EPPP MC 3

Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a repeated measures design? A multicollinearity B autocorrelation C practice effects D carryover effects

The Correct Answer is "A" A "repeated measures" design, sometimes referred to as a "within-subjects design," uses more than one measurement of a given variable for each subject. For example, longitudinal studies and pre-test/post-test designs measure the same subjects multiple times. These designs have several disadvantages including: "Autocorrelation" (B), which means that observations obtained close together in time from the same subjects tend to be highly correlated. This violates the independence of observations assumption made by statistical tests. "Practice effects" (C), "carryover effects" (D), and "order effects" all refer to systematic changes in subjects' performance due to prior exposure to a treatment condition or measurement. However, multicollinearity (A) refers to a problem associated with multiple regression which occurs when two or more predictors are highly correlated with each other

Which of the following is the reason why many experts recommend 6 to 8 sessions as the duration of crisis intervention therapy? A Six to eight sessions is about how long many crises last. B Most people who are experiencing a crisis would not be able to endure the anxiety evoked by long-term psychotherapy. C Most people who are experiencing a crisis cannot afford long-term psychotherapy. D Individuals in a crisis state are usually so unbalanced that their unconscious mental contents have become conscious; as a result, the assessment and exploration phase of dynamic therapy is not necessary.

The Correct Answer is "A" A crisis occurs when a person's normal ways of adapting and coping are insufficient to meet the demands of a highly stressful situation. Intervention focuses on resolution of the immediate problem and restoration of the person to a previous level of functioning and coping. The assumption is that the person's problems do not represent a mental illness or any type of pathology; instead, the reaction, though maladaptive and inadequate, is viewed as understandable, under the circumstances. Since global personality change is not a goal, the duration is 6 to 8 sessions, in line with the normal evolution of a crisis

For which population would it be least appropriate to give the performance subtests only of the WISC-III as a measure of general intelligence? A suburban middle-class children B reading-disabled children C immigrant, non English-speaking children D poor, rural Appalachian children

The Correct Answer is "A" A number of factors that are not related to general intelligence can suppress one's verbal IQ score on the Wechsler tests, including a lack of formal education, a learning disability, and a lack of proficiency in English. Therefore, for the children mentioned in choices "B," "C," and "D," it may be that their WISC-III verbal IQ scores would not be reflective of their overall intelligence level, but their performance IQ scores would be less affected. By contrast, in suburban middle-class children, the performance IQ scores have been found to underestimate general intelligence

Which of the following is the most frequently used scale to measure orientation? A Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test B Gollingberg Orientation and Awareness Test C Gross Orientation and Awareness Test D Global Orientation and Amnesia Test

The Correct Answer is "A" A. The Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test (GOAT), which assesses temporal orientation primarily, was developed to serially evaluate cognition during the subacute stage of recovery from closed head injury. The scale measures orientation to person, place, and time, and memory for events preceding and following the injury. (See: Levin, H.S., O'Donnell, V.M., & Grossman, R.G. (1975). The Galveston orientation and amnesia test: A practical scale to assess cognition after head injury. Journal of Nervous and Mental Diseases, 167, 675-684.)

If a person learns a behavior through modeling coupled with external reinforcement, why, according to Bandura, would that behavior continue in the absence of a model or external reinforcement? A The accomplishment of new behavioral skills can be reinforcing in itself. B The process of response generalization makes further modeling and reinforcement unnecessary. C The process of classical conditioning ensures that the behavior will continue, as long as antecedent stimulus conditions remain the same. D Individuals do not need any type of motivation to learn a new behavior; mere exposure to a model is sufficient

The Correct Answer is "A" According to Bandura, the effectiveness of modeling is mediated by four processes: attention, retention, reproduction, and motivation. Motivation may but does not necessarily involve external reinforcement; it is also possible that behaviors learned through modeling can be internally or self-reinforcing (e.g., pride and satisfaction in accomplishment can operate as motivators). You might have learned that Bandura does not believe that reinforcement is necessary for a behavior to occur and, as a result, chosen D. However, D is incorrect because mere exposure to a model is not sufficient for learning; the person must attend to the model, retain the model's behavior, have the capability to reproduce the behavior, and be motivated to engage in the behavior.

Which of the following is not a recommendation of APA's Guidelines for Providers of Service to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations? A Psychologists should downplay their own culture and emphasize the client's culture. B Psychologists should help clients understand, maintain, and resolve their own sociocultural identification. C Psychologists should seek to help determine whether a so-called "problem" stems from racism or bias in others so that clients don't inappropriately personalize problems. D Psychologists should work to eliminate biases, prejudices, and discriminatory practices

The Correct Answer is "A" Although these Guidelines do emphasize the need to consider, respect, and understand the client's cultural background, they don't advise psychologists to downplay their own backgrounds. The other choices are all paraphrases of statements contained in these Guidelines

A student seeks counseling at the university counseling center due to feelings of failure as a student. When asked about his grades, he states that his grade point average is 3.9 but thinks that he should be doing better. He is most likely using which of the following cognitive distortions? A arbitrary inference B overgeneralization C personalization D dichotomous thinking

The Correct Answer is "A" Arbitrary inference occurs when one draws a specific conclusion without supporting evidence, or even in the face of contradictory evidence. This best applies to the student in this question. Despite having a nearly perfect GPA, the student believes he's a failure and should be doing better. Overgeneralization (B) is the application of a general rule based on a few isolated incidents. Personalization (C) is attributing external events to oneself without evidence of a causal connection. And dichotomous thinking (D) is categorizing experiences into one of two extremes

*In the classical conditioning paradigm, backward conditioning has been found to be: A ineffective. B moderately effective. C more effective than simultaneous conditioning. D more effective than delayed conditioning

The Correct Answer is "A" Backward conditioning occurs when the UCS precedes the CS. Think of it as giving Spot the food and then sounding the buzzer. What would you expect? Do you really think that Spot would pay any attention to the buzzer once he had his Alpo? Hardly. He's probably too busy gulping down his chopped liver to have any attention channels available to perceive your experimental buzzer. So, the answer must be that backward conditioning has no true effect. For classical conditioning to be effective, the CS must precede the UCS. Then, after a sufficient number of pairings, the response can be elicited by the CS only

The realization that gender is unaffected by superficial changes in appearance or activity is referred to as: A gender constancy B gender stability C gender identity D ego-dystonic transvestism

The Correct Answer is "A" Gender concept develops in a predictable sequence of stages during childhood. The first stage is known as "gender identity," which is the ability to categorize self and others as male or female. There is evidence that gender identity develops as early as 9 months or as late as 3 years, depending on how the researchers define it. The next stage, which develops by 4 years of age, is "gender stability," which is an understanding that one's gender does not change over time. The final stage is known as "gender constancy," which is characterized by an understanding that gender stays the same despite changes in appearance. Gender constancy is achieved by age 5 or 6.

Members of a cohesive group, as compared to members of a non-cohesive group, are more likely to have: A lower absenteeism B lower productivity C better decision-making D higher turnover

The Correct Answer is "A" Group cohesiveness has been associated with less absenteeism and turnover and, in some situations, greater productivity. You should have been able to eliminate "C" (better decision-making) if you recalled the research on groupthink, which is characterized, in part, by high group cohesiveness, and is associated with poorer quality decisions

Holland's social type is most similar to which other one of his types? A artistic B investigative C realistic D conventional

The Correct Answer is "A" Holland's theory categorizes individuals based on their resemblance to six personality types: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional (you can remember the sequence as "RIASEC"). The personality types reflect a person's primary interest, or an environment's primary characteristic; for example, the social type enjoys working with others and avoids ordered, systematic activities that involve tools or machinery. There is overlap between the types, though some types overlap more than others. For example, the social type is relatively more similar to the artistic and enterprising types, and less similar to the realistic, investigative, and conventional types

Adding more items to a test would most likely: A increase the test's reliability B decrease the test's validity C have no effect on the test's reliability or validity D preclude the use of the Spearman-Brown prophecy formula

The Correct Answer is "A" Lengthening a test, that is, adding more test items, generally results in an increase in the test's reliability. For example, a test consisting of only 3 questions would probably be more reliable if we added 10 more items. The Spearman-Brown formula (D) is specifically used to estimate the reliability of a test if it were lengthened or shortened

Masters and Johnson found that their version of sex therapy, which incorporates education about sexuality, training in communication skills, and the technique known as sensate focus, is most effective for treating: A premature ejaculation. B impotence. C sexual aversion. D orgasmic disorder

The Correct Answer is "A" Masters and Johnson found that close to 100% of individuals with premature ejaculation were helped by their program which incorporated education about sexuality, improving communication, and sensate focus

Which of the following best reflects the research findings on stepparenting? A During late childhood and early adolescence males respond more positively to their stepfathers than do females. B During late childhood and early adolescence females respond more positively to their stepfathers than do males. C Stepfathers have more frequent contact with their stepchildren than do stepmothers. D Stepparents most often utilize an authoritative parenting style.

The Correct Answer is "A" Most research has found that girls have more difficulty adjusting to their mother's remarriage than do boys. This is particularly the case during childhood and early adolescence. Older adolescent males, on the other hand, often continue to have problems with the adjustment. The reverse of choice C is true; that is, stepmothers typically have more frequent contact with their stepchildren than do stepfathers, although these interactions are often abrasive. And in contrast to choice D, stepparents have been found to rely heavily on authoritarian (rather than authoritative) parenting.

If you find that your job selection measure yields too many "false positives," what could you do to correct the problem? A raise the predictor cutoff score and/or lower the criterion cutoff score B raise the predictor cutoff score and/or raise the criterion cutoff score C lower the predictor cutoff score and/or raise the criterion cutoff score D lower the predictor cutoff score and/or lower the criterion cutoff score

The Correct Answer is "A" On a job selection test, a "false positive" is someone who is identified by the test as successful but who does not turn out to be successful, as measured by a performance criterion. If you raise the selection test cutoff score, you will reduce false positives, since, by making it harder to "pass" the test, you will be ensuring that the people who do pass are more qualified and therefore more likely to be successful. By lowering the criterion score, what you are in effect doing is making your definition of success more lax. It therefore becomes easier to be considered successful, and many of the people who were false positives will now be considered true positives. If you understand concepts in pictures better than in words, refer to the Test Construction section, where a graph is used to explain this idea

You are investigating whether there is a relationship between the number of years one has been smoking cigarettes and the number of psychotherapy sessions required to quit smoking. The best statistical method to analyze the results is: A chi-square B Pearson r C t-test for independent samples D multiple regression analysis

The Correct Answer is "B" In this case, you are attempting to assess the relationship between two variables that are measured on a continuous (interval or ratio) scale. The Pearson r allows you to do this. The Pearson r is the bivariate (i.e., for two variables) correlation coefficient used when variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale.

Which of the following statements is true regarding electromyograph (EMG) biofeedback? A It is more effective in treating tension headaches than migraine headaches. B It is more effective in treating migraine headaches than tension headaches. C It is equally effective in treating tension headaches and migraine headaches. D It is ineffective in treating tension

The Correct Answer is "A" Overall, biofeedback works equally well for tension and migraine headaches. However, a different modality of biofeedback is used for each of these conditions. EMG biofeedback, in which the person is trained to decrease muscle tension of the facial and/or neck muscles, is the most commonly used modality for biofeedback treatment of tension headaches; this is why A is the best answer. For migraine headaches, thermal hand warming biofeedback, whereby the person is trained to warm his or her hands, is the most commonly used modality

A person whose corpus callosum has been severed will be able to do all of the following except A name an object he cannot see but has felt with his left hand. B say "spoon" when a picture of a spoon is flashed to his right visual field at the same time that a picture of a plate is flashed to his left visual field. C use his left hand to find and match an object that appears in his left visual field. D repeat a sentence that has been whispered into his right ear

The Correct Answer is "A" Remember, the left side of the brain controls the functions of the right side of the body and, in most people, language. Keeping this in mind would have helped you pick the right answer to this question.

A high achiever would most likely attribute failures to A internal, unstable, and controllable factors. B internal, stable, and uncontrollable factors. C external, stable, and controllable factors. D external, unstable, and uncontrollable factors.

The Correct Answer is "A" Research by Weiner and others has suggested that people who have high expectations for future performance (such as high achievers) tend to attribute their failure to a lack of effort. Effort is an internal, unstable, and controllable factor. Most research suggests that of these dimensions, stability is the most important in expectations for future achievement. The idea is that, if you attribute failure to an unstable cause, you must expect that you will not fail in most situations.

An African-American client who is referred to an African-American therapist states that he has been cheated because he is getting sub-standard care. According to the minority identity development model, this person is in which stage of development? A conformity B dissonance C resistance D introspection

The Correct Answer is "A" The Minority Identity Development (MID) model defines five stages of identity development in African-Americans and other minority groups who share an experience of oppression. The stages are Conformity, Dissonance, Resistance and Immersion, Introspection, and Synergistic Articulation and Awareness. In the first stage, Conformity, the person is likely to have strong negative feelings toward one's own culture and strong positive feelings toward the dominant culture. Thus, an African-American who feels cheated by having to see an African-American therapist would likely be in the Conformity stage of development.

An admissions committee is planning to modify its application and admissions policy. They are evaluating the current student enrollment and are interested in the relationship between gender and high school GPA. Which statistical method would be used? A Point biserial correlation B Multiple correlation C Canonical correlation D Tetrachoric correlation

The Correct Answer is "A" The point biserial correlational technique is used when one variable is dichotomous (gender) and one is continuous (high school GPA). Multiple correlation is used when there are two or more predictor variables and a single criterion variable (response "B"). Canonical correlation (response "C") is used when there are two or more predictor variables and two or more criterion variables. Tetrachoric correlation (response "D") is a technique used to estimate the magnitude of the relationship between two continuous variables that have been dichotomized, such as dividing age into two groups: under 40 and over 40.

Discriminant and convergent validity are classified as examples of: A construct validity. B content validity C face validity. D concurrent validity

The Correct Answer is "A" There are many ways to assess the validity of a test. If we correlate our test with another test that is supposed to measure the same thing, we'll expect the two to have a high correlation; if they do, the tests will be said to have convergent validity. If our test has a low correlation with other tests measuring something our test is not supposed to measure, it will be said to have discriminant (or divergent) validity. Convergent and divergent validity are both types of construct validity

The difference between the General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services and the Ethical Principles of Psychologists is that the former: A deals with delivery of services to consumers, and the latter with ethics in general. B deals with clinical practice, and the latter with ethics in general. C deals with consumers, and the latter with providers of psychological services. D is a case analysis of the latter

The Correct Answer is "A" This is a fundamental distinction. The Ethical Principles and Code of Conduct covers the actions and responsibilities of all APA members in teaching, research, clinical work, testing, private practice, administration, government, industry, etc. It's the basic standard of ethics for all of us. The General Guidelines, and the spin off known as Specialty Guidelines, apply only to those psychologists who work in clinical, counseling, school, and industrial psychology. Note that these guidelines apply to the work, not to the person. Hence a research social psychologist who finds herself working as the director of a mental health center now finds her work falling under the province of the General Guidelines. Now if you go back to the question you'll see why A is a better answer than B or C. The General Guidelines refer to all the work of applied psychology and this is subsumed best under alternative A. Choice B mentions only clinical practice, which is only part of what is covered by the Guidelines. And C mentions only consumers, which again isn't quite right: the General Guidelines deal also with agencies, private concerns in industrial areas, third-party payers such as insurance companies, etc.

According to Fiedler's contingency model, a task-oriented leader is most effective when A the task is very structured or very unstructured. B the task is moderately structured. C the employees are either very high or very low in ability. D the employees are moderate in terms of ability level.

The Correct Answer is "A" To answer this question, you need to know that Fiedler referred to task-oriented leaders as "low-LPC" leaders and that he proposed that low-LPC leaders are most effective in very favorable and very unfavorable situations. The favorability of the situation is determined by several factors, including the structure of the task (but not the ability of the employees).

Following a stroke, a person cannot understand language. Although the person can speak clearly, his speech makes no sense. The person is most likely suffering from: A Wernicke's aphasia. B Broca's aphasia. C conduction aphasia. D global aphasia

The Correct Answer is "A" Wernicke's area, in the temporal lobe of the brain, is involved with language comprehension. Lesions in the temporal lobe may produce Wernicke's aphasia, which is associated with impaired comprehension of language, fluent aphasia (clear speech that makes little or no sense), and dysnomia (inability to name objects). Broca's aphasia, which may occur following lesions in the frontal lobe, is associated with nonfluent aphasia -- the person would not be able to speak clearly. In conduction aphasia, which is a lesion of the pathway between Wernicke's and Broca's area, the person can speak clearly and understand language but cannot repeat what he or she has heard

In brief psychodynamically-oriented therapy: A positive transferences are encouraged and are viewed as essential to treatment progress. B positive and negative transferences are encouraged early in treatment to ensure that a transference neurosis develops. C positive and negative transferences are both discouraged because of the here-and-now focus of the treatment. D negative transferences are encouraged because they are more likely than positive transferences to produce useful information for interpretation.

The Correct Answer is "A" Brief and long-term psychodynamic psychotherapy share a number of characteristics. A primary difference is that, in brief psychotherapy, a full-scale transference neurosis is discouraged. However, positive transference is seen as an important contributor to therapy progress

The concordance rate for IQ between children and adopted parents is around A .17. B .33. C .50. D .60.

The Correct Answer is "A" The concordance rate for unrelated people living in a similar environment, into which category this question falls, is around .17. As the genetics get more similar, of course the rate increases, as you'd expect.

A psychologist wants to study the effectiveness of a new treatment she developed to reduce self-mutilative behaviors in patients with Borderline Personality Disorder. She plans to use a single-subject design but, if effective, she does not want to withdraw the treatment due to the potential harm that could result. She should, therefore, use which of the following research designs: A ABAB B multiple baseline C reversal D latin square

The Correct Answer is "B" A multiple baseline design is a single-subject design in which an independent variable is sequentially administered across two or more subjects, behaviors, or settings (i.e., across "baselines"). The multiple baseline design has the advantage of not having to withdraw the treatment once it has been applied to a baseline. Reversal designs, on the other hand, such as the ABA or ABAB designs have a second baseline (the second "A"), during which the treatment is withdrawn. The latin square design is not a single-subject design. Rather, it uses many subjects who are all administered all levels of an independent variable, but the order of administration varies between subjects or subgroups of subjects.

Which of the following is one of the first signs of AIDS-related dementia? A loss of abstract thinking functions B mild memory loss for recent events C seizures D apathy

The Correct Answer is "B" AIDS dementia complex occurs in about 2/3 of all AIDS patients. Usually, one of the first cognitive signs of dementia (both in AIDS and non-AIDS patients) is a loss of concentration and a mild memory loss, especially for recent events

In addition to the Vocabulary subtest, which of the following Wechsler subtests are least susceptible to brain damage and, therefore, useful for assessing premorbid intelligence? A Similarities and Picture Completion B Information and Picture Completion C Block Design and Object Assembly D Information and Arithmetic

The Correct Answer is "B" Although scores on the Vocabulary, Information, and Picture Completion subtests can be suppressed by certain types of brain injury, they are considered to be most resistant to brain injury and, therefore, the best indicators of premorbid intelligence.

The item difficulty ("p") index yields information about the difficulty of test items in terms of a(n) _________ scale of measurement. A nominal B ordinal C interval D ratio

The Correct Answer is "B" An item difficulty index indicates the percentage of individuals who answer a particular item correctly. For example, if an item has a difficulty index of .80, it means that 80% of test-takers answered the item correctly. Although it appears that the item difficulty index is a ratio scale of measurement, according to Anastasi (1982) it is actually an ordinal scale because it does not necessarily indicate equivalent differences in difficulty

When looking at an item characteristic curve (ICC), which of the following provides information about how well the item discriminates between high and low achievers? A the Y-intercept B the slope of the curve C the position of the curve (left versus right) D the position of the curve (top versus bottom)

The Correct Answer is "B" An item response curve provides one to three pieces of information about a test item - its difficulty (answer C); its ability to discriminate between high and low scorers (answer B); and the probability of answering the item correctly just by guessing (answer A).

Meyer's (2003) minority stress model identifies distal and proximal factors that contribute to mental health outcomes in gay, lesbian, and bisexual populations. A proximal stressor from the model is: A homonegativism B internalized homophobia C minority group status D discrimination and violence

The Correct Answer is "B" B. Meyer's minority stress model distinguishes between distal factors, which are external, objective events and conditions, and proximal factors, which are an individual's perceptions and appraisals of events and conditions. The minority stress model identifies three proximal stressors -- expectations of rejection, concealment of sexual orientation, and internalized homophobia (b.). Minority group status (c.) and exposure to "prejudice events" such as discrimination and violence (d.) are identified as a distal events or as an "environmental circumstance" in Meyer's model. Prejudice, discrimination (d.) and stigma were linked with mental health problems. Homonegativism (a.) refers to the beliefs and values of prejudiced individuals and is not part of the minority stress model. [Meyer, I.H. (2003) Prejudice, social stress, and mental health in lesbian, gay, and bisexual populations: Conceptual issues and research evidence, Psychological Bulletin, 129(5), 674-697.]

Psychodiagnostic tests such as the WAIS-III are commonly utilized to assist in the diagnosis of traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which of the following WAIS-III factor indices is most likely to be impacted by traumatic brain injury? A Perceptual Organization B Processing Speed C Verbal Comprehension D Working Memory

The Correct Answer is "B" B. The Processing Speed score is most negatively impacted by traumatic brain injury, especially for individuals with moderate to severe TBI. The Working Memory (d.) score tends to be less adversely affected than the Processing Speed score and Perceptual Organization is less affected than Processing Speed or Working Memory. (See, e.g., D. Fisher et al., WAIS-III and WMS-III profiles of mildly to severely brain-injured patients, Applied Neuropsychology, 2000, 7(3), 126-132; and P. van der Heijden and J. Donders, WAIS-III factor index score patterns after traumatic brain injury, Assessment, 2003, 10(2), 115-122.)

Several demographic characteristics are associated with the risk of divorce. According to the National Survey of Family Growth (2002), divorce rates are highest for women who: A have a higher level of education and marry at a younger age B have a lower level of education and marry at a younger age C have a higher level of education and marry at an older age D have a lower level of education and marry at an older age

The Correct Answer is "B" B. The likelihood of a marriage ending in divorce varies based on age at marriage, income, education, length of marriage, race and other factors distinguished in the National Survey of Family Growth. The survey data indicates that rates of divorce are highest for women who marry at a younger age, have a lower level of education, had a child when she got married, have a lower income or live in a community with low family income, or have no religious affiliation. (See: Bramlett, M.D. & Mosher, W.D. (2002) Cohabitation, Marriage, Divorce, and Remarriage in the United States. National Center for Health Statistics. Vital Health Statistics, 23(22).)

*Differing locus of control and locus of responsibility combinations yield the four worldviews described by Sue and Sue (2003). Mainstream American culture would best be characterized by an: A internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility B internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility C external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility D external locus of control and external locus of responsibility

The Correct Answer is "B" B. Worldview refers to the manner in which people perceive, evaluate and react to encountered situations. Sue and Sue describe mainstream American culture "as the epitome of the individual-centered approach that emphasizes uniqueness, independence and self-reliance" (p.277). This is characterized by an internal locus of control and locus of responsibility in Sue, D.W. & Sue, D. (2003). Counseling the culturally diverse: Theory and practice. 4th edition. New York: John Wiley.

In designing a research study, you take a number of steps that have the effect of reducing beta. This means that you have reduced the probability of: A retaining a true null hypothesis. B retaining a false null hypothesis. C rejecting a true null hypothesis. D rejecting a false null hypothesis

The Correct Answer is "B" Beta is the probability of making a Type II error, or of retaining a false null hypothesis. In plain language, it is the probability of failing to detect a true effect

Children with Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder are most likely to score lowest on which subtest of the WISC-III? A block design B digit span C information D similarities

The Correct Answer is "B" Children with ADHD have been found to score lowest in the digit span and arithmetic subtests of the WISC-III. Indeed, these two subtests make up the Freedom From Distractibility index which measures distractibility, concentration, and short-term memory. Although children with ADHD tend to score lower in digit span and arithmetic, researchers have cautioned against using the WISC-III as a diagnostic tool for ADHD (A. Anastopoulos, M. Spisto, & M. Maher. The WISC--III freedom from distractibility factor: Its utility in identifying children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Psychological Assessment, 1994, 6(4), 368-371).

According to DSM-IV, patients who meet some but not all of the criteria for a particular diagnosis can still be assigned that diagnosis. This reflects the fact that: A DSM-IV relies on a dimensional rather than a categorical approach to diagnosis. B DSM-IV relies on a categorical rather than a dimensional approach to diagnosis. C DSM-IV combines aspects of categorical and dimensional diagnosis. D DSM-IV's approach to diagnostic classification is not valid.

The Correct Answer is "B" DSM-IV uses a categorical approach to diagnosis. This means that mental disorders are divided into types based on criteria sets with defining features. An alternative to the categorical approach would be a dimensional approach, which would involve quantifying patients' symptoms based on their severity. Some have suggested that the categorical approach is inappropriate for diagnosis of mental disorders because it misleadingly suggests that the categories of disorders and individuals within the same category are homogeneous in all relevant ways. To provide some degree of compensation for these limitations, DSM-IV diagnoses often include a polythetic criteria set, which means that, for a diagnosis to be made, a person may present with some but not all of the diagnostic criteria. In addition, DSM-IV reminds the clinician to include other information besides diagnoses in evaluation reports

In the analysis of the effects of two independent variables, multiple regression analysis is sometimes used as a substitute for the factorial ANOVA. One advantage of using multiple regression as opposed to a factorial ANOVA is that: A multiple regression analysis can be used for multiple dependent variables as well as multiple independent variables. B continuous or categorical data (as opposed to solely categorical data) can be used to measure the independent variables in multiple regression analysis. C the use of multiple regression allows one to estimate the probability that obtained differences on the dependent variable between groups represent true population differences. D when multiple regression is used and a significant result is obtained, the conclusion that there is a causal relationship between the independent variables and the dependent variables is more plausible

The Correct Answer is "B" One limitation of the ANOVA technique is that independent variables must be divided into categories for the analysis to be conducted. In multiple regression, the researcher has the choice of using categories or continuous data (e.g., scores on a test) to measure the independent variables. This is considered an advantage of regression, because it allows for the data to provide more precise and specific information about the variables being measured. Choice A is not true of multiple regression; it is designed for use with one dependent variable only. Choice D is also not true; the strength of the conclusion that variables are causally related depends on the research design, not the statistical analysis. And choice C is true of both multiple regression and ANOVA, since they are both inferential statistical methods.

A father brings his 10-year-old son to a psychologist for therapy due to symptoms of depression. The father states that the boy's symptoms began shortly after the parents separated several months ago. The boy is currently living with his father. The father further states that he only wants help for his son and does not want any report or testimony from the psychologist for the divorce proceedings. The psychologist should: A have both parents sign an agreement that neither will require the psychologist to provide a report or testimony about the child's therapy B contact the parents' attorneys to clarify the psychologist's role C refuse to treat the child unless you can evaluate both parents D provide therapy for the child but do not maintain any records that could be subpoenaed

The Correct Answer is "B" Ethical Standard 10.02(b) states, "If it becomes apparent that psychologists may be called on to perform potentially conflicting roles (such as family therapist and then witness for one party in divorce proceedings), psychologists take reasonable steps to clarify and modify, or withdraw from, roles appropriately." Although the patient's father has indicated that he does not want a report or testimony from the psychologist, it would be more prudent to clarify the psychologist's role with the attorneys of each of the parents. Having the parents sign an agreement as suggested in "A" does imply a clarification of the psychologist's role, but it may not be legally binding or in the child's best interests and is not as good a choice as "B." Choice "C" is incorrect because although it is necessary to evaluate all members of a family before making recommendations regarding child custody, in this case, it is therapy that is requested, not a custody evaluation. Finally, "D" is incorrect because psychologists must maintain adequate records

During an evening interview, a client displays incoherence, disorientation, distractibility, fragmented delusions, and impaired recent memory. When the client is seen the next morning, his symptoms have remitted. The MOST likely diagnosis for this patient is: A amnestic disorder B delirium C brief psychotic disorder D substance intoxication

The Correct Answer is "B" Even though there is no evidence of an underlying medical condition or substance use, delirium is the best response based on the information about the symptoms and their duration. Delirium involves a disturbance in consciousness with a change in cognition or the development of perceptual abnormalities. An individual exhibits a reduced awareness of his environment, shifts in attention, and distractibility, and changes in cognition can include memory loss, disorientation to time and place, and impaired language. Associated perceptual abnormalities can include illusions, hallucinations, or other misperceptions. As in this case, the symptoms of delirium usually fluctuate in the course of a day, and depending on the cause of the disorder, may remit within a few hours or persist for weeks. Response "D" may have been difficult to rule out as the symptoms could represent a substance-induced delirium; however the symptoms appear to be in excess of symptoms usually associated with "substance intoxication" or an intoxication syndrome. In contrast to brief psychotic disorder (response "C"), this client's psychotic symptoms fluctuate, are fragmented, and occur in the context of reduced awareness of the environment, shifts in attention, and distractibility which are associated with delirium. An amnestic disorder (response "A") is not diagnosed if memory difficulties occur in the course of delirium, or as with this client, the memory impairment is accompanied by reduced consciousness or other cognitive deficits.

During a grand mal seizure, the clonic phase involves A minor abrupt movements of the eyelids, facial muscles, and arms. B violent rhythmic contractions of the extremities. C extension of the extremities. D nonrhythmic jerks of the head, limbs, and trunk

The Correct Answer is "B" Grand mal seizures involve a tonic phase (extension of the limbs), which is then followed by a clonic phase (violent rhythmic contractions).

The correlation obtained between two tests supposedly measuring the same ability will be affected most by the: A time of day during which the tests are taken. B reliability of the tests used. C whether raw scores or standard scores are used as data. D ranges of abilities tested

The Correct Answer is "B" If a test's reliability is low, the scores obtained will not be accurate. You will get too much error. If you compare two tests with a lot of error in them, you will not get an accurate prediction of their relationship. Remember that low reliabilities of measures used on the predictor or on the criterion measures will restrict your obtained correlation

Rationalist, cognitive therapy is most likely to involve A relaxation training, systematic desensitization, and guided imagery. B cognitive restructuring, reducing automatic thoughts, and thought stopping. C a focus on unconscious and developmental processes. D stress inoculation training, self-instruction, and stimulus control.

The Correct Answer is "B" In the literature, a distinction has been made between rationalist and constructivist cognitive therapies. Rationalist therapies are based on the assumptions that irrationality is the primary source of neurotic pathology, that explicit beliefs and logical reasoning can serve as a guide to emotion and behavior, and that the core process in effective therapy is the substitution of rational for irrational thought. The techniques described in choice B are all designed to increase rational thought processes and/or decrease irrational thinking; thus, they are most in line with the assumptions of rationalist cognitive therapy. As compared to rationalist therapy, constructivist cognitive therapy is based on more complex and abstract assumptions, in which unconscious, developmental, and interactional processes are emphasized. You might have been thrown off by the word "rationalist" in the question. If so, it would have been best to answer the question as if it were about cognitive therapy in general. The best answer would still be B.

The mother of a 3-year old has been told her daughter is very gifted. She wants to encourage the child's abilities and asks you, a school psychologist, to assess the girl's IQ score level and suggest a plan for her future education. You should: A comply with the request. B comply with the request, but inform the mother that test results at this age are not very valid as predictors of future performance. C suggest that the test not be given, but agree to help the mother in deciding on the future educational plans for her child. D inform the mother that there are no standardized valid tests available for children of such a young age

The Correct Answer is "B" In this case there is nothing wrong with you testing the child and tests are available. But you should also use your knowledge and judgment to counsel the mother about the use of tests for such a young child. While it's true that there is some predictive validity for intelligence tests starting at about 18 months to 2 years of age, you should still tell the mother that many things will determine her daughter's future school performance and that we can't be so sure she will continue as she presently is.

A psychologist who is very fearful of getting sued decides for this reason that he will not treat any patients with a diagnosis of Borderline Personality Disorder. The psychologist's actions are: A unethical, assuming that the psychologist is competent to treat such patients. B ethical as long as appropriate referrals are provided. C ethical regardless of whether appropriate referrals are made. D unethical, because it is inappropriate to consider the possibility of getting sued in making any clinical or treatment decision

The Correct Answer is "B" Psychologists and other health professionals have no legal or ethical obligation to enter into a professional relationship. Though they cannot discriminate on the basis of race, gender, sexual orientation, or any basis proscribed by law, they can refuse to enter into a relationship based on a client's diagnosis -- even if they are competent to treat individuals with that diagnosis and even if their reasons for doing so are not valid. However, if they do refuse to take a case, psychologists are required to make appropriate referrals.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of reframing in family therapy? A It is a paradoxical technique designed to harness the family's resistance in the service of positive behavioral change. B It is designed to increase the family's compliance with the therapist's directives and the treatment plan in general. C It is designed to restore the family's homeostasis, or "balance." D It is designed to increase the family's ability to differentiate intellectual from emotional functioning.

The Correct Answer is "B" Reframing is a technique of family therapy, especially structural and strategic family therapy. It involves relabeling or redefining a problem behavior in order to get the family to see it in a new light. For example, a therapist might tell a family that a child who frequently "talks back" is expressing insecurity and the need for love, rather than anger and disrespect. The purpose of reframing is usually to increase the family's compliance with treatment. In the example given, reframing might increase the family members' willingness to make changes in their own behavior, rather than focusing only on the identified patient.

Michael Rutter, a key figure in the field of developmental psychopathology, notes that parental divorce does not have the same effects on all children. According to Rutter, such differences are related to: A the child's cognitive understanding of the causes of the divorce. B the child's early social interactions, especially interactions with his or her parents. C the nature of the parents' relationship following the divorce. D the custodial parent's social support and financial status

The Correct Answer is "B" Rutter and others interested in developmental psychopathology have attempted to identify the factors that account for the continuities and discontinuities in child psychopathology. Rutter has focused primarily on variations in social relationships that act as high risk or protective factors

A therapist working from the perspective of Minuchin's school of thought would examine a family system in terms of A multigenerational transmission processes. B subsystems and boundaries. C fusion and differentiation. D communication style

The Correct Answer is "B" Salvador Minuchin's Structural Family Therapy is based on and extends general family systems theory. The goal is to restructure maladaptive family structures, including family subsystems and boundaries

A woman seeks help from a psychologist in dealing with her 12-year-old daughter who has been misbehaving lately. The mother says that the daughter has not been listening to her and last week cursed at her mother. The mother reacted by slapping her daughter which left a bruise. The mother feels very remorseful about it and says that she has never done anything like that before. The psychologist should: A insist that the woman attend anger management classes B report the incident to a child protective services agency before the end of the session C monitor the situation and report any further abuse incidents to a child protective services agency D seek consultation

The Correct Answer is "B" State laws require mandated reporters to report any reasonable suspicion of child abuse. Abuse generally includes, but is not limited to, physical injury that is inflicted upon a child by other than accidental means. The reporting laws do not provide exceptions for those who are remorseful or first-time offenders. Although the reporting laws do not require the reporter to inform the abuser of the report, or to involve him or her in making the report, it is often clinically useful to do so. Referral to anger management classes (A) might be appropriate, but the psychologist should not insist upon it and the psychologist must still meet the reporting requirements

You belong to a managed-care panel and a client with a 12-session limit was referred to you. Without calling to cancel, she does not show up for her fourth session. How would you bill for the missed session? A bill the insurance company B bill the client according to office policies C bill the client for the co-payment and the insurance company for the no-show D you cannot bill either the client or insurance company

The Correct Answer is "B" The best answer is that you should bill according to your office policies which, presumably, was explained and agreed to by the client at the beginning of treatment (Standard 6.04: Fees and Financial Arrangements). If charging the client for the missed session was not agreed upon in advance, this would be unethical (which response "D" suggests). Responses "A" and "D" are correct in stating that you cannot bill the insurance company, since you should only bill insurance for services that you actually provide (Standard 6.06: Accuracy in Reports to Payors and Funding Sources). While your financial agreement may or may not require the client to cover the co-payment for missed sessions (response "C"), Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes do not provide a code for no-shows, and billing for services not rendered is unethical.

The cognitive outcomes of malnutrition during the final months of prenatal development are severe because: A malnutrition causes degeneration of existing neurons. B malnutrition interferes with the development of new neurons and the connections between neurons. C malnutrition reduces the production of certain neurotransmitters. D malnutrition leads to the development of deformed, nonfunctional neurons.

The Correct Answer is "B" The brain is the last organ to develop, which means that the last few months of prenatal development are most critical. Malnutrition during the final months can lead to irreversible damage due to the fact that it interferes with the development of new neurons and dendrites, which connect the neurons

Which of the following client's rights are protected in a court of law? A A second opinion B Tarasoff C Right of confidentiality D Right to receive medication

The Correct Answer is "C" A client's right to confidentiality is protected by a court of law. The client's right to keep his/her matters confidential is referred to as privilege. The court also determines exceptions to privilege, such as the Tarasoff Statute

For children of divorce, frequent visitation with the noncustodial father usually results in: A fewer behavioral problems among boys but not girls and higher academic achievement among girls but not boys B fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement if the noncustodial father is supportive and authoritative C fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement regardless of the characteristics of the noncustodial father D fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement regardless of the parent's level of conflict

The Correct Answer is "B" The effects of visitation on children's adjustment following divorce are dependent upon several factors, including the quality of the relationship between the divorced parents and certain attributes and behaviors of the noncustodial parent. Specifically, frequent visitation with the noncustodial father has been found to result in fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement, especially in boys, when the father was supportive, authoritative, and lacked any significant problems in adjustment, and when the child was not exposed to high levels of conflict between the parents [See: E. M. Hetherington, An overview of the Virginia Longitudinal Study of Divorce and Remarriage with a focus on early adolescence, Journal of Family Psychology,7(1), 1993, 39-56].

If you wanted to compare the average depression level (as measured by the number of scored responses given on a depression inventory) of anorexic females to that of non-anorexic females, you would use which of the following statistical tests? A two-way ANOVA B student's t-test C chi-square D Kolmogorov

The Correct Answer is "B" The t-test (which is also known as student's t-test) is the appropriate statistical test to use when comparing two means. A two-way ANOVA (A) would be used to compare means from a study with two independent variables; in this case, there is only one independent variable (diagnosis) with two levels (anorexic vs. non-anorexic). A chi-square (C) test is used when the data from a study is frequency of observations within categories, as opposed to (as in this case) mean scores of groups. Finally, the Kolmogorov, an infrequently used test, is used with ordinal data (e.g., ranks).

Which of the following statements is not true regarding concurrent validity? A It is used to establish criterion-related validity. B It is appropriate for tests designed to assess a person's future status on a criterion. C It is obtained by collecting predictor and criterion scores at about the same time. D It indicates the extent to which a test yields the same results as other measures of the same phenomenon.

The Correct Answer is "B" There are two ways to establish the criterion-related validity of a test: concurrent validation and predictive validation. In concurrent validation, predictor and criterion scores are collected at about the same time; by contrast, in predictive validation, predictor scores are collected first and criterion data are collected at some future point. Concurrent validity indicates the extent to which a test yields the same results as other measures of the same phenomenon. For example, if you developed a new test for depression, you might administer it along with the BDI and measure the concurrent validity of the two tests.

Which of the following is the most common functional disorder in the elderly? A Delusional Disorder B Depressive Disorder C Dementia D Bipolar Disorder

The Correct Answer is "B" To answer this question, it helps to know what the term "functional disorder" means. It is actually a somewhat outdated term: the DSM-III-R distinguished organic mental disorders, which are due to a known physiological cause, from functional disorders, which may or may not have a physiological component but are not directly caused by a known physiological factor. The DSM-IV divides what were previously called organic disorders into two categories: Mental Disorders Due to a General Medical Condition and Substance-Induced Disorders; disorders that don't fit into either of these categories are called primary mental disorders. Anyhow, this question illustrates that you sometimes have to be familiar with terms that are no longer part of the "official" lingo. Of the remaining choices, the prevalence of Depressive Disorders in the elderly is 5-10%, the prevalence of Delusional Disorder is approximately 4%, and the prevalence of Bipolar Disorder is 1%. So "B" is the correct answer

Which of the following statements is most consistent with Troiden's (1989) model of gay and lesbian identity development? A Identity confusion and identity assumption begin somewhat earlier for females than males, but identity commitment begins earlier for males than females. B identity confusion, identity assumption, and identity commitment begin somewhat earlier for males than females. C Identity confusion, identity assumption, and identity commitment begin somewhat earlier for females than males. D There are no gender differences in the age of onset for homosexual identity development.

The Correct Answer is "B" Troiden's (1989) model of homosexual identity development describes four stages: Sensitization, identity confusion, identity assumption, and identity commitment. Sensitization begins before puberty and consists of homosexual feelings or experiences without an understanding of them in terms of self-identity. Identity confusion, which usually develops in adolescent males around 17 years and in females around 18 when they realize that they may be homosexual. During identity assumption, the individual comes out as a homosexual - typically from 19-21 years for males and 21-23 for females. Identity commitment is characterized by the individual adopting a homosexual lifestyle - which usually occurs from 21-24 years for males and 22-23 for females [The formation of homosexual identities, Journal of Homosexuality, 17(1/2), 43-73].

According to DSM-IV, which of the following types of dementia is most common among those over the age of 65? A Vascular Dementia B Alzheimer's Type C Substance-Induced Persisting Dementia D Dementia due to Head Traum

The Correct Answer is "B" Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type is the most common type of dementia among older adults, and the rate of Alzheimer's increases with increasing age. About 20% of people over the age of 85 have this disorder

In a study, subjects are asked to memorize a list of 12 unrelated words. After a brief period of time, they are asked to count backwards from 100 and are then tested on the word list. These subjects are A the experimental subjects in a study on retroactive interference. B the control subjects in a study on retroactive interference. C the experimental subjects in a study on proactive interference. D the control subjects in a study on proactive interference.

The Correct Answer is "B" Knowing the difference between retroactive and proactive interference would have helped you narrow the choices down to responses A and B. (In retroactive interference subsequent learning interferes with previous learning). In studies on retroactive interference, experimental subjects learn material similar to the original list, while control subjects engage in a dissimilar activity (e.g., counting backwards) that keeps them from rehearsing the list

According to APA's Record Keeping Guidelines, client records: A may not be maintained in electronic media B may not be exclusively maintained in electronic media C may be maintained in a variety of media D may be maintained in electronic media if write-protected software is used which prevents changes from being made after initial data storage.

The Correct Answer is "C" According to APA's Record Keeping Guidelines, client "records may be maintained in a variety of media, so long as their utility, confidentiality and durability are assured" (1993, 48 (9), 984-986).

Self-perception theory proposes that people base their: A beliefs on their feelings B behaviors on their attitudes C attitudes on their behaviors D attitudes on their feelings

The Correct Answer is "C" Bem's self-perception theory contradicts the more intuitive belief that we make conclusions about ourselves based solely on internal states. Based on the work of B. F. Skinner, Bem's self-perception theory proposes that when internal cues are weak or difficult to interpret, we rely on observations of our behavior and/or circumstances in which this behavior

Self-conscious emotions like pride, shame or embarrassment begin to be exhibited by children between the ages of: A 3-9 months B 6-12 months C 18-24 months D 30-36 months

The Correct Answer is "C" C. Between 18 and 24 months, the sense of self emerges and children begin expressing self-conscious emotions. The emergence of self-conscious emotions is a predictable milestone in the sequence of stages during emotional development. (See: L. Berk, Development Through the Lifespan, Boston, Allyn & Bacon, 2004.)

A Caucasian comes to a stage where he does not want to have racist views. According to Helms, which stage of identity development is this person in? A Reintegration B Pseudo-independence C Immersion-Emersion D Autonomy

The Correct Answer is "C" C. Janet Helms (1984) originally developed her White and People of Color Racial Identity Model to try and help resolve interracial tension in cross cultural psychotherapy. She developed a white racial identity model that reflects abandonment of racism and the development of a nonracist white identity. At the Immersion-Emersion level of identity development, people embrace their whiteness without rejecting members of minority groups and attempt to determine how they can feel proud of their own race without being racist. In "A" Reintegration, people resolve their conflicts by adopting the position that whites are superior. In Pseudo-Independence, "B", people become dissatisfied with reintegration and re-examine their beliefs about racial inequalities. In "D", Autonomy, Whites internalize a nonracist white identity and seek out cross-racial interactions.

According to Rollins and Feldman, marital satisfaction across the lifespan: A follows a linear pattern of gradually increasing satisfaction over time B follows a linear pattern of gradually decreasing satisfaction over time C follows a U-shaped pattern of gradually decreasing satisfaction over the first decade then gradually increasing over time. D does not follow a consistent pattern of satisfaction over time

The Correct Answer is "C" C. Rollins and Feldman (1970) found marital satisfaction tends to be greatest at the beginning and at the end of the family life cycle, in other words, a U-shaped relationship between length of marriage and satisfaction. The arrival of children or adolescents in the family was associated with increased dissatisfaction, but children leaving home and being of retirement age were associated with increased satisfaction. However, more recent evidence suggests that, on average, marital satisfaction may not follow a U-shaped pattern but instead decreases markedly over the first ten years and then drops more gradually over time (See: Glenn, N. D. (1998). The course of marital success and failure in five American 10-year marriage cohorts. Journal of Marriage and the Family, 60, 569-576. Vaillant, C. O., & Vaillant, G. E. (1993). Is the U-curve of marital satisfaction an illusion? A 40-year study of marriage. Journal of Marriage and the Family, 55, 230-239.)

*While studying the use of journaling in the treatment of depression, a researcher finds only individuals with good writing ability benefit from journaling. Writing ability is a(n): A outcome variable B mediating variable C moderator variable D feedback variable

The Correct Answer is "C" C. The strength of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables is affected by a moderator variable. Writing ability is moderating the effects of journaling on the treatment of depression. Outcome variable (a.) is another term for dependent variable. A mediating variable (c.) is affected by the independent variable and affects the dependent. It is responsible for an observed relationship between an independent variable and a dependent (outcome) variable. A feedback variable (d.) is an unrelated term

Decreased amounts of GABA are most associated with: A depression B eating disorders C Huntington's Disease D Raynaud's Disease

The Correct Answer is "C" Gamma Amino Butyric Acid (GABA) is the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Low levels of GABA have been linked to several disorders, including Huntington's Disease, Parkinson's Disease, and anxiety disorders

According to Holland's personality typology, a person's personality type indicates the: A person's unconscious occupational abilities B one occupation the person is capable of performing C occupational environment in which the person would be most satisfied and productive D person's occupational interests, but does not predict job satisfaction

The Correct Answer is "C" Holland classified six personality types and occupational environments, and proposed that the closer the match, or "congruence" between them, the more likely the person will be satisfied, productive, and will stay in that environment. Contrary to A, Holland's personality types are based on self-perceived (not unconscious) abilities and interests. B is incorrect because Holland's typology indicates more than one occupation the person might be capable of performing

Research suggests that, generally speaking, individuals who migrate to the United States from another country would be most likely to experience symptoms of psychiatric disorders: A immediately before they migrate to the United States. B immediately after they arrive in the United States. C about one or two years after they arrive in the United States. D five years or more after they arrive in the United States

The Correct Answer is "C" In general, psychiatric disorders among immigrants and refugees are most frequent somewhere between the end of the first year through the third year after they immigrate to this country. This observation is related to what has been termed the "social displacement syndrome." This is the tendency of immigrants to initially experience elation and optimism, followed by a period of frustration, depression, and confusion as the reality of the adjustments required by their new lives sets in

Personal reality and common reality were defined by: A Ginzberg's Stages of Career Development B Super's Career and Life Development C Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman's Decision Making Model D Gottfredson's Theory of Career Development

The Correct Answer is "C" Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman defined personal authoritative reality as what feels right to the individual and common reality as what the individual is told they should do. This was an expansion on Tiedeman and O'Hare's Decision Making Model. The other responses also represent stage theories of career choice. Ginzberg's theory contains three periods (fantasy, tentative, and realistic) with sub-stages corresponding to ages preteen through the early 20's. (See: Ginzberg, E., Ginzberg, S.W., Axelrad, S., & Herman, J.L. (1951). Occupational Choice: an approach to a general theory. New York: Columbia University Press; Ginzberg, E. (1972). Toward a theory of occupational choice: A restatement. Vocational Guidance Quarterly, 20, 169-176.) Super's stages continue across the life-span. In Gottfredson's theory, there are four stages of cognitive development: orientation to size and power; orientation to sex roles; influence of social class; introspection and perceptiveness. The first stage typically begins around age 3 and the last in mid-adolescence. The theory addresses how gender and prestige influence and limit career choice. (See: Gottfredson, L.S. (1981). Circumscription and compromise: A developmental theory of occupational aspirations. Journal of Counseling Psychology, 28, 545-579.)

*Minuchin, the founder of structural family therapy, defines "triangulation" as occurring when A the child and one parent "gang up" on the other parent. B the parents either consistently attack or protect the child. C each parent demands that the child side with him/her. D two members of the family consistently challenge the therapist's authority

The Correct Answer is "C" Minuchin defines three types of "rigid triangles" that involve chronic boundary disturbances - triangulation (answer C); detouring (answer B); and a stable coalition (answer A).

A young child is brought in by his parents because he is having difficulty sleeping through the night. He wakes up frequently, crying that "the big monster" is chasing him. The preliminary diagnosis is: A primary insomnia B sleep terror disorder C nightmare disorder D sleepwalking disorder

The Correct Answer is "C" Nightmare disorder is marked by repeated awakenings accompanied by detailed recollection of frightening dreams. According to DSM-IV-TR, the dream content commonly focuses on imminent physical danger to the person such as pursuit, attack, or injury. Sleep terror disorder (response "B") involves episodes of abrupt awakening, usually with a panicky scream; however, a dream is not recalled

Your client has been injured in a car wreck and now reports that he has "lost his sense of touch." At what level has the spinal injury most likely occurred? A L1 B S1 to S3 C C8 to T1 D T2 to T3

The Correct Answer is "C" T1 is the first level of the thoracic spinal cord and innervates the hand and arm. C8 innerverates the ring and little fingers. L1 (answer A) refers to the lumbar region which contains nerves that affect to hip, thigh, and leg. S1 to S3 (answer B) is referring to the sacral region which innerverates parts of the foot and leg. T2 to T3 is referring to the lower thoracic region which innervates the trunk. It would be good to know that the spinal cord is divided into four regions: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral

Damage to the hippocampus would most likely result in deficits in: A sensory memory B short-term memory C long-term memory D implicit memory

The Correct Answer is "C" The hippocampus is believed to be responsible for memory consolidation, or the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory. Sensory memory (A) is thought to be stored at the sense organs. Short-term memory (B) is associated with the prefrontal cortex. And implicit memory (D), although a type of long-term memory, is less affected by damage to the hippocampus than other types of long-term memory.

Damage to the orbitofrontal cortex is most likely to result in: A impaired depth perception B impaired motor coordination C altered emotional behaviors D left-right confusion

The Correct Answer is "C" The orbitofrontal cortex is part of the prefrontal cortex located just above the eye sockets. Damage to the orbitofrontal cortex is most likely to alter emotional behavior. The orbitofrontal cortex is believed to play a role in excitability, behavioral inhibition, personality, and judgment. The famous case of Phineas Gage, the 19th century railroad worker who survived an iron rod shooting through his head, suffered damage to his orbitofrontal cortex which is believed to have caused changes in his emotions and behaviors.

The discrimination hypothesis, frustration theory, and sequential theory are alternative explanations for the reason why A organisms exhibit experimental neurosis when presented with difficult discriminations during classical conditioning trials. B organisms do not respond to punishment when it is initially presented at low intensity and then gradually increased in intensity. C organisms respond for a longer period of time during extinction trials when they were previously reinforced on an intermittent schedule than when they were reinforced on a continuous schedule. D organisms often exhibit a temporary increase in one reinforced behavior when reinforcement for another previously-reinforced behavior is withdrawn.

The Correct Answer is "C" This is a difficult question because it asks about some rather obscure theories. So this is one of those questions you wouldn't want to spend too much time trying to figure out on the actual exam. Now you know, though -- these theories are all explanations for the "partial reinforcement effect."

For the WISC-III, which of the following would have the lowest reliability? A Verbal IQ score B Performance IQ score C subtest scores D Verbal-Performance difference score

The Correct Answer is "D" If you take a difference between two scores, you are, obviously, using two measures. Since each is less than 100% reliable, you are going to compound the total error variance (i.e., the total unreliability). The error contained in both tests would exist in the difference score. Thus, using two measures which are less than perfectly reliable, you will end up with a score which is less reliable than either of the two you started with.

Individuals with Major Depressive Disorders who experience abnormalities in the sleep cycle may have any of the following sleep disturbances EXCEPT: A early morning awakening B sleep continuity decrease C REM latency decrease D slow-wave sleep increase

The Correct Answer is "D" D. Depression is associated with decreased slow-wave or non-REM sleep as well as, early morning waking (a.), decreased sleep continuity (b.) and earlier onset of REM sleep or decreased REM latency (c.).

You are treating a client, a five-year old girl, with the consent of her father. After five sessions, you receive a call from the girl's mother, who tells you that she is the custodial parent, that the father is a non-custodial parent, and that she doesn't want her daughter seeing you for therapy. You believe that it's in the girl's best interest to continue treatment. Assuming that the mother's statement is truthful, you should: A terminate therapy immediately. B refuse to stop therapy, since it's in the girl's best interest to continue. C urge the mother to consent to a few additional sessions, so you can terminate appropriately with the child. D tell the mother to work out the problem with the father, but in the meantime, continue to see the girl for therapy.

The Correct Answer is "C" This is a good example of a conflict between ethical and legal obligations. Your ethical obligation is to serve the best interests of the child, but legally, you cannot proceed with treatment if the custodial parent does not give you consent to do so. The Ethics Code is instructive in such situations: Standard 1.02 states that "If psychologists' ethical responsibilities conflict with law, regulations, or other governing legal authority, psychologists make known their commitment to the Ethics Code and take steps to resolve the conflict. If the conflict is unresolvable via such means, psychologists may adhere to the requirements of the law, regulations, or other governing legal authority." Thus, you could not just terminate without attempting to advocate for the patient; you also could not continue to treat the child without the mother's consent, because violating the law is not consistent with resolving the conflict in a responsible manner. Thus, your best option is to explain to the mother why you believe that immediate termination could harm the child and urge her to let you continue seeing the girl for a few more sessions.

The validity coefficient of a new job selection test is 0.25. This test would most likely be useful when: A the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very low B the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very high C there are many applicants for few job openings D there are few applicants for many job openings

The Correct Answer is "C" This question is referring to a test's incremental validity. Incremental validity is the increase in decision-making accuracy resulting from the use of a particular predictor. Three factors influence the incremental validity of a test: 1) the base rate, or the percentage of correct hiring decisions made when the test is not used; 2) the test's validity coefficient; and 3) the selection ratio, or the ratio of job openings to total applicants (for instance, if 100 people are applying for 5 positions, the selection ratio is 5/100, or .05). Incremental validity is greatest when the base rate is moderate, the validity coefficient is high, and the selection ratio is low. The Taylor-Russell tables can be used to determine a test's incremental validity, given specific values for the base rate, validity coefficient, and selection ratio. We can eliminate Choices A and B because a moderate base rate maximizes the usefulness of a selection test more than a low or high base rate does. Contrary to Choice D, a low selection ratio (many applicants for few job openings) is better than a high selection ratio

A psychologist serves as the head of a social service agency. The psychologist likes the job because, in addition to allowing her to work with clients in a clinical setting, it provides her with the opportunity for raises and promotions. On the Strong Interest Inventory, the psychologist would likely receive high scores for which of the following personality types? A investigative and conventional B realistic and artistic C social and enterprising D investigative and enterprising

The Correct Answer is "C" This questions is about Holland's six personality types -- realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. One's results on the Strong Interest Inventory include a 3-letter personality type that indicates, in order, which three types best describe the individual. Individuals in the mental health professions typically obtain a 3-letter code of social, enterprising, and artistic (SEA); if you knew this, you knew enough to answer the question. If you didn't, the question helped you out by telling you that the psychologist likes to work hands-on with clients (which would be characteristic of the social type) and that she is interested in promotions and pay raises (which would be characteristic of the enterprising type).

An individual comes into your office complaining of recent job stress. He notes a chronic pattern of depressed mood, low energy, and eating and sleeping difficulties. Your best initial intervention is to: A begin individual treatment. B refer to an expert in vocational issues. C refer for a psychiatric evaluation. D explore the possibility of a job change.

The Correct Answer is "C" Whenever you see any symptoms that might have a medical or psychiatric basis, it's always good to recommend a physical examination. The closest alternative here was to refer to a psychiatrist. Maybe medication is indicated to address the eating and sleeping difficulties and what you suspect might be an underlying depression.

A Hypomanic Episode would most likely result in: A decreased productivity, decreased efficiency, and decreased creativity B decreased productivity, decreased efficiency, and increased creativity C increased productivity, decreased efficiency, and decreased creativity D increased productivity, increased efficiency, and increased creativity

The Correct Answer is "D" According to DSM-IV-TR, a Hypomanic Episode is characterized by a period of persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood that lasts at least 4 days and is accompanied by three or more symptoms including: inflated self-esteem or grandiosity; decreased need for sleep; talkativeness; racing thoughts; distractibility; excessive involvement in high-risk pleasurable activities; and increase in goal-directed activity. The symptoms are not severe enough to cause marked impairment in functioning and there are no psychotic features. During a Hypomanic Episode many individuals exhibit increased productivity, efficiency, and creativity

Withdrawal from morphine dependence is most likely to result in: A sedation B pupillary constriction C constipation D diarrhea

The Correct Answer is "D" According to the DSM-IV-TR, the symptoms of opiate withdrawal include: dysphoric mood; nausea or vomiting; muscle aches; lacrimation or rhinorrhea (runny eyes and nose); pupillary dilation, pilorerection (gooseflesh), or sweating; diarrhea; yawning; fever; and insomnia. The other choices (sedation, pupillary constriction, and constipation) are signs of opiate intoxication.

An examinee's scaled scores on the WAIS-III can be calculated with: A the examinee's subtest raw scores and the subtest means B the examinee's subtest raw scores and their index test scores C the examinee's subtest raw scores and a conversion formula D the examinee's subtest raw scores, chronological age, and a score conversion table

The Correct Answer is "D" To calculate the scaled scores on the WAIS-III, one must use the subtest raw scores, the examinee's chronological age, and a score conversion table

According to Bass, transformational leadership contains four interrelated components. Which of the following is characterized by high moral and ethical standards? A intellectual stimulation B inspirational motivation C individualized consideration D idealized influence

The Correct Answer is "D" D. Bass (1985) suggested that transformational leadership contains the interrelated components of idealized or charisma influence (attributed or behavioral), inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration. In truly transformational leadership, high morals and ethical standards characterize charismatic or idealized influence. In research by Podsakoff, MacKenzie, Moorman and Fetter (1990), trust was found to be the single most important variable moderating the effects of transformational leadership on the performance, attitudes, and satisfaction of the followers. Inspirational motivation (b.) provides followers with meaning and challenges for engaging in undertakings and shared goals. Intellectual stimulation (a.) helps followers to question assumptions and to generate more creative solutions to problems. Individual consideration (c.) treats each follower as an individual and provides coaching, mentoring and growth opportunities. (See: Bass, B. (1985). Leadership and performance beyond expectations. New York: The Free Press. Bass, B. (1998). Transformational leadership: Industry, military, and educational impact. Mahwah, NJ: Lawrence Erlbaum Associates, Inc. and Podsakoff, P. M., MacKenzie, S. B., Moorman, R. H., & Fetter, R. (1990). Transformational leader behaviors and their effects on followers' trust in leader, satisfaction, and organizational citizenship behaviors. Leadership Quarterly, 1, 107--142.)

Recent research on HIV infection has examined the role of psychosocial risk factors on disease progression and prognosis. The results of studies involving infected adults has most consistently found: A lower intellectual functioning and younger age are related to a more rapid progression B higher intellectual functioning and older age are related to a more rapid progression C somatic symptoms of depression and younger age are related to a more rapid progression D somatic symptoms of depression and older age are related to a more rapid progression

The Correct Answer is "D" D. Findings of recent studies indicate that the factors of intellectual functioning, age and somatic symptoms of depression are significant predictors of HIV progression and prognosis. Specifically, lower IQ, older age and the presence of somatic symptoms of depression are associated with a more rapid progression from HIV infection to AIDS, HIV-related dementia, and death. (See: Farinpour, R., et al., Psychosocial risk factors of HIV morbidity and mortality: Findings from the Multicenter Aids Cohort Study (MACS), Journal of Clinical and Experimental Neuropsychology, 2003, 25(5), 654-670.)

Research utilizing functional brain imaging techniques has shown a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) and has linked it to abnormalities in the following brain structures: A parietal lobe, hypothalamus, and corpus callosum B parietal lobe, striatum, and amygdala C frontal lobe, thalamus, and amygdala D frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum

The Correct Answer is "D" D. Recent research has established a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) with abnormalities in the right frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum most consistently implicated in this disorder. Other areas of the brain, including certain regions of the parietal lobe, have been linked to ADHD to a lesser extent. Using the core symptoms of ADHD and functions of the major brain structures, you may have determined the frontal lobes (mediates higher-order functions), the striatum (part of the basal ganglia and composed of the caudate nucleus and the putamen) and cerebellum (involved in motor activity) are the areas linked to this disorder. (See: J. Giedd et al., Brain imaging of attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, Annals of New York Academy of Sciences, 2001, 931, 33-49.)

The factor loading for Test A and Factor II is .80 in a factor matrix. This means that: A only 80% of variability in Test A is accounted for by the factor analysis B only 64% of variability in Test A is accounted for by the factor analysis C 80% of variability in Test A is accounted for by Factor II D 64% of variability in Test A is accounted for by Factor II

The Correct Answer is "D" D. The correlation coefficient for a test and an identified factor is referred to as a factor loading. To obtain a measure of shared variability, the factor loading is squared. This example, the factor loading is .80, meaning that 64% (.80 squared) of variability in the test is accounted for by the factor. The other identified factor(s) probably also account for some variability in Test A, which is why (b.) is not the best answer.

According to the DSM-IV-TR, which of the following is related to exposure to sexual abuse, sexual harassment or sexual trauma? A Gender Identity Disorder B Dyspareunia C Female Orgasmic Disorder D Vaginismus

The Correct Answer is "D" D. While Vaginismus (which involves involuntary contractions of the muscles in the outer third of the vagina when vaginal penetration is attempted) doesn't have a clear etiology, evidence suggests that sexual trauma may precede the disorder's onset. In addition to this association, the DSM-IV-TR states it is more common in younger women and in women with negative attitudes toward sex.

Dr. Fastbuck has been hired by a for-profit mental health hospital corporation as a supervisor of two psychological interns, Dr. Newbie and Dr. Greenhorn. The hospital has promised both interns that they would receive training in psychological assessment. The agency needs at least one of these interns trained quickly, due to a backlog of work on financially lucrative psychological assessments. Dr. Fastbuck decides that Dr. Newbie will receive extensive experience and training in testing, while Dr. Greenhorn will get very little training, because training one of them can be done more quickly than training both. Dr. Fastbuck has acted: A ethically, because finishing the assessments quickly is in the best interests of clients. B ethically, because, in light of the situation, Dr. Fastbuck does not have any alternative. C unethically, because decisions such as these cannot be based on financial concerns. D unethically, because Dr. Fastbuck is failing to meet his responsibility as a supervisor.

The Correct Answer is "D" Ethical Standard 2.05 applies to this situation. It states in part that "Psychologists who delegate work to employees, supervisees, or research or teaching assistants or who use the services of others, such as interpreters, take reasonable steps to (1) avoid delegating such work to persons who have a multiple relationship with those being served that would likely lead to exploitation or loss of objectivity; (2) authorize only those responsibilities that such persons can be expected to perform competently on the basis of their education, training, or experience, either independently or with the level of supervision being provided; and (3) see that such persons perform these services competently." In this situation, in light of what Dr. Greenhorn was hired for, Dr. Fastbuck is not providing proper supervision. It could be argued that the hospital's policy prevented fulfillment of this obligation, but there is no indication in the question that Dr. Fastbuck has attempted to correct the situation

Manual-guided treatment is to used to: A reduce "treatment errors" and legal liability of practitioners B ensure validity of procedures used to evaluate effectiveness of treatment C improve treatment outcomes for diverse populations and diagnoses D ascertain treatment effects in research by standardizing treatment delivery

The Correct Answer is "D" Initially, treatment manuals were developed to standardize treatments so that their effects could be empirically evaluated and provide guidelines for training therapists. Manual-guided treatments detail the theoretical underpinnings of a treatment, the treatment goals, and specific therapeutic strategies and guidelines. Research on manual-guided treatment outcome (response "C") is inconsistent but has generally not found it to have substantially better outcomes than treatments not guided by the use of a manual. (See: Beutler, L. E., et al. (2000). Therapist variables, in M. Lambert (ed.), Bergin and Garfield's Handbook of Psychotherapy and Behavior Change (pp. 227-306), New York: John Wiley & Sons.)

Dr. Emm believes that one of his patients would benefit from in-patient treatment. The patient's HMO (health maintenance organization) is most likely to approve this type of treatment if: A Dr. Emm will be providing services at the in-patient facility. B Dr. Emm is a licensed psychologist. C the patient's presenting problem has become chronic. D the patient has recently shown a decline in functioning.

The Correct Answer is "D" Policies regarding in-patient treatment vary from HMO to HMO. However, most emphasize the patient's level of functioning and consider approval of in-patient treatment when there has been a recent decline in functioning.

*A psychologist in a rural area is referred a 17-year-old male who has been abusing OxyContin. Although the psychologist is trained and experienced in the treatment of substance abuse, she has not received training in, nor experience with, OxyContin abuse. The psychologist should: A refer the patient to a psychologist outside the area who is experienced in the treatment of OxyContin abuse B agree to treat the patient after attending a workshop on the treatment of OxyContin abuse C refer the patient for inpatient detoxification D Provide the patient with treatment and read relevant literature

The Correct Answer is "D" Psychologists have an ethical responsibility to practice within the boundaries of their competence. However, according to APA's Ethics Standard 2.01(d), "When psychologists are asked to provide services to individuals for whom appropriate mental health services are not available and for which psychologists have not obtained the competence necessary, psychologists with closely related prior training or experience may provide such services in order to ensure that services are not denied if they make a reasonable effort to obtain the competence required by using relevant research, training, consultation, or study." It should not, therefore, be necessary to refer the patient to a provider out of the area. It also would not be in the patient's best interest to postpone treatment until the psychologist can attend a workshop on the subject (B). And, although OxyContin abuse is serious and potentially fatal, it generally would not require inpatient detoxification (C) unless the abuse progressed to dependence.

Research suggests that African-American children's scores on the WISC A tend to be lower than those of Caucasian children only when the examiner is Caucasian. B tend to be lower than those of Caucasian children only when the examiner is African-American. C tend to be higher than those of Caucasian children when the examiner is African-American, but lower than those of Caucasian children when the examiner is Caucasian. D are not related to the race of the examiner

The Correct Answer is "D" Research has suggested that scores of African-American children on the WISC are not reliably related to the race of the examiner. Though some studies have shown that African-American children's scores on some subtests increase when the examiner is Caucasian, this effect has not been shown to be consistent. In general, African-American children's scores tend to be lower than those of Caucasian children, regardless of the race of the examiner

An advantage of clozapine (Clozaril) over conventional antipsychotic drugs is that it is A significantly more effective for the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia. B less likely to produce anticholinergic effects. C less likely to cause agranulocytosis. D often effective for those who don't respond to conventional drugs

The Correct Answer is "D" The atypical antipsychotic clozapine affects different neurotransmitters than conventional antipsychotics and, to some degree, has different side effects. For example, although it doesn't produce tardive dyskinesia, it does cause agranulocytosis, a potentially fatal blood disease. An important advantage of clozapine is that it's often effective when conventional antipsychotic drugs aren't

You are treating a patient with both an AXIS I and an AXIS II diagnosis. You know that the insurance company is much more likely to pay for the AXIS I treatment. What should you do? A Bill for AXIS I as the diagnosis; state that the AXIS II diagnosis is provisional. B Just bill for AXIS I; at present there is not a successful treatment modality for AXIS II disorders C Bill for both, but indicate that you are only seeking reimbursement for the AXIS I treatment D Write a request to the insurance company providing a clinical rationale for treating both and bill accordingly

The Correct Answer is "D" The best choice when dealing with insurance companies is to behave ethically. Present a clear and complete diagnosis and an appropriate treatment plan. Bill for the stated service. Let the insurance company decide who pays for what

Super's (1992) concept that relates the five life stages of growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and disengagement to nine major life roles is called A Role of Self-Concept. B Arch of Career Determination. C Career Maturity. D Life-Career Rainbow

The Correct Answer is "D" The question is describing Super's Life-Career Rainbow. Super also emphasized the role of self-concept (answer A), suggesting that people will choose an occupation that allows them to express their self-concept. Answer B refers to Super's Arch of Career Determination which illustrates the psychological and socioeconomic variables that shape one's career.

If a person has a T-score of 70 in a normal distribution with 200 people, what does the 70 mean? A 70th percentile B 3 standard deviations above the mean C z-score of plus one D better than 97%

The Correct Answer is "D" This is a difficult question because none of the choices offer what you are expecting which would be "the 98th percentile." Instead the best choice is answer D, which is "better than 97%." In actuality, a T-score of 70 is two standard deviations above the mean (the mean of a T-score distribution is 50; the standard deviation is 10). When any score is two standard deviations above the mean, 98 percent of the distribution is below that score. In this case, 98 percent of the scores are below a T-score of 70, in other words, better than approximately 97% of people in the distribution