 10-20% 2.5-5%

Correct answer: 10-20% The standard protocol for conducting 1RM testing includes performing multiple warm-up sets prior to the first testing attempt. Each warm-up set should get progressively heavier. The standard recommendation is to increase the load by 30 to 40 lbs or 10 to 20%, whichever is more appropriate for the individual. Those whose estimated 1RM is lighter will generally follow the 10 to 20% recommendation. This same increase is recommended between 1RM attempts. However, it can certainly be adjusted based on how much of a challenge the attempt was for the individual. If an individual fails a 1RM attempt, they can either repeat the same weight or decrease the load by 5 to 10%.

What is the minimum space recommended per participant in a strength and conditioning facility? 100 square feet 50 square feet 75 square feet

Correct answer: 100 square feet Individual participant space requirements help determine the number of athletes that can safely use a strength and conditioning facility at any given time. These requirements must be taken into consideration when generating a schedule for individuals and groups who will be using the facility. As long as there is adequate supervision, a minimum of 100 square feet per participant creates a safer training environment and provides sufficient space for each individual to complete their training program.

Greg is a collegiate American football linebacker who weighs 231 lbs. Based on the sport-specific protein recommendations for an American football player, how much protein should he consume daily? 55-115 grams 105-210 grams 230-460 grams

Correct answer: 105-210 grams Protein intake recommendations for specific sports are based on the specific demands of the sport. The recommendation for American football athletes is 1.0 to 2.0 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight. Greg weighs 231 lbs, which is about 105 kilograms. Therefore, this athlete should consume 105 to 210 grams of protein each day. 105 kg x 1.0 grams/kg = 105 grams 105 kg x 2.0 grams/kg = 210 grams

What is the recommended ceiling height in a facility where athletes will perform plyometric training and Olympic lifting? 15-20 feet 12-14 feet 9-10 feet

Correct answer: 12-14 feet The height of the ceiling in a strength and conditioning facility needs to be high enough to allow athletes to jump and to perform overhead lifting movements safely. It is important to account for an athlete's height plus enough room for that athlete to perform movements like box jumps and overhead lifts, such as the push press. A 9- to 10-foot ceiling could be high enough for some athletes, but a taller athlete might have some difficulty at that height. Higher ceilings are certainly acceptable (including a 15- to 20-foot ceiling), but a 12- to 14-foot ceiling should be sufficient for these movements and is, therefore, the recommended height for a strength and conditioning facility.

If a banana has a glycemic index (GI) rating of 51 and has 25 grams of carbohydrates per serving, what is the glycemic load (GL)? 13 26 51

Correct answer: 13 The glycemic load (GL) and the glycemic index are both measures of glycemic response to consumed foods. The GI ranks foods based on the rate foods are digested and absorbed in the body. The GL also accounts for the amount of carbohydrate in one portion of a food. Glycemic load = (Glycemic index rating x grams of carbohydrate) `-:` 100` ` For the banana: Glycemic load = 51 x 25 `-:` 100 = 12.75, rounded up to 13 The glycemic load for this banana is 13.

Use the Karvonen method to determine the target heart rate range (THRR) that corresponds to working at an intensity of 60-70% for a 25-year-old athlete with a resting heart rate of 60 bpm. 155 to 168 bpm 117 to 137 bpm 141 to 155 bpm

Correct answer: 141 to 155 bpm The Karvonen method determines an individual's target heart rate range (THRR) using their age and resting heart rate. Here are the steps for calculation: 1. Find Age-predicted maximum heart rate (APMHR): 220 - age 220 - 25 = 195 bpm AMPHR according to the athlete's age 2. Determine Heart rate reserve (HRR): APMHR - Resting heart rate (RHR) 195 - 60 = 135 bpm according to the athlete's resting heart rate 3. Determine target heart rate (THR): (HRR x exercise intensity) + RHR 60% intensity: (135 x .60) + 60 = 81 + 60 = 141 bpm 70% intensity: (135 x .70) + 60 = 94.5 + 60 = 154.5 bpm This athlete's target heart rate range (THHR) = 141 to 155 bpm

How large of a landing surface is recommended for boxes used in plyometric training? 18" x 18" 18" x 24" 12" x 18"

Correct answer: 18" x 24" Boxes used for plyometric training should be sturdy and also have a non-slip landing surface of at least 18" x 24". This helps allow room for error and loss of balance that might occur. Generally, box heights should range between 6" up to 42" and can be based on the needs and abilities of the individuals using the facility.

A strength and conditioning professional is trying to estimate calorie intake for her athletes. How many calories per day would a moderately active male athlete need? 19 kcal/lb 25 kcal/lb 16 kcal/lb

Correct answer: 19 kcal/lb A strength and conditioning professional should know the average kcal/lb that athletes need. The numbers differ for males and females. Based on activity level of male athletes: Light: 17 kcal/lb Moderate: 19 kcal/lb Heavy: 23 kcal/lb Based on activity level of female athletes: Light: 16 kcal/lb Moderate: 17 kcal/lb Heavy: 20 kcal/lb

When conducting the 300-yard shuttle test, how many trials are performed, and how much rest is required between trials? 2 trials with a 5-minute rest between trials 3 trials with a 3-minute rest between trials 2 trials with a 3-minute rest between trials

Correct answer: 2 trials with a 5-minute rest between trials The 300-yard shuttle test measures anaerobic capacity. Athletes are timed on how long it takes them to complete 300 total yards by running back and forth between lines that are 25 yards apart. After the first trial is completed, a 5-minute rest is provided, after which the test is repeated, and the athlete is timed again. The athlete's score is the average of their two times. Therefore, performance on both trials is important. Athletes are often required to expend large amounts of energy in multiple bursts throughout a competition. Those who have better anaerobic capacity can maintain their level of performance longer during a practice or competition. Athletes with better anaerobic capacity will not experience as much of a decline in performance on the second trial of the 300-yard shuttle test.

What is the recommended range in weight for a medicine ball used to perform upper body plyometric throws? 2-8lbs 10-20lbs 8-10lbs

Correct answer: 2-8 lbs The recommended weight range for a medicine ball is 2 to 8 pounds for two-arm upper body plyometric throws. Intensity of the exercise increases with weight, so it is best to begin with a lighter ball, especially for those with less training experience. As the individual progresses, a heavier ball can be used.

How many curl-ups are performed per minute in the partial curl-up test? As many as possible 20 40

Correct answer: 20 The partial curl-up is a test that measures abdominal muscular endurance. Using a metronome set to 40 beats per minute, the individual curls up on one metronome beat and then lowers back to the floor on the next beat. Maintaining this pace, 20 curl-ups are performed each minute. The individual continues to curl-up until they can no longer maintain the set tempo or they complete 75 repetitions.

During a straight line sprint, about how much distance should it take for an athlete to reach the upright posture required for the maximum velocity phase? 30 meters 20 meters 10 meters

Correct answer: 20 meters If proper sprint mechanics are utilized during the acceleration phase, it should take about 20 meters for an athlete to slowly raise the torso up from the lean required for efficient acceleration to the upright position used during top speed sprinting (maximum velocity). It is common for athletes to stand up too quickly after the start, which can decrease the athlete's speed. This error may be the result of looking up too early. Athletes should keep their head in line with the torso during acceleration, which means the eyes will be looking down and out. This cue can help athletes maintain the natural forward lean.

How many steps should an athlete take to stop when performing a deceleration drill at half-speed? 3 5 7

Correct answer: 3 Deceleration is an important skill to develop for anyone interested in speed, agility, and plyometric training. Proper deceleration technique is crucial for stopping, changing direction, and landing safely and effectively. The first step in learning the deceleration drill involves running at half-speed and then decelerating and stopping within 3 steps, finishing in a stopped lunge position while demonstrating control. Increased running speeds require longer stopping distances. Once the first step has been mastered, running speed can increase to 3/4 speed, and deceleration to a stopped lunge should occur within 5 steps. When running at top speed, deceleration and stopping should occur within 7 steps.

If an athlete performs multiple attempts of a maximum effort test, what is the minimum amount of time that should be provided between attempts for sufficient rest? 5 minutes 3 minutes 2 minutes

Correct answer: 3 minutes When conducting athletic performance testing, athletes will often perform multiple attempts of the same test. When a test requires a maximum effort and substantially taxes the athlete, the athlete should be provided with at least a three-minute rest before performing their next attempt. If the test does not require a maximum effort and the athlete is not significantly taxed by their attempt, then there should be a minimum of two minutes of rest between attempts. When the athlete is performing a test battery (multiple different tests in a row), there should be a minimum of five minutes of rest provided between tests.

How long does it take to perform the maximum number of repetitions on the partial curl-up test? 60 seconds 3 minutes and 45 seconds 1 minute and 53 seconds

Correct answer: 3 minutes and 45 seconds The partial curl-up test measures abdominal muscle endurance. To perform the test, the individual being tested performs partial curl-ups to the cadence of a metronome set to 40 beats per minute. They curl up on one beat and lower back down on the next beat. Therefore, they perform 20 curl-ups per minute. The individual continuously performs curl-ups to the metronome for as many reps as possible; until they can no longer perform any more repetitions or they complete 75 repetitions, which is the maximum number of repetitions for this test. At a pace of 20 repetitions per minute, it takes 3 minutes and 45 seconds to perform 75 repetitions.

Cara is a high jumper. She is following a pre-season program focused on building her explosive power. Her 1RM in the power clean is 180 lbs. Which of the following would represent an appropriate training intensity and volume for the power clean during this phase of training? 4 sets of 8 reps with 120 lbs 3 sets of 2 reps with 155 lbs 3 sets of 5 reps with 140 lbs

Correct answer: 3 sets of 2 reps with 155 lbs The best load and repetition ranges for power generation fall between 75 and 90% of the 1RM using volumes of 3 to 5 sets of 1 to 5 reps. Because Cara's sport requires just a single effort using explosive power (high jumping), the recommended training range to build power is 1 to 2 reps at 80 to 90%, for 3 to 5 sets. 155 lbs is just about 86% of her 1RM. Therefore, 3 sets of 2 reps at 155 lbs would be a good recommendation for Cara to perform during a preseason training program designed to increase her explosive power. If Cara were a volleyball player who needed to express explosive abilities multiple times in a short period during competition, the recommendation would change. The recommendation for athletes in these types of sports would be 3 to 5 sets of 3 to 5 reps with 75 to 85% of their 1RM. In this case, 3 sets of 5 reps with 140 lbs would have been appropriate for a volleyball athlete.

In a facility that will utilize spotters, how much room should be provided between racks to allow sufficient space for spotting? 4 to 5 feet 2 to 3 feet 3 to 4 feet

Correct answer: 3 to 4 feet Equipment placement plays a large role in safety during training. Adequate space requirements account for more than the space needed to complete a lift. These guidelines also take into account the room needed for spotters and walkways, as well as including things like a safety cushion, which provides additional space for safety purposes. Racks should be spaced between 3 to 4 feet apart to provide adequate space and a safe lifting area. Adhering to the minimum space requirements should enhance safety while maximizing space in the facility.

How far apart should racks and platforms be from each other? 2 to 3 feet 3 to 4 feet 6 feet

Correct answer: 3 to 4 feet Racks and platforms should have enough room between them to allow for safe lifting and spotting as well as to provide sufficient room to prevent injury of bystanders in case someone were to fall. A minimum distance of 3 to 4 feet is sufficient. Weightlifting racks should also be bolted to the floor for increased safety. Portable racks should be moved out of the way when not in use.

Chris is an Ironman triathlete and is performing some speed interval training. He is performing 60-second work intervals at about 65% of his max power. What is his recommended rest time? 1-2 min 3-4 min 5-6 min

Correct answer: 3-4 minutes Interval training can be a beneficial method of training to elicit adaptations within a specific energy system based on an individual's sport needs. Intervals performed at 30 to 75% of max power that use work times of 1 to 3 minutes target the fast glycolysis and oxidative systems. The work to rest ratio for these intervals should be 1:3 to 1:4. Therefore, for 60-second work intervals, Chris' rest time should be 3 to 4 minutes. Intervals that target the phosphagen system should use 5- to 10-second work intervals and a work to rest ratio of 1:12 to 1:20. Intervals that mainly target the oxidative system should use work intervals longer than 3 minutes and a work to rest ratio of 1:1 to 1:3.

Anaerobic capacity is quantified as maximal power output achieved during activity lasting how long? Less than 10 seconds 30 to 90 seconds Longer than 5 minutes

Correct answer: 30 to 90 seconds Anaerobic capacity describes an individual's maximal rate of combined energy production between the ATP/CP system and anaerobic glycolysis during moderate-duration activities. Tests of anaerobic capacity measure maximal power output over durations of 30 to 90 seconds. Maximal anaerobic power tests and max strength tests last no longer than 10 seconds, while aerobic capacity tests often last 5 minutes or more.

What is the dietary reference intake (DRI) for fiber for men? 30-38 grams 15-20 grams 20-29 grams

Correct answer: 30-38 grams Fiber is listed as a "nutrient of concern" by the Scientific Report of the 2015 Dietary Guidelines Advisory Committee. This indicates that most individuals do not consume adequate amounts of this nutrient. Therefore, it is important to be aware of fiber intake and to ensure adequate consumption. Other nutrients that have often been found to be deficient include: vitamin E magnesium potassium calcium vitamin D The dietary reference intake (DRI) for men is 30 to 38 grams/day. Women should consume an average of 20 to 29 grams/day. Good sources of fiber include fruits and vegetables, as well as nuts, seeds, and whole grain products.

During an event such as a marathon, athletes should consume how many grams of carbohydrates? 30-90 grams of multiple types of carbohydrates each hour 10-20 grams of multiple types of carbohydrates each hour 30 grams of sucrose each hour

Correct answer: 30-90 grams of multiple types of carbohydrates each hour During prolonged aerobic endurance activity, athletes should consume 30 to 90 grams of a mixture of carbohydrates each hour, which may include sucrose, fructose, glucose, and maltodextrin. Taking in different types of carbohydrates can improve the rate of carbohydrate utilization over consuming just one type of carbohydrate during refueling. Haff, G. & Triplett, N. Essentials of Strength Trainin

When designing a strength and conditioning facility, how much space needs to be allotted between the ends of the bars at adjacent free weight stations? 48 inches 36 inches 24 inches

Correct answer: 36 inches The best placement for racks and dumbbells is often along a wall unless racks are placed back to back in this middle of the room with sufficient space in between the racks to allow for safe lifting and spotting. There should be a minimum of 36 inches between the ends of racked bars, which provides plenty of room for maneuvering around the equipment and also helps to prevent weights from crashing into walls or mirrors.

For safety reasons, what should be the minimum width for walkways between equipment? 36 inches (91 cm) 60 inches (152 cm) 48 inches (122 cm) .

Correct answer: 36 inches (91 cm) It is important to provide adequate space between lifting areas and equipment to allow for enough room for lifting to be done safely, including the use and position of spotters. The minimum distance for walkways between equipment as well as space between barbells etc. is 36 inches

Max is a shot put athlete who is in a pre-season training phase. His workout involves four sets of 5 repetitions in the back squat at 85% of his 1RM. How much interset rest would be appropriate? 1.5 minutes 10 minutes 4 minutes

Correct answer: 4 minutes Based on the rep range and intensity, Max is working on building max strength in the back squat. This is a common focus for strength and power athletes during the pre-season. When training for max strength, rest periods in between sets (interset rest) should be between 2 and 5 minutes. When training for power, the rest times should be similar to those recommended to train for maximum strength. Ten minutes is longer than recommended, and 1.5 minutes is shorter than the minimum recommended rest time. An athlete training for hypertrophy should rest about 30 seconds to 1.5 minutes, and an athlete training for muscular endurance should rest 30 seconds or less between sets.

If an athlete completes a pro-agility test in five seconds, what was their average speed during the test? 3 yards per second 4 yards per second 5 yards per second

Correct answer: 4 yards per second Speed is measured by dividing the total distance covered by the time taken to cover that distance. The pro-agility test involves covering a total distance of 20 yards (5 yards from the middle to one lateral cone, 10 yards to the other lateral cone, and 5 yards back through the middle). Speed = 20 yards / 5 seconds = 4 yards per second

Alex is a 100-meter sprinter and weighs 180 pounds (82 kilograms). How many carbohydrates should he consume daily? 246-328 grams 656-820 grams 410-492 grams

Correct answer: 410-492 grams Athletes who compete in sports that require powerful, high intensity, short bursts of activity, such as sprinting and strength sports, need to consume about 5 to 6 grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of body weight each day to support training and competition. Adequate carbohydrate intake is necessary to replenish glycogen stores, which are depleted during training and competition. Multiply 82 kg by the lower and upper range recommendations (5g and 6g). 82 x 5g = 410 grams 82 x 6g = 492 grams Therefore, his daily carbohydrate requirement is between 410 and 492 grams. Aerobic endurance athletes have greater carbohydrate needs. They should consume 8 to 10g/kg per day.

What is the safest maximum height recommended for performing depth jumps? 24" 42" 48"

Correct answer: 42" Depth jumps are very taxing and exert significant amounts of stress and load on the body upon landing. It is extremely important to ensure that athletes are adequately prepared to perform depth jumps as they are a very high-intensity plyometric exercise. Athletes must have mastered the proper landing position and have a significant amount of training before adding depth jumps to their program. The recommended box height for depth jumps is between 16 and 42". When starting depth jumps for the first time, it is important to be cautious and conservative. Start with the lowest box height and slowly increase the box height over time, ensuring that the athlete can maintain proper form, especially on landing. It is also important to be sure not to overload the volume on the depth jump because they are much more taxing to the system than most other plyometric exercises. A box height of 30 to 32" is a typical range used with athletes.

How much recovery time should be planned between plyometric training sessions? 48-72 hours 72-96 hours 24-48 hours

Correct answer: 48-72 hours The general guideline regarding how much recovery time is needed between plyometric training sessions is 48 to 72 hours. However, when planning a team or individual program, the training program must always be evaluated as a whole. The training stress from each component (resistance training, sport practice, etc.) will affect the programming of the intensity and frequency of all training. This will rely on a few factors, including: 1. Phase of training: Training has a different emphasis depending on whether an athlete is in the off-season or pre-season, for example. Plyometrics will typically not be added to the program until closer to the pre-season, when there is a greater emphasis on speed and power. 2. Training experience: More advanced athletes with more training experience can typically handle more volume, frequency, and intensity than those with less experience. 3. Sport: An athlete competing in a strength and power sport, such as Olympic weightlifting would have a greater need to include plyometric training than a marathon runner. Also, athletes in sports that take a greater toll on the body in practice, such as American football, may require greater recovery time between plyometric training sessions. 4. Relative intensity: Athletes will recover more quickly from low- or medium-intensity plyometric training than from high-intensity movements.

An athlete with no previous experience is completing his third week of training. When he is ready to increase his training weight on the back squat, which of the following would be an appropriate weight increase above a previous training load of 100 pounds? 10 to 15 pounds 5 to 10 pounds 2.5 to 5 pounds

Correct answer: 5 to 10 pounds Although guidelines in this area are available, much depends on the athlete's condition, load volumes, and the type and muscular involvement of exercises. In general, for athletes that are smaller, weaker, and less trained, a recommended increase for lower body exercises should be 5 to 10 pounds. Smaller increases should be made on upper body exercises, and larger increases can be made for larger, stronger individuals with more experience. There are classifications for resistance training status:- Beginner: training age of less than 2 months- Intermediate: training age of 2 to 6 months- Advanced: training age over 1 year The client in this question would be categorized as a beginner.

What is the daily recommended carbohydrate intake for strength and power athletes? 5 to 6 grams per kilogram of body weight 8 to 10 grams per kilogram of body weight 16 to 20 grams per kilogram of body weight

Correct answer: 5 to 6 grams per kilogram of body weight The recommended carbohydrate intake for strength and power athletes is 5 to 6 grams per kilogram of body weight per day. Although there has been limited research on the carbohydrate requirements of American sprinters, wrestlers, and football, basketball, and volleyball players, the majority of these athletes do not require the same carbohydrate intake as those who train aerobically for more than an hour each day.

Amy, a 30-year-old aerobic endurance athlete, is running a marathon that starts at 8:00 am. She consumes her pre-competition meal at 6:00 am. If Amy weighs 132 pounds, how many grams of carbohydrate should she consume at this meal? 100 grams 30 grams 60 grams

Correct answer: 60 grams A pre-competition meal consumed two hours prior to competition should include 1 gram of carbohydrate per kg of body weight. Amy weighs 132 pounds, which is approximately 60 kg. Therefore, Amy should consume 60 grams of carbohydrate in her pre-competition meal. If Amy consumed her meal within one hour of the marathon start time, she should only consume 0.5g per kg, or 30 grams of carbohydrate. If she consumed her meal at least four hours prior to the start of the race, then she could consume anywhere between 1 and 4 g/kg (60 to 240 grams).

Kari is a cross-country athlete and has just finished a two-hour training session. If Kari weighs 115 lbs (52 kg), how many carbohydrates should Kari consume within 30 minutes of completing her training in order to support glycogen resynthesis and the replenishment of glycogen stores? 52 grams 78 grams 115 grams

Correct answer: 78 grams After an aerobic endurance training session, it is recommended that athletes consume 1.5 grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of body weight. This is particularly important for athletes that train multiple days in a row, and should ideally occur within 30 minutes of the completion of training. Determine how many carbohydrates Kari should consume after training: 52 kg x (1.5g/kg) = 78 grams

The design team for a new 4800 square foot strength and conditioning facility has decided to include fans to help with circulation. Which of the following would be the minimum number of fans recommended for a facility of this size? 4 8 12

Correct answer: 8 It is important to plan for appropriate circulation in a strength and conditioning facility. Fans can be used in conjunction with appropriate HVAC and air exchange systems. There should be 2 to 4 fans per 1200 square feet. Therefore, in a 4800 square foot facility, there should be between 8 and 16 fans. Twelve fans would be acceptable for this facility, but the minimum number of fans is eight.

How many essential amino acids does salmon contain? 5 7 9

Correct answer: 9 There are nine essential amino acids, which means that they cannot be synthesized in the body but instead must be consumed. Salmon is an animal product and is considered a complete or high-quality protein source because it contains all nine of these essential amino acids. The average amount of protein per serving is 17 grams.

When initiating the flight phase of the alternating bound, what is the recommended angle of the front knee? 45 degrees 120 degrees 90 degrees

Correct answer: 90 degrees In both versions of the alternating bound (double arm and single arm), the flight phase is initiated by pushing the ground away using the stance leg while driving the opposite leg forward and up until the thigh is parallel to the ground. The knee of the front leg should be about 90 degrees so that the foot is directly under the knee. The back leg will go through an extension phase and then cycle through during the next stance phase. The goal of alternate leg bounding is to make each stride as long as possible while maintaining proper mechanics. When the knee angle is more open (for example, 120 degrees), this may cover a greater distance, but causes the landing to become a braking step, slowing the forward movement. A knee angle less than 90 degrees (45 degrees) is also not optimal and may result in a shorter stride length and improper direction of force upon landing.

To optimize high-intensity interval training (HIIT) for athletes, the work intervals should be completed above what percentage of VO2 max? 70% 80% 90%

Correct answer: 90% High-intensity interval training (HIIT) involves performing a series of higher intensity exercise intervals with lower intensity recovery periods in between. This framework allows for more work to be performed at a higher intensity than can be performed in a continuous manner. Benefits of HIIT include increased glycogen stores, as well as increases in VO2 max values and the anaerobic threshold. HIIT intervals can be individualized to be sport-specific, using parameters that depend on the needs of the athlete. Sprinters and aerobic endurance athletes can both benefit from HIIT. Intervals should be performed above 90% of VO2 max for maximum benefits.

An athlete who just completed a cross-country race lost two pounds during the competition. How much water should be consumed to replace the fluids that were lost? About 3 liters About 1.5 liters About .5 liter

Correct answer: About 1.5 liters For athletes that have lost significant body water during training or competition, the current recommendation is to consume 1.5 liters for every kilogram of body weight lost. This athlete lost 2 pounds of water during the race, which equates to just under 1 kilogram. This athlete should consume around 1.5 liters of water to replenish lost fluids.

Performing resisted sprints can help improve which ability? Maximal velocity Acceleration Overspeed

Correct answer: Acceleration Speed describes the ability to express high movement velocities and involves both acceleration and maximal velocity. Resisted sprint training includes sled towing or sled pushing as well as sprinting on an incline. These movements assist the athlete in applying force to the ground against resistance while also reinforcing optimal body mechanics during acceleration (a forward lean). This type of training can help the athlete apply more force to the ground, decreasing ground reaction time and resulting in faster acceleration times. It is important not to overload the sled beyond the athlete's performance capabilities, as this increases ground reaction time and reinforcement of incorrect technique.

A person's efforts to master a task, achieve excellence, overcome obstacles, and engage in competition or social comparison is known as what? Intrinsic motivation Achievement motivation Goal setting

Correct answer: Achievement motivation Achievement motivation describes an individual who is driven by a need for success or the desire to attain excellence and to feel accomplished, especially if performance is evaluated in relation to others, such as in competition. Athletes with achievement motivation thrive in the competitive environment. Goal setting can be an activity utilized by an individual motivated by achievement, which involves setting future standards of achievement (goals) for themselves. Intrinsic motivation refers to the presence of motivation separate from any external reward or punishment.

A person's efforts to master a task, achieve excellence, overcome obstacles, and engage in competition or social comparison is known as what? intrinsic motivation achievement motivation goal setting

What is the type of stretch called in which the individual who is stretching is the source of the force? Active stretch Passive stretch Agonist contraction

Correct answer: Active stretch As the term implies, an active stretch requires the stretcher to perform an action. This action can occur in a static stretch (stationary) or a dynamic stretch (moving). If an individual is holding their own body part into a stretched position, this is still an active stretch. This includes exercises like a static sitting toe touch. A passive stretch requires the assistance of a partner or a machine to provide the force to move a body part through a range of motion to initiate a stretch.

A previously untrained 23-year-old female has the following initial testing results: Partial curl-up: 15 Push-up: 4 Sit and reach: 15 inches 1.5-mile run: 13:10 Which of the following parameters will not need to be addressed in her training program? Aerobic energy system capabilities Core strength Upper body strength

Correct answer: Aerobic energy system capabilities Knowing a range of averages for the basic strength and conditioning tests is important. This person's upper body strength, core strength, and flexibility scores are all well below average and would be considered poor. However, the 1.5-mile run time was much better; this is an above average score compared to other females in their 20s.

What is the main action involved when performing the A-skip speed drill? Fast foot turnover Aggressive knee drive up Aggressive leg drive down

Correct answer: Aggressive leg drive down The A-skip speed drill can be used to help teach and reinforce sprinting mechanics. The aggressive leg drive down also helps to work on the application of vertical force, which is crucial during maximum velocity sprinting. This drill involves a skipping motion, where: the stance leg (bottom leg) is straight the swing leg (free leg) rises until the thigh is about parallel to the ground the knee of the swing leg is bent the foot of the swing leg is pulled back toward the stance leg Even though the knees rise to about hip level in an alternating fashion with each step, the focus of this drill should be an aggressive downward drive of the swing leg, and not driving the knees up. The action of driving each foot into the ground (applying force) should be similar to what occurs during the support phase of maximum velocity sprinting. This drill does not use a fast foot turnover. This action is involved in others drills, such as the fast feet sprinting drill

Which of the following athletic abilities should a DI collegiate football athlete work on if they have a 500 pound 1RM squat, 350 pound 1RM bench press, a 30" vertical jump, and a pro-agility time of 6 seconds? Upper body strength Lower body strength Agility

Correct answer: Agility Knowing a range of average testing scores for the different athlete populations in the basic strength and conditioning tests is important. For DI collegiate football players: An average 1RM bench press is 300 pounds or moreAn average 1RM squat is around 400 pounds or moreA vertical jump above the mid-20s is above average for most athletes in various sports An average pro agility time is around 4.50 seconds Using this information, we can see that our athlete needs to work on their pro agility time because it is slower than average and their lowest percentile rank of all their tests.

After a hard training session, an athlete observes a decrease in her vertical jump height. Which phase of the adaptive process is she experiencing? Resistance Exhaustion Alarm

Correct answer: Alarm General adaptation syndrome (GAS) has a three-stage response to stress: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. When an athlete experiences fatigue and decreased performance after a training session, the athlete is in the alarm phase. The alarm phase describes the initial physiological response when a new or more intense stress is placed on the body. For example, when an athlete increases the amount of weight they lift or performs a greater number of sets or reps, this increases the amount of stress placed on the body over what the athlete previously experienced. This results in acute training fatigue, which is a good short-term response to this additional stress. If the athlete recovers well from this additional stress, they enter what is known as the resistance phase. The resistance phase indicates that the athlete has experienced the proper adaptation to the additional training load, and performance returns to or potentially increases above previous levels. If the athlete does not sufficiently recover, or an additional stress is placed on the body too early or goes on for too long, the athlete can enter the exhaustion phase. This is an indication that the training stimulus was too great, and the athlete cannot adapt to the additional stress. This phase can lead to overtraining and should be avoided.

Which of the following describes the phosphagen system? Anaerobic alactic system Anaerobic lactic system Aerobic system

Correct answer: Anaerobic alactic system Training is classified as aerobic or anaerobic based on the energy production pathway. Aerobic pathways require oxygen to produce ATP, while the anaerobic pathways produce ATP in the absence of oxygen. Anaerobic pathways produce ATP faster than aerobic pathways, while aerobic pathways produce more total ATP. The phosphagen system is an anaerobic energy production pathway and is also known as the anaerobic alactic system because this process does not result in the production of lactic acid. The phosphagen system provides ATP for very short-duration, very high-intensity activities and is depleted quickly (within six seconds). The glycolytic pathway is also anaerobic and is known as the anaerobic lactic system because ATP production in this pathway results in the production of lactic acid. The glycolytic system lasts longer than the phosphagen system, providing energy for up to about 2 to 3 minutes of activity. The aerobic system provides the largest amount of ATP and increases its contribution to energy needs during longer-duration, lower-intensity activities.

Which of the following describes the phosphagen system? anaerobic alactic system anaerobic lactic system aerobic system

At the end of the downward movement phase of a good morning, Andre is in the following position: The bar is across his shoulders and upper back His hips are behind his feet His back is neutral and just above parallel His legs are locked to stay straight His feet are flat on the floor Is this the correct position? If not, what should change? Andre's knees should be slightly bent instead of locked out straight Andre's torso should be higher, closer to 45 degrees This is the correct position

Correct answer: Andre's knees should be slightly bent instead of locked out straight The good morning targets the posterior chain including the hamstrings, glutes, and lower back. The downward movement phase of the good morning involves pushing the hips backward from a standing start position to bring the torso down to just above parallel, while maintaining a slight bend in the knee, keeping the feet flat and the torso in a neutral position. It is a common error to lock the knees during this exercise. Another common error is bending the knees too much, similar to a squatting motion. The knees should start slightly bent and stay slightly bent throughout the entire exercise.

Andrew is performing a power clean. When he catches the barbell on his shoulders, this is his position: The bar is across his clavicles and anterior deltoids His feet are flat on the ground, about shoulder-width apart His upper arms are parallel to the floor His knees and hips are bent to about a quarter squat position His hips are slightly in front of his shoulders Is this the correct position at this stage of the lift? If not, what should change? Andrew's hips are too far forward; they should be slightly behind his shoulders Andrew's feet are too wide; they should be hip-width apart This is the correct position

Correct answer: Andrew's hips are too far forward; they should be slightly behind his shoulders The catch is the last portion of the upward movement phase in the power clean. At this stage of the lift, Andrew has already pulled the bar from the floor and exploded through the hips, knees, and ankles to propel the bar upward, and now has brought his elbows around the bar in order to catch the bar on his shoulders. Andrew's catch position is almost correct. His placement of the bar, his arms, the depth of his squat, and width of his feet are all correct. However, Andrew is making an error that is common on the power clean. His hips are too far forward and should actually be behind his shoulders, instead of in front of his shoulders, in order to support the load through his entire body. This would bring his torso into a more upright position, which is safer and more beneficial for this exercise. This position should be similar to that of the beginning of a downward movement phase for a front squat.

If an athlete is losing weight and is lethargic in addition to having dry, yellowish skin and an intense fear of gaining weight, what eating disorder may be suspected? Anorexia nervosa Bulimia nervosa Binge-eating disorder

Correct answer: Anorexia nervosa Anorexia, like other eating disorders, is classified as a mental health disorder. Those suffering from anorexia are terrified of gaining weight and have a distorted view of their body, even if they are already underweight. As a result, they utilize severe methods of diet control such as excessive calorie restriction and may even take laxatives or diuretics to prevent weight gain. Symptoms of anorexia include: Brittle hair and nails Dry, yellowish skin Constipation Lethargy Low blood pressure, slow breathing or heart rate Haff, G. & Triplett, N. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Pg 221. Unflag Question

Girth measurements of the upper arm should be taken with the arm in what position? Arm straight, by the side of the body with the palm pronated Arm straight, abducted to shoulder height with the palm pronated Arm straight, abducted to shoulder height with the palm supinated

Correct answer: Arm straight, abducted to shoulder height with the palm supinated Girth measurements are an anthropomorphic measurement and provide information about body size. The upper arm measurement should be taken with the arm straight and abducted to shoulder height, with the palm facing the ceiling (supinated). There are seven typical measurement sites, including: Upper arm Forearm Chest Waist Hips Thigh Calf All measurements are taken at the largest circumference at the measurement site, except for the waist measurement, which is taken at the level of the umbilicus.

How long does the glycolytic system take to fully recover after a maximal anaerobic capacity test? At least one hour 24 hours 30 minutes

Correct answer: At least one hour The phosphagen system needs the least amount of time for complete recovery after being taxed. After 3 to 5 minutes, an individual should be completely recovered. However, following tests that challenge the glycolytic system, individuals need at least a full hour in order for the energy system to completely recover. For this reason, anaerobic capacity tests should be performed on a separate day from other testing being conducted. If performed on the same day, these tests should be placed last in the testing order so that participation in these tests does not negatively affect performance on other tests.

What describes a set of individual results on a group of tests designed to measure sports-specific abilities that are important for performance in a sport or a particular position in a sport? Athletic profile Percentile ranking Test battery

Correct answer: Athletic profile In any sport, there are specific athletic parameters that may contribute to an athlete's success in the sport. Testing individual athletes in their performance on tests based on these parameters can measure each athlete's abilities as well as their readiness at different points of the season. This testing can help a strength and conditioning professional to evaluate these athletes, comparing results to previous results for the same athlete or against the results of other athletes in their same sport or position. The following should be considered when creating an athlete profile: Tests need to measure the specific parameters that relate to the sport(s) in question Tests need to be valid and reliable Tests should be administered to as many athletes as possible, which enables the calculation of percentile ranks Determine the smallest worthwhile change for the tests and compare to normative data where appropriate Tests should be repeated to determine progress Test results should be meaningful; they can be used to determine the effectiveness of a program or which parameters athletes need to improve

When contract-relax stretching is being applied, which characteristic of the neuromuscular system is allowing for a greater range of motion? Reciprocal inhibition Autogenic inhibition Antagonist contraction

Correct answer: Autogenic inhibition Autogenic inhibition occurs when an individual actively contracts the same muscle that is being stretched right before the passive stretch occurs. This contraction enhances the subsequent relaxation of that muscle and enhances the stretch. For example, the sequence starts with a passive stretch for 10 seconds., followed by a resisted active contraction of that muscle through a full ROM. The contraction is followed by another passive stretch. Any increase in the ROM of this stretch is due to autogenic inhibition. The active contraction stimulates the Golgi tendon organ, which is what leads to an increased relaxation of the muscle during the subsequent passive stretch.

Which of the following psychological techniques for improved performance is ideal for an injured athlete? Diaphragmatic breathing Progressive muscle relaxation Autogenic training

Correct answer: Autogenic training An injured athlete will not be able to handle the high levels of muscular tension that occur during progressive muscle relaxation. Instead, they should use autogenic training, which focuses on narrowing attention to a muscle group or limb in order to create a sense of warmth and heaviness. An athlete can eventually progress from autogenic training but not until he/she has healed from the injury.

Michael is going to be a sophomore in a collegiate football program. The head coach wants him to put on some size during the off-season. Michael's 1RM bench press is 315 lbs and his 1RM back squat is 430 lbs. Which of the following recommendations would be appropriate for this phase of training for Michael? Back squat 3 x 15 with 280 lbs; Bench press 3 x 15 with 208 lbs Back squat 5 x 3 with 400 lbs; Bench press 5 x 3 with 290 lbs Back squat 4 x 10 with 320 lbs; Bench press 4 x 10 with 240 lbs

Correct answer: Back squat 4 x 10 with 320 lbs; Bench press 4 x 10 with 240 lbs When following a dedicated hypertrophy program, the rep scheme for resistance training should be 3 to 6 sets of 6 to 12 reps, using loads between 67 and 85% of the athlete's 1RM. Based on Michael's 1RM testing numbers, 320 lbs on the back squat and 240 lbs on the bench press are both close to 75% of his 1RM and could be used to perform sets of 10 repetitions. A program that involves lifting 5 sets of 3 repetitions at over 90% of the 1RM would be indicative of a dedicated maximum strength program. A program using 3 sets of 15 reps at 65% of the 1RM would be used for a program designed to improve muscular endurance.

Poor performance on which of the following might indicate an increased risk for lower limb injuries? 1RM back squat Balance error scoring system (BESS) Vertical jump Hide ExplanationUnflag Question

Correct answer: Balance error scoring system (BESS) Balance and stability rely on neuromuscular control. Deficiencies in balance and stability have been shown to increase the risk of lower extremity injuries. Tests such as the balance error scoring system (BESS) can be used to evaluate an athlete's balance and stability. Poor performance on such a test can indicate the need to emphasize these areas in the athlete's training program. To perform the BESS, athletes stand in various positions while keeping their hands on their hips and their eyes closed. Athletes are instructed to attempt to maintain their balance in each position for 20 seconds, once on a stable surface and once on an unstable surface. The three positions are: Feet together Single leg stand Heel to toe stance (with the dominant foot forward)

Where should the marker be placed in relation to the athlete's feet in the standing long jump test? Behind the heel that is the farthest back upon landing In line with the athlete's midfoot upon landing In front of the toe that is farthest forward upon landing

Correct answer: Behind the heel that is the farthest back upon landing The standing long jump test is a measure of maximal power. When an athlete performs the standing long jump test, a marker is placed where the athlete lands, and then the jump distance is measured. The marker should be placed behind the heel of the foot that is farthest back upon landing. This measures the farthest mark that the athlete's entire body traveled on the jump.

During the concentric phase of which movement does the middle portion of the trapezius act as a synergist? Bench press Squat Bent-over barbell row

Correct answer: Bent-over barbell row The middle portion of the trapezius is a synergist in many back exercises, like the bent-over barbell row. Synergists indirectly assist primary muscles (agonists) in performing a movement. The other two exercises listed target other major muscle groups (the chest and legs).

How should the weightlifting racks be secured to increase safety? Bolt the rack to another rack Bolt the rack to the floor Bolt the rack to the wall

Correct answer: Bolt the rack to the floor Weightlifting racks often move during typical use if they are not bolted to the floor. This movement could cause the racks to tip over or to cause issues with placing a bar back on the rack. These increased risks can be mitigated by securing the racks by bolting them to the floor for safety. Racks can be placed along the walls or back-to-back, but should still always be securely bolted to the floor. Haff, G. & Triplett, N. Es

If an athlete's low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol count is 135, in what classification does that put her? Borderline high Very high Optimal

Correct answer: Borderline high Total cholesterol levels in the body are a combination of high-density lipoproteins (HDL) and low-density lipoproteins (LDL). Cholesterol plays an important role in certain body functions, but high levels of total cholesterol and LDL can also lead to an increased risk of heart disease. In contrast, increased HDL levels can actually be beneficial and help protect against heart disease. LDL classification (mg/dL): Optimal: < 100Borderline high: 130-159High: 160-189Very High: > 190 An LDL value of 135 is borderline high.

An athlete is constantly complaining of a sore throat. He also seems to be dehydrated and severely low on electrolytes. Which of the following might the athlete be suffering from? Pica Bulimia nervosa Rumination disorder

Correct answer: Bulimia nervosa Studies show that athletes are more prone to developing serious eating disorders when compared to control groups. If an athlete is constantly complaining of a sore throat and is also dehydrated with low levels of electrolytes, there is a good chance that he is suffering from bulimia nervosa. The athlete with this condition will purge huge amounts of food then follow it with purging such as vomiting or extreme exercise. Over time, this condition can wreak havoc on the body and the following symptoms will occur: Sore throat Swollen glands Worn tooth enamel Acid reflux Intestinal distress Severe hydration Electrolyte imbalance Haff, G. & Triplett, N. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Pg 222-223. Unflag Question

In what manner should a strength and conditioning facility be organized in order to achieve functionality and the best appearance? By areas of the body emphasized By equipment type By age of athletes

Correct answer: By equipment type When designing the floor plan for a strength and conditioning facility, it is important to consider traffic flow patterns, how equipment will be used, and how much space is necessary surrounding each piece of equipment in order to maximize space and function. Placing equipment into groups can help create specific training areas within the facility. This might include specific areas such as: Stretching area Free weight area with DBs, benches, etc. Agility and plyometric area Cardio machines Resistance machines Visibility is also an important consideration, and therefore, equipment should be laid out in a way that does not prevent the strength and conditioning coach from safely monitoring athlete training sessions.

Which of the following macronutrients can provide energy for the body at the highest rate? Carbohydrate Protein Fat

Correct answer: Carbohydrate The body's macronutrients are carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. The glycolytic energy pathway can supply ATP at the highest rate through the breakdown of carbohydrates. The glycolytic system can use either glucose or glycogen, both derivatives of carbohydrates. It is also possible to produce ATP (energy) through the breakdown of fats and proteins, but these processes are slower than the through the breakdown of carbohydrates.

Where should the hands be at the top of the squat jump? Reaching up Clasped behind the head By the hips

Correct answer: Clasped behind the head The squat jump is a low-level plyometric drill. The hands should remain clasped behind the head throughout the entire movement. To perform the drill, squat down until the thighs are just above parallel and then explosive jump as high as possible. Lower back into another squat upon landing and then immediately jump again. Repeat jumping continuously for the prescribed repetitions.

Using the hamstring stretch as an example, which PNF technique begins with the same first step as the hold-relax, but then is followed by a concentric muscle action of the hamstring through a full ROM against resistance that is applied by a partner? Agonist contraction technique Contract-relax technique Hold-relax with agonist contraction technique

Correct answer: Contract-relax technique When performing PNF stretching for the hamstring using either the contract-relax technique or the hold-relax technique, the first step is for a partner to provide a passive pre-stretch of the hamstring. This is followed by a contraction of the muscle being stretched (the hamstring) against resistance. This resistance is also provided by the partner. The difference is that in the hold-relax method, this muscle action is isometric, and therefore there is no movement. In the contract-relax method, the athlete being stretched contracts the muscle (hamstring) concentrically through a full ROM against his partner's resistance. In both methods, after the contraction, the athlete relaxes and then the partner provides another passive stretch, typically held for about 30 seconds. The hold-relax with agonist contraction technique begins with a passive pre-stretch and isometric muscle action of the hamstring. But before a second passive stretch occurs, the athlete being stretched would then contract the agonist to attempt to increase the ROM of the stretch. In this case, they would contract the hip flexor to actively increase their hip flexion. This would be followed by another passive stretch.

When performing the push-up local endurance test according to the US Army protocol, how is the test scored? Timing how long it takes to perform 50 push-ups Counting the number of repetitions performed before failure Counting the number of repetitions performed in 2 minutes

Correct answer: Counting the number of repetitions performed in 2 minutes The US Army guidelines for performing the push-up local endurance test require the individual to perform as many push-ups as possible in two minutes. Both the starting and low position are the same for both men and women. Start position is on the feet and hands, with the hands shoulder-width apart. For repetitions to count, individuals must be low enough that the upper arm is parallel to the ground. The ACSM provides separate protocols for performing this test, which require the individual to perform as many push-ups as possible in a row until failure.

Which of the following is not on the list of NCAA banned drug classes? Creatine Anabolic agents Stimulants

Correct answer: Creatine It is important to understand that although most dietary supplements are not listed on the banned list, many supplements can contain ingredients that are banned. Use of dietary supplements, including creatine, is at the discretion of the individual athlete, who assumes complete responsibility. The NCAA list of substances banned for athletes at colleges and universities in the United States includes: Stimulants (Adderall, cocaine, caffeine, etc.) Anabolic Agents (DHEA, testosterone, methasterone, etc.) Alcohol and Beta-Blockers (alcohol, metoprolol, etc.) Diuretics (bumetanide, chlorothiazide, etc.) Street Drugs (heroin, marijuana, etc.) Peptide Hormones and Analogues (HGH, HCG, EPO, etc.) Anti-Estrogens (anastrozole, tamoxifen, etc.) Beta-2 Agonists (bambuterol, formoterol, etc.)

An athlete is performing a high-intensity strength training session with one- to two-minute rests between sets. Which of the following energy substrates is most likely to become depleted, leading to fatigue? Creatine phosphate Carbohydrate Protein

Correct answer: Creatine phosphate Exercise fatigue during high-intensity anaerobic exercise is related to the decrease in phosphagen concentration. Creatine phosphate decreases more significantly than ATP stores during high-intensity, short duration exercise especially when an athlete trains to exhaustion. Haff, G. & Triplett, N. Essentials

A female amenorrheic athlete is a vegetarian who has been instructed by a medical professional to increase her calcium intake. However, she dislikes supplements and dairy foods. Which of the following foods would help this athlete consume increased amounts of calcium? Dark leafy vegetables, broccoli, and soybeans Lentils, pulses, and carrots Potatoes, rice, and pasta

Correct answer: Dark leafy vegetables, broccoli, and soybeans Strength and conditioning professionals should be aware of the potential risk of the female athlete triad. The triad refers to the relationship between energy availability, menstrual function, and bone mineral density. This is a risk when female athletes do not have sufficient calorie intake to meet the demands of training. One of the issues within the triad is amenorrhea, which is the absence of a menstrual cycle for more than three months. During training, female athletes who do not meet energy and calcium needs, because of intentionally restricting intake or not consuming enough calories, can disrupt the menstrual cycle. These athletes have an increased risk of bone density issues and often need to increase their calcium intake. Dark leafy vegetables, broccoli, and soybeans are all good vegetarian sources of calcium.

How does a low protein diet affect calcium absorption? Increases calcium absorption Protein intake does not affect calcium absorption Decreases calcium absorption

Correct answer: Decreases calcium absorption Adequate protein consumption increases the absorption of calcium in the body. It has been shown that low protein diets can decrease calcium absorption. This applies to protein intakes below 0.7 g/kg of body weight per day. Calcium is important for maintaining bone strength and plays a role in muscle contraction, nerve transmission, and blood clotting. It is important to know how easily diet variations can affect health. A qualified nutrition professional is the best option for determining appropriate intakes for individuals.

Which of the following statements about the design phase is false? The design phase includes creation of the facility blueprints The project's architect is selected during the design phase Development of the master plan is one of the steps in the design phase

Correct answer: Development of the master plan is one of the steps in the design phase The design phase occurs between the predesign phase and the construction phase when building a new facility. During the design phase, committee members are finalized, as are facility blueprints. Equipment specifications are included in the project design, and the facility is designed to provide for efficient traffic flow. Development of the master plan is done during the predesign phase. The master plan serves as the general plan for all phases of the new facility. This includes the budget and construction plan, facility design, budget information, and an operational plan to act on once the facility is actually complete.

During the maximum velocity phase of a sprint, where should the shoulders be in relation to the hips? In front of the hips Directly above the hips Behind the hips

Correct answer: Directly above the hips The maximum velocity phase of a sprint follows the start and acceleration phases, and the athlete is running at maximum speed. During this portion of a sprint, the athlete should be upright, with the shoulders directly over the hips and the hips directly over the stance leg. This allows for appropriate and efficient application of force to continue to propel the athlete forward.

Which of the following types of stress also generates anxiety? Somatic anxiety Distress Eustress

Correct answer: Distress Stress is emotional or physical tension brought upon by a demand or challenge. Stress can be both positive (eustress) and negative (distress). When a stressor brings about anxiety, it is known as distress. An example of eustress or a positive stressor would be a voluntary challenge such as pulling off of a new plan developed by your coach during a game. Eustress should typically be limited to short and small doses, otherwise, it can become distress.

Which of the following is not one of the four principal roles of an emergency team? Document the event in an injury report Provide immediate care to the injured individual Clear a route for EMS to enter the facility

Correct answer: Document the event in an injury report Although documentation of an emergency or injury is important, it is not included as one of the primary roles in providing care in the event of an injury. The four roles are: Providing immediate care Retrieving on-site emergency equipment, such as an AED Activating the EMS Establishing a clear route for EMS to access the facility and the injured individual

Donna is at the bottom of the downward movement phase of a front squat. This is her position: Her torso is neutral and almost vertical, with her chest up and out Her feet are flat on the ground The bar is across her shoulders and clavicles Her forearms are vertical, with her elbows pointed toward the ground

Correct answer: Donna's elbows should be higher, with her forearms close to parallel to the ground Donna's torso position and depth are correct for this portion of the front squat. However, her elbows should be higher throughout the entire movement. Raising her elbows so that her forearms are as close to parallel to the floor as possible will help Donna keep the bar more securely on her shoulders and provide better control of the bar. It will also ensure that the load is distributed into her hips and legs instead of holding the weight in the arms.

What is the arm action involved in the power skip? Double arm action No arm action is used in the power skip Alternating arm action

Correct answer: Double arm action The arm action in a power skip is different from standard skipping. Skipping typically involves an alternating arm action, but when performing the power skip, both arms should be used during the upward action. The power skip is usually performed for either repetitions or distance.

Which of the following is the idea that an individual's arousal (anxiety) and performance increase in a correlated manner? Somatic State Anxiety Drive Theory Zones of Optimal Functioning .

Correct answer: Drive Theory Drive theory states that the more psyched up an athlete becomes, the better they perform. While this might be true in some cases, this is not a universal idea. Some sports and activities can be negatively impacted by too high a state of arousal

Which of the following statements is true about the log clean and press? It is important to perform a full squat during the dip phase of the lift During the transition phase, the lifter can place the log onto the thighs before beginning the second pull At the end of the first pull, the log will be at the top of the thighs

Correct answer: During the transition phase, the lifter can place the log onto the thighs before beginning the second pull The technique for the log clean and press is very similar to that of the barbell clean and push press. One difference occurs during the transition phase, right after the log passes the knees. At this point in the lift, it is both common and acceptable to place the log onto the thighs and pause there before beginning the second pull. Similar to the barbell clean, the second pull involves explosively extending through the lower body in order to bring the log upward to catch it on the shoulders. At the end of the first pull, the log will be at the level of the knees. During the dip phase, the lifter needs to flex the hips and knees to prepare to drive the log overhead. However, the dip should not exceed quarter squat depth.

Which of the following statements about dynamic stretches is false? Another term for dynamic stretches is mobility drills Dynamic and ballistic stretches describe the same type of stretching Dynamic stretches do not involve bouncing

Correct answer: Dynamic and ballistic stretches describe the same type of stretching The terms dynamic stretching and ballistic stretching are both forms of stretching that require moving a body part through a range of motion. However, there are important differences that distinguish these types of stretching from one another. Dynamic stretching, which can also be referred to as mobility drills, involves actively moving a joint through a ROM to enhance dynamic flexibility and control through that ROM. The important distinction between this and ballistic stretching is that dynamic stretching avoids any bouncing, but instead requires the athlete to control the movement. When performing ballistic stretches, the end position isn't held but instead relies on a bouncing movement to move through the range of motion. An example of a ballistic stretch is a toe touch where the fingers bounce off the toes rather than being held there. Ballistic stretching can be beneficial, but extra care must be taken to ensure preparation is adequate and the athlete is ready for this type of movement.

The guidelines for what type of stretching include performing a series of active stretches, moving the joints through a range of motion (ROM), while progressively increasing the speed and/or range of motion on subsequent repetitions or sets? dynamic stretching static stretching PNF stretching

Correct answer: Dynamic stretching Dynamic stretching involves actively moving the body through specific ranges of motion (ROMs) using functional and sport-specific movement patterns. this type of stretching may also be called mobility drills. Dynamic stretching is a great way to prepare for sports training or competition, as athletes can use similar movements during this part of their warm-up as they will in their sport. This is sometimes confused with ballistic stretching, which also uses active muscular effort, but also uses bouncing and momentum to move through a range of motion.

During maximal velocity (top-speed) sprinting, what is the action that occurs in the ankle in the early support phase to absorb force? Eccentric plantarflexion Concentric dorsiflexion Eccentric dorsiflexion

Correct answer: Eccentric plantarflexion As an athlete strikes the ground in the stance (support) phase of sprinting, part of the force applied to the ground is absorbed through an eccentric plantarflexion movement of the ankle. The ankle gets pushed into a more dorsiflexed position during this landing, but the action involved is actually a lowering of the heel, and the calf is active during this movement. This landing represents the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle (SSC), where the agonist muscle becomes stretched. The agonist action in the ankle during the subsequent push-off becomes concentric plantarflexion. The flight phase should include active dorsiflexion, but the stance phase involves active plantarflexion.

Which of the following is a written document detailing the appropriate procedures for injury care? Emergency action plan Designation of procedures Injury guide

Correct answer: Emergency action plan Safety is always the first priority when an emergency occurs. A documented response plan helps ensure a standard of care. This response plan is called the emergency action plan. This plan should be clearly posted and practiced on a quarterly basis. In addition, all strength and conditioning professionals must know the plan and keep their first aid and CPR certification current. An emergency plan should include: EMS activation procedure Contact information Facility address Locations of telephones, exits, emergency supplies, and the first aid kit Identification of which individuals are qualified to provide injury care Where an ambulance can access the facility Specific plans of action for events such as natural disasters, crime, or life-threatening injury

What is anxiety as it relates to an athlete's training and performance? Emotional state characterized by an imbalance between demand and response Emotional state characterized by an intense motivation Emotional state characterized by fear and nervousness

Correct answer: Emotional state characterized by fear and nervousness Anxiety is an emotional state characterized by fear, worry, apprehension, and nervousness. It is actually a subcategory of arousal. The difference between arousal and anxiety is that the latter requires a negative perception of events.

What is anxiety as it relates to an athlete's training and performance? emotional state characterized by imbalance b/t demand and response emotional state characterized by intense motivation emotional state characterized by fear and nervousness

What is another name for an open grip? alternated grip hook grip false grip

Correct answer: False grip An open grip, also known as a false grip, involves grabbing the bar without wrapping the thumb around the bar. Instead, the thumb is placed next to the index finger on the bar. This grip is not as secure as a closed grip (when the thumb does wrap around the bar). A false grip could be used in any of these positions: pronated (palms down) supinated (palms up) alternated (one palm up and one palm down) neutral (palms facing each other) The hook grip is a closed grip in which the thumb is placed around the bar and with the fingers on top of the thumb.

What is the recommended stance for upper body plyometric throws with a medicine ball, including exercises such as the chest pass, two-hand overhead throw, and the two-hand side-to-side throw? parallel with feet hip width apart feet in a split stance and hip width apart parallel with feet shoulder width apart

Correct answer: Feet parallel and shoulder-width apart Placing the feet shoulder-width apart and parallel to each other provides a solid and stable base to provide the support for the upper body throw. When the feet are shoulder-width apart, this provides more stability and control than when they are hip-width apart. The chest pass, the two-hand overhead throw, and the two-hand side-to-side throw are all low-intensity upper-body plyometric drills using a medicine ball. The ball should weight between 2 and 8 pounds. The chest pass involves throwing the ball straight out from chest level to a rebounder or a partner. The overhead throw involves throwing the ball from an overhead position with straight arms, either bouncing the ball on the floor or throwing directly forward from an overhead position. The side-to-side throw involves throwing the ball forward with two hands from over one shoulder, alternating sides.

Which of the following is not a method to find your grip distance for the power snatch? fist to opposite elbow fist to opposite shoulder elbow to elbow

Correct answer: Fist to opposite elbow There are two methods for finding proper grip distance for the power snatch: 1. Reach both arms out to the sides, and measure the distance between your elbows 2. Reach one arm out to the side and make a fist. Measure the distance between your outstretched fist and your opposite shoulder.

Which of the following groups of exercises would be good movement-specific exercise choices for a tennis player? Power clean, push jerk, dumbbell bench press Close-grip bench press, hammer curl, back squat Flat bench dumbbell fly, lunge, bent-over lateral raise

Correct answer: Flat bench dumbbell fly, lunge, bent-over lateral raise There are many things to take into consideration when selecting the appropriate exercises for an athlete. Movements that share a similarity to the movement patterns involved in a specific sport can make good choices in an athlete's training program as they can reinforce the movement patterns needed in the sport. This is known as the specific adaptation to imposed demands (SAID) principle. In simpler terms, this is specificity. The flat bench dumbbell fly and bent-over lateral raise use arm movements similar to those used to hit the ball. In addition, tennis players often use a lunge position as they step out to reach for the ball. The other movements listed can also be good choices for developing physical qualities that a tennis athlete needs for their sport. Power cleans and push jerks can help develop power, squats develop lower-body strength, and bench presses build upper-body strength. However, the exercises that are movement-specific to the movement patterns seen in tennis include the dumbbell fly, bent-over lateral raise, and the lunge.

How is power calculated?

Correct answer: Force x Velocity Power describes the rate at which maximum force can be applied: Power = Force x Velocity Power can also be expressed as follows: Power = Work / Time, where Work = Force x Displacement (distance) Power can also loosely be defined as "explosive strength," and when considering this in the field of strength and conditioning, power exercises are those performed at quick speeds, such as the power clean.

Which of the following is the most common monosaccharide and the primary energy substrate for cells? Fructose Glucose Sucrose

Correct answer: Glucose Glucose, fructose, and galactose are all simple sugars (monosaccharides), which are building blocks that join together to create larger sugars, including complex carbohydrates. Glucose is the body's preferred energy source, circulating through the body as blood sugar. All consumed carbohydrates are broken down into glucose to be used as energy in the body. Glucose can also be converted into glycogen (a polysaccharide) and stored in the liver and muscles. Sucrose, known as table sugar, is the most common disaccharide and is made up of the combination of glucose and fructose. Haff, G. & Triplett, N. Essen

When performing a front plank, how far apart should the feet be? Together Hip width Shoulder width

Correct answer: Hip width The front plank, which targets the abdominal muscles, is an exercise that isometrically holds the torso in a rigid position with the elbows under the shoulders and the head in a neutral position, with the feet hip-width apart. The front plank targets the rectus abdominis, internal obliques, external obliques, and erector spinae.

When using the hip sled, how wide should the feet be placed on the platform? Shoulder-width apart Hip-width apart As wide as possible

Correct answer: Hip-width apart When using the hip sled machine, the feet should be placed on the platform about hip-width distance apart with the toes turned slightly out. To perform the movement, bend the knees to bring the platform down until the thighs are parallel with the platform, and then push the platform back up to the top. For safety reasons, there are a few important details to remember: Do not lock the knees at the top of the movement Control the speed of the platform at all times Ensure that the back and buttocks do not come off the seat at the bottom of the movement Keep the knees aligned with the feet throughout the movement

Which PNF technique is being employed when Carl stretches David's hip flexor at a position of mild discomfort for approximately ten seconds, then asks David to resist while Carl applies a hip extension force to David's leg, followed by another passive stretch? Contract-relax Hold-relax technique Repeated contractions

Correct answer: Hold-relax technique The hold-relax technique is a form of PNF stretching that involves: A passive stretch for about 10 seconds An isometric contraction to prevent movement while force is applied in the direction of the stretch for about 6 seconds Relaxation and another passive stretch into an increased ROM for about 30 seconds The activation of the muscles being stretched prior to the stretch can increase ROM due to autogenic inhibition.

Which of the following is a commonly used but unproven substance for athletic performance that is often taken incorrectly? Beta-blockers Erythropoietin Human growth hormone

Correct answer: Human growth hormone When naturally developed and released in the body, human growth hormone (HGH) is a protein secreted from the pituitary gland and it provides anabolic benefits such as muscle growth and bone development. However, when an athlete takes HGH, it often has little benefit. In fact, most people take HGH incorrectly via oral administration. While the benefits of taking HGH are few, the cited side effects are many. Studies suggest that HGH can cause a number of complications including organ enlargement and metabolic abnormalities.

Which of the following are phases that can be included in the preparatory period? First, second, and third transition Hypertrophy/strength endurance and basic strength phases Off-season, preseason, in-season and postseason

Correct answer: Hypertrophy/strength endurance and basic strength phases The initial preparatory period is most frequently the longest, occurring when there are no competitions and only a few sport-specific skill practices. The purpose of the preparatory period is to build or enhance a physical base. During the hypertrophy or strength endurance phase, which occurs early in the preparatory period, training begins at a low to moderate intensity with very high volume. The goals are to develop a muscular and metabolic base or to increase lean body mass (or both). During the basic strength phase, which is later in the preparatory phase, the goal is to increase strength specific to the athlete's sport. The resistance training becomes more sport-specific and involves heavier loads (increasing intensities) for fewer repetitions (lower volume).

When using the pec deck machine, where should the handles be in relation to the body? In line with the shoulders In line with the midchest In line with the base of the ribcage

Correct answer: In line with the midchest When setting up the pec deck machine, the seat must be raised or lowered according to individual torso length in order for the handles to line up with the midchest. To perform the movement: Grab the handles with a closed neutral grip Pull the handles toward each other out in front of the chest Keep the elbows slightly bent throughout the movement Maintain the five-point body contact position

What is the main goal of pace/tempo training? Increased fat utilization for energy To include cross-training Increased lactate threshold

Correct answer: Increased lactate threshold Pace/tempo training involves training at an intensity that is equal to or greater than race intensity (race pace). It is also referred to as threshold training or aerobic-anaerobic interval training. This type of training can be conducted either at a steady pace or using intervals. Both methods involve training at an intensity equal to the lactate threshold with the goal of improving the ability to efficiently clear lactic acid at increasing intensities. Over time, this would enable an athlete to perform at a higher intensity or faster pace without crossing the lactate threshold. Fat utilization increases with long, slow distance training, as fat stores contribute a larger percentage of energy at lower intensities and longer durations. The intensity used in pace/tempo training is much higher. Cross-training refers to the use of a different mode of training. An example of cross-training would be a marathon runner riding a bike for training, either due to injury or to elicit different training adaptations.

Which of the following is not one of the roles of growth hormone? Improves immune cell function Increases collagen synthesis Increases glycogen synthesis

Correct answer: Increases glycogen synthesis Growth hormone plays an important role in adaptation to resistance training in addition to being responsible for other various physiological roles in the body. Some of these include: Decreasing glycogen synthesis Increasing amino acid transport across cell membranes Increasing protein synthesis Increasing collagen synthesis Improving immune cell function Increasing the breakdown of fats (lipolysis)

MyPlate provides guidelines on daily caloric and portion recommendations for which of the following demographics? Athletes Individuals of all ages who average 30 minutes or less of moderate activity per day General adults over the age of 18

Correct answer: Individuals of all ages who average 30 minutes or less of moderate activity per day MyPlate provides general guidelines for total caloric intake as well as specific daily portions of food groups including protein, grains, fruit, and vegetables. Specific recommendations are broken down by age and gender, starting for children as young as two years old. The guidelines are geared to provide adequate nutrition for individuals who get 30 minutes or less of moderate activity on a daily basis. The guidelines do not generally account for the increased needs of athletes.

Which process should occur before an individual signs a release form or waiver? Pre-participation screening Standard of care Informed consent

Correct answer: Informed consent Informed consent describes the process of explaining details of an activity to a potential participant, including the associated risks and benefits of the activity. This enables the participant to make an informed, or educated, decision to participate, agreeing to the risks involved. It is crucial that individuals understand the risks that arise with participation in a strength and conditioning program and sign a waiver or release form stating they accept those risks (assumption of risk). A pre-participation screening needs to occur prior to use of the facility or participation in any program, but not necessarily before signing a release form. Standard of care refers to a legal responsibility to act in accordance with an individual's level of training and certification.

Physiological training adaptations are specific to which of the following training variables in an aerobic endurance training program? Intensity Duration Frequency

Correct answer: Intensity Aerobic exercise training intensity determines how the body will adapt to a training stimulus, including which fibers are targeted (type I vs. type II) as well as which energy system is targeted. Intensity and duration are related, in that intensity training level relies on duration. Shorter durations can allow for higher intensities, but intensities must generally decrease as duration increases. However, intensity is a bigger determining factor in which adaptations the body will undergo. Frequency of training can affect the rate adaptations occur but not necessarily the type of adaptations.

Providing comprehensive training and guidelines for testing procedures for the individuals involved in test administration helps to improve what? Interrater reliability Concurrent validity Discriminant validity

Correct answer: Interrater reliability Reliability of testing is crucial and can be affected by numerous factors. Interrater reliability refers to how closely scores from two different test administrators agree. When instruction on testing procedures is not provided or is incomplete, and two testers conduct the same test differently, the interrater reliability decreases; this can render the results of a test useless. Providing information about testing procedures is not only important for the individuals being tested but also those conducting the tests. Instruction should include: Testing parameters, including guidelines on requirements such as squat depth Testing procedures Testing protocols, including explanation of test guidelines and cuing and encouragement during testing The use of testing equipment Practice using testing equipment Concurrent validity is a measure of how well scores on a specific test correlate with those on other related tests. Discriminant validity is present when a test is shown to be able to isolate and test a specific aspect of performance, providing scores that do not correlate to other tests designed to measure other performance qualities.

Which of the following types of variability is least likely to decrease the reliability of a test? Intrasubject variability Intersubject variability Interrater reliability

Correct answer: Intersubject variability There are several types of variability that can decrease the reliability of a test: intrasubject variability, interrater reliability, and intrarater variability. Intersubject variability would refer to differences in performance between the subjects. This is expected (or else every athlete would score the same) and has no bearing on the reliability of a test. Intrasubject variability is a lack of consistent performance by the person being tested. Interrater reliability measures the consistency between different raters over time. Intrarater variability refers to inconsistent scoring by a given tester.

Which of the following uses alternating work and rest periods to emphasize bioenergetic adaptations to improve efficiency within specific metabolic pathways? Interval training Cross-training Circuit training

Correct answer: Interval training Interval training allows the individual to use alternating work and rest intervals in order to train at higher intensities than could be achieved during longer bouts of training. Different ratios and work times can be utilized to target a specific energy pathway: Energy systemExercise work timeWork to rest ratioPhosphagen5-10 seconds1:12 to 1:20Fast glycolysis15-30 seconds1:3 to 1:5Fast glycolysis and oxidative1-3 minutes1:3 to 1:4Oxidative>3 minutes1:1 to 1:3 Circuit training refers to performing a series of resistance training movements in succession. Cross-training refers to the use of a different mode of training, often used when general training is reduced.

Which of the following uses alternating work and rest periods to emphasize bioenergetic adaptations to improve efficiency within specific metabolic pathways? interval training cross training circuit training

Which of the following types of aerobic training uses the highest intensity? Pace/tempo training Fartlek training Interval training

Correct answer: Interval training There are five basic types of aerobic endurance training that can be used in different combinations to improve aerobic capacity and aerobic fitness and performance levels. In order of intensity: Long, slow distance (LSD) training: long distances at an intensity of about 70% VO2 max Fartlek: 20 to 60 minutes of varied intensities between that of the LSD training and the pace/tempo training Pace/tempo training: 20 to 30 minutes using an intensity right at the lactate threshold Interval training: involves 3- to 5-minute work intervals performed near the VO2 max High-intensity interval training: involves performing 30- to 90-second work intervals above the VO2 max

Why is using the Karvonen method of assigning heart rate training zones limited in its practical application? It does not account for age differences in maximal heart rate It does not account for differences in resting heart rate It does not provide information regarding the lactate threshold

Correct answer: It does not provide information regarding the lactate threshold The Karvonen method uses age and resting heart rate to estimate maximal heart rate. Based on this estimation, individuals can be assigned specific intensity levels, based on using percentages of their estimated maximal heart rate to determine training heart rate ranges. This can be a relatively effective method of prescribing aerobic training. However, one of its limitations is that the Karvonen method does not provide any information regarding an athlete's lactate threshold, which is also an important consideration when training for aerobic endurance. The lack of this information can potentially decrease the effectiveness of an athlete's training program, especially for a well-trained, advanced athlete.

Which of the following is not a type of primary feedback? Intrinsic feedback Knowledge of results Augmented feedback

Correct answer: Knowledge of results There are two types of feedback: Intrinsic Feedback: Sensory-based information that the athlete gains from experience. With this internal feedback, the athlete can fine-tune performance. For example, if the athlete misses the box during a box jump, this information can be incorporated for the next set, repetition, or training session. Augmented Feedback: This is external feedback provided to the athlete from a coach or trainer. Technology such as a video camera can also be used in this manner to provide external feedback. Augmented feedback provides the athlete with information that can immediately be used to improve form, execution, and performance. Knowledge of results is a subcategory of augmented feedback that refers to concrete information about performance such as the time it takes to run a lap. Knowledge of results is not a primary form of feedback.

Which of the following is not a type of primary feedback? Intrinsic feedback Knowledge of results Augmented feedback I

In a partial curl-up test, what is the strength and conditioning professional testing? Local muscular endurance Aerobic capacity Flexibility

Correct answer: Local muscular endurance The partial curl-up test measures muscular endurance of the abdominal muscles. Unlike the sit-up test, this test eliminates the use of the hip flexor muscles. Set up: The athlete lies supine on a mat, with the knees bent to 90 degrees. Arms are at the sides, with the fingers touching a 4-inch long piece of masking tape positioned perpendicular to the fingers. A second piece of tape is situated parallel to the first piece of tape at a distance determined by the age of the athlete. Test: A metronome is set to 40 beats per minute and the athlete performs slow, controlled curl-ups in time with the metronome, lifting the shoulder blades off the mat and touching the second piece of tape with the fingertips. The athlete does as many curl-ups as they can, up to 75.

An aerobic endurance athlete is beginning their off-season training program. Which of the following is the best choice of training type for this phase of training? Pace/tempo training Long, slow distance training Interval training

Correct answer: Long, slow distance training The off-season training phase should be designed to develop an aerobic base. Intensity should be low and can slowly increase as the athlete adapts to training. It is important not to increase duration too quickly, as this can cause performance levels to decline. Athletes should increase their training time by less than 5 to 10% each week to allow the athlete to adapt slowly and to be able to continue to make progress. As long as recovery is adequate, athletes can train up to 5 to 6 times per week during this phase. As the athlete transitions to the pre-season phase, more types of training can be included, such as interval training, fartleks and pace/tempo training. Intensity will increase, and durations can vary, based on the type of training being performed.

A specific, sudden episode of overload resulting in injury to a given tissue is known as what? Muscle soreness Macrotrauma Tendonitis

Correct answer: Macrotrauma Macrotrauma describes an acute injury to any tissue in the body caused by a sudden overload of that tissue. Macrotrauma injuries can affect bone, ligaments, joints, tendons, and muscles and can vary in severity. Specific macrotrauma injuries for different tissues: Bone trauma includes contusions and fractures Sprains are trauma to the ligaments (tears) Joint trauma includes subluxations and dislocations Musculotendinous trauma consists of contusions and strains Tendinitis is the inflammation of a tendon and is classified as a microtrauma, which is also known as an overuse injury.

Aaron is a 20-year-old DI basketball athlete. Based on the following testing results, which area probably needs the most attention? 1RM bench press: 240 lbs 1RM back squat: 300 lbs 1RM power clean: 200 lbs Upper body strength Lower body strength Maximal power

Correct answer: Maximal power Based on percentile values for DI male basketball athletes, Aaron's upper body and lower body strength are both above average. He has adequate strength, but his maximal power, based on the power clean, is actually below average when compared to other DI basketball athletes. Since maximal power is an important performance component in basketball, Aaron's strength and conditioning program should focus on improving his power output, while maintaining his strength. It is important to note that the power clean is a movement that requires practice and higher skill, and if an athlete does not have much experience with the movement, their test results may not be a true measure of their maximal power. In those instances, a movement such as the vertical jump might be a better measure of their power capabilities.

Megan is about to start the downward phase of a back squat. This is her position: The bar is above her posterior deltoids and across her upper trapezius Her torso is neutral Her elbows are reaching back and up Her feet are hip-width apart, with her toes slightly turned out Her feet are flat on the ground Her head is slightly up Is this the correct position to begin the downward phase? If not, what should change? This is the correct position for this phase of the movement Megan's elbows should be under the bar, instead of reaching back and up Megan's feet should be wider; at least shoulder-width apart if not wider

Correct answer: Megan's feet should be wider; at least shoulder-width apart if not wider The recommended foot width distance for the back squat is at least shoulder-width apart. Hip-width is too narrow and may affect the technique or depth of the lift. The rest of Megan's position is correct to begin the downward movement phase of the back squat, flexing the hips and knees to begin descending into the squat position. Keeping the elbows reaching back and up helps secure the bar on her back and shoulders throughout the lift.

After completion of the catch of the power snatch, where should the weight be balanced on the feet? Middle Toes Heels Show ExplanationUnflag Question All Questions All What are the two recommended grips used to perform a deadlift? Correct Where should the hands be positioned in a standard push-up? Correct After completion of the catch of the power snatch, where should the weight be balanced on the feet? middle toes heels

Correct answer: Middle During the last phase of the upward movement of a snatch (the catch), the athlete must consider the balance of the weight. To ensure that the weight is balanced overhead and the body is in proper position, the weight must be in the middle of the feet.

What does the term "arousal" refer to in relation to an athlete's emotions? motivation stress anxiety

Correct answer: Motivation Arousal refers to the intensity of motivation that an athlete feels. This is a positive emotion that generates both psychological and physiological responses. The best example is when an athlete gets "psyched up" and demonstrates a significant increase in mental activation that translates to better physical performance.

Performing repeated bouts of high-intensity sprinting would be limited by a decrease in which of the following energy substrates? Triglycerides Muscle glycogen Liver glycogen

Correct answer: Muscle glycogen High-intensity exercise such as sprinting primarily relies on the ATP/CP system for energy. The depletion of these phosphagens does lead to fatigue and would be the primary cause of fatigue in low reps of high-intensity exercise. However, when performing repeated sprints, the body would also begin to rely on large amounts of muscle glycogen, depleting glycogen stores from the muscle tissue and resulting in fatigue. Liver glycogen is more important during low-intensity exercise. High-intensity, repeated exercise would use ATP, creatine phosphate, and muscle glycogen as the primary energy substrates. After repeat sprints, muscle glycogen would be depleted.

Where should the hands be placed when spotting a seated barbell shoulder press? Near the bar, outside the athlete's hands Near the athlete's elbows Near the bar, inside the athlete's hands

Correct answer: Near the bar, inside the athlete's hands When spotting a lifter performing a seated barbell shoulder press, the spotter should stand behind the athlete and place their hands near the bar in an alternated grip inside the athlete's hands. The spotter can grab the bar to help the athlete with a liftoff, and then simply keep their hands near the bar. During the lift, the spotter should only touch the bar if the lifter begins to fail the lift or indicates to the spotter that they would like them to assist the lift. Finally, the spotter can help guide the bar back to the rack after the final repetition.

Where should the spotter place their hands during a flat dumbbell fly? Near the lifter's elbows Near the lifter's forearms Near the dumbbells

Correct answer: Near the lifter's forearms The optimal spotting position during the flat dumbbell fly is near the lifter's forearms. The spotter can grab the forearms to help the lifter get the dumbbells into the starting position. Once the lifter is ready to begin the movement, the spotter should let go of the lifters forearms but keep their hands near the forearms to be able to assist quickly if necessary. During the movement, the spotter should follow the lifter's movement with their hands and only assist when the lifter begins to fail or signal's for the spotter to provide assistance. Haff, G. & Triplett, N. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Pg 365.

How high should the foot of the swing leg be when performing the fast feet speed drill? No higher than mid-shin As high as possible Knee height

Correct answer: No higher than mid-shin The fast feet drill is a speed drill that is designed to help with stride frequency. It is important to note that increases in stride frequency require shorter ground contact times and higher force production. Learning to move the feet faster can enhance the application of these components of speed. To perform this movement, the athlete should maintain a tall posture with the torso, hips, knees, and ankles all in alignment. The drill uses a running motion while focusing on ensuring that the foot of the swing leg (the recovery leg) is no higher than mid-shin level as it is brought forward. Once the swing leg comes through, the athlete should immediately and aggressively drive the leg down into the ground. This movement should bring the opposite leg through, allowing the athlete to repeat the previous steps in order to keep taking these "fast feet" steps in an alternating fashion. This drill is often performed for a specified distance.

How long should the second transition last? This is also known as the post-season or active rest period. No more than 2 weeks No more than 1 week No more than 4 weeks

Correct answer: No more than 4 weeks A training cycle for an athlete may include: Preparatory period, also known as the off-season First transition period, also known as the pre-season Competition period, also known as the in-season Second transition period, also known as the post-season or active rest period The post-season is a time for athletes to recover from their competition cycle. This phase should include light and restorative activity. In general, this period should last no longer than four weeks. This helps to unload the body, and as long as the rest time is not excessive, the athlete should not experience significant detraining effects. It is recommended that athletes remain active during this time, using cross-training methods and other recreational activities to stay active without placing large training loads on the body.

A dumbbell biceps curl and a barbell deadlift are examples of what types of kinetic chain movements? Anterior and posterior Open and closed Maximum and minimum

Correct answer: Open and closed A kinetic chain describes using two or more joints together to perform a movement. Kinetic chain movements can be described as open-chain or closed-chain. Open kinetic chain exercises are not fixed. They allow free movement of the distal segment. For a biceps curl, the distal segment, the hand, has free range of motion and is not fixed to a stationary object. Closed kinetic chain exercises are movements that occur where the distal joint segment is stationary. During a deadlift, the feet are connected to the ground, and therefore stay stationary as they transmit force into the ground to move the barbell. An example of an exercise using a combination of the two kinetic chains would be a sprint. One leg transmits force while fixed to the ground while the other has free range of motion.

A dumbbell biceps curl and a barbell deadlift are examples of what types of kinetic chain movements? anterior and posterior open and closed max and min

Segmentation is used to improve learning during of what type of practice? Simplification Part practice Variable practice

Correct answer: Part practice Part practice, in contrast with whole practice, involves breaking down a specific movement or task into different parts in order to improve learning and performance before eventually performing these parts together as a whole movement or task. Segmentation is one method of breaking a movement or task down into parts. In segmentation, the movement is broken down into a series of separate pieces that occur in sequential order in the whole movement. An example is a power clean. When teaching the clean, the movement can be broken down into the different phases of the pull (first pull, transition, second pull) and the catch phase. Each of these segments can be taught individually and eventually performed together to execute the full movement. Simplification is another method of breaking down a movement and involves changing things like speed or equipment (simplifying) in order to make the movement easier to learn. An example would be performing an agility drill to master the movement pattern, before increasing the speed at which the drill is performed. Variable practice is a different type of practice and refers to performing different variations of the same (whole) movement during a training session. Examples include changing directions or box heights on different sets for different variations of the same movement.

Segmentation is used to improve learning during of what type of practice? simplification part practice variable practice

Which component of the knee is most likely to sustain injury during resistance training? ACL Rectus femoris Patella and its surrounding tissues

Correct answer: Patella and its surrounding tissues The knee moves primarily in the sagittal plane, especially during resistance training exercises. During these movements, the patella is mainly responsible for keeping the quadriceps tendon away from the knee's axis of rotation. The most common injury to the patella and its surrounding tissues is tendonitis, resulting mostly from too much volume and intensity without proper progression.

In order to take an accurate skinfold measurement, how should the calipers be held in relation to the skinfold? Perpendicular to the skinfold Diagonal to the skinfold Parallel to the skinfold

Correct answer: Perpendicular to the skinfold To perform skinfold testing, the skin and subcutaneous fat need to be pinched into a fold. To obtain an accurate measurement once the fold is ready to be measured, the caliper prongs should be placed on the skinfold and should be held perpendicular to the skinfold. When pinching the skin to create a skinfold, some skinfolds should be vertical and some skinfolds should be diagonal. Diagonal skinfolds include the chest, subscapular, and suprailium skinfolds. For all skinfolds, the calipers should be held perpendicular to the skinfold.

Which of the following is a common error seen during tire flipping when using the shoulders-against-the-tire technique? shoulders rise too quickly placing feet too far away from tire placing feet too close to tire

Correct answer: Placing the feet too close to the tire When the feet are too close to the tire, this often causes the back to round excessively while lifting the tire. The best way to set up in order to find the right distance, kneel down in front of the tire and place the chin and shoulders against the tire while gripping the underside of the tire with the palms up. Once in this position, you can lift the knees off the ground. This should put the feet and the body in the correct position to start the tire flip. To initiate that movement, drive forward into the tire using the legs instead of attempting to lift the tire up.

A 130-pound Division I collegiate female volleyball player has the following test results: 1RM bench press: 155 pounds 1RM back squat: 225 pounds Vertical jump: 15 inches 1-minute partial curl-up test: 65 Based on these results, which of the following exercises should be added to her training program? Lower body strength work Plyometrics Upper body strength work

Correct answer: Plyometrics This athlete has demonstrated high strength levels in both the upper and lower body strength tests (1RM bench press and back squat) in comparison to other Division I female volleyball players. She also scored well on the partial curl-up test, which is a test of muscular endurance. However, the average vertical jump height for a female Division I volleyball player is around 20 inches. Therefore, this athlete should work on improving her jumping ability. Because she already has sufficient lower body strength, the best way to improve her jumping ability is to focus on incorporating plyometric training into her program.

What does the glycemic load take into account? Type of carbohydrate Portion size Time of day carbohydrate is consumed

Correct answer: Portion size The glycemic load (GL) takes portion size (the quantity of carbohydrate in a food) into account to measure glycemic response. Just as with the Glycemic Index (GI), a higher rating indicates a greater blood glucose increase and subsequent insulin response. Lower GL foods may help decrease systemic inflammation and the risk of certain diseases. Glycemic load = Glycemic index of an individual food multiplied by the grams of carbohydrate per serving of food divided by 100.

A recruitment coach is conducting athletic testing for athletes interested in trying out for a traveling volleyball team. Which of the following could help determine which tests would help identify athletes with the potential to excel in volleyball? Predictive validity Construct validity Concurrent validity

Correct answer: Predictive validity Predictive validity measures how well a specific test might predict the potential for future performance. If possible, the coach conducting try-out testing should include tests that have high predictive validity. For example, if performance on the vertical jump had been proven to correlate with volleyball performance levels, then the vertical jump would have predictive validity and should be included in the testing. Construct validity is a measure of overall validity and describes how well a test measures what it is supposed to measure. Although it is also an important consideration when selecting tests to include in any situation, this alone would not identify which tests could help predict future performance. Concurrent validity measures how well the results of one test compare to those of another test for the same construct.

Which movement phase of the push jerk includes the dip? upward movement phase downward movement phase preparation phase

Correct answer: Preparation phase The dip occurs in the preparation phase of the push jerk. The dip should be no deeper than a quarter squat, and during the dip, the torso should stay upright, the heels should stay on the ground. The dip loads the legs in order to explosively drive the bar up to catch the bar with straight arms overhead. The dip is similar in both the push press and the push jerk. The upward movement phase involves driving the bar overhead. The downward movement phase involves bringing the bar back down to the shoulders at the end of each repetition.

Which phase of training typically utilizes the highest resistance training volume? Competitive period Preparatory period Pre-season

Correct answer: Preparatory period The preparatory period, or off-season, contains the fewest number of skill and tactical training sessions and includes no competitions, and generally includes a higher volume of resistance training. This period is the starting point for an athlete's training program and is subdivided into two categories, starting with the general preparatory phase and then moving into the specific preparatory phase. The purpose of the preparatory period is to establish a general physical base, to better enable the athlete to handle more intense training as intensities increase in later phases of training. The preparatory phase typically uses lower intensities and higher volumes. As the athlete moves closer to the competitive season, intensity increases and volume decreases.

The following statement is a good example of what aspect of a program? "To design and administer strength, flexibility, aerobic, plyometric, and other training programs that reduce injury risk and enhance athletic performance" Program objective Program goal Mission statement

Correct answer: Program objective A mission statement is the statement of purpose, defining the general reasons why the organization exists without providing specific means to achieve it. Program goals are more specific desired outcomes. Program objectives are the specific means of achieving the program goals and therefore support the mission statement.

A strength and conditioning department has a mandate to educate all athletes on the importance of good nutrition and its effect on health and performance. Which of the following does this statement describe? Program policy Program objective Program goal

Correct answer: Program objective Program objectives outline the plan to achieve a program goal. Educating athletes on how nutrition affects their health and performance is a program objective that should help athletes make better nutrition choices that enhance performance in practice and in competition, which would be considered a program goal. A program goal describes the desired outcome for a program, and a program policy describes a facility rule or regulation.

In order to achieve the ideal amount of cognitive and somatic activation before a big performance, an athlete can employ which of the following? Systematic desensitization Progressive muscle relaxation Autogenic training Hide ExplanationNext Question

Correct answer: Progressive muscle relaxation Progressive muscle relaxation is when an athlete controls the tension in the muscles. As a result, psychological and physical arousal are self-regulated and placed under the athlete's control. Progressive muscle relaxation is performed by having the athlete go through a series of movements that tense and relax the muscles. This helps the athlete become aware of the somatic tension so that he/she can control it.

In order to achieve the ideal amount of cognitive and somatic activation before a big performance, an athlete can employ which of the following? systematic desensitization PMR autogenic training

What grip should be used in a push jerk and where should the hands be placed? supinated and slightly wider than shoulder width pronated and in front of shoulders pronated and slightly wider than shoulder width

Correct answer: Pronated and slightly wider than shoulder width The push jerk requires that the hands be placed slightly wider than shoulder-width apart. This is the same distance recommended for the clean. The hands should also be positioned in a pronated grip. This allows the hands to face forward while performing the exercise, which is a more comfortable and safe position.

What are the two recommended grips used to perform a deadlift? Pronated grip and hook grip Alternated grip and hook grip Pronated grip and alternated grip

Correct answer: Pronated grip and alternated grip The recommended starting grip for the deadlift is a closed, pronated grip. In a pronated grip, both palms will face the lifter when they grab the bar. As the load gets heavy enough that the lifter can no longer maintain a solid grip, it may help to change to a closed, alternated grip. In this grip, the lifter will place one hand in a pronated position, and one hand in a supinated position. It is up to the individual which hand to change to a supinated grip. This alternated grip can feel more secure and provide the athlete with a stronger grip, especially as the weight gets heavier. The hook grip is not typically recommended for use on the deadlift. Rather, the hook grip is traditionally used on the Olympic lifts, including the clean and the snatch.

A strength coach is looking to improve the upper body pulling strength of her athletes and chooses to include a seated row. Which grip should be used when performing this exercise? Alternated Pronated or neutral Supinated or neutral

Correct answer: Pronated or neutral Upper body pulling can be performed using a variety of different grips. Either a pronated grip or neutral grip can be used for the seated row, which is used to develop strength in the muscles of the back.

Which of the following is a measure of protein quality? Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) Protein digestibility correct amino acid score (PDCAAS)

Correct answer: Protein digestibility correct amino acid score (PDCAAS) Protein quality is measured based on two things: the amino acids available in a food as well as how much nitrogen is absorbed when the food is digested. The protein digestibility correct amino acid score (PDCAAS) takes both of these into account when rating the quality of a protein. Animal-based proteins such as meat, eggs, dairy, fish, and poultry, are rated as higher quality proteins than most plant-based foods. Higher quality protein foods also include all of the essential amino acids. It is important to note that protein quality is also affected when consumed in combination with other foods, and certain cooking methods can also decrease protein quality. The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) describes the daily nutrient intake necessary for basic health, based on the average needs of half of each group for a defined age and gender. The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) describes the acceptable range for the intake of any nutrient, including protein, and is a percentage range of total calorie intake.

Wendy is a competitive Olympic weightlifter who weighs 132 lbs. She trains twice per day, multiple days per week. What are her daily protein and carbohydrate requirements? Protein: 48-60 grams/day; Carbohydrates: 220-310 grams/day Protein: 84-102 grams/day; Carbohydrates: 300-360 grams/day Protein: 60-82 grams/day; Carbohydrates: 480-600 grams/day

Correct answer: Protein: 84-102 grams/day; Carbohydrates: 300-360 grams/day As a strength athlete, Wendy should consume 1.4 to 1.7 grams of protein and 5 to 6 grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of body weight per day. Wendy's weighs 132 lbs, which is approximately 60 kilograms. Wendy's daily protein requirement: 60 kg x 1.4 g/kg = 84 grams 60 kg x 1.7 g/kg = 102 grams Wendy's daily carbohydrate requirement: 60 kg x 5 g/kg = 300 grams 60 kg x 6 g/kg = 360 grams

Performing warm-up sets prior to performing a 1RM bench press test will increase which of the following test characteristics? Validity Reliability Inter-rater agreement

Correct answer: Reliability Performing a warm-up before any testing can increase a test's reliability. Performing a general warm-up followed by a specific warm-up helps athletes to be well-prepared on testing day. Athletes will perform movements similar to those that they will use for the specific tests being administered that day. Specific warm-ups for a 1RM bench press would include performing sets of the bench press with lighter and then progressively heavier weights prior to the first 1RM attempt.

When an athlete chooses to react to high arousal levels with excitement and anticipation, rather than with fear and worry, what theory does this describe? Motivation Reversal theory Inverted-U theory

Correct answer: Reversal theory When an athlete experiences a high level of arousal, reversal theory suggests that athletes may interpret that arousal differently. Some may react with anxiety and a lack of confidence while others may experience a more positive response, with a sense of excitement and performance readiness. This idea implies that athletes have in their power the ability to reverse their interpretation of their own arousal. Motivation describes the reasons for an action or behavior. The inverted-U theory indicates that there is an optimal level of arousal, and arousal below or above this level might result in a decrease in performance.

When an athlete chooses to react to high arousal levels with excitement and anticipation, rather than with fear and worry, what theory does this describe? motivation reversal theory inverted u theory

Instructing all athletes on proper spotting and exercise technique will likely decrease which of the following? Assumption of risk Risk of liability exposure Risk of product liability

Correct answer: Risk of liability exposure Decreasing the risk of liability exposure is a form of risk management, in which strategies are implemented to decrease the risk of injury to athletes participating in activities involving the strength and conditioning department. Properly instructing athletes on form and spotting techniques better prepares those athletes for the activities they will perform, thereby decreasing the risk of liability exposure.

Which of the following refers to the mental checklist that is used to direct thoughts to task-relevant objectives? Attention Routine Positive reinforcement

Correct answer: Routine A routine is a mental checklist that is practiced over and over again. The idea is that when an athlete experiences a stressful moment or eventful during training or competition, he/she can run through the rehearsed routine and focus exclusively on what it important to ensure performance does not suffer.

Which of the following refers to the mental checklist that is used to direct thoughts to task-relevant objectives? attention routine positive reinforcement

Athletes in which of the following sports have been shown to have the highest VO2 max? Gymnastics Rowing Speed skating

Correct answer: Rowing VO2 max is a quantitative measure of aerobic capacity. Long distance athletes generally have the highest VO2 max values. VO2 max values for rowers have been found to be very high, often falling between 63 and 69 for males, and 54 and 59 for females. Speed skaters have demonstrated high VO2 max values, which range from 57 to 62 for males, and 49 to 53 for females. Gymnasts have been shown to have above average VO2 max values, ranging between 52 and 56 for males, and 44 and 48 for females.

An athlete learns the snatch exercise by breaking it down into four sections. What is this an example of? Fractionalization Augmented practice Segmentation

Correct answer: Segmentation The snatch exercise is best learned by breaking it down into four equal sections: First pull Transition Second pull Catch This is an example of segmentation or the act of breaking down a task into a series of parts that have defined breaks or stopping points to them. Fractionalization refers to breaking tasks into subcomponents that all occur simultaneously.

How does an increase in rate of force development (RFD) affect the force-velocity curve? RFD does not affect the force-velocity curve Shifts the curve to the left Shifts the curve to the right

Correct answer: Shifts the curve to the right The force-velocity curve is a graphic representation of the relationship between force and velocity and is a spectrum of the different types of strength. Movements that produce the highest force have the lowest velocity, and movements with the highest velocities generally have the lowest force output. When an athlete increases their rate of force development (RFD), the curve shifts to the right, indicating that they are capable of producing higher forces more quickly. In most sports, RFD is more important for performance than max strength.

How does an increase in rate of force development (RFD) affect the force-velocity curve? rfd does not affect shifts to left shifts to right

Where should the hands be positioned in a standard push-up? Inside shoulder width Shoulder width Outside shoulder width

Correct answer: Shoulder width In a standard push-up, the hands should be shoulder width apart. Push-ups are commonly used as a test of local muscular endurance and are performed for maximum repetitions. There are varying standards; some tests are based on the number of repetitions performed within a specific timeframe (e.g., 2 minutes), while others simply allow for the maximum number of repetitions performed until failure.

An athlete is training with 85% of their maximum load. How many repetitions are they estimated to be able to perform with this load? 8 4 6

Correct answer: Six The number of times an exercise can be performed is inversely related to the load lifted; the heavier the load, the fewer the repetitions that can be performed. An athlete would be estimated be able to perform a maximum of six repetitions at 85% of their maximum load. Here is an example of a %1RM-repetition table that estimates an athlete's lifting ability, assuming that each athlete should be able to perform the designated amount of repetitions assigned: %1RM: #reps100:195:293:390:487:585:683:780:877:975:1070:1167:1265:15 %1RM-repetition tables are meant to provide helpful guidelines to strength and conditioning coaches for estimating an athlete's training loads. The actual numbers will be very individualized and can differ for each athlete.

Of the following tests in a testing battery, which sequence would produce the most reliable results? 40-yard dash Skinfold test Pro-agility 1RM bench press 1RM bench press, skinfold test, 40-yard dash, pro-agility Skinfold test, pro-agility, 1RM bench press, 40-yard dash 40-yard dash, pro-agility, skinfold test, 1RM bench press

Correct answer: Skinfold test, pro-agility, 1RM bench press, 40-yard dash When scheduling multiple tests to be performed on the same day, it is important that tests do not affect an athlete's performance on any of the other tests. Proper sequencing of the tests can help prevent this from happening. It is also important to ensure athletes take sufficient recovery as needed based on the test being conducted. A logical sequence of tests is as follows: Non-fatiguing tests, such as anthropometric measurements (height, weight, etc.) Agility tests (pro-agility) Max strength or power tests (1RM squat, 1RM power clean) Sprint tests (40-yard dash) Muscular endurance tests (push-up) Anaerobic capacity tests (300-yard shuttle) Aerobic capacity tests (1.5-mile run)

How wide should the lifter place the hands when performing a seated barbell shoulder press? Slightly wider than shoulder width As wide as possible Slightly narrower than shoulder width

Correct answer: Slightly wider than shoulder width The grip for a seated barbell shoulder press should be a pronated, closed grip. Both palms should face forward, and the thumb should wrap around the bar. The hands should be placed slightly wider than shoulder-width apart. This movement targets and strengthens the anterior and medial deltoids and the triceps brachii. Because this barbell movement is performed above the head, it is recommended that a spotter is used for safety.

Which of the following is considered the proper exercise progression within a plyometric training program? Squat jump, single leg ankle hop, cycled split squat jump Squat jump, cycled split squat jump, single leg ankle hop Single leg ankle hop, squat jump, cycled split squat jump

Correct answer: Squat jump, single leg ankle hop, cycled split squat jump All these movements are considered jumps in place, but they have three different intensity levels. Squat jump is considered a low-intensity plyometric drill, where the athlete starts in a squat position and then stands up and jumps in the air as high as possible. Single leg ankle hop is considered a medium-intensity plyometric drill, where the athlete stands on one leg and hops up as high as possible. Cycled split squat jumps are considered a high-intensity plyometric drill, where the athlete starts in a lunge position, then stands up and jumps while switching the legs in the air and landing in another lunge position.

What is the measure of ability to return to a desired position following a disturbance to the system? Stability Flexibility Balance

Correct answer: Stability Stability is the measure of the ability to return to a desired position following a disturbance to the system. Balance is the ability to maintain stationary and moving equilibrium or the ability to maintain the body's center of gravity over its base of support. Many of the tests used to assess stability measure balance and stability together. One common test is the Star Excursion Balance Test (SEBT).

Which of the following is defined as a measure of the variability of a set of scores about the mean? Standard deviation Outlier Range

Correct answer: Standard deviation Range and standard deviation are two common measures of the variability of a set of testing scores. The range represents the difference between the low and high score. An outlier is a score that is farther away from the mean than the other scores (usually multiple standard deviations). Standard deviation measures how spread out the scores are when compared to the mean (the average of those scores).

During the downward phase of the seated leg curl exercise, the length of the A-band of the knee flexors: Increases Stays the same Decreases

Correct answer: Stays the same Actin and myosin filaments lie parallel to one another within the sarcomere. Myosin filaments lie in the center of the sarcomere, while actin filaments lie toward the ends of the sarcomere, overlapping the myosin filaments. The following terms describe sections of the sarcomere: The A-band refers to the length of the aligned myosin filaments. The I-band refers to the areas in adjacent sarcomeres that only contains actin filaments, which are anchored to the Z-line. The H-zone refers to the area that only contains myosin.

What is the starting position for the athlete when performing the pro agility test? Standing with both toes on one side of the center line Straddling the center line Standing behind the line at one end

Correct answer: Straddling the center line The pro agility test is set up with two lines 10 yards apart, and a third line directly in the middle, 5 yards from each end. To perform the pro agility test, an athlete starts in a three-point stance, with one foot on either side of the center line. On a signal, the athlete turns to sprint to touch one end line (5 yards), changes direction to sprint to and touch the opposite end line (10 yards), then finally back to sprint past the center line (5 yards).

What is the combination of mechanical and neurophysiological mechanisms that is the basis for plyometric exercises? stretch shortening cycle series elastic component stretch reflex

Correct answer: Stretch-shortening cycle The stretch-shortening cycle combines the elastic energy stored via the series elastic component with the potentiation resulting from the stretch reflex to produce a large amount of force very quickly. There are three phases to the stretch-shortening cycle:1. Phase I - Eccentric phase, when agonist is stretched and energy is stored 2. Phase II - Amortization phase, which is the pause between eccentric and concentric. This must be short because if the pause is too long, the stored energy will dissipate. 3. Phase III - Concentric phase, when energy is released and can increase force production

The athlete wants to replace a fear response with a relaxation response. What is the best way for him/her to do that? Reversal Theory Systematic desensitization Progressive muscle relaxation

Correct answer: Systematic desensitization When you have an athlete who wants to replace a fear response with a relaxation response, the best way for him/her to do that is through systematic desensitization. This involves learning foundational relaxation techniques progressive muscle relaxation techniques as well as mental imagery. From here, the athlete will progress into deeper levels of fear and counter that with the relaxation training until the event or task becomes normal and not a trigger for anxiety. You can help your athlete by teaching him/her the essentials of relaxation techniques and mental imagery.

The athlete wants to replace a fear response with a relaxation response. What is the best way for him/her to do that? reveral theory systematic desensitization PMR

In which structures within the body does the series elastic component (SEC) mainly store the energy used in plyometric activities? catilage tendons muscles

Correct answer: Tendons Tendons make up the majority of the series elastic component (SEC), which stores energy when the musculotendinous structures are stretched (lengthened). When a concentric muscle action occurs immediately following the stretch of these tissues, the energy stored in the SEC is released, and the resulting contraction is enhanced. This principle is utilized to improve jumping ability in plyometric training.

The exercise intensity or relative intensity at which blood lactate levels significantly increase over resting concentration levels is referred to as what? Fxv F/Ground contact t F xGround contact t

Correct answer: The amount of force applied multiplied by ground contact time An impulse describes the application of force throughout the length of the stance phase, or ground contact time. It is measured by multiplying the amount of the force applied by the length of time it was applied. Forces applied during the acceleration phase are lower than those in the maximal velocity phase, while ground contact times are longer during the acceleration phase than they are during the maximal velocity phase. Force x velocity is the definition of power.

Which of the following describes an impulse during a sprint? Amount of force multiplied by velocity The amount of force applied divided by ground contact time The amount of force applied multiplied by ground contact time

The crouched starting position is used during the performance of many sprint drills, including sprinting on an incline. Where should the feet be placed when starting in the crouched position? The back foot should be 1-2 foot lengths behind the front foot The feet should be placed parallel to each other The back foot should be placed as far back as the athlete can reach

Correct answer: The back foot should be 1-2 foot lengths behind the front foot The crouch position allows the athlete to preload the legs prior to starting to sprint. The optimal position involves placing the dominant leg in front and then placing the opposite foot about 1 to 2 foot lengths behind the front foot. Once the feet are placed in position, the athlete should lean forward and then sink down, bending both knees so that the back shin is close to parallel in relation to the ground. The back heel will not be touching the ground in this position. No matter which leg is in front, the opposite arm should be forward, with the elbow bent and the hand about 6 to 8 inches from the forehead. The rear arm should be bent and behind the torso, with the hand near the hip. Finally, the athlete should shift their weight forward so that there is slightly more weight in the front leg than in the back leg.

Comparing the push press with the push jerk, which phase is the main difference between the two? The catch The downward movement The starting position

Correct answer: The catch The catch is the only real difference between the two exercises. In both lifts, the lifter begins with the bar on the shoulders on the front side of the body and finishes with the bar extended at arms' length overhead. Both lifts begin with a dip to load the legs followed by a drive phase to initiate the upward movement of the body and transfer force to the bar. After the drive phase is complete and the bar leaves the shoulders and starts traveling overhead, the catch phase begins: - In the push press, the lifter finishes the lift by pressing the bar up with the arms until the arms are straight and the bar is overhead. The legs remain straight throughout the catch phase. - In the push jerk, the lifter finishes the lift by flexing the hips and knees to dip (semi-squat) low enough to get themselves under the bar to catch the bar overhead with the arms straight.

During the butterfly stretch, what part of the body should be used to push down in order to increase hip abduction? The hands The feet The elbows

Correct answer: The elbows The butterfly stretch targets the hip adductors and the sartorius muscles. To perform this stretch, sit on the ground, bend the knees and place the soles of the feet together. Bring the feet as close to the body as possible, keeping the feet together. Grab the feet and/or ankles with your hands and let one elbow sit on the inside of each leg. To create the stretch, use the elbows to push down against the legs and lean forward slightly. This increases hip abduction, creating a hip adduction stretch. When leaning forward, aim to lean with the entire torso, keeping the chest and head up.

Where should the elbows be in relation to the bar during the preparation phase (the dip) of the push jerk? The elbows should be as high as possible The elbows should be aligned with the middle of the lifter's side The elbows should be directly underneath or slightly in front of the bar

Correct answer: The elbows should be directly underneath or slightly in front of the bar In the push jerk, the lifter holds the barbell with a closed, pronated grip and places the barbell across their anterior deltoids and clavicles. As the lifter begins the preparation phase and starts the dip, the elbows should be directly underneath or slightly in front of the bar. This position helps keep the bar from sliding down the shoulders, while also placing the arms in an advantageous position to extend the arms overhead in order to catch the bar.

During the downward movement phase of the stiff-legged deadlift, which of the following describes the movement that should occur at the knee? The knees should be completely straight The knees should maintain a slightly flexed position The knees should bend more as the bar is lowered

Correct answer: The knees should maintain a slightly flexed position In the starting position for the stiff-legged deadlift, the knees should be slightly bent (flexed) and should stay slightly bent throughout the entire movement, including the downward and the upward movement phases. It is a common movement mistake to allow the knees to bend more as the bar is lowered (downward phase). This should happen in a standard deadlift, but this should not happen in the stiff-legged deadlift. The lifter should prevent the knees from straightening out or bending more while performing this movement.

An athlete is performing a kettlebell swing. The following describes the athlete's position during the backward movement phase: The torso is neutral and just above parallel to the floor The kettlebell is behind the athlete The knees are bent to 90 degrees The arms are straight Is this the correct position at this stage of the swing? If not, what should change? The kettlebell should not be so far back The knees should only be slightly bent This is the correct position

Correct answer: The knees should only be slightly bent The backward movement phase of a kettlebell swing involves bringing the kettlebell between the legs and behind the body. This athlete is making a common error, bending the knees too much as the kettlebell swings down and back, performing the movement more like a squat. Instead, the body position should be similar to the end of the downward movement phase of an RDL, with the knees only slightly bent.

Where should the shoulders be placed in relation to the bar in the starting position of a power clean? The shoulders should be placed in a position that allows the torso to be upright The shoulders should be placed directly over or slightly in front of the bar The shoulders should be placed slightly behind the bar

Correct answer: The shoulders should be placed directly over or slightly in front of the bar In the starting position for a power clean, the bar should be about the level of the mid-shin. When using bumper plates, this is the height of the bar when a loaded bar is sitting on the ground. Some guidelines for the starting position: The feet should be hip to shoulder width apart The shoulders are higher than the hips, and the hips are typically higher than the knees The shoulders should be either directly over or slightly forward from the bar The bar should be about 1" away from the shins The feet should be flat and the torso should be neutral or have a slight arch The arms should be straight The torso should not be upright in the starting position.

Functional movements and athletic achievement rely on the proper function of all active muscles as well as which of the following? The force with which muscular forces are utilized The torque with which muscular forces are utilized The speed with which muscular forces are utilized Hide ExplanationUnflag Question

Correct answer: The speed with which muscular forces are utilized Developing functional muscles and movement patterns is certainly important to athletic success, but most sports also require some expression of power. This quality is achieved through increasing the speed with which force can be applied. Plyometric training has been proven to be a successful method of developing force and power by capitalizing on the series elastic component (SEC) in the musculotendinous junction as well as the stretch reflex in order to increase the amount of force generated as well as the speed it is generated and applied. Plyometric training has been proven to have a significant transfer to sport performance.

How does the torso angle during a snatch-grip Romanian deadlift (RDL) compare to the torso angle during a standard (clean-grip) RDL? The torso angles are the same in both lifts The torso angle is closer to horizontal in the clean-grip RDL The torso angle is closer to horizontal in the snatch-grip RDL

Correct answer: The torso angle is closer to horizontal in the snatch-grip RDL The RDL movement pattern is the same in both lifts. The lifter lowers the bar until it is in line with the patellar tendon at the bottom of the downward movement phase. Because the snatch grip is significantly wider than the clean grip, this brings the torso lower and closer to horizontal during the snatch-grip deadlift. In both versions of this lift, it is important to maintain a neutral torso and create the movement by pushing the hips backward. The knees should stay slightly bent, and the arms should stay straight.

Which of the following is true during the first pull of the power snatch? The torso should become more vertical as the bar moves from the mid-shins to the knees The torso angle should stay the same as the bar moves from the mid-shins to the knees The elbows should point backwards as the bar moves from the mid-shins to the knees

Correct answer: The torso angle should stay the same as the bar moves from the mid-shins to the knees The first pull is the first of four segments of the upward movement phase of the power snatch. During this portion of the movement, the torso angle should stay constant so that the hips and shoulders rise at the same rate. It is a common error to let the hips rise up faster than the shoulders. The elbows should be straight and point out to the sides, and the bar should be as close to the legs as possible. The shoulders should stay directly above or slightly in front of the bar. Proper execution of the first pull is crucial to the performance of the rest of the lift.

How much glycogen is stored in skeletal muscle compared to the liver? There is more glycogen stored in the liver The liver and skeletal muscle store similar amounts of glycogen There is more glycogen stored in skeletal muscle

Correct answer: There is more glycogen stored in skeletal muscle Glycogen is stored in the body in both skeletal muscle and the liver. Typically, muscle glycogen is used for moderate to higher intensity activities, including sprinting and heavier or higher intensity resistance training. Liver glycogen is utilized in lower intensity and longer duration activities. Skeletal muscle stores about 300 to 400 grams of glycogen, while the liver stores about 70 to 100 grams. Consumption of carbohydrates after glycogen-depleting exercise is important for the replenishment of glycogen stores.

How much glycogen is stored in skeletal muscle compared to the liver? more stored in liver liver and m same more in m

A measurement of the increase in energy expenditure after eating that includes the cost of digestion, absorption, metabolism, and storage of food in the body is called what? Basal metabolic rate Resting metabolic rate Thermic effect of food

Correct answer: Thermic effect of food The human body spends energy to digest, absorb, metabolize, and store the foods we eat. This increased expenditure is known as the thermic effect of food (also referred to as diet-induced thermogenesis) and can be measured for several hours after a meal. It accounts for approximately 10% to 15% of total calories burned each day.

Which of the following statements is false regarding the role of amino acids in the body? They interrupt fluid and electrolyte balance Amino acids play a role in bone formation They aid in muscle hypertrophy

Correct answer: They interrupt fluid and electrolyte balance Amino acids are the building blocks for proteins and work to develop, build, and repair cells and tissue in the body, including bone and muscle tissue. Amino acids do not disturb fluid and electrolyte balance balance, but they are essential for the body to use for protein synthesis and cell function. Haff, G. & Triplett, N. Essential

Kelly is setting up to perform a one-arm dumbbell snatch on her right arm. The following is her set up position: Feet slightly wider than hip-width apart The dumbbell is between her feet Her hips are lower than her shoulders Her back is neutral She is looking straight forward Her right shoulder is slightly in front of the dumbbell Is this the correct starting position? If not, what should change? The dumbbell should be outside the right foot She should be looking at the dumbbell This is the correct starting position

Correct answer: This is the correct starting position To review, the following describes the correct starting position for a one-arm dumbbell snatch on the right arm: Feet slightly wider than hip-width apart Dumbbell is placed between the feet Hips are lower than the shoulders Back is neutral Looking straight forward Right shoulder is slightly in front of the dumbbell

Where should the right hand reach when performing a behind-the-neck stretch for the right triceps and lat? Toward the right scapula Straight out to the side Toward the left scapula

Correct answer: Toward the left scapula The behind-the-neck triceps stretch is a static stretch and is also referred to as the chicken wing stretch. It can be performed seated or standing. To stretch the right arm, reach the right arm up toward the ceiling, and then bend the elbow. Reach the right hand toward the left scapula with the palm facing the body, and use your left hand to grab the right elbow. Use the left arm to gently pull the elbow behind the head to the left to increase the stretch. The elbow should point toward the ceiling throughout the stretch. Be sure not to go past the point of mild discomfort.

Todd is performing a power snatch. Which phase of the exercise is he performing when he is in the position described below? The barbell is moving from his knees up toward his hips Todd has started to flex his knees to bring them forward and under the bar His back is slightly arched His torso is changing from an angled position to a more vertical position His arms are straight and his elbows point to the sides transition first pull second pull

Correct answer: Transition There are four distinct movements that occur during the upward movement phase of the power snatch: First pull: Todd pushes the floor away to move the bar from the floor up to the knees. Transition: Todd bends his knees and brings the torso to a more vertical position while bringing the bar upward from the knees toward the hips. Second pull: Todd explodes through the hips, knees, and ankles to propel the bar overhead. Catch: Once the bar is overhead, Todd rotates his hands around the bar while pulling his body under the bar in order to catch the bar at arm's length overhead while in about a quarter squat position. The power snatch is a power exercise that can be used to develop the rate of force development (the speed at which an individual can generate force).

Which of the following pieces of aerobic equipment requires the largest amount of floor space? Rower Stationary bike Treadmill

Correct answer: Treadmill When planning the equipment layout in a strength and conditioning facility, it is important to follow the guidelines for floor space requirements for each piece of equipment. This ensures that there is enough space for safe use of the equipment as well as room to move around the equipment, even when the equipment is in use. Aerobic equipment should be grouped together to create an aerobic area. Each piece of aerobic equipment has specific floor space requirements. Stationary bikes only need 24 square feet, while rowers need 40 square feet, and treadmills need 45 square feet of floor space.

Which of the following is used to help reduce the risk of overtraining and is placed between each phase of training? Tapering Detraining Unloading

Correct answer: Unloading A periodized program plans for specific adjustments to volume, intensity, and load in order to focus on different areas during each phase of training. Unloading weeks are typically placed at the end of one phase of training and before the next phase begins. For example, a strength and conditioning professional might place 1 to 2 unloading weeks between the end of the preseason training cycle and before the competitive season begins, or at the end of the off-season training and before the pre-season training begins. These planned periods of reduced volume and intensity help improve recovery and help prepare the athlete for the training loads in the next phase. The temporary decrease in volume and intensity does not lead to a decrease in performance in such a short time period. Detraining does involve a loss in performance capabilities, due to an extended and significant decrease or even a cessation in training. Tapering is also a period of decreased volume and intensity but is a method that is specifically used leading up to a competition and is not placed between the phases of training.

When assessing athletic program needs, the strength and conditioning professional does not need to consider which of the following? Training experience of the athletes using the facility Variety of equipment provided for the athletes Number of athletes expected to use the facility

Correct answer: Variety of equipment provided for the athletes When assessing existing facility equipment, the strength and conditioning professional should consider the following: How many athletes will be using the facility? What are the training goals for the athletes, coaches, and administration? What are the demographics of the athletes? What will the training experience of the athletes be? How will the athletes be scheduled? What equipment needs to be repaired

Which of the following testing sequences produces the most reliable results of these tests? Wingate test 12-minute run Vertical jump 1 RM bench press Wingate test, 12-minute run, vertical jump, 1 RM bench press 1 RM bench press, vertical jump, Wingate test, 12-minute run Vertical jump, 1 RM bench press, Wingate test, 12-minute run

Correct answer: Vertical jump, 1 RM bench press, Wingate test, 12-minute run Vertical jump measures maximal power; the 1RM bench press measures max strength; the Wingate test measures anaerobic capacity, and the 12-minute run is an aerobic capacity test. The correct order is recommended based on using the following sequence of testing: Non-fatiguing tests (height, weight, etc.) Agility tests (pro agility) Max strength or power tests (1RM squat, 1RM power clean) Sprint tests (40-yard dash) Muscular endurance tests (push-up) Anaerobic capacity tests (300-yard shuttle) Aerobic capacity tests (1.5-mile run)

Which of the following are organic substances that cannot be synthesized by the body but are needed to perform certain metabolic functions? Minerals Vitamins Carbohydrates

Correct answer: Vitamins Vitamins and minerals both contribute to metabolic functions in the body; however, minerals are inorganic. Vitamins are organic in that they contain carbon atoms. They fall into the category of micronutrients because, although vital for function, they are needed in very small amounts when compared to the macronutrient recommendations for carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Vitamins facilitate numerous reactions in the body, including assisting in the metabolism of macronutrients. Carbohydrates are an organic compound, but glucose (a simple carbohydrate) can be synthesized in the body through gluconeogenesis.

Which of the following is a commonly used test to measure aerobic capacity? 300-yard shuttle Yo-Yo intermittent recovery test Margaria-Kalamen test Hide ExplanationUnflag Question

Correct answer: Yo-Yo intermittent recovery test The yo-yo intermittent recovery test is often used to measure aerobic capacity, especially for teams of field sport athletes, such as soccer and field hockey. The test is conducted using software that provides an audible signal (such as a beep) at specific intervals. To perform this test, athletes start at a starting line and begin running on the first beep to another line 20 meters away. They must reach this line before the next beep. Then they immediately turn around and run 20 meters back. They must reach the starting line again before the next beep. This 2x20 meter shuttle is repeated after a 10-second rest, and the beep intervals get progressively faster. Athletes continue running these 2x20 meter shuttles until they fail two times to reach the prescribed distance before the beep. The specified intervals can provide information on the speed an athlete is moving on the final interval they successfully completed. The Margaria-Kalamen test measures maximum power, and the 300-yard shuttle measures anaerobic capacity.

Which of the following is considered a high-quality protein? Kale Yogurt Rice

Correct answer: Yogurt High-quality proteins are those that are highly digestible and contain all essential amino acids. Animal-based proteins are complete proteins in that they contain all of the essential amino acids; soy is the only plant-based protein that is considered a completed protein. In general, plant proteins are less digestible than animal proteins and are missing at least one of the essential amino acids. Haff, G. & Triplett, N. Essentials

The filaments that are pulled across during a concentric contraction are attached to which structure of the sarcomere? Z-line A-band H-zone

Correct answer: Z-line The smallest contractile unit within a muscle, a sarcomere, is organized specifically to create efficient muscle contraction. Myosin connects to actin filaments via the myosin cross-bridges, and during a muscle contraction, they pull the actin at either end of the sarcomere toward the center of the sarcomere, overlapping the myosin. The actin filaments are anchored to the Z-lines, which move closer to each other as the actin and myosin increasingly overlap. Some of the organizational structures of a sarcomere are: A-band: the length of the myosin filaments I-band: area that contains only actin H-zone: area that contains only myosin Z-line: thin dark line running longitudinally through I-band where the actin is attached

Which of the following is a comparison of an individual's testing results to the group average? Z-score Difference score Range

Correct answer: Z-score When a group undergoes the same test, those results can be compiled and evaluated in many ways. A common way to evaluate the scores is to average the scores to determine the mean value, and then determine the size of the standard deviation based on the dispersion of scores. This can be graphically displayed as a bell curve, where the largest number of scores fall under the center of the curve and fewer scores falling farther from the center. The z-score describe how many standard deviations an individual score is from the group average. This score can be positive if the individual scored better than the group average, or can be negative if the individual scored lower than the team average. A larger z-score indicates that the score is significantly different than the average of the group. For example, an individual could have a z-score of 2, which means that their score is 2 standard deviations above the average score of the group. The range is the difference between the lowest score and the highest score in a group of scores. A difference score is the change in an athlete's testing scores at different times, such as a pretest and a posttest.

Which of the following is an example of augmented feedback? Feeling motivated and psyched up during a competition A coach correcting form during a barbell squat The athlete realizing he missed a step during the play

Hide ExplanationNext Question Explanation Details Correct answer: A coach correcting form during a barbell squat Augmented feedback is external feedback provided to the athlete from a coach or trainer. Technology such as a video camera can also be used in this manner to provide external feedback. Augmented feedback provides the athlete with information that can immediately be used to improve form, execution, and performance. A coach correcting form during a barbell squat is an example of augmented feedback. The athlete realizing he missed a step during the play is an example of intrinsic feedback or sensory-based information that the athlete gains from experience. With this internal feedback, the athlete can fine-tune performance.

A coach places a special decal on the helmet of a player who consistently performed the best out of all his teammates. This is an example of which of the following? Positive punishment Negative reinforcement Positive reinforcement

Hide ExplanationNext Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Positive reinforcement When a coach celebrates the behavior and performance of a player with a unique decal, this is an example of positive reinforcement. By doing so, the coach increases the probability of occurrence of a given behavior. Other examples of positive reinforcement include: Positive actions (e.g., high five) Praise (e.g., "Great job!") Prizes Awards

What does the term "arousal" refer to in relation to an athlete's emotions? Motivation Stress Anxiety

Hide ExplanationSee Results Explanation Details Correct answer: Motivation Arousal refers to the intensity of motivation that an athlete feels. This is a positive emotion that generates both psychological and physiological responses. The best example is when an athlete gets "psyched up" and demonstrates a significant increase in mental activation that translates to better physical performance.

If caloric intake is adequate and two-thirds or more of the protein is from animal sources, what is the daily recommended protein intake for adults? 0.5 g/kg (1.1 g/pound) of body weight per day for both men and women 1.0 g/kg (2.2 g/pound) of body weight per day for both men and women 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg (0.36 g/pound) of body weight per day for both men and women

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg (0.36 g/pound) of body weight per day for both men and women Active adults such as those following a general fitness program should aim to consume 0.8 to 1.0 g of protein per kg of body weight each day. However, athletes in training and anyone who exercises intensely require higher amounts of protein. Endurance athletes should consume 1.0 to 1.6 g/kg body weight per day, and strength athletes 1.4 to 1.7 g/kg body weight per day.

According to the MyPlate guidelines, how many eggs are equal to the "one ounce equivalent" of a protein food? 1 egg white 1 whole egg 1/2 of an egg

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 1 whole egg The MyPlate guidelines provide basic caloric and portion recommendations for individuals that are not generally physically fit and get an average of 30 minutes of moderate activity per day. Protein portions are listed in ounces. One whole egg is considered equivalent to one ounce of meat, poultry, or fish. Different guidelines are provided for different ages (from children as young as two to adults that are over 50), as well as for men and women. Haff, G. & Triplett, N. Essentials

What is the minimum recommended daily amount of protein for an athlete competing in the sport of rowing? 1.8 to 2.0 g/kg/day 1.4 to 1.7 g/kg/day 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg/day

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 1.4 to 1.7 g/kg/day The sport of rowing is categorized as a combination of aerobic and anaerobic exercise, where the athlete must have good stamina, yet have the ability to forcefully move the oar. For this athlete, who needs both strength and aerobic endurance, recommended protein intake is 1.4 to 1.7 g/kg/day.

The general macronutrient guidelines, provided by the Dietary Guidelines Advisory Committee, suggest keeping saturated fat intake below what percentage of total calories? 10% 15% 20%

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 10% The human body is capable of making saturated fatty acids, and therefore, there is no minimum daily requirement for consuming saturated fats. According to the Scientific Report of the 2015 Dietary Guidelines Advisory Committee, the recommended maximum intake should be kept under 10%. Other recommendations include replacing saturated fats with unsaturated fat to help keep the daily intake under 10%.

An athlete has trained with multiple methods, including plyometrics, for the last six months. How many foot contacts would be appropriate for this athlete per session? 100 150 60

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 100 Plyometric volume is based on training experience, individual variables, and training and competition schedule. An individual with 3 to 6 months of structured training would be considered an intermediate, and 100-120 foot contacts per plyometric session would be appropriate.

When testing body composition, what is the desired body fat percent range for a 21-year-old female downhill skier? 21 to 25% 6 to 12% 15 to 20%

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 15 to 20% There are no universally accepted norms for body composition; however, getting too low in body fat percentage can put a female athlete at risk for the female athlete triad. The triad consists of interrelationships between energy availability, menstrual function, and bone mineral density. Regarding testing data for athletic for women, anything below 15% is considered extremely lean, and downhill skiers have an average body fat percentage of 19 to 20 percent. A healthy range could include anything between 15 and 20%.

About what percentage of the body's protein makes up tissues such as the skin and blood? 15% 25% 35%

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 15% Protein is used to build and repair tissues in the body. 15% of the protein stored in the body is found in structural tissues such as the skin and blood, while almost half is found in skeletal muscle. The remaining protein is found in organ and bone tissue (visceral tissues).

A female collegiate basketball player is five feet nine inches tall and weighs 140 pounds. How many calories should she consume per day? 2,000 kcal 3,220 kcal 2,800 kcal

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 2,800 kcal Caloric guidelines based on activity level of a sport (basketball is considered heavy activity), suggest that a basketball athlete should consume 20 kcal/pound for females and 23 kcal/pound for males. A female athlete at 140 pounds who needs 20 kcal/pound of body weight/day will need 2,800 calories a day.

Simon, a football linebacker who weighs 250 pounds, has consulted with a nutritionist, who recommended that he follow a nutritional plan for weight loss. How much protein would be recommended for him to consume daily during this plan? 110 to 220 grams 204 to 306 grams 305 to 402 grams

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 204 to 306 grams The recommended protein intake on a weight loss plan in order to maintain muscle and lose body fat is 1.8 to 2.7 g of protein per kilogram of body weight each day. Simon weighs 250 pounds, which is about 113.4 kg 113.4 x 1.8 = 204 grams 113.4 x 2.7 = 306 grams His recommended protein intake during a weight loss plan would be 204 to 306 grams per day.

What body fat percentage would be classified as average for a female? 18% 20% 25%

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 25% Body fat percentage classifications are different for males and females. What is considered extremely lean for a female (15%) is considered average for a male. It is not always desirable to work toward a lower body fat percentage. The optimal body fat percentage is different for different sports, sport positions, and even between individuals in the same sport or position. An average body fat percentage for a female is between 21 and 25%. 16 to 18% is considered very lean, and 19 to 20% is considered leaner than average.

When conducting a 1RM test, approximately how many testing attempts should it take to determine the 1RM? 3 to 5 attempts 5 or more attempts 1 to 2 attempts

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 3 to 5 attempts When adhering to the protocols for 1RM testing, an individual should perform approximately 3 to 5 attempts to determine their max strength for that exercise. The testing process should begin by performing warm-up sets, increasing the weight with each set to prepare the individual to perform their first attempt. If an attempt is successful, the load can be increased for the next attempt. If an attempt is not successful, the next attempt can be made at the same weight, or the load on the bar can be decreased, depending on the quality of the previous attempt. The load should be increased or decreased until the true 1RM is determined; this should occur within 3 to 5

After training, muscles are more sensitive to amino acids. Up to how long does this last? 48 hours 24 hours 8 hours

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 48 hours In addition to increased muscle sensitivity to amino acids, both muscle protein synthesis and breakdown also increase. Therefore, it is important to take advantage of this window by consuming protein right after training or competition. Muscles are more receptive to amino acids for up to 48 hours after exercise. However, this sensitivity decreases as time passes. Therefore it is optimal to consume protein soon after training ends.

When estimating 1RM for power exercises, what is the maximum number of repetitions one can use for an accurate estimation? 1 5 8

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 5 It is possible to estimate an athlete's 1RM using a multiple rep testing protocol. For strength based movements (squats, etc.), it is possible to use up to 10 repetitions of an exercise to estimate the 1RM. However, because of the explosive nature of power movements, coupled with a high reliance on technique, it is not recommended for an athlete to perform more than five reps (5RM) for testing purposes. Higher repetition max-effort sets can quickly lead to fatigue and breakdown of technique.

What is the estimated load increase for upper body exercises for a larger, stronger, and more fully trained athlete? 2.1 to 5 pounds 10 to 15 (or more) pounds 5 to 10 (or more) pounds

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 5 to 10 (or more) pounds Estimating load increases for athletes depends on the status of the athlete. For smaller, weaker, less trained athletes, upper body increases of 2.5 to 5 pounds is the recommendation. Athletes that are larger, stronger, and more trained can increase upper body loads by 5 to 10 (or more) pounds. To contend with this variability, relative load increases of 2.5% to 10% can be used instead of absolute values.

What is the recommended daily intake of carbohydrates for an endurance athlete who weighs 145 pounds? 218-315 grams 528-660 grams 330-400 grams

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 528-660 grams An endurance athlete should be consuming 8 to 10 grams of carbohydrates per kg of body weight. 1. Convert the athlete's weight from pounds to kilograms. 145 pounds is approximately 66 kg 2. Multiply that number by 8 and by 10 to determine the range of carbohydrates to be consumed each day. 66 × 8 = 528 grams 66 × 10 = 660 grams This athlete should consume between 528-660 grams of carbohydrates per day.

Which of the following could be an appropriate load assignment for the assistance exercises in a training program focused on building maximal strength? 85-95% of the 1RM 70-80% of the 1RM 60-70% of the 1RM

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 70-80% of the 1RM The recommended load assignments for the core exercises in a maximal strength program would exceed 85% of the 1RM. However, the load on the assistance exercises in this program should not be heavier than an 8RM. This means that loads assigned for these exercises should be no more than 80% of the 1RM. Lighter loads (< 70%) would be used to design a program focused on training muscular endurance.

What is considered the ideal temperature for a strength and conditioning facility? 72 to 78 degrees Fahrenheit 65 to 72 degrees Fahrenheit 62 to 65 degrees Fahrenheit

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 72 to 78 degrees Fahrenheit The temperature in a strength and conditioning facility should be comfortable. A facility that is too hot or too cold can impact athlete performance. A range of 68 to 78 degrees is generally acceptable, and many sources agree that 72 to 78 degrees is optimal. Humidity should also be taken into account. A more humid training environment may require a lower temperature to keep athletes comfortable. Higher humidity can also lead to the growth of bacteria, so it is important that both temperature and humidity are closely monitored.

What is a typical body fat percentage for male decathletes? 14-17% Below 7% 8-10%

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: 8-10% There is a wide range of appropriate and typical body fat percentages for athletes in different sports. Decathletes have a typical body fat percentage of 8 to 10%, which is classified as very lean. Male athletes with extremely lean body fat percentages (below 7%) include bodybuilders when prepped for a contest. Male athletes with the highest typical body fat percentages (18 to 22%) include American football linemen and track and field throwers that compete in the shot put.

The seated barbell shoulder press is used to strengthen which of the following muscles? Upper trapezius and anterior deltoids Anterior and medial deltoids Pectoralis major and anterior deltoids

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Anterior and medial deltoids In addition to training the anterior and medial deltoids, the seated barbell shoulder press also involves the triceps brachii. The weight can be either a barbell or dumbbells and the grip should be pronated and slightly wider than shoulder width. With the weight in front of the shoulders, the athlete will push the bar overhead and fully extend the elbows.

Where should the waist measurement be taken when taking circumference measurements? At the narrowest point of circumference At the level of the umbilicus At the point of widest circumference

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: At the level of the umbilicus Most circumference measurements should be taken at the site of maximal circumference. However, the waist measurement is different. The waist measurement should be taken at the level of the umbilicus. The waist measurement can be an indicator of health risks. A large waist measurement correlates with an elevated risk for chronic diseases such as diabetes, high cholesterol, and high blood pressure.

What type of performance enhancement substance is used to gain an ergogenic benefit by reducing anxiety and tremors during performance? Insulin Beta blockers Arginine

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Beta blockers Beta blockers are typically prescribed by cardiologists for the treatment of certain cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension. However, athletes in sports that require steady, controlled movement have found them useful to decrease anxiety and increase control and accuracy. They work by preventing the catecholamines (such as norepinephrine) from binding to the beta-adrenergic receptors. Beta blockers also have adverse effects, including an increased rate of perceived exertion as well as health risks such as bradycardia and the potential for heart failure. Insulin is an

Which of the following is not a method to regulate aerobic intensity? Karvonen method Blood pressure Rate of perceived exertion (RPE) scales

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Blood pressure Aerobic exercise intensity is assigned and regulated in a few different ways. Lab testing to determine an individual's VO2 max and lactate threshold provides the most accurate information to prescribe appropriate training intensities. In the absence of lab testing, heart rate and rate of perceived exertion (RPE) scales are two methods that can provide some basic guidelines. The Karvonen method uses a percentage of maximal heart rate and heart rate reserve to calculate the target heart rate range necessary to train at an approximate intensity. RPE scales can also be used to regulate intensity during aerobic exercise, but external factors can influence this (hot weather, cold weather, age, sex, etc.).

Which method of resistance training is sometimes used to improve cardiorespiratory endurance? Complex training Maximal strength training Circuit training

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Circuit training Circuit training involves performing a series of resistance training exercises in a row, with little rest (20 to 30 seconds). This method of training would elevate the heart rate and can have a beneficial effect on cardiorespiratory endurance. However, it is important to note that cardiorespiratory benefits seen with circuit training are not as great as those achieved through conventional aerobic exercise. Complex training involves the combination of a strength exercise with an exercise that uses the stretch-shortening cycle (SSC) and is utilized for the enhanced performance seen as a result of the post-activation potentiation. Maximal strength tra

During what period of time will the athlete's goal be to attain peak strength and power via additional increases in training intensity, while further decreasing training volume? Second transition period Competition period First transition period

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Competition period The phases of a training program include: Preparatory period (off-season) First transition (pre-season) Competition period (in-season) Second transition (post-season) As an athlete moves closer to the competitive season, training intensity generally increases and volume decreases. This also accounts for an increase in training time (practice) in their sport. During the competitive season, it is important to maintain levels of fitness, strength, and power without causing too much fatigue.

When designing a training program, what is the first priority? Performing an assessment of the athlete Conducting a needs analysis of the athlete's sport Determining availability

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Conducting a needs analysis of the athlete's sport There are seven steps to program design for resistance training. The first step is conducting a needs analysis, which is a two-part process that starts with evaluating the characteristics that are important to the athlete's sport. Once these have been determined, then the second part of the needs analysis involves conducting an assessment of the athlete based on the characteristics determined in step 1.

What type of exercises recruits one or more large muscle areas, involves two or more primary joints and takes priority when choosing exercises that are applicable to a particular sport? Structural exercises Assistance exercises Core exercises

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Core exercises Core exercises are the primary exercises included in a training program. These movements are compound (multi-joint) movements that recruit large muscle groups and have a greater transfer to sport performance. These movements take priority in the workout. Structural exercises are a subset of core exercises that directly or indirectly load the spine, such as deadlifts and squats. These qualify as core exercises, but not all core exercises are structural exercises. Assistance exercises typically include single-joint exercises that use smaller muscle areas and are performed later in the workout.

The standing long jump test uses what type of jump? Static Countermovement Reactive

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Countermovement A standing long jump begins with a countermovement. This means that the athlete performing the jump will first quickly lower themselves into a partial squat to load the muscles and then immediately perform the jump. A static jump involves lowering into a partial squat position and holding that position for a couple of seconds prior to jumping. When the athlete jumps, they are not allowed to dip any lower than the static squat position, but rather, are only allowed to accelerate movement upward. A reactive jump refers to a jump performed immediately after landing; for example, from a previous jump or from landing from stepping off of a box.

Athletes who compete in which of the following sports have typical body fat percentages that are classified as extremely lean? Cross-country Speed skating Horse racing (jockey)

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Cross-country Athletes in different sports exhibit a large range of body fat percentages. Sports in which athletes tend to be extremely lean include gymnastics, in-contest bodybuilders and wrestlers, as well as cross-country runners. Women in this category have body fat percentages below 15%, and men have body fat percentages under 7%. Jockeys tend to have average body fat percentages, which range between 14 and 17% for men, and 19 and 20% for women. Speed skaters tend to be leaner than average, with body fat percentages between 11 and 13% for men, and 16 and 18% for women.

You, as the strength and conditioning specialist, are preparing a schedule. When would it be appropriate to schedule high-intensity upper body plyometric training? Days that have high-intensity lower body resistance training Days that have low-intensity upper body resistance training Days that have low-intensity lower body resistance training

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Days that have low-intensity lower body resistance training When designing a plyometrics program, it is important to be smart about intensity of plyometrics versus resistance training. High-intensity upper body resistance training should be matched with low-intensity lower body plyometrics training. Low-intensity upper body resistance training should be matched with high-intensity lower body plyometrics, and vice versa.

How do low glycogen levels affect muscular force? Decreases muscular force No effect on muscular force Increases muscular force

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Decreases muscular force Glycogen stores are depleted during training and competition. When glycogen is depleted, performance declines. This includes muscular force and power output. Consuming carbohydrates before, during, and after training and competition replenishes glycogen stores, which helps to maintain an optimum level of performance. All athletes should be aware of the carbohydrate recommendations based on their activity and intensity and duration of training.

What is the first thing a nutrition professional should do when providing an athlete with nutritional counseling? Complete an exhaustive nutritional analysis Plan a weight loss or weight gain program Determine the athlete's goals

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Determine the athlete's goals There are many reasons competitive athletes may seek the services of a nutritional counselor, such as weight loss or gain, the use of nutritional supplements, or pre-competition eating. Therefore, it's important to begin by discussing the athlete's specific goals in order to provide that athlete with the nutritional advice that will help them achieve those goals. It's also important to discuss how the demands of the athlete's sport and, when possible, the coach's goals for the athlete affect their nutritional needs. After the goals have been established, the nutrition professional will also analyze the athlete's current diet and will provide them with guidance or a specific plan

When taking skinfold measurements, what type of fold is used to take the measurement above the iliac crest? Vertical Horizontal Diagonal

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Diagonal Skinfold testing is conducted using skinfold calipers, which measure the thickness of a fold of skin and subcutaneous fat at multiple sites on the body. These numbers then are used in an equation that determines body composition, including percentages of fat mass and fat-free mass. The suprailium skinfold site is located just above the iliac crest. The area should be pinched using a diagonal fold to take this measurement. All of the skinfold sites require either a diagonal or a vertical fold. None of the sites utilize a horizontal fold.

Where should the foot strike the ground in relation to the hips when running? In front of the hips Directly under the hips Behind the hips

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Directly under the hips The optimal foot strike position when running is directly under the hips. This allows for forward propulsion without any braking action. Braking occurs when the foot lands in front of the hip, which then requires more energy to continue to move the body forward. It is also important not to spend too much time in the air. The foot should strike the ground with the heel first, then rolling to the ball of the foot as the body moves forward, and finally pushing off the ball of the foot before cycling the leg for the next step.

What type of flexibility refers to the available range of motion during voluntary active movements? General flexibility Dynamic flexibility Static flexibility

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Dynamic flexibility Flexibility measures the amount of ROM around a joint and can be measured two ways. Dynamic flexibility refers to the available range of motion (ROM) achieved through actively moving a joint through a range of motion. Static flexibility refers to the available passive range of motion (ROM) around a joint, with an external force moving the joint to determine passive ROM.

A semi-leg straddle stretch is targeting which muscle area? Erector spinae Hamstrings Latissimus dorsi

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Erector spinae The erector spinae muscle group is attached to the sacrum and to the lumbar and thoracic vertebrae and the cervical vertebrae at the top of the spine. These muscles are responsible for controlling spinal extension and aiding in posture control. During the semi-leg straddle stretch, sit with the legs slightly apart, the soles of the feet facing each other, knees flexed 30 to 50 degrees and let the legs completely relax. Begin by leaning forward from the waist, reaching forward with extended arms. This position flexes the spine, which stretches the extensor muscles of the back, particularly the erector spinae.

Which joint action is occurring when the angle between the radius/ulna and humerus increases? Flexion Abduction Extension

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Extension Extension refers to the movement that increases the joint angle between two bones. At the elbow, when the arm bends, and the angle between the radius/ulna (forearm) and humerus (upper arm) decreases, this describes elbow flexion. When the arm straightens and the angle increases, this describes elbow extension. Abduction describes movement away from the midline of the body, which typically occurs in the frontal plane. The elbow joint only moves in the sagittal plane, which does not include abduction

When planning and designing a new strength and conditioning facility, which is the first step that should be completed? Forming a committee of professionals who represent various areas of expertise Conducting a feasibility study Preparing a needs assessment

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Forming a committee of professionals who represent various areas of expertise It is important to have a group of individuals with specific expertise to work through all the phases of designing, constructing, and opening a new facility, including evaluating the economic considerations. Such a committee should include: An architect Building contractors An attorney Instructors or coaches who will use the facility Administrators

Your facility is 55-feet in length. What is the maximum number of Olympic lifting platforms that can be placed side by side along the wall? Five Four Seven

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Four Olympic platforms are typically eight feet wide, and four feet of walking space is required between each platform. A general rule is one Olympic platform for every twelve feet of linear space. Calculation of space needed for Olympic platforms: Lifting platform height (typically 8 ft) + a perimeter walkway safety space cushion of 4 ft x lifting platform width (typically 8 ft) + perimeter walkway safety space cushion of 4 ft = 144 square feet

As exercise duration increases and glycogen stores are depleted, which process provides additional glucose for energy without ingesting any additional macronutrients? Gluconeogenesis Muscle glycolysis Liver glycogenesis

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Gluconeogenesis Gluconeogenesis is the conversion of protein or fat into glucose, which the body can then use as fuel. Lactate is used as an energy substrate in gluconeogenesis, and lactate production increases with increased exercise intensity.

Which of the following should be administered first in a sequence of tests for a javelin thrower? Vertical jump 300-yard shuttle Height

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Height The following is a logical and appropriate order of tests: Non-fatiguing tests (height, weight, etc.) Agility tests (pro agility) Max strength or power tests (1RM squat, 1RM power clean) Sprint tests (40-yard dash) Muscular endurance tests (push-up) Anaerobic capacity tests (300-yard shuttle) Aerobic capacity tests (1.5-mile run) Because height is a non-fatiguing test, this should be performed first.

What muscle is stretched in the straddle but not in the semi-straddle? Hip adductors Erector spinae Hamstrings

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Hip adductors The difference between the straddle and the semi-straddle is that during the straddle both legs are outstretched/extended, but during the semi-straddle one leg is tucked in, and the hips are not abducted as far as they are in the straddle. As a result of both legs being outstretched to the sides during the straddle, the hip adductors are targeted.

Which of the following amino acids are all considered essential? Proline, serine, and valine Histidine, isoleucine, and leucine Lysine, methionine, and alanine

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Histidine, isoleucine, and leucine Nine of the amino acids are denoted as "essential" because they cannot be manufactured by the body; therefore, they must be included in the diet. Essential amino acids include histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. It should be noted that while some people can synthesize histidine on their own, it is an essential amino acid for most people.

Which substance is sometimes prescribed as an injection for overweight females on a medically supervised weight-loss program? Testosterone Erythropoietin Human chorionic gonadotropin

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Human chorionic gonadotropin Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is a hormone taken from a placenta and is closely related to luteinizing hormone. It may be prescribed to females on a medically supervised weight loss program. Research shows that it has a low efficacy for weight loss, and no performance enhancing benefits for women. However, HCG can increase testicular testosterone production in men.

Which of the following banned substances is not detected in a urine test but is detected in a blood test? Human growth hormone (HGH) Beta-blockers Prohormones

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Human growth hormone (HGH) Human growth hormone (HGH) is not detectable in a urine sample. This is one of the reasons that testing organizations such as the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) started implementing blood testing of athletes. Prohormones and beta-blockers are all detectable in urine testing. All of these substances are banned for use as ergogenic aids.

What benefit will a powerlifting athlete gain from performing exercises such as chin-ups and bent-over rows? Improve muscle balance Improve core stability Increase agonist strength

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Improve muscle balance Resistance training programs that solely emphasize developing strength in the agonists used in an athlete's sport (in this case, the muscles the powerlifter uses to perform the bench press), should also develop strength in the antagonists. For the powerlifter, the chin ups and bent-over rows will help develop strength in the muscles of the back and will help complement and balance out the opposing muscle groups. Proper muscle balance refers to a ratio of strength, not necessarily equal strength in the agonist when comparing opposing muscle groups or movement patterns.

A 120-pound, 18-year-old female collegiate cross-country skier has the following average energy intake: 500 grams of carbohydrate, 25 grams of protein and 50 grams of fat. What nutritional guideline should be recommended? Increase fat intake Increase protein intake Increase carbohydrate intake

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Increase protein intake As a cross-country skier, this female athlete is considered an aerobic/endurance athlete. Endurance athletes should get 1.0 to 1.6 g of protein/kg of body weight per day. This 120-pound endurance athlete should aim to consume 54 to 87g of protein each day. 120 lb = approximately 54.5 kg Carbohydrates: 8 to 10 g/kg body weight = 436 g to 545 gProtein: 1.0 to 1.6 g/kg body weight = 54 g to 87 g

The treatment goal of which tissue healing phase is to prevent disruption of new tissue? Repair phase Remodeling phase Inflammatory response phase

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Inflammatory response phase After an injury, the damaged tissue goes through specific phases of healing. The first phase following an injury is the inflammatory response phase. Inflammation is necessary and encourages healing, which needs an environment that promotes tissue generation. During this phase, the primary goal of rehabilitation is to prevent any disruption of new tissue, which typically requires resting the injured area. The inflammatory response phase is followed by the fibroblastic repair phase and then the maturation-remodeling phase. The treatment goals of these phases are, respectively, to prevent atrophy and deterioration of the injured area, and to increase the function of new tissue to prepare to return to training.

What resistance training status level would be considered for an athlete who has been training 2 to 3 days a week for three months? Beginner Intermediate Advanced

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Intermediate There are certain classifications of resistance training status: Beginner (untrained): Just began training, training age of less than two months Intermediate (moderately resistance trained): Currently training, training age of 2 to 6 months Advanced (well resistance trained): Currently training, training age above one year Because he has trained for three months, this athlete is classified as intermediate.

As a general guideline for preparedness to begin an intense plyometric program, what strength requirement should an athlete meet before performing lower body plyometric exercises? 1RM squat should be 2 times body weight It is not as important to focus on a strength requirement, but rather to focus on technique 1RM squat should be 1.5 times body weight

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: It is not as important to focus on a strength requirement, but rather to focus on technique In the past, it has been recommended that athletes should be able to squat 1.5 times their body weight before incorporating plyometrics into their training. However, it is safe and effective to begin using lower intensity plyometrics with all athletes, including young athletes, taking the experience level of the athlete into consideration when determining the intensity of the plyometric exercises. The NSCA now suggests that it is more important to focus on technique.

What performance-enhancing substance is responsible for the transport of fatty acids from the cytosol into the mitochondria to be oxidized as energy? L-carnitine B-alanine Human growth hormone

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: L-carnitine L-carnitine plays a role in lipid oxidation by bringing fatty acids into the mitochondria to be used for energy. The premise is that increased fatty acid oxidation will help improve performance by sparing muscle glycogen; however, research has not yet proven this theory. However, it has been shown that L-carnitine may have certain benefits, such as enhanced recovery. Research study participants who supplemented with L-carnitine experienced decreased pain and muscle damage, decreases in markers of metabolic stress, and enhanced recovery following high-intensity exercise. Participants in this study were untrained or were recreationally trained. Athletes may not experience a similar result.

Which major muscles are involved in the exercise in which a cable handle is pulled horizontally toward the chest? Latissimus dorsi, teres major, middle trapezius, rhomboids, and posterior deltoids Medial deltoid, upper trapezius and biceps brachii Pectoralis, anterior deltoids, and triceps brachii

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Latissimus dorsi, teres major, middle trapezius, rhomboids, and posterior deltoids The exercises referred to by this motion (a cable handle pulled toward the chest) are variations of the seated row. In any rowing exercise, the muscles of the back are targeted. Therefore, the upper trapezius, pectoralis, anterior and medial deltoids, and triceps are not targeted muscles in this exercise. The biceps brachii may assist in the seated row but is not included as one of the major muscles involved in this movement.

Leslie is a collegiate soccer player who wants to improve her flexibility and has decided to follow a static stretching program. For a long-term improvement, how often should she stretch, how long should she hold her stretches, and how many weeks should she make sure she stay consistent? Leslie should hold her stretches for 60 seconds each, and she should stretch twice every week for at least eight weeks Leslie should hold her stretches for 30 seconds each, and she should stretch every day for four weeks Leslie should hold her stretches for 30 seconds each, and she should stretch twice every week for at least five weeks

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Leslie should hold her stretches for 30 seconds each, and she should stretch twice every week for at least five weeks The research shows that holding stretches for 15 to 30 seconds is adequate, without gaining more benefit by holding longer stretches. In addition, the research shows that stretching two times per week for at least five weeks can improve long-term flexibility. It is important to ensure that the tissues being stretched are warm and pliable prior to stretching, and stretches should be held at a position that is slightly uncomfortable, but not painful.

Which of the essential amino acids has been found to be most important for stimulating protein synthesis? Isoleucine Valine Leucine

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Leucine Leucine, isoleucine, and valine are three of the essential amino acids and are considered branch-chain amino acids (BCAAs). The BCAAs as a group are the most important amino acids to enhance protein synthesis, but leucine has been found to have the most significant effect. Therefore, it is recommended that athletes choose protein sources that contain leucine to maximize protein synthesis after training.

A training program that begins with high volume and low intensity and then gradually increases intensity over the preparatory period while lowering volume as the competitive season approaches refers to which type of periodization? Undulating Linear Nonlinear

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Linear The traditional model of periodization, which includes high volumes and lower intensities in early phases and increased intensities and lower volumes in later phases has been referred to as a linear model of periodization. This term has been used to distinguish it from what has been termed nonlinear, or undulating periodization. In these models, intensities and volumes vary more frequently, with larger daily fluctuations in load and volume throughout the entire macrocycle. The "linear" model of periodization is technically not completely linear, in that it does involve fluctuations in intensity and volume, but not to the degree of the nonlinear or undulating periodization models.

What are the main energy substrates being used by a 400-meter distance swimmer? Muscle glycogen + liver glycogen Liver glycogen + fatty acids Muscle glycogen + CP

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Liver glycogen + fatty acids The 400-meter swim is classified as an endurance event, and it lasts longer than four minutes. The energy systems being used for ATP production will come from oxidative processes. Liver glycogen contribution to ATP production increases with the duration of exercise and is utilized in lower intensity, long duration activities (including the 400-meter swim). Fatty acids are substrates used in fat oxidation. Muscle glycogen is utilized more in moderate to high-intensity activities, and CP (creatine phosphate) is utilized in extremely high intensity, short duration activities.

During which phase of the injury rehabilitation process does an athlete progress to challenging the injured area by performing sports specific movements at intensities and speeds that resemble those in their sport? Maturation-remodeling phase Inflammation phase Fibroblastic repair phase

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Maturation-remodeling phase There are three phases of injury rehabilitation. The strength and conditioning coach can help provide training options in an athlete's rehabilitation from an injury, but only with the approval and guidelines provided by an appropriate medical professional. The maturation-remodeling phase is the last phase of rehabilitation before an athlete gets cleared to return to their sport. The prior phase, the fibroblastic repair phase, is the first time that the injured tissue can begin to be challenged, but only with submaximal loads. In the maturation-remodeling phase, the athlete can progress to increasing the intensities and speeds used to challenge the injured tissue.

Which of the following is the most important factor in aerobic endurance performance? Maximal aerobic capacity Lactate threshold Maximal heart rate

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Maximal aerobic capacity Maximal aerobic capacity is also known as VO2 max and is highly linked to aerobic endurance performance success, and high VO2 max values are necessary for success. Endurance programs should be designed to improve an athlete's VO2 max. The lactate threshold is also important, and when athletes have similar VO2 max values, the athlete who has a higher lactate threshold is typically the superior athlete. They are capable of sustaining higher intensities without increased accumulation of lactate. However, maximal aerobic performance (VO2 max) is still a greater contributor to aerobic endurance performance. Maximal heart rate is not a factor in aerobic endurance

What is the exercise intensity at which maximal lactate production is equal to maximal lactate clearance within the body? Maximal lactate steady state Lactate threshold Exercise economy

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Maximal lactate steady state The lactate threshold indicates the intensity level where lactate production begins to exceed clearance. Maximal lactate steady state indicates the intensity where lactate production and clearance are equal. This intensity would represent the highest intensity an athlete could sustain without crossing the lactate threshold. Performance declines and fatigue increases once the threshold has been reached. Training should aim to increase the maximal lactate steady state or the lactate threshold. Both goals will improve aerobic capacity. Exercise economy refers to the individual energy expenditure at a given intensity.

Dynamic stretching is sometimes referred to as what? Mobility drills Ballistic movements Total body stretching

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Mobility drills A dynamic stretch is a method of actively moving the joints through a range of motion (ROM) while emphasizing sport-specific movements and positions. Dynamic stretches are often called mobility drills and used as a part of an athlete's warm up to specifically prepare them for the demands of training and enhance dynamic flexibility. Dynamic and ballistic stretches may appear similar but are slightly different. Both involve movement, but dynamic stretching movements are performed with more control, while ballistic stretching involves a bouncing type motion.

Which of the following statements about MyPlate is false? MyPlate recommendations need to be adjusted for individuals who exercise more than 30 minutes/day MyPlate includes oils as a food group The food groups displayed in MyPlate include grains, vegetables, fruits, protein foods, and dairy

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: MyPlate includes oils as a food group When referencing the MyPlate Food Group Recommendations table, oil seems to have its own food group category. However, MyPlate explains that although a daily allowance is provided for oils, they are not a food group. They contain nutrients such as essential fatty acids and vitamin E, and therefore should be included in small amounts in the diet.

Which phase of training has the highest number of recommended resistance training sessions per week? Off-season Pre-season In-season

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Off-season The off-season is also known as the preparatory period. During this phase of training, athletes can focus more on building their base of strength and conditioning, as sports practices and skills are a low priority. Therefore, athletes can spend more days resistance training without creating too much total volume of training. Building hypertrophy and strength are often key areas of focus during this phase of training. As sports practices become more of a focus in the pre-season, and practices and competitions take precedence during the in-season, the number of resistance training sessions should decrease.

Which of the following would have the highest metabolic equivalent? Outdoor cycling at a pace of 12 miles/hour Walking 4.5 miles/hour Stair stepping at 30 steps/minute

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Outdoor cycling at a pace of 12 miles/hour Metabolic equivalent (MET) values can be used to determine and prescribe exercise intensity. One MET is equal to 3.5 ml x kg-1 x min-1 of oxygen consumption and is considered the amount of oxygen required by the body at rest. METs have been determined for a variety of activities. Three examples are: 12 miles of outdoor cycling is considered to be 8.0 METs Walking 4.5 miles/hour is considered to be 6.3 METs Stair stepping at 30 steps/minute is considered 4.8

What is the quality of tissue that allows it to assume a new lengthened position after a passive stretch? Plasticity Elasticity Stretch reflex

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Plasticity Connective tissues have plastic potential that allows them to remain in a lengthened state after stretching exercises. This is known as plasticity. Plasticity is often discussed along with elasticity. Elasticity, as it applies to stretching, is the quality of a tissue to return to its original resting state after being stretched.

Selective recruitment of motor units might occur with which of the following? 1RM back squat 1.5-mile run Power clean

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Power clean The size principle generally regulates motor unit recruitment and is based on force production requirements. The slow twitch motor units are recruited prior to the fast twitch fibers, and recruitment increases in both quantity and firing rate so that more motor units are recruited for the production of high force, speed or power. As force production increases, the number of activated motor units also increases.

Which of the following are movement-related resistance training exercises that most closely mimic the movement pattern of rowing? Lat pull-downs, power cleans, deadlifts, and good mornings Power cleans, hip sled, seated rows, and deadlifts Barbell pullovers, overhead triceps extension, and step-ups

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Power cleans, hip sled, seated rows, and deadlifts These movements replicate the movement patterns involved in rowing. Rowing involves an explosive and strong push with the legs followed by a horizontal pulling movement.

Which of the following has the greatest thermic effect of feeding? Carbohydrate Protein Fat

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Protein The thermic effect of feeding is also known as diet-induced thermogenesis and refers to the increased energy expenditure (calorie burning) as a result of the process of digesting, metabolizing, and storing food. This calorie expenditure accounts for about 10 to 15% of the total daily calorie expenditure. Protein has the highest thermic effect of feeding in that more calories are burned (energy expenditure) to digest and use protein in the body than in the process of digestion and absorption, etc. of either carbohydrates or fats.

The hamstrings are the target during which stretching exercise? Straddle Wall stretch Butterfly

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Straddle In addition to targeting the hamstrings, the straddle stretch also targets the gastrocnemius, erector spinae, hip adductors, and sartorius. During this stretch, you are seated on the floor, sitting up nearly vertical, with legs abducted. Then you begin flexing at the hip toward one foot and hold the toes with both hands. After holding that position, you switch sides and reach for the other foot. This can also be performed by bringing the chest toward the floor in the middle between the legs. The wall stretch targets the calf (gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon). The butterfly stretch targets the hip adductors and sartorius.

Which of the following describes the most appropriate activity during the first transition period for a collegiate basketball player? General/non-sport-specific movements High volume and intensity Strength/power movements

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Strength/power movements The first transition period is the phase of training that occurs between the preparatory and competitive periods. The focus of this phase of training is to continue to build on the strength gains from the preparatory period and also work on increasing the rate of force development with the intention of increasing the athlete's expression of power. Training volume decreases as loads increase to focus on building strength and power. Intensity and workload are varied to ensure adequate recovery throughout this phase of training. The final week of this phase typically includes a deload week, decreasing volume, intensity, or both in order to provide increased recovery going into the start of the competitive season.

An athlete is setting up to perform a power clean. Is their start position correct? If not, what needs to change? The following describes their start position: Their feet are slightly wider than hip width apart They are using a closed, pronated hook grip with the hands slightly wider than shoulder width apart Their shoulders are slightly behind the bar The athlete's torso is neutral The bar is about 1" away from the shins The athlete's eyes are forward The bar should be closer to the shins The athlete's shoulders should be directly above or slightly in front of the bar This is a correct starting position for the power clean

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: The athlete's shoulders should be directly above or slightly in front of the bar The start position for the power clean is crucial to the performance of the rest of the lift. This athlete is mostly in the correct starting position, except their shoulders are a little too far back. The shoulders should be directly over the bar or slightly in front of the bar. This helps ensure a better bar path once the lift begins.

Which phase of designing and constructing a new strength and conditioning facility is considered the longest phase? The pre-operation phase The design phase The construction phase

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: The construction phase The construction phase is typically the longest phase in the process of building a new facility. This phase includes the entire building phase, from groundbreaking to the time construction is completed, including installation of flooring, etc. In order to stay on track and meet the defined goals and objectives, the master plan should be consulted often. The design phase occurs in the planning stage prior to construction, and the pre-operation phase occurs following construction and prior to facility opening.

If an athlete is a competitive swimmer, swimming is known as what in relation to the athlete? The exercise mode The exercise concentration The exercise interest

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: The exercise mode Exercise mode describes the activity the athlete is using as a training method to improve performance. In this case, the exercise mode is swimming. The closer the activity resembles what is needed in competition, the more specific it is for the athlete and the greater the impact on performance.

Which of the following methods of ordering exercise will aid in minimizing overall training time? To alternate upper body exercises with lower body exercises To alternate power exercises with assistance exercises To alternate power exercises with core exercises

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: To alternate upper body exercises with lower body exercises Alternating between upper and lower body exercises can be a good training option, particularly for untrained individuals. This arrangement (pairing exercises back-to-back) helps to use training time efficiently, as it is possible to complete more work in a shorter amount of time while still allowing appropriate rest times between sets for specific body parts. Power exercises should generally be performed alone, with sufficient rest between sets.

Which of the following is the most accurate method of measuring training stress? Volume-load Repetition-volume Repetition-maximum

Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Volume-load Volume-load is a practical means of measuring training stress. It accounts for the total number of repetitions performed in a workout as well as the total amount of weight lifted. Volume-load is calculated by multiplying the weight lifted per repetition by the number of repetitions per set and multiplying that by the total number of sets. For example, the volume load for two sets of 10 repetitions with 50 pounds would be expressed as 50 x 10 x 2 = 1000 pounds.

The lack of physical and psychological efficiency that comes from anxious arousal has three factors:

High degree of ego involvement: Athlete perceives a threat to self-esteem Perceived discrepancy between ability and demands: Athlete believes he/she is not able to meet the demand of the task despite having the skills Fear of consequences of failure: Athlete believes he/she will lose approval from teammates, family, and friends An intense state of motivation is a positive blend of physiological and psychological activation that is usually regarded as positive. A state of getting psyched up is an example of arousal, not anxious arousal.

As Tylissa runs the 100-meter sprint, which factor contributes more to her final velocity? Stride Length Stride Frequency

Incorrect Correct Answer:Stride Frequency Explanation:As athletes reach final velocity, stride frequency changes more than stride length and therefore contributes more to final velocity.

Inverted U theory

Inverted U-Theory states that there is a relationship between arousal and performance. Arousal will increase performance to a point - usually the peak or optimal level - and any additional arousal after this can negatively impact performance. This is widely accepted by trainers and coaches as it helps them understand how and why arousal improves and hinders performance in each of their athletes.

What enzyme catalyzes the formation of lactate from pyruvate? NADH ATP Lactic Acid Lactate Dehydrogenase

Lactate dehydrogenase Explanation:When energy demand is high and there is insufficient oxygen present, the body is going to use lactic acid fermentation to generate the energy it needs. Glycolysis is busy producing pyruvate and NADH. In order for glycolysis to keep producing pyruvate, it needs NAD+ molecules to function. The NADH molecules produced by glycolysis are turned back into NAD+ molecules by the lactic acid fermentation process. NADH molecules give up the H+ with the help of the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase. Since the NADH loses its H+, it becomes NAD+ once again and can be used by glycolysis. Lactate dehydrogenase takes the H+ from NADH and attaches it to pyruvate, creating lactate.

hyaline cartilage

Most common type of cartilage; it is found on the ends of long bones, ribs, and nose

The exercise intensity or relative intensity at which blood lactate levels significantly increase over resting concentration levels is referred to as what? rate limiting step OBLA lactate threshold

The lactate threshold (LT) indicates the intensity at which lactate accumulation exceeds its removal, increasing lactate concentration levels. The ability to delay lactic acid accumulation increases with consistent aerobic training. The LT is typically 50% to 60% of maximal oxygen uptake in untrained people and 70% to 80% in aerobically trained people.

Rate Pressure Product (RPP)

The mathematical product of heart rate x systolic blood pressure. Also called the double product

The percentile ranks of an athlete's vertical jump and 1RM back squat vary greatly. Which of the following types of validity would these results reinforce? Face validity Discriminant validity Convergent validity Hide ExplanationUnflag Question Explanation Details Correct answer: Discriminant validity Two tests that have discriminant validity are proven to test and distinguish between different abilities. In this case, the vertical jump tests explosive power and the back

An athlete learns the snatch exercise by breaking it down into four sections. What is this an example of? Fractionalization Augmented practice Segmentation

The snatch exercise is best learned by breaking it down into four equal sections: First pull Transition Second pull Catch This is an example of segmentation or the act of breaking down a task into a series of parts that have defined breaks or stopping points to them. Fractionalization refers to breaking tasks into subcomponents that all occur simultaneously.

A softball player is rehabilitating her shoulder and utilizing the De Lorme resistance training program. She is ready for her third and final set of the standing dumbbell lateral raise exercise. Which of the following repetition and load schemes should she choose?a) 10 repetitions at 100% of the 10 RM.b) 5 repetitions at 75% of the 10 RM.c) 10 repetitions at 50% of the 10 RM.d) 5 repetitions at 100% of the 10 RM.

After promoting the hold-relax with agonist contraction PNF stretch for the hamstrings, which of the following explains the resulting increase in flexibility?I. autogenic inhibition.II. stretch inhibition.III. reciprocal inhibition.IV. crossed-extensor inhibition.a. I and III only.b. II and IV only.c. I, II, and III only.d. II, III, and IV only.

All of the following are physiological roles of growth hormone EXCEPTA. Increase glycogen synthesis.B. Increase protein synthesis.C. Increase lipolysis.D. Increase collagen synthesis.

The minimum landing surface dimensions for a plyometric box isa) 18 x 24 inches.b) 16 x 18 inches .c) 24 x 32 inches.d) 10 x 12 inches.

Which of the following volumes has the potential to increase muscular strength the MOST? a. 5 sets of 5 repetitions b. 1 set of 5 repetitions c. 5 sets of 15 repetitions d. 1 set of 15 repetitions

a. 5 sets of 5 repetitions

If a strong athlete incorporates only unilateral training into his or her program, what might the strength and conditioning professional expect to happen? a. A bilateral facilitation will occur. b. A bilateral deficit will be developed. c. A reduction in bilateral asymmetries will occur. d. Only unilateral strength will increase.

a. A bilateral facilitation will occur.

2. Which of the following reactions is the primary cause of metabolic acidosis (i.e., the decrease in intramuscular pH during high-intensity, fatiguing exercise)? a. ATP -> ADP + Pi + H+ b. pyruvate + NADH -> lactate + NAD+ c. ADP + creatine phosphate -> ATP + creatine d. fructose-6-phosphate ↔ fructose- 1, 6 biphosphate

a. ATP -> ADP + Pi + H+

When one is performing a box-to-box plyometric drop jump, in order to generate sufficient force in a limited amount of time (<200 ms), which muscle fibers are bypassed through the principle of selective recruitment? a. I b. IIa c. IIx d. IIc

a. I

After performing the hold-relax with agonist contraction PNF stretch for the hamstrings, which of the following explains the resulting increase in flexibility? I. autogenic inhibition II. stretch inhibition III. reciprocal inhibition IV. crossed-extensor inhibition a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. II, III, and IV only

a. I and III only

During a free weight exercise, muscle force varies with which of the following? I. perpendicular distance from the weight to the body joint II. joint angle III. movement acceleration IV. movement velocity squared a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. II, III, and IV only

a. I and III only

Flexibility of which of these muscle groups or body areas is assessed during the sit-and-reach test? I. hamstrings II. erector spinae III. lumbar spine IV. hip flexors a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. II, III, and IV only

a. I and III only

The basketball coach says his starting center needs to jump higher. In addition to beginning a plyometric program, which of the following resistance training exercises are MOST specific to this goal? I. power clean II. leg (knee) curl III. front squat IV. seated calf (heel) raise a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. II, III, and IV only

a. I and III only

Which of the following hormones enhance(s) muscle tissue growth? I. growth hormone II. cortisol III. IGF-I IV. progesterone a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. II, III, and IV only

a. I and III only

Which of the following phases is (are) commonly used to vary workouts during the preparatory period? I. hypertrophy II. cardiovascular III. basic strength IV. supercompensation a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. II, III, and IV only

a. I and III only

Which of the following substances acts at the neuromuscular junction to excite the muscle fibers of a motor unit? a. acetylcholine b. ATP c. creatine phosphate d. serotonin

a. acetylcholine

Which of the following performance-enhancing substances is most likely to increase lean body mass? a. anabolic steroids b. arginine c. ephedrine d. !-alanine

a. anabolic steroids

The mean arterial pressure is defined as the a. average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle b. average of the systolic and diastolic blood pressures c. average systolic blood pressure during exercise d. average of blood pressure and heart rate

a. average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle

Growth cartilage in children is located at all of the following EXCEPT the a. diaphysis b. epiphyseal plate c. joint surface d. apophyseal insertion

a. diaphysis

Which of the following is NOT a component of an emergency plan? a. emergency medicine b. emergency communication c. emergency equipment d. emergency personnel

a. emergency medicine

Which of the following types of training is conducted at an intensity equal to the lactate threshold? a. pace/tempo b. interval c. high-intensity interval training (HIIT) d. Fartlek

a. pace/tempo

3. Which of the following energy systems produces ATP at the quickest rate? a. phosphagen b. aerobic glycolysis c. fat oxidation d. fast glycolysis

a. phosphagen

An operational plan should be created in which of the following phases? a. predesign phase b. design phase c. construction phase d. preoperation phase

a. predesign phase

Which of the following makes the GREATEST contribution to total energy expenditure? a. resting metabolic rate b. physical activity energy expenditure c. thermic effect of food d. resting blood sugar levels

a. resting metabolic rate

A vertical jump involves knee, hip, and shoulder movement primarily in which of the following anatomical planes? a. sagittal b. perpendicular c. frontal d. transverse

a. sagittal

An Olympic weightlifter attempting a personal record is able to ignore the audience to concentrate solely on her performance. Which of the following abilities is this athlete most likely using to perform the exercise? a. selective attention b. somatic anxiety c. guided discovery d. self-efficacy

a. selective attention

Maintaining adequate glycogen stores a. spares the use of protein for energy b. improves maximum power c. decreases endurance performance d. helps athletes gain weight

a. spares the use of protein for energy

In upright sprinting, an athlete's stride length is largely dependent on _______________. a. the amount of vertical force produced during the stance phase b. the athlete's flexibility c. the athlete's stride rate d. the amount of horizontal force produced during the toe-off of the stance phase

a. the amount of vertical force produced during the stance phase

Which of the following is a rationale for using variable-resistance training methods? a. to accommodate the changing mechanical advantages associated with constant-loaded exercises b. to minimize force application throughout the full range of motion c. to increase the time spent decelerating during a lifting motion d. to keep the applied resistance constant during changes in joint angle

a. to accommodate the changing mechanical advantages associated with constant-loaded exercises

A college basketball coach would like to know which one of her players has the most muscular power. Which of the following is the MOST valid test for measuring muscular power? a. vertical jump b. 1RM bench press c. 5RM squat d. 100 m (109-yard) sprint

a. vertical jump

It took an American football lineman 14 seconds to complete 10 repetitions of a 102 kg bench press. If the bar had to travel 1.47 meters each repetition, what was the average power output during this set?A. 107.1 W.B. 1,049.58 W.C. 14,694.12 W.D. 20,991.6 W.

Which type of muscle arrangement is NOT matched with the correct muscle example?a. Rectus femoris: Bipennate.b. Biceps Brachii: Longitudinal.c. Deltoid: Multipennate.d. Gluteus Medius: Radiate.

You are instructing a volleyball player on the proper execution of the jump and reach drill. During this lower body plyometric drill, arm action would be described as?a) Single.b) Double.c) Reciprocal.d) None.

Which of the following occurs during the QRS complex of a typical ECG? I. depolarization of the atrium II. repolarization of the atrium III. repolarization of the ventricle IV. depolarization of the ventricle a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. II, III, and IV only

b. II and IV only

How does an athlete's optimal level of arousal change with limited skill and ability to perform the activity? a. It increases. b. It decreases. c. It has no effect. d. It is not related to the activity

b. It decreases.

Which of the following is the BEST reason for aerobic endurance athletes to avoid erythropoietin use? a. Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels may decrease. b. It may cause an unregulated increase in red blood cell production c. Resistance to infectious disease may be impaired. d. It may reduce the ability of the blood to carry oxygen.

b. It may cause an unregulated increase in red blood cell production

If during the tire flip the athlete's hips rise faster than the shoulders during the initial pushing motion, what is an effective correction to give the athlete? a. Start with a higher hip position. b. Keep the hips slightly below the shoulders in this position. c. Lift the tire upward instead of driving it forward. d. Push with the arms first.

b. Keep the hips slightly below the shoulders in this position.

From which of the following is the heart's electrical impulse normally initiated? a. AV node b. SA node c. the brain d. the sympathetic nervous system

b. SA node

Which of the following sequences will produce the MOST reliable results? a. 1RM power clean, T-test, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run, 1RM bench press b. T-test, 1RM power clean, 1RM bench press, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run c. 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run, 1RM bench press, T-test, 1RM power clean d. 1RM bench press, 1RM power clean, T-test, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run

b. T-test, 1RM power clean, 1RM bench press, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run

Which of the following substances regulates muscle actions? a. potassium b. calcium c. troponin d. tropomyosin

b. calcium

The primary macronutrient that is addressed in the precompetition meal is a. fat b. carbohydrate c. protein d. vitamin

b. carbohydrate

Which of the following is NOT a function of growth hormone? a. increase lipolysis b. decrease collagen synthesis c. increase amino acid transport d. decrease glucose utilization

b. decrease collagen synthesis

Select the aspect of training that requires additional emphasis when the aim is to improve change-of-direction ability. a. strength b. eccentric strength c. reactive strength d. rate of force development

b. eccentric strength

Which of the following substances can be metabolized anaerobically? a. glycerol b. glucose c. amino acids d. free fatty acids

b. glucose

Which of the following is the method most commonly used to assign and regulate exercise intensity? a. oxygen consumption b. heart rate c. ratings of perceived exertion d. race pace

b. heart rate

Which of the following BEST explains the need for increased protein intake by athletes? a. decreased protein oxidation during aerobic exercise b. increased need for tissue repair c. restriction of calories to lose weight d. the quality of protein consumed

b. increased need for tissue repair

Deconditioned female college athletes who participate in sports such as basketball and soccer appear to be at increased risk for developing injuries to the a. back b. knee c. wrist d. neck

b. knee

When compiling results from the volleyball team's vertical jump testing, the strength and conditioning professional notices that most scores are similar, but there are three scores that are much higher than the rest. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most appropriate for this group? a. mean b. median c. mode d. variance

b. median

When throwing a baseball, an athlete's arm is rapidly stretched just before throwing the ball. Which of the following structures detects and responds to that stretch by reflexively increasing muscle activity? a. Golgi tendon organ b. muscle spindle c. extrafusal muscle d. Pacinian corpuscle

b. muscle spindle

Which of the following structures detects rapid movement and initiates the stretch reflex? a. Golgi tendon organ b. muscle spindle c. extrafusal muscle fiber d. Pacinian corpuscle

b. muscle spindle

For a high school American football team, if any player squats two times his body weight, his name is placed on the wall. This is an example of a. negative reinforcement b. positive reinforcement c. negative punishment d. positive punishment

b. positive reinforcement

An American football lineman has difficulty driving into defensive linemen and believes he has lost his explosive ability. Which of the following is the BEST exercise order to help this athlete improve his performance? a. back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl, power clean b. power clean, back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl c. leg (knee) curl, back squat, power clean, hip sled d. hip sled, power clean, leg (knee) curl, back squat

b. power clean, back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl

What percentage of the 1RM allows an athlete to perform 6 repetitions of a given exercise?a) 70.b) 75.c) 85.d) 95.

You have decided to use tire flips as part of the offseason conditioning program for a college football offensive lineman. Which of the following are suggested guidelines for tire selection and exercise setup?I. The tire should not be shorter than the athlete.II. The exercise surface should be hard.III. Tires with good tread are easier to grip .IV. Narrow tires are easier to flip for tall athletes.A. I, II only.B. II, III, IV only.C. II,III only.D. I, II, III only.

. Which of the following is the definition of power? a. (mass) ∙ (acceleration) b. (force) ∙ (distance) c. (force) ∙ (velocity) d. (torque) ∙ (time)

c. (force) ∙ (velocity)

What is the recommended coach-to-participant ratio during peak weight room usage time in a collegiate setting? a. 1:10 b. 1:15 c. 1:20 d. 1:25

c. 1:20

What is the recommended minimum distance between the floor and the bottom of mirrors on the walls? a. 16 inches (41 cm) b. 18 inches (46 cm) c. 20 inches (51 cm) d. 22 inches (56 cm)

c. 20 inches (51 cm)

What is the minimum recommended space between the ends of racks to provide room for spotters? ] a. 1 foot (30 cm) b. 2 feet (61 cm) c. 3 feet (91 cm) d. 4 feet (123 cm)

c. 3 feet (91 cm)

4. Approximately how many net ATP are produced via the oxidative energy system from the metabolism of one glucose molecule? a. 27 b. 34 c. 38 d. 41

c. 38

Which of the following tests is NOT used to measure maximum muscular power? a. Margaria-Kalamen test b. vertical jump c. 40-yard (37 m) sprint d. 1RM power clean

c. 40-yard (37 m) sprint

Training on instability devices can reduce the overall agonist force production capacity and power output of the athlete to less than ______ of what can be achieved in a stable condition. a. 20% b. 50% c. 70% d. 90%

c. 70%

All of the following individuals can provide medical supervision during a college soccer match EXCEPT the a. athletic trainer b. team physician c. Certified Strength and Conditioning Specialist d. Sports Certified Physical Therapist

c. Certified Strength and Conditioning Specialist

An athlete is performing a concentric isokinetic elbow flexion and extension exercise. Which of the following type(s) of levers occur(s) at the elbow during this exercise? I. first class II. second class III. third class a. I only b. II only c. I and III only d. II and III only

c. I and III only

Primary training adaptations of elite aerobically trained athletes include which of the following? I. increased maximal oxygen uptake II. decreased blood lactate concentration III. increased running economy IV. decreased capillary density a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. II, III, and IV only

c. I, II, and III only

When measuring maximal strength of a soccer player, which of the following could potentially adversely affect the test-retest reliability of the results? I. using multiple testers II. retesting at a different time of day III. an athlete's inexperience with the tested exercise IV. using an established testing protocol a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. II, III, and IV only

c. I, II, and III only

Which of the following adaptations occur as an outcome of an aerobic endurance training program? I. increased oxygen delivery to working tissues II. higher rate of aerobic energy production III. greater utilization of fat as a fuel source IV. increased disturbance of the acid-base balance a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. II, III, and IV only

c. I, II, and III only

Which of the following should be assessed before beginning a lower body plyometric training program? I. balance II. strength III. training history IV. lean body mass a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and III only d. I, II, III, and IV

c. I, II, and III only

. Which of the following grips should be used during the deadlift exercise? I. overhand II. closed III. open IV. alternated a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I, II, and IV only d. II, III, and IV only

c. I, II, and IV only

In teaching the push press, which of the following is an example of segmentation with pure-part training integration? a. Practice the push press without any equipment, progress to practice with a PVC pipe, and end with an unloaded bar. b. Practice the dip, followed by the dip with the drive, and end with practice of the entire push press. c. Practice the dip, the drive, and the catch independently before practicing the entire push press. d. Practice the dip and the drive independently, followed by practice of the dip with the drive; then practice the catch independently and end with practice of the entire push press.

c. Practice the dip, the drive, and the catch independently before practicing the entire push press.

Drills or tests that require the athlete to move rapidly in response to a stimulus such as a whistle, arrow, or opponent are best for measuring which of the following? a. change of direction b. maneuverability c. agility d. acceleration

c. agility

During which of the following periods are sport-specific activities performed in the greatest volume? a. preparatory b. first transition c. competition d. second transition

c. competition

Stimulation of muscle spindles induces a a. relaxation of GTOs b. relaxation of the stretched muscle c. contraction of the stretched muscle d. contraction of the reciprocal muscle

c. contraction of the stretched muscle

Which of the following hormones has the greatest influence on neural changes? a. growth hormone b. testosterone c. cortisol d. IGF

c. cortisol

Which of the following is a reason for a trial of the T-test to be disqualified (see figure 13.11)? a. touching the base of cone D b. shuffling from cone C to cone D c. crossing the feet from cone B to cone C d. running forward from cone A to cone B

c. crossing the feet from cone B to cone C

Which of the following types of plyometric drills is generally considered to be the MOST intense? a. jumps in place b. bounds c. depth jumps d. box jumps

c. depth jumps

The loss of physiological adaptations upon the cessation of training is an example of a. specificity of training b. cross-training c. detraining d. tapering

c. detraining

Which of the following is a nontemperature-related effect of a warm-up? a. enhanced neural function b. disruption of transient connective tissue bonds c. elevation of baseline oxygen consumption d. increase in muscle temperature

c. elevation of baseline oxygen consumption

When an eating disorder is suspected, the strength and conditioning professional should a. monitor the athlete's daily food intake b. require frequent weigh-ins c. encourage further assessment by an eating disorder specialist d. provide nutritional information

c. encourage further assessment by an eating disorder specialist

Creatine supplementation improves all of the following variables EXCEPT a. lean body mass b. maximal strength c. endurance performance d. power

c. endurance performance

The strength and conditioning professional's knowledge and skill development includes competencies in all of the following EXCEPT a. exercise and sport science b. administration and management c. finance and appraisal d. teaching and coaching

c. finance and appraisal

Elite sprinters produce ____________ forces in a _____________ ground contact time as compared to their novice counterparts. a. larger, longer b. similar, shorter c. larger, shorter d. smaller, longer

c. larger, shorter

When relating the season terminology to periodization periods, which season corresponds to the preparatory period of training? a. in-season b. preseason c. off-season d. postseason

c. off-season

The condition characterized by a bone mineral density more than 2.5 SD below the young adult mean is called a. sarcopenia b. osteopenia c. osteoporosis d. scoliosis

c. osteoporosis

Which of the following is characteristic of anorexia nervosa? a. normal body weight b. very low dietary fat intake c. preoccupation with food d. secretive eating

c. preoccupation with food

Following a period of chronic high-intensity resistance training, a variety of physiological adaptations take place in a number of systems within the body that promote improved athletic performance in strength/power activities. If an elite athlete were to undergo 12 weeks of heavy strength training, which of the following adaptations would NOT be expected consequent to this type of anaerobic exercise? a. a transition from Type IIx to Type IIa muscle fiber b. increased pennation angle in certain muscle groups c. reduced sarcoplasmic reticulum and T-tubule density d. elevated sodium-potassium ATPase activity

c. reduced sarcoplasmic reticulum and T-tubule density

Which of the following stretching techniques decreases muscle spindle stimulation? a. dynamic b. ballistic c. static d. passive

c. static

Which of the following individuals is responsible for allowing an athlete to begin formal involvement in a strength and conditioning program? a. athletic director b. athlete's parent or guardian c. team's certified athletic trainer d. strength and conditioning professional

c. team's certified athletic trainer

axial skeletol

consists of the skull (cranium), vertebral column (vertebra C1 through the coccyx), ribs, and sternum.

The primary goal of periodization involves preplanned, systematic variations in training in order to... Allow sufficient recovery before competition Promote long-term training and performance improvements Prolong performance plateaus Prevent excessive muscle hypertrophy

correct Answer:Promote long-term training and performance improvements Explanation:As athletes train over time, their body's physiological adaptations will occur less frequently, causing their performance to plateau. Periodization is a program design strategy that introduces preplanned variations in the athlete's training to generate stimuli that promotes continuous performance improvements.

sarcoplasm

cytoplasm of muscle fiber contains contractile components consisting of protein filaments, other proteins, stored glycogen and fat particles, enzymes, and specialized organelles such as mitochondria and the sarcoplasm

D 531 What stage of sprinting consists of eccentric hip flexion, concentric knee extension and concentric plantar flexion?a) Early flight.b) Mid flight.c) Early support.d) Late support.

D 631 Benches should be spaced so that there is a minimum of how many inches between barbell ends?a) 18 inches.b) 24 inches.c) 30 inches.d) 36 inches.

The women's soccer coach felt the team hustled especially hard at today's practice and announced that no wind sprints would be required at the end of practice. Which type of motivational phenomena does this relate to?a) Positive reinforcement.b) Achievement motivation.c) Intrinsic motivation.d) Negative reinforcement.

Which of the following represents a physiological role of Growth Hormone?A. Increases glucose utilization.B. Increases glycogen synthesis.C. Decreases retention of sodium.D. Increases retention of potassium.

The rotator cuff muscles act as stabilizers to the shoulder joint. During the maturation-remodeling phase of rotator cuff (supraspinatus muscle) tendinitis rehabilitation of a basketball player, what exercise repetition range is MOST appropriate for improving the muscular endurance of the rotator cuff muscles? a. 3-5 b. 5-8 c. 8-12 d. 12-20

d. 12-20

A female triathlete needs to improve the muscular endurance of her upper body. Using three sets of 15 repetitions per exercise, which of the following rest period lengths will MAXIMIZE her goal? a. 3 minutes b. 1.5 minutes c. 45 seconds d. 30 seconds

d. 30 seconds

5. Which of the following energy substrates cannot be depleted during extreme exercise intensities or durations? a. creatine phosphate b. glycogen c. water d. ATP

d. ATP

In which of the following athletes might you expect limited bone mineral density (BMD) levels as a consequence of the force vectors and the physical demands associated with the given sport? a. a 16-year-old gymnast with a seven-year training history in her sport b. a 23-year-old offensive lineman who has lifted weights for eight years c. a 33-year-old track cyclist who has a 1RM squat of 352 pounds d. a 19-year-old 800 m freestyle swimmer with one year of dryland training

d. a 19-year-old 800 m freestyle swimmer with one year of dryland training

An athlete's desire to perform to his or her potential is an example of a. motive to avoid failure b. autogenic training c. selective attention d. achievement motivation

d. achievement motivation

To compare performances of Olympic weightlifters of different body weights, the classic formula divides the load lifted by the athlete's a. body weight b. body weight squared c. lean body weight d. body weight to the two-thirds power

d. body weight to the two-thirds power

Which of the following does NOT normally increase during an aerobic exercise session? a. end-diastolic volume b. cardiac contractility c. cardiac output d. diastolic blood pressure

d. diastolic blood pressure

After a bout of resistance training, acute hormonal secretions provide all of the following information to the body EXCEPT a. amount of physiological stress b. metabolic demands of exercise c. type of physiological stress d. energy expended

d. energy expended

A 17-year-old high school cross-country runner has been training aerobically for six months in preparation for the upcoming season. Which of the following adaptations will occur in the muscles during that time? a. increased concentration of glycolytic enzymes b. hyperplasia of Type II fibers c. transformation from Type I to Type II fibers d. hypertrophy of Type I fibers

d. hypertrophy of Type I fibers

. An 8-year-old boy dramatically increased his upper body strength after following a six-month resistance training program. Which of the following is MOST likely responsible for this gain? a. increased number of muscle fibers b. enhanced cross-sectional area c. greater muscle density d. improved neuromuscular functioning

d. improved neuromuscular functioning

Which of the following is NOT a phase of the stretch-shortening cycle? a. amortization b. concentric c. eccentric d. isometric

d. isometric

Proper documentation is essential to the strength and conditioning facility. Which of the following is NOT part of the records that should be kept on file in the strength and conditioning facility? a. manufacturer's user's manual b. participant training logs c. written emergency plan d. medical health history

d. medical health history

Which of the following should be evaluated FIRST when one is designing a training program for a 68-yearold competitive female tennis player? a. cardiovascular fitness b. lower body strength c. balance and agility d. medical history

d. medical history

Which of the following is NOT a key consideration when determining the space requirements of a college strength and conditioning facility? a. accessibility for the athletes b. amount and type of equipment c. number of athletes using the facility d. number of athletic teams desiring to use the facility

d. number of athletic teams desiring to use the facility

The longest aerobic endurance training sessions should be performed during which of the following sport seasons? a. postseason b. preseason c. in-season d. off-season

d. off-season

What is the order of the four phases involved in designing a new strength and conditioning facility? a. construction, predesign, design, preoperation b. preoperation, design, construction, predesign c. predesign, construction, design d. predesign, design, construction, preoperation

d. predesign, design, construction, preoperation

Which of the following is a recommendation for lowering undesirably high levels of blood lipids? a. reduce complex carbohydrate intake b. limit saturated fatty acid intake to 30% of total calories c. consume a minimum of 500 mg of dietary cholesterol per day d. replace saturated fatty acids with monounsaturated or polyunsaturated fatty acids

d. replace saturated fatty acids with monounsaturated or polyunsaturated fatty acids

Which of the following exercises requires a spotter? a. lat pulldown b. wrist curl c. power clean d. step-up

d. step-up

When stimulated during PNF stretching, Golgi tendon organs allow the relaxation of the a. stretched muscle by contracting the reciprocal muscle b. reciprocal muscle by contracting the stretched muscle c. reciprocal muscle by its own contraction d. stretched muscle by its own contraction

d. stretched muscle by its own contraction

The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle during each beat is the a. cardiac output b. a-vǦ O2 difference c. heart rate d. stroke volume

d. stroke volume

What does the term impulse refer to? a. the relationship between power and velocity b. the relationship between acceleration and velocity c. the relationship between force and velocity d. the relationship between force and time

d. the relationship between force and time

Unipennate

fascicles insert into one side of tendon tib post, EDL

3rd class lever

fulcrum at the end, effort in the middle; tweezers, baseball bat fulcrum, muscle, resistance elbow flex

pennate muscles

have shorter fibers arranged obliquely to their tendons in a manner similar to a feather arrangement increases the cross sectional area of the muscle, thereby increasing the power greater pennation= greater force

Creatine kinase

muscle enzyme found in skeletal and cardiac muscle; Creatine kinase is the enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of ATP from CP and ADP in the following reaction: ADP + CP (↔creatine kinase↔) ATP + Creatine

Two ATP are "invested" in the metabolism of one molecule of glucose. Where did that molecule of glucose come from? Blood Glycogen Oxygen

orrect Answer:Blood Explanation:Two ATP are invested if the glucose molecule came from the bloodstream. Glucose that comes from glycogen is already phosphorylated (glucose-1-phosphate) and therefore does not need a phosphate group added to it for it to become glucose-6-phosphate. Glucose does not come from oxygen.

When pyruvate is converted to lactate, what is the function of NADH in the process? removes a proton from pyruvate donates a proton to pyruvate

orrect Answer:NADH donates a proton to pyruvate Explanation:Pyruvate is converted to lactate when energy needs are high and there is insufficient oxygen present. NAD+ is needed for glycolysis to continue making pyruvate from glucose. In order to create more NAD+, lactic acid fermentation (aka "fast glycolysis" or "anaerobic glycolysis") takes place. Lactic acid fermentation involves lactate dehydrogenase enzyme causing NADH to donate a proton (H+) to pyruvate. By NADH giving up a proton (H+), it becomes NAD+ once again and glycolysis can continue.

A molecule of pyruvate is reduced to form a molecule of lactate. During this reaction, which of the following processes facilitates this reaction? ADP ---> ATP ATP ---> ADP NAD+ ---> NADH NADH ---> NAD+

orrect Answer:NADH —> NAD+ Explanation:The question stem says that a molecule of pyruvate is "reduced." If pyruvate is being reduced, it is accepting an electron. Of the answer choices provided, NADH provides the electron to pyruvate, thereby "reducing" it. The NADH is oxidized (loses an electron) in the process and becomes NAD+.

By the end of the first pull of the power clean, where should the bar be located? At the knees Mid-thigh Middle of shin

orrect answer: At the knees The starting position of the power clean is when the bar should be located mid-shin because the bar starts on the ground. At the end of the first pull, the bar should reach to the knees. After the first pull comes the transition, and this is when the bar reaches mid-thigh, just before the second pull begins.

Acceleration

rate of change of velocity velocity per unit time

second class lever

the load is between the fulcrum and the effort plantar flexion against resistance

CSCS

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