EMT-B Final Exam

The National EMS Scope of Practice Model states an EMT should be able to: A: insert a peripheral IV and infuse fluids B: assist a patient with certain prescribed medications C: interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly D: administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route

B. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications

For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must: A: be dated within the previous 24 months. B: clearly state the patient's medical problem. C: be updated a minimum of every 6 months. D: be signed by the local justice of the peace.

B. clearly state the patient's medical problem.

An ambulance and fire apparatus are the first to arrive at a motor vehicle crash on a three-lane highway. There is one vehicle involved and it is located in the far left-hand lane. Where should the ambulance be positioned? A: in between the fire apparatus and crashed motor vehicle B: 100 feet past the crashed vehicle, on the same side of the highway C: alongside the crashed vehicle, in the middle lane of the highway D:100 feet past the crashed vehicle, on the opposite side of the highway

B: 100 feet past the crashed vehicle, on the same side of the highway

Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? A: A 53 year old patient who is assisted with taking his prescribed nitroglycerin B: A 48 year old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device C: A 61 year old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen D: A 64 year old patient who is given aspirin for a suspected cardiac chest pain

B: A 48 year old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic oxygen

EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of: A: Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured B: Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society C: the Department of Transportation's White Paper: Death and Dying D: the Emergency Medical Services Act

B: Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society

Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? A: Oral glucose for hypoglycemia B: Automated external defibrillator C: Intranasal medication administration D: Use of a manually triggered ventilator

B: Automated external defibrillator

Which of the following skills would a layperson be most likely be trained to perform before the arrival of EMS? A: obtaining a manual blood pressure B: Bleeding control using a tourniquet C: Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway D: Administration of supplemental oxygen

B: Bleeding control using a tourniquet

Which of the following patients has decision making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment? A: A diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date B: A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain C: A confused young male who says he is the president D: A man who is staggering and states that he had three beers

B: a conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain

The final stage of death and dying most commonly takes the form of: A: anger B: acceptance C: depression D: denial

B: acceptance

When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: A: clean all the surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water B: allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions C: use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces D: spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel

B: allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions

A 30-year-old man with a history of diabetes is found unresponsive on his couch. His skin is cool and clammy, his pulse is rapid and weak, and his breathing is rapid and shallow. His blood glucose level reads 20 mg/dL. The EMTs should: A: place oral glucose between his cheek and gums B: assist his ventilations and transport without delay C: request a paramedic unit to administer his insulin D: place him on his side, keep him cool, and transport

B: assist his ventilations and transport without delay

What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle? A: request another ambulance B: ensure the vehicle is stable C: Contact medical control D: Check for other patients

B: ensure the vehicle is stable

All of the following are signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, EXCEPT: A: melena B: hemoptysis C: tachycardia D: hematemesis

B: hemoptysis

The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: A: focus on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient B: identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed C: administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols D: ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office

B: identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed

You and your partner are EMTs who have been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a residential fire. While standing next to the ambulance observing the firefighters, you see a woman frantically moving around in her burning house. You should: A: request permission from the fire chief to enter the structure B: immediately notify the incident commander or safety officer C: don a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) and rescue the woman D: stay where you are until the firefighters remove her from the house

B: immediately notify the incident commander or safety officer

Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? A: race B: immunity C: age D: gender

B: immunity

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A: EMS training officer B: individual EMT C: EMS medical director D: State Bureau of EMS

B: individual EMT

Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? A: Preventing insurance fraud B: Protecting patient privacy C: Controlling insurance costs D: Ensuring access to insurance

B: protecting patient privacy

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should: A: assist with vehicle stabilization B: put on high-visibility safety vests C: report to the incident commander D: quickly begin the triage process

B: put on high-visibility safety vests

The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called: A: distress B: resilience C: wellness D: eustress

B: resilience

A 42-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. On assessment, he is cyanotic and is making a high-pitched sound on inhalation. Which of the following would MOST likely cause this type of presentation? A: pulmonary embolism B: swelling near the larynx C: diffuse bronchiole inflammation D: aspiration of fluid into the trachea

B: swelling near the larynx

Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct? A: an EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director B: The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval C: An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval D: The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval

C. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval

Which of the following would clearly be detrimental to a patient in cardiac arrest? A: ventilating just until the chest rises B: performing CPR before defibrillation C: Interrupting CPR for more than 10 minutes D: Ventilating without supplemental oxygen

C. Interrupting CPR for more than 10 minutes

In constant to a typical wheeled ambulance stretcher, features of a bariatric stretcher include: A: weight capacity of up to 650 lbs B: a collapsible undercarriage C: increased stability from a wider wheelbase D: two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher

C. increased stability from a wider wheelbase

As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: A: the patient's condition B: an order from a paramedic C: medical director approval D: the transport time to the hospital

C. medical director approval

EMR's such as firefighters, law enforcement, and park rangers are an integral part of the EMS system because: A: they are usually trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures B: the average response time for an EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes C: they often arrive at the scene before the ambulance and EMTs D: they can initiate certain ALS procedures before EMS arrival

C. they often arrive on scene before the ambulance and EMTs

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? A: Expressed consent is only valid if given in writing by a family member B: All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport C: A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment D: Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment

C: A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is mostly based on: A: regional trauma guidelines B: the lead EMT's decision C: EMS research D: local protocols

C: EMS research

Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? A: A system composes exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to the sick and injured patients B: A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing care to critically injured patients C: A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation of the sick and injured D: A vast network of advanced life supports (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting

C: a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation of the sick and injured

Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: A: smoke or dust B: inanimate objects C: animals or insects D: direct contact

C: animals or insects

A 10-year-old child was struck by a car while crossing the street. He has bilateral femur fractures and a head injury. His father has been notified and is 20 minutes away from the scene. The EMT should: A: contact medical control to see if he/she will take custody of the child B: attempt to contact the child's mother to see if she can be there sooner C: begin immediate transport and have law enforcement update the father D: stabilize the child at the scene until the father arrives and gives consent

C: begin immediate transport and have law enforcement update the father

Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? A: protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height B: Teaching a group of new patients how to perform one and two rescuer infant CPR? C: Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving D: The construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve after following a fatal motor vehicle crash

C: community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving

Putrefaction is defined as: A: a proud cyanosis to the trunk and face B: separation of the torso from the rest of the body C: decompensation of the body's tissue D: blood settling to the lowest point of the body

C: decompensation of the body's tissues

The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is: A: evacuating the bystanders B: calling the hazardous materials team C: ensuring your personal safety D: identifying the hazardous material

C: ensuring your personal safety

Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: A: have a weak immune system B: have received a hepatitis B vaccination C: have been infected with hepatitis A in the past D: are older than 35 years of age

C: have been infected with hepatitis A in the past

An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the MOST appropriate method of immobilizing this patient? A: apply a cervical collar and place her in a sitting position on the wheeled stretcher B: move her to a supine position and immobilize her with a scoop stretcher and padding C: Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard D: immobilize her in a supine position on a long backboard and secure her with straps

C: leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard

If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: A: purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim B: determine which device the American Heart Association recommends C: recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives D: avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic

C: recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives

After applying restraints to a combative patient, you should: A: inform the patient that the restraints are a punishment for their behavior B: remove them only if the patient verbally commits to calming down C: remove them only after the hospital personnel ask you to do so D: position the patient in a prone position in order to prevent further injury to yourself

C: remove them only after the hospital personnel ask you to do so

Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser A: makes rude remarks about a person's body parts B: touches another person without his or her consent C: request sexual favors in exchange for something else D: stares at a certain part of another person's anatomy

C: requests sexual favors in exchange for something else

A middle-aged woman took three of her prescribed nitroglycerin tablets after she began experiencing chest pain. She complains of a bad headache and is still experiencing chest pain. You should assume that: • A:her chest pain is not cardiac-related. • B:her blood pressure is elevated. • C:she has ongoing cardiac ischemia. • D:her nitroglycerin is no longer potent.

C: she has ongoing cardiac ischemia

The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the: A: code of ethics B: EMT oath C: standard of care D: scope of practice

C: standard of care

In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? A: a media representative inquires about the patient B: A police office requests a copy to place on file C: the patient is competent and signs a release form D: The family requests a copy for insurance purposes

C: the patient is competent and signs a release form

The simplest, yet most effective way of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: A: ensure that your immunization are up to date B: undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis C: wash your hands in between patient contacts D: undergo an annual physical examination

C: wash you hands in between patient contacts

Shortly after you load your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. The patient is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct? A: once the patient is in the ambulance, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment B: Because of your suspicions, the best approach is to transport to the hospital C: Any patient who refuses EMS treatment must legally sign a patient refusal form D: A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time

D : a mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time

Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called: A. battery B: negligence C: libel D: assault

D. assault

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. AEMT B: EMT C: EMR D: paramedic

D. paramedic

A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than _____ hours following the incident A: 12 B: 24 C: six D: 72

D: 72

Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? A:Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled B: An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state he is not authorized to do so C: A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first D: An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug

D: An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug

Which of the following most accurately defines negligence? A: Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will B: Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs C: Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training D: Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury

D: Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury

Which of the following criteria is required to become a licensed and employed as an EMT? A: Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200lbs B: Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course C: A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care D: Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases

D: Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? A: The NREMT regulates EMS training standards B: The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs C: The NREMT is a government agency that certifies EMTs. D: The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing

D: The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing

Firefighters have rescued a man from his burning house. He is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant respiratory distress. He has a brassy cough and singed nasal hairs. The MOST immediate threat to this patient's life is: A: hypothermia B: severe burns C: severe infection D: airway swelling

D: airway swelling

When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest, and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located you should: A: determine the patient's illness B: contact medical control first C: notify the coroner immediately D: begin resuscitation at once

D: begin resuscitation at once

A patient with a spinal injury may still be able to use his or her diaphragm to breathe, but would lose control of the intercostal muscles, if the spinal cord is injured: A: above the C3 level B: between C1 and C2 C: above the C5 D: below the C5 level

D: below the C5 level

Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, EXCEPT: A: risk of building collapse B: high ambient temperature C: smoke and toxic gases D: carbon dioxide deficiency

D: carbon dioxide deficiency

The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually can be traced to: A: lack of proper immunization B: excessive blood splashing or splattering C: noncompliance with standard precautions D: careless handling of sharps

D: careless handling of sharps

Immediately upon delivery of a newborn's head, you should: A: dry the face B: cover the eyes C: suction the nose D: check for nuchal cord

D: check for nuchal cord

A man was cut on the left side of the neck and is bleeding heavily from the wound. His airway is patent and his breathing is adequate. You should immediately: A: apply high flow oxygen via nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min B: apply a tight pressure dressing and secure it in place with tape C: perform a head to toe assessment to find or treat other injuries D: cover the wound with an occlusive dressing and apply direct pressure

D: cover the wound with an occlusive dressing and apply direct pressure

The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of hazardous materials from equipment, patients, and rescue personnel is called: A: autoclaving B: sterilization C: detoxification D: decontamination

D: decontamination

You are caring for a 35 year old female with pregnancy related complications. She is clearing experiencing significant stress and is crying uncontrollably. Your most appropriate action would be to: A: restrain her if she is extremely emotional and will not calm down B: discourage her form expressing fears until a counselor is available C. Tell her that "everything will be alright" to calm her down D: demonstrate courtesy and speak with a professional tone of voice

D: demonstrate courtesy and speak with a professional tone of voice

The EMT certification exam is designed to: A: provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved B: identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training C: rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam D: ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills

D: ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills

A 56-year-old female is found supine in a narrow hallway of her mobile home. She complains of severe weakness and dizziness, and states that she is unable to walk. There is no evidence of trauma and the patient states that she did not fall. How should you and your partner move this patient to a more spacious area? A: direct carry B: scoop stretcher C: emergency move D: Extremity lift

D: extremity lift

Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated? A: actual B: informed C: Expressed D: Implied

D: implied

Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include: A: the inability to remain focused, because the task at hand is demanding B: long-term feelings of being overwhelmed by the nature of the call C: short term loss of energy due to the high physical demands of the job D: increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation

D: increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation

In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: A: possesses a valid drivers license B: is mentally competent and able to refuse C: has a poor relationship with his or her parents D: is self-supporting and lives by his or herself

D: is self-supporting and lives by his or herself

Continuing education in EMS serves to: A: provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system B: confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care C: enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training D: maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills

D: maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: A: placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive B: quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight C: making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later D: not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons

D: not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons

A 75 year old males with a terminal illness has died at home. As you and your partner enter the residence, a family member becomes verbally abusive, pushes you, and states that you took too long to get there. You should: A: ignore the family member and assess the patient B: tell the family that is it not your fault C: subdue the family member until the police arrive D: retreat and notify law enforcement personnel

D: retreat and notify law enforcement personnel

The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: A: National Registry of EMTs B: American Heart Association C: regional trauma center D: state office of EMS

D: state office of EMS

Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure? A: chickenpox B: rubella C: mumps D: syphilis

D: syphilis

The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to: A: wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton B: avoid outer clothing with zippers C: wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat D: wear at least three layers of clothing

D: wear at least three layers of clothing

When is forcible restraint permitted? A: Anytime that the EMT feels threatened B: Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior C: Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member D: When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others

D: when the patient poses a significant threat to self or others

You arrive at a residence shortly after a 4-year-old boy experienced an apparent febrile seizure. The child is alert and crying. His skin is flushed, hot, and moist. His mother tells you that the seizure lasted about 2 minutes. You should: A: begin rapid cooling measures at once B: give him acetaminophen or ibuprofen C: provide supportive care and transport D: allow the mother to take her child to the doctor

c: provide supportive care and transport

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: A: continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful B: reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be C: demand that the patient remain quiet and cooperative during transport D: ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint

A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): A: paramedic B: EMT C: advanced EMT (AEMT) D: EMR

A. paramedic

Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A: Off-line B: Direct C: Radio D: Online

A: Off-line

Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment? A: A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT B: A physician who assumes care from an EMT C: An AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic D: An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse

A: a paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT

General adaption syndrome is characterized by which of the following phrases? A: Alarm response. reaction and resistance, and recovery B: Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion C: Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery D: immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery

A: alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery

Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? A: attempted suicide B: drug overdose C: cardiac arrest D: accidental knife wound

A: attempted suicide

During delivery of the head, it is noted that the umbilical cord is wrapped tightly around the baby's neck. An attempt to slide the cord over the baby's head is unsuccessful. The EMT should: A: clamp and cut the umbilical cord B: position the mother on her left side C: gently pull on the cord to loosen it D: place an oxygen mask on the baby

A: clamp and cut the umbilical cord

It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. A: decontaminate B: incinerate C: throw out D: properly store

A: decontaminate

You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death? A: dependent lividity B: absence of pulse C: profound cyanosis D: absent breath sounds

A: dependent lividity

An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she: A: did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient B: terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request C: remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report D: refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife

A: did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient

General guidelines when assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion include: A: examining the child in the parent's arms B: palpating the painful area of the abdomen first C: placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen D: separating the child from the parent to ensure reliable examination

A: examining the child in the parent'a arms

The direct carry is used to transfer a patient: A: from a bed to an ambulance stretcher B: with multiple long bone injuries C: who cannot be placed on a backboard D: with a possible cervical spine injury

A: from a bed to an ambulance stretcher

The ______________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation. A: human resources department B: office of the medical director C: EMS administrator or chief D: local public health department

A: human resources department

an unresponsive apneic patient's chest fails to rise after two ventilation attempts. you should: A: immediately proceed to chest compressions B: suction the airway and rest tempt ventilations C: attempt to ventilate again using more volume D: reposition the head and reattempt to ventilation

A: immediately proceed to chest compressions

In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: A: inadequate patient care was performed B: potential falsification of the patient care form C: thorough documentation was not required D: the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form

A: inadequate patient care was performed

Two EMT's witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus(HIV). The EMT's ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMT's is considered: A: legal but unethical B: legal and ethical C: illegal but ethical D: illegal and unethical

A: legal but unethical

The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: A: medical director B: state EMS office C: local health district D: EMS supervisor

A: medical director

When caring for a 65 year old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate: He develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: A: negligence B: abandonment C: battery D: assault

A: negligence

Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: A: offer little to no side protection B: are not secured with straps C: do not have shatterproof lenses D: have large, rounded lenses

A: offer little to no side protection

You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for 8 hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is MOST effectively managed by: A: requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support B: providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers C: conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day D: allowing each worker to sleep in 15 to 30 minute increments

A: requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support

The _______ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. A: sacrum B: thorax C: coccyx D: ischium

A: sacrum

You are transporting a 35-year-old man who has a history of alcoholism. He stopped drinking 4 days ago and is now disoriented, diaphoretic, and tachycardic. This patient is at risk for: A: seizures B: hypothermia C: hyperglycemia D: schizophrenia

A: seizures

The most serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: A: substandard or inappropriate patient care B: punitive action and the loss of job C: low morale and frequently missed shifts D: tension among coworkers and supervisors

A: substandard or inappropriate patient care

Which of the following statements regarding Good Samaritan laws is correct? A: such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence B: such laws guarantee that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued C: Such laws provide the EMT with absolute immunity from a lawsuit D: such laws do not protect EMTs who are off duty

A: such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence

A positive TB skin test indicates that: A: you have been exposed to TB B: you are actively infected with TB C: you have never been exposed to TB D: the TB disease is currently dominant but might later become active

A: you have been exposed to TB

As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: A: the medical director B: a paramedic supervisor C: the general public D: another EMT

Another EMT

A patient who is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction: A: most often describes his or her chest pain as being sharp or tearing B: has chest pain or discomfort that does not change with each breath C: often experiences relief of his or her chest pain after taking nitroglycerin D: often complains of a different type of pain than a patient with angina

B) has chest pain or discomfort that does not change with each breath.