EatRight - Practice Test 1

Q. Providing advice and information can be a component of a successful patient interaction. Under what circumstances is it appropriate to provide advice or information? When you asked for permission from the client or if the client requests it When you have limited time in your nutrition session When you have a talkative client and you need to direct the focus of the interview After you've established rapport and the client is ready to set goals

The correct answer is A. Asking permission is a powerful request and places the patient in an autonomous position and readies him or her to be more receptive to information.

Q. Which additive is useful as a bleaching agent? Benzoyl peroxide Citric acid Canthaxanthin Butylated hydroxyanisole

The correct answer is A. Benzoyl peroxide is a food additive that can be used as a flour treatment agent. It oxidizes the naturally occurring carotenoids in flour, which gives untreated flour a yellowish tint, and whitens the flour as a result.

Q. The Emergency Food Assistance Program and the Disaster Feeding Program are examples of food distribution programs. Which of the following statements best describes the similarities of the two programs? Both programs may serve children, adolescent, and other age groups and provide commodity foods to local food distribution and service agencies. Both programs serve children and adolescents and provide commodity foods to local food distribution and service agencies Both programs serve low-income populations and supplemental food supplies are either distributed to individual households or as meals served in congregate dining centers. Both programs may serve children, adolescent, and other age groups and food supplies are either distributed to individual households or as meals served in congregate dining centers.

The correct answer is A. Both of these programs serve children, adolescent and other age groups and provide commodity foods that serve meals. The Emergency Food Assistance Program does not distribute to individual households.

Q. Which type of rice is whole-grain with only the outer hull removed? Brown White Wild Long-grain

The correct answer is A. Brown rice is whole-grain with only the outer hull removed. It retains most of the bran layers that give it a light brown color. White rice has been milled to remove the outer husk and layers of bran. Long-grain rice refers to the length of the rice. Wild rice is not a true rice but is a large rice-looking weed of an aquatic reed-like grass.

Q. Which preservative is often used as a fungicide and mold preventative in bakery products? Calcium propionate Calcium carbonate Calcium silicate Calcium alginate

The correct answer is A. Calcium propionate is used as a preservative in bread and other baked goods. It keeps bread and baked goods from spoiling by preventing mold and bacterial growth.

Q. Which of the following foods must a child with phenylketonuria avoid? Egg Banana Rice French fries

The correct answer is A. Children with phenylketonuria are unable to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine because of a deficiency or inactivity of phenylalanine hydroxylase. Thus, phenylalanine intake must be restricted to the amount needed for protein synthesis. To accomplish this, protein needs to be limited and all high-protein foods, including eggs, milk, cheese, nuts, beans and meat, should be avoided.

Q. Which of the following actions is believed to increase the effectiveness of an interviewer? Clearly defining the purpose of the interview to the interviewee Clearly establishing the interviewer's position of authority Taking copious notes to aid in the recall of information later Developing an emotional attachment

The correct answer is A. Clearly defining the purpose of an interview sets the tone for the interview and allows the interviewee to know what is expected. It also puts the interviewee at ease.

Q. Which word best describes doing things correctly or getting the most output from the least amount of input? Efficient Effective Economical Expedient

The correct answer is A. Efficiency is "doing things right." Effectiveness is "doing the right things." Economical describes prudent use of resources. Expedient describes doing something quickly.

Q. The FDA, Food Safety and Inspection Service, and CDC jointly publish this reference document for regulatory agencies responsible for overseeing food safety in retail outlets: Food Code Food Law FoodNet Food Regulations

The correct answer is A. Every four years, these regulatory agencies release the Food Code.

Q. Which of the following situations best describes why an older adult may become dehydrated? Fear of incontinence Living alone Low income Poor intake of fruit

The correct answer is A. Fear of social embarrassment by not making it to the bathroom may keep an older adult from adequately hydrating.

Q. Which of the following growth charts is currently recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to assess weight in relation to stature in children ages 2 to 20 years? BMI-for-age Length-for-age Weight-for-age Stature-for-age

The correct answer is A. For children, body mass index (BMI) is age and sex specific and nutritional status is identified based on percentiles. For adults, BMI is neither age nor sex specific. BMI-for-age is the most accurate and best measure to assess weight in children. BMI-for-age figures in a child's height, weight, and age to determine how much body fat he has. It compares the results to those of other children of the same age and sex.

Q. What is the minimum internal cooking temperature of shell eggs that are hot-held for service? 165°F 155°F 145°F 135°F

Solution: The correct answer is B. Shell eggs that will be served immediately are cooked to 145°F, but shell eggs hot-held for service are cooked to 155°F.

Q. Which of the following characteristics is key to an efficient and effective system? Continuous response and adaptation to the system Flow of resources Interdependency of parts Achievement of subunit objectives

Solution: The correct answer is C. A system is a collection of interrelated parts or subsystems unified by design to obtain one or more objectives. Interdependency is the reciprocal relationship of the parts of a system; each part mutually affects the performance of the others. Interdependency emphasizes the importance of viewing the organization as a whole rather than as isolated parts. The other responses (ie, continuous response and adaptation to a system, flow of resources through a system, and achievement of subunit objectives) all are isolated parts of a system.

Q. Which agency approves the use of food additives in breakfast cereal? US Department of Agriculture (USDA) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

Solution: The correct answer is C. The FDA regulates use of food additives—including coloring agents considered safe for human consumption and additives that are considered safe for human consumption or generally recognized as safe (GRAS) by the scientific community. Any food that contains a food additive that is not deemed safe is considered an adulterated food by FDA standards.

Q. A community nutritionist can best elicit opinions as to why a particular nutrition program is not working by forming a focus group. examining the results of the pre-test and post-test. sharing the problem with similar agencies. redefining the target population.

The correct answer is A. A focus group would allow the nutritionist to solicit opinions from members of a target group regarding perceived needs and barriers, or even why certain programs aren't working.

Q. A pregnant woman should avoid excessive intake of which of the following nutrients? Vitamin A Vitamin B-6 Folic acid Iron

The correct answer is A. A pregnant woman should avoid excessive intake of vitamin A, as it appears to cause birth defects. Vitamin B-6 is water soluble, and folic acid and iron should be increased during pregnancy.

Q. Anthocyanin in turnips may change to a blue-black or red-brown color if heated excessively in which type of pan? Cast iron Stainless steel Porcelain Aluminum

The correct answer is A. Anthocyanin is a water-soluble red to blue pigment. Metals such as cast iron, tin, and sometimes aluminum will turn the anthocyanin pigment to various shades of blue. Therefore, use stainless steel or heat-safe glass for cooking anthocyanin vegetables and fruits and store them in stainless steel or glass containers.

Q. Which of the following is true of additives categorized as GRAS? They are generally recognized, among qualified experts, as having been adequately shown to be safe under the conditions of its intended use An ingredient approved as GRAS for one use is considered GRAS for all uses. Typically, an ingredient used to impart color is classified as GRAS. Establishment of GRAS additives is the prerogative of the FTC.

The correct answer is A. GRAS is an acronym for the phrase Generally Recognized As Safe. Under sections 201(s) and 409 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, any substance that is intentionally added to food is a food additive that is subject to premarket review and approval by FDA, unless the substance is generally recognized as safe.

Q. In 2013, changes were made to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) that have resulted in RDN's needing to modify the way that they conduct business to remain compliant. These changes are collectively known as the Omnibus Rule HIPAA Addendum Client Security Rules Notification Addendum

The correct answer is A. In 2013, sweeping changes to HIPAA were announced to the public, resulting in modifications in the way RDNs and other health care providers must conduct business to remain compliant. In an effort to maintain the privacy and security of protected health information (PHI) in today's growing world of technology, the Office for Civil Rights (OCR) of the US Department of Health and Human Services adopted additional modifications to the HIPAA Privacy, Security, Breach Notification and Enforcement Rules. These changes, which took effect on September 23, 2013, are addressed collectively as the Omnibus Rule.

Q. Joint Commission standards require that "nutritional assessments are conducted for patients not consistently reaching glucose targets." The intent of this standard is to identify if food intake is creating blood glucose levels outside of the established glucose targets. patients are experiencing frequent episodes of hyperglycemia. patients are receiving too little enteral nutrition support. food intake variations are resulting in elevated A1C levels.

The correct answer is A. In a specific Joint Commission requirement, the diabetes program and the hospital determines who will do the assessment and what glucose targets will trigger the assessment. The intent of this standard is to identify if the food intake or lack thereof is creating blood glucose levels outside of the established glucose targets. The glucose target targets can be hypoglycemic levels or hyperglycemic levels.

Q. Participants are randomly assigned to follow one of three specific diets plans for 7 weeks to assess the impact of varying amounts of high-fructose corn syrup consumption on serum triglyceride levels. What kind of study is this? Experimental Case-Control Qualitative Descriptive

The correct answer is A. In experimental study design, participants are randomly assigned to treatment groups. This does not occur in case control or qualitative studies. "Descriptive" is not a type of study.

Q. In a foodservice operation, which of the following is the most critical point of control? Menu Overtime Quality Spoilage

The correct answer is A. In foodservice operations, menu development provides a critical control point for control of costs, overtime, quality, and spoilage.

Q. Which statement best describes the F component of the FADE performance improvement model? Choose a specific problem or process to improve Review data to better understand the current process Create a plan Complete a pilot study

The correct answer is A. In the FADE model, F stands for focus; during this step, the process to be improved is identified and defined. Review of data is included in A, or analyze. Action plans are developed in D, or develop, and pilot studies are conducted in E, or execute.

Q. Protein needs for patients with stage II pressure ulcers can be calculated as 1.2 g to 1.5 g of protein/kg body weight. 1.1 g to 1.2 g of protein/kg body weight. 1.5 g to 1.7 g of protein/kg body weight. 0.8 g to 1.0 g of protein/kg body weight.

The correct answer is A. Increased protein needs for stage II wound healing are 1.2 g to 1.5 g protein/kg body weight. Choice D presents normal protein levels; choice C presents protein needs for higher stages of pressure ulcers; and choice B presents the protein needs for stage I pressure ulcers.

Q. When preparing a PES statement in situations where there are diagnoses from multiple domains, the dietetics professional should give preference to the diagnosis related to: intake. physical conditions. knowledge. food safety.

The correct answer is A. Intake is the only area of concern at this point in the process so it is the priority.

Q. The hydrolysis of sucrose with an acid to form a mixture that has equal amounts of fructose and glucose is known as inversion. reversion. ripening. crystallization.

The correct answer is A. Inversion occurs when a sugar solution is boiled with the addition of an acid. Hydrolysis of the sucrose molecule results in equal amounts of fructose and glucose.

Q. When introducing infants to solid food, which of the following is recommended to be given first? Iron-fortified rice cereal Iron-fortified oatmeal cereal Iron-fortified wheat cereal Pureed meats

The correct answer is A. Iron-fortified rice cereal is the first solid food recommended for two reasons. First, iron stores become depleted at 4 to 6 months of age, so an iron-fortified cereal mixed with formula or breastmilk should be started. Second, rice cereal is the least allergenic cereal. Other cereals should be introduced gradually, waiting 3 to 5 days before introducing another food to determine if there are allergies or intolerances, with wheat and mixed cereals added last.

Q. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention growth charts are appropriate for healthy infants. children with cerebral palsy. children with Down syndrome. premature infants weighing less than 1500 g at birth.

The correct answer is A. It is appropriate to use the CDC's charts for plotting the growth of healthy US infants. Premature infants and children with Down syndrome or cerebral palsy require special growth considerations.

Q. Which of the following statements is accurate concerning fruit juice? Intake of juice should be limited to 4 to 6 oz per day for children 1 to 6 years of age. Juice may be introduced at 4 months of age. Juice should be given in the bedtime bottle to help infants sleep all night. It is safe to give young children unpasteurized juice.

The correct answer is A. Juice should not be introduced until 6 months of age, and bedtime bottle feeding and unpasteurized juice in young children increase the risk for tooth decay or "bottle mouth" and foodborne illness. The accurate statement is that juice intake should be limited in children aged 1 to 6 years.

Q. To avoid contracting Listeria monocytogenes, pregnant women should avoid unpasteurized milk and cheese. any processed meats. large ocean fish. unwashed fruits and vegetables.

The correct answer is A. Listeria can be killed with pasteurization. Any unpasteurized products, including milk and cheese, should not be consumed by pregnant women.

Q. According to the Joint Commission, which of the following is fundamental to cost-effective performance improvement? Safety Professional expertise Technology Employee motivation

The correct answer is A. Patient safety is a major concern in all health care settings. A focus on safety in performance improvement programs leads to cost savings through prevention of medical errors.

Q. Which additive might be useful as a sequestrant to maintain whiteness of canned potatoes? Disodium inosinate Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) Guar gum Dipotassium phosphate

The correct answer is B. A class of food additives known as sequestrants can be added to food to react with trace metals in foods, forming tightly bound complexes (sequestered), thereby preventing the decomposition of the food. The sodium and calcium salts of EDTA are common sequestrants in many kinds of foods and beverages.

Q. You want to conduct a research project that evaluates food habits among adults with a BMI >30 who eat at buffet-style restaurants at least once a month. You are going to conduct a focus group. What type of research study is this? Meta-analysis Qualitative Quantitative Experimental

The correct answer is B. A focus group is a form of qualitative research that is used to ask people about their habits, behavior, practices, beliefs, etc.

Q. The sentence "We will produce nutritious, high-quality food that meets our customers' needs for service within 30 minutes" is a vision. mission statement. strategy. value.

The correct answer is B. A mission statement describes what a company does that is different from others. A vision is a statement of what a company wants to achieve in the future, and strategies are the decisions and actions to assist a company to meet its objectives.

Q. A storeroom staffed with a full-time employee would be considered a(n) ___________ of a university residence hall foodservice. input subsystem interface technical core

The correct answer is B. A subsystem is a complete system unto itself (such as a storeroom) that is part of a larger system (in this case, a university residence hall foodservice).

Q. Which nutrient additive might be added to food as a natural antioxidant? Biotin Alpha-tocopherol Calcium carbonate Pantothenic acid

The correct answer is B. Alpha-tocopherol is a natural antioxidant that is used as a food additive in meat pies and oils to reduce the oxidation of fatty acids and vitamins.

Q. Which pectic substance found in mature fruits loses its ability to form a gel? Pectic acid Pectinic acid Pectin Protopectin

The correct answer is B. As fruit ripens, there is maximum protopectin present; thereafter, it breaks down to pectin, pectinic acid, and, finally, pectic acid, and the fruit softens as the adhesive between the cells breaks down. Fruit that is just underripe or just ripe contains the highest level of pectin that the fruit is going to reach; past that, the pectin levels will decrease.

Q. To prevent backflow, a cross-connection should be created. an air gap between the faucet and the flood rim of the sink should be created. a physical link between the potable and contaminated water supply should be created. multiple sources of water should be used to increase water pressure.

The correct answer is B. Backflow is the unwanted, reverse flow of contaminants through a cross-connection into a potable water supply. One of the ways to prevent backflow it to have an air space—referred to as an air gap—to separate a water supply outlet from any potentially contaminated source.

Q. Hot, potentially hazardous foods must be cooled to ___ °F or below within 2 hours and then cooled to ___ °F or below in the next 4 hours. 140, 41 70, 41 41, 32 100, 38

The correct answer is B. Bacteria grows much faster at temperatures between 125°F and 70°F so it's important to have food pass through this temperature range quickly to reduce growth of bacteria. Food must continue to be cooled to 41°F or lower to be removed from the temperature danger zone.

Q. Fruits and vegetables that have not been blanched prior to freezing are more susceptible to which kind of deterioration? Fermentation Browning Biological spoilage Freezer burn

The correct answer is B. Blanching slows or stops the enzyme action. Enzymes help vegetables grow and mature. After maturation, however, the enzymes cause loss of quality, flavor, color, texture, and nutrients.

Q. Among the following groups of people, the population that would experience the most serious consequences from contracting a foodborne illness is people with compromised immune systems. teenagers. women of childbearing age. smokers who are overweight.

The correct answer is A. People who have compromised immune systems are at a higher risk for experiencing the most serious consequences of foodborne illnesses and may experience more serious consequences from contracting a foodborne illness. Immunocompromised individuals need to follow safe food handling, cooking, and storage practices very carefully and avoid certain foods, such as undercooked meat, fish, poultry and eggs and unpasteurized products.

Q. ____________ must be up to date and reflect consistent expectations. Personnel policies Vacation schedules Equipment Menus

The correct answer is A. Personnel policies should reflect current realities of the workplace. Supervisors should employ these policies to ensure that employees are being treated fairly and expectations are consistent.

Q. When completing a physical assessment, inadequate hydration may present as poor skin turgor. scaly appearance of skin. dull and thin hair. angular stomatitis.

The correct answer is A. Physical findings related to inadequate hydration include a drop in systolic pressure upon standing, poor skin turgor, and tongue dryness.

Q. Older adults are more vulnerable to toxicity of vitamin A. vitamin C. vitamin D. vitamin K.

The correct answer is A. Plasma levels and liver stores of vitamin A increase with age, along with decreased clearance from the blood, making older adults more susceptible to toxicity. Vitamin D, on the other hand, declines with age. Vitamin C is water soluble and thus clearance is easier. Vitamin K levels usually can be controlled via medication.

Q. ________________ describes the linking together of free fatty acids during frying, which makes the oil more viscous and prone to foaming. Polymerization Smoke point Flashing Hydrolytic rancidity

The correct answer is A. Polymerization increases oil viscosity, decreases oil quality, and leaves a sticky film on fryers, manufacturing equipment, and front-of-house surfaces.

Q. A community RDN develops an educational and awareness program to teach employees of a local industry to reduce the sodium in their diets. This is an example of primary prevention. secondary prevention. tertiary prevention. workplace rehabilitation.

The correct answer is A. Primary prevention is to protect healthy people before a disease (for example, hypertension) develops. Secondary and tertiary prevention do not occur until a disease has already presented. Workplace rehabilitation is specific to an injury sustained at work.

Q. What measures the ability of an organization to generate excess income in relation to sales? Profitability Solvency Liquidity Activity

The correct answer is A. Profitability measures a company's ability to generate excess income in relation to sales. Solvency refers to an organization's ability to meet its long-term debts, while liquidity refers to the organization's ability to meet short-term debts. Activity refers to the rate at which an organization transfers non-cash assets into cash assets.

Q. You are developing a heart disease prevention program for a worksite and need to locate several nutrition research articles. The best database to use is: PubMed Merck Index Online Scopus The Cochrane Library

The correct answer is A. PubMed is the database of choice when it comes to the health sciences. The Scopus database is very large and has search engine limitations; Cochrane includes systematic reviews for evidence-based practice; and the Merck index is an encyclopedia of chemical substances.

Q. All of the following are criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes, EXCEPT: fasting plasma glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL. hemoglobin A1C ≤ 6.5%. two-hour plasma glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL during an oral glucose tolerance test. a random plasma glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL in a person with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia or hyperglycemic crisis.

The correct answer is B. Measurement of hemoglobin A1C ≤ 6.5% is not a criterion. Criteria for diagnosis of diabetes are (1) a fasting plasma glucose of 126 mg/dL or higher, OR (2) a 2-hour plasma glucose of 200 mg/dL or more during OGTT, (3) OR a hemoglobin A1c of 6.5% of more, OR (4) random plasma glucose of 200 mg/dL or higher (in a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia or hyperglycemic crisis.

Q. The recommended weight gain during pregnancy for a woman with a BMI between 19.8 and 26 is 15 to 20 pounds. 25 to 35 pounds. 28 to 40 pounds. 35 to 45 pounds.

The correct answer is B. Normal pregnancy weight is based on BMI; for a woman with a BMI between 19.8 and 26, normal pregnancy weight gain is 25 to 35 pounds.

Q. Which of these acronyms requires compliance with safety standards? SDS OSHA HACCP MDS

The correct answer is B. OSHA is the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. The agency requires employers to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard, also known as Right-to-Know, which requires employers to train employees on how to safely use the chemicals they work with. SDS is a Safety Data Sheet contains important safety information about chemicals and has replaced the material safety data sheet (MSDS). HACCP, Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points, is based on identifying significant biological, chemical, or physical hazards at specific points within a product's flow. MDS is Minimum Data Set is a standardized screening and assessment tool of health status used in long-term care.

Q. Labor costs for a roast beef dinner were $764, operating costs were $129, profit was $210, and the cost for food for the event was $895. What was the food cost percentage? 47% 50% 73% 81%

The correct answer is B. Food cost percentage is calculated according to the following formula: Cost of food divided by total production costs. Total production costs include the cost of food, labor and overhead/operations costs. These costs include taxes, utilities, maintenance, etc. Profit is not included in the calculation as it is not a production cost.

Q. Which food is likely to be irradiated to inhibit deterioration due to mold formation? Soda pop Fresh strawberries Poultry Ground beef

The correct answer is B. Fruits and vegetables are prone to destruction by mold. Irradiation prolongs shelf life of many fruits and vegetables by reducing growth of spoilage bacteria and mold and by inhibiting sprouting and maturation.

Q. Which of the following groups of whole grains is gluten free? Spelt, rye, oats, quinoa, kamut, corn Amaranth, quinoa, millet, teff, buckwheat Bulgur, durum, farina, malt, orzo Corn, rye, seitan, kamut, barley

The correct answer is B. Gluten is a protein found in wheat, rye, barley, and triticale, which is a cross between wheat and rye. Thus, a gluten-free diet would exclude these grains. Five whole grains that are gluten free are amaranth, millet, teff, buckwheat, and quinoa.

Q. Encouraging pregnant mothers to attend a seminar on the benefits of breastfeeding and offering supportive counseling post-partum to continue breastfeeding are examples of public health nutrition. health promotion. primary prevention. secondary prevention.

The correct answer is B. Health promotion empowers the individual to make changes and take control of his or her health outcomes. Public health nutrition does not focus at the individual level. Primary prevention activities, like vaccinating, prevent a disease. Secondary prevention focuses on early diagnosis and treatment like screening for and taking blood pressure medicine.

Q. The 2007 Expert Committee Recommendations for the Prevention, Assessment, Treatment, and Recommendations for Pediatric Childhood and Adolescent Obesity defines BMI greater than the 95th percentile as: at risk for overweight obese overweight severe childhood obesity

The correct answer is B. Healthy weight is defined as the 5th percentile to less than the 85th percentile. Overweight encompasses the 85th to less than the 95th percentile. Obese is defined as equal to or greater than the 95th percentile.

Q. The implementation of more liberal food choices in the menu planning process for long-term-care (LTC) settings has been associated with which of the following? Increased risk for obesity among LTC residents Increased nutrient and fluid intake among LTC residents Reduced nutrient and fluid intake among LTC residents Reduced customer satisfaction

The correct answer is B. Liberalizing food choices in long-term care encourages older adults to increase food consumption and meal satisfaction. It does not increase obesity risk.

Q. Which agency sets the mandated guidelines for meals in long-term-care facilities that receive Medicare and Medicaid funding? US Department of Agriculture Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services Joint Commission Food and Nutrition Board of the National Research Council

The correct answer is B. Long-term care facilities receiving Medicare and Medicaid funding must follow guidelines regarding meals served to residents that are established by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, a division of the US Department of Health and Human Services.

Q. Vision problems in older adults may be due to dietary factors such as a(n) excess intake of sodium. low intake of antioxidant nutrients. excess intake of fat and cholesterol. low intake of B-vitamins.

The correct answer is B. Low intake of antioxidants can lead to vision problems later in life, as antioxidants repair cell damage.

Q. A dietary supplement with the statement "Vitamin K helps support normal blood clotting" on the label is making a health claim. nutrient claim. structure/function claim. qualified health claim.

The correct answer is C. A dietary supplement that makes this type of statement is presenting a structure/function claim as per the FDA's functional foods guidelines.

Q. A worksite weight management program is being planned for use with small groups of employees. A long-term goal is to reduce health care claims. During a pilot series, participants are asked to rate and comment on the relevance of the visuals, handouts, and activities. Results will be used in revising the program before widespread implementation. This is an example of outcome evaluation. income evaluation. formative evaluation. impact evaluation.

The correct answer is C. A formative evaluation occurs as a program is being developed, perhaps as a pilot test, as contrasted with a summative evaluation that occurs at the end of the program or as participants complete the program.

Q. A 2-year-old child who drinks large quantities of milk and very little solid food is at risk for diabetes mellitus. food allergies. iron-deficiency anemia. short stature.

The correct answer is C. A large quantity of calcium displaces iron and could result in iron-deficiency anemia.

Q. The primary safeguard of foodservice quality is adherence to_____. menus purchase orders specifications HACCP standards

The correct answer is C. A specification is a concise description of the quality, size, and weight or count factors desired for a particular item. The purchasing agent, the purveyors of the company, and the company's receiving clerk should each have a set of the established specifications. A purchase specification is a concise description of the quality, size, and weight or count factors desired for a particular item. Management establishes standard purchase specifications based on a thorough study of the menu needs and merchandising and pricing policies. The purchasing agent, the purveyors of the company, and the company's receiving clerk should each have a set of the established specifications.

Q. When including a factor to represent non-urinary losses of nitrogen, calculation of nitrogen balance for a patient with a 24-hour urinary nitrogen excretion of 14.3 grams and a protein intake of 102 grams would show a nitrogen balance of +16.3 grams -16.3 grams -2 grams +2 grams

The correct answer is C. Add 4 to the 24-hour urinary nitrogen excretion. (The 4 accounts for non-urinary losses of nitrogen.) Determine nitrogen intake by dividing the daily protein intake by 6.25 nitrogen balance = 14 + 4 = 18; 102 ÷ 6.25 = 16; 16 - 18= -2

Q. A client verbally attacks the registered dietitian nutritionist, indicating that weight loss expectations are unrealistic and no one could meet them. What defense mechanism is being exhibited? Regression Repression Aggression Projection

The correct answer is C. Aggression is directly attacking the source of frustration—in this case, the RDN.

Q. Which of the following food programs is the largest federally funded child nutrition assistance program? Fresh Fruit and Vegetable Program Child and Adult Care Food Program National School Lunch Program Summer Food Service Program

The correct answer is C. All options listed are federally funded programs for children, but the National School Lunch Program serves the largest number of children needing assistance.

Q. The recommended weight gain during pregnancy for a woman who is overweight is 0 pounds. 5 to 10 pounds. 15 to 25 pounds. 28 to 40 pounds.

The correct answer is C. All women should gain weight during pregnancy. It is recommended that underweight women gain 28 to 40 pounds, normal weight women gain 25 to 35 pounds, overweight women gain 15 to 25 pounds, and obese women gain at least 15 pounds.

Q. Which would be added to a cola beverage as a natural colorant? Sodium benzoate Caffeine Caramel Vanillin

The correct answer is C. Amber-hued colas get their color from natural caramel.

Q. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's worst-case projection made in 2010, what proportion of the US adult population will have diabetes by the year 2050? 15% 20% 30% 50%

The correct answer is C. Approximately 30% of the nation's adults are projected to have diabetes by 2050.

Q. Rosa wants to plan a community nutrition program to encourage children aged 11 to 15 to consume healthier afterschool snacks. Her first step should be to identify funding sources. define program goals and objectives. conduct a community needs assessment. seek support from the parents and schools of intended participants.

The correct answer is C. Community nutrition program planning includes developing program goals and objectives, developing a program plan, identifying funding systems, and seeking support from stakeholders. However, a needs assessment should be done first to provide information for the other steps.

Q. Which of the following is a limitation of 24-hour recalls? Not useful if diet pattern varies considerably Requires literacy Recording process may influence food intake Underreporting or overreporting occurs

The correct answer is D. Underreporting and overreporting are concerns with the 24-hour recall method, which is easy to administer and doesn't require literacy. The recording process influencing intake is a concern regarding the food diary or daily food record.

Q. Food inventory is being valued. Eighteen #10 cans of diced pears are on the shelf. From oldest to newest cans, three cost $6.66 each, six cost $6.72 each, and nine cost $6.78 each. Using the LIFO valuation method, what is the total inventory value of diced pears? $119.88 $120.96 $121.32 $122.04

The correct answer is D. Using the Last In, First Out system, the inventory should be valued at the price of the most recent purchase. Multiply 18 cans by $6.78, the most recent price, to get $122.04.

Q. When performing nutrition screening of pediatric patients, which of the following would identify a patient at risk according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention growth chart ? Body mass index of 80th percentile Length/height for age of 75th percentile Weight for age of 25th percentile Weight for length/height below the 3rd percentile

The correct answer is D. Weight for height is the most accurate indicator of risk. Weight for height/length below the 3rd percentile would identify an at-risk patient.

Q. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention growth chart that is used to determine if a child is underweight or overweight plots height for age. length for age. weight for age. weight for stature.

The correct answer is D. Weight for stature charts determine underweight and overweight and are not based on age.

Q. Chin has written the following objective for her community nutrition program: "Women who are at least 60 years of age will perform at least 30 minutes of weight-bearing exercise three or more times per week." Which of the required components is missing from Chin's objective? Target population Time frame Action Measure of success

The correct answer is D. What it is (action), who it is (target), when and time frame are all components of the objective, but the measure of outcome is missing.

Q. The facility is planning a kitchen upgrade and the chef requests a number of pieces of equipment that would best allow for flexibility in menu item preparation methods. Soups, stews, and pasta dishes are very popular menu items. The concern is that there is limited space to work with. Which of the following pieces of equipment would best serve the facility in terms of functionality and space? Combo oven Steam-jacketed kettle Eight-burner cook top Tilting skillet

The correct answer is D. A tilting skillet has the capacity to meet a broad range of cooking needs. It can be used for soups, stews, and pasta, as well as serve as a fryer, griddle, oven, and hot holding.

Q. Quality in the foodservice system is a program to eliminate defects. a radical redesign of business processes for dramatic improvement. a source of increasing costs. defined by the customer through his or her satisfaction.

The correct answer is D. According to Gregoire and Spears, quality in foodservice systems is defined by the customer through satisfaction. Quality in foodservice systems should lead to decreased costs through elimination of errors and mistakes.

Q. Which of the following study design types is characterized as "the most powerful design for evaluating practices and medical treatments"? Qualitative research Prospective studies Randomized trials Cohort studies

The correct answer is C. In randomized trials, participants are randomly assigned to control or treatment groups. This allows the researcher to derive knowledge about causes of diseases and to evaluate the effectiveness of results from the various treatment groups.

Q. A typical feeding/eating pattern for infants is to require apple juice at 4 months to regulate stooling. to require cereal at bedtime after 3 months to sleep through the night. to require only breastmilk or iron-fortified formula for the first 6 months of age. hard to predict since their interest in eating is so variable.

The correct answer is C. Infants only need breastmilk or iron-fortified formula for the first 6 months of life.

Q. Which of the following agencies oversees voluntary inspection and grading of fish and fish products? Department of the Treasury Food and Drug Administration (FDA) US Department of Commerce (USDC) US Department of Agriculture (USDA)

The correct answer is C. Inspection of fish and fish products, which are not subject to mandatory grading, is overseen by the USDC's National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), which is part of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). The NMFS will provide inspection of fish, fisheries, and seafood for a fee. The requirements for inspection of fish and seafood are set by the FDA but carried out by the NMFS. The FDA is responsible for all fish imports into the United States.

Q. After reviewing the results of menu engineering, what is the best way to manage a plowhorse? Remove the item from the menu. Decrease the menu item's selling price. Serve smaller portions of the menu item. Give the item top priority on the menu.

The correct answer is C. Plowhorses are items that are popular but do not attain profitable status. If price increases are not possible, one strategy for managing plowhorses is to serve smaller portions to reduce the food cost and simultaneously increase the profit. It is not a good idea to lower the price on items that are popular at their current selling price. Items that are already popular should not be given priority in menu listings nor should they be removed from the menu.

Q. A foodservice facility posted signs indicating that all employees must wash hands before returning to the production area after a break. This is referred to as a single-use plan. procedure. policy. foodservice law.

The correct answer is C. Policy indicates what should be done whereas a procedure indicates how it should be done. There is no such thing as foodservice law. A single-use plan is not applicable in this context.

Q. Nipple feeding is likely to be successful if it is attempted once an infant reaches a gestational age of 28 weeks. 30 weeks. 32 weeks. 34 weeks.

The correct answer is C. Prior to 32 weeks gestational age, an infant cannot coordinate sucking, swallowing, and breathing. Thus, waiting until the infant reaches 32 weeks gestational age is recommended.

Q. Which food would be most likely to contain propyl gallate? Gelatin dessert Nonfat dry milk Frozen pork sausage Canned tomatoes

The correct answer is C. Propyl gallate is an antioxidant that is added to foods containing oils and fats to prevent oxidation. Oxidation is most likely to occur in products that contain fat, including sausage.

Q. What name is given to standard methods of accounting and presentation of financial statements that provide comparability of financial data within an industry? Public accounting Internal auditing Uniform systems of accounts Cost accounting

The correct answer is C. Public accounting may include work with clients to issue educated tax advice. Other public accounting practices are used to provide advice on business decisions and transactions or insurance and benefits. Public accounting encompasses a wide range of accounting roles. Internal auditing examines a company's financial records, ensuring their quality and legality. Uniform systems of accounts represent standard methods of accounting within an industry.

Q. Which federal agency regulates wines with less than 7% alcohol? Federal Trade Commission (FTC) US Department of Commerce (USDC) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Department of the Treasury

The correct answer is C. The FDA regulates wines with lower alcohol content (less than 7%). The Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau is responsible for oversight and regulation of all other alcoholic beverages.

Q. Which of the following is an example of an FDA-authorized health claim? "This product reduces LDL cholesterol by 4% and increases HDL cholesterol by 10% in 6 weeks." "This product contains omega-3 fatty acids, which inhibit the growth of tumors." "Three grams of soluble fiber from oatmeal daily in a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol may reduce the risk of heart disease. This product has 2 grams per serving." "Consuming at least 3 or more ounce-equivalents of whole grains per day reduces the risk of several chronic diseases."

The correct answer is C. The FDA's guidelines for approved health claims require use of the word "may." The other options offered definitive claims about health benefits.

Q. Which of the following is designed to examine how effectively an organization is utilizing its assets? Assets to liabilities Debt to equity Inventory turnover Break-even point

The correct answer is C. The assets-to-liabilities ratio calculates the percentage of assets provided by debt. The debt-to-equity ratio tells what percentage of the company's assets are funded by shareholders' equity and debt. The break-even point is where expenses and revenue are equal. Effective use of inventory assets is reflected in the inventory turnover ratio.

Q. In what marketing lifestyle group are consumers categorized if they are young, impulsive, and seek variety, excitement, and risky activities? Innovators Makers Achievers Experiencers

The correct answer is D. Marketing segmentation categorizes consumers based on certain characteristics. Experiencers are described as young, impulsive variety-seekers. Innovators are described as having high income and high self-esteem. Makers tend to be lower income, have a focus on self-sufficiency, and are family oriented. Achievers are successful individuals who also tend to have higher incomes.

Q. If an emulsion like mayonnaise is heated, what deterioration is most likely to occur? Precipitation of protein Hydrolytic rancidity Dehydration Separation of the water and oil

The correct answer is D. Mayonnaise is an example of a permanent emulsion, consisting of egg yolks and oil. However, if it is heated, it is likely that the water and oil will separate.

Q. Which of the following is NOT a component of meta-analysis? Inclusion criteria are clearly defined Peer-reviewed data are preferred Studies must have a similar design Data are presented in a narrative manner

The correct answer is D. Meta-analysis uses studies with similar design, defines inclusion criteria, and usually uses peer-reviewed articles. There is no criterion or requirement that data have to be presented in a narrative manner.

Q. The local WIC nutritionist has collected considerable data about pregnant women and infants in her community. Which of the following would be correctly categorized as qualitative data? The number of live births per 1,000 deliveries The mean age of women with documented cases of gestational diabetes A graph of the gestational ages and birthweights of all infants born alive A tally that notes the reasons that pregnant women report for omitting dairy products from their diets

The correct answer is D. Qualitative data are reported or derived from interviews with key informants who are knowledgeable about the community. Number of live births, mean age, and gestational age and birthweights are all quantitative measures.

Q. According to the Food Code, what temperature should be reached and maintained for at least 15 seconds when reheating previously cooked foods? 135°F 145°F 155°F 165°F

The correct answer is D. Reheated foods must reach 165°F. If a ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous food is improperly held or cooled, the potential for spore-forming or toxin-forming bacteria growth increases. Reheating may eliminate vegetative bacterial cells resulting from post-cook contamination (eg, Salmonella) or from improper holding or cooling (eg, Clostridium perfringens). Furthernmore, some bacteria form spores that survive cooking. These spores can germinate and grow if food is improperly held after cooking. Bacterial spores are likely to be present in most foods. Thus, the critical requirement for reheating food, as presented in the Food Code, is that the food must reach an internal temperature of 165ºF and remain at that temperature for a minimum of 15 seconds.

Q. In the Cajun and Creole culture, the traiteur is the one _____. who provides valued health and wellness information who is considered the most revered member of the community who blesses the food before it is consumed who believes he or she possesses a divine gift for healing

The correct answer is D. Similar to a shaman in other cultures, a traiteur believes he or she possesses an ability to heal.

Q. If a person with type 1 diabetes experiences dramatically low blood glucose and becomes unconscious, the most appropriate action would be to give three hard candies and administer insulin. give 4 oz fruit juice and administer insulin. give 4 oz fruit juice and administer glucagon. administer glucagon and call 9-1-1..

The correct answer is D. Since the patient is unconscious/unresponsive, glucagon should be administered as the first-line treatment. A glucagon injection will mobilize glucose from the liver to raise the blood sugar level. This treatment minimizes risk of choking for patients who are not conscious. Contact emergency services immediately after administering the glucagon injection.

Q. Which of the following is a secondary characteristic of culture? occupation age gender socioeconomic status

The correct answer is D. Socioeconomic status is a secondary characteristic of an individual's cultural identity.

Q. The Food Allergen and Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004 requires that labels must clearly identify the food source names of all ingredients that are—or contain any protein derived from—the eight most common food allergens, Which of the following foods is one of these eight most common food allergens? Corn Lentils Rye Soybean

The correct answer is D. Soybeans are among the eight most common allergens. To help Americans avoid the health risks posed by food allergens, Congress passed the Food Allergen Labeling and consumer Protection Act of 2004 (FALCPA). The law applies to all foods with labeling regulated by the FDA, both domestic and imported. (The FDA regulates the labeling of all foods, except for poultry, most meats, certain egg products, and most alcoholic beverages.) Before FALCPA, the labels of foods made from two or more ingredients were required to list all ingredients by their common or usual names. The names of some ingredients, however, do not clearly identify their food source. FALCPA now requires that labels must clearly identify the food source names of all ingredients that are—or contain any protein derived from—the eight most common food allergens, which FALCPA defines as "major food allergens." The eight foods identified by the law are: milk; eggs; fish (eg, bass, flounder, cod); crustacean shellfish (eg, crab, lobster, shrimp); tree nuts (eg, almonds, walnuts, pecans); peanuts; wheat; and soybeans. Corn, rye, and lentils are not among the eight most common food allergens listed.

Q. In accordance with the FDA's product labeling regulations, an item with less than ____ kcal per labeled serving can be considered "calorie free." 45 35 15 5

The correct answer is D. The FDA regulates product nutrient content claims on labels, for example, a label that claims a product is calorie free. These products must have no more than 5 kcal per labeled serving or RACC (reference amounts customarily consumed) to meet regulatory requirements.

Q. The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are primarily developed and published by the executive branch of the government under what departments? Agriculture and Education Housing and Urban Development and Agriculture Education and Health and Human Services Agriculture and Health and Human Services

The correct answer is D. The Health and Human Services Office of Disease Prevention and Health Promotion takes a leadership role in developing the guidelines. The USDA coordinates and supports the review and dissemination of the government's recommendations.

Q. A diagnosis of hypersensitivity to food requires conducting a food challenge without restricting the suspected food. documented atopic dermatitis. using an elimination diet for 3 weeks. verifying the food that causes an adverse reaction and excluding other causes of adverse reactions.

The correct answer is D. To confirm a food hypersensitivity diagnosis, the clinician is required to verify that the food allergen alone causes the adverse reaction.

Q. When the diet is adequate in protein, the body can synthesize niacin from which amino acid? Phenylalanine Valine Tyrosine Tryptophan

The correct answer is D. Tryptophan is an amino acid that is converted to niacin in the liver. An estimated 1 mg niacin is made from the ingestion of 60 mg tryptophan.

Q. Large institutions most often plan meals using cycle menus. Which of the following cycle lengths is most appropriate for a long-term-care facility? 2-week cycle menu 1-week cycle menu 4-week cycle menu Restaurant style static menu

The correct answer is C. The average length of stay is an important consideration in determining the cycle length. Since the length of stay in long-term care tends to be measured in months or years, rather than days or weeks, a longer cycle menu, such as 4 weeks, would be most appropriate.

Q. An instrument to collect data on the use of dietary supplements would be viewed as valid if it has been used previously many times. contains words and phrases familiar to participants. measures accurately what it is intended to measure. yields primarily quantitative data.

The correct answer is C. The defining feature of validity is whether the instrument accurately measures what it intends to measure. In contrast, reliability indicates that an instrument will provide similar results when used multiple times for the same measurement (but the information may not necessarily be accurate).

Q. To comply with Joint Commission certification standards, who should perform documentation of nutrition screening? Registered dietitian nutritionists on staff at the hospital Registered dietitian nutritionists or nutrition and dietetic technicians registered Staff selected at discretion of the hospital Food and nutrition services department managers

The correct answer is C. The hospital determines who will conduct the screening and document results to meet standard DSCT.5 EP.4.a of the Joint Commission Standards.

Q. The indicator head of a bimetallic stemmed thermometer ranges from 32˚F to 212˚F. 32˚F to 220˚F. 0˚F to 220˚F. 0˚F to 212˚F.

The correct answer is C. The indicator must register temperatures below 32˚F to accommodate incoming frozen food shipments and above 212˚F to accommodate hot holdings.

Q. A foodservice operation's Net Profit is $41,137, Cost of Goods Sold is $145,350, Average Inventory Value is $7,330, and Total Meals Served Per Day is 200. What is the inventory turnover rate? 3.53 5.61 19.83 36.65

The correct answer is C. The inventory turnover rate is determined by dividing the cost of goods sold by the average inventory value. $145,350/$7,330 = 19.83.

Q. The distinction between a franchise quick service restaurant (QSR) located in a shopping mall and the same franchise QSR located in a medical facility is that the shopping mall QSR is the only one allowed to make a profit. the medical facility QSR is expected to operate at a loss. the QSR in the hospital serves a secondary purpose while the QSR in the shopping mall serves as the primary purpose. the QSR in the shopping mall satisfies a level 1 customer-driven need while the QSR in the hospital does not.

The correct answer is C. The onsite foodservice operation is where sale of food is secondary to the goal of the organization. Foodservice in the hospital serves a secondary purpose of providing convenient access to food for employees and visitors. It may or may not be expected to generate a profit. However, the goal of the QSR in the shopping mall serves the primary purpose of selling food for a profit.

Q. Which of the following financial terms represents current liabilities? Accrued expenses, depreciation Depreciation, retained earnings Retained earnings, accounts payable Accounts payable, accrued expenses

The correct answer is D. A balance sheet provides a statement of an organization's assets (ie, current, fixed), liabilities (ie, current, long term), and owner's equity at a given time. Current liabilities (ie, accounts payable, accrued expenses, current mortgage payable) are debts that must be paid within 12 months. Depreciation is a fixed asset. Retained earnings are owner's equity.

Q. The group of people that best exemplifies the term "target population" are those with similar nutrition and fitness goals. with common characteristics or a common bond. who will conduct a community needs assessment. who are the focus of a community needs assessment.

The correct answer is D. A community needs assessment evaluates the health needs of a defined group, known as the target population.

Q. Which of the following is a physical link between safe water and dirty water, which can come from drains, sewers, or other wastewater sources? Air gap Backflow Vacuum breaker Cross-connection

The correct answer is D. A cross-connection is dangerous because it can let backflow occur. Backflow is the reverse flow of contaminants through a cross-connection into a drinkable water supply. An air gap is the space that separates a water supply outlet from a potentially contaminated source. A vacuum breaker is a mechanical device that prevents back siphonage.

Q. The five principles of motivational interviewing are: express empathy, avoid arguments, roll with resistance, support self-efficacy, and _____. develop discrepancy listen reflectively demonstrate reassuring responses provide evaluative replies

he correct answer is A. "Developing discrepancy" allows the participant to realize that his or her current situation may not agree with values or future goals. This tenet helps to present the argument for change, and change is motivated by discrepancy.

Q. In the Nutrition Care Process, the Nutrition Diagnoses should be _____during Nutrition Intervention. prioritized promulgated investigated linked

The correct answer is A. During the Nutrition Intervention step, prioritizing diagnoses is crucial.

Q. Which agency is responsible for reviewing safety information related to food ingredients and food packaging? Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN) International Food Information Council (IFIC) Food Safety Alliance for Packaging (FSAP) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

The correct answer is A.

Q. Which of the following ratios indicates an organization's ability to meet current financial obligations? Liquidity Operating Activity Profitability

The correct answer is A. "Current" signifies within 12 months. Liquidity is ease with which assets (ie, cash, accounts receivable, inventory, and prepaid expenses) can be converted to cash. Therefore, liquidity ratios indicate an organization's ability to repay its debts within the next 12 months or its ability to meet current obligations. Operating ratios indicate an operation's success in generating sales and controlling expenses (eg, food and labor cost percentages). Activity ratios examine how effectively an organization utilizes its assets (eg, inventory turnover). Profitability ratios measure an organization's ability to generate profit in relation to sales.

Q. A preventive cardiology clinic sees patients who come to their clinic without initial coronary heart disease. Five years after the clinic opened, the physician conducts a chart review of these patients to compare the development of coronary heart disease among two groups: all patients and patients who were referred to the registered dietitian nutritionist. This is a retrospective cohort study. correlational study. prospective cohort study. prevalence study.

The correct answer is A. A retrospective cohort study looks at data from the past on a group of people after they have developed the outcome of interest. A prospective cohort study follows a group of people before any of the subjects have developed the outcome of interest.

Q. What decision-making technique focuses on the highest gains with the smallest amount of losses, regardless of what the competitor does? Game theory Simulation Artificial Intelligence Queuing theory

The correct answer is A. A variety of decision-making techniques have been developed. Game theory introduces a competitive note to decision-making by bringing into a situation the actions of an opponent. The objective is to obtain the highest gains with the smallest amount of losses, regardless of what a competitor does. Simulation utilizes devices for imitating real-life occurrences and studying their properties, behaviors, and operating characteristics (eg, virtual reality). Artificial intelligence attempts to duplicate the thought processes of experienced decision makers (eg, expert systems). Queuing balances the cost of waiting lines against the cost of preventing them by expanding facilities.

Q. When utilizing support personnel in the delivery of customer-centered care, the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics Standards of Professional Performance state that the registered dietitian nutritionist is expected to utilize support personnel in accordance with law, regulations, and organization policies. rules of ethical practice, Joint Commission standards, and effective outcomes. established practices, organizational needs, and rules of ethical practice. regulations, Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics standards, and established directives.

The correct answer is A. According to Standard 3.5 of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics Standards of Professional Performance for Registered Dietitians, dietitians are expected to "utilize support personnel appropriately in the delivery of customer-centered care in accordance with laws, regulations, and organization polices."

Q. The first step toward attaining cultural competence is for the dietetics professional to _____. examine his/her own cultural background study the relevant cultural norms, values, and practicalities of the daily lives of clients identify cultural variations in family relationships note culturally-specific health beliefs and practices

The correct answer is A. According to this book, dietetics practitioners must first examine their own cultural backgrounds before understanding others.

Q. Which of the following financial terms includes accumulated depreciation? Fixed assets Owner's equity Liability Gross profit

The correct answer is A. Accumulated depreciation is the total depreciation of an asset up to a given date, which is subtracted from the original cost of the item. Accumulated depreciation is included in an organization's fixed assets.

Q. A group that is organized for the purpose of raising and spending money to elect or defeat political candidates is called a(n) political action committee. health advocacy organization. alliance. lobbying group.

The correct answer is A. Although all groups listed may have an impact on the legislature process, political action committees, or PACs, are the only ones organized for the purpose of raising and spending money to elect or defeat a political candidate.

Q. A group of registered dietitian nutritionists meets with a member of the legislature to encourage her support for an important nutrition issue. This activity is known as lobbying. advocacy. sponsorship. petitioning.

The correct answer is A. Although all of the activities listed are part of the political process, lobbying involves influencing legislators. Advocacy is when an individual or group aims to influence political decisions, whereas sponsorship is when a legislator endorses and introduces a bill. In petitioning, a group signs a written request asking for a legislator to pass a bill.

Q. The Joint Commission outlines patient safety goals annually. Which of the following are patient safety goals in an outpatient setting? Use medications safely, identify patients correctly, prevent infections Follow written safety procedures, prevent falls, individualize care Manage cases individually, record patient progress, encourage follow-up Demonstrate individual practitioner competence, administer medications accurately, post all safety procedures

The correct answer is A. Correct identification of patients using at least two patient identifiers decreases the risk for wrong-patient errors. National patient safety goals also include prevention of infections.

Q. When allergens are transferred from food containing an allergen to the food served to the customer, this is called cross-contact. cross-contamination. cross-connection. cross-transfer.

The correct answer is A. Cross-contamination is when pathogens can be transferred from one surface or food to another. Cross-connection is a physical link between safe water and dirty water, which can come from drains, sewers, or other wastewater sources. Cross-transfer is a made-up term.

Q. Which of the following is a current asset? Accounts receivable China Small equipment Retained earnings

The correct answer is A. Current assets are those that are liquid or can easily be converted to cash. China and small equipment cannot be quickly converted to cash. Retained earnings are the part of income that is set aside by the company instead of being distributed to shareholders. Accounts receivable represent current assets.

Q. Dietetics professionals can expect about one in _____ of their clients to have a disability that will require special accommodations. 5 15 25 50

The correct answer is A. Current statistics demonstrate that 20% of clients may have a disability.

Q. Daily Values are nutrient standards derived from the Daily Reference Values and the Reference Daily Intakes. Recommended Dietary Intakes. Reference Dietary Allowances. Recommended Daily Allowances.

The correct answer is A. Daily Values are nutrient standards derived from the Daily Reference Values (DRV) and Reference Daily Intakes (RDI). DRVs are provided for total fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, total carbohydrate, dietary fiber, sodium, potassium, and protein. RDIs are provided for vitamins; minerals; and protein for children younger than 4 years of age and for pregnant and lactating women. In order to limit consumer confusion, however, the label includes a single term (ie, Daily Value [DV]), to designate both the DRVs and RDIs.

Q. Which term best describes overall space planning that includes defining the size, shape, style, and decoration? Design Layout Blueprint Scheme

The correct answer is A. Design refers to the overall space planning; layout is the detailed arrangement of a building and its floor and/or counter space; and blueprint is what the architect will provide to the contractor so the space and its structures are built according to specifications.

Q. Which area in a kitchen usually has the least amount of light? Dry-storage Utensil-storage Preparation Inside reach-in refrigerator

The correct answer is A. Dry storage needs a minimum of 10 foot-candles. Utensil-storage and inside reach-in refrigerators need a minimum of 20 foot-candles. Preparation areas need a minimum of 50 foot-candles.

Q. What elements comprise the marketing mix? Product, price, promotion, and place Price, product, popularity, and process Product, promotion, position, and popularity Product, place, position, and process

The correct answer is A. Marketing mix is a combination of product, price, place and promotion to achieve an organization's objectives and to satisfy the target market. A product can be a good, a service, or an idea. Price is the amount of money charged for a product. Promotion is used to facilitate exchanges by informing prospective customers about a business and its products. Place refers to the location, the place where the product is offered. The terms "popularity," "process," and "position" have no relevance in marketing mix.

Q. Which of the following is a true statement regarding organic foods? Raw or processed agricultural products in the organic category may contain up to 5% non-organic ingredients allowed per the National List. Some operations are exempt from certification, including organic farmers who sell organic foods or crops worth $10,000 or less. Raw or processed agricultural products in the "100% organic" category must contain ingredients that are at least 90% certified organic. A product labeled as "MADE WITH" organic may use the USDA organic seal if no more than three ingredients are not certified.

The correct answer is A. Organic is defined as all ingredients must be certified organic; any processing aids must be organic and product labels must state the name of the certifying agent on the information panel. "MADE WITH" organic multi-ingredient agricultural products in the "made with" category must meet these criteria—at least 70 percent of the product must be certified organic ingredients (excluding salt and water).

Q. Which statement best describes the P component of the PDSA performance improvement model? Determine how changes will be implemented Implement the intervention Determine the impact of the intervention Implement and monitor the plan

The correct answer is A. PDSA, or Plan-Do-Study-Act, is an iterative, four-stage problem-solving model used for improving a process or carrying out change. The P component of PDSA includes planning how changes will be implemented. Actual implementation of the changes is included in D, determining the impact of the change is part of S (study). A, or act, includes reflecting on the plan and the outcomes.

Q. Diagnosis is the second step in the Academy's Nutrition Care Process and Model. Part of the Diagnosis step is to document PES. PES stands for _____. Problem, Etiology, Signs and Symptoms Plan, Education, Significant Results Proposal, Efficacy, Strategies Policy, Establish, Skills

The correct answer is A. PES stands for Problem, Etiology, Signs and Symptoms. Documentation of PES incorporates information gained during the Nutrition Assessment step of the Nutrition Care Process to identify the problem and the evidence presented by what the patient is experiencing

Q. Which of the following changes in eating pattern has research shown to most positively contribute to a decrease in energy consumption among children? Children participating in family-style meals at home Children being provided a child-special meal. Parents or caregivers serving children on individual plates Parents or caregivers providing scheduled meals and snacks in the home

The correct answer is A. Participating in family-style meals at home discourages children from overeating.

Q. Resilient flooring is able to withstand shock without cracking or breaking. is easily damaged by sharp edges. is curved with a sealed edge that eliminates sharp edges. is not slippery when wet.

The correct answer is A. Resiliency means a material has the ability to react to a shock without breaking or cracking.

Q. Which of the following foods is least likely to pose a choking risk for toddlers? Ground beef Nuts Popcorn Round candy

The correct answer is A. Round and hard foods are easier to suck into the windpipe. Ground beef represents a low choking risk in toddlers.

Q. In behavior change, which example demonstrates self-efficacy? Confidence in ability to consume breakfast daily Reading an article regarding regular physical activity and heart disease Doing research on family history of diabetes Perception that financial status will affect ability to eat recommended servings of fruits and vegetables

The correct answer is A. Self-efficacy is a reflection of confidence to perform and improved self-perception of obtaining success.

Q. Which of the following conditions would most likely result in a slightly elevated albumin? Dehydration Cirrhosis Inadequate protein intake Stage IV pressure ulcer

The correct answer is A. Severe dehydration can result in an elevated albumin level. All of the other conditions would result in a lower level of albumin due to decreased synthesis or unusual losses.

Q. Inadequate weight gain and a low-birth-weight infant are of concern in which population? Pregnant adolescents Pregnant women over the age of 35 Overweight women who become pregnant Women with a history of gestational diabetes

The correct answer is A. Teen girls concerned about weight gain and social stigma tend to gain less weight during pregnancy. For women older than 35, overweight women, and women with a history of gestational diabetes, weight gain is of concern.

Q. What inventory control method classifies products according to their value? ABC Mini-max Perpetual inventory Par rate

The correct answer is A. The ABC method classifies inventory products according to value. For example, the high-value A products may represent only about 20% of inventory but up to 80% of the inventory value. Mini-max and par rate are methods to help determine how much to order. Perpetual inventory is an up-to-date, ongoing count of food and supplies in storage.

Q. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC)? The CAC is funded by the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO). The CAC develops international standards and codes to promote growth of industry. The United States is required by international law to abide by Codex standards. The Codex lacks a standard for labeling of prepackaged foods.

The correct answer is A. The CAC is funded by the FAO and the WHO. The CAC develops international standards and codes to protect consumers. The Codex maintains a standard for labeling of prepackaged foods but the United States is not required by international law to abide by Codex standards.

Q. If the community nutritionist needed information about residents who are at least 65 years old, the best source of existing information would be the Department of Health and Human Services. Department of Agriculture. Department of Education. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

The correct answer is A. The Department of Health and Human Services administers Social Security (for individuals 65 years of age and older), so this agency would have data uniquely related to this group.

Q. Which ratio would be used to examine an establishment's ability to meet its long-term financial obligations and its financial leverage? Debt to assets Assets to liabilities Debt to liabilities Profit to losses

The correct answer is A. The assets-to-liabilities ratio calculates the percentage of assets provided by debt. Return on assets refers to the profitability of a company. Return on equity is a measure of company earnings compared to total shareholder equity. The debt-to-assets ratio examines ability to meet long-term financial obligations and financial leverage.

Q. Which statement best describes the F component of the FOCUS-PDSA performance improvement model? Identify a process to improve Develop a team Explain the current process Maintain and continue improvement

The correct answer is A. The first step of the FOCUS-PDSA model is F, or find, and its purpose is to identify the process that needs to be improved. Development of the team is included in O, or objectives; explanation of current processes is part of C, or clarify the problem; and maintenance and continued improvement are part of A.

Q. Public health policy is generally created by legislators. judges and magistrates. political action committees. the President and cabinet.

The correct answer is A. The legislative branch is responsible for creating law, the executive branch for enforcing law, and judicial branch for interpreting law. Political action committees are not part of the three branches of government. Legislators create public health policy.

Q. In developing a community nutrition intervention, a logic model graphically shows how various elements of planning lead to intended outcomes. provides a detailed budget that addresses various types of costs of the project. is used primarily for planning rather than implementation or evaluation. illustrates the underlying educational philosophies used in the intervention.

The correct answer is A. The logic model is a graphic that shows inputs, outputs, and outcomes or impact. It is used in program planning, implementation, and evaluation.

Q. Consider the following scenario when the provider/client are talking. RDN "Why don't you try spinach as a choice?" Client responds by rolling her eyes. Which of the following statements from the RDN is the best example of the motivational Interviewing guiding principle "rolling with resistance"? "You don't like this idea." "You might try fresh spinach instead." "Maybe you can try other kinds of green leafy vegetables." "You've been talking about making changes, so I'm thinking this is a simple, straightforward change for you."

The correct answer is A. The other options are examples of "righting reflex," where the provider offers advice. "Rolling with resistance" works to de-escalate the situation and avoid negative reactions; it disrupts the power struggle that may occur and the session thus doesn't become a series of "yes, but" arguments from the client.

Q. Which of the following techniques offers the least constructive information to someone being disciplined? Providing advice Focusing on behavior Providing alternatives Focusing on observations

The correct answer is A. The purpose of disciplining is for a manager to provide constructive information to help the subordinate become aware of how his or her actions affect the organization's system. The goal is to provide maximum information with minimum threat. Providing advice is not constructive. Feedback should focus on ideas and information, not advice.

Q. After completing this step in the Nutrition Care Process, the dietetics professional can decide whether or not a nutrition diagnosis/problem exists. Nutrition Assessment Nutrition Diagnosis Nutrition Intervention Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation

The correct answer is A. The purpose of nutrition assessment is to determine if the professional should progress any further into the plan of care with a nutrition diagnosis. It is the first step in the nutrition care process.

Q. According to USDA guidelines, during a power outage the refrigerator should keep food safely cold for about ____ hour(s) and a full freezer will hold the temperature for approximately ______ hours if the door remains closed. 4, 48 1, 12 2, 24 6, 72

The correct answer is A. The refrigerator should keep food safely cold for about 4 hours if it is unopened. A full freezer will hold the temperature for approximately 48 hours (24 hours if it is half full and the door remains closed).

Q. A handwashing station must be equipped with the following items: Running hot and cold water, soap, single-use paper towels, waste container, and signage indicating that employees should wash their hands before returning to work. Running hot water, soap, a warm-air dryer, waste container, and signage indicating that employees should wash their hands before returning to work. Running hot and cold water, soap, hand sanitizer, towel to dry hands, waste container, and signage indicating that employees should wash their hands before returning to work. Running hot water, hand sanitizer, single-use paper towels, waste container, and signage indicating that employees should wash their hands before returning to work.

The correct answer is A. There are five components to a handwashing station: hot and cold running water, soap, a means to dry hands, waste container, and signage indicating employees are required to wash hands before returning to work.

Q. Which of the following micronutrients should be supplemented in a patient with history of alcoholism? Thiamin and folic acid Folic acid and magnesium Calcium and thiamin Calcium and magnesium

The correct answer is A. Thiamine deficiency is common in alcoholics because thiamine absorption from food decreases and thiamine excretion from the body increases. Alcoholism can also cause folic acid deficiency by interfering with the absorption of this nutrient and by influencing the development of unhealthy eating habits.

Q. A 72-year-old woman with chronic heart failure and symptomatic edema who is on enteral feeding is treated with thiazide medication. What would you expect her labs to reveal as a result of this medication and its delivery method? Hypokalemia Hypernatremia Hypocalcemia Hypoglycemia

The correct answer is A. Thiazide is a diuretic that pulls potassium from the blood. Hypokalemia should be expected in the laboratory results.

Q. A general rule for appropriate portion sizes for toddlers and preschool children is to offer 1 Tbsp of each food per meal for each year of the child's age. ¼ to ½ cup of each of three foods per meal. 2 Tbsp of each food per meal for each year of the child's age. ½ of the adult portion.

The correct answer is A. Toddlers and preschool children should be given 1 Tbsp of each food for each year of age at meals.

Q. Yogurt manufacturers have branched out into Greek yogurt, high-fiber yogurt, bacteria-enhanced yogurt, and more because they believe customers prefer yogurt products. By doing so, which of the following marketing concepts are these manufactures applying? Product Selling Manufacturing Societal

The correct answer is A. Yogurt manufacturers are using the concept of product when they offer many different types and flavors of yogurt. Selling, manufacturing, and societal marketing concepts do not focus on offering different types of the same product.

Q. Which of the following must be true for a food to be labeled "low fat"? Contains less than 0.5 g fat per serving Contains less than 3 g fat per serving Contains 25% less fat than the full-fat food Contains 1/3 fewer calories or 50% less fat than the full-fat food

The correct answer is B. Following food labeling laws, to be identified as low in fat, a serving of food must contain less than 3 g fat.

Q. Which of the following is a main component of continuous quality improvement (CQI)? Development of new products or services Data collection Grass-roots initiatives Identification of high performing areas

The correct answer is B. CQI involves use of the scientific method for data collection. Other components include the identification of need including areas of low quality, commitment of management, prioritization, planning, and organization.

Q. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) provides a strict definition for functional foods. True False

The correct answer is B. Currently no legal definition exists for functional foods. The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates claims that manufacturers make about functional foods' nutrient content and effects on disease, health, or body function.

Q. During a snow storm, the assistant cook (AC) can't get to work. The person working in the "floater" position is unable to take over all AC responsibilities but is somewhat confident and is willing to assist the head cook in preparing items on the daily production schedule. To be most effective, what would be the manager's approach? Provide specific instructions (ie, "do this") to the willing employee and closely supervise performance. Define roles and tasks for the willing employee, provide opportunity for role clarification and questions, and give support. Listen to the willing employee, share ideas, facilitate in decision making, encourage, and praise. Turn over responsibility for decisions and implementation to the willing employee and head cook. Provide occasional recognition.

The correct answer is B. Defining roles and tasks and providing opportunity for role clarification and questions allows the floater the opportunity to redefine his or her role and to take on a different task. The manager empowers the floater this way by supporting the new role, which should result in more confidence to change roles.

Q. Which market segmentation variable consists of characteristics such as age, sex, race, ethnicity, income, education, and occupation? Geographic Demographic Psychographic Behavioristic

The correct answer is B. Demographic variables are those that can be used to describe a person, such as age, race, income, and so on. Geographic variables describe a physical location; psychographic variables describe personality, interests, or beliefs; and behavioristic variables describe consumer behaviors toward a product.

Q. Heat applied to a food will denature which of the food's components? Vitamins Proteins Carbohydrates Fats

The correct answer is B. Denaturation of proteins occurs when foods are subjected to heat, agitation, or ultraviolet light. Denaturation is the relaxing of a protein's tertiary structure to the secondary structure. Heat can degrade vitamins, fats, and carbohydrates.

Q. In what era did manufacturers produce what could be made rather than what consumers wanted? Sales Production Marketing Technological

The correct answer is B. During the production era, manufacturers focused on mass production. As markets became crowded with product, marketing strategies shifted to various pricing techniques to revitalize sales (sales era). Companies then shifted to marketing techniques (marketing era). The technological era of marketing utilizes emerging technologies to reach potential customers.

Q. Which of the following is a contraindication to enteral nutrition support in an elderly patient? Dysphagia Severe acute pancreatitis Advanced osteoporosis Oncologic disease

The correct answer is B. Dysphagia, osteoporosis, and oncologic disease do not affect gut function. Gut rest is appropriate for patients with pancreatitis so enteral feeds are contraindicated in elderly patients.

Q. What is the primary regulatory agency responsible for the safety of imported fish? Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) United States Department of International Commerce (USDIC)

The correct answer is B. Each of these entities governs aspects of the food supply, but the FDA regulates safety of imported food products.

Q. The largest hunger-relief organization in the United States is UNICEF. Feeding America. Meals on Wheels Association of America. The Hunger Project.

The correct answer is B. Feeding America is the largest domestic hunger-relief organization in the United States and serves the greatest number of food insecure individuals in the United States. UNICEF and the Hunger Project are international organizations.

Q. What type of budget uses the existing budget as a base and projects changes for the ensuing year in relation to the current budget? Fixed Incremental Flexible Zero-based

The correct answer is B. Fixed budgets (also known as static budgets) do not change based on variations in business. Flexible budgets are able to change depending on business activity. Incremental budgets use existing budget numbers as a base with incremental amounts added relative to the current budget.

Q. For the needs of infants born prematurely, human milk is deficient in potassium and phosphorus. calcium and phosphorus. sodium and potassium. calcium and sodium.

The correct answer is B. Human milk does not meet the calcium and phosphorus needs for normal bone mineralization in infants born prematurely. Therefore, breastmilk can be supplemented with human milk fortifiers that contain calcium and phosphorus.

Q. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable way to thaw food? In a refrigerator at a product temperature of 45°F or lower At room temperature for a maximum time of 2 hours Under running potable water at a temperature of 70˚F or lower In a microwave as long as the food will be cooked within 24 hours

The correct answer is B. If frozen food is exposed to the temperature danger zone during thawing, any foodborne microorganisms present will begin to grow. When thawing food under potable water, food cannot go above 41°F for longer than 4 hours. This includes the time it takes to thaw the food plus the time to prep or cool it.

Q. In order for a manufacturer to label a food as "healthy," it must contain <3 g fat and <120 mg cholesterol. <480 mg sodium. >2 grams of protein. >3 grams of dietary fiber.

The correct answer is B. In order for a manufacturer to label a food as "healthy," it must contain <3 g fat; <1g saturated fat; <480 mg sodium; and <60 mg cholesterol.

Q. Because insulin and _____ are secreted in the bloodstream in equal amounts, ____ can be used as a clinical indicator of endogenous insulin production. glucose c-peptide glutamic acid cortisol

The correct answer is B. Insulin is secreted as two polypeptide chains joined by disulfide bonds. C-peptide is released when the two chains separate.

Q. Overweight is defined as a BMI of: 19 to 24. 25 to 29. 27 to 32. 31 to 36.

The correct answer is B. Overweight BMI is 25.0-29.9. Obesity (class 1) BMI is 30.0-34.9. Class 2 BMI is 35.0-39.9. Severe obesity (class 3) BMI is 40.0-49.9

Q. Which of the following flooring materials would be best suited for high-traffic cooking areas? Ceramic tiles Quarry tiles Concrete Rubber

The correct answer is B. Quarry tile is wear resistant and nonporous. Ceramic tile is best used on walls. Concrete is hard, tires employees by causing muscle fatigue, and may cause accidents if individuals slip or fall when the floor is wet. Rubber floors are more difficult to clean.

Q. A manager who encourages qualified people to apply for existing or anticipated job openings is performing what act? Selection Recruitment Human resource planning Development

The correct answer is B. Recruitment is the process of locating and encouraging potential applicants to apply for a job opening. Selection is the process of comparing applicant knowledge, skills, and abilities to those required of a position and choosing the applicant most qualified. Human resource planning is designed to ensure that the organization's labor requirements are met and involves both forecasting staffing needs and analyzing labor market conditions. Development refers to the process of improving the technical, human, and conceptual skills of employees.

Q. Which of the following elements is part of the Institute of Medicine's (IOM) framework for health care quality? Institution-focused Equitable Responsive to change Focused on choosing a process to improve

The correct answer is B. The IOM defines health care quality as care that is patient-centered, equitable (no disparities), timely, safe, effective, and efficient. Selection of a process that needs improvement is a component of a quality improvement program.

Q. Studies suggest that the most serious and prevalent long-term consequences of childhood overweight is: dyslipidemia and glucose intolerance. obesity and morbidity in adulthood. lowered self-esteem and increased depression as an adolescent. excessive body weight and hormonal imbalance before puberty leading to growth plate injuries.

The correct answer is B. Research shows that obese children have a significantly higher chance of being obese in adulthood. The implications in the other options are of concern but represent short-term complications.

Q. ________________ is when a starch gel contracts and may leak water. Dextrinization Syneresis Cold pressing Gelatinization

The correct answer is B. Retrogradation is a reaction that takes place in gelatinized starch when the amylose and amylopectin chains realign themselves, causing the liquid to gel. Syneresis is the extraction or expulsion of a liquid from a gel.

Q. The foodborne illness often associated with poultry, egg products, and produce that has an onset of 6 to 48 hours, causing abdominal pain, headache, nausea, vomiting, fever, and diarrhea is Listeria monocytogenes. Salmonella. Shigella. Staphylococcus aureus.

The correct answer is B. Salmonella is the only microorganism listed that is associated with poultry, egg products, and produce.

Q. The loss of muscle mass that occurs with aging is termed: cachexia. sarcopenia. dystrophy. myotonia.

The correct answer is B. Sarcopenia is the term for loss of muscle mass. Cachexia refers to wasting; dystrophy refers to defective nutrition and metabolism; and myotonia refers to muscle spasms.

Q. When using the Nutrition Care Process, what three things do dietetics practitioners do in completing Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation? Prioritize nutrition diagnoses, consult the Academy's evidence-based nutrition practice guidelines, and determine patient-focused expected outcomes. Scrutinize, measure, and assess the changes in nutrition care indicators. Confer with patient/client/caregivers, define a nutrition plan and strategies, and determine time and frequency of care. Identify resources needed, communicate the nutrition care plan, and implement the plan.

The correct answer is B. Scrutinizing, measuring, and assessing are the key activities during the monitoring and evaluation step.

Q. What is the first step in the Nutrition Care Process? Nutrition screening Nutrition assessment Nutrition diagnosis Goal setting

The correct answer is B. Sequential steps in the Nutrition Care Process are nutrition assessment, nutrition diagnosis, nutrition intervention, and nutrition monitoring and evaluation.

Q. Which additive would inhibit mold in soda pop? Sorbitol Sodium benzoate Caramel Propyl gallate

The correct answer is B. Sodium benzoate is a preservative, bacteriostatic and fungistatic under acidic conditions. It is most widely used in acidic foods such as salad dressings (vinegar), carbonated drinks (carbonic acid), jams and fruit juices (citric acid), pickles (vinegar), and condiments.

Q. Which agency enforces food safety in a restaurant? Centers for Disease Control and Prevention State or local regulatory authority Food and Drug Administration US Department of Agriculture

The correct answer is B. State and local regulatory authorities inspect operations, enforce regulations, and investigate complaints and illnesses. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention investigates outbreaks of foodborne illness. The Food and Drug Administration issues the Model Food Code. The Department of Agriculture regulates food that crosses state boundaries or involves more than one state.

Q. Which of the following sets of business terms represents marketing? Emphasis on product, sales-volume-oriented, needs of seller Customer wants, profit-oriented, future growth Sales-volume-oriented, customer wants, planning for today Profit-oriented, future growth, needs of seller

The correct answer is B. Successful marketing focuses on producing goods that customers want, forecasting future growth, and being profit oriented. On the other hand, selling stresses the needs of the seller, focuses on the product, is sales-volume-oriented, and plans for today.

Q. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends breastfed infants receive vitamin D supplementation of 200 IU per day. 400 IU per day. 600 IU per day. 1000 IU per day.

The correct answer is B. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends supplementing breastfed infants with 400 IU vitamin D per day beginning soon after birth, as they generally do not get enough. Infants taking in less than 1 liter of infant formula per day should also be supplemented.

Q. An adult is described as overweight when their body mass index is 18.5 to 24.9. 25.0 to 29.9. 25.0 to 34.9. 30.0 to 40.0.

The correct answer is B. The BMI range for overweight is 25.0 to 29.9. Above 29.9 is obese.

Q. With regard to staff members having and consuming food and beverage items in patient care areas, Joint Commission standards require that all food and beverages be consumed in break areas. do not specifically address this issue. prohibit food and drinks if contamination might occur. require that an environment or care risk assessment be performed to address potential patient safety issues.

The correct answer is B. The Joint Commission standards do not specifically address the issue of food and drink being present and/or consumed in patient care areas. However, the Joint Commission does require compliance with applicable laws and regulations as well as the institution's own policies and procedures; thus it is possible that the organization per se or state or local laws would prohibit food and drink in clinical areas even though Joint Commission does not prohibit this directly.

Q. Which federal department is responsible for administering and regulating the National Organic Program (NOP)? Food and Drug Administration (FDA) United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) Food Safety Alliance for Packaging (FSAP) Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN)

The correct answer is B. The USDA administers and regulates the NOP program.

Q. Consider the following statement from a patient during a nutrition consult: "I really want to improve my lunch choices by packing my own lunch, but I'm afraid I'll miss the social time with my coworkers." In the setting of motivational interviewing, this is an example of: change talk. sustain talk. developing discrepancy. resistance.

The correct answer is B. The client's statement is not change talk because it argues for the status quo. Developing discrepancy is a technique employed by the clinician. Motivational interviewing rejects the concept of resistance and understands ambivalence is a natural component of the change process. The client's statement is an example of sustain talk.

Q. A report indicates that survivors of a massive earthquake who are 24 months of age or younger have an RR for cholera of 3.3. This means that children who are 24 months of age or younger who are living in an earthquake devastated-area are approximately 30% more likely to develop cholera than children of this age who live outside the post-earthquake area. have more than three times greater risk of developing cholera than children of this age who live outside the post-earthquake area. have approximately 30% lower risk of developing cholera than children of this age who live outside the post-earthquake area. are one-third as likely to develop cholera as children of this age who live outside the post-earthquake area.

The correct answer is B. The epidemiologic term "relative risk," or RR, is defined as follows: if RR > 1.0, the exposed group (in this case, children living in the earthquake area) are at a greater risk of a disease than the unexposed group.

Q. The variable that is manipulated in an experimental research study is the dependent variable. independent variable. population variable. individual variable.

The correct answer is B. The independent variable is the variable that is changed or manipulated in experimental research to determine outcome.

Q. Which of the following lunch menus reflect proper menu planning principles? Steamed haddock, rice, roasted cauliflower, vanilla frozen yogurt with fresh pineapple Baked pork chop, sautéed broccoli, rice pilaf, vanilla frozen yogurt with strawberries Grilled chicken breast, mashed potatoes, steamed parsnips, lemon sorbet Meatballs, tiny whole potatoes, Brussels sprouts, fresh bing cherries

The correct answer is B. The meal in choice B (baked pork chop, sautéed broccoli, rice pilaf, vanilla frozen yogurt with strawberries) shows the best use of color in a lunch meal, as well as a variety of flavors, textures, consistency, and food shapes that are balanced. The foods complement each other and employ a variety of cooking methods. The meals in answer choices A and C are mostly white in color and not as visually appealing. The meal in option D has color, but all the foods have the same shape (round).

Q. When cooking fish, it should reach an internal temperature of: 135°F for 15 seconds. 145°F for 15 seconds. 155°F for 15 seconds. 165°F for 15 seconds.

The correct answer is B. The minimum internal temperature to ensure safety for consuming fish is 145°F.

Q. Full-time employees generally work 236 days per year. What is the full-time equivalent? 0.65 0.72 1.55 1.85

The correct answer is C. 365 days each year ÷ 236 full-time workdays = 1.55 full-time equivalents (FTEs); therefore, 1.55 FTEs are required for each full-time position.

Q. It takes ___ FTE(s) to fill one 8-hour, 7-day-per-week position. 1 1.2 1.4 1.6

The correct answer is C. 8 hours × 7 days = 56 hours ÷ 40 hour workweek = 1.4 FTE

Q. One of the primary goals of WIC food supplements is increasing income for participating grocery stores. reducing or preventing iron deficiency anemia in infants and children. providing low-cost lunches to school-age children. increasing the number of women who get prenatal care.

The correct answer is B. The ultimate goal of WIC is to provide supplemental foods and nutrition education to low-income women, infants, and children up to age 5. Preventing iron deficiency anemia is specifically supported in the foods supplements by providing access to nutrient-dense foods as well as access to iron-fortified formula for non-breastfed infants.

Q. What term is used to indicate the monetary value of a property or business beyond any amounts owed? Total assets Owner's equity Long-term liabilities Gross profit

The correct answer is B. Total assets are anything owned by the company including liabilities. Gross profit is the difference between net sales and the cost of the items or services sold. Monetary value of a property or business beyond debts is called owner's equity.

Q. Preparing the following recipe for conversion using the percentage method, what is the percentage of flour? 1 kg plain flour 4.7 g teaspoon salt 3.5 g baking powder 900 g unsalted butter 400 g granulated sugar 0.43% 43.32% 7.60% 76%

The correct answer is B. Total weight of the recipe is 2308.2 g. Individual ingredient weight/total weight x 100 = percentage of individual ingredient; so 1 kg = 1000 g/2308.2 = 0.4332 x 100 = 43.32%. Flour = 43.32%.

Q. Which decision-making process would be most appropriate for determining whether medication, consultations with a registered dietitian nutritionist, or some combination of the two is the best approach for lowering serum triglyceride levels? Decision tree Cost-effectiveness analysis Network chart Cost-benefit analysis

The correct answer is B. Various techniques have been developed to assist managers with decision making. Cost-effectiveness provides a comparison of alternative courses of action in terms of their cost, financial gains and savings, and effectiveness in obtaining an objective. This technique does not include costs or effectiveness in obtaining objectives. Network charts are useful for presenting a graphic representation of a project, depicting the flow and sequence of defined activities and events; for example, planning, scheduling, and controlling a catered lunch. Cost-benefit provides a comparison of costs to financial gains -effectiveness is not considered.

Q. Which of the following are the correct CDC growth charts to use in a child care center for assessing the growth of a 6-year-old boy? Weight-for-age and length-for-age charts Weight-for-age and stature-for-age charts Stature-for-age and weight-for-stature charts Length-for-age and weight-for-stature charts

The correct answer is B. Weight-for-stature charts are used in 2- to 5-year-olds; length-for-age and weight-for-age are used in infants and toddlers from birth to 36 months. Weight-for-age and stature-for-age charts are used in children aged 2 to 20 years.

Q. What toxin is commonly linked to tuna, bonito, mackerel, and mahimahi? Anisakis simplex Vibro vulnificus Histamine Ciguatoxin

The correct answer is C. Histamine is a toxin commonly linked to tuna, bonito, mackerel, and mahimahi. Anisakis simplex is a parasite commonly linked with cod, halibut, mackerel, and pacific salmon. Vibrio vulnificus is a bacteria commonly linked to oysters from contaminated water. Ciguatoxin is a toxin commonly linked to barracuda, grouper, jacks, snapper.

Q. For a food to be labeled "light" or "lite," how many calories can it contain? At least 25% fewer calories than the regular food Less than 5 calories One-third fewer calories than the regular food No more than 40 calories

The correct answer is C The food labeling law defines "light" or "lite" as 1/3 fewer calories than the regular food.

Q. In December 2014, the FDA approved a final rule that calorie and other nutrition labeling would be required for standard menu items offered for sale in a restaurant or similar retail food establishment that is part of a chain with _____ or more locations, doing business under the same name, and offering for sale substantially the same menu items. 5 10 20 30

The correct answer is C. As part of the Affordable Care Act, the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act was amended to require restaurants and similar retail food establishments that are part of a chain with 20 or more locations doing business under the same name and offering for sale substantially the same menu items to provide calorie and other nutrition information for standard menu items.

Q. Which of the Standards of Practice is being applied when the RD plans for care of a patient following discharge? Nutrition assessment Nutrition intervention Nutrition monitoring and evaluation Nutrition diagnosis

The correct answer is C. Assessment, diagnosis, and intervention would have already been completed at this point. The next phase is nutrition monitoring and evaluation, which is conducted after a patient is discharged.

Q. This emulsifier is manufactured by splitting a fatty acid off triacylglycerol molecules and is useful in frozen desserts, shortening, and margarine. Lecithin EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) Diglycerides Glycerol

The correct answer is C. At high temperatures, triglycerides are capable of rearranging into monoglycerides and diglycerides. Diglycerides are emulsifiers that are used in the food industry to improve texture, stability, volume, softness, aeration, homogenization, and shelf life.

Q. Interpretation of BMI for children is age specific. sex specific. age and sex specific. the same as in adults.

The correct answer is C. BMI charts are specific to children's age and sex. Adult BMI measurements should not be used for children or adolescents.

Q. The foodservice department has been asked to prepare a special luncheon for the Grandway Hospital Board of Directors on Tuesday. There will be 25 board members at the luncheon. There are 125 portions of vegetable lasagna needed for the hospital's lunch service that day. The standardized vegetable lasagna recipe yields 125 portions and requires 21 lb of ricotta cheese. How much ricotta cheese must Chef Carl order to meet production needs? 42 lb 149 lb 26 lb 20 lb

The correct answer is C. Carl has a recipe for 125 portions and he needs to increase the yield to 150 portions. Divide 150 by 125 to get the factor, which is 1.2. Then multiply 21 pounds by 1.2 to get 25.2 pounds and round up to 26 pounds

Q. Which of the following population groups of children does research show to have a higher prevalence of iron deficiency? School-age children and children ages 3 to 5 years old Infants and school-age children Infants and adolescents Children ages 3 to 5 years old and adolescents

The correct answer is C. Children with high intakes of milk (infants) and who are experiencing a high rate of growth (adolescents) have a higher prevalence of iron deficiency.

Q. One advantage of using a crossover design over a parallel design is a shorter study duration. a smaller sample size. a reduction in variability. a washout period is not needed.

The correct answer is C. Crossover design includes a washout period and does not have to be a shorter study duration, and sample size does not have to be small. The design uses the same subjects who serve as the control, hence a reduction in variability.

Q. Which of the following social or economic trends is thought to have the most important consequences for future community nutrition practice? The segment of the US population growing most rapidly is children aged 12 years and younger Different generations in the United States having similar values and attitudes about health The deteriorating global environmental indicators such as climate change, degradation of topsoil, and increased use of many chemical pollutants The food purchasing practices and preferences in the United States that indicate a desire for an extensive variety of "value-added," pre-prepared foods

The correct answer is C. Deteriorating global environmental indicators are projected to affect future community nutrition practice more than any other social or economic trend. The other options are incorrect because the fastest growing segment of the US population is those older than 65, there is generational diversity in health-related values and attitudes, and purchasing practices indicate a desire and awareness of locally grown and fresh food.

Q. Interpersonal communication models encourage dietetics practitioners to respond in certain ways. Which of the following approaches best describes the preferred response ? Evaluative rather than descriptive Fixed rather than flexible Neutral rather than emphatic Problem-oriented rather than manipulative

The correct answer is C. Dietetics practitioners do not want to project judgmental cues or communicate unintentional roadblocks. This may interfere with relationship building. A neutral approach would, therefore, be preferred.

Q. Which health education planning model demonstrates that lasting behavior change is voluntary and must include input from the client? PATCH The 10-step Planning Model PRECEDE-PROCEED CDCynergy

The correct answer is C. Each of the options listed are planning models, but the distinguishing characteristic of the PRECEDE-PROCEED model is that behavior change is voluntary.

Q. What are the estimated kilocalorie needs of a 4-month-old infant who weighs 14 pounds? 509 623 687 724

The correct answer is C. Energy needs are calculated as 108 kcal/kg for infants 6 months of age and younger. For a 14 pound (6.36 kg) infant, 687 kcal is the estimated caloric requirement.

Q. What is the intended purpose of Healthy People 2020? To guide the efforts of health professionals who provide care for individuals with chronic diseases. To guide the allocation of federal money intended to promote wellness. To establish a set of national goals and objectives designed to guide health promotion and disease prevention efforts. To establish nationally approved guidelines for improving food selection behaviors among the population.

The correct answer is C. Healthy People 2020 is a set of national goals and objectives designed to guide health promotion and disease prevention efforts to improve the nation's health over a 10-year period.

Q. Structure/function claims on the label of a dietary supplement might describe how a nutrient prevents a disease. alters the treatment of a disease. affects normal body function. cures common ailments.

The correct answer is C. FDA guidelines allow statements on dietary supplements that describe how a nutrient affects normal body function. On January 6, 2000, the FDA published a final rule in the Federal Register defining the types of statements that may be used on the label of dietary supplements without prior review by the agency (65 FR 1000) (http://www.cfsan.fda.gov/~lrd/fr000106.html). According to the FDA, statements that describe the effect a dietary supplement may have on the structure or function of the body are called structure/function claims. FDA's regulation also provides criteria to assist the consumer in determining when a statement about a dietary supplement is a disease claim, that is, a claim to diagnose, cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent disease. Disease claims require prior approval by the FDA and may be made only for approved drug products or for foods under separate legal provisions that apply to health claims.

Q. ABC Hospital Food and Nutrition Department prepares and delivers meals to other health care operations in a large metropolitan area. Other hospital foodservices in the metropolitan area have recently begun offering meal delivery service. ABC Hospital modified its service to offer home meal replacements to the health care staff in addition to its other meal delivery service. ABC Hospital is using strategic analysis. competitive advantage. focus strategy. strategic implementation.

The correct answer is C. Focus strategy uses a cost leadership or differentiation strategy to target a specific, limited-size market niche. ABC Hospital changed its service to reach out to a specific population/market niche in home meal replacement to health care staff. The other hospital is using a competitive approach against ABC hospital.

Q. What must be true for a food to be labeled "low sodium"? Contains less than 5 mg sodium per serving Contains no more than 35 mg of sodium per serving Contains no more than 140 mg sodium per serving Contains at least 25% less sodium than the regular food

The correct answer is C. Food labeling laws require that a food have no more than 140 mg sodium per serving in order to be identified as a low-sodium food.

Q. For a food to be labeled "high in," "rich in," or an "excellent source" of a nutrient, what percentage of the Daily Value for that nutrient must be present? 10% 15% 20% 25%

The correct answer is C. Food labeling laws require that a food provide 20% of a nutrient's daily value in order to be labeled "high in," "rich in," or an "excellent source" of that nutrient.

Q. Which additive derived from collagen might be used in a frozen dessert as a stabilizer, thickener, and texturizer? Gum ghatti Modified food starch Gelatin Corn syrup

The correct answer is C. Gelatin is a translucent, colorless, brittle (when dry), and flavorless solid substance, derived from collagen obtained from various animal byproducts. It is commonly used as a gelling agent in food.

Q. "US Fancy" is a quality designation used for _____. processed cheese products. milk and dairy products. eggs. fruits and vegetables.

The correct answer is D. "US Fancy" means premium quality. US Fancy fruits and vegetables are of more uniform shape and have fewer defects than US No. 1.

Q. During their peak growth spurt, adolescent males are at greatest risk for a deficiency of protein. copper. iron. phosphorus.

The correct answer is C. Iron needs increase at a higher rate for adolescent males for development of lean body mass.

Q. Which of the following is true about cutting boards? Only synthetic cutting boards are ever allowed to be used. Only wooden cutting boards are ever allowed to be used. Wooden cutting boards should be made from hardwood such as maple or oak. It is permissible to use the same cutting board for ready-to-eat and raw foods as long as you use different sides of the cutting board.

The correct answer is C. Many jurisdictions allow the use of either wooden or synthetic cutting boards, but wooden cutting boards must be made from nonabsorbent hardwood so the odor or taste of food does not transfer. Separate cutting boards should be used for raw and ready-to-eat food to prevent cross-contamination no matter which type of cutting board is used.

Q. When determining presentation of items on a printed menu, considerations are taken for their position on the menu. Items you wish to sell more of should be placed so that they are the first and/or last thing a customer sees. This positioning strategy is the science of menu design. menu placement. menu psychology. menu structure.

The correct answer is C. Menu psychology is an examination of how to design a menu to influence what customers pick to eat.

Q. What organization creates national standards for foodservice equipment? CDC FDA NSF OSHA

The correct answer is C. NSF is accredited by the American National Standards Institute (ANSI). NSF has developed more than 80 voluntary American National Standards under the scope of public health, safety, environment, and sustainability assessment. NSF/ANSI standards are developed through a public process that ensures balanced input from industry representatives, public health/regulatory officials, and users/consumer representatives. The CDC investigates foodborne illnesses. The FDA issues the Model Food Code. OSHA investigates workplace accidents.

Q. Shell eggs should be stored at or below 32⁰F. 41⁰F. 45⁰F. 50⁰F.

The correct answer is C. Shell eggs are the only food stored at an air temperature of 45⁰F or lower. Other cold foods are stored at 41⁰F or lower.

Q. Which of the following lists of the side effects of contraceptive injections is accurate and complete? Weight loss, decreased blood levels of HDL-cholesterol, and decreased bone density Weight gain and increased blood levels of LDL-cholesterol and insulin Weight gain, increased blood levels of LDL-cholesterol and insulin, decreased blood levels of HDL-cholesterol, and decreased bone density Increased blood levels of LDL-cholesterol and insulin, weight loss, and decreased blood levels of HDL-cholesterol

The correct answer is C. Some contraceptives may cause weight gain, increased LDL cholesterol, decreased HDL cholesterol, and decreased bone density.

Q. Which of the following does the Braden Scale measure? Risk factors that may lead to undernutrition Medical conditions that affect the ability to feed oneself Risk assessment for pressure ulcers Appetite stimulants in the patient or client's environment

The correct answer is C. The Braden scale, an assessment tool for predicting the risk of pressure ulcers, is based on the total scores of the six criteria—sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction.

Q. Which of the following is an element of the Chronic Care Model (CCM)? Inclusive team management Comprehensive data collection Clinical information systems Employee motivation at all levels

The correct answer is C. The Chronic Care Model encompasses care provided in the community and by health systems. Clinical information systems are part of the health systems component of the CCM. Motivation at all levels, inclusive team management, and comprehensive data collection are not specified elements of the CCM.

Q. A patient in residential care is receiving an enteral formula that contains 1.5 kcal/ml at a rate of 75 ml for a 12-hour time frame. The patient will receive: 950 kcal 1,050 kcal 1,350 kcal 1,650 kcal

The correct answer is C. This client would receive a total of 900 ml over the 12-hour time frame x 1.5 kcal/ml = 1,350 kcal.

Q. In a community needs assessment report, the passage "...the southeast region of Essex County, including the adjoining municipalities of Kardon, Greenwalt, and Addison...," is an example of

The correct answer is C. This passage defines the community. Community can be defined by not only common interest and values but also geographic boundaries.

Q. A patient with a new diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia has been referred to the dietetics practitioner. She did not know she was anemic; however, she admits to feeling tired lately. At which stage of change is this person? Prepared Contemplative Precontemplative Maintenance

The correct answer is C. This patient is in the precontemplative stage, because she was not aware that she had anemia, and she was not thinking about changing her diet. Ignorance and denial are characteristics of precontemplation.

Q. A food product may be labeled "Made with Organic Ingredients" if _____% of the finished product's ingredients meet organic criteria. 50 60 70 80

The correct answer is C. To be labeled "Made with Organic Products," at least 70% of the finished product's ingredients must meet organic criteria. If there is less than 70% organic ingredients in a product, the manufacturer can list them on the ingredient panel and can list the organic ingredient percentage on the information panel, but "organic" cannot be claimed on the principal display panel.

Q. Which natural colorant might be added to pickles? Acetic acid Calcium chloride Turmeric Tragacanth gum

The correct answer is C. Turmeric is added to pickles for flavor and color enhancement.

Q. Calculating protein needs above 1.5 g/kg body weight in an elderly patient with stage III pressure ulcer and impaired renal function may cause hyperglycemia. dyslipidemia. dehydration. increased wound healing.

The correct answer is C. Usually protein intake is increased for patients with pressure ulcers to promote wound healing. In patients who also have compromised renal function, the higher protein concentrations must be monitored to assure that fluids are not pulled from the system, causing dehydration.

Q. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a cohort study? It is difficult to define characteristics of the participants. It is difficult, if not impossible, to validate data. It is rarely possible to study the mechanism of a disease. Incidence rates among participants cannot be calculated.

The correct answer is C. Validating data (B) is a disadvantage of case control studies. It is quite feasible to use demographic data to define the participants in a cohort study and the ability to calculate incidence rates among participants is an advantage of cohort study. The correct answer is C.

Q. Which of the following nutrients is essential for growth and sexual maturation in adolescents? Calcium Selenium Zinc Iron

The correct answer is C. Zinc deficiency is the hallmark sign of growth retardation and sexual immaturity.

Q. Which one of the following is NOT included in the statin benefit group according to the 2013 American College of Cardiology (ACC)/American Heart Association (AHA) Guidelines on the Treatment of Blood Cholesterol to Reduce Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Risk in Adults? Individuals with low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) elevations > 190 mg/dL Individuals 40 to 75 years of age with diabetes and LDL-C between 70 and 189 mg/dL Individuals with clinical atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) Individuals without ASCVD, diabetes mellitus between the ages of 40 and 75 and who have a 10-year risk of 5.5%

The correct answer is D. According to the ACC/AHA guidelines, the individuals listed in options A, B, and C are routinely prescribed a statin; the individuals listed in option D are not. Statin use is indicated in individuals whose ASCVD risk score is 7.5% and above.

Q. Which of the following disease states may require a fluid restriction? Liver disease with ascites Chronic renal failure Congestive heart failure All of the above.

The correct answer is D. All of the disorders listed feature abnormal levels of Na and K so fluids must be restricted to help reduce edema and other forms of fluid retention.

Q. Which of the following is the most effective and efficient tool for gathering information on consumption of locally grown foods by community residents? Health risk appraisal Screening tool Focus group Survey

The correct answer is D. All options listed are methods for obtaining data, but surveys are the least expensive systematic study of a cross-section of individuals. A health risk appraisal characterizes a population's general health; a screening tool represents a preventive health activity; and, although a focus group would be plausible, it is a very expensive way of obtaining both qualitative and quantitative information.

Q. If the community nutritionist questions whether the new educational activities provided for SNAP recipients are achieving the intended increase in fresh vegetable intake, the best approach would be to conduct a(n) ___________ evaluation. efficiency process structure impact

The correct answer is D. Although each option listed is a form of evaluation, the only right answer would be an outcome-focused evaluation—the process of determining whether the program's methods and activities resulted in the desired changes, or, the desired impact, in the client.

Q. Which of the following glucose-lowering medications would require patient education about treatment of hypoglycemia? Metformin (Glucophage) Sitagliptin (Januvia) Pioglitazone (Actos) Glimepiride (Amaryl)

The correct answer is D. Among the options, glimepiride (Amaryl) is the only secretagogue, which means the mechanism of action is stimulating the pancreas to make insulin, thereby causing the possibility of low blood glucose.

Q. Critical nutrition concerns in children ages 2-11 years of age include: excessive intakes of dietary fat, especially saturated fats. decreased intakes of foods that are good sources of calcium, fiber, iron, vitamin E, folate, magnesium, and potassium. sedentary lifestyles. all of the above.

The correct answer is D. Based on the Academy's position on nutrition guidance for children aged 2 to 11 years, all the factors listed contribute to concerns in this population.

Q. Which of the following statements best describes the similarities between the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) and the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)? Both programs are regulated by the USDA, provide referrals to health care and other social services providers, and are entitlement programs. Both programs are regulated by the USDA, contain income eligibility guidelines, and are entitlement programs. Both programs are regulated by the USDA, contain income eligibility guidelines, are entitlement programs, and recipients must have a documented medical or nutritional risk. Both programs are regulated by the USDA and contain income eligibility guidelines.

The correct answer is D. Both programs are regulated by the USDA and they both impose eligibility guidelines, but WIC is not an entitlement program, and SNAP eligibility isn't based on nutritional risk; instead eligibility is based on family income.

Q. The average contribution margin (CM) per item on a menu is $6.74 and the menu mix (MM) percentage that is considered to be high is 12. A menu item has a CM of $6.93 and a MM percentage of 11. What menu engineering term would be used to describe this menu item? Plowhorse Puzzle Dog Star

The correct answer is D. CM indicates profitability, whereas MM determines an item's popularity relative to other menu items. Puzzles are items that are profitable but not very popular. Plowhorses are items that are popular but not very profitable. Stars are items that are both popular and profitable. Dogs are items that are neither popular nor profitable.

Q. Which of the following is an appropriate method to prevent aspiration during enteral feeding? Use a fiber-containing formula Elevate the head of the bed >15° Place a percutaneous gastrostomy Place a nasojejunal tube

The correct answer is D. Compared with gastric tube feeding, duodenojejunal (small intestine) tube feeding may be associated with a lower incidence of aspiration. This is especially true if the patient has significantly slowed gastric motility. Some clinicians believe that enteral nutrition delivered to the small bowel is a better choice than feedings delivered to the stomach and will place a nasojejunal feeding tube. This type of feeding tube is more difficult to place than a nasogastric tube 18 French but its proponents say that it decreases the risk of aspiration and may provide more energy; thus, the feeding schedule will be subject to fewer interruptions. However, both the jejunum and the stomach can be safely used to deliver energy, so the differences between the two types of tubes are minimal, both can be effective, and the decision as to which one to use depends on the skill of the practitioner and the potential tolerance of the patient.

Q. Using behavioral learning theory can be problematic in a foodservice environment because one of its tenets is that ______. positive reinforcement is used its use requires that there be a good role model learners have to be permitted to ask questions undesirable behaviors are ignored

The correct answer is D. Conditioning is a process by which one learns and that process can be less effective in a chaotic environment. Chaotic environments can wrongly give the impression that multiple, inconsistent behaviors are the correct behavior, leaving the learning confused about the correct behavior.

Q. A foodservice operation has a 1.93 current ratio. This value indicates to creditors that the foodservice operation most likely will not be able to meet long-term financial obligations. not be able to generate profit in relation to sales. be able to control expenses. be able to pay bills when due.

The correct answer is D. Current ratio is calculated by dividing current assets by current liabilities. The resulting number indicates an organization's ability to meet current financial obligations, and therefore, is a measure of bill-paying ability. Creditors use the current ratio to help determine if an organization has sufficient assets to repay debts over the next 12 months. Current ratios that are greater than 1 indicate the organization most likely will be able to pay bills when due and over the next 12 months.

Q. The following blood test result puts a patient at greatest risk for developing heart disease: elevated cholesterol. low triglycerides. elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL)-buoyant particles of cholesterol Elevated LDL-dense particles of cholesterol

The correct answer is D. Elevated LDL-dense particles of cholesterol are most likely to lead to inflammatory heart disease and plaque formation.

Q. Dietetic students finishing supervised practice should be able to utilize food and nutrition management systems, work with electronic health records, and prescribe TPN formulas. create organizational mission statements. generate appropriate statistical analyses. print client educational materials.

The correct answer is D. Entry-level practitioners need to have a general awareness of entry-level informatics skills, which include electronic health records, food and nutrition management systems, and educational print materials.

Q. The term for the study of the distribution and determinants of disease frequency is: meta-analysis. prevalence. incidence. epidemiology.

The correct answer is D. Epidemiology is the study of disease among people. This includes distribution of the disease, how the disease is located among the population, how the disease is spread, what causes the disease, and the frequency of the disease in the population.

Q. Based on the principles of FIFO, which of the following canned items are correctly placed (by date) on the shelves? (Front of shelf) 2/12, 2/15, 2/25, 3/1, 2/27 (back of shelf) (Front of shelf) 3/1, 2/15, 2/25, 2/12, 2/27 (back of shelf) (Front of shelf) 3/1, 2/27, 2/25, 2/15, 3/1 (back of shelf) (Front of shelf) 2/12, 2/15, 2/25, 2/27, 3/1 (back of shelf)

The correct answer is D. FIFO means first-in, first out, so the dates must be arranged from the oldest date at the front of the shelf to the most recent date at the back of the shelf.

Q. The greatest number of employee injuries in kitchens is from burns. contusions. sharp knives. slippery floors.

The correct answer is D. Falls on wet or greasy floors in a kitchen will cause more injuries and more severe injuries leading to potential workman's compensation claims than burns or cuts.

Q. Consumption of high levels of folate supplements can mask a(n) _____________ deficiency. niacin vitamin B6 iron vitamin B12

The correct answer is D. Folate supplements will help the body recover from anemia that occurs from a deficiency of folate and vitamin B12. However, without adequate vitamin B12, neurological problems progress and become irreversible.

Q. How many times might a parent need to expose a child to a food before acceptance of that food occurs? 1 to 2 3 to 5 6 to 7 8 to 10

The correct answer is D. Frequent exposure improves acceptability, so it may take as many as 8 to 10 exposures before a child accepts a food.

Q. The National School Lunch Program receives funding from the CMS. CDC. CACFP. USDA.

The correct answer is D. Funding from the USDA supports the National School Lunch Program.

Q. Of the following foodborne microorganisms, which of the following is considered a parasite? Shigella Staphylococcus aureus Hepatitis A Giardia duodenalis

The correct answer is D. Giardia duodenalis is the only parasite among all options listed. Hepatitis A is a virus. Shigella and staphylococcus aureus are considered bacteria.

Q. ________________ describes a process used to make fats and oils more solid at room temperature. Cold pressing Winterizing Polymerization Hydrogenation

The correct answer is D. Hydrogenation is the process of adding hydrogen atoms to carbon atoms. It is most often used in food production to turn oils containing unsaturated fats into those containing saturated fats.

Q. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, a rare condition that presents with extremely high blood glucose levels, elevated serum osmolality, extreme dehydration, and low amounts of ketones, usually occurs in preterm infants. obese adolescents. adults aged 18 to 35 with hypertension. persons older than 65 with type 2 diabetes mellitus.

The correct answer is D. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state often occurs when people with type 2 diabetes have an infection or forget to take their medicines. Because the prevalence of type 2 diabetes is increasing in the aging population, who may be more likely to forget to take their medications and experience underlying infections, hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state occurs more often in seniors.

Q. The FDA defines the term "gluten-free" to mean that the food bearing the claim contains no more than _____ parts per million (ppm) or _____milligrams (mg) or more gluten per kilogram (kg) of food. 5, 10 10, 15 15, 15 20, 20

The correct answer is D. In 2013, the FDA issued a final rule to define the term "gluten-free" for voluntary use in the labeling of foods. The final rule defines the term "gluten-free" to mean that the food bearing the claim does not contain an ingredient that is a gluten-containing grain (eg, spelt wheat); an ingredient that is derived from a gluten-containing grain and that has not been processed to remove gluten (eg, wheat flour); or an ingredient that is derived from a gluten-containing grain and that has been processed to remove gluten (eg, wheat starch), if the use of that ingredient results in the presence of 20 parts per million (ppm).

Q. The standards established by the FDA include standards of identity, standards of minimum quality, and standards of production. processing. labeling. fill.

The correct answer is D. In addition to addressing "filth" and ensuring the correct ingredients are used in foods, the FDA established three "content" standards to protect consumers from deceptive manufacturing practices: standards of identity, standards of minimum quality, and standards of fill of container for food.

Q. The Standards of Practice are structured to include the Standards, Rationales, Examples of Outcomes, and _____. Goals Targets Processes Indicators

The correct answer is D. Indicators are included as measurable and quantifiable actions or statements. They illustrate how specific standards of practice may be applied and evaluated.

Q. Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of which vitamin? B2 B6 C B12

The correct answer is D. Intrinsic factor (IF) is made in the stomach and as soon as the R protein loses affinity for vitamin B12 in the more alkaline duodenum, vitamin B12 binds to IF. This complex, B12-IF, is necessary in order for vitamin B12 to be absorbed.

Q. When performing a nutritional assessment on a child, head circumference should be measured up to the age of 12 months. 18 months. 24 months. 36 months.

The correct answer is D. It is important to measure adequate head growth, to indicate brain development, up to 3 years of age.

Q. Which of the following illnesses is most commonly linked to raw meat, unpasteurized dairy products, and ready-to-eat foods such as hot dogs, deli meats, and soft cheeses? Bacillus cereus Clostridium botulinum Clostridium perfringens Listeria monocytogenes

The correct answer is D. Listeria monocytogenes is the only one of the pathogens listed that is associated with the raw meat, unpasteurized dairy products, and ready-to-eat foods like hot dogs, deli meats, and soft cheeses.

Q. The formula for determining value analysis is V=Q/P, where V= value; Q=quality; P=price. If P increases, and there is no change in Q, then V will remain the same. will most likely increase. changes as much as P. will most likely decrease.

The correct answer is D. No change was indicated for Q. If the denominator (P) increases and Q remains the same, the only definite change to be noted in V would be a decrease.

Q. Which of the following statements about patient-centered medical homes (PCMH) is true? The cost for chronic care remains constant Traditional medical records are essential. Patients are responsible for access to care. The team of providers changes as the health care needs differ.

The correct answer is D. One of the biggest advantages of a PCMH is access to care—the team of providers changes as the health care needs differ. All other statements are false with regard to PCMH.

Q. For a food to be labeled "healthy," what must be true for each serving? It provides at least 25% DRV for vitamins A and C. It contains no more than 75 mg cholesterol. It contains no more than 140 mg sodium. It meets standards for low-fat and saturated-fat foods.

The correct answer is D. Per food labeling guidelines, a food cannot be labeled as "healthy" unless it meets the standards for low fat and saturated fat of less than 3 g of fat per serving.

Q. According to the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, each registered dietitian nutritionist is expected to promote public access and referral to credentialed dietetics practitioners for quality food and nutrition programs and services by participating in public service or other mass media efforts to educate the citizenry. monitoring support of food and nutrition programs and services for populations with special needs. participating in interdisciplinary teams efforts and referring patients in a manner consistent with HIPAA rules for use and disclosure. monitoring the effectiveness of referral systems and modifying them as needed to achieve desirable outcomes.

The correct answer is D. Standard 3 of the Standards of Professional Performance for Registered Dietitians includes 3.2—promotes public access and referral to credentialed dietetics practitioners for quality food and nutrition programs and service. The three components are: 3.2A "Contributes to or designs referral systems that promote access to qualified, credentialed dietetics practitioners"; 3.2B "Refers customers to appropriate providers when requested services or identified needs exceed the RD's individual scope of practice"; and 3.2c "Monitors effectiveness of referral systems and modifies as needed to achieve desirable outcomes."

Q. Which of the following managerial terms describes the continuous and systematic process in which decisions are made about intended future outcomes, how outcomes are to be accomplished, and how success is measured and evaluated? Accountability Effectiveness Organizing Strategic planning

The correct answer is D. Strategic planning is a continuous and systematic process in which people make decisions about intended future outcomes, how outcomes are to be accomplished, and how success is measured and evaluated. Accountability is the state of being responsible to one's self, to some organization, or even to the public. Effectiveness is "doing the right things." Organizing is the management function of grouping activities, delegating authority, and coordinating relationships horizontally and vertically.

Q. Which one of the following patient scenarios requires less stringent blood glucose targets? A 32-year-old with new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes A 65-year-old on metformin only and who is determined to lose weight and get off medication A 72-year-old with 8-year history of diabetes starting basal insulin therapy A 58-year-old with severe cardiomyopathy, depression, and limited family supports

The correct answer is D. Stringent glucose targets are established with regard to life expectancy, presence of comorbid conditions, risk of hypoglycemia, and support systems. Scenarios A, B, and C represent appropriate supports to initiate basal insulin with low risk for hypoglycemia.

Q. The most influential perception factor in a person's selection of a particular food is olfactory. mouthfeel or texture. visual. gustatory.

The correct answer is D. Taste, or gustatory, is the most influential factor in food preferences, more so than mouthfeel (texture), smell (olfactory), or visual.

Q. Which agency determines the safety of new pesticides and sets a tolerance level for all pesticides and their residue in food? Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) US Department of Agriculture (USDA) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

The correct answer is D. The EPA is responsible for determining the safety of any pesticide before it can be used on a commodity food. Once approved for use, the EPA is responsible for setting tolerable residue limits for pesticides on food. Once these tolerance levels are set by the EPA, enforcement is overseen by the FDA.

Q. Standards of identity that specify minimum and maximum ingredient requirements, optional ingredients, and prohibited ingredients in a food product are established by which federal agency? Federal Trade Commission (FTC) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) US Department of Agriculture (USDA) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

The correct answer is D. The FDA established standards of identity for common food products to ensure quality and consistency. These standards clearly define required ingredients and specified amounts of these ingredients, as well as prohibited ingredients in foods. Foods must conform to the defined standards of identity to use the corresponding food name (eg, mayonnaise).

Q. What organization created standards for cultural competence that resulted in the 2014 publication of a monograph to inspire hospitals to integrate cultural competence as well as other patient- and family-centered care concepts? The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics US Dept. of Education US Dept. of Health and Human Services Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations

The correct answer is D. The Joint Commission published this monograph to inspire hospitals to integrate concepts from the communication, cultural competence, and patient- and family-centered care fields into their organizations. The Roadmap for Hospitals provides recommendations to help hospitals address unique patient needs, meet the patient-centered communication standards, and comply with related Joint Commission requirements

Q. In which of the following situations does Joint Commission require the performance of a nutritional assessment or screen? During emergency room visits During visits to hospital owned physician offices When a patient is seen in an outpatient clinic When warranted by the patient's needs or condition

The correct answer is D. The Joint Commission's standards for nutritional and functional screening clearly state that these are performed when warranted by the patient's needs or condition. An organization would define (in writing) the criteria that identify when these screenings and more in-depth assessment are performed. When applicable for the patient's condition, these screenings must be completed within 24 hours after inpatient admission. It is not required that nutritional or functional screening are completed for all patients at all encounters if it has not been defined by the organization's policy. Nutritional and functional screening are not performed if a licensed independent practitioner with appropriate clinical privileges has determined that it is not necessary in emergency situations or if it is not warranted by the patient's needs or condition.

Q. The Nutrition Care Process model consists of: outcomes management systems. dietetics knowledge. critical thinking skills. all of the above.

The correct answer is D. The Nutrition Care Process model is different from the nutrition care process itself. The model encompasses all of the areas listed, not just the Assessment, Diagnosis, Intervention, and Monitoring & Evaluation steps.

Q. A family is having difficulty providing food for all its members. The father skips meals occasionally and the mother eats very little to ensure that the children have enough to eat. Using established categories of food security status, this family would be classified as having high food security. marginal food insecurity. low food security. very low food security.

The correct answer is D. The US Department of Agriculture term "very low food security" has very specific measures: at times during the year, eating patterns of one or more or household members were disrupted and food intake reduced because the household lacked money and other resources for food. Very low food security involves hunger while those experiencing low food security are able to use strategies to avoid hunger.

Q. What is the best way to determine the type of nutrition program that will attract baby boomers who use a city recreation center? Give a nutrition knowledge pre-test and post-test to baby boomers who use the facility. Determine what nutrition programs are successful with baby boomers in cities of similar size. Offer several screening programs and see which one draws the biggest crowd of baby boomers. Perform a needs assessment of baby boomers who use the facility.

The correct answer is D. The best way to make an accurate and focused determination is to perform a needs assessment of the target population. Determining the target population's perceived needs and interests will increase the likelihood of participation and more closely align the needs with the developed program.

Q. The two financial statements primarily used by foodservice managers to analyze operational effectiveness are the inventory valuation record and budget. balance sheet and inventory valuation record. budget and income statement. income statement and balance sheet.

The correct answer is D. The inventory valuation record contains an accounting of the cost of items kept in the inventory. The balance sheet is a list of assets, liabilities, and capital, and the income statement is a financial statement that shows all operating results for a desired time period.

Q. If raw and ready-to-eat products must be stored in the same refrigerator, how would the items be stored correctly? Raw meat placed above fresh broccoli Raw whole cuts of beef placed above raw fish Raw poultry placed above raw whole cuts of beef Raw fish placed above raw poultry

The correct answer is D. The order of placement in the refrigerator is based on the minimum internal cooking temperature of each food.

Q. Customer and employee satisfaction are both functions of management. linking processes. environmental factors. outputs of the foodservice system.

The correct answer is D. The outputs are the goods and services that result from transforming the inputs of the system and express how objectives are achieved. Customer and employee satisfaction and financial accountability are desired outcomes in a foodservice system.

Q. Which is an example of a food preserved by lowering the water activity of the food by adding a solute? Canned corn Sun-dried tomatoes Frozen peas Grape jelly

he correct answer is D. Solutes such as sugar added to jams and jellies and salt added to cured meats inhibit microbial growth by lowering water activity. Canning does not lower water activity; freezing forms ice crystals, which removes water from the solution in the foods that are frozen. The lower water activity of sun-dried tomatoes is due to the removal of water, not the addition of a solute. While the vapor pressure is decreased due to the higher levels of sugar and or salt in dehydrated foods, salt and sugar are not added to the product as a solute.