Diagnostic Imaging VTNE Prep
Anything below what Hounsfield unit is displayed as black on CT imaging? a. -750 HU b. 0 HU c. 250 HU d. none; black is not displayed on CT
A
Dental film should be placed in the mouth with the dimple facing: a. up and pointing rostrally b. up and pointing caudally c. down and pointing rostrally d. down and pointing caudally
A
For a mediolateral view of the tarsal joint of a horse, the cassette should be placed in which position? a. on the lateral surface b. on the medial surface c. on plantar surface d. on plantaromedial surface
A
Meters to measure the rate of exposure is also known as (A) Dosimeter (B) Fluoroscopy (C) Collimation (D) Shielding
A
What does MRI require to highlight injections, tumors, or vascular disease (A) Gadolinium (B) Iodine contrast (C) Barium (D) None of the above
A
What does the acronym ALARA stand for? a. as low as reasonably achievable b. animal limited anatomical radiation assessment c. as large as radiation accepts d. none of the above
A
What is the correct definition of the abbreviation B mode in ultrasound? a. brightness b. bits c. binary d. power mode
A
What is the maximum number of focal points that are recommended for use in ultrasound? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
A
What is the purpose of the foil backing found on dental x-ray film? a. to absorb exiting remnant radiation b. to be able to mold to the shape of the tooth c. to create a waterproof barrier around the film d. none of the above
A
What is the speed of sound through air? a. 330 m/s b. 600m/s c. 1540 m/s d. 4080 m/s
A
When scanning in a sagittal plane, where is the cranial aspect of the patient's bod displayed on the ultrasound monitor? a. left side of monitor b. right side of monitor c. top of monitor d. bottom of monitor
A
Where should the cassette be held when obtaining a dorsomedial-palmarolateral oblique view of the carpus of a horse? a. against palmarolateral aspect of leg b. against medial aspect of leg c. against palmaromedial aspect of leg d. against palmar aspect of carpus
A
Which of the following best describe the word tomography? a. cut or section b. whole c. point of interest d. series of boxes or individual shades of information
A
Which of the following best describes the Nyquist point in ultrasound? a. point at which the maximum blood velocity is reached b. point of deepest penetration c. point at which a drop-out signal is reached and an image is no longer produced d. Nyquist point is not an ultrasound concern
A
Which of the following best describes the term fulcrum? a. point of interest b. distortion of resolution of anatomy above and below region of interest c. series of boxes or individual shades of information d. none of the above
A
Which of the following correctly defines the term shims in reference to MRI? a. pieces or plates of metal used to correct the magnetic field within the magnet b. coils or assemblies within the magnetic bore that enable the machine to create images in any plane c. devices that receive radio-wave signals from a bod part that is covered or contained by them d. none of the above
A
Which of the following is the best view for judging a major fracture dislocation and conformational abnormalities? a. lateral view b. flexed lateral c. medial oblique d. dorsopalmar view
A
Which of the following is the correct abbreviation to perform a caudalocranial radiograph? a. CdCr b. Dpa c. CrCd d. Cr
A
Which of the following radiographic terms describes the caudal surface of the hind limb distal to the carpus? a. plantar b. dorsoplantar c. palmar d. caudocranial
A
Which of the following radiographic terms describes the view when the primary x-ray beam enters the dorsal surface and exits the ventral surface of the patient? a. dorsoventral b. ventrodorsal c. craniocaudal d. caudocraial
A
Which of the following types of tissue absorb the most radiation? a. bone b. soft tissue c. fat d. bone, fat and soft tissue absorb the same amount of radiation
A
Which radiographic view provides the best accuracy for evaluating major fracture dislocation and conformational abnormalities in horses? a. lateral view b. medial oblique view c. flexed lateral view d. dorsopalmar view
A
Which type of magnet consists of two slabs of magnetic material facing each other? a. permanent magnets b. electromagnets c. resistive magnets d. superconducting magnets
A
A biarticular fracture is also known as a: a. corner fracture b. slab fracture c. chip fracture d. biarticular fractures do not exist
B
At what age in foals does the closure of the proximal growth plate of P2 occur? a. 4-22 w b. 18-30 w c. 22-38 w d. 18-38 w
B
Atoms that emit particles and energy to become stable are known as? (A) Photons (B) Radionuclides (C) Radioactive decay (D) Isotopes
B
For a dorsopalmar view of the metacarpus of a horse, which surface should the cassette be on? (A) The medial aspect (B) The palmar aspect (C) Palmaromedial aspect (D) Palmarolateral aspect
B
How does cerebrospinal fluid appear on a true T1 weighed image of MRI? a. white b. black c. different shades of gray d. none of the above
B
How is the gadolinium that is used in MRI excreted from the body (A) Liver (B) Kidneys (C) Lungs (D) GI tract
B
In MRI what are the various shades of gray referred to as? a. densities b. signal intensities c. hypoechoic d. hyperechoic
B
The ability to distinguish between two objects that are adjacent to each other, yet perpendicular to the sound wave in ultrasound, is described as: a. axial resolution b. lateral resolution c. longitudinal resolution d. azimuthal resolution
B
The number of detectors that are covered by the x-ray beam in the CT scanning is known as which type of field of view? a. display field of view b. scan field of view c. raw data d. image data
B
To obtain a craniocaudal view of the tibia of a small animal, that patient should be in which of the following positions? a. sternal recumbency b. dorsal recumbency c. right lateral recumbency d. left lateral recumbency
B
To obtain a dorsoventral view of the abdomen of a rabbit, where should the center of the beam be focused? a. over heart b. over liver c. center of bod cranial to caudal d. over thoracolumbar area
B
To perform an ultrasound in the intercostal region, which transducer would be ideal? (A) Linear probe (B) Microconvex probe (C) Phase array probe (D) All of the above would provide the same images
B
What does the gain control knob adjust on the ultrasound machines? a. power output b. brightness of image c. PRF scale used in PW doppler d. depth of image
B
What does the term pitch refer to in CT imaging? a. the calculation of an unknown value based on two known values on either side b. a ratio between the table movement in mm and the CT slice thickness c. type of helical scanning d. none of the above
B
What element is found within the transducer of an ultrasound machine? a. bucky b. piezoelectric ceramics c. magnets d. all of the above
B
What is the difference between color Doppler and power Doppler ultrasound? a. color doppler indicates velocity and power doppler indicates direction of flow b. power doppler is sensitive to slow flow and color doppler indicates direction of flow c. power doppler indicates direction of flow and color doppler indicates slow flow d. color doppler indicates arteries and power doppler indicates veins
B
What is the term used to describe a medical magnet's field strength? a. gauss b. tesla c. polarity d. precession
B
What size of power outlet is required to run a digital dental unit? (A) 70 kV (B) 110 V (C) 110 kV (D) 8 mA
B
When obtaining a lateral projection of the skull of small animals, where should the enter of the image occur? a. midway between tip of nose to just caudal to the occipital protuberance of the base b. lateral canthus of the eye socket c. between the eyes d. above the base of the tongue and just below the palate, approx at the commissure of the mouth
B
When using a dental x-ray unit, the end of the cone should be positioned at ___ inches from the patient's anatomy (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 10
B
When using the shaded-surface display process with CT, which Hounsfield units should be selected to view bone? a. -750 HU b. 160 HU c. -200 HU d. -800 HU
B
Which imaging modality is superior for demonstrating the brain and spinal cord? a. ultrasound b. MRI c. X-ray d. fluoroscopy
B
Which of the following best describes the use for Doppler ultrasound? a. doppler uses a motion mode that simultaneously creates a B mode image while displaying the motion of tissues over a 2D scale b. Doppler is used to image the flow of blood and other liquids as well as to measure their velocity c. doppler units display the different shades of gray d. none of the above
B
Which of the following is the best method for storing lead x-ray gowns? a. folded and kept in drawer to prevent overexposure b. hung up by shoulders when not in use c. draped across table with tail end hanging off side d. none of the above
B
Which of the following is the best view for detecting distal corner fractures? a. lateral view b. flexed lateral view c. medial oblique d. dorsopalmar view
B
Which of the following is the correct definition for the ultrasound term hypoechoic? a. bright gray b. dark gray c. white d. black
B
Which of the following is the most common medical magnet? a. resistive magnets b. superconducting magnets c. permanent magnets d. electromagnets
B
Which of the following radiographic terms describes the radiographic views distal to the carpus obtained by passing the primary x-ray beam from dorsal direction the palmar surface of forelimb? a. plantar b. dorsopalmar c. palmar d. caudocranial
B
Which of the following ultrasound artifacts will likely be produced when the sound wave strikes a metal object or a pocket of air? a. edge shadowing b. comet tail c. mirror image d. acoustic enhancement
B
Which one of the following imaging modalities produces images without the use of radiation? a. X-ray b. ultrasound c. fluoroscopy d. CT
B
Which radiographic view provides the best option for detecting slab fractures in horses? a. lateral view b. medial oblique view c. flexed lateral view d. dorsopalmar view
B
A computed tomography x-ray tube can rotate how many degrees? a. 270 degrees b. 180 degrees c. 360 degrees d. none, it does not rotate
C
Amount of radioisotope used for each exam in nuclear medicine study is measured in? (A) kV (B) mAS (C) mCi (D) MHz
C
For a dorsolateral-palmaromedial oblique of the metacarpus of a horse, on which surface should the cassette be placed? (A) Medial (B) Palmar (C) Palmaromedial (D) Palmarolateral
C
How often should x-ray equipment in a veterinarian's office be tested? a. every 6 months b. every year c. every 2 years d. only one when the equipment is installed
C
IV contrast used with CT imaging will help to view all of the following except; (A) Veins (B) Arteries (C) Bone marrow (D) Infection of extremities
C
In the equation Z=pV used in ultrasound, what does the letter Z represent? a. density b. acoustic velocity c. acoustic impedance d none of the above
C
In which imaging modality is Technetium 99m used? a. MRI b. ultrasound c. nuclear medicine d. fluoroscopy
C
MRI machines produce noise in which of the following ranges? (A) 20-30 dB (B) 40-50 dB (C) 60-90 dB (D) 100-110 dB
C
Pulse wave imaging can detect velocities up to a maximum of ______ m/s. (A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 1.4 (D) 2.2
C
What does the MRI unit use to manipulate hydrogen atoms in and out of excited energy state? (A) Helium (B) Water (C) Radio waves (D) Oxygen
C
What does the TGC or time gain compensation allow on the ultrasound machine? (A) Allows amount of time it takes sound to travel through a medium to be changed (B) Provides faster time frame for clearer images with motion (C) Allows adjustment of gain at various depths (D) None of the above
C
What happens to crystals within the ultrasound transducer when strong, short electrical pulses strike them? a. harden b. melt c. vibrate d. break apart
C
What is a major safety concern with MRI machines? a. amount of radiation emitted b. intensity of magnet on patient c. potential projectile effect with metallic objects within the vicinity of machine d. MRI machines are extremely safe and contain no safety concerns
C
What is an isotope termed when it is radioactive? a. photon b. radionuclide c. radioisotope d. none of the above; isotopes do not become radioactive
C
What is the speed of sound through fat tissue? a. 330 m/s b. 600 m/s c. 1460 m/s d. 1480 m/s
C
When using color-flow Doppler in ultrasound, what do the displayed red and blue colors mean? a. blue colors are veins, and red colors are arteries b. blue colors are arteries and red colors are veins c. the colors show blood flow; blue indicates flow away and red indicates blood flow toward d. colors show different velocities of blood
C
When using computed tomography, what Hounsfield unit does blood have? a. -50 HU b. 160 HU c. 80 HU d. none of these
C
Which of the following allows for measurements of very high blood flow velocities in ultrasound? a. color doppler b. PW doppler c. CW doppler d. harmonics
C
Which of the following imaging modalities can cause radiation burns if the unit is too close to the skin and remains in exposure mode for too long? a. CT b. MRI c. fluoroscopy d. ultrasound
C
Which of the following is the correct order to process dental film? a. passed through developer, then fixer, then the wash b. passed through the fixer, wash, developer, then wash again c. passed through the developer, was, fixer, then wash again d. passed through wash, developer, fixer, and wash again
C
Which of the following is the proper way to disinfect an ultrasound probe? a. autoclave b. gas sterilization c. wipe with a glutaraldehyde based disinfectant d. immerse in an alcohol-base cleaner
C
Which repetition time shows the T1 decay response of tissues using MRI? (A) 899 ms (B) 1500 ms (C) 546 ms (D) 1680 ms
C
Which time frame is the most critical for limiting radiation exposure to an unborn fetus of an employee? a. 2nd trimester b. 3rd timester c. between 2 and 10 weeks gestation d. after 35 weeks
C
A deformity, in which the interior angle of the join, viewed frontally, is <180 degrees, is known as? (A) Axial rotation (B) Windswept (C) Valgus deformity (D) Varus deformity
D
All of the following people are allowed to view individual dosimetry reports, except: a. OSHA inspector b. owner of practice c. only employee exposed d. all team members
D
Approx how many shades of gray are incorporated into the display of an image obtained through ultrasound? a. 50 shades of gray b. 100 c. 226 d. 256
D
Modern CT scanners use multislice technology and are able to acquire image slices thinner than which of the following sizes? a. 10mm b. 1 cm c. 10 cm d. 1 mm
D
To obtain a lateromedial view of the femorotibial joint horse, the cassette should be placed against? (A) Cranial aspect (B) Caudal aspect (C) Lateral aspect (D) Medial aspect
D
To obtain a radiographic image of both temporomandibular joints of a small animal, which of the following is the best position? a. dorsal recumbency b. ventral recumbency c. right lateral recumbency d. sternal recumbency
D
To what level of kV radiation are most lead aprons effective? a. 50 kV b. 70 kV c. 90 kV d. 125 kV
D
What is the speed of sound through bone? a. 330 m/s b. 600 m/s c. 1600 m/s d. 4080 m/s
D
What is the typical kilovoltage preset on a dental unit? a. 110 kV b. 25 kV c. 50 kV d. 70 kV
D
When obtaining a dorsopalmar view of the carpus of a horse, where should the cassette be held? a. against the palmarolateral aspect of leg b. against the medial aspect of leg c. against palmaromedial aspect of leg d. against palmar aspect of leg
D
Which grade level on the ossification index for newborn foals does a closed metacarpal and metatarsal physes describe? (A) Grade 1 (B) Grade 2 (C) Grade 3 (D) Grade 4
D
Which of the following Hounsfield unit on CT imaging appears as white? a. -755 HU b. 120 HU c. 1200 HU d. 1260 HU
D
Which of the following can be the piezoelectric crystal within an ultrasound probe do? a. convert electrical energy into mechanical energy b. convert mechanical energy into electrical energy c. change shape in presence of an electrical current d. all of the above
D
Which of the following can occur if DNA is affected by radiation? a. cell death b. cell damage may be obvious, with portion of DNA compromised c. cell may display no immediate effects, but damage may have occurred internally that will affect the individual later, when mitosis occurs d. all of the above
D
Which of the following frequencies will allow for the deepest level of penetration in ultrasound? a. 4 MHz b. 5 MHz c. 9 MHz d. 12 MHz
D
Which of the following image receptors is used in dental imaging? a. film b. phosphor plates c. neither d. both
D
Which of the following is considered to be a cardinal rule for radiation protection? a. distance b. time c. shielding d. all of the above
D
Which of the following kV will produce more scatter and secondary radiation? a. 40 kV b. 60 kV c. 70 kV d. 110 kV
D
Which of the following locations is best for storing a dosimeter badge? a. in x-ray room b. at home with employee c. in box on window sill to receive natural light d. in dry, cool place away from x-ray room
D
Which of the following radiographic terms describes the radiographic projection obtained by passing the primary x-ray beam from the caudal surface to the cranial surface of a structure? a. plantar b. dorsopalmar c. palmar d. caudocranial
D
Which particles have high linear energy transfer (LET) with low penetrability? a. alpha particles b. beta particles c. gamma particles d. both a and b
D
Which of the following correctly describes a CT image? a. 2D image b. matrix of pixel or picture elements c. 3D image d. matrix of voxels e. both c and d f. both a and b
E
Which of the following factors should all personnel understand about MRI machines? a. no loose metallic objects can be near the machine b. consists of a strong metallic field c. magnet is always on d. every patient/employee should be screened for safety purposes e. all of the above
E
