Evolution exams 1-4, Final Exam

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Match the explanations on the right with the different levels of disease processes for myocardial infarction (commonly called a heart attack.) 46. Developmental a. Both genetic factors and environmental factors, such as diet and body mass index, can help predict the likelihood of a heart attack. b. An atherosclerotic plaque breaks loose and blocks blood flow to the heart. c. Analysis of relationships among the homonids demonstrates that gorillas and chimpanzees have physiologies that are also susceptible to heart attacks, however they are rare due to their relatively short life span and their diet.

Match the mutation type on the left with its best example on the right. 20. Inversion a. A mutation rearranges the order of genes on a chromosome, but has no impact on the phenotype of the organism. b. A point mutation occurs at the third position in the reading frame of a gene, however when this gene is translated there are no difference when compared to the original protein sequence. c. A substitution changes a codon for Tyrosine (UAC) into a stop codon (UAA). d. A point mutation of this type in the coding sequence of a gene impacts every downstream codon in that gene.

Match the quote with the person (or persons) whose ideas are most closely associated with it. 3. Lamarck a. " All the acquisitions or losses wrought by nature on individuals, through the influence of the environment. . . are preserved by reproduction to the new individuals which arise" b. "The power of population is indefinitely greater than the power in the earth to produce subsistence for man." c. ". . . in each generation the two parental traits appear, separated and unchanged, and there is nothing to indicate that one of them has. . . taken over anything from the other" d. "[Species] do vary continuously in many directions; and thus there is always material for natural selection to act upon in some direction that may be advantageous."

Match the term on the left with the single best example or definition on the right 5. Parthenogenesis a. A female leopard shark kept in an Australian aquarium had a litter of pups (baby sharks), as there was no male shark in the aquarium the pups were tested and found to have only a single parent. b. A form of indirect intrasexual selection that can evolve to give an advantage to the last male to mate with a female. c. Mammals have internal fertilization and sperm are many times smaller than the eggs. d. One of the alleles of the r2d2 gene in mice has been found to be passed on at higher frequencies than predicted by Mendelian genetics. e. A form of reproduction that involves rapid mitosis in a small group of cells and results in a smaller version of the organism that is initially attached to the parent.

Match the terms on the left with the descriptions on the right 30. Neofunctionalization a. The fruit fly genome has an additional Hox gene that helps to control early anterior to posterior development. This is a function not found in other insects. b. A gene controls both blood type and helps increase resistance to parasitism. An unequal crossing over event creates a duplicate of the gene and later mutations allow one of the copies to become more efficient at parasite resistance while the other copy maintains the same effect on blood type. c. A family of genes descended via gene duplication from a single ancestral gene has one member with identifiable DNA sequences, but it is no longer transcribed.

Match the three major groups of amniotes with the best description on the right. 18. Synapsids a. Whales are one of the living descendants of this group b. This group includes pterosaurs, alligators and snakes c. There are no living descendants of this group d. Placoderm fish are part of this group

Match the type of mating system on the left with the single best example on the right. 20. Polyandrous a. The Kanak people of New Caledonia traditionally lived in family groups consisting of multiple husbands and a single common wife. b. Bald eagles form a strong pair bond with a single member of the opposite sex, these relationships can last for decades. c. Some species of crickets form no pair bonding and both males and females mate readily with any member of the opposite sex. d. Some social wasps have individual groups that work together to build a nest and consist of several fertile females and several males that mate amongst each other. e. Some lemurs live in groups with a single dominant reproductive male and many females.

You randomly sample one thousand individuals from a population of monkeys (sexually reproducing, diploid animals) and find the following distribution of genotypes: AA: 40 Aa: 320 aa: 640 allele frequencies for this population are A: 0.2 a: 0.8 37. The above population is in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium. a. True b. False

4. Which of the following forms of creationism is the most rigid; imposing both a short, fixed period of time for the creation of the earth and a recently formed earth? a. Intelligent design b. Young earth c. Gap d. Day age

42. Many bee and wasp species that can sting have very similar markings. This would be an example of what type of mimicry and what type of relationship? a. Batesian, mutualistic b. Mullerian, mutualistic c. Batesian, antagonistic d. Mullerian, antagonistic

43. In class we discussed and example from the book that detailed a fossil record of clams and their snail predators. These species saw an active trend over time in both the thickness of the clam's shell and the size of the structures the snail used to pry open the shell. This is an example of ___________________. a. sexual selection b. a coevolutionary arms race c. a mutualistic relationship d. an evolutionary stable strategy

43. Which of the following features of humans could be best classified as vestigial? a. Small intestine b. Erector pili muscles c. Ribs d. Feet e. Eyes

46. Modern genetic analysis of the human species suggests that all humans had a common maternal ancestor somewhere between 100 and 200 thousand years ago. Based on these data and your understanding of the history of our species where did this ancestor live? a. Asia b. Africa c. Europe d. Australia e. It remains unclear, it could have been any number of locations in the old world

47. The cataclysmic extinction event referred to in the question above killed off all dinosaur species. a. True b. False

48. Which of the following is the best defining feature of the hominins (Subtribe Hominina)? a. Opposable thumb b. Bipedalism c. Large brain d. Increased life span

48. Why are the exact timing and nature of anagenesis and cladogenesis difficult to infer from the fossil record? a. Because fossil dating is precise, but not accurate b. Because the fossil record for most groups is very fragmentary c. Because fossil dating is accurate, but not precise d. Because carbon dating must be adjusted due to temporal fluctuations in C-14 levels e. Because extinct species cannot be placed in their correct phylogenetic context

5. What would be the most likely result if you measured the synteny of two closely related species of rodents? a. There would be 100% identity in gene order between these two species. b. The order of genes in these two species would be somewhat similar, but you would most likely find several instances of mutations that rearranged the genome. c. The percentage of guanines (G) and cytosines (S) in their genome would be drastically different. d. They would most likely have comparable percentages of guanines and cytosines in their genome.

5. Which of the following ideas directly refuted the concept of common spontaneous generation? a. Aristotle and his ideas about the Scala Naturae b. Weismann and his work in germ plasm theory c. Hutton and Lyell's work on uniformitarianism d. Gregor Mendel and his ideas about genetic inheritance

7. What would be the best way to determine if a species reproduces sexually if all you had were DNA samples from several different individuals? a. Check to see if there are a large number of chromosomes or just a few; sexually reproducing species tend to have more chromosomes. b. Compare intraspecies relationships for multiple genetic markers and determine if those relationships are identical. c. Determine if some of the individuals have an X-chromosome. d. Count the number of deleterious alleles; because of Muller's ratchet asexual reproducers tend to have a larger number of deleterious alleles.

9. On average what percentage of your alleles do you share with a full sibling? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%

9. Why are most sexually reproducing species anisogamous? a. Because natural selection is strongest on the males due to their lesser investment in each mating event. b. Because of diversifying selection on early gametes due to highest fitness levels occurring at both of the extremes in gamete size. c. Because of meiotic drive favoring the inclusion of critical genes on the sex chromosomes. d. Because of the mutualistic association between early mitochondrial genomes and proto-eukaryotic nuclear genomes.

A random sample from a population of mice (sexually reproducing, diploid) has a genotype and phenotype distribution of: AA: 250, black fur Aa: 500, brown fur aa: 250, white fur 41. If each color of mouse will only mate with a mouse that is the same color, what is the most likely distribution of phenotypes in the next generation? a. 100 black mice, 100 brown mice, 800 white mice b. 375 black mice, 250 brown mice, 375 white mice c. 250 black mice, 500 brown mice, 250 white mice d. 50 black mice, 900 brown mice, 50 white mice

A scientist estimates Ka/Ks ratios for several homologous genes in two species of plant on the Hawaiian islands that share a common ancestor approximately 4 million years ago, but have since diverged and now look very different from one another. Match each Ka/Ks ratio on the left with the best gene description on the right. 22. Ka/Ks < 1 a. A gene responsible for widely divergent flowers; one of the major differences between these two species. b. A chloroplast gene that is still functioning in an identical manner in both species. c. A gene that is responsible for cold tolerance, is only somewhat similar between the two species, and is unimportant for survival due to the warm climate.

Match each genetic vocabulary word with its best definition. 12. Allele a. The physical traits of an organism. b. One of potentially many different variants of a single gene. c. A state when an organism has two copies of the same variant of a gene. d. The physical location of a genetic marker on a chromosome e. Cellular division that results in lots of diversity

Match examples of biological interactions with the correct category on the right. 40. Some bacteria can only live inside of insects, and those insects do much better when they are colonized by these bacteria a. Commensalism b. Mutualism c. Antagonism

Match the concepts related to intersexual selection with their example on the right. 27. Honest Signal a. Female lemurs choose the strongest male they can find because they enjoy better protection than if they had a weaker mate. b. Among stickleback fish only the healthiest males can exhibit a bright red color along their ventral side. c. Female swamp toads prefer a "chuck" call, however none of the male swamp toads make this call d. Peahens prefer large, brightly colored feathers. This has driven peacock tail feathers to become incredibly large and unwieldy.

Match the description on the left with the correct type of barrier to gene flow on the right. a. Premating b. Prezygotic c. Postzygotic 42. Two populations of frog recognize one another mating calls and initiate amphiplexus (a mating embrace), however the sperm from one population do not recognize the eggs from the other species.

Match the explanations on the right with the different levels of disease processes for myocardial infarction (commonly called a heart attack.) 45. Proximate a. Both genetic factors and environmental factors, such as diet and body mass index, can help predict the likelihood of a heart attack. b. An atherosclerotic plaque breaks loose and blocks blood flow to the heart. c. Analysis of relationships among the homonids demonstrates that gorillas and chimpanzees have physiologies that are also susceptible to heart attacks, however they are rare due to their relatively short life span and their diet.

Match the mutation type on the left with its best example on the right. 19. Synonymous a. A mutation rearranges the order of genes on a chromosome, but has no impact on the phenotype of the organism. b. A point mutation occurs at the third position in the reading frame of a gene, however when this gene is translated there are no difference when compared to the original protein sequence. c. A substitution changes a codon for Tyrosine (UAC) into a stop codon (UAA). d. A point mutation of this type in the coding sequence of a gene impacts every downstream codon in that gene.

Match the quote with the person (or persons) whose ideas are most closely associated with it. 2. Thomas Malthus a. " All the acquisitions or losses wrought by nature on individuals, through the influence of the environment. . . are preserved by reproduction to the new individuals which arise" b. "The power of population is indefinitely greater than the power in the earth to produce subsistence for man." c. ". . . in each generation the two parental traits appear, separated and unchanged, and there is nothing to indicate that one of them has. . . taken over anything from the other" d. "[Species] do vary continuously in many directions; and thus there is always material for natural selection to act upon in some direction that may be advantageous."

30. Which of the following could violate H-W equilibrium, causing a population to evolve? (Mark all that apply) a. A nuclear genome that is separate from a mitochondrial genome b. A small population size c. Immigration of individuals with a particular genotype d. Non-random mating e. Independent assortment of alleles during meiosis

B, C, D

16. Which of the following patterns would be expected in a population that had recently gone through a leading edge expansion of its native range? (Mark all correct answers) a. There will be more pressure by herbivores on individuals in the area of expansion when compared to the more ancient, established population. b. Mitochondrial gene diversity among individuals in the area of expansion will be lower than nuclear gene diversity in the same individuals. c. Individuals in the area of expansion will have a higher level of codon usage bias when compared to individuals in the more ancient, established population. d. Because of founder effect the overall genetic diversity of individuals in the area of expansion will be lower than the genetic diversity of individuals from the more ancient, established population.

B, D

31. What is the difference between cooperation and mutualism? a. Cooperation is an environmentally induced trait, but mutualism is genetically induced. b. Cooperation is a way to deceive your interacting partner, but mutualism is an honest signal. c. Cooperation occurs between individuals within the same species, while mutualism occurs between individuals of different, often very distantly related, species. d. Cooperation is found only among females and mutualism is a mostly male trait.

32. What is the defining characteristic of a eusocial population? a. If the distance between social groups is greater than the mean sub-population census. b. If the effective population size is much less than the haploid deficiency value. c. If there is complete division of roles within the society, particularly with regards to reproduction d. If complex communication allows for the efficient transmission of information.

33. Which of the following populations would suffer the most from inbreeding depression? a. A population of frogs with strong disassortative mating. b. A population of captive bred lizards that originated from 8 captured individuals. c. A population that survived a near extinction event because one self-fertilizing individual didn't die d. A bacteria population founded by a single bacterium.

34. Which of the following represents a Hardy-Weinberg equation that has been modified to model the effect of natural selection on a population? a. p2 + q2 + r2 + 2pq + 2pr + 2qr = 1 b. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 2 c. p2 + (2pq - s) + q2 = 1 d. p4 + 2p2q2 + q4 = 1

36. In which of the following relationships is cospeciation most likely? a. Amensalism b. A loose mutualism where neither partner species is completely dependent on the other c. Obligate parasitism d. Predator prey relationships where the predator has six different prey species

4. Which of the following is not one of the steps when performing "shotgun sequencing" of a genome? a. Obtain many copies of the genome to be sequenced. b. Break the genome into small, sections that can be more easily sequenced. c. Identify conserved haplotype blocks to serve as assembly anchors. d. Assemble individual sequences by matching small areas of overlap.

44. What is the ultimate cause of the many extinctions for the megafauna (Diprotodon, Giant Wombat, Marsupial Lion, Giant Goanna, etc) once found in Australia? a. Loss of prey items b. Hunting pressure from prehistoric humans c. Failure to adapt to a changing environment d. Warming of the environment

46. Which cataclysmic extinction event had the most recent effect in revising our current biodiversity? (Hint: 65 million years ago) a. Carboniferous extinction b. Permian Extinction c. Cretaceous (K-T) Extinction d. Holocene Extinction

47. ________________ occurs when two different beneficial alleles are found in different strains of the same species of bacteria. a. A compensatory mutation b. A selective sweep c. Clonal interference d. Haplotype imbalance

49. Which of the following is the best explanation for strains of bacteria that are resistant to multiple types of antibiotics? a. The resistance factors were gained via lateral transfer of genetic material from fungal symbionts of their hosts. b. The multiple resistance was gained in strains of bacteria that were inadvertently exposed to several types of antibiotics at the same time. c. The multiple resistance is an example of successive instances of inadvertent clonal selection, due to both over-prescription of antibiotics and patients not following the prescribed course of treatment. d. Genetically manipulated strains of bacteria were inadvertently released from labs where research was being conducted on how to best control resistant strains.

5. Legal decisions regarding the teaching of creationism in public schools have focused on the separation of church and state and __________. a. limited instructional time b. freedom of expression c. non-scientific nature of creationism d. theory of unformitarianism

50. Darwin's ideas regarding the speed of evolution and nature of speciation fits best with _____________ . a. a model of independent origin for each species b. a short history of life on earth c. patterns of phyletic gradualism observed in the fossil record d. epistatic rearrangement of chromosomal ends

50. Some humans, particularly those with ancestors from Europe and the Middle East, carry genetic markers that are common in Homo neanderthalensis. What is the best explanation for this? a. Genetic drift because of bottleneck events that occurred as modern humans migrated out of Africa b. Widespread convergence due to directed mutational events c. Introgression due to limited mating between these populations when they overlapped. d. Horizontal gene transfer

6. Modern phylogenetics has replaced the Aristotelian idea of ____________________. a. natural selection b. trivial classification c. the scala naturae d. separate magisterial

7. What is the correct chronological order, starting with the most ancient, for the following events? a. Origin of photosynthesis, Origin of land plants, Great oxygenation event, Origin of mammals b. Origin of land plants, Origin of photosynthesis, Great oxygenation event, Origin of mammals c. Origin of photosynthesis, Great oxygenation event, Origin of land plants, Origin of mammals d. Origin of land plants, Origin of photosynthesis, Origin of mammals, Great Oxygenation event

A scientist estimates Ka/Ks ratios for several homologous genes in two species of plant on the Hawaiian islands that share a common ancestor approximately 4 million years ago, but have since diverged and now look very different from one another. Match each Ka/Ks ratio on the left with the best gene description on the right. 21. Ka/Ks = 1 a. A gene responsible for widely divergent flowers; one of the major differences between these two species. b. A chloroplast gene that is still functioning in an identical manner in both species. c. A gene that is responsible for cold tolerance, is only somewhat similar between the two species, and is unimportant for survival due to the warm climate.

Match each genetic vocabulary word with its best definition. 11. Homozygote a. The physical traits of an organism. b. One of potentially many different variants of a single gene. c. A state when an organism has two copies of the same variant of a gene. d. The physical location of a genetic marker on a chromosome e. Cellular division that results in lots of diversity

Match examples of biological interactions with the correct category on the right. 38. Batesian mimicry, when one species (model) is toxic and another non-toxic species (mimic) looks very similar a. Commensalism b. Mutualism c. Antagonism

Match examples of biological interactions with the correct category on the right. 39. Plasmodium falciparum is a parasite that causes malaria in humans. a. Commensalism b. Mutualism c. Antagonism

Match the concepts related to intersexual selection with their example on the right. 28. Sensory Bias a. Female lemurs choose the strongest male they can find because they enjoy better protection than if they had a weaker mate. b. Among stickleback fish only the healthiest males can exhibit a bright red color along their ventral side. c. Female swamp toads prefer a "chuck" call, however none of the male swamp toads make this call d. Peahens prefer large, brightly colored feathers. This has driven peacock tail feathers to become incredibly large and unwieldy.

Match the description on the left with the correct type of barrier to gene flow on the right. a. Premating b. Prezygotic c. Postzygotic 40. Ligers are the offspring of a lion and a tiger, most ligers are either sterile or have loss of fitness due to epistatic interactions.

Match the explanations on the right with the different levels of disease processes for myocardial infarction (commonly called a heart attack.) 47. Phylogenetic a. Both genetic factors and environmental factors, such as diet and body mass index, can help predict the likelihood of a heart attack. b. An atherosclerotic plaque breaks loose and blocks blood flow to the heart. c. Analysis of relationships among the homonids demonstrates that gorillas and chimpanzees have physiologies that are also susceptible to heart attacks, however they are rare due to their relatively short life span and their diet.

Match the mutation type on the left with its best example on the right. 18. Nonsense a. A mutation rearranges the order of genes on a chromosome, but has no impact on the phenotype of the organism. b. A point mutation occurs at the third position in the reading frame of a gene, however when this gene is translated there are no difference when compared to the original protein sequence. c. A substitution changes a codon for Tyrosine (UAC) into a stop codon (UAA). d. A point mutation of this type in the coding sequence of a gene impacts every downstream codon in that gene.

What would be the best way to determine if a species reproduces sexually if all you had were DNA samples from several different individuals?

Compare a phylogeny based on mitochondrial genes with one based on nuclear genes. In sexually reproducing populations these phylogenies won't match.

Which of the following characteristics of a population would be the least likely to help it survive a cataclysmic event?

Complex sensory systems

50. Which of the following is not an explanation for senescence? a. Accumulation of post-reproductive deleterious alleles. Mutations that negatively impact you after your reproducing is done have no effect on your fitness. b. Trade-off for speed. Many mutations that increase metabolism, and thus increase overall fitness, also tend to wear out your body more quickly c. Trade-off for reproduction. Some mutations that allow organisms to increase offspring number have antagonistic pleiotropic effects. d. Removal of genetic load. Older individuals typically have more deleterious mutations in their somatic cells, so when they die these mutations are removed from the population.

50. Which of the following is not necessary to perform a QTL study? a. A large set of genetic markers spread across the genome. b. Haplotype data for genetic markers for a large number of individuals with and without a phenotype of interest. c. Statistical analysis determining if individuals with a phenotype of interest have unusual haplotype frequencies for each genetic marker. d. Assessment of the amount of crossing over that occurs between each genetic marker.

6. The first self-replicating entities on earth were ______ and the process of their replication was very similar to _________. a. bacteria, natural selection b. bacteria, genetic drift c. cells, genetic drift d. RNA molecules, natural selection e. RNA molecules, genetic mutation

6. Which of the following is the most correct statement regarding prokaryotic (bacteria and archaea) genomes? a. They are arranged between 2 and 28 chromosomes b. All prokaryotes have an extra bit of DNA called a plasmid, without it they cannot survive. c. Transposons are a significant factor in the evolution and organization of prokaryotic genomes. d. They tend to have more compact genomes than eukaryotes, with a lower percentage of non-coding DNA.

Match each genetic vocabulary word with its best definition. 10. Locus a. The physical traits of an organism. b. One of potentially many different variants of a single gene. c. A state when an organism has two copies of the same variant of a gene. d. The physical location of a genetic marker on a chromosome e. Cellular division that results in lots of diversity

Match the concepts related to intersexual selection with their example on the right. 30. Runaway Selection a. Female lemurs choose the strongest male they can find because they enjoy better protection than if they had a weaker mate. b. Among stickleback fish only the healthiest males can exhibit a bright red color along their ventral side. c. Female swamp toads prefer a "chuck" call, however none of the male swamp toads make this call d. Peahens prefer large, brightly colored feathers. This has driven peacock tail feathers to become incredibly large and unwieldy.

Match the mutation type on the left with its best example on the right. 17. Insertion/Deletion a. A mutation rearranges the order of genes on a chromosome, but has no impact on the phenotype of the organism. b. A point mutation occurs at the third position in the reading frame of a gene, however when this gene is translated there are no difference when compared to the original protein sequence. c. A substitution changes a codon for Tyrosine (UAC) into a stop codon (UAA). d. A point mutation of this type in the coding sequence of a gene impacts every downstream codon in that gene.

Altruisms due to kin selection confers a fitness advantage when rb-c<0. In this equation what does the "b" represent?

Degree of relatedness between the altruistic individual and the recipient

Identify the described result of intersexual selection described in the following example: Females of a small primate species choose a large male because only the biggest males are able to protect the family group from predators that are common in the area.

Direct Benefits

15. Which group's diversification is most closely associated with the diversification of angiosperms? a. Trilobites b. Spiders c. Mammals d. Birds e. Insects

37. The example used in class of the Lake Malawi cichlid fish is commonly used as an example of _________ speciation. a. polyploid b. parapatric c. allopatric d. Paleozoic e. sympatric

48. Why doesn't one case of influenza infection confer lifelong immunity on the host? a. It is a recent zoonotic transmission (from other mammals) and has not been selectively adapted to the human population b. Because it is can be transmitted through the air. c. It directly infects the immune system and therefore compromises the processes that usually develop long term immunity responses. d. Because of uncontrolled use of antiviral drugs that have historically been used to treat its symptoms. e. Because this virus has a high rate of mutation and frequently evolves new strains that are no longer recognizable by the immune system.

49. The diagram below represents one pattern evolution that has been described in the fossil record of some species. What is this pattern called and what type of speciation is most likely to generate this pattern? a. Punctuated equilibrium, polyploid speciation b. Phyletic gradualism, peripheral speciation c. Punctuated equilibrium, parapatric speciation d. Phyletic gradualism, parapatric speciation e. Punctuated equilibrium, peripheral speciation

49. Which of the following is the ultimate goal of a QTL study? a. To locate all of the genes in an organism's genome. b. To determine the function of all genes in a large portion of the genome, like a chromosome. c. To distinguish mitochondrial genes from nuclear genes. d. To identify important non-coding parts of the genome that may be under strong natural selection. e. To find candidate loci near genes that play a role in the phenotype of a trait of interest.

7. I examine all the coding sequences in Diceros bicornis (Black rhinoceros) and identify each codon that translates into threonine with the following results: 25% ACA, 25% ACC, 25% ACT, 25% ACG. This results supports the conclusion that _______________. a. There is a slight GC content bias in Diceros bicornis. b. Diceros bicornis has more coding DNA than non-coding DNA. c. There has been moderate natural selection on threonine codons in Diceros bicornis. d. Isochores are a prominent feature of the genome of Diceros bicornis. e. There is no codon usage bias in Diceros bicornis.

Coalescent theory uses which two values when evaluating diversity of population and attempting to estimate recent history of a population?

Effective population size (Ne) and mutation rate (µ)

What is the main benefit of asexual reproduction?

Energy efficiency; no need to attract and convince a mate, and no need to have two sexes in the population.

What is the ultimate cause of the many extinctions for the megafauna (Diprotodon, Giant Wombat, Marsupial Lion, Giant Goanna, etc) once found in Australia?

Failure to adapt to a changing environment

All forms of asexual reproduction result in genetic clones of the parent.

False

Homeotic transformations require the coordinated action of multiple changes in both the regulation and coding sequence of different toolkit genes.

False

Mass extinctions greatly reduce overall biodiversity, but eventually biodiversity levels return to pre-extinction levels. Therefore, although these events have a dramatic short term impact on the nature and components of our ecosystems they have little long term impact.

False

The most recent mass extinction event (65 million years ago) killed off all dinosaur species.

False

The non-protein coding portion of eukaryotic genomes can accurately be referred to as "junk DNA" because it has no impact on the phenotype of an organism.

False

Founder effect has had the most profound impact on the biodiversity of __________. Selected Answer

Hawaii

Although bacteria and archaea do not reproduce sexually, ______ facilitates sharing of some genetic material between distantly related lineages and has an important role in the evolution and history of this group.

Horizontal gene transfer

What is the main benefit of sexual reproduction?

Increase genetic diversity in offspring due to recombination that occurs during during meiosis.

In general aging can be seen as a tradeoff for

Increased reproductive output

What is the most likely cause of GC content bias?

Selection for increased stability of DNA molecules

What is the most likely cause of codon usage bias?

Selection for increased translational efficiency

Identify the described result of intersexual selection described in the following example: A researcher identifies two species of birds that are closely related, in this species the males have bright red eyes, but another species the makes have eyes that match their dark feathers. A researcher performs an experiment and shows that females of the dark-eyed species actually preferentially choose a male with bight red eyes if given a choice, however there is no record of males of this species that naturally have red eyes.

Sensory Bias

Which of the following best describes the "Red Queen Hypothesis"?

Sexually reproducing species are better able to coevolve with their parasites due to the genetic recombination.

Which of the following lines of evidence best demonstrates the overall advantage of sexual reproduction compared to asexual reproduction?

Species with sexually reproducing ancestor that have reverted to asexual reproduction are only found o recently diverged branches of phylogenies.

Which of the following is not a reason why we would expect most evolution to be effectively neutral?

The mitochondrial genome is smaller and separate from the nuclear genome

What would be the most likely result if you measured the synteny of two closely related species of rodents?

The order of genes in these two species would be somewhat similar, but you would most likely find several instances of mutations that rearranged the genome.

I estimate the effective population size for a group of frogs, but when I measure their Heterozygosity levels I notice they are much lower than they should be. Assuming my estimates of effective population size and measurements of Heterozygosity are accurate what is the most likely explanation for this discrepancy?

The population must have gone through a recent bottleneck event.

A green spotted pufferfish is less complex than a gorilla; however the pufferfish has many more genes than the gorilla (G-value paradox). Which of the following is the least likely explanation for this observation?

The pufferfish has fewer active transposable elements

When estimating the C-value of an organism, which of the following would not be considered?

The size of the entire haploid genome is estimated for C-value

What is the general role of Hox genes?

Transcription factors

Fossil dates are accurate, but often not very precise.

True

Which of the following species concepts would be the hardest to apply to asexual populations?

biological

In species that have them, the Hox genes are usually found right next to each other in the genome. What is this arrangement called?

colinearity

In punctuated equilibrium rapid anagenesis of one lineage is _______________.

strongly correlated with cladogenic events

Match the description on the left with the correct type of barrier to gene flow on the right. a. Premating b. Prezygotic c. Postzygotic 39. Two species of lacewings are morphological indistinguishable, however they have very different mating calls and females from one population will not mate with males from the other population.

Match the concepts related to intersexual selection with their example on the right. 29. Direct Benefits a. Female lemurs choose the strongest male they can find because they enjoy better protection than if they had a weaker mate. b. Among stickleback fish only the healthiest males can exhibit a bright red color along their ventral side. c. Female swamp toads prefer a "chuck" call, however none of the male swamp toads make this call d. Peahens prefer large, brightly colored feathers. This has driven peacock tail feathers to become incredibly large and unwieldy.

Match the description on the left with the correct type of barrier to gene flow on the right. a. Premating b. Prezygotic c. Postzygotic 41. Different cicada species emerge on different yearly cycles, thus it's rare for individual adults of one population to encounter adults from the other population.

Match examples of biological interactions with the correct category on the right. 41. Epiphytic plants get better conditions by growing on the trunks of large trees, however the trees are unaffected by the epiphytes a. Commensalism b. Mutualism c. Antagonism

1. Although there are some clear active trends when considering specific taxonomic groups, there are no active trends that apply to all life on earth. a. True b. False

1. An adaptive landscape can be visualized as a three-dimensional plot such as the image below. The possible range of phenotypes for two separate traits is plotted along the X and Y axis. What measurement is plotted along the Z axis? a. Fitness b. Number of individuals c. Degree of relatedness d. Genome size e. Inbreeding coefficient

1. The ultimate source of all diversity in biological populations and the only form of transformational change is ______________. a. mutation of DNA b. injuries that occur prior to an organism reproducing c. natural selection d. genetic drift

10. The number of proteins coding sequences (G-value) is not predictive of morphological complexity among eukaryotic organisms. Which of the following is not an explanation for this? a. Transposons can greatly increase morphological complexity of the organisms in which they are found. b. Some genes can be spliced together in multiple ways to give many final products from a single protein coding sequence. c. The complexity of gene interactions (networks) can increase morphological complexity without significantly raising the number of protein coding sequences. d. Non-coding DNA can also play a role in determining the complexity of an organism.

12. If there are so many fitness costs associated with sexual reproduction why do some species reproduce sexually? a. Sexual reproduction increases the diversity of individuals within a population, and this outweighs the associated costs. b. They have never evolved a mechanism that allows them to reproduce asexually. c. It is a trade-off for size, if you are multicellular you must reproduce sexually. d. There is a higher mutation rate associated with asexual reproduction, therefore niches that require low mutation rates can only be filled with sexual reproducers.

14. Although bacteria do not undergo meiosis they do have mechanisms for horizontal gene transfer, which increases genetic diversity of populations. a. True b. False

14. In natural populations the census population (N) size is always larger than the effective population size (Ne). a. True b. False

15. I estimate the effective population size for a group of frogs, but when I measure their Heterozygosity levels I notice they are much lower than they should be. Assuming my estimates of effective population size and measurements of Heterozygosity are accurate what is the most likely explanation for this discrepancy? a. The population must have gone through a recent bottleneck event. b. There has been strong natural selection that has caused fixation of nearly every gene. c. There must have been little to no new mutations over the last several thousand years. d. Lateral Gene transfer from distantly related mammals.

15. What is the cause of sexual conflict (sometimes referred to as a "sexual arms race") between male and females of a species? a. When a behavior that is an adaptation for the males is detrimental to the fitness of females b. When one sex provides the majority of offspring care c. When the mating system does not match the biogeographic distribution of the species d. When there are significantly more males than females

16. DNA mutation rates vary widely between different species. a. True b. False

18. Which of the following is not a reason why we would expect most evolution to be effectively neutral? a. Chromosome rearrangement is frequent for all taxonomic groups b. Lots of non-coding DNA in eukaryotes c. Many mutations have little or no phenotypic impact even if they change the protein sequence d. Degeneracy of the DNA code e. Mutations that have a measurable phenotypic impact may still not have any effect on the fitness of an organism

2. Humans share a common ancestor with Quercus virginiana (Live Oak Tree). a. True b. False

21. Which of the following groups still has extant representatives? a. Lepidosaurs b. Pterosaurs c. Ichthyosaurs d. Plesiosaurs

24. The bright colors of male birds of paradise and their elaborate mating dances are the result of intersexual selection. a. True b. False

26. Altruism due to kinship selection confers a fitness advantage when rb - c > 0. In this equation what does the 'b' represent? a. Benefit received by the recipient of an altruistic behavior b. Coefficient of relatedness between the altruistic individual and the recipient c. Cost of the altruistic behavior d. Carrying capacity of the environment

26. In class we talked about how owl eyes are both in the front of their head, but many other birds have eyes located on the side of their heads. What is the best explanation for the location and spacing of owl eyes? a. Owls need good three dimensional perception, this occurs when both eyes can see an object at the same time. The location of an owl's eyes gives them good 3D vision, but is also a physical constraint that limits their field of vision. b. Owls evolved from an ancestor that had three suborbital fenestra behind its beak. This was a tradeoff that allowed them to develop increased olfactory sensitivity. c. The gene that controls the location of the eyes also controls the development of sharp talons. This is an example of antagonistic pleiotropy. Overall it's more beneficial to have the sharp talons and so the traits have become fixed in the population. d. Owls are more intelligent than any other bird. This occurred as the size of their brains evolved due to their raptorial lifestyle. Although this was an overall benefit it only left room for the eyes at the front of the skull.

29. A mutation results in a duplicated copy of a gene. The original gene and the duplicated version are descended from the same ancestral gene and are referred to as _______. a. paralogs b. xenologs c. conflicting isochores d. neo-haplotypes

29. Nodes in a phylogeny represent the most recent common ancestor of descendant branches. a. True b. False

33. Historically what has been the most commonly used species definition? a. morphological b. biological c. phylogenetic d. aggregate

35. In bacteria, all traits are genetically linked to one another because bacteria are effectively haploid (1 copy of their genome) and therefore have no recombination. a. True b. False

39. A phylogram shows both the evolutionary relationships of species and also ___________. a. estimated rates of evolution b. dates of divergence c. areas with only weak support d. species prone to extinction

42. Instead of branching tree like patterns, relationships between individuals in sexually reproducing species are better represented in network like diagrams. This is also true for relationships between species of ____. a. bacteria b. frogs c. trees d. mushrooms e. mammals

43. The nene, or Hawaiian goose, is found in the wild only on the Hawaiian Islands, in other words it is ____________ to the these islands. a. endemic b. extant c. perfectly adapted d. feral

44. Which of the following is the best explanation for why a structure becomes vestigial? a. A species is living in an environment where a previously useful structure no longer provides a clear advantage, when random mutations occur that impact this structure they are more likely to be kept in the population due to natural selection. b. Mitochondrial genomes take over the primary genetic control mechanisms and so the feature in question is no longer expressed in the phenotype. c. Organisms no longer use a feature and so it will natural atrophy and those weaker structures will be passed on to offspring. d. Increased rates of mutation due to exposure to chemical or radiation sources.

45. Which of the following characteristics of a population would be the least likely to help it survive a cataclysmic event? a. Complex sensory systems b. Diversity of form c. A generalist ecological niche d. Wide distribution

46. What is genetic linkage? a. A high correlation of two specific alleles for different genes due to their proximity on a chromosome. b. The tendency of genetically similar individuals to mate with one another. c. The frequency of mutation that occurs in a subpopulation, this variability can then spread to the population as a whole. d. The way the genetic code is transferred from the nucleus of a cell to the mitochondria.

7. Meiosis is the process of cellular division that creates gametes. a. True b. False

8. The great oxygenation event was a process that took about a billion years due to the reactivity of oxygen and the fact that for a long time most free oxygen in the atmosphere was converted into oxides and deposited in sedimentary rocks. a. True b. False

8. Which of the following is not a fitness cost associated with sexual reproduction? a. Loss of diversity due to fewer chromosomes b. Exposure to parasites c. Finding and attracting a mate d. Having males in the population e. Exposure to predation

8. Which of the following would best indicate a recent horizontal gene transfer event in bacteria? a. A small region of the genome with a different GC content than the rest b. Presence of small introns c. A change in the genetic code used to translate genes d. Modification to proteins imbedded in the cell wall

9. What is the most likely cause of GC content bias? a. Selection for increased translational efficiency b. A bottleneck event c. Neutral mutations fixed by genetic drift d. A long period of asexual reproduction.

9. Which of the following statements about the characteristics of pre-biotic earth is not true? a. Average surface temperatures were significantly lower than today. b. Meteorite impact was much more common than today. c. There were frequent earthquakes, volcanoes and other geologic activity. d. The atmosphere was very different than our atmosphere today.

A scientist estimates Ka/Ks ratios for several homologous genes in two species of plant on the Hawaiian islands that share a common ancestor approximately 4 million years ago, but have since diverged and now look very different from one another. Match each Ka/Ks ratio on the left with the best gene description on the right. 20. Ka/Ks > 1 a. A gene responsible for widely divergent flowers; one of the major differences between these two species. b. A chloroplast gene that is still functioning in an identical manner in both species. c. A gene that is responsible for cold tolerance, is only somewhat similar between the two species, and is unimportant for survival due to the warm climate.

Match each genetic vocabulary word with its best definition. 13. Phenotype a. The physical traits of an organism. b. One of potentially many different variants of a single gene. c. A state when an organism has two copies of the same variant of a gene. d. The physical location of a genetic marker on a chromosome e. Cellular division that results in lots of diversity

What do bird genomes look like compared to those of mammals?

At the genomic level there is no clear way to separate a bird from a mammal.

31. What are the two explanations for homoplasy? (mark both correct answers) a. Convergent evolution of similar traits in separate lineages b. Extinction of species c. Ancestors that are so successful they outcompete other species d. Loss of an ancestral feature in a subset of descendants (symplesiomorphy) e. Mutations in the somatic cells of a sexually reproducing, multicellular organism

A, D

32. Extinct species cannot be included on phylogenies. a. True b. False

34. A valid classification should be __________. a. paraphyletic b. monophyletic c. polyphyletic

Cheetahs have much less overall genetic diversity than their population size would predict. What is the most likely explanation for this?

A fairly recent near extinction event

An amoeba is much less complex than a fruit fly; however the amoeba has a much larger genome (C-value). What is the best overall explanation for this paradox?

A large percentage of eukaryotic genomes is non-coding DNA, the amoeba has much more non-coding DNA than the fruit fly.

34. Which of the following population structures would favor selection for altruistic behavior due to group selection? a. A large heterogeneous population found in a single geographic area b. A population with subpopulations that are distinct from each other c. A small homogeneous population

8. Due to ____________ and ___________ human siblings that share the same parents have a less than 1 in 70 trillion chance of being genetically identical. (mark both correct answers) a. random assortment of chromosomes b. ribosomal tracking c. crossing over d. degeneracy of genetic code e. non-random mating

A, C

38. Which group's evolution has been most affected by polyploidy speciation? a. Fungus b. Plants c. Bacteria d. Animals e. Amoebas

Which of the following would best indicate a recent horizontal gene transfer event in bacteria?

A small region of the genome with a different GC content than the rest

12. There are two reasons for the answer to the above question. Mark both of these reasons. a. Viruses have fewer genes than living organisms. b. Increased selection for multiple chromosomes in viruses c. Viruses utilize a variety of genetic material for their genome d. Viruses have very little non-coding DNA

A, D

Why is the census population (N) size is always larger than the effective population size (Ne) for natural populations?

All of the above can contribute

Which of the following would be the most likely result if a population experienced a bottleneck event?

Reduction in the genetic diversity across all parts of the genome

10. All animals reproduce through the process of meiosis. a. True b. False

13. Why is determining the phylogenetic relationships among major groups of bacteria more difficult than determining the phylogenetic relationships among major groups of mammals? a. isochore formation b. frequent horizontal gene transfer c. intron promotion d. chromosomal shuffling e. artificial selection

14. An organic sample of unknown age has 5 picograms of radioactive carbon. A modern sample of the same size and composition contains 320 picograms of radioactive carbon. If the half-life of radioactive carbon is 5,000 years, how old is the original sample? a. 10,000 years old b. 30,000 years old c. 64,000 years old d. 100,000 years old e. 1.6 million years old

19. The relatively rapid appearance of major groups of animals in the fossil record is known as the ______. a. Great oxygenation event b. Cambrian explosion c. Devonian diversification d. Triploblast origin

2. What evolutionary force tends to push a population to the nearest high peak in an adaptive landscape? a. Migration of new individuals from another area b. Natural selection c. Genetic drift d. Mutation

22. Dinosaurs are one of the groups of diapsids that went extinct and left behind no representatives in our modern species. a. True b. False

23. Select the best example of direct intrasexual selection. a. Male dragonflies have a structure on their genitalia that removes any previously deposited sperm from the female reproductive tract. b. Male mountain sheep fight amongst themselves and butt heads to determine mating access to females. c. In many species of frogs the male has a very loud call that the females evaluate and respond to when they are trying to choose a mate. d. The most successful strategy for offspring is to get as many resources as possible, however the best strategy for parents is to equally divide all available resources.

23. Which of the following is a true statement about predictions that can be made for portions of the genome that are evolving neutrally (no force of natural selection)? a. Large populations would have much less diversity in neutrally evolving portions of the genome when compared to similar small populations. b. Coalescent time can be estimated accurately for long periods of elapsed time, but not short periods. c. There are no predictions that can be made for neutrally evolving portions of the genome because they are subject only to the random effects of mutation and genetic drift. d. Diversity off all neutrally evolving portions of an organism's genome are tied to one another and so will always have identical levels of diversity.

24. A single trait that is influenced by many different genes is said to be ________________. a. pleiotropic b. polygenic c. always in H-W equilibrium d. not subject to natural selection

24. Which of the following is the closest relative of the crocodilians? a. Frog b. Pterosaur c. Lizard d. Elephant e. Shark

25. At an early stage if an embryo is divided into two roughly equal halves each half can complete development and become a complete organism. This demonstrates that the cells at that early stage are ____________. a. semipotent b. pluripotent c. unipotent d. omnicapable

27. There are several clear active trends such as increase in overall complexity and efficiency that can be observed across all life on earth. a. True b. False

28. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Hox genes? a. They are present in all metazoans (animals). b. They are found on the X chromosome in mammals. c. They are often found in a colinear arrangement in the genome. d. They are transcription factors that control the patterning of different body regions.

29. Which of the following structures is a clear example of an exaptation? a. The wings of insects b. The human skull composed of different bones that are not completely fused together at birth c. Extra vertebrae in the snakes vertebral column d. The gills of fish

3. A body of scientific research that has been tested, refined and is well supported by multiple lines of evidence is called a ____________. a. hypothesis b. theory c. model d. truth e. supposition

3. An amoeba is much less complex than a fruit fly; however the amoeba has a much larger genome (C-value). What is the best overall explanation for this paradox? a. The amoeba has remained relatively unchanged for millions of years, because it's a much older species than the fruit fly it has accumulated more DNA in its genome. b. A large percentage of eukaryotic genomes is non-coding DNA, the amoeba has much more non-coding DNA than the fruit fly. c. Because most fruit flies have a short life cycle there has been strong concerted evolution towards smaller genomes in this group. d. The amoeba is a parasite, this has caused an increase in selection pressure that has favored random mutations that increase the size of the genome.

30. A polytomy represents ___________. a. a character that was gained in an ancestor, but lost in some descendants b. uncertainty about the relationships within a particular group c. a group of organisms for which there is no genetic data available d. the closest living relative to a group of interest.

31. If all other factors are equal a dominant, deleterious allele takes longer to be removed from a population than a deleterious allele that is recessive. a. True b. False

Match the term on the left with the single best example or definition on the right 4. Sperm competition a. A female leopard shark kept in an Australian aquarium had a litter of pups (baby sharks), as there was no male shark in the aquarium the pups were tested and found to have only a single parent. b. A form of indirect intrasexual selection that can evolve to give an advantage to the last male to mate with a female. c. Mammals have internal fertilization and sperm are many times smaller than the eggs. d. One of the alleles of the r2d2 gene in mice has been found to be passed on at higher frequencies than predicted by Mendelian genetics. e. A form of reproduction that involves rapid mitosis in a small group of cells and results in a smaller version of the organism that is initially attached to the parent.

Match the terms on the left with the descriptions on the right 31. Subfunctionalization a. The fruit fly genome has an additional Hox gene that helps to control early anterior to posterior development. This is a function not found in other insects. b. A gene controls both blood type and helps increase resistance to parasitism. An unequal crossing over event creates a duplicate of the gene and later mutations allow one of the copies to become more efficient at parasite resistance while the other copy maintains the same effect on blood type. c. A family of genes descended via gene duplication from a single ancestral gene has one member with identifiable DNA sequences, but it is no longer transcribed.

Match the three major groups of amniotes with the best description on the right. 16. Diapsids a. Whales are one of the living descendants of this group b. This group includes pterosaurs, alligators and snakes c. There are no living descendants of this group d. Placoderm fish are part of this group

Match the type of mating system on the left with the single best example on the right. 19. Monogamous a. The Kanak people of New Caledonia traditionally lived in family groups consisting of multiple husbands and a single common wife. b. Bald eagles form a strong pair bond with a single member of the opposite sex, these relationships can last for decades. c. Some species of crickets form no pair bonding and both males and females mate readily with any member of the opposite sex. d. Some social wasps have individual groups that work together to build a nest and consist of several fertile females and several males that mate amongst each other. e. Some lemurs live in groups with a single dominant reproductive male and many females.

You randomly sample one thousand individuals from a population of monkeys (sexually reproducing, diploid animals) and find the following distribution of genotypes: AA: 40 Aa: 320 aa: 640 You come back after three years and find the following distributions of genotypes in the population of monkeys from above: AA: 300 Aa: 400 aa: 300 38. What are the allele frequencies in the population now? a. A: 0.2 a: 0.8 b. A: 0.5 a: 0.5 c. A: 0.9 a: 0.1 d. A: 0.3 a: 0.7 e. A: 0.4 a: 0.6

You randomly sample one thousand individuals from a population of monkeys (sexually reproducing, diploid animals) and find the following distribution of genotypes: AA: 40 Aa: 320 aa: 640 You come back after three years and find the following distributions of genotypes in the population of monkeys from above: AA: 300 Aa: 400 aa: 300 39. If you assume that natural selection is acting on the population in the question above what is the most likely type of natural selection to cause the observed genotype distribution? a. Overdominance b. Underdominance c. Directional selection d. Impossible to determine

32. The total of all deleterious alleles in a population (genetic load) reaches a balance that depends on what two forces? (Mark both answers) a. Transfer of mitochondrial genes to the nuclear genome b. Mutation rate c. Force of natural selection on mutations d. The ratio of males to females e. Number of chromosomes

B, C

For each of the major events in the history of life on earth select both the best date for its origin and the line of evidence that supports this date. 11. Origin of Photosynthesis a. 3.8 billion years ago b. 3.2 billion years ago c. 4.5 billion years ago d. 540 million years ago e. 250 million years ago a. Relative dating of fossil evidence b. Rate of expansion of the visible universe c. Relative dating of sedimentary rock with high levels of iron oxides d. Direct dating of igneous rocks e. Radiocarbon dating

B, C

Why are viral genomes so small?

Because they have adapted to a strategy of very efficient replication

13. Which of the following best describes the "Red Queen Hypothesis?" a. In eusocial hymenoptera the most aggressive female is the most likely to become the single dominant reproductive female in a hive. b. In humans, females have two copies of each gene found on the X chromosome, while males have only a single copy. This results in increased size and aggression among males. c. Sexually reproducing species are better able to coevolve with their parasites due to the genetic recombination created during meiosis. d. In polygynous mammal species there is fierce competition among the males during the mating season, but little conflict at other times of the year.

15. Which of the following is an example of the degeneracy of the genetic code? a. In bacteria the codon CCC codes for the amino acid proline. The same codon also codes for proline in eukaryotic cells. b. Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own ribosomes that can translate mRNAs into proteins. c. The codon CCC codes for the amino acid proline. So do the codons CCA, CCU, and CCG. d. Eukaryotic genes are much larger than their corresponding mRNAs. This is because eukaryotic gene contain both exons and introns. e. Some bacterial genes share a promoter and so get transcribed in a group

16. Why is sexual selection nearly always most pronounced among the males of the species? a. Because they have less genetic material due to the chromosomal mechanism of determining sex. b. Because they are the brightest colored and so must work harder to maintain that phenotype. c. Because they produce the smaller gametes and therefore have the potential for successful reproduction with a minimum of effort. d. Because it provides a direct benefit to the females.

17. Genetic drift can greatly reduce the genetic diversity of populations. On what part of the genome does genetic drift have the strongest impact? a. Mitochondrial genome b. Nuclear genome c. All parts of the genome are impacted equally by genetic drift d. Protein coding regions of genome e. Introns

18. A signal of fitness among males that can only be displayed by the healthiest males because it is costly to maintain is a good example of __________________. a. selection for isogamy b. meiotic drive c. an "honest signal" d. runaway selection

19. Vertebrate embryos from distantly related lineages show a marked similarity to one another at the early stages of embryogenesis and often exhibit ancestral features that are absent, or highly modified in the adult form. This statement best describes which of the following phrases? a. Meiotic drive emulates embryogenesis b. Preformation generates morphological complexity c. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny d. Neurogenesis portends gastrulation

2. Considering the mating behavior of the human species as a whole, which combination of traits below best fits? a. Anisogamous, poygynandrous b. Isogamous, monogamous c. Anisogamous, with mixed mating strategies d. Anisogamous, monogamous e. Isogamous, with mixed mating strategies

21. Having large eyes with good night vision is an adaptation. a. True b. False c. Impossible to tell without further information. Adaptations are determined by the environment, so what might be an adaptation in one area could be detrimental in another.

23. Which of the following is the best synapomorphy for birds? a. Egg that doesn't dry out on land b. Bipedalism c. Mouth modified into a beak d. Ability to fly

25. The Triassic period began 250 million years ago and the first division within the ________ era. a. Hadean b. Paleozoic c. Mesozoic d. Cenozoic

26. Which of the following is a good example of a mutation that could be classified as heterochrony? a. A mouse population on an island that has more chromosomes than the founding population. b. A population on an island that has much lower levels of Heterozygosity than populations on the mainland. c. The Mexican salamander (axolotl) which maintains many juvenile features throughout its lifespan. d. A fruit fly that grows legs in place of antennae.

27. Which of the following organisms is classified as Perissodactyla and is a close relative of the horse? a. Cow b. Antelope c. Rhinoceros d. Whale e. Deer

Match the quote with the person (or persons) whose ideas are most closely associated with it. 4. Mendel a. " All the acquisitions or losses wrought by nature on individuals, through the influence of the environment. . . are preserved by reproduction to the new individuals which arise" b. "The power of population is indefinitely greater than the power in the earth to produce subsistence for man." c. ". . . in each generation the two parental traits appear, separated and unchanged, and there is nothing to indicate that one of them has. . . taken over anything from the other" d. "[Species] do vary continuously in many directions; and thus there is always material for natural selection to act upon in some direction that may be advantageous."

Match the term on the left with the single best example or definition on the right 6. Anisogamy a. A female leopard shark kept in an Australian aquarium had a litter of pups (baby sharks), as there was no male shark in the aquarium the pups were tested and found to have only a single parent. b. A form of indirect intrasexual selection that can evolve to give an advantage to the last male to mate with a female. c. Mammals have internal fertilization and sperm are many times smaller than the eggs. d. One of the alleles of the r2d2 gene in mice has been found to be passed on at higher frequencies than predicted by Mendelian genetics. e. A form of reproduction that involves rapid mitosis in a small group of cells and results in a smaller version of the organism that is initially attached to the parent.

Match the terms on the left with the descriptions on the right 32. Pseudogene a. The fruit fly genome has an additional Hox gene that helps to control early anterior to posterior development. This is a function not found in other insects. b. A gene controls both blood type and helps increase resistance to parasitism. An unequal crossing over event creates a duplicate of the gene and later mutations allow one of the copies to become more efficient at parasite resistance while the other copy maintains the same effect on blood type. c. A family of genes descended via gene duplication from a single ancestral gene has one member with identifiable DNA sequences, but it is no longer transcribed.

Match the three major groups of amniotes with the best description on the right. 17. Anapsids a. Whales are one of the living descendants of this group b. This group includes pterosaurs, alligators and snakes c. There are no living descendants of this group d. Placoderm fish are part of this group

Match the type of mating system on the left with the single best example on the right. 22. Promiscuous a. The Kanak people of New Caledonia traditionally lived in family groups consisting of multiple husbands and a single common wife. b. Bald eagles form a strong pair bond with a single member of the opposite sex, these relationships can last for decades. c. Some species of crickets form no pair bonding and both males and females mate readily with any member of the opposite sex. d. Some social wasps have individual groups that work together to build a nest and consist of several fertile females and several males that mate amongst each other. e. Some lemurs live in groups with a single dominant reproductive male and many females.

For each of the major events in the history of life on earth select both the best date for its origin and the line of evidence that supports this date. 13. Origin of Earth a. 3.8 billion years ago b. 3.2 billion years ago c. 4.5 billion years ago d. 540 million years ago e. 250 million years ago a. Relative dating of fossil evidence b. Rate of expansion of the visible universe c. Relative dating of sedimentary rock with high levels of iron oxides d. Direct dating of igneous rocks e. Radiocarbon dating

C, D

10. How did early ancestors of modern green algae and plants evolve the ability to photosynthesize? a. A small portion of the nucleus and its DNA split off and became the chloroplast. Subsequent mutations to the chloroplast genome resulted in early forms of photosynthesis. b. A subset of the mitochondria from early eukaryotic ancestors evolved into chloroplasts. c. Random mutations to early eukaryotic genes resulted in a phenotype similar to photosynthesizing prokaryotes, thus plant photosynthesis and cyanobacteria photosynthesis is a good example of convergence. d. An endosymbiotic event resulted in a prokaryotic cell that could photosynthesize living within these eukaryotic cells, this eventually became the modern chloroplast.

11. What do viral genomes look like compared to those of living organisms? a. They are arranged in multiple pieces instead of being in on large string of DNA. b. They are interspersed with large sections of non-coding DNA. c. Their genetic code is completely different than the genetic code of living organisms. d. They are typically smaller than the genomes of living organisms, although there is some overlap in genome size with the bacteria and archaea.

11. Which of the following is the largest fitness cost associated with sexual reproduction? a. Exposure to parasites b. Loss of diversity due to fewer chromosomes c. Finding and attracting a mate d. Having males in the population e. Exposure to predation

14. Why did the traits that Mendel was studying segregate into such predictable genotype frequencies? a. He was studying traits that were coded for by the mitochondrial genome, he would not have gotten predictable frequencies if he was using traits coded for in the nuclear genome. b. There was clonal interference that was occurring between his study organisms (peas) and bacterial symbionts that helped them to fix nitrogen. c. He was working with pea plants, which are fundamentally different than animals when it comes to DNA replication. d. They were found on different chromosomes and so random assortment resulted in predictable outcomes.

17. Which of the following coevolutionary relationships has the same effect on partner species as that seen between the sexes in a species with sexual conflict? a. Birds following behind a herd of cattle and eating the insects they disturb. b. Pollination of flowers by bees. c. The presence of helpful protists associated with the polyps of many coral species. d. Coevolution of virulence and resistance seen between a parasite and its host.

20. What group would be the least important if you were interested in studying the origin and early history of vertebrates? a. Placoderms b. Ostracoderms c. Conodonts d. Trilobites

24. Coalescent theory uses which two values when evaluating diversity of population and attempting to estimate recent history of a population? a. Census population size (N) and mutation rate (µ) b. Effective population size (Ne) and degree of relatedness (r) c. Census population size (N) and coefficient of selection (s) d. Effective population size (Ne) and mutation rate (µ) e. Coefficient of selection (s) and mutation rate (µ)

25. Select the best example of indirect intrasexual selection. a. The most successful strategy for offspring is to get as many resources as possible, however the best strategy for parents is to equally divide all available resources. b. Male mountain sheep fight amongst themselves and butt heads to determine mating access to females. c. In many species of frogs the male has a very loud call that the females evaluate and respond to when they are trying to choose a mate. d. Male dragonflies have a structure on their genitalia that removes any previously deposited sperm from the female reproductive tract.

25. Traits influenced in the manner described in the question above most often exhibit __________________. (traits that are polygenic) a. no diversity b. four or less distinct phenotypes c. no effect based on environment d. a continuous range of phenotypes

26. Which of the following is not a trend observed during the evolution of horses? a. Increase in body size b. Specialization of teeth for a diet of grass c. Reduction in the number of digits on each limb d. Increase in average number of offspring for each pregnancy

28. Indohyus is an early ancestor of modern whales, but it doesn't look much like modern whales. What morphological feature best establishes Indohyus as a whale ancestor? a. Nostrils positioned more towards top of head b. Loss of fur over most of the body c. Extra layer of fat for insulation d. Distinctive shape of three ear bones

33. Why has eusociality evolved so many times within the hymenoptera (ants, bees and wasps)? a. There is strong intrasexual selection found in most species. b. Meiotic drive eliminates alleles that would otherwise stop the formation of eusocial systems. c. Because the form colonies, and these almost always lead to eusociality. d. Sisters have a coefficient of relatedness of 0.75 which increases the likelihood of kin selection for cooperative traits.

37. A researcher studying lobsters notices that there are distinctly different populations found in certain areas of their distribution. She postulates that this is due to primarily to coevlutionary relationships that are different in different areas due to the distribution of various parasites and mutualistic partners of the lobster species. If this hypothesis is correct it would be a clear example of ______________. a. a ring species b. abiotic natural selection c. regional partitioning d. mosaic coevolution e. asymmetric genetic drift

44. Which of the following is a term coined in 1976 that refers to an idea, symbol or other unit of culture that can be transmitted from one individual to another. a. Allele b. Haplotype c. Culturata d. Meme e. More

45. Which of the following is the closest relative of humans (Homo sapiens)? a. Pan troglodytes (chimpanzee) b. Pan paniscus (bonobo) c. Australopithecus afarensis d. Homo erectus e. Paranthropus boisei

49. Mitochondrial DNA is of particular use when trying to estimate a date for the most recent common ancestor of all living humans. Why is this so? a. Mitochondrial DNA doesn't mutate and so is better preserved b. Mitochondrial DNA uses a different genetic code than nuclear DNA c. Mitochondrial DNA is single stranded d. Mitochondrial DNA doesn't undergo recombination during sexual reproduction

Match the quote with the person (or persons) whose ideas are most closely associated with it. 1. Alfred Wallace a. " All the acquisitions or losses wrought by nature on individuals, through the influence of the environment. . . are preserved by reproduction to the new individuals which arise" b. "The power of population is indefinitely greater than the power in the earth to produce subsistence for man." c. ". . . in each generation the two parental traits appear, separated and unchanged, and there is nothing to indicate that one of them has. . . taken over anything from the other" d. "[Species] do vary continuously in many directions; and thus there is always material for natural selection to act upon in some direction that may be advantageous."

Match the type of mating system on the left with the single best example on the right. 21. Polygynandrous a. The Kanak people of New Caledonia traditionally lived in family groups consisting of multiple husbands and a single common wife. b. Bald eagles form a strong pair bond with a single member of the opposite sex, these relationships can last for decades. c. Some species of crickets form no pair bonding and both males and females mate readily with any member of the opposite sex. d. Some social wasps have individual groups that work together to build a nest and consist of several fertile females and several males that mate amongst each other. e. Some lemurs live in groups with a single dominant reproductive male and many females.

For each of the major events in the history of life on earth select both the best date for its origin and the line of evidence that supports this date. 12. Complex and diverse forms of animal life a. 3.8 billion years ago b. 3.2 billion years ago c. 4.5 billion years ago d. 540 million years ago e. 250 million years ago a. Relative dating of fossil evidence b. Rate of expansion of the visible universe c. Relative dating of sedimentary rock with high levels of iron oxides d. Direct dating of igneous rocks e. Radiocarbon dating

D, A

Match the term on the left with the single best example or definition on the right 3. Budding a. A female leopard shark kept in an Australian aquarium had a litter of pups (baby sharks), as there was no male shark in the aquarium the pups were tested and found to have only a single parent. b. A form of indirect intrasexual selection that can evolve to give an advantage to the last male to mate with a female. c. Mammals have internal fertilization and sperm are many times smaller than the eggs. d. One of the alleles of the r2d2 gene in mice has been found to be passed on at higher frequencies than predicted by Mendelian genetics. e. A form of reproduction that involves rapid mitosis in a small group of cells and results in a smaller version of the organism that is initially attached to the parent.

What is the most likely explanation for the collinearity pattern of Hox genes?

Gene duplication events coupled with natural selection for combined regulation of the genes

Some fungus species that produce sexually have no clear sexes (no males and no females) and the gametes are all generally the same size. What term below best describes the species?

Isogamous

Ka/Ks > 1 : A gene responsible for widely divergent flowers; one of the major differences between these two species. Ka/Ks = 1 : A gene that is responsible for cold tolerance, is only somewhat similar between the two species, and is unimportant for survival due to the warm climate. Ka/Ks < 1 : A chloroplast gene, essential for survival that is still functioning in an identical manner in both species

Which of the following is not a fitness cost associated with sexual reproduction?

Loss of diversity due to fewer chromosomes

When estimating the G-value of an organism, which of the following would not be considered?

Non-coding parts of the genome

In which of the following relationships is cospeciation most likely?

Obligate Parastism

Vertebrate embryos from distantly related lineages show a marked similarity to one another at the early stages of embryogenesis and often exhibit ancestral features that are absent, or highly modified in the adult form. This statement best describes which of the following phrases?

Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny

Which of the following is a pronounced example of the power of heterochrony to effect drastic morphological change of the adult form?

Paedomorphism via neoteny in the axolotl (Mexican salamander).

Of all mass extinctions recorded in the fossil record, which had the largest impact in terms of the percentage of species lost.

Permian extinction

Which group's evolution has been most affected by polyploidy speciation?

Plants

Match the description with the most correct type of barrier to gene flow. Ligers are the offspring of a lion and a tiger, most ligers are either sterile or have loss of fitness due to epistatic interactions.

Postzygotic

Match the description with the most correct type of barrier to gene flow. Zebras and horses will mate and have offspring (Zedonk), however these offspring show reduced fertility and have a high incidence of genetic abnormalities.

Postzygotic

Match the description with the most correct type of barrier to gene flow: A rare mutant in a snail population has a shell that winds in the opposite direction from other snails in the population. This makes it unable to align reproductive tracts up with other snails.

Premating

Match the description with the most correct type of barrier to gene flow. A male and female fly from two different populations copulate, however sperm transfer is very inefficient and fertilization never occurs.

Prezygotic

In most insect there is no pair bonding between mates and both males and females will readily mate with an available member of the opposite sex. This is best described as a __________________ mating systems...

Promiscuous

I examine all the coding sequences in Pandinus imperator (Emperor scorpion) and identify each codon that translates into proline with the following results:10% CCA, 15% CCC, 12% CCT, 63% CCG. Which of the following statements is best supported by this result?

There is a strong selective force for increased translational efficiency in this species.

Hox genes are critical for the anterior to posterior patterning of bilaterian animals. Which of the following is also true of Hox genes?

They are often found in a colinear arrangement in the genome.

What do viral genomes look like compared to those of living organisms?

They are typically smaller than the genomes of living organisms, although there is some overlap in genome size with the bacteria and archaea.

What is different about telomeres and centromeres compared to other parts of chromosomes?

They don't have much coding DNA however they are critical for other reasons, therefore they are under different selective forces than most of the chromosome.

Why are mass extinctions often used as the boundary between geological eras?

They represent a clear change in the composition of the fossil record They always represent an increase in volcanic activity

Why is determining the phylogenetic relationships among major groups of bacteria more difficult than determining the phylogenetic relationships among major groups of mammals?

frequent horizontal gene transfer

Some bacteria actively transfer DNA to other bacteria that are not their offspring. This process makes relationships between bacteria species tokogenous and is an example of ___________.

horizontal gene transfer

A newly discovered species of bird is found to only lay a single egg and both parents are necessary to raise the chick to adulthood. What would be most successful mating strategy for this species?

monogamous

Most plants and its pollinators would be classified as ______________________ coevolutionary evolution.

mutualistic

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