CSIA105

What is the advantage of a secure cookie? a. It is sent to the server over HTTPS. b. It is analyzed by AV before it is transmitted. c. It only exists in RAM and is deleted once the web browser is closed. d. It cannot be stored on the local computer without the user's express permission.

a. It is sent to the server over HTTPS.

What are the two concerns about using public information sharing centers? a. Privacy and speed b. Security and privacy c. Regulatory approval and sharing d. Cost and availability

a. Privacy and speed

Which of the following is NOT an important OS security configuration? a. Restricting patch management b. Disabling default accounts c. Disabling unnecessary services d. Employing least functionality

a. Restricting patch management

Which of the following is not an improvement of UEFI over BIOS? a. Support of USB 3.0 b. Access larger hard drives c. Stronger boot security d. Networking functionality in UEFI

a. Support of USB 3.0

What are the two limitations of private information sharing centers? a. Government approval and cost b. Access to data and participation c. Bandwidth and CPU d. Timing of reports and remote access

b. Access to data and participation

Which of the following is FALSE about a quarantine process? a. It can send a sanitized version of the attachment. b. It holds a suspicious application until the user gives approval. c. It is most often used with email attachments. d. It can send a URL to the document that is on a restricted computer.

b. It holds a suspicious application until the user gives approval.

What does Windows 10 Tamper Protection do? a. Creates a secure backup copy of the registry b. Limits access to the registry c. Compresses and locks the registry d. Prevents any updates to the registry until the user approves the update.

b. Limits access to the registry

Which boot security mode sends information on the boot process to a remote server? a. Secure Boot b. Measured Boot c. UEFI Native Mode d. Trusted Boot

b. Measured Boot

Which stage conducts a test that will verify the code functions as intended? a. Production stage b. Staging stage c. Development stage d. Testing stage

b. Staging stage

Which of the following is an application protocol for exchanging cyberthreat intelligence over HTTPS? a. STIX b. TAXII c. AIP-TAR d. TCP-Over-Secure (ToP)

b. TAXII

Which privacy protection uses four colors to indicate the expected sharing limitations that are to be applied by recipients of the information? a. PCII b. TLP c. CISA d. FOIA

b. TLP

Which of the following is NOT an advantage to an automated patch update service? a. Specific types of updates that the organization does not test, such as hotfixes, can be automatically installed whenever they become available. b. Users can disable or circumvent updates just as they can if their computer is configured to use the vendor's online update service. c. Administrators can approve or decline updates for client systems, force updates to install by a specific date, and obtain reports on what updates each computer needs. d. Downloading patches from a local server instead of using the vendor's online update service can save bandwidth and time because each computer does not have to connect to an external server.

b. Users can disable or circumvent updates just as they can if their computer is configured to use the vendor's online update service.

Luka has been asked by his supervisor to monitor the dark web for any IOCs concerning their organization. The next week, Luca reports back that he was unable to find anything due to how looking for information on the dark web is different from using the regular web. Which of the following is not different about looking for information on the dark web? a. Dark web merchants open and close their sites without warning. b. It is necessary to use Tor or IP2. c. Dark web search engines are identical to regular search engines. d. The naming structure is different on the dark web.

c. Dark web search engines are identical to regular search engines.

Oskar has been receiving emails about critical threat intelligence information from a public information sharing center. His team leader has asked him to look into how the process can be automated so that the information can feed directly into their technology security. What technology will Oskar recommend? a. Bidirectional Security Protocol (BSP) b. Linefeed Access c. Lightwire JSON Control d. Automated Indicator Sharing (AIS)

d. Automated Indicator Sharing (AIS)

What type of analysis is heuristic monitoring based on? a. Static analysis b. Code analysis c. Input analysis d. Dynamic analysis

d. Dynamic analysis

Which of the following tries to detect and stop an attack? a. HIDS b. RDE c. SOMA d. HIPS

d. HIPS

An IOC occurs when what metric exceeds its normal bounds? a. IRR b. LRG c. EXR d. KRI

d. KRI

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of a threat map? a. Threat actors usually mask their real locations so what is displayed on a threat map is incorrect. b. Many maps claim that they show data in real time, but most are simply a playback of previous attacks. c. Because threat maps show anonymized data it is impossible to know the identity of the attackers or the victims. d. They can be difficult to visualize.

d. They can be difficult to visualize.

Which model uses a sequential design process? a. Rigid model b. Secure model c. Agile model d. Waterfall model

d. Waterfall model

Which of these is a list of preapproved applications? a. Blacklist b. Greenlist c. Redlist d. Whitelist

d. Whitelist