De 11_2020

Ace your homework & exams now with Quizwiz!

.16. Which of the following test types are EXAMPLES of non-functional tests ? I. Acceptance test II. Regression test III.Load test IV.Component test V. Usability test Select one: a. I, III and V b. III and V c. I, II and IV d. II, III and V

b

.23. Which one is the definition of use case? Select one: a. A response of on e system to users interaction with other, integrated systems b. A sequence of steps that describe the interactions between the actor (system or user) and the system c. An description of an environment in which a system needs to operate d. An operation on a system by a user, with no regards to the systems response

b

.27. Which of the following statements is true about the minimum number of test cases required to reach a 100% statement and branch coverage of the piece of program below? Read A Read B If (A+B > 100) then Print "Hello" Endif If (A > 50) then Print "world" Endif Select one: a. 2 test case for statement coverage& 2 test case for branch coverage b. 1 test case for statement coverage& 2 test case for branch coverage c. 1 test case for statement coverage& 1 test case for branch coverage d. 1 test case for statement coverage& 3 test case for branch coverage

b

.18. The following open incident report provided: Date : 01.01.01 Description: When pressing the stop button the application status remain in "Attention"instead of "Ready" Severity: High Life cycle: Integration Which of the following details are missing in the giving incident report? I. Identification or configuration of the application II. The name of the developer III. Recommendation of the developer IV. The actions and/or conditions that came before the pressing of the button Select one: a. IV b. II, III c. I, IV d. I, II

c

.20. Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test processes activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed? Select one: a. Requirements specification b. Analysis and design c. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting d. Implementation and execution

c

.25. Which of the following is NOT an example of dynamic testing? Select one: a. Coverage analysis b. Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it c. Code inspection d. Testing for performance

c

.33. For which of the following activities is a static analysis tool not useful? Select one: a. Calculation of complexity of the code b. Enforcement of coding standards c. Quantitative analysis related to the tests (e.g tests passed) d. Calculation of complexity of the code

c

.34. Four equivalences classes are given for integer value, 0<x<100& 100<=x<=200& 200<x<500& x>=500, Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions? Select one: a. 0, 50, 100, 150, 200, 350, 500 b. 50, 100, 200, 1000 c. 50, 100, 250, 1000 d. 0, 1, 99, 100, 200, 201, 499, 500

c

.36. Which of the following statements correctly describe black-box testing? Select one: a. Test of the interfaces between components and of the interactions with different parts of a system b. Test on an individual software component in isolation from other components, to avoid external influence c. Tests that investigate the input vs. the output behavior of a software system d. Test derived from the ability of the testers and their intuition and experience with similar applications and technologies (sometimes used to strengthen systematic techniques)

c

.39. Which one of the following statements about independent testing is not correct? Select one: a. Independent testing may be performed at any level of testing b. Independent testing is often more effective at finding defects and failures c. Independent testing is not appropriate for unit testing d. Independent testing can be performed by developers with the right mindset

c

.29. Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE? I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items. II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for any test level. III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table. IV. Expressing the input conditions of interest so that they are boolean values. Select one: a. II, III b. I, III c. I, IV d. II, IV

d

.32. Load testing tool checks for : Select one: a. Monitoring system resources b. The amount of testers needed in order to achieve "dead line" c. Correct behavior of the system under test d. Time response and system breaking point

d

.07. The following program part is given: IF (condition A) or (condition B) Then DO C END IF How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% decision coverage? Select one: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

b

.06. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing? Select one: a. It mainly tests interfaces and interactions between components b. It identifies defects in the functionality of modules, objects and classes c. It may be applied using a test-first approach. d. Simulators and stubs may be required

a

.08. Consider the following statements about risk-based testing: I. Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of project risks. II. Tests should be prioritized to find the critical defects as early as possible. III. Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk. IV. Risks have to be reassessed on a regular basis. V. The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks. Select one: a. II, III, IV and V are correct. I is false b. II, III and V are true. I and IV are false c. I, II and IV are true. III and V are false d. I, III, IV and V are true. II is false

a

.09. At which stage of the fundamental test process do testers write the steps of the test procedures? Select one: a. Test implementation and execution b. Test closure activates c. Test planning and control d. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

a

.13. While reporting a defect, which of the following indicates the level of business importance assigned to the defect? Select one: a. Priority b. Severity c. Difficulty d. Urgency

a

.15. In performance testing, tools can be used to collect metrics. Which statement about monitoring tools is correct? Select one: a. They make it possible to observe possible performance problems and give warnings b. They store version information and can be replaced by configuration management tools c. They are technical tools a used by developers and not testers d. They supervise the testing effort and report related metrics

a

.17. Question 4 / 40 Which of the following statements about roles in a typical formal review is correct ? Select one: a. The manager allocates time in project schedules b. The manager is responsible for planning the review c. The author documents the problems and open points d. The moderator determines if the review objectives have been met

a

.21. When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved which of the following techniques should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique in order to achieve highest coverage? Select one: a. Multiple condition coverage b. Statement coverage c. Use case testing d. Decision table

a

.26. Which of the following statements are correct ? I. System testing is often carried out by an independent test team. II. The main goal in acceptance testing is to find defects III. Component testing may include testing of functionality and non functional characteristics. IV. User acceptance testing typically verifies the fitness for use of the system by business users. V. The environment for system testing should correspond to the production environment. Select one: a. I, III, IV, V b. II, III, IV c. II, III, V d. I, II, V

a

.30. During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from a particular set of files, which are part of a critical workflow, the word processor crashes. Which of the following is the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation? Select one: a. Perform bug isolation to find the conditions that cause the crash b. Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem c. Report the incident as is without any further action d. Do a root cause analysis

a

.31. Given the following two programs: Program X: If A>B then Execute function _A() Else Execute function _B() Endif Execute function _C() Program Y if D > E then Execute function _D() endif Execute function _E() Execute function _F() Which one of the following is an INCORRECT statement about the programs? Select one: a. At least 2 test cases are needed to achieve 100% statement coverage of program Y b. At least 2 test cases are needed to achieve 100% decision coverage of program Y c. At least 2 test cases are needed to achieve 100% statement coverage of program X d. At least 2 test cases are needed to achieve 100% decision coverage of program X

a

.04. Which testing technique is the most suitable for testing the functionality of a fully computerized elevator ? Select one: a. Decision table testing b. State Transition Testing c. Use case testing d. Man machine interface testing

b

.38. You have to specify test cases based on equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis for an internet shop selling baby shoes. The shop provides a selection of shoes based on the following input parameters There are 4 different sizes, depending on the age of the baby. The system selects the appropriate size based on the following criteria: 1. 0 < age <= 4 months: size 1 2. 4 < age <= 8 months: size 2 3. 8 < age <= 15 months: size 3 4.15 < age <= 24 months: size 4 The gender of the baby: boy or girl Which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. There are two invalid equivalence classes for the age input parameter b. The total number of combinations of valid equivalence classes of age and gender is 8 c. All combinations of valid equivalence classes could be covered with 4 test cases d. All valid equivalence classes could be covered with 6 test cases

b

.01. Methodical approaches use which of following test techniques? a. Risk based b. Expert based c. Failure based d. Exploratory testing

c

.05. Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality? Select one: a. Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities b. Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system c. The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects d. Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality

c

.10. Which of the following is wrong? Select one: a. Static analysis tools support developers and testers in finding defects before dynamic testing b. Monitoring tools provide information that can be used for testing purposes c. Test execution tools generate test inputs or executable tests e.g. from requirements d. Security tools check for viruses and denial of service attacks

c

.14. Which of the following is correct? Select one: a. Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect b. Testing tools allow developers do testing. Use of such tools changes the role of the test team c. Testing tools can be use by both developers and testers d. Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system

c

.02. Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool? a. Test comparator b. Database model checker c. Coverage measurement tool d. Memory leak detector

d

.03. Which of the following are valid testing principles ? I. Exhaustive testing is in general impossible II. Exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused III. Testing may guarantee that a program is correct IV. Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct V. Defects cluster together in certain areas of the product Select one: a. I, V b. II, IV c. II, IV d. I, IV, V

d

.11. Which of the following statements correctly characterizes the risk analysis used in testing ? I. The risk level depends on the probability of occurrence of an undesired event. II. The risk level is determined by the probability of occurrence of an undesired event and by its impact. III. Project risks are those that characterize the project ability to achieve its objectives. IV. Product risks are areas of potential failures (i.e. future undesired events ) in the software or system. Select one: a. I, II, III b. I, II c. III, IV d. II, III, IV

d

.12. A system for calculation of taxes has the people's age as input. The "Age" field is supposed to accept integer numbers between 18 and 75 (including). Which is the correct result of boundary value analysis? Select one: a. 0, 18, 75, 99 b. 17, 18, 19, 50,75, 76 c. 0, 17, 18, 75, 76, 99 d. 17, 18, 75, 76

d

.19. Which of the following is the most important task of a typical test leader? Select one: a. To automate tests b. To prepare and acquire test data c. To set up the test environment d. To coordinate the test strategy with project managers

d

.22. Consider the following excerpt from a defect report, "To recreate the failure we used test file TST_01_TC_16.dat, which is available in the common shared folder." Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy? Select one: a. Provides test leaders with information to report test progress b. Provides ideas for test process improvement c. Does not belong in an incident report d. Provides developers with information to isolate the failure

d

.24. Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project? Select one: a. To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies b. To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers c. To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs d. To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact

d

.28. Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases? Select one: a. Covering only start and end states b. Can't be determined c. Covering all states at least once d. Covering all transitions at least once

d

.35. For withdrawing money from an automated teller machine (ATM), the following conditions are required: - The bank card is valid - The PIN code is correct - Money is available in the users account The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM: - The entered card is invalid: The card is rejected - The PIN code is wrong: The ATM asks for another PIN code -The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount - The requested amount is available in the user's account: The ATM dispense the money Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the input conditions? Select one: a. Use case based testing b. Boundary value analysis c. Equivalence class partitioning d. Decision table

d

.37. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be true of non-functional testing? Select one: a. It covers the evaluation of the interaction of various specified components b. It tests "how" the system works c. It may be performed at unit, integration, system and acceptance test levels d. It may include testing the ease of modification of systems

d

.40. Which of the following statements is correct? Select one: a. Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection b. Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together c. Pair programming is used usually in water fall model d. Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method

d


Related study sets

Chapter 9- Responding to Emergencies

View Set

Chapter 31: Caring for Clients with Disorders of the Hematopoietic System

View Set

Final Exam Study Guide Environmental Science

View Set

Chapter 35: Key Pediatric Nursing Interventions Prep U

View Set

Neuromuscular Practice Questions

View Set

Chapter 3: Evolution by Natural Selection

View Set

Terrorism, Mass casualty, Disaster: Complete

View Set