EMT Chapter 24, 26-29, & 31 Trauma Overview, Soft Tissue Injuries, Face and Neck Injuries, Head and Spine Injuries, Chest Injuries, Orthopedic Injuries

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A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: A. proximal femur. B. pubic symphysis. C. femoral shaft. D. pelvic girdle.

If you do not have the appropriate-size cervical collar, you should: A. use rolled towels to immobilize the patient's head. B. place sandbags on either side of the patient's head. C. ask the patient to keep his or her head in a neutral position. D. defer cervical immobilization and apply lateral head blocks.

A. use rolled towels to immobilize the patient's head.

A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to providing supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. determine if he has cardiac problems. B. prepare for immediate transport. C. apply an AED and assess his BP. D. apply bulky dressings to the sternum.

Which of the following nerves allow sensory and motor impulses to be sent from one nerve directly to another? A. somatic B. connecting C. peripheral D. autonomic

B. Connecting

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a concussion?

Muscle tremors

In supine patients with a head injury, the head should be elevated _____ to help reduce intracranial pressure.

30 degrees

A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: Select one: A. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment. B. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. C. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. D. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment.

Double vision, a marked decrease in vision, or a loss of sensation above the eyebrow, over the cheek, or in the upper lip may be caused by a(n): A. Orbital fracture. B. Temporal bone fracture. C. Cervical spine injury. D. Detached retina.

During your assessment of a patient with a head injury, you note that he opens his eyes when you pinch his trapezius muscle, is mumbling, and has his arms curled in toward his chest. You should assign him a GCS score of: A. 7. B. 9. C. 8. D. 10.

In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: Select one: A. pneumothorax. B. myocardial contusion. C. cardiac tamponade. D. flail chest.

Motion of the mandible occurs at the: A. temporomandibular joint B. mastoid process C. chin D. mandibular ankle

Paradoxical chest movement is typically seen in patients with: A. a flail chest. B. a pneumothorax. C. isolated rib fractures. D. a ruptured diaphragm.

The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that: A. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple. B. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface. C. pulls the hair erect when you are cold. D. facilitates shedding of the epidermis.

The skin and underlying tissues of the face: A. have a rich blood supply and bleed heavily. B. swell minimally when exposed to blunt trauma. C. contain a relatively small number of nerve fibers. D. are well protected by the maxillae and mandible.

What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A. Allows movement of the head B. Allows flexion of the neck C. Connects the scapulae together D. Facilitates chest movement

When treating a patient who experienced a pulmonary blast injury, you should: A. avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure. B. administer large amounts of intravenous fluid. C. use a demand valve to ventilate the patient. D. suspect an accompanying cardiac tamponade.

Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin? A. Ears B. Back C. Soles of the feet D. Scalp

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. Aortic rupture B. Forehead lacerations C. Flail chest D. Extremity fractures

Which of the following joints allows no motion? A. skull sutures B. sacroiliac joint C. shoulder joint D. sternoclavicular joint

Which of the following statements regarding penetrating injuries is correct? A. External bleeding may be minimal but internal injuries can be extensive. B. The degree of internal injury can often be estimated by the external injury. C. It is important to distinguish between entrance and exit wounds in the field. D. The depth of a penetrating injury should be thoroughly assessed by the EMT.

Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct? A. They carry information from the CNS to the muscles. B. They perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing. C. They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord. D. They are part of the CNS and control reflexes.

A. They carry information from the CNS to the muscles.

An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: A. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs. B. a progressively lowering blood pressure. C. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate. D. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury.

A. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.

Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a rapid, thready pulse. B. widening pulse pressure. C. CSF leakage from the ears. D. decerebrate posturing.

A. a rapid, thready pulse.

An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as: A. bleeding between the skull and dura mater. B. bleeding between the dura mater and brain. C. venous lacerations that occur within the brain. D. an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery.

A. bleeding between the skull and dura mater.

The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. spinal cord D. cerebral cortex

A. brain stem

The _________ contain(s) about 75% of the brain's total volume. A. cerebrum B. cerebellum C. brain stem D. meninges

A. cerebrum

The brain, a part of the central nervous system (CNS), is divided into the: A. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem. B. cerebrum, brain stem, and spinal cord. C.cerebellum, cerebrum, and spinal cord. D. spinal cord, cerebrum, and cerebral cortex.

A. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.

A patient who experiences an immediate loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval has a(n): A. epidural hematoma. B. subdural hematoma. C. concussion. D. contusion.

A. epidural hematoma.

A 30-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the neck when he was attacked outside a nightclub. During your assessment, you should be MOST alert for: A. alterations in his mental status. B. potential airway compromise. C. injury to the cervical spine. D. damage to internal structures.

A patient experienced a severe compression to the chest when trapped between a vehicle and a brick wall. You suspect traumatic asphyxia due to the hemorrhage into the sclera of his eyes and which other sign? A. Flat neck veins B. Cyanosis in the face and neck C.Asymmetrical chest movement D. Irregular heart rate

A person who experiences a calcaneus fracture after jumping and landing on his or her feet would MOST likely experience an accompanying fracture of the: A. thoracic spine. B. lumbar spine. C. coccygeal spine. D. symphysis pubis.

A(n) ______ is usually associated with extensive tissue damage. A. contusion B. hematoma C. crushing injury D. avulsion

Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the AEMT to: A. determine the vehicle's speed at the time of impact. B. identify contact points and predict potential injuries. C. assess the severity of the third collision of the crash. D. recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact.

The eyes, face, and neck may be subject to a wide variety of injuries. Which of the following is true regarding these injuries? A. Because of the lack of major blood vessels, injuries to the eyes, face, and neck hemorrhage little. B. Patients with an eye, face, or neck injury may be more emotionally distraught than patients with other types of trauma. C. Because few eye, face, or neck injuries involve physical assault, scene safety is rarely a concern. D. Proper body substance isolation precautions will consist of the use of gloves only for most situations involving eye, face, or neck injuries

The head is divided into two parts: the cranium and the: A. brain B. face C. skull D. medulla oblongata

The skin covering the _____ is quite thick. A. lips B. scalp C. ears D. eyelids

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: A. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury. B. osteoporosis can cause a fracture that may have resulted in the fall. C. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma. D. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls.

Which of the following signs is least indicative of a head injury? A. Asymmetrical pupils B. Pupillary constriction to bright light C. Both eyes moving in opposite directions D. Inability to look upward when instructed to

A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who: A. are found supine and have stable vital signs. B. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable. C. require prompt extrication from an automobile. D. are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable.

B. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable

After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of the patient's head, you should: A. apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar. B. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities. C. thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities. D. use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard.

B. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities.

A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of: A. distraction. B. axial loading. C. hyperextension. D. hyperflexion.

B. axial loading.

As you are assessing a 24-year-old man with a large laceration to the top of his head, you should recall that: A. the scalp, unlike other parts of the body, has relatively fewer blood vessels. B. blood loss from a scalp laceration may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adults. C. any avulsed portions of the scalp should be carefully cut away to facilitate bandaging. D. most scalp injuries are superficial and are rarely associated with more serious injuries.

B. blood loss from a scalp laceration may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adults.

The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: A. cerebellum and brain. B. brain and spinal cord. C. cerebrum and meninges. D. meninges and spinal cord.

B. brain and spinal cord.

A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n): A. cerebral contusion. B. cerebral concussion. C. intracranial hemorrhage. D. intracerebral hematoma.

B. cerebral concussion.

The MOST common and serious complication of a significant head injury is: A. a skull fracture. B. cerebral edema. C. a hypoxic seizure. D. acute hypotension.

B. cerebral edema.

During immobilization of a patient with a possible spinal injury, manual stabilization of the head must be maintained until: A. an appropriate-size extrication collar has been placed. B. the patient is fully immobilized on a long backboard. C. a range of motion test of the neck has been completed. D. pulse, motor, and sensory functions are found to be intact.

B. the patient is fully immobilized on a long backboard.

A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12' from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain? A. Lateral impact to the spine B. Direct trauma to the spinal column C. Energy transmission to the spine D. Secondary fall after the initial impact

A 14-year-old baseball player was hit in the chest with a line drive. He is in cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? A. Myocardial contusion B. Traumatic asphyxia C. Commotio cordis D. Hemothorax

A 20-year-old man has major open facial injuries after his vehicle struck a tree head-on. Which of the following findings within the car would MOST likely explain his injury pattern? A. Deployed airbag B. Bent steering wheel C. Non-intact windshield D. Crushed instrument panel

A 56-year-old male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should: A. carefully probe the wound to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial. B. carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing. C. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing. D. thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing.

A 77-year-old woman slipped and fell on a throw rug and landed on her left hip. She denies striking her head or losing consciousness. Assessment of her left leg reveals that it is shortened and externally rotated. Distal pulses, sensory, and motor functions are intact. You should: A. manually stabilize her left leg, apply a traction splint, and then secure her to a long backboard or scoop. B. carefully slide a long backboard underneath her, keep her in a supine position, and apply a splint to her leg. C. place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip with pillows, and secure her to the scoop with straps. D. bind both of her legs together with triangular bandages and carefully secure her onto the ambulance stretcher.

A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation with a rival gang member. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control any obvious bleeding and then: A. auscultate bowel sounds. B. apply a cervical collar. C. assess for an exit wound. D. obtain baseline vital signs.

A(n) _____ occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body for a long period of time. A. contusion B. hematoma C. crushing injury D. avulsion

Any injury to the _____ should automatically be assumed to have caused spinal injury. A. Head B. Back C. Neck D. Chest

If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an increased risk of ________. Select one: A. hypotension B. GI trauma C. vomiting D. altered LOC

In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: A. an ischemic stroke. B. a spinal fracture. C. an air embolism. D. nerve fiber damage.

In chest wounds, the crackling sensation produced by air flowing into the surrounding tissues is called subcutaneous... A. bronchitis B. pneumothorax C. emphysema D.asphyxia

In contrast to a Level III trauma center, a Level I trauma center must: A. be able to stabilize patients before transferring to a higher level facility. B. be involved in trauma prevention programs. C. have general surgeons that are in-house 24 hours a day. D. have access to an emergency physician within 30 minutes.

Special considerations you should heed for injuries to the face, mouth, or jaw include: A. Establish manual in-line stabilization of the spine on first contact with the patient and maintain it until a rigid cervical collar is applied. B. Blood loss from facial injuries alone is not enough to cause signs and symptoms of shock. C. The tongue may lose its support structure with a facial injury and may fall back, requiring you to grasp the tongue and pull it forward. D. When the mandible is fractured, it is generally fractured in only one place.

The ______ connects the cricoid cartilage and thyroid cartilage. A. larynx B. cricoid membrane C. cricothyroid membrane D. thyroid membrane

The ________ nerves control the diaphragm. A. vagus B. costal C. phrenic D. intercostal

The cervical spine is composed of _____ vertebrae. A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8

When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an air bag that did not deploy upon impact, it is MOST important to: A. recognize that the force of impact was most likely not severe. B. realize that the air bag malfunctioned at the time of impact. C. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you. D. suspect that the patient may have experienced serious injuries.

When flushing an eye with saline to remove a foreign object, it is important to remember to: A. flush from the outside of the eye in toward the nose B. flush from the top of the eye in toward the nose C. flush from the nose side of the eye toward the outside D. flush only along the bottom of the eye

When performing a full body scan, you should assess for ________. Select one: A. AVPU B. OPQRST C. DCAP-BTLS D. SAMPLE

Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? A. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis. B. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. C. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. D. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity.

Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. Collapsed dashboard B. Intrathoracic hemorrhage C. Deformed steering wheel D. Caved-in passenger door

While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: A. lower-extremity fractures. B. blunt trauma to the head. C. neck and facial injuries. D. open abdominal trauma.

You are assessing a 30-year-old woman with multiple large bruises to her chest and abdomen that she experienced during an assault. She is conscious but restless, and her skin is cool and pale. You should be MOST concerned with: A. performing a detailed secondary assessment to locate all of her injuries. B. assessing the bruises that overlie major organs in the chest and abdomen. C. the fact that her clinical signs could indicate that she is bleeding internally. D. obtaining a complete set of vital signs to rule out the possibility of shock.

You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: Select one: A. noticed the change during a meal. B. is allergic to any medications. C. has a history of eye surgeries. D. regularly sees a family physician.

A young male was involved in a motor vehicle accident and experienced a closed head injury. He has no memory of the events leading up to the accident, but remembers that he was going to a birthday party. What is the correct term to use when documenting his memory loss? A. Concussion B. Cerebral contusion C. Retrograde amnesia D. Anterograde amnesia

C. Retrograde amnesia

What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? A. Central B. Sensory C. Somatic D. Autonomic

C. Somatic

Which of the following statements regarding a basilar skull fracture is correct? A. Bloody CSF commonly leaks from the nose. B. In most cases, mastoid bruising occurs. C. The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle's sign does not rule it out. D. They are typically the result of local, low-energy trauma to the head.

C. The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle sign does not rule it out.

When immobilizing a seated patient with a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device, you should apply a cervical collar: A. after the torso has been adequately secured. B. after moving the patient to a long backboard. C. after assessing distal neurovascular functions. D. before manually stabilizing the patient's head.

C. after assessing distal neurovascular functions.

The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is: A. insulin. B. thyroxine. C. epinephrine. D. aldosterone.

C. epinephrine.

Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: A. falls. B. diving. C. hangings. D. compression.

C. hangings.

In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: A. does not cause pressure within the skull. B. results from a laceration to the brain tissue. C. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. D. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness.

C. involves physical injury to the brain tissue.

Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: A. the patient adamantly denies neck pain. B. lateral immobilization has been applied. C. it causes a problem managing the airway. D. sensory and motor functions remain intact.

C. it causes a problem managing the airway.

Your patient is a 21-year-old male who has massive face and head trauma after being assaulted. He is lying supine, is semiconscious, and has blood in his mouth. You should: A. insert a nasal airway, assess his respirations, and give 100% oxygen. B. suction his airway and apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. manually stabilize his head, log roll him onto his side, and suction his mouth. D. apply a cervical collar, suction his airway, and begin assisting his ventilations.

C. manually stabilize his head, log roll him onto his side, and suction his mouth.

Significant trauma to the face should increase the AEMT's index of suspicion for a/an: A. displaced mandible. B. airway obstruction. C. basilar skull fracture. D. spinal cord injury.

A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. leave her bicycle helmet on. C. inspect the helmet for cracks. D. stabilize her entire spine.

A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should: A. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation. B. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint. C. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position. D. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints.

A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his BSA. A. 36% B. 45% C. 27% D. 18%

A 29-year-old male has an anterior nosebleed after he was accidentally elbowed in the nose. His is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. The MOST appropriate care for this patient includes: A. applying a gauze pad in between his lower lip and gum. B. packing the nasopharynx with moist, sterile dressings. C. placing him supine and pinching his nostrils together. D. leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together.

A 30-year-old female was assaulted by a gang as she was leaving a nightclub. She has massive facial trauma and slow, gurgling respirations. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you should: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. visualize her mouth for obvious wounds. C. begin immediate ventilatory assistance. D. suction her oropharynx for 15 seconds.

A 33-year-old male sustained an abdominal evisceration to the left lower quadrant of his abdomen after he was cut with a large knife. After appropriately managing his ABCs and assessing him for other life-threatening injuries, how you should care for his wound? A. Carefully replace the exposed bowel into the abdomen and transport. B. Cover the exposed bowel and keep his legs in a straight position. C. Irrigate it with sterile water and cover it with a dry dressing. D. Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing.

A 58-year-old woman fell and landed face-first on a concrete sidewalk. She is conscious, but confused. Her skin is pale, cool, and clammy; her radial pulses are weak and rapid; and her blood pressure is 72/54 mm Hg. Further assessment reveals crepitus to her left cheekbone. After administering high-flow oxygen, you should: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment, immobilize her entire spine, and establish IV access. B. place her in a sitting position on the stretcher, insert a saline lock, and reassess her blood pressure. C. apply a cervical collar only, establish two large-bore IV lines, and administer 2 liters of normal saline. D. immobilize her entire spine, establish at least one large-bore IV line, and give a 20-mL/kg crystalloid bolus.

A ____ results when an injury allows air to enter through a hole in the chest wall or the surface of the lung as the patient attempts to breathe, causing the lung on that side to collapse. A. tension pneumothorax B. hemothorax C. hemopneumothorax D. pneumothorax

A teenage boy who was involved in a bicycle accident has a puncture wound where the bicycle kickstand impaled his leg. The MOST appropriate method for treating this injury is to: A. remove the kickstand in a circular motion and apply a dry, sterile dressing. B. cut the kickstand off just above the skin, and stabilize it with sterile dressings. C. leave the kickstand attached to the bike until the physician can remove it safely. D. unbolt the kickstand from the bike frame and stabilize it with bulky dressings.

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with: A. conjunctivitis. B. contact lenses. C. retinitis. D. a brain injury.

Air bags are designed to: A. be used with or without a shoulder harness. B. prevent a second collision inside the car. C. prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma. D. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.

By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height? A. As the person falls, the amount of kinetic energy is converted into work; work is then converted to kinetic energy upon impact. B. Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy; the potential energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop. C. Potential energy is created as the person is falling; the potential energy is then converted into kinetic energy upon impact. D. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.

Following direct trauma to the left upper back, a 44-year-old male presents with diaphoresis and restlessness. His blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and weak, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. Your assessment reveals abrasions and contusions over the left scapula. You should: A. hyperventilate him with a bag-mask device and monitor his oxygen saturation. B. apply high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport. C. focus your assessment on his scapulae and clavicles and apply high-flow oxygen. D. apply high-flow oxygen, consider spinal precautions, and transport without delay.

Force acting over a distance defines the concept of: A. kinetic energy. B. potential energy. C. latent energy. D. work.

If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she: Select one: A. often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury. B. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply. C. will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same. D. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.

If a person is standing near a building that explodes, which of the following injuries would he or she MOST likely experience as a result of the pressure wave? A. Fractured bones B. Severe burns C. Impaled objects D. Stomach rupture

In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: A. a spinal fracture. B. nerve fiber damage. C. an ischemic stroke. D. an air embolism.

The hallmark sign of compartment syndrome is: A. a lack of pain despite the severity of the injury. B. extreme redness to the injury site. C. a bounding pulse distal to the injury. D. pain out of proportion to the injury.

The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at: A. C1 and C2. B. C3 and C4. C. C1, C2, and C3. D. C3, C4, and C5

The presence of air in the soft tissues of the neck that produces a crackling sensation is called: A. the "Rice Krispy" effect B. a pnumothorax C. rales D. subcutaneous emphysema

The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that: A. facilitates shedding of the epidermis. B. pulls the hair erect when you are cold. C. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface. D. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple.

The term "hyphema" is defined as: A. an acute rupture of the globe of the eye. B. inflammation of the iris, cornea, and lens. C. compression of one or both optic nerves. D. blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma? A. Intrusion into the vehicle B. Dismounted seats C. Steering wheel deformity D. Deployment of the air bag

Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma? A. Elevation of the lower extremities B. Early administration of oxygen C. Intravenous fluid administration D. Rapid transport to a trauma center

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a laryngeal injury? A. Hoarseness B. Difficulty breathing C. Subcutaneous emphysema D. Wheezing

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 65-year-old patient? A. Second-degree burn covering 10% of the BSA B. Superficial burn to 30% of the BSA C. Full-thickness burn to 1% of the BSA D. Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA

Which of the following is most appropriate for a 41-year old male patient who was involved in a rollover MVA and is unconscious and unresponsive, assuming that travel times to each is equal: A.a level IV or level III trauma center B.any designated trauma center is acceptable C.only a level I trauma center D.a level I or level II trauma center

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? A. An amputated extremity B. Bilateral femur fractures C. Nondisplaced long bone fractures D. Pelvic fracture with hypotension

Which of the following statements regarding scalp lacerations is correct? A. Because the scalp is highly vascular, you should always apply a tight pressure dressing to control bleeding B. Patients who take antihypertensive medications bleed more severely from scalp lacerations C. Although deep scalp lacerations bleed profusely, they are rarely associated with skull fractures D. Blood loss from a scalp laceration may result in hypovolemic shock, especially in children

Which of the following statements regarding severe burns is correct? A. Severe burns involving the airway have a 100% mortality rate. B. The majority of severe burns involve full-thickness burns only. C. Patients with severe burns are especially prone to hyperthermia. D. Severe burns are typically a combination of all degrees of burn.

Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct? A. Striated muscle is involuntary because you have no conscious control over it. B. Most of the body's striated muscle is found within the walls of the blood vessels. C. Striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage. D. It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.

The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the: A. pia mater. B. arachnoid. C. gray mater. D. dura mater.

D. dura mater.

You respond to a 68 year old man who was involved in a motor vehicle collision. He is unresponsive, and as you approach you notice he is not breathing. He was unrestrained and has massive facial injuries. When you check his airway, it is obstructed. Which of the following is NOT likely to cause an upper airway obstruction in a patient with facial trauma? A. Heavy bleeding B. Loosened teeth or dentures C. Soft-tissue swelling D. Inflamed tonsils

You respond to a 71 year old woman who is unresponsive. You try to get her to respond but have no success. Her airway is open, and she is breathing at a rate of 14 breaths/min. You know you can check a pulse on either side of the neck. You know that the jugular veins and several nerves run through the neck next to the trachea. What structure are you trying to locate to take a pulse? A. Hypothalamus B. Subclavian arteries C. Cricoid cartilage D. Carotid arteries

Your patient is a 38-year-old male driver of a vehicle that left the roadway and struck a bus stop shelter and a tree. He is conscious and alert, he has some abrasions on his forehead, his skin is warm and dry, and he has a strong radial pulse and no difficulty breathing. Which of the following descriptions represents the MOST appropriate way for removing the patient from the vehicle? A. Apply a cervical collar and perform rapid extrication onto a long backboard. B. Have the patient stand up and then do a "standing take-down" onto a long backboard. C. Place the backboard on the stretcher and have the patient stand, turn, and lie down on the backboard while you maintain manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine. D. Apply a cervical collar and short spine immobilization device before removing to a long backboard.

Which of the following interventions may be used to help reduce intracranial pressure? A. Supine with the legs elevated B. Increasing the patient's body temperature C. Maintaining SpO2 at 90% D. 30-degree elevation of the head

D. 30-degree elevation of the head

Which of the following head injuries would cause the patient's condition to deteriorate MOST rapidly? A. cerebral contusion B. subdural hematoma C. cerebral concussion D. epidural hematoma

D. Epidural hematoma

Which of the following nerves carry information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord? A. motor B. central C. somatic D. sensory

D. Sensory

When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should: A. have the patient exhale before fastening the torso straps. B. secure the torso and then center the patient on the board. C. follow the commands of the person at the patient's torso. D. ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.

D. ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: A. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate. B. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate. C. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status. D. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

D. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

A distraction injury to the cervical spine would MOST likely occur following: A. a diving accident. B. blunt neck trauma. C. hyperextension of the neck. D. hanging-type mechanisms.

D. hanging-type mechanisms.

A man is found slumped over the steering wheel, unconscious and making snoring sounds, after an automobile accident. His head is turned to the side and his neck is flexed. You should: A. gently rotate his head to correct the deformity. B. carefully hyperextend his neck to open his airway. C. apply an extrication collar with his head in the position found. D. manually stabilize his head and move it to a neutral, in-line position.

D. manually stabilize his head and move it to a neutral, in-line position.

When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: A. fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. B. a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure. C. significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater. D. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.

D. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.

Neck rigidity, bloody cerebrospinal fluid, and headache are associated with what kind of bleeding in the brain?

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A patient is involved in an altercation and was struck in the ribs with a baseball bat. Your assessment reveals intact skin with significant bruising to the right lateral chest. When palpating this area, you note instability and crepitus to the rib cage. The patient is also complaining of difficulty breathing. The EMT would recognize: Select one: a. chest injury caused by blunt trauma. b. pulmonary injury caused by penetrating trauma. c. thoracic injury secondary to penetrating trauma. d. chest wall injury cause by acceleration forces.

A young female wears her lap belt low, over her upper thighs, because the belt is uncomfortable when worn properly. If involved in a head-on "up and over" type collision, to what injury is she most prone, given the position of her lap belt? Select one: a. Dislocated hips b. Internal abdominal injury c. Bilateral arm fractures d. Tibia-fibula fractures

As part of your service to the community, you are certified as a car seat specialist and provide monthly classes on the safe transport of infants and children. Several cars have pulled into your station and asked you to look at their car seats. Which of the following car seat positions would indicate that the parent is safely transporting his or her infant (less than one year old)? Select one: a. Facing backward in the back seat in an upright position b. Facing backward in an upright position in the front seat c. Facing forward in the back seat in a reclined position d. Facing backward in the back seat in a reclined position

Which of the following statements concerning trauma is true? Select one: a. Multi-system trauma has a higher mortality rate than single-system injuries. b. Mechanism of injury is the best predictor of patient outcome. c. A "spider web" or "star" pattern of cracks on the windshield means the patient impacted the windshield with his head. d. Falls are the leading cause of trauma deaths.

A male patient has sustained gunshot wounds to the neck and abdomen. He is unresponsive and has gurgling respirations. Your immediate action would be to: Select one: a. immobilize the spine. b. suction the airway. c. insert a nasal airway. d. obtain vital signs.

During an in-service focusing on care of the trauma patient, the medical director asks if anyone can correctly describe the "platinum 10 minutes." Which of the following indicates the best response? Select one: a. "If the transport to a trauma center is going to exceed 10 minutes, EMS should strongly consider the use of an aeromedical helicopter." b. "EMS should initiate transport of the critically injured trauma patient to the hospital within 10 minutes of arriving on scene." c. "EMS should spend a total of 10 minutes assessing the patient for life-threatening injuries prior to initiating transport to a trauma center." d. "EMS systems should be designed so that it takes an ambulance no longer than 10 minutes to respond to a trauma call."

A car has been hit head-on by another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. Seatbelts were in place and the airbags deployed. The patient is complaining of chest pain. Quick observation reveals a bruise to his sternum. The EMT would immediately: Select one: a. deflate the airbag to get breath sounds. b. check the windshield for starring. c. lift the airbag and check the steering wheel. d. suspect an injury related to the airbag.

A teenage female patient has been ejected from a car as it rolled down a hill. She is responsive, but with signs of early shock. She has bruising to her anterior abdomen, a laceration to her left temple, and deformity to he left wrist. At what point should the wrist injury be splinted? Select one: a. Prior to immobilizing the patient b. Just before leaving the scene c. En-route to the hospital d. Before transferring to the stretcher

Injury to the head and neck may indicate injury to the:

cervical spine.

A bullet fired from a gun at close range passes through the patient's liver. However, on autopsy, the coroner discovers that the man's pancreas, stomach, and gall bladder were also injured, even though not in direct contact with the bullet. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would recognize that which of the following is responsible for injury to these additional organs? Select one: a. Blunt injury b. Profile impact c. Drag force d. Cavitation

As you pull up to a motor vehicle collision, you quickly scan the scene for clues as to the type and severity of injuries. Which of the following scene clues would best indicate that a patient may have a head injury? Select one: a. Frontal-type collision b. Blood on a patient's clothing c. Airbag deployment d. Starring of a windshield

What piece of information would you provide to a group of older drivers with musculoskeletal problems to decrease their chance of suffering a "whiplash" type injury? Select one: a. Position the car seats in a full upright position. b. Properly wear seatbelts with a headrest in the down position. c. Consider purchasing a car with side door airbags. d. Ensure that the head rest is properly positioned.

A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should:

immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam.

You respond to a 38-year-old man who fell while rock climbing. He is unconscious with an open airway. The respiration and pulse rates are within normal limits. His distal pulses are intact. You check his pupils and find that they are unequal. You know this could be a sign of:

increased intracranial pressure.

The nervous system is divided into the central nervous system and the:

peripheral nervous system.

A female patient with a suspected head injury has slow, shallow breathing. The MOST appropriate treatment for her includes:

ventilation assistance to maintain an ETCO2 of 30 to 35 mm Hg.

Helmets must be removed in all of the following cases, EXCEPT:

when there are no impending airway or breathing problems.

A 20-year-old male collided with another player during a hockey game and complains of severe pain to the left shoulder. Assessment reveals that the clavicle is bulging anteriorly at the shoulder. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. separation of the acromioclavicular joint. B. dislocation of the glenohumeral joint. C. posterior dislocation of the shoulder. D. multiple fractures of the proximal humerus.

A 37-year-old male was pinned between a flatbed truck and a loading dock. On exam, you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins, bilaterally diminished breath sounds, and bilateral scleral hemorrhaging. You should: A. aggressively manage his airway. B. request a paramedic ambulance. C. perform a secondary assessment. D. suspect a severe hemopneumothorax

A 40-year-old man, who was the unrestrained driver of a car that hit a tree at a high rate of speed, struck the steering wheel with his chest. He has a large bruise over the sternum and an irregular pulse rate of 120 beats/min. You should be MOST concerned that he: A. has injured his myocardium. B. has a collapsed lung and severe hypoxia. C. has extensive bleeding into the pericardial sac. D. is at extremely high risk for ventricular fibrillation.

A 44-year-old male sustained a laceration to his left ear during a minor car accident. Your assessment reveals minimal bleeding. Appropriate care for this injury includes: A. padding between the ear and the scalp. B. covering the wound with a moist dressing. C. applying a tight pressure dressing. D. packing the ear with sterile gauze pads.

A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should: Select one: A. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport. B. fully immobilize her spine, irrigate her empty tooth sockets, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, and transport. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport. D. assist ventilations with a BVM device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport.

A construction worker fell approximately 30′ and landed in a pile of steel rods. Your assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic and has a 10″ steel rod impaled in his left leg. You should: A. control the bleeding, begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), stabilize the steel rod, immobilize his spine, and transport immediately. B. remove the steel rod, control the bleeding, apply an automated external defibrillator (AED), begin CPR, and transport to a trauma center. C. stabilize the steel rod, control the bleeding, begin CPR, and rapidly transport to a trauma center. D. control the bleeding, carefully remove the steel rod, begin CPR, and transport as soon as possible.

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should: Select one: A. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. B. flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport. C. mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution. D. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical.

A fall from more than______times the patients hight is considered to be significant A. three B. four C. two D. five

A patient with blunt trauma who is holding the lateral side of his chest and has rapid and shallow respirations is most likely suffering from: A. rib fractures B. a sternal fracture C. a pneumothorax D. a pulmonary contusion

A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in: Select one: A. paralysis of the intercostal muscles. B. paralysis of the diaphragm. C. immediate cardiac arrest. D. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles.

A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n): A. cerebral concussion. B. cerebral contusion. C. intracerebral hematoma. D. intracranial hemorrhage.

A utility worker was trimming branches and was electrocuted when he accidentally cut a high-power line. He fell approximately 20′ and is lying unconscious on the ground the power line is lying across his chest. You should: A. rapidly assess the patient after ensuring that the power line is not live. B. apply insulated gloves and assume manual control of his c-spine. C. quickly but carefully move the patient away from the power line. D. manually stabilize his head as your partner assesses for breathing.

A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should: A. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering her eye. B. apply firm direct pressure to the injured eye and cover the opposite eye. C. carefully examine her eye and remove any foreign objects if needed. D. ask her to move the injured eye to assess the integrity of the optic nerve.

According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he or she: A. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma. B. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury. C. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min. D. was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed.

An 8-year-old male was bitten by a stray dog. He has a large laceration to the back of his left hand, which your partner covered with a sterile dressing and bandage. In addition to transporting the child to the hospital, you should: A. report the incident to the appropriate authorities. B. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. ask the child's father to try to locate the dog. D. advise the child that he will need rabies shots.

An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: A. the overlying skin is no longer intact. B. bone ends protrude through the skin. C. a large laceration overlies the fracture. D. a bullet shatters the underlying bone.

An open pneumothorax occurs when: Select one: A. air enters the pleural space from outside the body. B. a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung. C. extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture. D. air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung.

An unrestrained driver collided with a bridge pillar. Upon inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you note that the lower dashboard is crushed. During your assessment of the patient, you will MOST likely encounter: A. trauma to the pelvis. B .blunt abdominal trauma. C.a severe closed head injury. D.penetrating thoracic trauma.

Awareness of and concern for potentially serious obvious underlying injuries is referred to as the: A. index of suspicion B. mechasim of injury C. scene size-up D. general impression

Blood in the urine is known as: A. hematuria. B. hemotysis. C. hematocrit. D. hemoglobin.

Burns are classified according to: A. depth and extent. B. location and pain. C. degree and location. D. extent and location.

Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because: A. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass. B. pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia. C. pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood. D. most burns in children are the result of child abuse.

Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. constricted pupils. B. combative behavior. C. CSF leakage from the ears. D. decreased sensory function.

Crepitus and false motion are: A. positive indicators of a fracture. B. most common with dislocations. C. indicators of a severe sprain. D. only seen with open fracture

Deformity caused by a fracture would MOST likely be masked by: A. swelling. B. guarding. C. crepitus. D. ecchymosis.

During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: Select one: A. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse. B. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow. C. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately. D. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints.

Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the speed of the fall. B. the primary impact point. C. the surface struck.

Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss. A. 1,000 B. 1,500 C. 2,000 D. 4,000

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of: A. intracranial bleeding. B. airway compromise. C. a fracture of the skull. D. spinal cord injury.

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: A. a blowout fracture. B. a lacerated globe. C. optic vessel compression. D. a ruptured eyeball.

Frequent reassessments of the patient with face or neck injuries are MOST important because: A. such injuries can affect the respiratory system. B. hospital staff require frequent patient updates. C. rapid facial swelling may mask hidden injuries. D. they lend credibility to your documentation.

Functions of dressings and bandages include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. immobilization of the injury. B. prevention of contamination. C. protection from further injury. D. control of external hemorrhage.

If you need to remove a foreign particle from the eye, the technique includes: A. Flushing the eye with clean water while holding the eyelids apart. B. Using a small forceps to remove the object. C. Pulling the lower lid up and over the upper lid, allowing the lashes of the upper lid to remove the object. D. Removing a foreign object lodged in the eyeball with a cotton swab.

In addition to external bleeding, the MOST significant risk that an open soft-tissue injury exposes a patient to is: A. infection. B. hypothermia. C. nerve damage. D. vessel damage.

In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with: A. articular cartilage. B. synovial tendons. C. muscular fascia. D. gliding cartilage.

Passengers who are seated in the rear of a vehicle and are wearing only lap belts have a higher incidence of injuries to the: A. thoracic and lumbar spine. B. lumbar and coccygeal spine. C. thoracic and sacral spine. D. lumbar and sacral spine.

Patients with chest injuries will often present with _______. Select one: A. tachypnea B. agonal respirations C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations D. Kussmaul respirations

Pleural fluid is contained between the: A. visceral and parietal pleurae. B. parietal pleura and the heart. C. visceral pleura and the lung. D. parietal pleura and the chest wall.

Significant clues to the possibility of severe injuries in motor vehicle collisions include: A. death of a passanger B. broken glass C. a deployed air bag D. a blown-out tire

Signs of a pulmonary blast injury include: A. coughing up blood. B. an irregular pulse. C. multiple rib fractures. D. vomiting blood.

Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called: A. tendons. B. cartilage. C. ligaments. D. fascia

The Adam's apple is: A. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. B. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. C. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. D. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea.

The MOST common and significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the knee is: A. neurovascular compromise. B. internal bleeding and shock. C. ligament and cartilage damage. D. total depletion of synovial fluid.

The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is the: A. clavicle. B. scapula. C. radius and ulna. D. midshaft femur.

The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: A. traction. B. reduction. C. stabilization. D. immobilization.

The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the: A. headrest is appropriately positioned. B. air bag correctly deploys upon impact. C. rear end of the vehicle is initially struck. D. patient tenses up at the time of impact.

The conjunctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the: A. lacrimal gland. B. optic chiasma. C. posterior orbit. D. corneal duct.

The cricoid cartilage: A. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea. B. is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage. C. lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck. D. lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck.

The five vertebrae that form the midback are called the: A. Lumbar spine. B. Coccyx. C. Sacral spine. D. Thoracic spine.

The germinal layer of the epidermis contains pigment granules that are responsible for skin: A. color. B. texture. C. moisture. D. temperature.

The hair follicles, sweat glands and sebaceous glands are found in the: A. dermis B. germinal layer C. epidermis D. subcutaneous layer

What type of blast occurs when objects are propelled by the force of the blast wave and strike the victim, causing injury? A. secondary B. tertiary C. primary D. quaternary

What types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? A. Rotational and rollover B. Rear-end and rotational C. Frontal and rotational D. Lateral and rollover

When a light is shone into the pupil: Select one: A. it should become smaller in size. B. both pupils should dilate together. C. the opposite pupil should dilate. D. it should become larger in size.

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: A. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. B. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave. C. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious. D. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious.

When caring for a chemical burn to the eye, the EMT should: A. prevent contamination of the opposite eye. B. immediately cover the injured eye with a sterile dressing. C. avoid irrigating the eye, as this may cause further injury. D. irrigate both eyes simultaneously, even if only one eye is injured.

When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should: A. brush away the chemical before flushing with water. B. deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution. C. use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical. D. quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water.

When evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car-versus-pedestrian collision, you should first: A. approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian. B. determine if the patient was propelled away from the vehicle. C. evaluate the vehicle that struck the patient for structural damage. D. determine if the patient was struck and pulled under the vehicle.

Which of the following is NOT a pertinent negative to note during your assessment of a patient with chest trauma? A. No heart murmurs B. No associated shortness of breath C. No rapid breathing D. No areas of deformity

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 35-year-old patient? A. circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest B. full-thickness burn to 5% of the body surface area (BSA) C. partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA D. superficial burn covering 50% of the BSA

Which of the following mechanisms of injury would MOST likely cause a crushing injury of the larynx and/or trachea? A. Attempted suicide by hanging Gunshot B. wound to the lateral neck C. Car crash involving lateral impact D. Patient whose head hits the windshield

Which of the following organs or structures does NOT reside within the mediastinum? A. lungs B. trachea C. vena cavae D. esophagus

Which of the following should NOT be used as an occlusive dressing? A. Gauze pads B. Vaseline gauze C. Aluminum foil D. Plastic

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the treatment of bleeding from a neck injury? A. Apply firm pressure to the carotid artery to reduce the amount of bleeding. B. Apply pressure to the bleeding site using a gloved fingertip C. Apply a sterile occlusive dressing D. Use gauze to secure the dressing in place

Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct? Select one: A. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly. B. They are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull. C. They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control. D. They cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx.

Which of the following statements regarding electrical burns is correct? A. Entrance wounds are small relative to the amount of internal tissue damage. B. Respiratory or cardiac arrest following an electrical burn is very uncommon. C. The exit wound caused by electrical burns is smaller than the entrance wound. D. The size of the entry and exit wounds is a reliable indicator of internal damage.

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct? A. The speed of a bullet has a greater impact on causing injury than the mass. B. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury. C. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries. D. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of internal injury.

Which of the following statements regarding the "Adam's apple" is FALSE? A. It is inferior to the cricoid cartilage. B. It is formed by the thyroid cartilage. C. It is the uppermost part of the larynx. D. It is more prominent in men than in women

Which type of MVC presents the greatest potential for multiple impacts? A.rotational and rollover B.rear-end and rotational C.lateral and rollover D.frontal and rotational

Whiplash injuries are MOST common following _________ impacts. A.rear-end B.rollover C.frontal D.lateral

You and your partner are preparing to apply a traction splint to a patient's deformed thigh. As you apply manual traction, the patient resists your efforts and states that the pain is getting worse. You should A) stop and splint the leg in the deformed position B) assess distal pulses and continue pulling traction C) gently massage the thigh muscles to relax them D) flex the knee and place a pillow under the thigh

You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should: A. turn the backboard onto its side. B. reassess his breathing adequacy. C. quickly suction his oropharynx. D. alert the hospital of the situation.

You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should: A. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed. B. remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one. C. carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside. D. remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one.

You receive a call to a local gymnasium for a basketball player with a dislocated shoulder. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 17-year-old male, sitting on the ground. He is holding his left arm in a fixed position away from his body. There is an obvious anterior bulge to the area of injury. You should: A. assess distal pulse, motor, and sensory functions. B. gently attempt to move his arm toward his body. C. place a pillow under his arm and apply a swathe. D. flex his arm at the elbow and then apply a sling.

You respond to an 18 year old man who has been assaulted with a baseball bat. He was hit in the chest. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. This condition is most likely related to: A. commotio cordis B. cardiac tamponade C. pnumonthorax D. traumatic asphyxia

Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 11, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min, his Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is: A. 8. B. 11. C. 9. D. 10.

what level of trauma center provides prompt assessment, resuscitation, and stabilization of injured patients and emergency operations, but not definitive care for all patients A. Level III B. Level I C. Level IV D. Level II

A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: A. superficial burn. B. full-thickness burn. C. partial-thickness burn. D. second-degree burn.

A or FIRST-DEGREE BURN

It would be MOST appropriate to perform a focused secondary assessment on a patient who: A. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position. B. was restrained during a high-speed motor vehicle crash. C. has blood draining from the ears following a head injury. D. struck his or her head and is experiencing nausea or vomiting.

A. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position.

In a patient with a head injury, hypertension, bradycardia, and Biot respirations indicate: A. herniation of the brain stem. B. internal bleeding in the chest. C. an underlying skull fracture. D. decreased cerebral blood flow.

A. herniation of the brain stem.

The effectiveness of positive-pressure ventilations when treating a head-injured patient can ONLY be determined by: A. immediate reassessment following the intervention. B. a neurosurgeon or emergency department physician. C. reassessing the patient's blood pressure after at least 10 minutes. D. noting a decrease in the heart rate during ventilations.

A. immediate reassessment following the intervention.

A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: A. it interferes with your assessment of the airway. B. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard. C. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain. D. the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor.

A. it interferes with your assessment of the airway.

When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT: A. pupillary constriction. B. increase in heart rate. C. shunting of blood to vital organs. D. dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle.

A. pupillary constriction.

You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is: A. slow. B. weak. C. rapid. D. irregular.

A. slow.

The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the: A. spinal canal. B. vertebral body. C. vertebral arch. D. intervertebral disc.

A. spinal canal.

A 30-year-old male experienced a crushing injury when his arm was trapped between the back of a truck and a loading dock. Upon your arrival, the man's arm has been freed. Your assessment reveals that his arm is obviously deformed and swollen and is cold and pale. Further assessment reveals an absent radial pulse. You should be MOST concerned that this patient has: A. internal hemorrhage. B. compartment syndrome. C. a severe closed fracture. D. damage to the radial nerve.

A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert, but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be MOST suspicious for: A. anterior hip dislocation. B. posterior hip dislocation. C. a thoracic spine fracture. D. fracture of the tibia or fibula.

A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should: A. leave the contact lenses in place and cover both eyes with a dry dressing. B. carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline. C. leave the contact lenses in place and flush his eyes with sterile water. D. remove the contact lenses and cover his eyes with a dry, sterile dressing.

A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should: Select one: A. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates. B. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing. C. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions. D. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury.

A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is: Select one: A. quickly immobilizing her spinal column. B. rapidly transporting her to the hospital. C. careful monitoring her vital signs. D. requesting a paramedic ambulance.

A Colles fracture involves a fracture of the: A. distal ulna. B. distal radius. C. proximal radius. D. radius and ulna.

A black eye is frequently an indication of a fractured: A. Temporal bone. B. Maxilla. C. Occipital complex. D. Mandible.

A fracture caused by minimal force that is associated with diseases such as cancer and osteoporosis is called a __________ fracture. A. greenstick B. pathologic C. transverse D. comminuted

A fracture involving the nasal bone and inferior maxilla, which separates the nasal bone and lower maxilla from the facial skull and remainder of the cranial bones describes: A. a Le Fort III fracture. B. a Le Fort II fracture. C. a Le Fort I fracture. D. craniofacial disjunction.

A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A. abnormality in the structure of a bone. B. break in the continuity of the bone. C. total loss of function in a bone. D. disruption in the midshaft of a bone.

A hematoma develops when: A. small amounts of blood leak into the epidermis. B. large blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged. C. severe swelling compromises arterial circulation. D. cells and small vessels in the dermis are damaged.

A laceration: A. is an injury that separates various layers of soft tissue. B. is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or blunt force trauma. C. rarely penetrates through the subcutaneous tissue to the muscle. D. is a sharp, smooth cut that is made by a surgical scalpel.

A simple pneumothorax: Select one: A. often has a nontraumatic cause. B. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma. C. heals on its own without any treatment. D. is caused by penetrating chest trauma.

A young male experienced severe blunt chest trauma when his passenger car struck another vehicle head-on. During your inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you would MOST likely find: A. deployed airbags. B. steering wheel deformity. C. starring of the windshield. D. a crushed instrument panel.

A(n) ______ occurs whenever a large blood vessel is damaged and bleeds. A. contusion B. hematoma C. crushing injury D. avulsion

An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n): A. incision. B. avulsion. C. laceration. D. amputation.

As the cells on the surface of the skin are worn away, now cells form in the _____ layer. A. dermal B. germinal C. epidermal D. subcutaneous

At what step in the ACS-COT/CDC updated field triage decision scheme would you assess mechanism of injury and evidence of high-energy impact? A. step 2 B. step 3 C. step 4 D. step 1

Bone marrow produces: A. platelets. B. blood cells. C. lymphocytes. D. electrolytes.

Care for a patient with a fractured tibia and suspected compartment syndrome includes A) applying traction to maintain distal pulses B) keeping the leg at the level of the heart C) immobilizing the leg with an air splint D) applying chemical hot packs to the leg

Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. swelling. B. deformity. C. ecchymosis. D. point tenderness

During an altercation in a bar, two patrons got into a fist fight. The first patient, a 44-year-old female, was struck in the mouth and refuses EMS care. The second patient, a 39-year-old female, has a small laceration to her left knuckle and also refuses EMS care. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is MOST correct? A. You should contact the police and have the patients arrested. B. The 39-year-old female is at high risk for an infection. C. The patient struck in the mouth should be immobilized. D. The 44-year-old female is at high risk for an infection.

During your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed area to the front of his skull. This injury MOST likely occurred: A. as a direct result of the pressure wave. B. during the tertiary phase.

Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? Select one: A. Widening pulse pressure B. Engorged jugular veins C. Diminished breath sounds D. A rapid, irregular pulse

Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a(n): A. esophageal tear B. laryngeal fracture C. collapsed trachea D. crushed cricoid

If a dislocated shoulder has spontaneously reduced before your arrival, the only way to confirm the injury is by noting: A. distal circulation. B. the patient history. C. bruising to the shoulder. D. the presence of deformity.

Immediately life-threatening chest injuries must be found and managed during the _______. Select one: A. scene size-up B. primary assessment C. secondary assessment D. patient history

In order for electricity to flow through the body and cause damage: A. an insulator must exist between the electrical source and the patient. B. a complete circuit must exist between the electrical source and the ground. C. the part of the body that is in contact with the electrical source must be dry. D. the person must make direct physical contact with the source of electricity.

In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object? A. A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye B. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back C. A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest D. An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen

Kinetic energy is a calculation of: A. weight and size. B. weight and speed. C. mass and weight. D. speed and force.

Signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hemoptysis. B. hematemesis. C. asymmetrical chest movement. D. increased pain with breathing.

The AEMT should be MOST suspicious of a Le Fort fracture if a patient who experienced massive blunt force trauma to the face presents with: A. misalignment of the teeth. B. mobility of the facial bones. C. numbness of the chin. D. flattening of the cheekbones.

The MOST common and serious complication of a significant head injury is: a) a hypoxic seizure. b) cerebral edema. c) a skull fracture. d) acute hypotension.

The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: Select one: A. mandibular immobility. B. airway compromise. C. cervical spine injury. D. damage to the eyes.

The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: A. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. B. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. C. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. D. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar.

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. B. your concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.

The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the: A. retina. B. conjunctiva. C. sclera. D. cornea.

The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer, function by: A. delivering oxygen directly to the CNS. B. acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord. C. regenerating brain cells after they have been damaged. D. producing leukocytes that protect the brain from infection.

The most important consideration when dealing with electrical burns is: A. standard precautions B. scene safety C. level of responsiveness D. airway

The musculoskeletal system refers to the: A. involuntary muscles of the nervous system. B. bones and voluntary muscles of the body. C. nervous system's control over the muscles. D. connective tissue that supports the skeleton.

The phenomenon that results from the rapid changes in tissue and fluid pressure that occur with the passage of a projectile, resulting in serious injury to internal organs distant to the actual path of a bullet, is known as what? A. fragmentation B. cavitation C. tumble D. drag

Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: A. low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls. B. falls and motor vehicle collisions. C. gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections. D. motor vehicle collisions and stabbings.

What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body? A. dermis B. epidermis C. muscular layer D. subcutaneous layer

What purpose does a one-way "flutter valve" serve when used on a patient with an open pneumothorax? A. It prevents air escape from within the chest cavity. B. It allows a release of air trapped in the pleural space. C. It only prevents air from entering an open chest wound. D. It allows air to freely move in and out of the chest cavity.

When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant: A. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard. B. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force. C. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle. D. will most likely be thrown over the steering column.

When a person is looking at an object up close, the pupils should: A. dilate. B. constrict. C. remain the same size. D. dilate, and then constrict.

When assessing a patient with a mandibular fracture, you would MOST likely encounter: A. pain directly over the chin. B. misalignment of the teeth. C. impaired ocular movement. D. lateral bulging of the jaw.

When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the: A. kinetic energy. B. mechanism of injury. C. index of suspicion. D. potential energy.

When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: A. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening. B. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. C. assume that minimal force was applied to the back. D. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back.

When caring for a patient with a possible head injury, it is MOST important to monitor the patient's: A. pupil size. B. level of consciousness. C. pulse regularity. D. blood pressure.

When caring for a patient with facial trauma, the EMT should be MOST concerned with A. Spinal trauma B. Airway compromise C. Associated eye injuries D. Severe external bleeding

When stabilizing a large foreign object in the eye, you should first cover the eye with a moist dressing, then: A. irrigate the eye with saline B. surround the object with a doughnut-shaped collar made from gauze C. apply tape around the object and then secure the tape to the forehead D. place an ice pack over the eye to reduce swelling

When the chest impacts the steering wheel during a motor vehicle crash with rapid deceleration, the resulting injury, which often kills patients, usually within seconds, is: A. a hemothorax. B. aortic shearing. C. a pneumothorax. D. a ruptured myocardium.

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: A. doubles. B. quadruples.

When treating a patient with damage to the facial bones, you should also have a high index of suspicion for: A. Cranial cohesion. B. Injury to the brain. C. Aphagia. D. Thoracic separation.

Which of the following is considered a type of motor vehicle collision? A. Ejection B. Rollover C. Crush D. Penetration

Which of the following is most likely to cause immediate death? Select one: A. Pulmonary contusion B. Aortic rupture C. Aortic dissection D. Myocardial contusion

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? A. Severe strain B. Displaced fracture C. Moderate sprain D. Hairline fracture

Which of the following open soft-tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss? A. Incision B. Abrasion C. Avulsion D. Laceration

Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process? A. The blood vessels in and around the injury site constrict, which forces bacteria and other microorganisms away, thus preventing significant infection. B. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling. C. The veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, which stops bleeding and causes a temporary increase in the size of the wound. D. White blood cells are forced away from the injury site, thus allowing an increase in the flow of red blood cells, resulting in increased blood flow.

Which of the following skull fractures would be the LEAST likely to present with palpable deformity or other outward signs? A. Depressed B. Linear C. Open D. Basilar

Which of the following statements about compartment syndrome is NOT true? Select one: A. It occurs 6 to 12 hours after an injury. B. It most commonly occurs with a fractured femur. C. It is usually a result of excessive bleeding, a severely crushed extremity, or the rapid return of blood to an ischemic limb. D. It is characterized by pain that is out of proportion to the injury.

Which of the following statements regarding cervical collars is MOST correct? A. The patient's head should be forced into a neutral position to apply a cervical collar. B. A cervical collar is used in addition to, not instead of, manual immobilization. C. Once a cervical collar is applied, you can cease manual head stabilization. D. Cervical collars are contraindicated in patients with numbness to the extremities

Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? A. Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal. B. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours. C. With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity. D. Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body.

Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? A. It is a clear, watery fluid that cannot be replaced if it is lost during an eye injury. B. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. C. It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost. D. It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost.

Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. smooth D. autonomic

While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. underlying cardiac disease. B. bruising of the heart muscle. C. a lacerated coronary artery. D. traumatic rupture of the aorta.

While en route to a major MVC, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: A.open abdominal injuries B.neck and facial injuries C.lower extremity fractures D.blunt trauma to the head

You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should: Select one: A. begin ventilatory assistance. B. partially remove the dressing. C. call for a paramedic ambulance. D. begin rapid transport at once.

Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. His Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is: A. 8. B. 9. C. 10. D. 11.

______ burns cause intense pain. A. First-degree B. Second-degree C. Superficial D. Third-degree

Which of the following breathing patterns is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure? A. Increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea C. Increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath D. Slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea

B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea

The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is: A. a pulse that is rapid and thready. B. a decreased level of consciousness. C. an abnormally low blood pressure. D. decreased sensation in the extremities.

B. a decreased level of consciousness.

The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer: A. regenerating brain cells after they have been damaged. B. acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord. C. delivering oxygen directly to the CNS. D. producing leukocytes that protect the brain from infection.

B. acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord.

The frontal and parietal bones of the skull are especially susceptible to: A. basilar skull fractures. B. compressed skull fractures. C. linear skull fractures. D. nondisplaced skull fractures.

B. compressed skull fractures.

A 44-year-old man was struck in the back of the head and was reportedly unconscious for approximately 30 seconds. He complains of a severe headache and "seeing stars," and states that he regained his memory shortly before your arrival. His presentation is MOST consistent with a(n): A. contusion. B. concussion. C. subdural hematoma. D. intracerebral hemorrhage.

B. concussion.

yperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: Select one: A. diving. B. hangings. C. compression. D. falls.

B. hangings

Bleeding within the brain tissue itself is called a(n): A. epidural hematoma. B. intracerebral hematoma. C. subdural hematoma. D. intracranial hematoma.

B. intracerebral hematoma.

During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: A. assist his ventilations with a BVM. B. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. C. immobilize his spine and transport immediately. D. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood.

B. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds.

The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: A. the clothes drag. B. the four-person log roll. C. the use of a scoop stretcher. D. the direct patient carry.

B. the four-person log roll.

When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated: A. blood is shunted away from the digestive organs. B. the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate. C. hormones are released that prepare the body for stress. D. heart rate and blood pressure increase.

B. the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate.

A 17-year-old male was shot in the right anterior chest during an altercation with a gang member. As your partner is applying 100% oxygen, you perform a rapid secondary assessment and find an open chest wound with a small amount of blood bubbling from it. You should: A. place a sterile dressing over the wound and apply direct pressure. B. control the bleeding from the wound and prepare to transport at once. C. apply an occlusive dressing to the wound and continue your assessment. D. direct your partner to assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-mask device.

A 21-year-old male has a large laceration to his neck. When you assess him, you note that bright red blood is spurting from the left side of his neck. You should immediately: A. apply a pressure dressing to his neck. B. sit the patient up to slow the bleeding. C.place your gloved hand over the wound. D. apply 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

A 30-year-old female presents with redness, inflammation, and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing: A. acute retinitis. B. a detached retina. C. conjunctivitis. D. a corneal abrasion.

A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: Select one: A. use tweezers to try to remove the object. B. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab. C. transport her to the emergency department. D. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline.

A 40-year-old man was standing near a building when it exploded. He has multiple injuries, including a depressed skull fracture, severe burns, and an impaled object in his abdomen. His head injury was MOST likely caused by ___________ blast injuries. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary

A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the right side of the chest. The patient is experiencing respiratory distress and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect: Select one: A. massive hemothorax. B. traumatic asphyxia. C. pulmonary contusion. D. tension pneumothorax.

A small compact car was involved in a rollover crash. As you are approaching the vehicle, you note that the roof is significantly collapsed. The patient, a 29-year-old male, is complaining of severe pain in his neck and to the top of his head as well as numbness and tingling in his extremities. Witnesses who removed the patient from the vehicle state that he was wearing his seatbelt. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for this patient's condition? A. Lateral bending of the neck during the crash B. Impact of the head against the steering wheel C. Compression of the head against the roof D. Whiplash injury to the neck during the rollover

A sport utility vehicle lost control and struck a utility pole head-on. The driver was killed instantly. The passenger, a young female, is conscious and alert and has several small abrasions and lacerations to her left forearm. Treatment for the passenger should include: A. a focused exam of her forearm. B. transport to a community hospital. C. transport to a trauma center. D. a secondary assessment at the scene.

A young boy was riding his bicycle down the street when he hit a parked car. What was the second collision? A. the bike hitting the car B. The bike rider striking the pavement C. The bike rider hitting his bike or the car D. The bike rider's internal organs striking the solid structures of the body

A young female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She complains of pain to her left eye, which appears to have a piece of glass impaled in it. Further assessment reveals a large laceration to her left forearm with heavy bleeding. As your partner manually stabilizes the patient's head, you should: A. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. B. stabilize the impaled glass in her eye. C. apply direct pressure to her arm wound. D. carefully remove the glass from her eye.

A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities. A. greenstick B. diaphyseal C. epiphyseal D. metaphyseal

An 82-year-old man experienced a minor facial injury when he tripped and fell. He is conscious and alert and complains of slight pain to his cheekbones. His medical history includes hypertension, blood clots in his legs, hypothyroidism, and type 2 diabetes. During your assessment, it is important to remember that: A. his blood glucose level should be assessed immediately. B. patients with hypothyroidism are especially prone to falls. C. he is at an increased risk for severe posterior epistaxis. D. any patient who falls should have their spine immobilized.

As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are closed and that he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his forehead with minimal bleeding, and a closed deformity to his right leg. You should: A. perform an immediate head-to-toe assessment. B. assess his pulse for rate, regularity, and quality. C. open his airway and assess his breathing status. D. apply high-flow oxygen and assess his injuries.

Assessment and care guidelines for a patient with an eye injury should include: A. Bandaging only the injured eye, as the patient will be more at ease if able to see what is going on. B. Placing drops in the eye to keep it lubricated. C. Giving the patient nothing by mouth. D. Opening the eye if it is swollen shut to properly examine the globe.

Atrophy is a condition that occurs when: A. increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength. B. the tendons that attach muscle to bone become stretched or injured. C. muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma. D. carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle.

Closed soft-tissue injuries are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: A. pain at the site of the injury B. swelling beneath the skin C. damage of the protective layer of skin D. a history of blunt trauma

During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. As your partner is administering oxygen to the patient, you should: A. request a paramedic to decompress the chest. B. make note of it and continue your assessment. C. stabilize the chest wall with a bulky dressing. D. reassess the adequacy of the patient's breathing.

During your initial assessment, history, and physical exam of a patient with an eye, face, or neck injury, remember to: A.Open the airway with the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver and suction the patient's airway as needed. B. Apply high-concentration oxygen at 15 lpm by a nonrebreather mask as soon as severe bleeding is controlled. C. Establish manual in-line stabilization of the head and neck on first contact with the patient. D. Conduct a focused trauma assessment of the injury site if the mechanism of injury is significant.

For injuries to the face, emergency care includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Wrapping an avulsed tooth in a sterile gauze pad soaked in saline. B. Providing oxygen by a nonrebreather mask at 15 lpm. C. Establishing and maintaining the patient's airway by the use of airway adjuncts. D. Establishing and maintaining in-line spinal stabilization.

Functions of the skin include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. maintenance of water balance. B. regulation of body temperature. C. the production of key antibodies. D. sending information to the brain.

How many collisions are there in a typical vehicle impact? A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4

In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: A. the patient is in severe pain. B. transport time is less than 15 minutes. C. the patient is clinically unstable. D. deformity and swelling are present.

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? A. when distal circulation and neurological functions are absent B. if transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes C. if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain D. if a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity

On inhalation, which of the following does NOT occur? A. the intercostal muscles contract, elevating the rib cage B. the diaphragm contracts C. the pressure inside the chest increases D. air enters through the nose and mouth

Patients with full-thickness (third-degree) burns generally do not complain of pain because: A. blister formation protects the burn. B. he or she is generally not conscious. C. the nerve endings have been destroyed. D. subcutaneous vessels are usually clotted.

Severe abrasion injuries can occur when motorcycle riders are slowed after a collision by road drag. Road drag is most often associated with which type of motorcycle impact? A. Head-on collision B. Angular collision C. Ejection D. Controlled crash

Signs of a cardiac tamponade include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. muffled heart tones. B. a weak, rapid pulse. C. collapsed jugular veins. D. narrowing pulse pressure.

The lower jawbone is called the: A. maxillae. B. zygoma. C. mandible. D. mastoid.

The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as: A. capitation. B. conversion. C. cavitation. D. congruent.

The presence of subcutaneous emphysema following trauma to the face and throat is MOST suggestive of: A. esophageal injury. B. cervical spine fracture. C. crushing tracheal injury. D. carotid artery laceration.

The purpose of the eustachian tube is to: A.move in response to sound waves. B. transmit impulses from the brain to the ear. C. equalize pressure in the middle ear when external pressure changes. D. house fluid within the inner chamber of the ear and support balance.

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated: Select one: A. at the angle of the jaw. B. slightly above the ear. C. just anterior to the tragus. D. over the mastoid process.

The upper jawbones are called the: A. mastoid. B. mandible. C. maxillae. D. zygoma.

Traction splints are used primarily to immobilize and secure fractures of the: A. hip. B. pelvis. C. femur. D. humerus.

Treatment for an abdominal evisceration includes: A. pushing the exposed organs back into the abdominal cavity B. covering the organs with dry dressings C. flexing the knees and legs to relieve pressure on the abdomen D. applying moist, adherent dressings

When a driver is in a car equipped with an air bag, but is not wearing a seatbelt, he or she will MOST likely strike the __________ when the air bag deploys upon impact. A. dashboard B. steering wheel C. door D. windshield

When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury, it is MOST important to: A. manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture. B. assess circulation distal to the site of the injury. C. remain alert for more severe underlying injuries. D. recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken.

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the AEMT must: A. consider the mechanism of injury. B. manually stabilize the patient's head. C. wear gloves and facial protection. D. closely assess the patient's airway.

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT's immediate priority should be to: Select one: A. manually stabilize the patient's head. B. closely assess the patient's airway. C. wear gloves and facial protection. D. consider the mechanism of injury.

When caring for a patient with signs of a pneumothorax, your MOST immediate concern should be: A. hypovolemia. B. intrathoracic bleeding. C. ventilatory inadequacy. D. associated myocardial injury.

When placing a patient onto a long backboard, the EMT at the patient's _________ is in charge of all patient movements. A. lower extremities B. chest C. head D. waist

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: Select one: A. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital. B. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery. C. they may need to call a specialist to see the patient. D. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed.

Which of the following destinations is most appropriate for a 41-year-old male patient who was involved in a rollover motor vehicle collision and is unconscious and unresponsive, assuming that travel times to each is equal? A. Any designated trauma center is acceptable. B. A Level IV or Level III trauma center C. A Level I or Level II trauma center D. Only a Level I trauma center

Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of a head injury? A. One pupil larger in size than the other pupil B. Failure of the eyes to move in the same direction C. Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light D. Failure of the eyes to follow movement of an object

Which of the following has the greatest impact on producing injury? A. distance B. gravity C. speed D. mass

Which of the following is NOT a sign of a possible facial fracture? A. Bleeding in the mouth B. Absent or loose teeth C. Bleeding from the forehead D. Loose and/or moveable bone fragments

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a chest injury? A. bruising of the chest wall B. crepitus with palpation of the chest C. clear and equal breath sounds D. unequal expansion of the chest wall

Which of the following is the MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries? A. Cervical spine injury B. External hemorrhage C. Airway compromise D. Damage to the eyes

While jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should: Select one: A. immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. B. circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest. C. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital. D. recognize that he needs a needle decompression.

With regard to the three collisions that occur during a motor vehicle crash, which of the following statements regarding the first collision is correct? A. It has a direct effect on patient care because of the obvious vehicular damage. B. It occurs when the unrestrained occupant collides with the interior of the vehicle. C. It is the most dramatic part of the collision and may make extrication difficult. D. It provides the least amount of information about the mechanism of injury.

You are assessing a patient who was in a front-end car crash. His GCS is 12, systolic blood pressure is 81 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min. What is this pateints Revised Trauma Score? A. 12 B. 7 C. 10 D. 15

You are dispatched to a convenience store, where the clerk sustained a laceration to the side of his neck during a robbery attempt. During your assessment, you note bright red blood spurting from the laceration. You should: A. circumferentially wrap a dressing around his neck. B. apply direct pressure below the lacerated vessel. C. apply direct pressure above and below the wound. D. apply pressure to the closest arterial pressure point.

You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should: Select one: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. C. immediately request ALS support. D. perform a focused secondary exam.

You should always use the _______ maneuver to open the airway of a patient with a suspected neck injury. A. Cross-fingers technique B. Head-tilt/chin-lift C. Jaw-thrust D. Head-tilt/neck-lift

You would use the Revised trauma Score scoring system for a patient if there is potential for what type of trauma? A. extremity B. abdominal C. Head D. chest

Your physical exam of a patient with an eye injury should include: A. Using the AVPU mnemonic to assess any pain. B. Applying slight pressure to the globe to check for any leakage of fluid. C. Checking for crepitation in facial injuries. D. Never palpating the eye sockets or bones of the cheek, nose, or jaw, as any increase in pressure may cause additional pain or damage.

______ burns involve only the epidermis. A. Full-thickness B. Second-degree C. Superficial D. Third-degree

_______ burns may involve the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone or internal organs. A. Superficial B. Partial-thickness C. Full-thickness D. Second-degree

A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response? A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5

C. 3

Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing triad? A. Blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min B. Blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 10 breaths/min C. Blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg; pulse, 55 beats/min; respirations, 30 breaths/min D. Blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg; pulse, 30 beats/min; respirations, 32 breaths/min

C. Blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg; pulse, 55 beats/min; respirations, 30 breaths/min

Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? A. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head. B. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. C. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. D. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head.

C. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury.

A 39-year-old female experienced a severe closed head injury. She is unconscious with her eyes slightly open; her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, you should: A. secure her eyes open so you can reassess her pupils. B. inspect her eyes and gently remove impaled objects. C. irrigate her eyes with water to prevent mucosal drying. D. close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing.

A 39-year-old male was struck in the head by a baseball during a game. He is confused and has slurred speech. He has a large hematoma in the center of his forehead and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should: A. palpate his radial pulses. B. perform a neurologic exam. C. apply ice to the hematoma. D. administer high-flow oxygen.

A 40-year-old female, unrestrained, impacted the steering wheel of her vehicle with her chest when her vehicle hit a tree while traveling at 45 mph. She is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant chest pain and shortness of breath. Given the mechanism of injury and her present condition, it is LEAST likely that she experienced: A. a cardiac contusion. B. a pulmonary contusion. C. multiple rib fractures. D. a head injury.

A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n): A. hematoma. B. abrasion. C. crush injury. D. contusion.

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she: A. experiences multiple impacts. B. remains within the vehicle. C. is wearing only a lap belt. D. is ejected or partially ejected.

A flail chest occurs when: Select one: A. more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest. B. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase. C. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage. D. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.

A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the: A. epidermis. B. fatty layer. C. muscle fascia. D. dermal layer.

A patient complaining of chest tightness, coughing up blood, and subcutaneous emphysema following an explosion may be suffering from a: A. ruptured tympanic membrane B. ruptured peritoneal cavity C. myocardial blast injury D. pulmonary blast injury

A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury: A. should be placed in Trendelenburg's position. B. is most likely experiencing severe blood loss. C. has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta. D. requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.

A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: A. olecranon process. B. proximal radius. C. radial head. D. distal humerus.

According to the Association of Air Medical Services (AAMS), you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if: A. the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest paramedic ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away. B. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries. C. he or she was involved in a motor-vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor. D. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.

An abdominal evisceration: A. is most commonly the result of blunt force trauma. B. should be covered with bulky dry, sterile dressings. C. often causes severe hypothermia because of heat loss. D. occurs when organs protrude through an open wound.

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during: A. rollover collisions. B. rear-end collisions. C. frontal collisions. D. lateral collisions.

Approximately _____ of the nose is composed of bone. The remainder is composed of cartilage. A. nine tenths B. two thirds C. three quarters D. one third

As an EMT, your objective when treating patients with face and neck injuries is to: A. prevent further injury B. manage any acute airway problems C. control bleeding D. all of the above

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with: A. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point. B. ice packs and elevation of the patient's head. C. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs. D. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.

Bones are connected to other bones by bands of tough fibrous tissues called: A. bursa. B. tendons. C. cartilage. D. ligaments.

Children are often "belly breathers" because _______. A. they are consciously controlling ventilations B. they are routinely hypoxic C. their diaphragm is not functional D. their intercostal muscles are not developed

Clinical findings associated with a laryngeal injury include: A. hematemesis, bulging eyes, and jugular venous distention. B. pallor, a mediastinal shift, and tracheal deviation. C. posterior neck deformity, Battle's sign, and a dry cough. D. hemoptysis, subcutaneous emphysema, and cyanosis.

Closed chest injuries are typically caused by _______. Select one: A. flying debris B. high-velocity weapons C. penetrating trauma D. blunt trauma

Death from a rollover motor vehicle crash is MOST often secondary to: A. crushing injuries. B. airbag-related trauma. C. multiple collisions to the interior of the car. D. ejection of the patient from the motor vehicle.

During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is MOST consistent with a: A. .357 magnum. B. handgun. C. .22-caliber pistol. D. shotgun.

During your assessment of a patient who was stabbed, you see an open wound to the left anterior chest. Your MOST immediate action should be to: A. position the patient on the affected side. B. transport immediately. C. assess the patient for a tension pneumothorax. D. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.

During your secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: A. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. B. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once. C. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center. D. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.

Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when: A. the diaphragm descends. B. abdominal contents descend. C. intrathoracic pressure decreases. D. the intercostal muscles contract.

Facial injuries must be identified and treated as soon as possible because: A. bleeding must be controlled early. B. swelling may mask hidden injuries. C. the spine may be injured as well. D. of the risk for airway problems.

If one of more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should: A. allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries B. transport the survivors only if they have injuries of complain of pain C. rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma D. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.

Impaled objects that penetrate all the way through the cheek need to be removed. Steps for removal include: A. Not placing dressing material inside the mouth, as it may become an airway obstruction. B. Using one large piece of gauze to dress both the inside and outside of the wound, and securing it to the outside of the mouth. C. Pulling or pushing the object out of the cheek in the opposite direction in which it entered. D. Suctioning the mouth and throat frequently throughout transport.

In which type of vehicle crash are you most likely to find a patient with whiplash injuries? A. rotational B. rollover C. frontal D. rear-end

Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because: A. exit wounds caused by the bullet are usually small. B. the caliber of the bullet is frequently unknown. C. the area of damage is usually smaller than the bullet. D. the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body.

The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: A. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. B. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. C. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature. D. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.

The body systems represented in the neck include: A. Central nervous B. Musculoskeletal C. Respiratory D. All of the above

The energy contained in a moving object is called: A. potential energy. B. latent energy. C. converted energy. D. kinetic energy.

The globe of the eye is also called the: A.lens. B. orbit. C. retina. D. eyeball.

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: Select one: A. intercostal margin. B. costovertebral angle. C. anterior rib cage. D. diaphragm.

Treatment of electrical burns includes: A. maintaining the airway B. monitoring the patient closely for respiratory or cardiac arrest C. splinting any suspected injuries D. all of the above

What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its structures? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. striated D. smooth

When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm: Select one: A. is less prone to penetrating trauma. B. descends below the level of the navel. C. contracts and flattens inferiorly. D. may rise as high as the nipple line.

When assessing a stab wound, it is important for the EMT to remember that: A. stabbings to an extremity are rarely associated with an exit wound. B. the majority of the internal trauma will be near the path of the knife. C. most stabbings are unintentional and cause less severe internal injury. D. more internal damage may be present than the external wound suggests.

When immobilizing a child on a long backboard, you should: A. place the child's head in a slightly extended position. B. secure the head prior to securing the torso and legs. C. defer cervical collar placement to avoid discomfort. D. place padding under the child's shoulders as needed.

When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: A. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. B. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. C. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. D. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.

When splinting an injury of the wrist, the hand should be placed: A. into a fist. B. in a straight position. C. in an extended position. D. in a functional position.

When treating a partial-thickness burn, you should: A. immerse the affected part in warm water. B. rupture any blisters to prevent an infection. C. cover the burn with a moist, sterile dressing. D. avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics.

Which of the following patients has experienced the MOST significant fall? A. A 5'-0" patient who fell 13' B. A 5'-9" patient who fell 14' C. A 4'-8" patient who fell 13' D. A 4'-6" patient who fell 13'

Which of the following statements regarding low-energy penetrating injuries is correct? A. Exit wounds are typically easy to locate with low-energy penetrating injuries. B. Internal injuries caused by low-velocity bullets are usually easy to predict. C. It is usually easy to differentiate between an entrance wound and an exit wound. D. The area of injury is usually close to the path the object took through the body.

Which of the following would MOST likely result from the third collision in the "three- collision" effect that occurs during a high- speed, frontal impact motor vehicle crash? A. Extensive damage to the automobile B. Flail chest and lower extremity fractures C.Massive external trauma with severe bleeding D. Aortic rupture or compression injury to the brain

Which types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? A. Frontal and rotational B. Lateral and rollover C. Rear-end and rotational D. Rotational and rollover

With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: A. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted. B. part of the body that sustained secondary injury. C. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact. D. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a house fire where fire fighters have rescued a 50-year-old male from his burning house. The patient has superficial and partial-thickness burns to his face and chest. His nasal hairs are singed and he is coughing up sooty sputum. You should be MOST concerned with: A. treating him for hypothermia. B. preventing the risk of infection. C. estimating the extent of his burns. D. the potential for airway swelling.

You are assessing a patient who opens her eyes when you speak to her, who can respond to you but seems confused as to time and place, and localizes pain. What is her Glasgow Coma Scale score? A. 15 B. 7 C. 10 D. 12

You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unresponsive, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a: Select one: A. massive hemothorax. B. tension pneumothorax. C. pericardial tamponade. D. laceration of the aorta.

In which of the following situations would the EMT be the LEAST likely to immobilize a patient's spine? A. No spinal pain, but tingling in the extremities B. Unresponsive, but moving all extremities equally C. Pain to the c-spine, but no numbness or tingling. D. No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication

D. No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication

A reflex arc occurs when: A. the motor nerves function automatically without receiving a message from the CNS. B. a sensory nerve sends a message to the brain but the motor nerve fails to send the appropriate response to the body. C. the brain interprets sensory information that it receives from peripheral and cranial nerves and sends a signal to the muscles. D. a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve.

D. a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve.

The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: Select one: A. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. B. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar. C. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.

D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.

Rapid deceleration of the head, such as when it impacts the windshield, causes: A. compression injuries and contusions to the anterior, posterior, and lateral aspects of the brain. B. primary impact to the posterior aspect of the brain, resulting in compression injuries, bruising, or torn blood vessels. C. stretching or tearing of the anterior aspect of the brain and compression injuries or bruising to the posterior aspect of the brain. D. compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain.

D. compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain.

You should NOT remove an injured football player's helmet if: A. a cervical spine injury is suspected, even if the helmet fits loosely. B. the patient has a patent airway, even if he has breathing difficulty. C. he has broken teeth, but only if the helmet does not fit snugly in place. D. the face guard can easily be removed and there is no airway compromise.

D. the face guard can easily be removed and there is no airway compromise.

D. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.

An 8-year-old boy fell forward off of a swing onto outstretched arms. He did not hit his head or lose consciousness and is complaining of left forearm pain. There is deformity to the left wrist, but no other injuries or life threats. His vital signs are pulse 132, respirations 20, blood pressure 108/62, and SpO2 100%. The proper care of this patient would be: Select one: a. splint the forearm and apply a cold pack before transporting non-emergently. b. immediately load and transport, splinting the injury en-route. c. call ALS so that the patient can be given intravenous pain medications before splinting the forearm. d. apply high-flow oxygen, anatomically splint the forearm when the patient is immobilized to a long backboard.

Emergency Medical Responders have removed an intoxicated and confused patient from a car that struck another car at a high rate of speed. The patient was unrestrained and his car did not have airbags. Assessment reveals deformity bilaterally to the hips and femurs and bruising to the knees. Based on this injury pattern, the EMT would recognize what type of injury mechanism? Select one: a. High velocity b. Down and under c. Up and over d. Lateral impact

You are assessing a male patient who was stabbed three times in the chest and abdomen. As you begin your primary assessment, you note him to have a decreased level of consciousness and gurgling respirations. Your next action would be to: Select one: a. check his pulse. b. suction the airway. c. obtain a SpO2 reading. d. apply a cervical collar.

You are assessing a patient involved in a motorcycle accident. He states that he saw an oncoming car and "laid the bike down" to avoid an outright collision. He was wearing a helmet. Which of the following injuries would make sense given the action of the motorcyclist? Select one: a. Bilateral broken forearms b. Burn to the inside of the leg c. "Road rash" to the entire body d. Angulation to both femurs

You are hosting a discussion on injury prevention when a participant asks you if you believe that helmets for motorcyclists will truly make a difference. You would respond by saying: Select one: a. "Helmets have been shown to prevent motorcycle accidents." b. "Motorcycle helmets decrease the risk of death when involved in a collision." c. "Wearing a helmet decreases the chance of being ejected from a motorcycle." d. "A motorcycle helmet decreases the chance of permanent spinal injury."

An unrestrained driver of a car that has struck a tree at 45 mph has suffered a contusion (bruise) to his heart. The EMT would recognize that this injury occurred during which impact of the collision? Select one: a. Vehicle collision b. Physiologic collision c. Organ collision d. Body collision

The EMT understands the importance of evaluating the mechanism of injury when he states: Select one: a. "The mechanism of injury is a useful tool in determining if the patient's outcome will be good or bad." b. "Evaluating the mechanism of injury is important since it determines whether emergency transport to the hospital is needed." c. "The mechanism of injury can be used to guide your assessment and treatment of the patient." d. "The mechanism of injury is useful in determining the exact injuries the patient has sustained."

Assessment of a patient involved in a motor vehicle accident reveals him to have crepitus to the left humerus, instability to the left lateral chest wall and flank, and pain on palpation to left hip region. He also complains of pain to the right side of the neck. Based on this injury pattern, the EMT would recognize the patient was: Select one: a. an unrestrained driver involved in a head-on collision. b. the passenger in a car hit from behind. c. an unrestrained occupant in a car struck from the side. d. the driver of a car hit on the driver's side.

Which of the following is a high-velocity wounds that carries the greatest risk for death when considering the concept of cavitation? Select one: a. Stab wound to the liver b. Shotgun wound to the lung c. Gunshot wound to the stomach d. Gunshot wound to the spleen

EMT Chapter 24, 26-29, & 31 Trauma Overview, Soft Tissue Injuries, Face and Neck Injuries, Head and Spine Injuries, Chest Injuries, Orthopedic Injuries

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