EMT Chapter Tests

A clot cannot form without which of the following blood​ components? A. Platelets B. White blood cells C. Corpuscles D. Plasma

A

A family member who keeps pleading with a deceased loved one to​ "wake up" is experiencing which reaction to death and​ dying? A. Denial B. Anger C. Rejection D. Projection

A

A legal document allowing the health care provider to withhold resuscitation from a chronically or terminally ill patient is the known​ as: A. an advance directive. B. a health care proxy. C. a standard of care. D. a termination of resuscitation

A

A patient is injured but refuses to be transported by ambulance. He is competent to make​ decisions, and you have exhausted all avenues to convince him to be​ transported, so you have him sign a refusal of treatment form. This form is intended to release you​ from: A. liability for not providing care. B. the responsibility to stay on the scene. C. properly informing the patient of the consequences of refusing care. D. the need to provide any care for this patient at any time

A

According to Dr. Hans​ Selye, the third stage of the​ "Stress Triad" is known as the​ ________ stage. A. exhaustion B. alarm C. cumulative D. resistance

A

Failure of the liver would result in which of the​ following? A. Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream B. Inability to filter out old and damaged blood cells C. Inability to secrete insulin D. None of the above

A

In a​ kindergarten, the teachers can give consent for EMT care of their students. Which form of consent applies​ here? A. In loco parentis B. Expressed consent C. Parental consent D. Informed consent

A

Laws that have been developed by states to minimize the risk of individuals being held liable for providing emergency care to victims of illness or injury are​ called: A. Good Samaritan laws. B. advance directives. C. immunity proclamations. D. protocols

A

Post-traumatic stress disorder may be described as​ a(n): A. delayed stress reaction. B. severe stress reaction. C. cumulative stress reaction. D. acute stress reaction

A

The CDC recommends using an​ alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following​ situation(s)? A. The​ provider's hands come into contact with fecal matter. B. The provider is not vaccinated against hepatitis B. C. The patient has a respiratory illness. D. The patient has a bloodborne communicable disease

A

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act​ (HIPAA): A. allows you to discuss​ patient-specific information only with individuals with whom it is medically necessary to do so. B. requires you to obtain the​ patient's signature acknowledging receipt of your​ agency's privacy policy before you perform any patient interventions. C. allows you to provide specific patient information to the media without additional patient consent. D. allows you to discuss specific patient information with other personnel at the station.

A

The bone most commonly fractured with a​ "broken hip" is​ the: A. femur. B. tibia. C. ilium. D. fibula.

A

The lower jaw bone is also known as​ the: A. mandible. B. maxillae. C. orbit. D. manubrium.

A

The pulse palpated on the top of the foot is called the​ ________ pulse. A. dorsalis pedis B. phalanx proximalis C. tibialis posterior D. suprametatarsal

A

The tuberculin skin test​ (TST), formerly known as the purified protein derivative​ (PPD) test, is used​ to: A. detect a​ person's exposure to tuberculosis. B. determine if a person has infected others with TB. C. inoculate healthcare workers against TB infections. D. prevent tuberculosis from spreading following an exposure.

A

What are the two most easily injured portions of the​ spine? A. Cervical and lumbar B. Lumbar and sacral C. Cervical and thoracic D. Sacral and coccygeal

A

What is the largest bone of the lower​ leg? A. Tibia B. Patella C. Fibula D. Femur

A

What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis​ A? A. ​Fecal-oral B. Bloodborne C. Respiratory droplet D. Unprotected sex

A

What system is a group of organs and glands designed for the specific purpose of​ reproduction? A. Reproduction system B. Lymphatic system C. Renal system D. Respiratory system

A

What would be the primary reason for an EMT to change gloves between contact with different​ patients? A. To prevent spreading infection to the next patient B. To minimize the amount of time the​ EMT's hands are spent in gloves C. To ensure soiled gloves are changed as soon as possible D. To protect the EMT from becoming infected

A

Wheeling a​ non-emergency patient into the hospital emergency​ department, placing him in a​ bed, and leaving without transferring care directly to ED staff​ constitutes: A. abandonment. B. acceptable actions if you have an emergency call to respond to. C. acceptable actions if someone sees you do them. D. acceptable actions if the ED is very busy

A

Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen​? A. An organism that causes infection and disease B. A study of the origins of infection and disease C. An immunity developed after an exposure D. A medication with a harmful effect

A

Which of the following is NOT part of the lower​ extremity? A. Carpals B. Patella C. Femur D. Pelvis

A

Which of the following is true regarding proper hand​ cleaning? A. If the​ EMT's hands are visibly​ dirty, an​ alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient. B. Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT does not wear gloves. C. Following patient​ contact, the EMT should soak his hands in warm soapy water for at least 30 seconds and then shake them vigorously. D. In cases where soap and water and​ alcohol-based hand cleaners are not immediately​ available, bleach wipes should be used.

A

Which of the following makes up more than half of the volume of blood in the​ body? A. Plasma B. Platelets C. Red blood cells D. White corpuscles

A

Which of the following organs functions as a reservoir for blood that can be used in case of blood​ loss? A. Spleen B. Liver C. Heart D. Thyroid gland

A

Which of the following structures do NOT form part of the​ thorax? A. Ischium B. 8th through 19th vertebrae C. Sternum D. Ribs

A

Which of the following structures receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the vena​ cavae? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle

A

Which of the following terms refers to a positive form of stress that helps people work when under pressure and respond​ effectively? A. Eustress B. Prostress C. Unstress D. Distress

A

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime​ scene? A. Blood spatter B. Time of day C. Mouthwash D. Mail coupons

A

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime​ scene? A. The position in which the patient is found B. The​ homeowner's pet C. The refrigerator icemaker D. Clean napkins in a drawer

A

Which organ secretes insulin after a person eats a large​ meal? A. Pancreas B. Spleen C. Liver D. Gallbladder

A

You are dispatched to a female with altered mental status. Once inside the​ home, you find a female who appears to have been beaten unconscious. A​ man, who smells of​ alcohol, says that she is his wife and that he does not know what​ happened: "I just found her this​ way!" The husband is behaving​ suspiciously, appears​ paranoid, and is pacing erratically around the room. What would be the safest course of​ action? A. Leave the house and call for law enforcement. B. Continue to question the man and begin treating the patient. C. Have your partner call for help while you stay with the patient. D. Evacuate the patient and begin treatment.

A

You are dispatched to a​ "man down" with no further information. As your unit arrives​ on-scene, you see a crowd of bystanders looking at a man lying in an alleyway. The bystanders begin screaming to​ you, "Help​ him, he's been​ shot! He's bleeding real​ bad!" What would be the best course of​ action? A. Dispatch law enforcement and wait until the scene is secure. B. Move bystanders aside since the patient will die without treatment. C. Tell law enforcement investigators to meet your unit at the ER. D. Load and​ go, because​ you're already​ on-scene.

A

You are transporting a victim from a motor vehicle​ collision, and the​ patient's condition is deteriorating rapidly. From your​ experience, you do not think this patient will survive transport. You noticed on the​ patient's driver's license that the patient is an organ donor. You can help to facilitate the​ patient's wishes​ by: A. notifying medical direction of the​ patient's organ donor status. B. transporting the patient to facility other than the trauma center to which you are going. C. withholding CPR until the​ patient's donor status is confirmed. D. trying to contact a family member of the patient to discuss the​ patient's wishes so that you can alert the hospital when you arrive.

A

You have just worked a cardiac arrest call on a​ 48-year-old father of three. Despite your best​ efforts, the patient died in the emergency department. As you are getting your ambulance in​ service, the​ patient's wife rushes out of the emergency department. She finds you and begins screaming at you that her​ husband's death is your fault. She blames you for not getting on the scene fast​ enough, taking too long at the​ house, and not shocking her husband back to life like she has seen on television. What response should you have to her​ anger? A. Listen empathetically to all of her complaints and let her know she can contact you for any additional assistance. B. Correct her misconceptions and remind her that television shows are​ fiction, so she will not sue you in the future. C. Recognize that she is in the denial stage of grief and interrupt her hysterical behavior pattern by getting her attention and helping her calm down. D. Reassure her that you did everything you could and that everything will be okay.

A

You have not breached a​ patient's confidentiality​ if: A. you only share information specific to that patient when medically necessary. B. you share information specific to that patient with family and friends. C. you share a funny item from a​ patient's medical history with a colleague. D. you talk about that​ patient's medical issues when off duty only with your spouse

A

You proceed to treat a patient who has consented to​ care, but you have NOT explained the risks and benefits of what you are going to do. This is MOST likely a violation​ of: A. informed consent. B. scope of practice. C. implied consent. D. in loco parentis

A

​A(n) ________ is a situation that may lead to an acute stress reaction. A. injury of a coworker B. abuse of alcohol C. routine call D. ongoing night shift

A

You are on the scene with a patient who is complaining of chest​ pain, and you have administered medication. Your partner brings in the​ stretcher, and the patient tells you that she does not want to be transported to the ED. You​ should: A. contact medical direction for a consult. B. tell the patient that she can refuse​ transport, but because you gave her a​ medication, she has to see a doctor within 24 hours. C. explain to the patient that she cannot refuse because you have already begun treatment. D. leave after telling the patient that​ it's not appropriate to abuse the EMS system

A Medical direction needs to be in the loop on this​ refusal, as you have administered a medication. Medical direction can assist the EMS crew in convincing the patient that she needs to go to the ED for further care. If the patient still​ refuses, consulting with medical direction is another layer of protection for the EMS crew.

Good Samaritan laws were enacted​ to: A. protect individuals who try to help people in emergencies. B. keep patients from suing ambulance companies for the actions of their employees. C. protect patients from poor health care delivered by health professionals. D. protect EMS services from lawsuits

A Good Samaritan laws are intended to protect individuals who try to help people during an emergency. Every state has its own version of a Good Samaritan law.

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime​ scene? A. Footprints B. A​ child's toy C. A paper towel roll D. Movies on DVD

A The condition of the​ scene, information provided by the​ patient, fingerprints and​ footprints, and microscopic findings are all considered evidence.

Which of the following is a component of patient​ advocacy? A. Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital B. Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury C. Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities D. Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath

A. Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital

An EMT attends a demonstration of a new technique for providing rapid extrication that supplements the​ EMT's original​ training, without replacing that original training. This is an example of what kind of​ training? A. Continuing education B. EMT training program C. Recertification D. Distance education

A. Continuing education

What is the meaning of the acronym​ "CPAP"? A. Continuous positive airway pressure B. Circulatory perfusion assistance power C. Combined pulmonary action potential D. Conductive paired alveolar perfusion

A. Continuous positive airway pressure The acronym​ "CPAP" stands for​ "continuous positive airway​ pressure."

Which of the following is a personality trait required of​ EMTs? A. Control of personal habits B. Able to give and receive oral instructions C. Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds D. Awareness of problems with color vision

A. Control of personal habits

What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient​ care? A. Emergency Medical Technician B. Advanced EMT C. Paramedic D. Emergency Medical Responder

A. Emergency Medical Technician

What is the MOST important reason EMTs should have a good grasp on the proper use of medical​ terminology? A. It allows clear communication with other health care providers. B. The profession requires it. C. It is necessary to use in order to speak to physicians. D. It shows the patient that EMTs are well educated.

A. It allows clear communication with other health care providers. ​Medicine, like other specialty areas such as electronics and​ physics, has a language unique to the profession that allows for clear and concise communication between two people.

What is the advantage of using medical terminology in the prehospital​ setting? A. It allows effective communication among the team. B. It makes​ easy, understandable shortcuts for documenting a run. C. It promotes better patient care and ambulance billing. D. It allows the EMT to describe a problem to a patient clearly.

A. It allows effective communication among the team. The advantage of using medical terminology in the prehospital setting is that it facilitates effective communication among team members and other healthcare providers.

Which of these is the LEAST common setting that an EMT may work​ in? A. Nursing home B. ​Rural/wilderness settings C. Fire departments D. Ambulance services

A. Nursing home

The word part​ "brady-" is considered what part of a medical​ term? A. Prefix B. Phrase C. Suffix D. Root

A. Prefix The word part​ "brady-" is a​ prefix, in the medical term​ "bradycardia." It means slower than normal.

Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS​ system? A. Quality improvement B. System effectiveness management C. Total quality system D. Process Improvement Plan​ (PIP)

A. Quality improvement

Which of the following is a best practice for an​ EMT? A. Resist the urge to use complex medical terminology when a simple term will do. B. Always use medical terminology around patients you are treating. C. Explain medical procedures to a patient using acronyms. D. Know your anatomy and use its jargon when talking to family.

A. Resist the urge to use complex medical terminology when a simple term will do. Patients and the general public often do not understand medical​ terminology, abbreviations, or jargon.

The application of oxygen for a patient who is short of breath without having to contact the physician in the emergency department is an example of which of the​ following? A. Standing orders B. Standards of care C. ​On-line medical direction D. Breach of duty

A. Standing orders

Which of the following statements BEST uses the term​ "distal"? A. The ankle is distal to the hip. B. The elbow is distal to the wrist. C. The nose is distal to the ear. D. The shoulder is distal to the elbow.

A. The ankle is distal to the hip. ​"Distal" is the term that is used to describe something that is farther away than something else from the torso. For​ example, the wrist is distal to the elbow​ (farther away than the elbow from the​ torso).

Which of the following is a role of the EMT in the quality improvement​ process? A. Writing complete patient care reports B. Taking responsibility for the actions of​ one's partner C. Critiquing the performance of​ one's partner D. Assuring personal safety

A. Writing complete patient care reports

The imaginary horizontal and vertical lines going through the navel create​ the: A. abdominal quadrants. B. thoracic regions. C. superior segments. D. inferior segments.

A. abdominal quadrants. When the navel is divided by imaginary horizontal and vertical​ lines, this creates the four abdominal quadrants.

Farther away from the midline is known​ as: A. lateral B. distal C. medial D. proximal

A. lateral ​"Lateral" means away from the midline.​ "Medial" means toward the midline.​ "Proximal" means closer to the torso.​ "Distal" means away from the torso.

When a patient is found lying on his or her​ stomach, face​ down, this is referred to​ as: A. prone. B. lateral. C. supine. D. recovery.

A. prone. Lying face down on the stomach is the prone position.

An emergency medical​ responder: A. provides immediate care. B. transfers patients to the care of hospital staff. C. receives transported patients at the emergency department. D. transports patients to hospitals.

A. provides immediate care.

A written authorization for an EMS provider to perform a particular skill in a specific situation is​ a(n): A. standing order. B. direct medical order. C. standard of care. D. ​on-line protocol.

A. standing order

​ "Cardio" refers​ to: A. the heart. B. the blood vessels. C. the muscular system. D. the nervous system.

A. the heart. The word part​ "cardio" refers to the heart.

The part of a medical term that means​ "one who specializes​ in" is: A. ​"-ist." B. ​"-ology." C. ​"-neur." D. ​"-all."

A. ​"-ist." The word part​ "-ist," as in​ "cardiologist," is used to mean one who specializes in the heart. A cardiologist specializes in conditions related to the heart.

During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body substance​ exposure? A. Childbirth B. Splinting a sprained ankle C. Bandaging a laceration D. Glucometry

B

For the last few​ days, your regular EMT partner has been having trouble​ sleeping, has been on​ edge, and has trouble concentrating on his job during EMS calls.​ Luckily, your call volume has been low with no serious calls since the infant cardiac arrest you both worked last month. You ask him if anything is bothering him and he states he is fine in every way. He states that he has been going to the bars lately to relax and invites you to come along for some drinks after work. Choose the best answer for this situation. A. Your partner is suffering from acute stress reaction and you should recommend to him that he seek professional counseling. B. Your partner is suffering from a delayed stress reaction and you should recommend that he seek professional counseling. C. Your partner is suffering from a cumulative stress reaction. This is a natural response and he should be fine in a few days. D. Your partner is suffering from​ post-traumatic stress disorder and you should go to the bar with him to provide moral support and talk with him.

B

Since EMS personnel are often exposed to both acute and chronic​ stressors, ________ management may be helpful to cope with​ on-the-job experiences. A. stress prevention B. critical incident stress C. crisis intervention D. chronic stress

B

The concept of res ipsa loquitur would be MOST relevant to a situation​ involving: A. EMTs providing care to an unconscious patient. B. harm to a patient in the care of EMTs. C. EMTs explaining the consequences of refusing care to a patient. D. EMTs remaining with a patient who had refused care.

B

The term burnout is also known as​ a(n) ________ stress reaction. A. delayed B. cumulative C. acute D. ​post-traumatic

B

The​ "fight-or-flight" response is activated by​ the: A. endocrine system. B. sympathetic nervous system. C. renal system. D. parasympathetic nervous system.

B

What are some signs and symptoms that a coworker may be experiencing delayed stress reaction​ (PTSD)? A. ​Headaches, stomach​ ailments, and a chronic cough B. ​Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment C. Excessive​ sleeping, loss of​ appetite, and distractibility D. Suspicion of​ friends, family,​ coworkers, or patients

B

What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome​ (MERS)? A. Gloves and​ N-95 mask B. ​Gloves, N-95​ mask, goggles, and gown C. ​Gloves, N-95​ mask, and goggles D. Gloves

B

What are the small bones that make up the wrist​ called? A. Tarsals B. Carpals C. Metatarsals D. Metacarpals

B

What causes the​ "seesaw" breathing pattern of young​ children? A. The cricoid cartilage and trachea are both more flexible than in​ adults, making breathing more difficult. B. They rely more on the diaphragm during breathing difficulty. C. The size of their tongues in proportion to their mouths. D. The pronounced inward curvature at the bottom of the ribcage.

B

What is NOT one of the primary organs for the female reproductive​ system? A. Uterus B. Urethra C. Vagina D. Ovaries

B

What is a set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the extent and limits of the​ EMT's job? A. Standard of care B. Scope of practice C. Res ipsa loquitur D. Tort

B

What is another name for the eye​ socket? A. Odontoid process B. Orbit C. Zygomatic arch D. Parietal bone

B

What is another name for the shoulder​ blade? A. Patella B. Scapula C. Clavicle D. Pharynx

B

What is the long bone of the upper portion of the​ arm? A. Scapula B. Humerus C. Ulna D. Radius

B

What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially​ life-threatening diseases while on the​ job? A. Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act B. Ryan White CARE Act C. EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991 D. Communicable Disease Notification Act

B

What type of blood vessels surround the​ alveoli? A. Veins B. Capillaries C. Arterioles D. Arteries

B

Which of the following are the components of the nervous​ system? A. Spinal cord and motor nerves B. ​Brain, spinal​ cord, and nerves C. Brain and autonomic nerves D. Spinal cord and sensory nerves

B

Which of the following behaviors would be considered a common sign of stress rather than an acute psychological​ problem? A. Increased speeding and reckless driving B. Irritability with​ friends, family,​ coworkers, or patients C. Failure to use PPE appropriately on a regular basis D. ​Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment

B

Which of the following is a physiologic effect of the​ "Stress Triad" as described by the physician Hans​ Selye? A. Hypertrophy of the lymph nodes B. Bleeding gastric ulcers C. Atrophy of the adrenal glands D. Amnesia for stressful events

B

Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis​ (TB)? A. TB is not spread through surface contamination. B. A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure. C. The TB pathogen only affects lung tissue. D. The incubation period of TB is from 1 to 7 days.

B

Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated​ equipment? A. AIDS B. Hepatitis B C. Tuberculosis D. Hepatitis A

B

Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of​ muscles? A. Exhalation B. Inhalation C. Gas exchange D. Bifurcation

B

Which of the following types of blood vessels allow the exchange of substances directly between the blood and the cells of the​ body? A. Alveoli B. Capillaries C. Veins D. Arterioles

B

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime​ scene? A. Medical care by an EMT B. Fingerprints C. Patient advocacy D. Family pictures

B

Which organ is the principal organ of the renal​ system? A. Bladder B. Kidney C. Ureter D. Urethra

B

Which three​ "Rs" are essential for the EMT to practice when reacting to​ danger? A. ​Ricochet, recover,​ re-entry B. ​Retreat, radio, reevaluate C. ​Realize, react, reassess D. ​Remember, respect, respond

B

You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around the​ patient's mouth and nose. During​ assessment, you note the patient has a productive cough. The patient​ says, "Don't​ worry, I'm not contagious.​ I've had this cough for a​ year." Describe the best approach regarding respiratory isolation. A. Use gloves for​ PPE, as​ that's all​ that's needed. B. Mask yourself and the patient. C. Isolate the patient with a nonrebreather mask. D. Mask yourself only.

B

You are caring for a​ 47-year-old male patient with classical chest pain suggestive of a myocardial infarction. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular​ system, you know he could be suffering from​ damage, narrowing, or blockage of what​ arteries? A. Femoral arteries B. Coronary arteries C. Brachial arteries D. Pulmonary arteries

B

You are dispatched to the staging area of a​ terrorist-related chemical exposure. The incident commander asks you to stand by while hazmat personnel bring patients to the cold zone. As an EMT​ on-board an​ ambulance, what statement BEST describes your​ role? A. Triage patients to be decontaminated. B. Transport decontaminated patients. C. Coordinate hazmat response. D. Transport patients to be decontaminated.

B

You are first on the scene of a vehicle collision where a vehicle has gone off a bridge and is partially submerged. You are told that a person is still trapped in the vehicle. Your partner starts to take off his shoes and prepares to go in to save the victim. You stop your partner and tell him it is too dangerous. He tells you he is prepared to die to save a life. What is the best response to​ him? A. His family will not receive any benefits if he is not trained in rescue and dies while attempting a rescue. B. He is not only putting his life at​ risk, but also placing the lives of the professional rescuers unnecessarily at risk. C. He will force additional fire units to come to his aid unnecessarily and waste taxpayer money. D. The​ patient's family may sue him if he is not successful in rescuing him.

B

You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision where a​ patient's car struck a utility pole. Witnesses reported to you that the patient was unconscious after the impact.​ However, the patient is now​ conscious, alert and​ oriented, and refusing care and transport. You​ should: A. leave after having the patient sign the refusal form. B. inform the patient of your concern and try to persuade her to go to the ED and receive treatment. C. have the law enforcement officer place the patient under​ arrest, as she is obviously in danger. D. use informed consent and tell the patient that since she was​ unconscious, she is not allowed to refuse.

B

Ethical​ considerations: A. are less important than following regulations. B. relate primarily to making patient care and​ well-being a priority. C. fall outside scope of practice. D. are the sole consideration of scope of practice.

B Falling within your scope of practice are certain ethical responsibilities. The primary ethical consideration is to make patient care and​ well-being a​ priority, even if this requires some personal sacrifice.

You are on the scene of a cardiac arrest. You have begun resuscitation as family members arrive and present you with a valid DNR order. You​ should: A. notify the family that once CPR has been​ initiated, you are required to transport the patient. B. follow your local protocols and contact medical direction if unsure how to proceed. C. have your partner contact the communications center to send law enforcement to the​ scene, as this is now a legal issue and the officer will make the decision. D. complete two more rounds of CPR and then check for a pulse. If there is no​ pulse, you should stop resuscitation.

B DNR protocols vary by state. It is essential you know and follow your local protocols. Contact medical direction if you are unsure how to proceed

You explain a risky procedure to a patient. He​ says, "As long as​ it's guaranteed to​ work, you can do​ it." You​ should: A. consult medical direction. B. explain that a risky procedure is not guaranteed. C. begin the procedure. D. decide not to use the procedure

B Expressed consent must be informed consent. That​ is, patients must understand the risks associated with the care they will receive. It is not only a legal requirement but also sound emotional care to explain all procedures to the patient. In this​ case, the​ patient's response shows a lack of understanding that there is no guarantee with a risky procedure.

You are at the dinner table with your crew and mention to everyone that a coworker on the opposite shift is moving up the administration chain​ quickly, probably because​ she's sleeping with the company CEO. This comment could be​ considered: A. a HIPAA violation. B. slander. C. res ipsa loquitur. D. libel.

B In the spoken​ context, this comment can be described as slander

The person who is legally designated to make health care decisions for the patient if the patient is unable to do so is​ called: A. a patient advocate. B. a health care proxy. C. the attorney of record. D. the executor of the estate.

B Patients may wish to designate a health care proxy who can legally make decisions for them in the event that they are unable to do so themselves

You have just returned to the station after completing a call in which you transported an elderly female patient to the hospital for nausea and vomiting. Upon exiting the​ ambulance, you are approached by an adult male who indicates that the patient you just transported was his mother and he wants to know the details of the run. You​ should: A. tell him that you can pass his contact information along to the privacy officer at your department. B. ask to see his​ driver's license to verify last names​ and, if they​ match, give him the information. C. allow him to read the patient care​ report, as that is public information. D. give the patient the information he is​ requesting, as he is the​ patient's son

B The EMT has the duty to protect the rights of the patients they​ transport, which includes protecting their health information. Your​ agency's privacy officer should be the primary contact here.

Quality improvement relates primarily​ to: A. ​state-by-state regulations. B. standard of care. C. scope of practice. D. the limits of the EMT job

B The process of quality improvement relates to maintaining standards of care.

Why does the​ EMT's scope of practice vary from state to​ state? A. Company insurance B. Local legislation C. EMT preference D. National standards

B The skills and medical interventions that the EMT may perform are defined by legislation that varies from state to state. Sometimes different regions within the same state may have different rules and guidelines for their EMTs.

A photo of a pair of EMTs on a call shows them laughing and looking casual and relaxed a few feet away from a patient in apparent distress. This would most likely be used to​ demonstrate: A. res ipsa loquitur. B. abandonment. C. proximate causation. D. a patient refusal situation

B The term res ipsa loquitur means​ "the thing speaks for​ itself," and in this​ case, knowing nothing but what is shown in the​ photo, it would appear that the EMTs were neglecting the patient in distress. It​ isn't clearly a patient refusal situation because there is nothing to indicate that the patient has refused treatment or transport.​ It's not abandonment because the EMTs have not actually left the patient. It​ isn't necessarily proximate causation because the​ patient's distress​ isn't clearly the result of the​ EMTs' actions or inaction.

To be compassionate and​ empathetic, to be accurate with​ interviews, and to inspire confidence are all examples of which of the personal traits of a quality​ EMT? A. Emotionally stable B. Able to listen to others C. Pleasant D. Nonjudgmental and fair

B. Able to listen to others

What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication​ administration? A. Paramedic B. Advanced EMT C. EMT D. Emergency Medical Responder

B. Advanced EMT

Who is responsible for​ on-scene safety of EMS​ providers? A. The triage officer B. All crew members C. Law enforcement D. The traffic director

B. All crew members

During the new employee​ orientation, the training officer meets with the new EMTs and explains to them the monthly training schedule and the classes they must attend for EMT recertification. One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination. What is the BEST​ answer? A. The state requires the training. B. EMS is constantly evolving in response to​ evidence-based research. C. EMTs often forget their training once they pass the EMT exam. D. It contributes to the appearance of professionalism.

B. EMS is constantly evolving in response to​ evidence-based research.

Which of the following is TRUE about medical​ terminology? A. EMTs are not allowed to use or document medical terms. B. EMTs are expected to know basic medical terminology. C. EMTs should use complex medical terms whenever possible. D. EMTs are encouraged to know basic medical​ terminology, but it is not essential.

B. EMTs are expected to know basic medical terminology. EMTs are expected to understand basic medical terminology.

Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need emergency medical​ assistance? A. Surgical services department B. Emergency department C. Emergency medical services system D. Emergency medical dispatch center

B. Emergency department

Which of the following BEST describes a communication system capable of identifying the number and location of the phone from which a caller is​ calling? A. Advanced 911 B. Enhanced 911 C. Data display 911 D. Priority dispatch 911

B. Enhanced 911

What is an​ MI? A. Muscle index B. Myocardial infarction C. Massive implantation D. Myocyte induction

B. Myocardial infarction

A fellow EMT is talking with the Medical Director at a staff meeting. The EMT states that the neighboring ambulance service is carrying special clotting bandages for serious bleeding wounds. The special bandages cost five times as much as the regular​ bandages, but the EMT claims they work ten times better. The EMT wants the Medical Director to approve the bandages for use in their ambulances. The Medical Director responds to the EMT by saying he will not approve the bandages until he can prove they are worth the additional cost. How can the EMT best prove the worth of the special​ bandages? A. Have a member of the other ambulance service call the Medical Director to provide firsthand information on how the special bandages are much better. B. Perform a literature search to see what studies have been done on the special bandages and report the findings to the Medical Director. C. Call the manufacturer of the special bandage and request literature to give to the Medical Director. D. Order a small number of the special bandages and compare them​ side-by-side to the regular bandages.

B. Perform a literature search to see what studies have been done on the special bandages and report the findings to the Medical Director.

If your patient is lying face up on his or her​ back, the patient is said to be in what​ position? A. Prone B. Supine C. Anatomical D. Lateral

B. Supine A patient is in the supine position when the patient is lying flat on his or her back.

Which of the following groups is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency medical​ service? A. The Egyptians B. The French C. The Spanish D. The Mayans

B. The French

Upon arrival at the​ hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the​ patient's condition, observations from the​ scene, treatment​ rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the​ following? A. Patient assessment B. Transfer of care C. Patient advocacy D. Patient care

B. Transfer of care

A patient would see a cardiologist for a problem with​ the: A. bones. B. heart. C. stomach. D. brain.

B. heart. From the combining form​ "cardi-," which means​ "heart," and the suffix​ "-ology," meaning​ "the study​ of," a cardiologist is a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the heart.

An imaginary line drawn down the center of the​ body, dividing it into right and left​ halves, is called​ the: A. midaxillary line. B. midline. C. ventral line. D. bilateral.

B. midline. An imaginary line drawn down the center of the​ body, dividing it into right and left​ halves, is called the midline.

During your EMT​ class, you will be studying the effects of how the brain​ (a neurological​ structure) contributes to normal lung inflation​ (a pulmonary​ structure). The study of how these body structures and systems relate together is known​ as: A. anatomical regions. B. physiology. C. pathophysiology. D. anatomy.

B. physiology. Physiology is the study of the function and interrelated nature of the body. Anatomy is the study of the​ body's structure. Pathophysiology is the study of the​ body's abnormal function due to disease.

The​ "normal anatomical​ position" means that the patient​ is: A. lying on the​ back, arms down at the​ sides, palms forward. B. standing​ erect, facing​ forward, arms down at the​ sides, palms forward. C. lying on the​ back, arms​ outstretched, palms facing forward. D. standing​ erect, facing​ forward, arms​ outstretched, palms backward.

B. standing​ erect, facing​ forward, arms down at the​ sides, palms forward. It is essential to understand​ "normal anatomical​ position." Unless otherwise​ indicated, all references to the human body assume the anatomical​ position: The patient is standing​ erect, facing​ forward, with arms down at the sides and palms forward. This basic position is used as the point of reference whenever terms of direction and location are used.

The word part​ "-ology" is referred to as​ the: A. root. B. suffix. C. phrase. D. prefix.

B. suffix. The word part​ "-ology" is referred to as the suffix of the medical term.

The term​ "anterior" refers​ to: A. the side. B. the front. C. the middle. D. the back.

B. the front ​"Anterior" refers to the front. Side is​ "lateral." Back is​ "posterior." Middle is​ "medial."

When a​ patient, who has been having an asthma attack is placed in a sitting position on a​ stretcher, this position is​ called: A. Trendelenburg. B. ​Fowler's. C. prone. D. supine.

B. ​Fowler's. The seated position is referred to as​ Fowler's position.

An EMT involved in an especially difficult​ call, such as one in which a coworker was​ killed, should be urged​ to: A. begin a course of psychiatric medications. B. conceal the problem because care may not be covered financially. C. seek help from a trained mental health professional. D. discuss the experience freely with coworkers.

C

An artery is a blood vessel that​ only: A. carries deoxygenated blood. B. returns blood to the heart. C. carries blood away from the heart. D. carries oxygenated blood.

C

A​ 42-year-old patient who is mentally competent has refused care but appears to be experiencing respiratory difficulty. He demands you get into your ambulance and go. You​ should: A. plead with the patient to sign a release form. B. restrain the patient to provide emergency care. C. remain on the scene and try to persuade the patient to consent to care. D. immediately leave the scene.

C

A​ child's ________ takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx than does an​ adult's. A. epiglottis B. cricoid cartilage C. tongue D. trachea

C

Documents signed by a patient that communicate his or her wishes regarding medical care are​ called: A. automated care orders. B. extended patient directives. C. advance directives. D. physician orders

C

Even if the Good Samaritan laws in a particular state cover the actions of EMTs as​ rescuers, they can still be held liable and are NOT protected by these laws​ if: A. their actions cause embarrassment for the patient. B. the patient dies from the injuries. C. their actions demonstrate gross negligence. D. their actions demonstrate poor clinical reasoning.

C

Healthcare employers are required by law to provide a hepatitis B​ ________ available to employees free of charge. A. cure B. immunity C. vaccine D. prophylaxis

C

If an EMT were to release information about how intoxicated a patient was onto a social networking​ site, this could be​ considered: A. breach of faith. B. slander. C. libel. D. battery

C

If emergency care providers discover that a seriously injured patient is an organ​ donor, they​ should: A. ignore a DNR order and perform CPR. B. confirm with the family that this was the​ patient's decision. C. treat the patient the same as a nondonor. D. treat the patient as having given prior expressed consent for all emergency care

C

In relation to​ anatomy, the term topography​ means: A. blood pressure fluctuations. B. the study of the skin. C. external landmarks of body structures. D. key elements of the central nervous system.

C

In which of the following locations is the femoral pulse​ palpated? A. Behind the knee B. On the medial side of the upper arm C. At the groin D. On the medial side of the​ ankle, posterior to the tibia

C

One's "cognitive​ ability" refers to his or her ability to do which of the​ following? A. Use fine motor skills B. Adapt to stress C. Think and solve problems D. Control his or her emotions

C

The actions and care that are legally allowed for the EMT are called​ the: A. standing orders. B. Good Samaritan law. C. scope of practice. D. standard of care

C

The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the following​ mechanisms? A. Absorption of oxygen from the blood returning from the lungs B. Coronary veins that branch off the pulmonary vein as it returns oxygenated blood to the heart C. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta D. None of the above

C

The care that would be expected to be provided to the same patient under the same circumstances by another EMT who had received the same training is called​ the: A. scope of practice. B. duty to act. C. standard of care. D. protocol.

C

The​ "Stress Triad," or the​ body's response to a stressful​ stimulation, is known as general​ ________ syndrome. A. incident B. reaction C. adaptation D. resistance

C

What is the bone on the thumb side of the​ forearm? A. Ulna B. Fibula C. Radius D. Acromion

C

What is the​ EMT's highest priority at the scene of a hazardous materials​ incident? A. Identification of hazardous materials B. Patient care C. Personal safety D. Safety of bystanders

C

What is the​ inferior-most portion of the​ sternum? A. Manubrium B. Sternal notch C. Xiphoid process D. Body

C

What is the​ large, wing-shaped bone on either side of the​ pelvis? A. Ischium B. Acetabulum C. Ilium D. Pubis

C

What may interfere with an​ EMT's ability to care for a patient at a crime​ scene? A. The patient has multiple injuries. B. The patient is bleeding from a wrist laceration. C. The police want to interview the patient. D. The police have secured the scene

C

What reference provides important information regarding hazardous​ materials, emergency​ care, and procedures in case of accidental fire or​ release; supplies definitions of placard colors and identification​ numbers; and should be standard issue​ on-board all ambulances and rescue​ units? A. Accidental Exposure and Contamination Guide B. Emergency Preparedness and Response Plan C. Emergency Response Guidebook D. Safety Data Sheets

C

What two components are directly related to aerobic metabolism​? A. Electrolytes and carbohydrates B. Exercise and water C. Oxygen and glucose D. Carbolic acid and air

C

What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the​ lungs? A. Skeletal B. Striated C. Smooth D. Voluntary

C

When responding to the scene of a patient who was discovered to be​ unresponsive, not​ breathing, and without a​ pulse, family members state that the patient has been suffering from cancer for several years. One of his sons is cursing at you and your​ partner, saying that you are not moving fast enough. Which stage of grief is the​ patient's son experiencing in response to his​ father's death? A. Denial B. Depression C. Anger D. Acceptance

C

When the potential exists for exposure to exhaled air of a person with suspected or confirmed​ TB, a(n)​ ________ mask should be worn by the EMT. A. ​B-50 B. surgical C. ​N-95 D. nonrebreather

C

Which chamber of the heart is the​ strongest, most muscular part of the heart and is primarily responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the​ body? A. Right ventricle B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Left atrium

C

Which component of blood is responsible for forming clotting factors to stop​ bleeding? A. White blood cells B. Red blood cells C. Platelets D. Plasma

C

Which hormone helps the body control​ stress, regulate​ metabolism, and influence an immune​ response? A. Immunoglobulin B. Epinephrine C. Cortisol D. Serotonin

C

Which of the following BEST describes the medical condition of​ shock? A. An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event B. Delayed capillary refill C. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion D. Hypotension

C

Which of the following is the primary function of the​ stomach? A. Absorption of water from food products B. Production of bile C. Chemical breakdown of food by acidic secretions D. Absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream

C

Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting​ tuberculosis? A. Uranium mine workers B. Current and former smokers C. Healthcare practitioners D. Immunosuppressed patients

C

You and your partner have arrived on the scene of a person injured as a result of a gunshot wound during a burglary. When police later arrive and secure the​ scene, one of the police tells you to file a complete report describing what you saw when you arrived on​ scene, as required by law in your area. You​ should: A. file a report that leaves out any detail you consider confidential for that patient. B. refuse to file any​ report, citing patient confidentiality. C. file the report and leave out no details. D. file a report in which you explain in detail why you believe a crime was committed

C

You are on the scene of an​ "unknown medical" call. The patient is a​ 26-year-old, 250-pound male patient who suddenly becomes violently angry. Everything you say to the patient only makes him angrier. Offended by your​ questions, he screams that he is going to​ "cut your tongue​ out" and hurries into the kitchen. What should you​ do? A. Radio for police and relay to dispatch important scene information until they arrive. B. Tackle the patient before he can get a kitchen knife to stab you. C. Leave immediately to a safe area and then call for police assistance. D. Radio for police and then calmly walk out of the​ house, being sure to take all of your medical equipment.

C

You are transporting a patient from a​ doctor's office and see that the patient has not been well cared for. On your​ documentation, you write that the doctor seemed to be​ "a quack." This comment could be viewed​ as: A. res ipsa loquitur. B. proximate causation. C. libelous. D. slanderous

C

You have been under a lot of family stress​ lately, and you have not been sleeping well. When you got to work this​ morning, you realized that you had forgotten to place your badge on your uniform shirt. You tell your partner that you cannot seem to think clearly. Your partner tells you that he is concerned about your​ well-being. After hearing​ this, you know that your duty as an EMT is​ to: A. inform your partner that your​ well-being is not his concern. B. tell your partner that you feel better after talking to him and go about your work. C. take off work until you can straighten out your family problem and make sure that you are mentally prepared to work. D. recognize that talking about your problems at work is unprofessional and distracts your fellow EMTs.

C

You have just arrived at the station to start your​ shift, and you notice that your partner is asleep in a chair. You proceed to check out your ambulance. Your partner comes in drinking a cup of​ coffee, and you notice that she has a strong alcohol smell on her breath. Your duty as an EMT is​ to: A. tell dispatch that you will be out of service for maintenance. B. tell your partner to go get some rest before you get a call. C. notify dispatch that you are out of service and have your supervisor come to meet you. D. see whether someone from the night shift can hold over until your partner can sober up

C

You observe a coworker telling a terminal cancer patient and her​ family, "Everything will be​ okay." Making false reassurances is​ considered: A. caring and supportive. B. ambiguous and uncertain. C. naive and uncompassionate. D. professional and discreet.

C

You observe what appears to be elder abuse in a call to a nursing home. You have a​ clear: A. legal obligation to report the abuse. B. implied consent to provide care to any patients at the home. C. moral obligation to report the abuse. D. release from liability for negligence in your care

C

Your unit has arrived on the scene of a multiple vehicle collision where several vehicles have​ rear-ended each other. You are directed by the incident commander to care for a​ 23-year-old female in the first vehicle. The firefighter​ on-scene holding manual spinal immobilization indicates that her primary complaint is back pain from her head whipping back and forth from the impact. Your understanding of the anatomy of the spinal column and vertebrae suggests that this type of mechanism of injury results in frequent injuries to which part of the spinal​ column? A. Lumbar spine B. Thoracic spine C. Cervical spine D. Sacral spine

C

Which of the following is MOST clearly a HIPAA​ violation? A. Your agency receives a subpoena authorizing the release of a copy of a patient care report to a​ plaintiff's attorney. B. You provide certain health information on the billing copy of the patient care report. C. You provide a personal injury attorney with a copy of a patient care report. D. You provide a copy of the patient care report to a paramedic who is assuming care of your patient at the scene.

C HIPAA specifies circumstances in which protected health information can be released. This is generally on a​ "need to​ know" basis, when the patient consents in​ writing, or when the provider or organization is compelled by a court to do so. Providing a patient care report to a personal injury attorney is a breach of confidentiality under HIPAA.

At a crime​ scene, which of the following is the first priority of the​ EMT? A. Evidence preservation B. Working with police C. Patient care and transport D. Critiquing the scene

C After the police have ensured scene​ safety, your first priority is patient care.

You are caring for a patient who was stabbed. During your​ assessment, you find a small knife impaled in one of the stab wounds. You determine that removing the weapon now would be dangerous for the patient. You​ should: A. remove the knife and place it in an evidence bag. B. ask the police officer whether it is acceptable for you to leave the knife in place for transport. C. treat the wound as​ usual, but notify police that you must transport the weapon with the patient. D. have a police officer remove the knife before you transport

C Disturb as little as possible at crime​ scenes, and do not take items or leave behind items that you brought.​ However, if you must transport a potential piece of​ evidence, such as clothing on the patient or an impaled​ object, notify police.​ You, not law​ enforcement, are the medical authority on scene. Patient care decisions are your responsibility.

You suspect that a pediatric patient is being abused. You decide not to report this to the appropriate authorities because the parent is very upset and remorseful. This​ is: A. an ethical violation but definitely not a crime. B. a violation of professional ethics and possibly a crime. C. a reasonable judgment call. D. a violation of policy but not an ethical violation.

C Failure to report suspected abuse is a violation of the EMT code of ethics. In​ addition, most states have laws mandating that EMS providers report suspected abuse. Failure to do so could be considered a crime.

Good Samaritan laws are based​ on: A. having no formal training. B. the patient having no serious injuries. C. providing care in good faith. D. being a volunteer EMT.

C Good Samaritan laws provide limited legal protection for individuals who provide care in good faith and to the level of their training.

As you enter a hectic possible crime​ scene, you find that a coffee table is blocking your access to the patient. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage this​ situation? A. Move the table and get on with your work of caring for the patient. B. Use the table as a place to set your equipment as you are working on the patient. C. Move the table as little as​ possible, wearing​ gloves; notify police on the​ scene; and document your actions precisely in your patient care report. D. Wait until one of the police officers can move the table for you.

C If you must disturb any items at a crime scene to access a​ patient, move them as little as​ possible, wear gloves to avoid leaving additional​ fingerprints, make a note of the original location of the​ item, and state exactly how you moved the item

Which is concerned generally with what you can​ do, as opposed to what you should do and how you should do​ it? A. Standard of care B. Scope of practice and standard of care C. D. Quality improvement

C In​ general, scope of practice refers to what you should be able to​ do, while standard of care refers to what you should do in a particular situation and how you should do it. Quality improvement is involved with maintaining standards of care

Leaving a patient after initiating care and before the patient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training is known​ as: A. in loco parentis. B. res ipsa loquitur. C. abandonment. D. negligence.

C Leaving a patient after care has been initiated and before the patient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training is abandonment.

A patient who called 911 is now refusing transport. You​ should: A. make sure there is a law enforcement officer to act as a witness on the scene of every patient refusal. B. make sure that there is an immediate family member on scene who can sign as a witness to the refusal. C. assess the​ patient, advise the patient of the risks of​ refusal, and clearly document everything in the patient care report. D. direct the patient to contact his or her primary care physician for instructions on whether or not to go to the hospital.

C There is a potential for a lot of liability on the​ EMT's part when a patient refuses transport. EMTs must make sure to fully explain to the patient the risks of refusal and to clearly document their actions to protect themselves and the rest of the crew.

patient on the basis​ of: A. expressed consent. B. involuntary transportation. C. implied consent. D. informed consent.

C When the patient is not able to make decisions for himself or​ herself, the EMT can use implied​ consent, meaning that the EMT operates under the assumption is that if the patient were of sound​ mind, the patient would request help for the issue.

EMS is on the scene of the cardiac arrest of a terminally ill cancer patient. The family states that the patient has a valid DNR but they are unable to locate it. The family is upset and adamant that the patient does not want resuscitation. The EMS crew​ should: A. verify that the family on scene is related to the patient by asking for identification. If a family member is immediate​ family, that person can make health care decisions for the patient. B. begin resuscitation and consider establishing​ on-line medical direction. C. provide the family with a blank DNR and have them fill it out. D. withhold resuscitation. It is clear the patient is terminally​ ill, and the family is on scene instructing the crew to withhold care.

C Without a valid​ document, EMS has the moral and legal obligation to begin full resuscitative efforts and follow all protocols for such events

Which of the following is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an​ EMT? A. Ability to remain calm in stressful situations B. Nonjudgmental and fair C. Ability to speak clearly D. Ability to lift and carry 200 pounds

C. Ability to speak clearly

Which of the following is considered a​ high-risk situation in which the EMT should be cautious about the use of abbreviations and​ acronyms? A. While preparing for a recertification exam B. During conversations with fellow EMTs C. During a patient​ hand-off report D. When making study flashcards

C. During a patient​ hand-off report Abbreviations and acronyms can contribute to medical errors. Use caution in using abbreviations and acronyms during the patient​ hand-off report and in documentation.

Quality improvement programs are a part of which NHTSA Technical Assistance Program​ standard? A. Public information and education B. Regulation and policy C. Evaluation D. Human resources and training

C. Evaluation

Which of the following is the first responsibility of the​ EMT? A. Communicate with other responders on the scene. B. Protect and stabilize the patient. C. Maintain personal health and safety. D. Provide emergency care.

C. Maintain personal health and safety.

Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by the​ EMT? A. EMT B. EMS supervisor C. Medical Director D. Director of quality assurance

C. Medical Director

The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians​ (NREMT) was founded to establish which of the​ following? A. Quality improvement and quality assurance programs for emergency medical services B. An education curriculum for EMT courses C. National standards for emergency medical services personnel D. Quality oversight of emergency medical services practices

C. National standards for emergency medical services personnel

Which of the following is added to the beginning of words to modify their​ meaning? A. Root word B. Acronym C. Prefix D. Suffix

C. Prefix A prefix is placed at the beginning of a word to modify its meaning.

After delivering a patient to the emergency​ department, you discuss with hospital staff the details of your care and ask for suggestions to improve your care. This is an example of your role in which of the​ following? A. Patient advocacy B. Transfer of care C. Quality improvement D. Continuing education

C. Quality improvement

Centralized coordination of emergency medical​ access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the​ following? A. Emergency preparedness plan B. Central deployment C. Resource management D. Trauma systems

C. Resource management

When talking to a patient or family​ members, what does the EMT need to remember to​ do? A. Try to convince the family that there is no reason to go to the ED. B. Explain everything once so that transport is not delayed. C. Speak in lay terms about the​ patient's condition. D. Use abbreviations whenever appropriate.

C. Speak in lay terms about the​ patient's condition. Always remember to speak in lay terms about a​ patient's condition to enable better understanding by the patient and family members.

You and another new EMT are studying your local protocols. The other EMT notices that you may give oral glucose without utilizing​ on-line medical​ control, but you must get an​ on-line order from a physician before assisting a patient in taking his nitroglycerin for chest pain. The EMT asks you why some drugs require​ on-line medical control while others do not. What is the best answer to give​ him? A. Glucose is only sugar so it cannot hurt the patient. B. Some drugs are rarely used and so require special permission. C. The physician wants to be sure it is appropriate for the patient. D. The​ patient's nitroglycerin might be expired.

C. The physician wants to be sure it is appropriate for the patient.

You have just come on duty. The EMT on the previous shift complains to you that the QI manager was giving him grief because he did not document three sets of vital signs on the patient record. The EMT is angry and does not understand why documenting three sets of vital signs is so important. What is the best answer you could give​ him? A. Vital signs are something you have to fill out because the state requires it. B. The report looks better when all the boxes are filled out. C. The recording of three sets of vital signs demonstrates that you were trending the​ patient's condition. D. It is important you show the QI manager that you are a team player.

C. The recording of three sets of vital signs demonstrates that you were trending the​ patient's condition

Which of the following BEST describes the overall purpose of the modern emergency medical services​ (EMS) system? A. To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care B. To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and​ "do no​ harm," while providing prompt transport to the hospital C. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the​ scene, during​ transport, and at the hospital D. To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene

C. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the​ scene, during​ transport, and at the hospital

Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement​ programs? A. To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan B. To ensure adequate personnel are available for emergencies C. To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence D. To ensure that individuals making false calls for EMS are prosecuted

C. To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence

Which is the BEST reason for an EMT to be​ pleasant? A. To befriend patients and their families B. To improve camaraderie with other EMTs C. To inspire confidence and help calm the sick or injured D. To be likeable to people in general

C. To inspire confidence and help calm the sick or injured

Your patient has bilateral femur fractures. This means​ that: A. one femur is fractured. B. one femur is fractured in multiple places. C. both femurs are fractured. D. the femur is fractured lengthwise.

C. both femurs are fractured. The term​ "bilateral" refers to both sides.

You respond to a​ 35-year-old male patient who fell 50 feet from a bluff. Your authority to provide emergency care is an extension of the Medical​ Director's license to practice medicine. You are acting as​ a(n) ________ of the Medical Director. A. subordinate B. substitute C. designated agent D. employee

C. designated agent

The medical term that means toward the side and away from the midline​ is: A. posterior. B. ventral. C. lateral. D. medial.

C. lateral. The medical term that means away from the midline is​ "lateral."

An imaginary line drawn vertically from the middle of the armpit to the ankle is called​ the: A. dorsal line. B. medial line. C. midaxillary line. D. posterior line.

C. midaxillary line. An imaginary line drawn from the middle of the armpit to the ankle is called the midaxillary line.

In the lateral recumbent​ position, the patient is​ lying: A. face down on the stomach. B. on the back with the lower body elevated. C. on the right or left side with knees flexed. D. on the back with the upper body elevated.

C. on the right or left side with knees flexed. The patient is in the recovery position when the patient is lying on his or her side with the knees flexed. This position is often used for the patient who has an altered mental status and may vomit.

The study of the manner in which the parts of the human body work is​ called: A. anatomy. B. pharmacology. C. physiology. D. pathophysiology.

C. physiology. Physiology is the study of the way things work in the body. Anatomy is the study of the structure and location of the body components. Pathophysiology is the study of the​ body's abnormal function due to injury or disease.

Understanding how the function of one body system affects another body system describes the study​ of: A. chemistry. B. anatomy. C. physiology. D. physics.

C. physiology. Understanding physiology is the understanding of how the body systems work individually yet are interdependent. This understanding is important to EMTs if they want to fully understand the signs and symptoms they find in the patients they treat.

The midline divides the body into​ the: A. distal plane and the proximal plane. B. superior plane and the inferior plane. C. right plane and the left plane. D. posterior plane and the inferior plane.

C. right plane and the left plane. The midline divides the body into a left and right side​ (or plane). This reference can be used when describing where an injury or abnormal finding is located.

When a patient is found sitting up on a kitchen​ chair, you may state that she was found in which body​ position? A. Supine B. Trendelenburg C. ​Fowler's D. Prone

C. ​Fowler's The patient who is in a seated position is in​ Fowler's position.

All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental​ well-being, except​: A. following a regular walking regimen. B. eating a balanced diet. C. spending more time relaxing with friends and family. D. drinking moderate amounts of caffeine and alcohol.

D

An EMT fails to properly care for a patient despite having a duty to act. The EMT is most likely guilty​ of: A. child endangerment. B. psychological abuse. C. domestic abuse. D. negligence.

D

An EMT is confronted by an armed gunman who is threatening to kill the EMT and his partner. An elevation in the​ EMT's heart rate and blood pressure occurs in which stage of the​ body's response to​ stress? A. Response stage B. Exhaustion stage C. Resistance stage D. Alarm reaction stage

D

An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these​ patients? A. A trauma patient who is covered in​ dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris B. A patient with a​ difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration C. A patient who was sprayed with mace by police during arrest D. A patient who is actively coughing

D

At which of the following locations could you palpate a​ malleolus? A. Elbow B. Spinal column C. Wrist D. Ankle

D

A​ 13-year-old patient involved in a collision who appears to be under the influence of drugs refuses care. Regarding the issue of providing care to this​ patient, you must consider that this​ patient: A. has legally refused care. B. should sign a release form. C. should be reported to the police. D. ​can't legally refuse care.

D

Critical Incident Stress Debriefings​ (CISDs): A. have been replaced with​ "defusings." B. must be held from 2 to 4 hours following an incident to be effective. C. are always recommended. D. are now less common than they once were.

D

Due to the high risk of an unstable work​ environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash may consider using​ ________ in addition to standard PPE. A. ​N-95 masks B. face shields C. Level B hazmat suits D. ​heavy-duty gloves

D

Physiology is the study​ of: A. exercise and nutrition. B. body structures. C. muscles and movement. D. body systems.

D

The pressure against the walls of the blood vessels as blood is ejected from the heart and circulates through the body is the​ ________ blood pressure. A. diastolic B. central venous C. mean arterial D. systolic

D

The two major portions of the skull are​ the: A. manubrium and mandible. B. frontal bone and ilium. C. atlas and axis. D. cranium and face.

D

What action does an organ undergo to best describe the term hypertrophy​? A. Wasting B. Changing C. Absence D. Enlargement

D

What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due to​ hemorrhage? A. Decreased production of carbon dioxide B. Decrease in pulse rate C. Decreased ability to fight infection D. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues

D

What is a common term used to describe the items needed for Standard Precautions or body substance isolation​ precautions? A. ​Harm-reduction strategy B. ​Infection-control plan C. ​Exposure-control plan D. Personal protective equipment

D

What is a simple step EMTs can perform to help prevent the spread of flu in the prehospital​ environment? A. Transport all patients with coughs to negative pressure rooms. B. Notify the CDC and local health department of flu cases. C. Encourage patients to get their H1N1 antivirals early in the flu season. D. Place a surgical mask on suspected flu patients.

D

What is an​ EMT's primary ethical​ consideration? A. Making the company bottom line a priority B. Making partner relations a priority C. Making efficiency a priority D. Making patient care and the​ patient's well-being a priority

D

What is a​ positive, healthy way to help deal with​ stress? A. Adding workload to a busy regular schedule B. Caffeine to​ "get up and​ go" C. Drinking alcohol to​ "unwind" D. Regular physical exercise

D

What is the strongest and most muscular part of the​ heart? A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Left ventricle

D

What is the term for placing a person in fear of bodily​ harm? A. Libel B. Slander C. Battery D. AssaulT

D

What system produces chemicals called hormones that help to regulate many body activities and​ functions? A. Lymphatic system B. Digestive system C. Respiratory system D. Endocrine system

D

What two body systems are critical for the life support chain​? A. Cardiopulmonary and digestive systems B. Respiratory and endocrine systems C. Cardiovascular and lymphatic systems D. Respiratory and cardiovascular systems

D

What vessel carries deoxygenated blood to the​ lungs? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary veins C. Vena cavae D. Pulmonary artery

D

When covering a​ patient's mouth and nose with a mask of any​ kind, which of the following is the primary​ risk? A. Causing or exasperating respiratory illnesses B. Upsetting the patient because of the social stigma C. Interfering with patient communication D. Obstructing the ability to visualize and protect the airway

D

Which layer of the skin is exposed to the​ environment? A. Adipose tissue B. Dermis C. Subcutaneous tissue D. Epidermis

D

Which of the following behaviors would demonstrate that an EMT understands reactions to death and​ dying? A. Giving a dying patient hope that a cure can be found before the patient dies B. Being firm with grieving family members and telling them they need to accept what has happened C. Providing spiritual guidance to patients who express anger at God D. Being tolerant of angry reactions by patients and family members

D

Which of the following body systems primarily produces​ hormones? A. Cardiovascular B. Exocrine C. Gastrointestinal D. Endocrine

D

Which of the following is NOT part of the upper​ extremities? A. Carpals B. Scapula C. Clavicle D. Calcaneus

D

Which of the following is a function of the​ skin? A. Protection from the environment B. Regulation of body temperature C. Balancing water in the body D. All of the above

D

Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and​ long-term problems with an​ EMT's health and​ well-being? A. Distress B. Hyperstress C. Megastress D. Eustress

D

Which of the following is the only movable bone of the​ face? A. Maxillae B. Manubrium C. Zygoma D. Mandible

D

Which of the following parts of the nervous system is responsible for the​ "fight or​ flight" response experienced in response to a​ stressor? A. Central nervous system B. Parasympathetic nervous system C. Peripheral nervous system D. Sympathetic nervous system

D

Which of the following pathogens is transmitted through contact with open wounds or​ sores? A. Rubella B. Pertussis C. Meningitis D. Staphylococcus

D

Which of the following provides the greatest personal safety for an EMT working at a motor vehicle​ collision? A. Portable radio B. Nonslip footwear C. Flashlight D. Reflective outer clothing

D

Which of the following statements about​ HIV/AIDS is​ true? A. The HIV virus lives longer outside the body than hepatitis B. B. HIV positive needlesticks have a 30 percent infection rate. C. Drugs are not available that slow HIV from progressing into AIDS. D. HIV positive needlesticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate.

D

Which of the following structures allows food to move from the mouth to the​ stomach? A. Vena cavae B. Trachea C. Duodenum D. Esophagus

D

Which of the following structures closes over the trachea to protect it during​ swallowing? A. Diaphragm B. Cricoid cartilage C. Pharynx D. Epiglottis

D

Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal​ system? A. Acetabulum B. Tendons C. Ligaments D. Fat

D

Which of the following terms describes the heart​ muscle's ability to generate its own electrical​ impulses? A. Irritability B. Conductivity C. Contractility D. Automaticity

D

Which of the following terms is best defined as​ "a state of physical​ and/or psychological arousal to a​ stimulus?" A. Homeostasis B. Eustress C. Distress D. Stress

D

While providing patient care at a secured crime​ scene, you​ should: A. use the telephone to call in a report to medical control. B. pick up any evidence that you find and give it directly to a police officer. C. cover the deceased patient with a sheet and move the body to the ambulance. D. not cut through holes in clothing that might have been caused by bullets or stabbing

D

While transporting a patient to the hospital who has a history of terminal brain​ cancer, the patient​ says, "I know​ I'm going to​ die, but first I want to see my grandson graduate from high​ school." What stage of death and dying describes this​ patient's current​ condition? A. Depression B. Anger C. Denial D. Bargaining

D

You are approaching the scene of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following would be the first way to safeguard your​ well-being as an​ EMT? A. Take personal protective equipment​ (PPE) precautions. B. Request additional resources. C. Utilize​ DOT-approved reflective safety clothing. D. Ensure scene safety.

D

You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight​ loss, loss of​ appetite, weakness, night​ sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and​ symptoms? A. Pneumonia B. Hepatitis B C. AIDS D. Tuberculosis

D

You document on your run sheet that your patient with altered mental status is​ "just another​ drunk." This would likely be​ considered: A. slander. B. negligence. C. a HIPAA violation. D. libel

D

You respond to a laceration call. When you arrive​ on-scene, you walk into the house and find a person suffering from a severe wrist laceration from a broken window. Without​ thinking, you immediately grab the wrist and apply direct pressure to the wound. You then realize​ that, in your hurry to save a​ life, you forgot to put on your gloves. You look down to see your hand is covered in blood. When​ practical, your next action should be A. If your hands had no open​ wounds, it is not required to report the exposure as there is no risk of​ infection, and you could get in trouble at work for failure to follow policy. B. Report the exposure incident because it is the law and you could be fined a large sum of money for failing to report the exposure. C. Report the exposure. Failure to report the exposure may result in you not receiving financial compensation for a potential​ line-of-duty injury. D. Wash your hands and report the exposure.

D

Which of the following could be a source of information to let the EMT know that a patient is an organ​ donor? A. The​ on-line physician B. The statement of a bystander who is the​ patient's neighbor C. A piece of notepaper stating that fact D. The​ patient's driver's license

D You may find that the patient is an organ donor when told so by a family​ member, or a patient may carry an organ donor card. The back of the​ patient's driver's license may also contain an indication that the patient wishes to donate organs upon his or her death.

Which of the following is likely to be inscribed on a medical identification device worn as a​ bracelet? A. Date of birth B. Hospital preference C. Emergency contact D. Allergies

D A medical alert device may be a​ necklace, bracelet, or card and may indicate any of a number of​ conditions, including heart​ conditions, allergies,​ diabetes, and epilepsy.

You are at the scene of a patient with obvious signs of traumatic death. You are required by law in your state to report violent deaths. Your duty as an EMT is to​ notify: A. your EMS chief. B. medical direction. C. the district​ attorney's office. D. law enforcement.

D Because this is a potential crime​ scene, law enforcement must be notified

A suicidal​ 14-year-old who has critically injured herself is trying to get you to withhold care. She is screaming that she wants to die and that you should not touch her or come near her. You​ should: A. inform medical direction that you will withhold care. B. call her parents. C. wait for the girl to change her mind or lose consciousness. D. provide the care she needs.

D Children and mentally incompetent adults are not legally allowed to provide consent or refuse medical care and transportation. In cases of​ life-threatening illness or injury when a parent or guardian is not​ present, care may be given based on implied consent.

When an EMT takes the time to ask permission from a conscious adult to do an assessment and​ procedures, this is respecting the legal principle​ of: A. proximate cause. B. implied consent. C. in loco parentis. D. expressed consent

D Expressed consent must be obtained from every​ conscious, mentally competent adult before treatment is started

The actions that an EMT is legally allowed to perform while caring for an injured or ill patient are known​ as: A. the standard of practice. B. the standard of care. C. medical direction. D. the scope of practice

D The scope of practice is set by the state and outlines what procedures and skills the EMT is allowed to perform.

On the basis of your knowledge of medical​ terminology, you could deduce that the inferior vena cava is the portion of the vena cava that is positioned where in reference to the​ heart? A. To the right of B. Above C. Behind D. Below

D. Below Inferior means beneath or below.

What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for​ life-threatening problems? A. EMT B. Emergency Medical Dispatcher C. Cardiac care responder D. Emergency Medical Responder

D. Emergency Medical Responder

You and your EMT partner are assigned to spend a day at the senior center where you are to inspect the rooms and common areas for fall hazards. Your partner is upset that he is not in the ambulance where the​ "action is." He complains that​ "looking for loose​ rugs" is a waste of his time. What would be the best response to his​ complaints? A. It improves public relations with the community. B. It minimizes the number of 911 calls late at night. C. It is good practice for the next emergency call. D. Injury prevention in the community is an important component of EMS.

D. Injury prevention in the community is an important component of EMS.

Why is it important to use proper medical​ terminology? A. Doctors and nurses who speak only Latin will understand you. B. It is well understood by the general public. C. It allows an EMT to speak to doctors in code in front of a patient. D. It allows an EMT to correctly communicate with other medical professionals.

D. It allows an EMT to correctly communicate with other medical professionals. The understanding of medical terminology and the ability to properly use it allow the EMT to effectively document patient care activities and communicate with other healthcare professionals.

The​ EMT's role in the quality improvement process includes becoming involved in the quality​ process, keeping carefully written​ documentation, obtaining feedback from patients and the hospital​ staff, continuing his​ education, and which of the​ following? A. Being a member of the QI committee B. Writing protocols and standing orders C. Providing quality care D. Maintaining equipment

D. Maintaining equipment

What type of abbreviations should EMTs​ avoid? A. Abbreviations that are understood by the public B. Common abbreviations C. Abbreviations with fewer than four letters D. Obscure abbreviations

D. Obscure abbreviations Obscure or local abbreviations should be​ avoided, as they can lead to communication errors.

What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced​ pre-hospital care? A. Emergency Medical Responder B. Emergency Medical Technician C. Advanced EMT D. Paramedic

D. Paramedic

What BEST defines the evaluation of the​ patient's condition in order to provide emergency​ care? A. Injury prevention B. Patient advocacy C. Medical intervention D. Patient assessment

D. Patient assessment

Which of the following BEST describes a list of steps the EMT should perform while assessing and managing emergency medical​ situations? A. ​On-line medical direction B. Standing orders C. Standard operating procedures D. Protocols

D. Protocols

You and your new EMT partner arrive first on the scene of a single car rollover on the shoulder of a busy highway. You pull off in a safe location and just as you stop the​ ambulance, your partner throws the passenger door​ open, steps out of the​ truck, and begins jogging through the scattered debris toward the overturned car. You shout for him to stop and he looks back at​ you, but then continues to the vehicle and begins assessing the driver.​ Later, as you are restocking in the ambulance bay of the local trauma​ center, your partner tells you that he thinks you acted unprofessionally by shouting at him. What is the best way to​ respond? A. New EMTs should expect partners to yell at them occasionally. B. An EMT should never hurry to assist a patient. C. The​ On-Duty Supervisor should be called. D. Shouting was an attempt to protect the EMT from a potentially unsafe scene

D. Shouting was an attempt to protect the EMT from a potentially unsafe scene

Which of the following statements about the NHTSA Technical Assistance Program transportation standard is​ FALSE? A. Some patients may require rapid transportation or transportation by helicopter or airplane. B. Most patients can be effectively transported by ground ambulances. C. ​Safe, reliable ambulance transportation is a critical component. D. Transportation from remote areas falls under the facilities standard instead of transportation

D. Transportation from remote areas falls under the facilities standard instead of transportation

Imaginary straight line divisions of the body are​ called: A. physiological divisions. B. positional placements. C. geometric components. D. anatomical planes.

D. anatomical planes. Anatomical planes are used as reference points in describing the locations of findings or conditions.

Learning the names of the organs and organ locations of the body would be an example of​ studying: A. pathophysiology. B. physiology. C. anatomical regions. D. anatomy.

D. anatomy. Anatomy is the study of the​ body's structure, physiology is the study of the​ body's function, and pathophysiology is the study of the​ body's abnormal function due to disease.

The study of the​ body's structures is referred to​ as: A. physiology. B. polyintegration. C. pathophysiology. D. anatomy.

D. anatomy. Anatomy is the study of the​ body's structure, physiology is the study of the​ body's function, and pathophysiology is the study of the​ body's abnormal function due to disease.

​"-ist" refers​ to: A. below normal. B. above normal. C. pertaining to. D. one who specializes in.

D. one who specializes in. ​"-ist" refers to a​ specialist, such as a cardiologist.

Study of the function of the living body and its​ parts, or how the body​ works, is​ called: A. sociology. B. psychology. C. anatomy. D. physiology.

D. physiology. Physiology is the study or understanding of how the​ body's organs and systems work as well as how these systems integrate with each other.

When you arrived on​ scene, you found your patient lying on her stomach. You would report and document that the patient was​ found: A. supine. B. Trendelenburg. C. lateral. D. prone.

D. prone. The prone position is lying on the stomach.

In explaining a complex disease process to a​ patient, it is best​ to: A. just draw a​ picture; otherwise, the patient​ won't understand. B. talk slowly and make sure you explain in current medical jargon. C. be as concise as possible by using medical abbreviations. D. use language that the patient can understand clearly.

D. use language that the patient can understand clearly. Patients and the general public often do not understand medical​ terminology, abbreviations, or jargon.

The midaxillary line is​ drawn: A. vertically through the middle of the​ patient's body from the top of the head. B. horizontally through the​ patient's shoulders. C. horizontally through the​ patient's waist. D. vertically from the middle of the​ patient's armpit down to the ankle.

D. vertically from the middle of the​ patient's armpit down to the ankle. This imaginary line divides the body into a front​ (anterior) and back​ (posterior).

Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should​ demonstrate? A. Good eyesight B. Strong student C. Strong communication D. ​Self-starter

D. ​Self-starter

The transverse plane divides the body into what two​ halves? A. ​Anterior/posterior B. ​Medial/lateral C. ​Distal/proximal D. ​Superior/inferior

D. ​Superior/inferior The transverse plane divides the body into superior and inferior halves.

Instead of telling your​ patient, "I am going to palpate your​ mandible," you should​ state, "I am going to touch​ your: A. ​shoulder." B. ​neck." C. ​chest." D. ​jawbone."

D. ​jawbone." Use the word​ "jawbone" instead of​ "mandible." Patients and the general public often do not understand medical​ terminology, abbreviations, or jargon.

How far apart should your hands be when using a power​ grip? a) 10 inches b) 24 inches c) 6 inches d) 15 inches

a) 10 inches

Where should you position the weight of the object being​ lifted? a) As close to the body as possible b) As far from the body as possible c) An​ arm's length away from the body d) To one side or the other

a) As close to the body as possible

Which of the methods listed below is best described as moving a patient from the floor to a stretcher by having two or more rescuers​ kneel, curl the patient to their​ chests, stand, and then reverse the process to place the patient on the​ stretcher? a) Direct ground lift b) Direct carry c) ​Draw-sheet method d) Power lift

a) Direct ground lift

What type of move should the EMT use to move a patient who is in a car that has started to​ burn? a) Emergency move b) Extremity carry c) Urgent move d) Nonurgent move

a) Emergency move

Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is true​? a) Use your legs to lift b) Use your back to lift c) Twist your torso while lifting d) Position your feet close together

a) Use your legs to lift

Stretchers that are designed to carry obese patients weighing up to 800 pounds​ (or more) are​ called: a) bariatric stretchers b) hydraulic stretchers c) battery-powered stretchers d) wheeled stretchers

a) bariatric stretchers

When lifting a​ patient, a basic principle is​ to: a) know your lifting limits b) lift with your lower back c) rush your lift to minimize your lift time d) extend your arms to maximize your lift

a) know your lifting limits

Urgent moves are required​ when: a) life threats exist but there is time for precautions for spinal injuries b) an emergency move is not possible c) there are no life threats and conditions are stable d) rapid transport is necessary

a) life threats exist but there is time for precautions for spinal injuries

How many pounds are most​ battery-powered hydraulic systems rated to safely​ lift? a) 500 b) 700 c) 200 d) 300

b) 700

What is the main benefit of using a stair chair with a tracklike system over a traditional stair​ chair? a) There is no benefit of a tracklike stair chair over a traditional stair chair b) A stair chair with a tracklike system prevents the patient from having to be lifted down stairs c) Only one EMT is required to operate a stair chair with a tracklike system d) A stair chair with a tracklike system can be manipulated to lift into an ambulance using a hydraulic system

b) A stair chair with a tracklike system prevents the patient from having to be lifted down stairs

You have responded to a nursing home and find an elderly patient in his bed in cardiac arrest. Which type of move would you perform to get the patient to a hard surface so you can perform chest​ compressions? a) Urgent move b) Emergency move c) Clothing drag d) Nonurgent move

b) Emergency move

You are moving an elderly patient down the stairs using a stair chair. The patient is alert and very anxious. What should you do prior to moving the patient to prevent her from grabbing the railing and causing you to​ fall? a) Gently tie the​ patient's hands together until you are downstairs to prevent her from unconsciously grabbing the railing b) Explain to the patient what you are doing and advise her to hold her hands together and not let go until you are finished moving her c) Place the patient on oxygen during the move to calm her down d) Use a strap to safely secure the​ patient's arms to the chair without causing any loss of circulation to the​ patient's extremities

b) Explain to the patient what you are doing and advise her to hold her hands together and not let go until you are finished moving her

Which of the following should you use when you want to move a patient from a wheelchair to a​ stretcher? a) Ground transfer b) Extremity lift c) Clothing lift d) Modified direct lift

b) Extremity lift

Which of the following devices is best suited for maneuvering a patient through a narrow​ hallway? a) Long backboard b) Flexible stretcher c) Basket stretcher d) Wheeled stretcher

b) Flexible stretcher

Which of the following is used to immobilize a patient with a suspected spinal​ injury? a) Basket stretcher b) Long backboard c) Scoop stretcher d) Portable stretcher

b) Long backboard

During an emergency​ move, which of the following techniques should be​ used, whenever​ possible, to minimize the possibility of further aggravating a possible spinal​ injury? a) Roll the patient over b) Move the patient in the direction of the long axis of the body c) Pull the patient from the​ feet, not the shoulders d) Move the patient​ sideways, alternating between moving the shoulders and the hips

b) Move the patient in the direction of the long axis of the body

You respond to a call at a park where you find a​ 550-pound patient who has fallen down a slope near a creek. As you and your partner discuss the​ situation, you decide to call a second unit for lifting assistance. Once the patient is on a​ stretcher, how would the additional two personnel help in this​ lift? a) You will place two persons at the head of the​ stretcher, one at the​ foot, and one to act as a spotter b) You place one person on each corner of the stretcher to balance the weight and share in the lifting c) You will place two persons at the​ foot, one at the​ head, and the other to act as a safety anchor with a rope d) They would position themselves halfway up the slope to take over when you and your partner get fatigued

b) You place one person on each corner of the stretcher to balance the weight and share in the lifting

If the weight being pulled is below the level of the​ EMT's waist, he should be in​ a(n) ________ position. a) ​feet-together b) kneeling c) squatting d) overhead

b) kneeling

For a patient without a possibility of spinal​ injury, which of the following carries should be used to move him from a bed to a​ stretcher? a) Extremity lift b) ​Draw-sheet method c) Direct ground lift d) ​Firefighter's carry

b) ​Draw-sheet method

You and your partner arrive on the scene of a​ 400-pound patient lying in bed. He complains of nausea and vomiting for the past 3 days. When he tries to sit​ up, he gets very dizzy and has a syncopal episode. Realizing that he cannot assist you in getting on the​ stretcher, you decide to do which of the​ following? a) Place the patient on a backboard to provide better gripping points to move the patient b) Use the​ patient's sheets to slide him over to the stretcher c) Call for additional manpower to move the patient d) Use the power lift technique to carefully and safely lift the patient to the stretcher

c) Call for additional manpower to move the patient

You have responded to a multiple casualty incident involving an overturned bus. Patients have been thrown around the interior of the​ bus, and several are piled on top of each other. What type of move would you perform to gain access to the most critically injured​ patients? a) Nonurgent move b) Urgent move c) Emergency move d) Extremity lift

c) Emergency move

Which of the following best describes an urgent​ move? a) Dragging a patient from a burning house using his shirt b) Using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to the stretcher c) Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board d) Pulling a patient by her feet across a parking lot

c) Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board

Which of the following best describes body​ mechanics? a) Maintaining correct body posture to improve ergonomics b) Proper use of the body to protect patient safety c) Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects d) Equipment designed to minimize stress on the​ user's body

c) Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects

You are treating an unconscious patient who does not have a possibility of spinal injury and who is breathing adequately. Which of the following is the best position for transporting the​ patient? a) Fowler position b) ​Semi-Fowler position c) Recovery position d) Supine

c) Recovery position

Which of the following is the correct position of an​ EMT's feet when​ lifting? a) As wide apart as possible b) As close together as possible c) Shoulder-width apart d) Two feet apart

c) Shoulder-width apart

What is the contraindication for the use of a scoop or orthopedic​ stretcher? a) Internal injuries b) Pelvic injury c) Spinal injury d) Hip fracture

c) Spinal injury

Which of the following devices should be used to carry a patient down the stairs whenever​ possible? a) Scoop stretcher b) Wheeled ambulance stretcher c) Stair chair d) Basket stretcher

c) Stair chair

Which of the following factors least needs to be considered before lifting any​ patient? a) Communications b) The weight of the patient c) The distance to cover d) Your physical limitations

c) The distance to cover

The term body mechanics describes the proper use of your body to lift without injury. What are the three considerations to review before any​ lift? a) ​Equipment, patient​ injury, and communication b) The​ object, patient​ injury, and communication c) The​ object, your​ limitations, and communication d) ​Environment, physical​ limitations, and communication

c) The​ object, your​ limitations, and communication

What is the preferred number of rescuers when using a stair​ chair? a) ​Four: one for each corner of the device b) Only one with the​ track-like chair c) ​Three: two lifting and one spotting d) Two: one in front and one in back

c) ​Three: two lifting and one spotting

What should you not do when using a stair​ chair? a) Lean forward from the hips b) Flex your knees c) Keep your back straight d) Lean forward from the waist

d) Lean forward from the waist

You respond to the scene of a​ two-vehicle T-bone vehicle collision. The​ driver's side door is smashed shut and will not open. The front passenger door will open. The front passenger is stable and complaining of severe head and neck pain. You suspect that he has a potential spinal injury. The driver is​ unresponsive, in critical​ condition, and has gurgling respirations. You should extricate the passenger by which​ technique? a) Carefully move the patient using full​ c-spine precautions b) Take extra care to protect the​ passenger's neck with a short spine board because of the injury c) Maneuver the patient onto a scoop stretcher to extricate him from the vehicle d) Move the patient out of the car as quickly as​ possible, in the direction of the long axis of the body

d) Move the patient out of the car as quickly as​ possible, in the direction of the long axis of the body

Which of the following patients should not be transported in a stair​ chair? a) Patient who is nauseated b) Patient with difficulty breathing c) Patient found lying in bed d) Patient with a suspected spinal injury

d) Patient with a suspected spinal injury

Which of the following is not correct when performing a log​ roll? a) Use your shoulder muscles b) Keep your back straight c) Lean forward from the hips d) Place both feet flat on the ground

d) Place both feet flat on the ground

When placing all fingers and the palm in contact with the object being​ lifted, you are using which of the​ following? a) Power lift b) Vise grip c) Lock grip d) Power grip

d) Power grip

Which of the following is another name for the​ squat-lift position? a) Weight-lifter technique b) Power grip c) Direct carry d) Power lift

d) Power lift

Which of the following should you not do when reaching for​ something? a) Avoid twisting b) Avoid reaching more than 20 inches in front of your body c) Keep your back in a​ locked-in position d) Prolong the reach for as long as necessary

d) Prolong the reach for as long as necessary

When a stretcher with a patient secured to it is​ elevated, what​ occurs? a) The stretcher is more stable and easily pushed b) The EMTs lessen the possibility of injury from being bent over the patient c) The patient feels more comfortable being at near normal height d) The center of gravity is raised and this causes a tip hazard

d) The center of gravity is raised and this causes a tip hazard

What is the likely impact of power stretchers on​ EMS? a) There will be an increase in the number of home health transfers b) Insurance reimbursement will increase for ambulance services c) There is no likely impact of power stretchers on EMS d) There will be a decrease in the number of injuries among EMTs

d) There will be a decrease in the number of injuries among EMTs

Which of the following is another name for an ambulance​ cot? a) Scoop stretcher b) ​Reeve's stretcher c) Stair chair d) Wheeled ambulance stretcher

d) Wheeled ambulance stretcher