EOSC Midterm Quizzes Q/A
1) The San Andreas Fault is associated with a/an ______ while the Hawaiian Islands are associated with a/an ______. a. transform boundary ... mantle plume b. continental rift ... mid-ocean ridge c. oceanic subduction zone ... oceanic island arc volcanics d. transform boundary ... oceanic island arc volcanics e. continental subduction zone ... oceanic rift zone
A
11) In the Late Jurassic, continental interiors were _______. a. getting wetter b. at similar moisture levels to the Middle Cretaceous c. much lighter as the sun was brighter d. much darker as the sun was not as bright e. getting dryer
A
11) Which of the following would be the MOST accurate definition of Earth System Science? a. A collection of interdependent parts bounded by the confines of the outermost atmospheric layer. b. The interaction of the lithosphere, hydrosphere and the atmosphere. c. A collection of interdependent parts enclosed with the crust forming outer boundary of the Earth System. d. A collection of distinct parts bounded by the confines of the outermost atmospheric layer which rarely interact. e. The interaction of ecosystems over time
A
12) A "land bridge" existed between western North America and Siberia during what portion of the Mesozoic? a. Middle and Late Cretaceous b. All of the Mesozoic c. Middle and Late Triassic d. No such Mesozoic "land bridge" existed. e. Middle and Late Jurassic
A
13) Which of the following BEST describes what the earliest life on Earth would have probably been like? a. anaerobic, heterotrophic, prokaryote b. anaerobic, autotrophic, prokaryote c. aerobic heterotrophic, eukaryote d. aerobic, autotrophic, eukaryote e. aerobic, heterotrophic, prokaryote
A
14) Accreted terranes that originated as ______ and ______ form most of western US and western Canada. These terranes are ______ bounded by ______. a. island arcs ... oceanic crust ... usually ... faults b. oceanic crust ... mantle ... always ... faults c. island arcs ... oceanic crust ... always ... faults d. island arcs ... oceanic crust ... always ... thrust faults e. continental crust ... oceanic crust ... usually ... faults
A
15) Which of the following has been proposed as a possible method by which proteins might have been formed under early Earth conditions? a. alignment of amino acids along clays b. concentration of clays along nucleic acids c. spontaneous generation from inorganic elements in the Archean atmosphere d. baking of ribonucleic acids on a beach e. concentration of deoxyribonucleic acids in pools
A
15) Which of the following oxygen (O) isotopic signatures in foraminifera shells would indicate a glacial conditions? a. High 18O b. No O isotopes present c. Only 16O present d. 16O and 18O present in equal amounts e. High 16O
A
18) The Cascade Arc is _______. a. the string of volcanoes that developed along the western edge of North America b. underlain by rocks that were formed some distance away and were subsequently moved to their current position c. the part of western North America that is underlain by accreted terranes d. a mountainous belt along the western edge of North America e. the westernmost edge of the North American plate
A
18) What catastrophe occurred on the Earth 440 Ma? a. widespread glaciation b. an asteroid impact c. a massive basaltic eruption leading to global warming d. significant sea level rise e. significant regional sea level fall
A
19) What are conodontomorphs and when did they occur? a. simple structures shaped like tubes and teeth, very earliest Cambrian b. an early chordate from the Burgess shale, Middle Cambrian c. teeth from extinct chordates, late in the early Cambrian d. a fauna of small shells, Tommotian Stage of the Early Cambrian e. teeth from extinct chordates, Ordovician
A
19) Which one of the following statements about the rocks shown in the photograph below can be REASONABLY DEDUCED from observations of the photograph alone a. The rock strata used to be horizontal. b. The rocks are over 10 million years old. c. The rocks are sandstones. d. The rocks are volcanic in origin. e. The youngest rocks are on the left hand side of the photograph.
A
2) During the Phanerozoic there have been how many hothouse periods? a. 4 b. 8 c. 2 d. 10 e. 6
A
20) Why were most of the creatures of the same types as those found in the Burgess Shale extinct by the end of the Cambrian? a. The rise of effective predators such as the Nautiloids let to the Burgess Shale creatures' extinction. b. Most of the Burgess Shale creatures were soft bodied. c. The Burgess Shale organisms lived on the top of an unstable reef that was prone to avalanches and earthquakes. d. Ocean conditions changed and the creatures could no longer adapt and survive. e. The rapid development of teeth during the late Cambrian led to the Burgess Shale creatures' extinction.
A
3) Which of the following has not been proposed as a possible reason why the Cambrian Explosion occured when it did? a) the development of bioturbation b) breakup of a super continent c) calcium carbonate levels were now high enough d) end of a glacial period e) rise in oxygen levels
A
4) What are the possible problems with using coal as a climate proxy for the Mesozoic? a. Coals can from in both cold and warm conditions b. Coals are often transformed into other minerals such as glendonite c. Coals only contain limited numbers of foraminifera d. Coals during the Mesozoic lack the isotopes necessary for climatic determination e. No coals formed during the Mesozoic
A
6) Which one of the following does the Geosynclinal Hypothesis fail to explain? a. a satisfactory method whereby a 'shrunk' Earth would have been produced b. the presence of many different continents on Earth's surface c. the presence of mountain ranges without associated deep ocean trenches d. the presence of fossils of a single species that are limited to one area e. all of the above
A
8) How do CFC's destroy ozone? a. By releasing chlorine into the atmosphere b. By acting as a nucleus for the generation of static electricity c. By bonding directly with a single ozone molecule d. By generating UV radiation that splits ozone e. By bonding directly with three or more ozone molecules
A
8) In the type of mountain formation indicated in the figure below, water released from the subducted oceanic crust triggers ______ in the ______ and this in turn triggers ______ in the ______. a. melting ... mantle ... melting ... crust b. heating ... crust ... melting ... crust c. cooling ... mantle ... melting ... crust d. chemical reactions ... mantle ... melting ... subsurface e. melting ... crust ... outpouring ... subsurface
A
9) Where does the majority of Nitrogen in the Earth's atmosphere come from? a. From the decay of Earth materials that contain nitrogen b. Primarily from geological activity associated with constructive plate margins c. From volcanic eruptions d. From the destruction of ammonia (NH3) in the Ozone layer e. It was introduced to the Earth system by comets during the early Precambrian
A
9)From which DIRECTION would sunlight have been striking these stromatolites? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. It is not possible to tell.
A
12) Match the statements to their "type". A) An assumption B) A hypothesis C) A theory or law D) An observation or measurement E) An experimental result
A) Physical processes operate the same 120 million years ago as they do today B) The ancient sea in north eastern BC was becoming shallower between 100 and 80 million years ago C) If a rock unit is seen to contain a fault, the fault is younger than rock unit D) Trilobite A has eyes and trilobite B has no eyes E) Shells of organism A are shown to dissolve more readily in acidic water than shells of organism B
10)A building in downtown Vancouver is faced with this polished igneous rock (pictured below). For each statement enter "t" or "f" (no quotes) in the blank, indicating whether statements are true or false. [a] This rock formed when a lava flow cooled. [b] This rock formed by the alteration of a pre-existing rock by heat and pressure. [c] This rock probably cooled and crystallized in the sub-surface. [d] This is a plutonic rock. [e] This rock formed from the chemical precipitation of salts.
(a) F (b) F (c) T (d) T (e) F
4) For each of the following statements about hypotheses, enter "t" or "f" (no quotes) in the blank, indicating whether statements are true or false. [a] Scientific hypotheses should only be formulated by scientists. [b] Scientific hypotheses are formulated in a different manner in geology than they are in other sciences. [c] Scientific hypotheses are commonly a starting place for research and investigation. [d] The findings of scientific research must be ignored if they don't support well founded theories. [e] The findings of scientific research should be open to scrutiny of the scientific community
(a) F (b) F (c) T (d) F (e) T
15) For each of the following statements about biostratigraphy, enter "t" or "f" (no quotes) in the blank, indicating whether statements are true or false. [a] Biostratigraphy uses an understanding of a fossil's range. [b] Biostratigraphy could be used to correlate rocks across the Pacific Ocean. [c] Only fossil plants can be used in biostratigraphy. [d] Biostratigraphy only uses the extinction of fossils to correlate rocks. [e] Biostratigraphy is linked to an understanding of evolution.
(a) T (b) T (c) F (d) F (e) T
2. In this geological sequence layer C was found to contain bones of dinosaurs. For each statement enter "t" or "f" (no quotes) in the blank, indicating whether statements are true or false. (a) Rock Layer A could be 200 million years old (b) Rock layer B could be 200 million years old (c) Rock layer D could be 60 million years old (d) the fault could have formed during the mesozoic (e) The igneous dike could yield a radiometric (absolute) date that indicates it formed during the Paleozoic
(a) T (b) T (c) F (d) T (e) F
18) For each of the following statements about the rock cycle, enter "t" or "f" (no quotes) in the blank, indicating whether statements are true or false. [a] Sediments may be transformed into sedimentary rocks. [b] Metamorphic rocks can be heated to such a degree that they melt. [c] Igneous rocks may be transformed by heat and pressure to form a metamorphic rock. [d] All sediments eventually get transformed into metamorphic rocks. [e] The rock cycle only describes surface processes.
(a) T (b) T (c) T (d) F (e) F
3. Each number on the figure below indicates the position of a specific tectonic or plate feature. Match each of these with evidence you would expect to observe at each site. A. Breaks in sea floor magnetic stripe patterns B. Increases in geothermal heat without actual volcanoes C. Characteristic rise sea floor topography D. A chain of volcanic islands E. Characteristic geographic pattern of earthquake locations
1)d) A chain of volcanic islands 2) A) Breaks in sea floor magnetic stripe patterns 3)C) Characteristic rise sea floor topography 4)E) Characteristic geographic pattern of earthquake locations 5)B) Increases in geothermal heat without actual volcanoes
5) Given the following geological section, place the given labels in their correct order from oldest to youngest. (Hint: list the six given letters in order on paper first, then transfer this result into the question on Connect.)
1. Layer F 2. Layer J 3. Fault L 4. Interface K 5. Layer D 6. Intrusion A
7) Which one of these diagramatic plate boundaries would be most representative of the plate boundary found in the Alaskan island chain?
3
2) The presence of sand volcanoes in an area suggests that ______. A. liquefaction has occurred B. sandy layers underground have turned to a slurry and more solid layers may have broken up or collapsed C. underground water reserves have jettisoned up and pulled up some sand to the surface D. sand has intruded into the magma chamber 1. A 2. B, C 3. C 4. D 5. A, B
5 (A,B)
1) Which of the following processes may have at least partially contributed to the Permo-Triassic extinction? a) changes in continental configuration (fragmentation of Pangaea) b) melting of gas hydrates leading to methane release c) an increases in ocean circulation leading to the death of many deep marine species d) increase in the rate of sea floor spreading leading to a rise in shallow marine water levels e) eruption of the Deccan Traps and associated release of carbon dioxide
B
1) Which of the following would be the BEST indicator of cool climatic conditions? a. bauxite b. glendonite c. calcretes d. Decreased stoma on fossil leaves e. fossil leaves with a smooth outline
B
10) James Lovelock's hypothesis was criticized as being too teleological. Which of the following is the BEST definition of a teleological hypothesis? a. A hypothesis that is too focused on mathematics b. A hypothesis that implies a kind of foresight or planning c. A hypothesis that relies on feedback loops d. A hypothesis that is based on no real data e. A hypothesis that does not take into account geological processes
B
11) Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. Pikaia could have escaped predators by hiding in a group of baby mollusks. b. The Cambrian oceans were dominated by arthropods. c. Pikaia used physical defenses to escape predators. d. Neither generalists nor specialists are more likely to survive an extinction event. e. Superior intelligence allowed mammals to overpower the arthropods on land.
B
11)Which one of the following statements about Lystrosaurus help support the Theory of Continental Drift? a. Being a freshwater organism, it could not have crossed the Atlantic Ocean. b. Its presence in Antarctica, India, and southern Africa can only be explained if the continents were once joined. c. As a fossil coral, it is difficult to account for its presence in the United Kingdom unless the UK used to exist close to the equator. d. Its seeds could not be distributed across oceans in their current configurations. e. Its fossils are now found in areas with temperate to arctic conditions.
B
12) Which of the following is TRUE? a. Uraninite and pyrite are common in oceanic sediments younger than 1.8 billion years old. b. Jupiter's gravity allows the planet to draw in asteroids away from the Earth thus acting as an impact shield. c. The average lifetime of a species on Earth is one million years. d. Desert sandstones deposited after the oxygen crisis are green. e. Geological Periods represent groupings of Eras that represent times of major change in the Earth's biosphere.
B
13) What is Dimethylsulphide? (DMS) a. One of the salts precipitated in a sabkha environment b. A chemical that might help increase the Earth's albedo c. A chemical involved in photosynthesis d. One of the important substances involved in the long term cycling of carbon e. A chemical produced from the decay of meats such as chicken and beef
B
13) Which of the following would be a description of Triassic climate as deduced from a general circulation model (GCM)? a. High precipitation either side of the ITCZ but mostly over the ocean, very dry continental interior b. High precipitation over the equator but mostly over the ocean, very dry continental interior c. High precipitation at the ITCZ producing a very wet continental interior flanked either side by very dry deserts d. Very wet conditions in the north with deserts restricted to the south e. Very wet conditions in the south with deserts restricted to the north
B
16) Towards the Middle Cretaceous, there was probably _________________ at the poles. a. a high argon atmosphere b. no ice c. a much stronger wind d. lots of ice e. deep mud
B
16) Which of the following would be considered to be a closed system? a. Inside the International Space Station (ISS) if the impact of human activities are discounted b. The planet Jupiter if meteorites are discounted c. The Great Barrier (coral) Reef d. The Atlantic Ocean e. A leaf
B
17) Most earthquakes are related to ______. In these cases, energy is released in the form of ______. a. displacement along a fault ... ash and lava b. displacement along a fault ... seismic energy c. subduction of continental crust ... ash and lava d. strike-slip faults ... greenhouse gases e. normal faults ... seismic energy
B
17) On the photograph shown below, an unconformity exists between __________. a. A and B b. B and E c. C and A d. D and A e. E and C
B
20) Which of the following BEST describes the Earth's layers and their general states (from surface to interior)? (IC=inner core; L=lithosphere; M=mantle; OC=outer core) a. L=solid; M=solid; IC=solid; OC=liquid b. L=solid; M=viscous, ductile; IC=solid; OC=liquid c. M=solid; L=viscous, ductile; IC=liquid; OC=solid d. M=solid; L=viscous, ductile; IC=solid; OC=solid e. L=solid; M=viscous, ductile; IC=liquid; OC=liquid
B
3) Out of the following, what was probably NOT helping to regulate temperatures as Pangea fragmented? a. The opening of the Atlantic Ocean b. Sea level fall c. Sea level rise d. The opening of the Tethys Ocean e. The development of shallow inland oceans
B
3) Which of the following is TRUE regarding sea level at the end of the Permian? a. Sea level was low as a major glaciation had just ended b. Sea level was low in part due to the low volume occupied by ocean ridge systems c. Sea level was high due to increased spreading ridge activity d. Sea level was high due to the formation of many mountain chains on Pangea e. Sea level was low, in part due to the formation of the Himalaya
B
4) "The ichnofossil assemblage with Trichophycus pedum marks the first occurrence of well-developed, fairly complex metazoan animals, and this is today regarded as the most useful landmark to characterize the boundary between the Precambrian and the Phanerozoic and, synchronously, the Proterozoic and the Cambrian." In the passage above, Trichopycus pedum is evidence of which of the following? a) aerobic respiration b) bioturbation c) anaerobic respiration d) arthopods e) turbidite flows
B
6) Which of the following would be a reasonable estimate of the residence time of ground water in the pore spaces of soil? a. 500 years b. 1 month c. 10 million years d. 10,000 years e. 1 million years
B
7) What is being described in the passage below? "The chemicals water, methane, ammonia, and hydrogen were all sealed inside a sterile array of glass tubes and flasks connected in a loop, with one flask half-full of liquid water and another flask containing a pair of electrodes. The liquid water was heated to induce evaporation, sparks were fired between the electrodes to simulate lightning through the atmosphere and water vapor, and then the atmosphere was cooled again so that the water could condense and trickle back into the first flask in a continuous cycle." a. Wegener's Experiment b. Miller's Experiment c. an experiment that simulates the conditions between 2.5-1.8 Ga d. an experiment that attempts to simulate conditions around 500 million years ago e. an experiment to determine the origin of the atmosphere
B
7) Knowing the ______ of magnetic ______, mapping the magnetic signals from the oceanic crust enables the evaluation of plate ______ and the reconstruction of ancient ______. a. frequency ... reversals ... subduction rates ... plate configurations b. timing ... reversals ... velocities ... plate configurations c. timing ... reversals ... buoyancies ... plate subductions d. polarity ... anomalies ... thicknesses ... plate boundaries e. rate ... anomalies ... buoyancies ... plate subductions
B
8) Where would you expect the greatest amount of heat to escape from the earth's interior? a. At the poles b. Along plate boundaries c. Through continental crust d. At the equator e. Through oceanic crust
B
8) Which of the following statements is TRUE with regards to a "mass extinction"? a. Mass extinction events open up evolutionary pathways by closing-up ecological space. b. In mass extinctions at least 30% of Earth's species must be lost. c. Mass extinctions are sudden events with very short durations (around 100 000 years maximum). d. A mass extinction only affects life locally and its interaction with the hydrosphere, atmosphere and lithosphere is very limited. e. Events which have a severe impact on a narrow range of ecologies are still considered mass extinctions.
B
1) Which of the following best describes this figure? a. negative then positive feedback loop b. negative feedback loop c. positive feedback loop d. A neutral system with no positive of negative feedback e. positive then negative feedback loop
C
1. How might a river delta spoil to some degree the "jigsaw fit of the continents" when attempting a reconstruction of ancient continental configurations? (Choose the best one) A. Deltas are areas of active erosion and as such the original outline of the continent will be altered. B. Deltas tend to obscure "split-units" that would otherwise help in estimating the original location of the continents. C. Deltas are areas of active deposition of sediment that build out into an ocean and as such alter the original outline of the continent. D. As deltas are features that are restricted to lakes, it is unlikely that they would have any effect on the reconstruction of ancient continental locations. E. Deltas are features restricted to high mountains and as such are unlikely to have any effect in the reconstruction of ancient continental locations.
C
12) What did fossil evidence suggest was the general climatic configuration during the mid Cretaceous? a. Generally warmer at the equator and just a little warmer at the poles b. Fairly similar temperature distribution as today but with smaller ice caps c. A few degrees warmer at the tropics but much warmer at the poles d. Much warmer at the tropics and the poles than today e. Very warm at the poles, a little cooler at the tropics but the tropics were broader
C
12) Which of the following would best describe system hierarchy from simple to complex at a microscopic scale? a. atom - nucleus - proton - DNA - quark b. DNA - quark - proton - nucleus - atom c. quark - proton - nucleus - atom - DNA d. proton - quark - atom - nucleus - DNA e. DNA - atom - nucleus - proton - quark
C
13) The main foreland basin in western Canada occurred because ______. a. the Canadian Coast Mountains thickened the crust along the edge of the continent and pushed down the edge of the continent, producing a basin by isostatic subsidence b. as the Cordilleran Ice Sheet advanced, the continental crust in western BC began to subside, creating the foreland basin c. the Canadian Rocky Mountains thickened the crust along the edge of the continent and pushed down the edge of the continent, forming a large basin d. formation of the Canadian Coast Mountains led to a build-up of water in the basin on the eastern side of the mountains e. compression and shortening in the Canadian Rocky Mountains led to a build-up of water in the basin on the western side of the mountains
C
14) How could problems with oxygen isotopes produce a data "miss match" between geological data and Eric Barron's general circulation model for the Cretaceous? a. Sediments deposited in warm ocean conditions are known to produce unreliable isotopic data b. Oxygen isotopes behaved differently in the mid Cretaceous c. Alteration of oxygen isotopes as sediments are transformed into rock d. There were very few marine creatures producing shells that could be used for this analysis during the mid Cretaceous e. Oxygen isotope data is useless if it is know that there no ice caps at this time
C
14) Over millions of years plate movements cut off a portion of an ocean so it becomes land locked. The stranded ocean receives low rainfall. Over many years the ocean shrinks as the water is removed, and a rock precipitates. What would this new rock be called? a. a metamorphic rock b. an extrusive igneous rock c. an evaporite d. clastic sedimentary rock e. a melt
C
14) Which of the following might lead to higher than average salinities in some oceans? a. Low rates of precipitation b. Low input from rivers c. all the above are possible factors d. Confined oceanic circulation e. High rates of evaporation
C
16) Correctly complete the following sentence. We know that the western edge of the North American Plate in western Canada is being actively deformed because... a. we can observe sea level actively rising. b. it takes less time to fly from Vancouver to Victoria than it used to. c. we can track the deformation using GPS (global positioning system) measurements. d. houses on Vancouver Island are noticeably starting to tilt to the east. e. None of the above combinations make sense.
C
16) Which one of the following mechanisms did Wegener propose to explain why continents drifted? a. large movements of magma in the mantle below the continents b. large flood events c. a combination of effects involving the moon's gravity and the spin of the Earth d. large-scale volcanic activity along the edge of the continents e. earthquakes along the leading edges of oceans
C
17)Which of the following Burgess Shale fossils has NO KNOWN modern descendants? a. Sanctacaris b. Aysheaia c. Opabinia d. Canadaspis e. Aysheaia and Sanctacaris
C
18) Which ocean today can be used an analogy to explain how the mid Cretaceous poles were kept warm? a. The Black Sea b. Northern Pacific c. Mediterranean d. South Atlantic e. Indian Ocean
C
18) Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. The hydrosphere is a sub set of the atmosphere b. The hydrosphere does not include ice c. Clouds are not part of the hydrosphere d. The hydrosphere has been around for the past 4.5 billion years e. Permafrost is not a part of the hydrosphere
C
19) Which of the following would cause the draw down of atmospheric CO2 in the mid Cretaceous? a. Increased volcanic activity b. Generation of Oceanic plateaus c. Deposition of black oceanic shales d. Larger "fatter" mid ocean ridges e. Mantle plumes below continents
C
2) About how old are the oldest water deposited sedimentary rocks on Earth? a. 100 million years old b. 170 million years old c. 3.8 billion years old d. 2.5 billion years old e. 4.5 billion years old
C
5) These graphs showing how population of daisies vary with changing solar luminosity over time in the Daisy World Model. What would the unhighlighted black line represent? a. yellow daisies b. microplankton c. black daisies d. temperature e. ocean temperature
C
5) Which of the following is not true of stratovolcanoes? a. They are often caused by the subduction of oceanic crust. b. They occur when magma emerges through the crust and erupts on the surface. c. They are often closely spaced and produce continuous mountain belts. d. They are very commonly found along the edges of the Pacific Ocean. e. They consist of interlayered lava flows and volcanic tuffs.
C
6) It is thought that the Universe is between ________ years old and the Earth ________ years old. Which of the pairs of phrases below make this statement TRUE? a. 12-14 million, 4.6 million b. 550-500 million, 460 million c. 12-14 billion, 4.6 billion d. 1200-1200 million, 460 million e. 100-200 billion, 4600 million
C
6) Which of the following is true? a. Earth's surface is made up of a total of 26 lithospheric plates. b. The Earth's surface contains only 2 relatively large lithospheric plates with the majority of the surface being comosed of small plates. c. It is possible for a single lithospheric plate to contain both continental landmass and ocean floor. d. A single lithospheric plate cannot contain both continental landmass and ocean floor. e. Earth's surface is made up of lithospheric plates that are nearly uniform in size.
C
10) Fill in the missing words in the following text: In ________, the air above continents is warmed more intensely than above the ocean, it _________ and ________. This creates a ________ barometric pressure over land which pulls in moisture- laden air from the sea. a. summer, contracts, rises, lower b. winter, expands, rises, lower c. winter, expands, falls, higher d. summer, expands, rises, lower e. winter, contracts, rises, lower
D
10) Where do most large earthquakes occur? a. continental rift zones b. mid-ocean spreading centers c. strike-slip fault zones d. convergent margins e. divergent margins
D
11) Which of the following processes does NOT cause isostatic readjustment to occur? a. de-glaciation of a region b. formation of batholiths at base of crust c. erosion of a mountain belt d. horst and graben formation by crustal extension e. faulting and/or folding followed by crustal thickening
D
13) If you were to compress all of Earth's history into 1 year, in approximately which month would Dinosaurs suffer extinction? a. January b. March c. May d. November e. December
D
16) "This group of organisms have cells that are organized into complex structures enclosed within membranes. The defining membrane-bound structure that differentiates their cells from that of other life forms is the nucleus. Cells also contain other membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria, chloroplasts and Golgi bodies." Which of the following does NOT belong to the group of organisms described above? a. roses b. jellyfish c. dinosaurs d. cyanobacteria e. arthropods
D
17) The Medium term cycling of carbon involves which of the following? a. Removal of carbon from the biosphere in the form of calcium carbonate shells b. Removal of carbon from the atmosphere for 10's to 100's of years c. The formation of limestone d. The formation of coal e. Locking carbon into the geosphere in sabkha environments
D
20) Which of the following is MOST directly related to the movement of the Gulf Stream? a. movement of water around the Antarctic Circumpolar Current b. Downwelling due to Ekman transport along the coast of Peru c. Upwelling due to Ekman transport along the coast of Peru d. sinking of the North Atlantic Deep Water Mass e. rising of the North Atlantic Deep Water Mass
D
3) Formation of mountain belts through crustal compression or shortening is mainly achieved through which process or processes? a. Horst and graben formation b. Normal faulting c. Subduction and arc magmatism d. Reverse faulting and folding e. Folding and normal faulting
D
4) A good example of a mountain belt that was built by collision of one continent with another is ______. a. Canadian Rocky Mountains b. Sevier Mountains in the western US c. Coast Ranges in western Canada d. Himalayas in Tibet e. Teton Ranges in Wyoming
D
4) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the pycnocline? a. Its development is in part temperature related b. Its development is in part salinity related c. It is generally least developed in high latitudes d. It permits the sinking of cold water masses e. It is generally best developed in low to medium latitudes
D
6) Fill in the correct words in the spaces of the following text "Rather than the hemisphere spanning cells that Hadley proposed there are in fact two other cells, the Ferrel and Polar cells. Where these cells converge (rising are masses) they generate areas of _______ pressure and ________. Where air mass diverge (descending air masses) _______ atmospheric pressure systems are developed and conditions are generally ________." a. high, precipitation, low, wet b. high, dry conditions, high, dry c. high, warm conditions, low, wet d. low, precipitation, high, dry e. low, dry conditions, high, dry
D
7) which of the following best describes homeostasis? a. It describes how positive feedback loops keep systems stable b. A method of describing static systems c. A type of photography used in analyzing chlorophyll d. It describes how systems maintain stability e. A feedback mechanism used to keep humans cool
D
9) Which of the following is NOT a factor in the formation of ocean anoxic events in the stagnant ocean model? a. oxygenated water lying on top of less oxygenated water b. warm water lying on top cold water c. a stratified water body d. a weak thermocline e. High levels of microplankton productivity in the upper levels of the ocean
D
10) Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the biosphere? a. It interacts with the atmosphere. b. It probably needed the presence of liquid water to develop. c. It developed in an atmosphere with no oxygen. d. It interacts with the hydrosphere. e. It is a relatively recent feature of our planet.
E
14) Observations of processes now occurring in the Orion Nebula (pictured below) confirm that ______. a. the Earth is about 4.6 billion years old b. water exists on proto planets c. the Universe is expanding d. life originated in the stars e. formation of solar systems is common
E
15) Mountain formation is typically associated with ______ and/or with ______, but it can also occur in regions of crustal ______. a. mantle uplift ... mantle convection cells ... faulting b. faulting ... volcanism ... degradation c. subduction zones ... continental rifting ... thickening d. volcanic arcs ... continental rifting ... shortening e. compressional forces ... volcanism ... extension
E
15) Which of the following would signal the "beginning of the end" for the Tethys Ocean? a. The closure of the Mediterranean at the Straights of Gibraltar b. Southwards drift of Africa c. Rifting of N-America from S-America sometime during the Late Triassic d. An influx of fresh water in the northern Atlantic e. Laurasia rotating counter clockwise
E
17) Which of the following is an important consideration when examining Mesozoic climate? a. The relative abundance of Argon in the atmosphere b. The burning of fossil fuels c. The relative abundance of Nitrogen in the atmosphere d. The rise of the Himalaya e. The absence or much reduced presence of the cryosphere
E
19) Active plate boundaries are often zones of significant ______ and ______. a. climate change ... magmatism b. earthquakes ... climate change c. mountain belts ... hotspots d. hotspots ... volcanoes Correcte. earthquakes ... magmatism
E
19) Which of the following BEST describes the first law of thermodynamics? a. Energy is created when the second law of thermodynamics causes entropy to enter into a system b. all are valid descriptions c. Energy cannot be created but CAN be destroyed d. The gradual decrease in the amount of energy and matter in the universe e. Energy is neither created or destroyed but converted from one form to another
E
2) "Changes in climate, ______, and increased _____ are all potential causes of extinctions that are related to ______." a) limited ocean cyclicity, tectonic processes, volcanic activity b) sea level changes, biological competition, climate change c) continental configuration, extraterrestrial impacts, periodic shifts in the Oort cloud d) introduction of pathogens, volcanic activity, extraterrestrial impacts e) sea level changes, biological competition, continental configuration
E
20) Which of the following events is caused by plate tectonics and has the potential to lead to the extinction of major groups of animals which are widely distributed geographically and found in many different habitats (e.g. rodents, bears, dinosaurs)? a. earthquake b. major tsunami c. volcanic eruption d. asteroid impact e. none of these
E
20) Which of the following would be a statement regarding weather? a. Ice core data suggests that there has been a general warming over the past 100 years b. In general, the interior of Australia is hot and dry c. In general Vancouver experiences relatively warm, wet winters d. The Sahara has been drying for many hundreds of years e. The winter of 2008/2009 was very cold in Vancouver
E
5) It is hypothesized that ________, ________, and ________ could all potentially cause shifts in the Oort Cloud that could cause comets to fall into the inner Solar System." Which group of phrases below will make the passage TRUE? a. asteroids, a black hole, Nemesis b. movement through the galactic plane, asteroids, Planet X c. Planet X, asteroids, Nemesis d. the Kuiper Belt, a black hole, a red dwarf star e. Planet X, a red dwarf star, a black hole
E
5) Which of the following is not true regarding a GCM? a. CO2, H2O and dust content are factors that could be considered in their construction b. It considers interactions within defined units of the planet c. The construction of a GCM will result in the simplification of the shape of continents d. The overall shape of Pangea after being processed by a GCM is like the letter "C" e. Exchanges between the units is not considered
E
7) Which of the following might account for the warm temperatures experienced in the late Triassic - early Jurassic? a. The reversal of the North Atlantic Deep Water (NADW) b. Deccan Traps Volcanism c. Siberian Traps Volcanism d. Falling sea levels e. CAMP volcanism
E
8) How do the Appalachian Mountains support the Theory of Continental Drift? a. they match mountains that occur across the Indian Ocean on the western coastline of India b. they match mountains in Australia c. they match mountains that occur across the Atlantic in eastern Africa d. when the continents are reassembled into their "pre-drift" state, they form a continual, unbroken mountain chain along western North America and continuing along the coastline of BC and Alaska e. when the continents are reassembled into their "pre-drift" state, they do not disappear around Newfoundland but match up with mountains that occur in the United Kingdom
E
9) The three main seismic hazards in southwestern British Columbia are ______, ______ and ______; on the west coast of Vancouver Island ______ is also a major hazard. a. ground rupture ... amplification of ground motion ... liquefaction ... rapid uplift b. landslides ... amplification of ground motion ... tectonic subsidence ... tsunami c. liquefaction ... landslides ... tectonic uplift ... tsunami d. structural damage ... fire ... water supply ... drowned forests e. liquefaction ... landslides ... amplification of ground motion ... rapid subsidence
E
9) Which one of the following geological features is produced by two tectonic plates moving laterally past each other? a. Iceland b. the Marianas Trench c. the Rocky Mountains d.the Himalayas e. the San Andreas Fault
E
