Evolve HESI questions

In order to prevent parvovirus in new puppies, the puppies should be vaccinated every 3-4 weeks starting at age 6-8 weeks until how old? 16 weeks. 14 weeks. 20 weeks. 26 weeks.

16 weeks In order to prevent parvovirus in puppies, they should be vaccinated until 16 weeks of age. For those puppies in the high-risk breed, revacciantion should occur at 22 weeks.

According to OSHA, what is the exposure limit in parts per million (ppm) for halogenated anesthetic gases? 8 4 6 2

2 The safe exposure limit for halogenated anesthetic gases, as established by OSHA, is not to exceed 2 ppm. Exposure to 4 ppm, 6 ppm, and 8 ppm are be beyond the safe limit.

What is the proper length of time neonatal patients should be fasted prior to surgery? 2 hours. 4 hours. 6 hours. 0 hours.

0 hours. Neonatal patients should never be fasted prior to surgery, as this may cause their blood glucose levels to drop too low. It is recommended to fast all adult felines and canines 8 to12 hours from food and 2 to 4 hours from water unless otherwise instructed by the veterinarian. Owners should be provided with fasting instructions prior to the surgery date, and staff admitting the animal should confirm with the owner that the pet has been fasted.

What is the minimum required lead equivalent for protective aprons? 0.3 mm. 0.25 mm. 0.4 mm. 0.5 mm.

0.25 mm

In assessing a horse's capillary refill time (CRT), which is the expected, normal time for the original gum color to return to the blanched spot? 3.5 to 4.5 seconds 2.5 to 3.5 seconds 1 to 2.5 seconds 5.5 to 8.0 seconds

1 to 2.5 seconds The original color should return in less than 2.5 seconds. A CRT greater than 2.5 seconds is considered abnormally delayed. Dehydration and shock are the most common causes of a prolonged CRT in the horse. Severe dehydration and severe shock may produce a greatly prolonged CRT, from 5 to 8 seconds.

Which size rebreathing bag should be selected for a 10 kg canine? 5 L. 2 L. 1 L. 3 L.

2 L Rebreathing bags come in various sizes appropriate for the patient's weight. A 2 L bag is used for animals weighing between 7 and 15 kg. There is also a 0.5 L bag, a 1 L bag, a 3 L bag, and a 5 L bag; these are used for animals weighing 3 to 5 kg or less, 5 to 7 kg, 15 to 50 kg, and 50 kg to150 kg, respectively.

What is the minimum temperature and time required to achieve adequate sterilization in an autoclave at 15 psi? 121 deg F for 13 minutes. 121 deg C for 25 minutes. 121 deg C for 13 minutes. 121 deg F for 25 minutes.

121 deg C for 13 minutes. The safe minimum standard for autoclave sterilization is 121 deg C (250 deg F) for 13 minutes. Five to 10 minutes at 121 deg C will destroy most resistant microbes, and an additional 3 to 8 minutes provides a margin of safety. Sterilizing for 25 minutes at 121 deg C is beyond the minimum requirement. A temperature of 121 deg F is less than half of the temperature required for sterilization.

Which size scalpel blade is commonly used for small animal surgery? 15 17 22 20

15

What is the minimum effective pressure required when sterilizing instruments in a table-top gravity air-displacement sterilizer? 5 psi. 15 psi. 25 psi. 10 psi.

15 psi

After a urine sample is diluted 1:2 with distilled water, the refractometer shows a reading of 1.030. What is the actual specific gravity of this sample? 1.060. 2.060. 1.015. 2.030.

1.060 In order to determine the actual specific gravity of the sample, the last two digits of the specific gravity are multiplied by the dilution factor (30 x 2), which results in a specific gravity of 1.060. Specific gravities for healthy animals range from 1.001 to 1.080, so 2.030 and 2.060 are incorrect. A specific gravity of 1.015 is calculated (incorrectly) by dividing the last two digits by the dilution factor.

In order to successfully float parasitic eggs and other fecal debris, the specific gravity of the flotation solution should be maintained within what range? 1.300 to 1.350. 1.400 to 1.425. 1.200 to 1.250. 1.500 to 1.525.

1.200 to 1.250. Since most parasite eggs have a specific gravity ranging from 1.100 to 1.200 g/mL, the flotation solution should have a specific gravity between 1.200 and 1.250 in order to float the ova for collection on the coverslip. The other options represent incorrect specific gravities for flotation solutions, as they are too dense and would result in distortion of the eggs.

What is the correct sequence of teeth in the maxillary right arcade of a feline based on the Modified Triadan System? 101,102,103,104,105,106,107,108,109. 101,102,103,104,105,106,108,109,110. 101,102,103,105,106,107,108,109. 101,102,103,104,106,107,108,109.

101,102,103,104,106,107,108,109.

What is the ideal objective for observing parasite ova under the microscope? 4x. 40x. 100x. 10x.

10x Fecal examinations should be performed with the 10x objective using a systematic pattern to cover the entire coverslip. The 4x objective is not strong enough to view parasite ova but would more likely be used for observing external parasites. The 40x and 100x objectives are used mainly for microbiology.

The medical gas supply company requests notification when the E cylinder tank reaches half capacity. How many pounds per square inch (psi) will the pressure gauge read if it is half full? 700 350 1100 2200

1100 A half-full standard E cylinder has a pressure reading of 1100 psi; a full tank contains 2200 psi. The equivalent capacity in liters is 700 L for a full tank and 350 L for a half-full tank.

The veterinarian orders a 250 mg/5ml concentration of cephalexin oral suspension to be given at a dosage of 3 ml tid for 10 days. What is the correct number of mg per dose, and what is the total dose in ml for the entire 10-day period? 150 mg per dose; 30 ml total dose. 0.06 mg per dose; 90 ml total dose. 150 mg per dose; 90 ml total dose. 0.06 mg per dose; 30 ml total dose.

150 mg per dose; 90 ml total dose

Which size stomach tube is best when performing orogastric intubation on an 80-pound labrador retriever? 20 French. 16 French. 14 French. 18 French.

20 French A 20 French tube is best to accommodate larger dogs. Tubes measuring 14 French, 16 French, and 18 French would likely be too small for an 80-pound lab.

Which needle should be used when administering subcutaneous fluids to a bearded dragon? 25 gauge. 18 gauge. 16 gauge. 22 gauge.

25 gauge

A canine patient with Lyme disease is prescribed 175 mg of doxycycline sid for 25 days. The pharmacy has both 50 mg and 100 mg tablets of doxycycline stocked. How should this medication be dispensed? 25 tablets of 100 mg and 38 tablets of 50 mg. 50 tablets of 100 mg. 43.75 tablets of 100 mg. 25 tablets of 100 mg and 37.5 tablets of 50 mg.

25 tablets of 100 mg and 37.5 tablets of 50 mg.

If a patient experiences diarrhea due to Trichuris vulpis, when should the veterinary technician advise a follow-up fecal examination and deworming? 2 weeks. 6 months. 1 week. 3 months.

3 months Trichuris vulpis has a prepatent period of 70 to 90 days, therefore an additional fecal examination and deworming should be conducted at that time. Fecal testing within two weeks of detection is not recommended, but a 6-month interval is too long.

A 6-month-old golden retriever puppy is being sent home with Rimadyl (carprofen) for postoperative pain relief after an ovariohysterctomy. How long should the owner be instructed to administer this medication? 1 to 2 days. 1 month. 3 to 4 days. 1 week.

3 to 4 days The current anecdotal recommendation from pain management experts is that elective soft tissue procedures, such as spaying or castration, require 3 to 4 days of postoperative treatment with NSAIDs. Orthopedic procedures generally require one week of postoperative analgesia. Medicating for 1 to 2 days is not enough time for the medication. Long-term safe use of carprofen in cats has not been established, so a one-month period should be avoided.

How long is a double-wrapped muslin pack considered sterile in an open cabinet? 7 weeks. 2 days. 3 weeks. 7 days.

3 weeks

What is the usual vaporizer maintenance setting for sevoflurane? 0.5% to 2%. 1% to 3%. 3% to 4%. 0.25% to 1%.

3% to 4% The vaporizer maintenance setting for sevoflurane is 3% to 4%. The maintenance setting for Halothane is 0.5% to 2% and the setting for Isoflurane is 1% to 3%. A vaporizer setting of 0.25% to 1% is not used.

In order to ensure accurate test results, a urine sample at room temperature must be tested within how many minutes? 5 30 60 10

30 Urine samples should be analyzed within 30 minutes of collection, unless refrigerated for later testing. Samples may remain at room temperature for periods exceeding 5 and 10 minutes. A delay of 60 minutes is not acceptable, and would require a repeat sample collection.

The veterinarian writes an order for fendbendazole 10% suspension for 3 days at a dosage of 50 mg/kg. If the patient weighs 44 lbs, what is the total amount of fenbendazole dispensed for the treatment protocol? 100 ml. 10 ml. 300 ml. 30 ml.

30ml

If an image of optimal radiographic density was acquired using a traditional film-screen system at 16 milliampere-seconds (mAs) and a source-image distance (SID) of 100 cm, what mAs is required to produce the same density at a new distance of 50 cm? 4 mAs. 2 mAs. 32 mAs. 8 mAs.

4 mAs The inverse square law states that the intensity of the radiation is inversely proportional to the square of its distance from the source of the radiation. Since the distance in this scenario is reduced by half, the mAs must be reduced by a factor of 4 to produce the same density. The new density may be calculate using the density maintenance formula: mAs1 / mAs2 = (SID1) sq / (SID2) sq; 16 / x = 100 sq / 50 sq; x = (10,000) (x) = 40,000; x = 40,000 / 10,000 = 4 mAs.

Which dosage of carprofen is approved for a cat having surgical pain? 0.1 to 0.3mg/kg IM. 0.2mg/kg IM. 0.05 to 0.10mg/kg IM. 4 mg/kg IM.

4 mg/kg IM. The only approved dose for cats is 4mg/kg as a one-time injection for surgical pain. However, for long-term use, pharmacokinetic extrapolations suggest a long-term dose of 0.5mg/kg q24h PO, although safety has not been established. The 0.2 mg/kg IM is for meloxicam; the range of 0.1 to 0.3mg/kg IM is for morphine. Finally, the range 0.05 to 0.10mg/kg IM is for hydromorphone.

A surgeon plans to administer two incompatible drugs (diazepam and hydromorphone) during surgery. What supplies should be used to ensure safe and effective delivery of these medications? IV catheter. Perivascular syringe and needle. Venipuncture set. IM syringe and needle.

IV Catheter

Which measurement should be charted as a pocket in the gingival sulcus in an adult canine? 4 mm. 3 mm. 1mm. 2 mm.

4mm A measurement of 4 mm in the gingival sulcus is greater than the normal range of 1 to 3 mm and is considered a pocket, or an abnormal space between the gingiva and the tooth. Measurements of 1 mm, 2 mm, and 3 mm are all considered to be within the normal range for the gingival sulcus in an adult canine.

How long should a typical microhematocrit tube be centrifuged for packed cell volume determination? 5 minutes. 15 minutes. 20 minutes. 10 minutes.

5 minutes Microhematocrit tubes should be filled 3/4 of the way with clay plugging one end, placed in the centrifuge with the clay facing outward, and spun for 2 to 5 minutes. Leaving the tube in the centrifuge for too long may result in a falsely high reading.

What is the annual effective dose limit (EfD) for occupationally exposed workers? 50 rad. 5 rem. 15 rad. 0.5 rem.

5 rem

What is the recommended volume of urine needed to perform a urine sediment test? 20 to 25 mL. 10 to 15 mL. 5 to 10 mL. 30 to 35 mL.

5 to 10 mL For a urine sediment test, a volume of 5 to 10 mL of urine should be collected. The other answers represent volumes that are above what is required for urine sediment testing.

Potassium chloride (KCL) has a concentration of 20 mEq/40ml. The veterinarian orders 25 mEq to be added to 1 L of lactated Ringer's solution (LRS). How many milliliters of KCL must be added to the LRS to prepare this order? 50 ml. 500 ml. 12.5 ml. 0.02 ml.

50 ml of KCLmust be added to 1 L of LRS to fill the prescription: 25 mEq / 0.5 mEq/ml = 50 ml. The concentration of 20 mEq/40ml is reduced to 0.5 mEq/ml. A dosage of 0.02 ml is incorrect since it is derived by dividing the concentration by the dosage. A dosage of 12.5 ml is incorrect since it is derived by multiplying the dosage by the concentration. A dosage of 500 ml is incorrect since it is derived by multiplying the volume of LRS by the concentration of KCL.

A 40kg Doberman is in recovery following surgery for the removal of a foreign body. The doctor orders a fentanyl CRI at 4 ug/kg/hour. The fluid volume is set at 55 mL/hour. How much fentanyl with a concentration of 0.05 mg/mL must be added to 1000 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride? 32 mL. 160 mL. 58 mL. 9 mL.

58ml The correct answer is 58 mL. Prior to calculating the correct amount of fentanyl, the number of hours that the bag of fluid will last must be determined: 1000 mL / 55mL/hour = 18.18 hours. Next, the weight in kg is multiplied by both the dosage rate and the time: 40 kg x 4 ug/kg/hr x 18.18 hours = 2908.8 ug; 2908.8 / 1000 = 2.9088 mg. The amount of fentanyl needed is calculated as follows: 2.9088mg / 0.05 mg/mL = 58.18, or 58 mL.

A 6-year-old thoroughbred is undergoing an orthopedic procedure to correct a fractured stifle. How many hours does this horse need to be without food before the procedure? 12 hours. 24 hours. 10 hours. 6 hours.

6 hours With the exception of foals, food should be withheld from horses for approximately 4 to 8 hours before surgery. Water should not be withheld. Food should be withheld from adult pigs for 6 to 10 hours. Sheep, goats, and large ruminants should be without food for 12 to 18 hours. Some exotic species, such as amphibians and fish, need to be without food for 24 hours.

An abdominal radiograph is obtained with a traditional film-screen imaging system with a technique of12 milliampere-seconds (mAs) at 68 kilovolts peak (kVp). The image appears too dark and a repeat image is requested at one-half the density of the original image. Which technique will produce this outcome? 6 mAs and 68 kVp. 12 mAs and 68 kVp. 6 mAs and 34 kVp. 12 mAs and 34 kVp.

6 mAs and 68 kVp. In this scenario (using a traditional film-screen imaging system), a technique of 6 mAs at 68 kVp will produce a repeat image with half the density of the original;since mAs is directly proportional to radiographic density, reducing the mAs by one-half also reduces radiographic density by one-half. A kVp of 34 would not provide enough penetration; although a 15% reduction in kVp will result in a reduction in density of about 50%, if mAs remains the same.Doubling the mAs to 12 would make the image appear even darker.

For which patient is it safe to administer acepromazine as a preanesthetic? 2-year-old English Bulldog undergoing allergy testing. 6-year-old stallion having teeth floated. 10-year-old Laborador Retriever with moderate liver disease prior to a lumpectomy. 6-month-old Poodle having an ovariohysterectomy.

6-month-old Poodle having an ovariohysterectomy. Phenothiazines, such as acepromazine, are safe to use on a 6-month-old Poodle. Acepromazine should not be used when testing dogs for allergies due to its antihistaminic properties. The primary organ of metabolism is the liver, so this medication should be avoided in animals with moderate to severe liver disease. Many phenothiazine tranquilizers, including acepromazine and promazine, may cause erection (priapism) and temporary or permanent prolapse of the penis in stallions so its use should be avoided.

How many years should a veterinary practice store records before shredding? 3 6 8 4

8 After 4 to 8 years, medical records can be removed from storage and shredded. At 1 to 3 years, records should be stored with the primary records and at 3 to 4 years the inactive records can be moved to storage.

Which oxygen saturation (SpO2) level is considered a medical emergency? 90%. 85%. 93%. 95%.

85%

Prophylactic antibiotics are recommended preoperatively for procedures lasting more than how many minutes? 30 15 60 90

90 Surgical procedures lasting longer than 90 minutes require prophylactic antibiotics due to extended exposure to contaminants from the patient's skin, the surgical staff, and the environment. Surgeries lasting less than 90 minutes do not typically require prophylactic antibiotics, and giving them can promote the development of bacterial resistance.

Which blood type is most common in cats? A. AB. B. O.

A The majority of cats have blood type A. Type B occurs in certain purebreed cats. AB occurs in few cats. Only humans have blood type O.

A veterinary technician is readying and setting out equipment and supplies before an equine hysteroscopic (endoscopic) insemination. Which endoscope is preferred? A 1.5-m or longer flexible endoscope cold sterilized with ethylene oxide. A 1-m long and A 4-mm diameter or less flexible endoscope sterilized with ethylene oxide. A 1.6-m flexible endoscope cold sterilized with glutaraldehyde.

A 1.6-m flexible endoscope cold sterilized with glutaraldehyde. For hysteroscopic (endoscopic) insemination, a prewarmed 1.2- or 1.6-m flexible videoscope or endoscope is recommended; it must be previously cold sterilized with glutaraldehyde and rinsed with abundant lactated Ringer's solution. Cold sterilization is performed by thoroughly cleaning the endoscope and maintaining it in contact with glutaraldehyde for at least 10 minutes. The endoscope is then rinsed with distilled water and dried. A 1-m long and 1.5-m long endoscope may be required in larger male horses. For navicular bursoscopy, a 4-mm diameter or less endoscope is more practical.

In which case is it necessary to perform emergent surgery without prior stabilization? A 4-year-old intact male beagle with a fractured femur and heavy bleeding from the leg. An 8-year-old intact female chihuahua who is lethargic and weak, with foul smelling discharge from the vulva. A 5-year-old neutered male Great Dane with bloating, retching, pale mucous membranes, and tachycardia. A 2-year-old female shih tzu with a proptosed left eye after being shaken by a pit bull.

A 5-year-old neutered male Great Dane with bloating, retching, pale mucous membranes, and tachycardia. Immediate surgery for gastric dilation and volvulus is indicated for several reasons: to confirm that the stomach is in its correct anatomic position, to determine if gastric necrosis or active hemorrhage is present (usually from tearing of the short gastric vessels), or to determine if thrombosis of the spleen (secondary to partial or complete torsion) has occurred.

Which two fat-soluble vitamins can cause toxicity if given in excess? A and K. K and E. D and E. A and D.

A and D. Vitamins A and D are fat-soluble and can be toxic if given in excess. Toxicity can occur more easily with these vitamins because they are found in most pet's diets. Vitamins E and K are also fat-soluble vitamins; however, toxicity is very rare with these two vitamins. In general, fat-soluble vitamins can cause toxicity, as they are stored in the fat cells of animals where they can accumulate into toxic levels as opposed to being excreted.

Which immunoglobulin is present in the greatest concentration in the bloodstream? IgA. IgM. IgD. IgG.

IgG Comprising 75% of the circulating immunoglobulins, IgG is present in the greatest quantity in the bloodstream. IgM, IgA, and IgD comprise 5%, 20%, and trace amounts, respectively.

In order to ensure the analyzers used to run blood work are accurate for every species, what should the veterinary technician use to complete validation? A sample from a healthy cat. Distilled water. A sample from a healthy dog. A control sample for every species.

A control sample for every species. In order to ensure analyzers used to run blood work are accurate a control sample for every species must be run. These control samples should be obtained by the company that manufactures the analyzers. Distilled water may be used to clean the probes of the analyzers, but not as control samples. Samples from healthy dogs and cats should not be used, since controls for all species are needed and must be provided by the manufacturer.

The veterinarian has instructed the veterinary technician to administer doxorubicin to a 6-year-old Golden retriever. The technician places a 22-gauge intravenous catheter on the first attempt and administers the drug. About 24 hours later, the patient returns to the hospital for redness and swelling in the leg where the drug was given. What most likely caused this reaction? An intramuscular route was used. An excessively strong dose was administered. An intravenous route was used. A perivascular route was used.

A perivascular route was used. When doxorubicin is given by the perivascuar route, it can cause redness, swelling, and skin sloughing. Doxorubicin is usually administered intravenously, but it should never be given by the intramuscular route. Administering a dose that is too strong would more likely result in adverse cardiac effects.

The technician is hand scaling a canine patient and specifically working on the rostral maxillary teeth. Which is the correct hand scaler to use in this situation? A universal curette. A straight shank scaler. A bent shank scaler. A site specific curette.

A straight shank scaler. The straight shank scaler is the best choice for scaling the rostral teeth, whether maxillary or mandibular. The bent shank scaler is best for scaling the caudalmost teeth, premolars, and molars. A universal curette and a site specific curette are specifically designed for subgingival scaling, although they can be used supragingivally.

Which type of shock is characterized by hyperglycemia in the early stage and hypoglycemia in the later stages? Septic. Traumatic. Cardiogenic. Hypovolemic.

Septic Hyperglycemia may occur in the early phase of septic shock as a result of the effects of stress hormones on metabolism. In later stages, hypoglycemia is predominant, as glucose is consumed by both bacteria and body demands.

Which two methods are preferred when collecting a urine sample for culture? Catheterization and cystocentesis. Free catch and catheterization. Bladder expression and cystocentesis. Bladder expression and free catch.

Catheterization and cystocentesis Catheterization and cystocentesis are the preferred methods to obtain a urine sample for culture. Free catch of voided or expressed samples is more likely to result in contamination with microorganisms.

How deep should the incision be made when inserting a catheter for diagnostic peritoneal lavage for suspected peritonitis? Subcutaneous. Abdominal fascial. Cutaneous. Epidermal.

Abdominal fascial The catheter must make it all the way into the abdominal fascia. This is accomplished by making a small incision through the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and all the way into the superficial abdominal fascia. This is easily remembered by keeping in mind that the DPL itself is a modified procedure for collecting small amounts of abdominal fluid.

While performing a necropsy on a sheep presenting with bottle jaw from Haemonchus contortus, where would the veterinary technician expect to find adult worms? Perianal region. Trachea. Bronchioles. Abomassum.

Abomassum Haemonchus contortus, the barber pole worm, is one of the trichostrongyles of ruminants that are found in the abomassum and intestines. Lung worms tend to reside in the trachea and bronchioles. Pin worms are located in the perianal region.

The veterinarian orders a patient to receive 700 ml of lactated Ringer's solution (LRS) with 2.5% dextrose. How many milliliters of 50% dextrose must be added to the LRS to make the required 2.5% dextrose solution? 3.5 ml. 35 ml. 3500 ml. 350 ml.

Adding 35 ml of 50% dextrose to the 700 ml of LRS will create a 2.5% dextrose solution: 700 ml x .025 = 17.5; 17.5 / .50 = 35 ml. The correct answer may also be calculated by converting the percentage solution to mg/ml: 700 ml x 25 mg/ml = 17500; 17500 / 500 mg/ml = 35 ml. The other values are the result of incorrectly converting 2.5%, or by converting 50% to the wrong mg/ml concentration.

Which specimen is needed for monitoring digoxin levels? Plasma. Serum. Red blood cells. Whole blood.

Serum

Which drug should be avoided in patients suffering from hypovolemic shock? Acepromazine. Diazepam. Fluxin meglumine. Butorphanol.

Acepromazine Acepromazine should be avoided for patients suffering from hypovolemic shock sincethe main adverse reaction to this drug is hypotension. Diazepam, butorphanol, and fluxin meglumine are medications that may be administered to patients suffering from shock.

Which medication is contraindicated for felines? Meloxicam. Diphenhydramine. Acetaminophen. Pepcid.

Acetaminophen

Which drug is contraindicated for cats due to its toxic effects? Carprofen. Acetominophen. Flunixin. Aspirin.

Acetaminophen Cats lack an enzyme required to metabolize acetaminophen (Tylenol). The effects of acetaminophen in cats include liver toxicity and an inability of the red blood cells to carry oxygen. One regular-strength tablet (325 mg) may be toxic, and a second could be lethal. Signs of toxicity include CNS depression, anorexia, vomiting, hypothermia, increased respiratory rate, tachycardia, swollen face and paws, salivation, diarrhea, coma, and death. Aspirin may also be toxic to cats and must be given in small doses under the supervision of a veterinarian. Carprofen is more often used for pain relief in dogs, but is occasionally used in cats. Flunixin is commonly administered to cats.

Which intervention is included in the treatment of gingivitis? Filling the tooth. Changing diet. Extracting teeth. Administering antibiotics.

Administering antibiotics

A 0.1 mL dose of 2% lidocaine is sufficient to prevent laryngospasm during intubation of which species? Sheep. Goats. Cats. Pigs.

Cats A dose of 0.1 mL of 2% lidocaine is an appropriate dose to prevent laryngospasm in cats during intubation. A much larger dose (1 to 2 mL) is recommended for sheep, goats, and pigs.

When is the best time to shave the surgical area for an orthopedic procedure? Immediately before anesthesia. The day before the procedure. When the patient first arrives for surgery. After anesthesia induction.

After anesthesia induction Shaving for any procedure should be performed after the animal is anesthetized. Shaving prior to induction increases the likelihood of small abrasions to the skin due to movement during clipping.

Which parasite is commonly mistaken for Howell-Jolly bodies? Cytauxzoon felis. Anaplasma marginale. Ehrlichia canis. Babesia cati.

Anaplasma marginale Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis is caused by ingestion of feed and water containing the parasite Sarcocystis neurona that is present in the fecal matter of the opposum. The snail is the intermediate host for Fasciola hepatica. Raccoon feces contains the eggs of Baylisascaris procyonis. Toxocara canis eggs are transmitted in the feces of canines.

During a splenectomy of a 10-year-old Rottweiler, the veterinary technician places a pulse oximeter on the patient's tongue. After 2 minutes, the SpO2 level is consistently reading 82%. How should the veterinary technician respond? Leave the anesthetic gas level intact and wait 5-10 minutes before alerting the doctor. Inform the doctor, turn off the anesthetic gas and oxygen until the SpO2 levels rise. Inform the doctor that SpO2 levels are low, but not concerning. Alert the doctor immediately, turn down the anesthetic gas, and turn up the oxygen.

Alert the doctor immediately, turn down the anesthetic gas, and turn up the oxygen. The technician should never completely turn off the anesthetic gas or oxygen during surgery unless directed by the doctor to do so. Since the SpO2 level was at 82% the technician should not wait to alert the doctor, or inform the doctor that the patient's SpO2 is low but not concerning. Ideally, the SpO2 level should not drop below 92% The technician should alert the doctor immediately and turn down the anesthetic gas and turn up the oxygen.

Prolonged corticosteroid therapy in dogs is known to cause an increase in serum levels of which enzyme? Alkaline Phosphatase. Lipase. Amylase. Creatine kinase.

Alkaline Phosphatase Corticosteroid therapy is known to cause an increase inalkaline phosphatase activity, which is an indication of liver damage. Amylase and lipase are pancreatic enzymes, which are not directly associated with liver toxicity. Creatine phosphokinase is used as a marker for muscles damage rather than liver damage.

Which species is intubated by digital palpation? Canine. Cattle. Equine. Feline.

Cattle Cattle are intubated by digital palpation, while canines and felines are usually intubated with the assistance of a laryngoscope. Horses are intubated blindly. Felines and canines are intubated using the traditional laryngoscope.

When scheduling multiple surgeries for a single day, which procedure should be scheduled last? Anal gland fistula repair. Castration. Lumpectomy. Ovariohysterectomy.

Anal gland fistula repair

What are anesthetic reversal agents called? Agonists. Antagonists. Partial agonists. Mixed agonists.

Antagonists Anesthetic reversal agents are known as antagonists, which means these agents block or reverse the action of the corresponding agonist. For example, Antisedan is the reversal agent for Domitor. Most anesthetic agents are agonists, which means that they bind to receptors and exert one or more effects. Partial agonists bind to receptors and exert a partial or milder effect. Mixed agonists-antagonists partially reverse the effects of pure agonists.

Which type of drug is permeable to the blood-brain barrier? Anesthetics. Barbiturates. Benzodiazepines. Antibiotics.

Antibiotics

In orthopedic surgery, which reversal agent is preferred concomitant to IV medetomidine administration for anesthesia and pain? Butorphanol. Atipamezole. Yohimbine. Anticholinesterase.

Atipamezole Atipamezole is the preferred and most effective alpha2-antagonist reversal agent for medetomidine, enhancing its safety and efficacy. Yohimbine, another alpha2-antagonist, may seem like an excellent candidate, but atipamezole is more specific for the alpha2-receptor. Butorphanol is an agonist-antagonist with agonist activity primarily at kappa and sigma opiate receptors; it used for partial reversal of pure agonists such as morphine, oxymorphone, and fentanyl. Anticholinesterase is the preferred reversal agent for the muscle relaxant atracurium.

Which procedure is best for placing a central line catheter in a schnauzer suffering from acute hypoglycemia? Don exam gloves, prepare the lateral saphenous site, establish the catheter, and do not wrap the site. Apply sterile gloves, prepare the lateral saphenous site, place the catheter, and wrap the site. Don exam gloves, prep the cephalic vein site, place the catheter, and wrap the site. Apply sterile gloves, prepare the jugular vein site, establish a double lumen catheter, and wrap the site.

Apply sterile gloves, prepare the jugular vein site, establish a double lumen catheter, and wrap the site. When placing a central line, sterile gloves must be worn, the jugular vein site is then prepared, a double lumen catheter is inserted, and the site is wrapped. The jugular cather should have a double lumen, so that medications and fluids can be given congrunetly without interferring with one another. The cephalic and saphenous are not sites where central lines can be placed.

The veterinarian has ordered a compounded form of methimazole for transdermal administration in a feline patient. Which is the most important instruction for the veterinary technician to provide the owner? Wash hands right after application. Apply only to the inside pinna of the ear. Cover the area of application with a bandage. Apply the prescribed amount only with gloves on.

Apply the prescribed amount only with gloves on

Which agent is considered an anticholingeric? Acepromazine. Atropine. Morphine. Midazolam.

Atropine Anticholinergics, such as atropine, are used to slow down the parasympathetic system. Acepromazine and midazolam are tranquilizers, and morphine is used for pain.

As part of the preoperative instructions concerning a lipoma removal for a Laborador Retriever with arthritis, the client is advised to stop the current aspirin regimen. The client questions the rationale for disconuing the medication treatment. What explanation should the veterinary technician provide the client? Aspirin may cause gastrointestinal ulceration. Aspirin decreases platelet clumping, which may result in hemorrhage. Aspirin produces an antiinflammatory effect. Aspirin may adversely affect hepatic transformation of the anesthetic agent used.

Aspirin decreases platelet clumping, which may result in hemorrhage. Aspirin therapy is discontinued prior to surgery because of concerns related to hemorrhage both during and after surgery caused by the inhibition of thromboxane and thus decreases platelet aggregation. Ulceratin of the GI tract would not affect the lipoma surgery. Antiinflammatory properties would be helpful during surgery so it would not be a reason to discontinue using it. Aspirin has not been noted to adversely affect hepatic transformation.

Which surgical procedure is most likely to require preoperative antibiotics? Aural hematoma repair. Castration. Ovariohysterectomy. Lumpectomy.

Aural hematoma repair Surgeries requiring prophylactic antibiotics are necessary for procedures in areas that are difficult to aseptically prepare, such as an aural hematoma repair. Castration, ovariohysterectomy, and lumpectomy do not require prophylactic antibiotics, since preparation for these procedures may be performed aseptically.

When mixing and pouring radiographic processing chemicals, which precaution should be implemented? Leave the door open in the darkroom. Remove the eyeglasses. Avoid breathing in the fumes. Pour excess chemicals down the drain.

Avoid breathing in the fumes. When mixing and pouring the radiographic processing chemicals, it is most important to avoid breathing in the fumes. The veterinary technician should not leave the darkroom door open, but rather close it and turn on the ventilation fan. Excess chemicals should never be poured down the drain; if these chemicals mix with others, they can produce toxic gases or they can generate high temperatures and ruin the pipes. Protective eyewear should be worn and never removed when working with hazardous chemicals.

Which technique is best when lifting heavy patients or objects? Bend the knees and lift with the back. Bend from the waist and lift with the arms. Bend the kness and lift with the legs. Bend from the waist and lift with the back.

Bend the kness and lift with the legs. Bending at the knees and engaging the legs when lifting heavy patients or objects protects the back from strain and injury. The remaining methods for lifting are unsafe and may result in injury or permanent disability.

Which abbreviation located on a prescription label indicates that the medication should be taken twice daily? BID. SID. QID. TID.

BID

A 5-year-old Irish Setter is brought to the office for evaluation of apparent depression and decreased appetite. Upon examination, the technician notes pale mucus membranes, an enlarged spleen, and icteric appearance of the skin. Basophilic, pear-shaped organisms are found within the red blood cells on a stained blood smear. Which protozoan parasite is likely responsible for the Setter's presentation? Hepatozoon. Isospora. Eimeria. Babesia.

Babesia Babesia canis is a protozan intracellular parasite found in red blood cells causing anorexia, depression, icterus, and pale mm. It is characterized by the pear-shaped oragnisms found in the RBCs on a blood smear. Hepatzooon are found within white blood cells. Isospora and Eimeria are also protozoan parasites; however, they reside in the gastrointestinal tract.

Opioid analgesics such as morphine, codeine, and meperidine, cause CNS stimulation in which species? Human. Cat. Monkey. Dog.

Cat The naturally occurring narcotics (e.g., morphine, codeine) and synthetic narcotics (e.g., hydrocodone, meperidine) are the most potent analgesics. These opioid analgesics cause CNS stimulation in cats and horses, but they cause CNS depression in dogs, monkeys, and humans.

Which erythrocyte abnormality is seen in dogs with lead poisoning? Howell-Jolly bodies. Basophilic stippling. Heinz bodies. Nucleated red blood cells.

Basophilic stippling Basophilic stippling, the presence of dark blue bodies from retained RNA, is observed in dogs with lead poisoning. This is also common in ruminants with immature red blood cells and occasionally in anemic cats. Howell-Jolly bodies are basophilic nuclear remnants on young erythrocytes in response to anemia. Heinz bodies are pale areas bulging from the side of the red blood cell that are caused by oxidant drugs and other chemicals. Nucleated red blood cells in mammals result from early release of immature red blood cells.

A 10-month-old labrador retriever is awaiting gastrointestinal surgery for the removal of a corn cob that was ingested and is now stuck. Which preoperative step should be performed first? Bring extra surgical instruments in case the primary pack becomes contaminated. Begin fluid therapy in case the patient is dehydration. Administer prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infection. Intubate the patient with a cuffed endotracheal tube prior to induction.

Begin fluid therapy in case the patient is dehydration. Depending on how long the foreign body has been present, the patient may be dehydrated due to vomiting or difficulty swallowing, so the first step should be to correct dehydration with fluid therapy prior to surgery. Next, the patient should be intubated as soon as possible with a cuffed endotracheal tube to prevent aspiration of stomach contents in case of vomiting during induction. Also, the veterinary technician should make sure that extra instruments are available in case the primary pack becomes contaminated during the procedure. Finally, prophylactic antibiotics are indicated if the gastrointestinal tract is to be entered.

Which feeds should an owner be instructed to offer an adult horse to both prevent and manage HyPP? Bermuda grass hay, barley, oats, and beet pulp. Alfalfa hay, Timothy grass hay, brome hay, and corn. Oats, corn, sugar molasses, wheat, barley, and beet molasses. Barley, beet pulp, orchard grass hay, soybean meal, and oats.

Bermuda grass hay, barley, oats, and beet pulp. The best option for a horse with hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HyPP) includes cuts of Timothy or Bermuda grass hay; grains such as oats, corn, wheat, and barley; and beet pulp, fed in smallmeals several times a day. This is because horses with HyPP need a balanced diet containing between 0.6% and 1.1% total potassium concentration by weight. High-potassium feeds that should be avoided include alfalfa hay, brome hay, orchard grass hay, soybean meal, as well as sugar molasses and beet molasses.

Because a Cole endotracheal tube has a tapered end and no inflatable cuff, it is recommended for use is which species? Dogs. Birds. Cats. Horses.

Birds Cole tubes have a tapered end and no cuff, which make them suitable for small patients and for birds, which do not have an expandable trachea. Murphy tubes have a side hole called the Murphy eye at the tapered end that permits airflow in the event of blockage of the tip. Murphy tubes are used regularly in cats, dogs and horses as they have expandable tracheas.

Which cleaner will best decontaiminate an exam room where a patient with parvovirus has had been treated? Lysol. Bleach. 100% alcohol. Chlorhexidine.

Bleach Areas contaminated with parvovirus should be cleaned using a bleach solution, since bleach is very effective at killing the virus. Although lysol, alcohol, and chlorhexidine are used for disinfecting and cleaning, they are not effective in killing the parvovirus.

Which is the most accurate description of central venous pressure (CVP)? Capillary refill time. Blood pressure in the vena cava. Arterial blood pressure. Cardiac output.

Blood pressure in the vena cava Central venous pressure describes the pressure in the vena cava near the right atrium of the heart. Capillary refill time refers to the amount of time it akes for blood flow to return to the vessels in the mucous membranes. Arterial blood pressure refers to the pressure that the circulating blood has on the arteries. Cardiac output is a measure of how much blood is pumped by the heart per minute.

Which species has a dental pad instead of upper incisors or upper canine teeth? Bovine. Porcine. Feline. Equine.

Bovine

Which cats are most prone to upper respiratory aspergillosis? Brachycephalic cats. Cats with retrovirus infection. Cats with feline leukemia. Female geriatric cats.

Brachycephalic cats. Brachycephalic breeds such as Persians and Himalayan Persians appear to be predisposed to upper respiratory aspergillosis. Most cats with URT aspergillosis test negative for retrovirus infection; only one cat with SNA in the literature was co-infected with feline leukemia. Affected cats range in age from 1 to13 years (median, 5 years), so old age is not a factor, nor does clear sex predisposition exist.

What is a significant disadvantage of using an over-the-needle catheter for equine venipuncture? Need for trocar removal and protection. Laceration of vessel. Breakage at the junction of the catheter and hub. Extravascular administration.

Breakage at the junction of the catheter and hub A disadvantage of using an over-the-needle catheter is that it is more inclined to break at the junction of the catheter and hub, due in large part to its lack of flexibility since the stylet is inside the catheter. Butterfly catheters often lacerate the vesse since the needle is more exposed (attached to the tubing); they also tend to cause extravascular administration. In over-the-wire catheters, the trocar must be removed and protected.

Which is an example of a violation of laboratory safety procedures? Breaking a beaker containing a toxic substance and cleaning the spill and broken glass before returning to work. Storing chemicals in small and medium-sized containers instead of larger ones. Inhaling fumes from a chemical agent and seeking the advice of a senior lab technician. Wearing a knee length lab coat, gloves, and goggles while working with chemicals.

Breaking a beaker containing a toxic substance and cleaning the spill and broken glass before returning to work. Releasing or spilling hazardous chemicals without reporting the incident is a violation of laboratory safety protocols. It is also a violation of Federal law to clean up hazardous chemicals without proper training and authorization. Safety protocols may also recommend storing samples in smaller containers to reduce the chance of accidental release. Personnel working in the laboratory should don appropriate protective apparel, including a knee length lab coat, gloves, and goggles. Consulting a senior lab technician about inhaling fumes is an example of proper protocol.

Which local anesthetic agent can last up to 10 hours? Buprenorphine. Lidocaine. Cetacaine. Bupivacaine.

Bupivacaine

Which local anesthetic has the longest lasting analgesic effects? Lidocaine. Bupivacaine. Mepivacaine. Tetracaine.

Bupivacaine Bupivacaine has longer-lasting effects (6 to 8 hours) than lidocaine (1 to 2 hours), mepivacaine (90 to 180 minutes), and tetracaine (2 hours), and is therefore recommended when true analgesic effects are desired.

After examination of the sample is complete, what action should be taken to ensure that feces contaminated with Echinococcus granulosus is disposed of safely? Burn the sample in an incinerator. Disinfect the sample with bleach. Sterilize the sample in an autoclave. Place the sample in a hazardous waste bag.

Burn the sample in an incinerator Fecal samples containing Echinococcus granulosus should be handled with rubber gloves and then incinerated after testing due to the severe zoonotic potential of this parasite. Placing the sample in a hazardous waste bag, applying bleach to the sample, and sterilizing the sample in an autoclave would either not guarantee complete destruction of the parasite and or would contaminate other surfaces with the parasite.

Which opioid is an agonist and also an antagonist? Morphine. Butorphanol. Fentanyl. Oxymorphone.

Butorphanol Butorphanol is a kappa agonist and an mu antagonist that provides mild analgesia for about 45 minutes, with sedation for 2 or more hours. The most commonly used pure agonists in the United States are morphine, oxymorphone, fentanyl, and hydromorphone.

Which agent is classified as an opioid mixed agonist-antagonist that provides sedation, analgesic, and antitussive effects? Butorphanol. Hydromorphine. Fentanyl. Morphine.

Butorphanol Butorphanol is an opioid mixed agonist-antagonist that provides sedation, analgesic, and antitussive (cough suppression) effects. Fentanyl, morphine, and hydromorphine are classified as opioid agonists and have a duration of a few hours. Opioids are most commonly given by constant infusion.

At what level should the x-ray beam be centered for a radiographic exam of the cervical spine? C3 to C4. C7 to T1. C1 to C2. C5 to C6.

C3 to C4 Since there are seven cervical veterbrae, the veterinary technician should center the beam at the level of C3 to C4. Placing the beam at C6 or below is likely to project the upper c-spine outside the field of view. Centering at C1 to C2, will project the lower c-spine outside the field of view.

Which urine crystals are associated with ethylene glycol toxicity? Uric acid. Calcium oxalate monohydrate. Triple phosphate. Amorphous urate.

Calcium oxalate monohydrate. The urine of animals poisoned with ethylene glycol (antifreeze) often contain calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals. Amorphous urates are found in acidic urine. Triple phosphate crystals, also known as struvite crystals, are found in alkaline to slightly acidic urine. Uric acid crystals take a variety of shapes, are yellow-brown in color, and are not common in cats or dogs (except dalmatians).

The veterinarian has prescribed firocoxib (Previcox) for a canine patient that has osteoarthritis but, according to blood test results, is otherwise healthy. What is the most important recommendation the veterinary technician should make to the owner as they pick up the dog's prescription? Return for a follow up in a few weeks to monitor BUN and creatinine. Administer this medication with a meal. Schedule monthly lab work to check liver enzymes. Call if there are any signs of anorexia or vomiting.

Call if there are any signs of anorexia or vomiting

Which class of diuretic is also used for treatment of glaucoma? Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. Potassium sparing. Loop. Osmotic.

Carbonic anhydride inhibitors Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors as a diuretic will decrease the rate of carbonic acid and H+ production in the kidney, and will also reduce intraocular pressure by decreasing aqueous humor production

Which type of shock causes increased central venous pressure? Hypovolemic. Cardiogenic. Traumatic. Septic.

Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood through the circulation (reduced cardiac output), resulting in elevated central venous pressure. Cardiogenic shock can result from anything that interferes with the ability of the heart to fill (diastolic failure) or pump blood (systolic failure). Traumatic shock and hypovolemic shock are characterized by decreased blood volume, which leads to a decrease in central venous pressure. Septic shock results in the body's defense against infection by stimulating the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS); these syndromes decrease blood perfusion but do not directly affect central venous pressure.

What type of equipment is used to induce anesthesia in fractious, vicious animals that can not otherwise be restrained? Masks. Endotracheal tubes. Muzzles. Chambers.

Chambers. Chambers are often used to induce anesthesia in fractious, vicious animals that can not be handled otherwise. By incorporating chambers, the patients can be monitored effectively and extubated when it is safe for the patient and the person administering the anesthesia. Masks are used for patients that are not yet intubated or are not going to be intubated. Endotracheal tubes are used when patients are relaxed enough and the tube can be placed in the trachea. Muzzles should not be used unless it is to hold a mask on; in the event that a patient vomits, this could cause that patient to aspirate.

What is the first step for preparing an inhaled anesthetic agent prior to surgery? Set the pop-off valve. Prepare the scavenger. Prepare the breathing system. Check the level of carrier gas.

Check the level of carrier gas. When preparing for procedures in which an anesthetic inhalant is to be administered, the level of carrier gas must be verified and replenished if necessary. If the carrier gas is too low or empty, delivering inhalant anesthesia will not be possible. All other steps, including setting the pop-off valve and preparing the scavenger and the breathing system, are irrelevant if the gas levels are too low.

The term "buccal" refers to which part of the mouth? Palate. Lips. Tongue. Cheek.

Cheek

When performing a radiographic examination on an agitated puppy, which method of restraint is most effective for reducing patient motion while also decreasing radiation exposure to the worker? Chemical restraint. Manual restraint with leaded gloves and apron. Manual restraint with gauze ties. Mechanical restraint with tape.

Chemical restraint Chemical sedation is the best option for reducing motion blur during radiographic examinations of agitated patients. Various types of manual and mechanical restraint are not as effective for reducing patient motion as chemical restraint when imaging an uncooperative patient. In the absence of chemical sedation, it will be necessary for personnel to hold the patient during the exposure, which will increase the amount of radiation exposure to the worker.

In which breed of canine is fasting prior to surgery contraindicated? Chihuahua. Boxer. Labrador Retriever. Pug.

Chihuahua Due to a risk of hypoglycemia, food should not be withheld in neonates, toy breeds such as Chihuahuas, animals weighing less than 5 kg, or birds prior to surgery. Large breed dogs, such as the Boxer and Lab, as well as medium breeds such as the Pug, are advised to fast prior to surgery to reduce the risk of vomiting.

Which is the most important at-home product to recommend for owners of a canine with stage 4 periodontal disease? Zinc ascorbate. Chlorhexidine rinse. Flavored toothpastes. Fluoride gel.

Chlorhexidine rinse

Which class of drugs will exhibit a parasympathomimetic effect on gastrointestinal motility? H2 receptor antagonists. Cholinergics. Procainamide derivatives. Anticholinergics.

Cholinergics

A client reports that her dachshund has been having trouble climbing the stairs and jumping onto the couch for the past 6 months. Which type of pain is most likely causing this problem? Chronic. Acute. Visceral. Pathologic.

Chronic The history provided is most consistent with chronic back pain. Chronic pain is a long-standing physical disorder often caused by degenerative joint disease and certain types of cancer. Acute pain is abrupt in onset and usually resolves in 24 to 72 hours. Pathologic pain may result from tissue damage which, if left untreated, can lead to neurologic damage. Visceral pain is normally associated with the abdomen.

Which heat source is the best choice for a 6-month-old Yorkie with a postoperative temperature of 99 deg F? Electric blanket. Circulating blanket. Heating disk. Heat lamp.

Circulating blanket

According to criteria established by the American Society of Anesthesiologists, a patient with an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life belongs in which physical status category? Class II. Class IV. Class V. Class III.

Class IV According to the American Society of Anesthesiogists criteria, an animal with an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life is categorized as a Class IV. Class I is for a normal animal with no organic disease. Class II has mild systemic disease. Class III has severe systemic disease, but is not incapacitating. Class V is near death and not expected to survive with or without help.

Which finding indicates a hemostatic effect of pain? Hypercoagulability. Anabolic changes. Decreased insulin production. Atelectasis.

Hypercoagulability Hemostatic effects of pain can be evidenced by increased blood viscosity and hypercoagulability; this increases the risk of venous thrombosis. Catabolic and anabolic changes and decreased insulin production are both endocrine effects. Finally, atelectasis is a respiratory effect of pain.

Which is the most important factor that determines the effectiveness of a surgical hand scrub? Amount of soap used for the scrub. Temperature of the water. Contact time and scrubbing action. Type of brush used.

Contact time and scrubbing action

Which psychotropic medications are most commonly prescribed and are approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration? Acepromazine, dibenzyline, amitriptyline. Ketoprofin, phenylbutazone, carprofin. Morphine, hydromorhine, buprenorphine. Clomicalm, reconcile, anipril.

Clomicalm, reconcile, anipril. Morphine, hydromorphine, and buprenorphine are generally used for pain. Ketoprofin, phenylbutazone, and carprofin are NSAIDS, which are also used for pain. Clomicalm, reconcile, and anipril are used to treat behavior problems.

From which source are neonates provided with antibodies within the first 24 hours postpartum? Vaccinations. Adjuvents. Colostrum. Active immunity.

Colostrum. Neonates receive their first antibodies 24 hours postpartum in the colostrum. Vaccinations are an example of active immunity, as they are antibodies provided to animals through injection. Adjuvents are added to vaccines to stimulate a stronger immune response.

Which is the best strategy for calculating the appropriate anesthetic dose in an obese patient? Multiply VT by the respiratory rate in breaths per minute. Compare body condition score with actual weight to determine lean body weight. Multiply RMV by VT and translate into mL/kg/min, using patient's body weight. Measure total body weight; then establish VT at 10 mL/kg/min.

Compare body condition score with actual weight to determine lean body weight. The anesthetist must use the body condition score along with the actual patient weight to estimate lean body weight, excluding body fat. When patients are significantly overweight, calculating dosage according to total body weight may result in anesthetic overdose. Multiplying VT by the respiratory rate in breaths per minute is the formula for calculating RMV.

A sterile surgical technician notices that a hemostat has been placed beyond the sterile border of the instrument tray. How should the veterinary technician proceed? Consider the instrument contaminated. Ask the circulating nurse if the instrument is contaminated. Consider the instrument sterile. Move the instrument toward the center of the tray.

Consider the instrument contaminated.

In an automatic film processing system, what is the main purpose of the developer? Ensure the image is permanent. Harden the image to the base. Convert the exposed silver halide crystals into black metallic silver. Clear away the unexposed, undeveloped silver halide crystals.

Convert the exposed silver halide crystals into black metallic silver. The function of the developer is to convert the exposed silver halide crystals into black metallic silver. The main purpose of the fixer is to remove the unexposed silver halide crystals and ensure that the image remains permanent by hardening the image to the base.

Which instrument is used for supragingival scaling and root planing? Curette. Magnetostrictive. Hand. Sickle.

Curette

Which task can be performed only by a sterile surgical assistant? Cutting suture material. Opening instrument packs. Setting up anesthetic equipment. Adjusting the table height.

Cutting suture material. The sterile surgical assistant is the only surgical team member that is permitted to cut the suture material. The non-sterile assistant may open instrument packs, adjust the table height, and prepare the anesthetic equipment.

A 10-year-old female poodle has just finished a 2-week course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. Which urine collection method is preferred for follow-up testing in this patient? Free catch. Cystocentesis. Bladder expression. Catherization.

Cysocentesis Cystocentesis is the method of choice for obtaining a sterile urine sample.The other choices provided represent collection methods with a higher risk of contamination due to the presence of bacteria in the distal urethra and external genitalia.

Which agency serves as the regulatory body for controlled substances? National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP). American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA). Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA). Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

According to the Hazardous Materials Identification System (HMIS), which level of personal protection equipment requires workers to wear a face shield, gloves, and a protective apron? C. A. B. D.

D According to the HMIS rating system for personal protection equipment, level D requires workers to don face shields, gloves, and an apron in order to guard against splashing and to prevent the inhalation of vapors. Level A requires eye protection only. Level B calls for safety glasses and gloves. Level C includes safety glasses, gloves, and an apron.

Which home dental care regimen is best for optimal plaque control for a canine patient being discharged following routine dental prophylaxis? Daily brushing with the modified Stillman technique. Daily brushing with the Bass technique. Brushing weekly with the modified Stillman technique. Brushing twice weekly with the Bass technique.

Daily brushing with the Bass technique.

Which sign indicates that a patient is at risk for developing colic as a result of treatment with morphine or other opioids? Decreased fecal production. Increased appetite. Decreased activity level. Increased urine production.

Decreased fecal production. Gut motility should be closely monitored in the form of fecal production in patients receiving opioids such as morphine because decreased motility may lead to colic. While activity, appetite, and urine production are important parameters, they are not indicators of colic.

Which side effects may potentially occur in the long term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)? Decreased ability to digest fat, resulting in fatty stool. Increased mucus production, resulting in liquid diarrhea. Decreased peristalsis, resulting in constipation. Decreased mucus production, resulting in ulcers.

Decreased mucus production, resulting in ulcers. NSAIDs block prostaglandin secretion, which is responsible for the gastrointestinal protective mechanisms resulting in decreased mucus production and the formation of ulcers with long-term use. NSAIDs do not increase mucus production, produce fatty stool, or constipation.

The technician is assessing a dog that is undergoing fluid therapy for shock after being hit by a vehicle. Which finding is the most reliable indication that the patient is overhydrated? Excessive nasal discharge. Peripheral edema. Decreased packed cell volume. Increased respiratory rate.

Decreased packed cell volume. Packed cell volume (PVC) is an objective parameter used to assess hydration status. A PCV below 20% indicates overhydration and changes in fluid rate should be considered. Increased respiratory rate, nasal discharge, and peripheral edema are associated with overhydration, but these signs could be the result of a comorbidity and are therefore less reliable when assessing for overhydration.

Which cigar-shaped mite is commonly found within the hair follicles of dogs, as well as some cats, but does not pose a problem unless the animal's immune system is compromised? Demodex. Notoedric. Sarcoptic. Otodectic.

Demodex Demodex is the cigar-shaped mite that is commonly found in the hair follicles of dogs and some cats and only poses a problem if the animal's immune system is compromised. Sarcoptic mange can occur in dogs and it is extremely pruritic and contagious. Notoedric is similar to scabies, but only occurs in cats. And otoedectic mites are ear mites.

Which part of the tooth helps protect the pulp? Apex. Dentin. Crown. Cementum.

Dentin

Which condition is most likely to necessitate the placement of a chest tube? Diaphragmatic hernia. Ascites. Pulmonary edema. Subcutaneous emphysema.

Diaphragmatic hernia

The pet owner is reviewing the anesthesia plan pertaining to a dental prophylaxsis. The owner is concerned that anesthesia may negatively affect the pet, which suffers from epilepsy. Which anesthetic agent will help prevent an adverse reaction? Doxapram. Glycopyrrolate. Atropine. Diazepam.

Diazepam. Diazepam, like other benzodiazepines, have anticonvulsant effects and are used in patients with a history of seizures. Atropine, doxapram, and glycopyrrolate do not have anti-convulsant applications.

While obtaining a dental history from a patient's owner, which component should be included? Reproductive status. Vaccinations. Current medications. Diet and toys.

Diet and toys

Which solution is used to calibrate a refractometer? Hydrogen peroxide. Saline. Distilled water. Alcohol.

Distilled water A refractometer should be calibrated to zero using distilled water at room temperature. The other solutions listed are not recommended for this purpose.

To determine the specific gravity of urine, the weight of a urine sample is compared to the weight of an equal amount of what other substance? Distilled water. Tap water. Normal saline. Physiologic saline.

Distilled water The specific gravity of urine is determined by comparing the weight of urine to the weight of distilled water. Comparing the specific gravity of urine to physiologic saline, tap water, or normal saline, will yield inaccurate results.

An 8-month-old kitten is being discharged after an onychectomy. Which type of material should the owner be instructed to place in the patient's the litter box? Pellets. Sand. Foam packing peanuts. Clay.

Pellets The discharge instructions should advise the owners to use pellet litter. The owner should avoid foam packing peanuts, as the kitten might ingest the substance. Using clay litter and sand may cause the patient's paws to become dirty and subsequently lead to an infection.

The owner of two adult dogs is given a prescription for imidacloprid (K9 Advantix) for flea control. The client also has one cat that resides strictly indoors. What is the most important instruction for the veterinary technician to provide this owner? This medication should not be used on puppies under 7 weeks of age. Do not administer this medication to cats. This medication may be used weekly for severe infestations. Do not bathe the dogs for at least one week after applying this medication.

Do not administer this medication to cats.

What is the best radiographic projection for obtaining images of the canine carpus? Craniocaudal. Palmordorsal. Caudocranial. Dorsopalmar.

Dorsopalmar. Dorsopalmar is the term used for a projection of the carpus because the beam enters the dorsal aspect of the wrist and exits in the palm. For the front limb above the carpus, the beam enters from the cranial aspect of the limb and exits at the caudal aspect, or craniocaudal. Palmardorsal and caudocranial are not terms used since sternal recumbency is primarily used for front limb studies and the patient is not on its back.

When restraining a patient for a radiograph, which piece of personal protective equipment should the veterinary technician wear? Dosimeter. Lab coat. Goggles. Mask.

Dosimeter Whenever a veterinary technician or any staff member restrains a patient for x-rays, he or she should always wear a dosimeter. The dosimeter measures how much radiation the person is exposed to annually. In addition to wearing a dosimeter, the staff restraining the patient should wear lead lined gloves, apron, and thyroid cover.

While performing surgery for a foreign body excision, the surgeon requests forceps to clamp off the intestines. Which type of forceps is needed for this task? Allis. Doyen. Crile. Babcock.

Doyen Doyen intestinal forceps have thin bowed jaws with longitudinal grooves that are used to occlude the bowel and prevent content leakage when performing enterotomies or intestinal resections. Babcock forceps are used to hold the intestines, but unlike Doyen forceps, they are not designed to clamp the bowel lumen. Crile clamps are hemostatic forceps used to clamp large blood vessels. Allis tissue forceps have sharp teeth that tend to damage tissues and should only be used for tissue that is going to be removed.

While educating a client regarding vaccinations, which condition should the veterinary technician advise is the most concerning? Increased appetite. Increased thirst. Dyspnea. Diarrhea.

Dyspnea

When disinfecting anesthetic equipment, which disinfectant is an effective sterilizing agent, but requires special equipment for safe use? Glutaraldehyde. Ehtylene oxide gas. Chlorhexidine gluconate. Nolvasan.

Ehtylene oxide gas. Ethylene oxide gas is an effective sterilizing agent but requires special equipment for safe use. Chlorhexidine gluconate is relatively harmless to tissues but is not effective against all microorganisms and spores. Glutaraldehyde solutions (2%) are effective against many microorganisms but are stable for only 2 to 4 weeks and so must be periodically replaced. Breathing hoses and reservoir bags can be cleaned and disinfected through a simple cold soaking in Nolvasan or Cidex, following by a thorough rinse.

Which piece of equipment is best for monitoring cardiac arrhythmias? Electrocardiograph. Blood pressure monitor. Stethoscope. Pulse oximeter.

Electrocardiograph Electrocardiography is the best way to monitor cardiac arrhythmias, as it provides the doctor with an illustration of the arrhythmia. A pulse oximeter is used to monitor oxygen levels in the blood. Blood pressure monitors are used to evaluate the patient's hemodynamic status; however, they do not detect cardiac arrhythmias. A stethoscope will allow the technician to hear the heart and detect arrhythmias, but it if not as effective as an electrocardiogram.

Which drug is used to block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II in patients with congestive heart failure? Enalapril. Prazosin. Nitroglycerin. Hydralazine.

Enalapril

Which part of the tooth is known as the hardest, toughest tissue in the body? Gingiva. Pulp. Enamel. Cementum.

Enamel

Which item is used in conjunction with an inhalant or injectable anesthesia? Endotracheal tube. Intravenous catheter. Urinary catheter. Intravenous fluids.

Endotracheal tube For almost every patient receiving anesthetic agents, whether injected or inhaled, an endotracheal tube is placed to maintain an open airway, prevent aspiration, and allow administration of oxygen.

Which drug must be used cautiously in young, growing dogs? Penicillin. Clindamycin. Gentamicin. Enrofloxacin.

Enrofloxacin

Which anesthetic agents are commonly used for patients with severe heart disease or shock? Etomidate. Thiopental. Ketamine. Pentobarbital.

Etomidate Etomidate is the anesthetic agent commonly used for patients with severe heart disease or shock, as it has minimal effect on cardiovascular and respiratory function. Thiopental causes a decrease in cardiac output and blood pressure. Pentobarbital slows down the central nervous system. Ketamine increases heart rate and blood pressure without decreasing cardiac output.

How often should the veterinary technician monitor a patient receiving intravenous fluid therapy? Every 90 to 120 minutes. Every 40 to 60 minutes. Every 15 to 30 minutes. Every 5 to 10 minutes.

Every 15 to 30 minutes

How often should physiologic parameters be assessed during anesthetic procedures? Every 15 minutes. Every 20 minutes. Every 10 minutes. Every 5 minutes.

Every 5 minutes. Several patient parameters (heart rate and rhythm, respiratory rate and rhythm, capillary refill time, color of mucous membranes, eye position, muscle tone, and reflexes) should be assessed every 5 minutes. The patient's temperature should be monitored at least every 15 minutes if possible. Several anesthetic and treatment parameters should be tabulated every 5 to 15 minutes, including volume of fluid administered, oxygen flow rate, oxygen tank pressure, and anesthetic gas concentration. The other options are inappropriate, as the patient requires reassessment every 5 minutes.

Which celiotomy procedure is classified as an elective surgery? Removal of penetrating foreign body removal. Derotation of gastic dilation-volvulus. Repair of a ruptured spleen. Excision of retained testicles.

Excision of retained testicles

Which dental tool has a slender, wire-like working end that tapers to a sharp point? Extractor. Scaler. Explorer. Probe.

Explorer

f a non-sterile surgical team member wishes to relocate to the other side of a sterile surgical assistant, how should that team member be oriented in relation to the sterile assistant when passing? Face toward the back of the sterile person. Front to front. Face away from the front of the sterile person. Back to back.

Face toward the back of the sterile person

When monitoring a surgical patient receiving a blood transfusion, which sign indicates a need to stop the infusion immediately? Disorientation. Confusion and restlessness. Facial edema, salivation, and pyrexia. Sleepiness and tongue lolling.

Facial edema, salivation, and pyrexia

During which step of automatic film processing are the unexposed silver halide crystals removed from the film base? Fixing. Washing. Drying. Developing.

Fixing The main purpose of the fixer is to remove the unexposed silver halide from the film base and ensure that the image remains intact and permanent. The developer converts the silver halide into metallic silver. Washing removes the remaining fixer and preserves its archival quality. Drying is the final step, which prepares the the film for viewing and storage.

Where is the best site for taking the pulse of a dog? Lingual artery. Aorta. Femoral artery. Dorsal pedal artery.

Femoral artery A dog's pulse is most easily palpated by way of the femoral artery, which is located high on the medial thigh of the animal. The dorsal pedal artery, lingual artery, and aorta are not as easily palpated as the femoral artery.

For which orthopedic procedure is postoperative physical activity most important to help restore the patient to optimal function? Amputation. CCL repair. Fracture repair. Femoral head and neck excision.

Femoral head and neck excision. After femoral head and neck excision, weight-bearing activities and building of muscle mass is extremely important for regaining optimal limb function. Animals are restricted to light activity for the first 2 weeks following femoral head and neck excision, but they are then allowed to use the limb fully thereafter. Animals undergoing orthopedic surgeries such as CCL repair, fracture repair, and amputation will likely require passive range-of-motion exercises, but activity is otherwise limited.

Which task will increase the staff's exposure to waste-gas? Filling the vaporizers when needed. Using masks or chambers only when absolutely necessary. Leaving patients attached to the scavenger system as long as possible to remove expired gases. Pouring the anesthetic carefully to avoids spills.

Filling the vaporizers when needed. Filling the vaporizers should be done at the end of the day when the least amount of people are present, not when necessary. Minimizing waste-gas exposure can be completed by avoiding spills, leaving patients attached to the scavenger, and using masks and chambers only when necessary.

Which step is required when tube feeding a patient that has been placed on postoperative enteral nutrition? Flush the tube with water before feeding. Warm the food to 50 deg C. Rapidly inject the food into the tube. Flush the tube with air prior to feeding.

Flush the tube with water before feeding

Quality control serum samples used in a majority of laboratories are produced in what form? Freeze-dried. Tablets. Liquid. Sheets.

Freeze-dried Quality control serum samples provided to laboratories are freeze-dried (lyophilized), and must therefore be rehydrated before use. Quality control serums do not come in the other forms.

Which is a disadvantage of using a nonrebreathing system for anesthesia, as opposed to a rebreathing system? Volume of gas in the system may increase as fresh gas enters the circuit. The patient may have more trouble exhaling. Gas, moisture, and body heat are not as well conserved. Greater possibility of carbon dioxide accumulation.

Gas, moisture, and body heat are not as well conserved. Nonrebreathing systems do not conserve gases, moisture, or body heat; as a result, increased vigilance is required to maintain the patient's body temperature. The other disadvantages listed reflect challenges of using a closed rebreathing system, including carbon dioxide accumulation and increased pressure in the anesthetic circuit, which makes it difficult for the patient to exhale.

The veterinarian orders 250 mg of cephalexin to be taken p.o. b.i.d p.c. for 10 days. The drug comes in 250 mg capsules. How should these dosage instructions be explained to the patient's owner? Give 1 capsule by mouth every 8 hours every other day for 10 days. Give 1 capsule by mouth twice a day before a meal for 10 days. Give 1 capsule by mouth twice a day after a meal for 10 days. Give 1 capsule by mouth every 8 hours as needed for 10 days.

Give 1 capsule by mouth twice a day after a meal for 10 days.

The veterinarian orders 4.5 ml of a drug with a concentration of 5 mg/ml to be given q.i.d. Based on this information, what is the correct dosage? Give 0.9 ml every other day. Give 4.5 ml four times per day. Give 4.5 ml every other day. Give 0.9 ml four times per day.

Give 4.5 ml four times per day

In educating a client who believes his horse's blinded eye no longer needs treatment, which condition signifies that his horse is nevertheless experiencing pain? Glaucoma with lens luxation. Cortical blindness from old head trauma. Non-phthisical horse with mature cataracts. Long-standing glaucoma in an opaque globe.

Glaucoma with lens lunation Many conditions that cause an eye to lose sight, such as lens luxation, are still acutely painful or cause subtle low-grade discomfort that is debilitating for the horse. Other conditions that cause blindness are not associated with any apparent pain and are static. Examples include horses that have long-standing glaucoma that has resulted in an opaque but comfortable globe, non-phthisical horses that have mature cataracts, and cortical blindness from old head trauma, among others.

Which agent is both a muscle relaxant and sedative for large animals? Ketamine. Pentobarbital. Guaifenesin. Propofol.

Guaifenesin Guaifenesin is the muscle relaxant and sedative used in large animals for induction of anesthesia. Ketamine is used in small animals and is an immobilizer. Propofol is used in small animals for short procedures. Pentobarbital is used mostly in laboratory animals to induce anesthesia.

Which type of anesthetic agents cause central nervous system depression, respiratory depression, and muscle relaxation, but have no analgesic effects? Sedatives. Opioids. Tranquilizers. Halogenated.

Halogenated. Halogenated agents, such as isoflurane and sevoflurane are inhalant agents that cause central nervous system depression, respiratory depression, and muscle relaxation, but do not have an analgesic effect. Opioids provideanalgesia and sedative effects. Sedatives and tranquilizers provide both analgesia and muscle relaxation.

Which inhalant anesthetic agent was once very popular in veterinary medicine but is no longer available in the United States? Methoxyflurane. Desflurane. Enflurane. Halothane.

Halothane. Halothane was previously used in veterinary medicine, but is no longer available in the United States. Halothane is very similar to isoflurane, but the risk of cardiac arrhythmias is higher. Desflurane is also similar to isoflurane but it causes respiratory depression. Methoxyflurane has been linked to organ damage and is no longer on the market. Enflurane is not accepted in veterinary medicine due to its adverse effects.

Which parasite can pose a risk for both felines and canines if a monthly preventive is not given? Heartworm. Hookworm. Roundworm. Tapeworm.

Heartworm. A monthly preventive for heartworms should be given to felines and canines. It is common for all canines to receive a monthly heartworm preventive. Felines in warmer climates should receive a monthly heartworm preventive especially if they spend a lot of time outdoors. Roundworms, hookworms, and tapeworms are treated with a dewormer. However, since tapeworms develop into fleas, a monthly preventive can be given for the fleas, not the tapeworms.

The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood can be assessed through which preanesthetic screening test? Hemoglobin. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Aspartate aminotransferase (AST). Total solids.

Hemoglobin Hemoglobin is the oxygen carrying portion of the RBC. AST and ALT are liver function tests. Total solids are a measure of protein content in the blood.

Which species is commonly catheterized in the dorsal metatarsal or facial arteries to monitor direct arterial blood pressure and to obtain arterial blood samples? Cats. Horses. Dogs. Goats.

Horses The jugular, cephalic, and saphenous veins are frequently catheterized to administer IV drugs and fluids. The dorsal metatarsal and facial arteries (horses), auricular artery (cattle, sheep, goats, pigs, camelids, cats), dorsal pedal arteries (dogs, cats) and coccygeal artery (cats) are catheterized to monitor direct arterial blood pressure and to obtain arterial blood samples for pH and blood gas (PaO2, PaCO2) analysis.

When educating clients regarding insulin, which explanation is most appropriate? Shake the vial vigorously before administering. Store insulin at room temperature. House insulin in the refrigerator. Keep insulin frozen.

House insulin in the refrigerator

Which sharpening technique is best for maintaining a hand scaler? Holding the instrument stationary and moving the stone. Sharpening with the face of the instrument at a 90-degree angle to the stone. Moving the instrument against a stationary stone. Sharpening with the face of the instrument at a 60-degree angle to the stone.

Holding the instrument stationary and moving the stone. Holding the instrument stationary and moving the sharpening stone allows for a good view of the blade and better control of the angle of sharpening. Moving the instrument against a stationary stone is possible, but this technique does not provide the best visualization of the angle needed for sharpening. Sharpening with the face of the instrument at a 90-degree angle to the stone is the initial setup for sharpening, but the angle must then be opened to 100 to 110 degrees. Sharpening with the face of the instrument at 60 degrees to the stone will actually round or dull the cutting edges of the instrument.

Which type of therapy relieves pain and increases muscle strength while decreasing weight on the joints? Neuromuscular stimulation. Ultrasound. Massage. Hydrotherapy.

Hydrotherapy Hydrotherapy relieves pain and increases muscle strength while decreasing weight on the joints. Massage therapy is the manipulation of soft tissues of the body. Ultrasound therapy uses sound waves to help heal soft tissues. Neuromuscular stimulation is used for muscle strengthening.

Which fluidis used to expand vascular volume in a critical care patient who is exhibiting symptoms of shock? 0.9% saline. Normasol-R. Lactated Ringers. Hydroxyethyl starch.

Hydroxyethyl starch. Colloid solutions, such as hydroxyethyl starch (hetastarch), are used to expand vascular volume. These solutions contain high-molecular weight particles that remain in the vascular space, hence expanding vascular volume. Normasol-R, Lactated Ringer's, and 0.9% saline are examples of crystalloid fluids; these are are isotonic fluids consisting primarily of water with sodium or glucose. They are used for volume expansion and rapidly redistribute into the extracellular space.

Which condition is most commonly associated with the long-term administration of corticosteroids? Hyperadrenocorticism. Hypoglycemia. Hyperglycemia. Hypoadrenocorticism.

Hyperadrenocorticism Long-term use or high doses of corticosteroids can cause symptoms of hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease); in some cases, the animal can develop true Cushing's disease. Symptoms of this condition include increased thirst and urination, muscle weakness, skin infections, abdominal distention, and a profound increase in appetite. Corticosteroids use does not affect sugar levels, nor is it associated with hypoadrenocorticism.

The route of drug administration that produces the greatest bioavailability is represented by which abbreviation? IP. IM. SQ. PO.

IM

Which potential complication may be avoided by placing an arterial catheter in a horse's peripheral artery during maintenance of inhalant anesthesia? Hypoxemia. Hypertension. Hyperventilation. Epistaxis.

Hypoxemia Because horses are more likely to develop hypoxemia during maintenance of inhalation anesthesia than other species, a peripheral arterial catheter is recommended for taking blood gas samples every 30 to 60 minutes during procedures lasting longer than 1 hour. Other risks posed for horses with inhalant anesthesia include hypoventilation and hypotension, not hypertension and hyperventilation. Epistaxis may occur as a result of nasal intubation, but not with inhalant anesthesia.

Carbon monoxide poisoning can result in which type of shock? Hypoxic. Distributive. Obstructive. Hypovolemic.

Hypoxic Hypoxic shock is a type of dissociative shock characterized by decreased tissue perfusion due to inadequate arterial oxygen content or cellular oxygen utilization. Causes of hypoxic shock include carbon monoxide and cyanide poisoning. Hypovolemic shock is due to decreased blood volume, which can result from internal or external hemorrhage, as well as severe dehydration caused by vomiting, diarrhea, or burns. Obstructive shock is cause by an acute physical obstruction of the heart or great vessels. Distributive shock is most commonly associated with sepsis, but may also result from anaphylaxsis, drug overdose, or neurogenic causes.

Which drug schedule contains the most addictive controlled drugs? III. II. I. V.

I. Schedule I drugs are the most addictive. Schedule III and IV drugs are slightly addictive and schedule V drugs are the least addictive.

The veterinarian gives a client one bottle of gentamicin solution with written orders to give 2 drops OU bid. According to this order, what is the correct location and frequency of administration? In the left ear every 12 hours. In both eyes twice a day. In both ears every 12 hours. In the right eye twice a day.

In both eyes twice a day

Which sign should a client be instructed to look for to determine if a dog is experiencing postoperative pain? Increased blood pressure. Increased appetite. Increased respiratory rate. Increased heart rate.

Increased respiratory rate The owner should be instructed to notice if the dog is panting, since an increased respiratory rate may be an indication of postoperative pain. Other signs may include vocalization, restlessness, licking or chewing at the incision site, and aggression. Increases in heart rate and blood pressure are signs of pain, but an average pet owner is not qualified to assess vital signs. Decreased appetite is common with pain, but not an increased appetite.

Which is the most important safety procedure to implement when using ultrasonic scaling? Placing a laparotomy sponge in the back of the throat before scaling. Intubate the patient and maintain adequate cuff inflation. Lubricate the patient's eyes. Rinse the oral cavity with chlorhexidine before scaling.

Incubate the patient and maintain adequate cuff inflation. Ultrasonic scaling results in aerosolized bacteria and the potential for pooling of water in the oral cavity, so the patient's airway must be protected; therefore, intubation with cuff inflation is the most important safety procedure. Rinsing the oral cavity with a chlorhexidine solution before scaling can help reduce the amount of bacteria, but it is still essential to protect the airway from water. Lubricating the patient's eyes and placing a laparotomy sponge in the back of the throat before scaling are sound practices, but a properly inflated endotracheal tube is essential to protect the patient from possible aspiration pneumonia.

Which type of vaccine must be administered within 1 hour of reconstitution to ensure stability? Inactive. Infectious. Noninfectious. Passive.

Infectious Infectious vaccines must be administered within 1 hour of reconstitution, otherwise they are no longer stable. Infectious vaccines are freeze-dried in order to extend the stability of the vaccine; however, once the vaccine is reconstituted with the diluent, it must be given within one hour. Noninfectious vaccines are more stable than infectious vaccines and come in liquid form. Inactive and passive vaccines are not applicable.

Which type of drug can convert from a liquid to a gas and be eliminated in the blood? Inhalant. Injectable. Oral. Topical.

Inhalant

Which type of anesthetic is vaporized in oxygen? Topical. Injectable. Inhalant. Oral.

Inhalant Inhalant anesthetics are vaporized in oxygen and administered via a breathing system by endotracheal tube, mask, or chamber. Injectable anesthetics are administered by intravenous or intramuscular routes. Oral anesthetics are are best described as sedatives and are given by mouth. Topical anesthetics are agents that provide analgesia on the skin, but are not true anesthetic agents.

Which type of syringe does not have dead space and is divided into units? Insulin. Tuberculin. Eccentric. Multidose.

Insulin

Which route of administration is the fastest and most effective way to deliver a drug? Intradermal. Subcutaneous. Intraperitoneal. Intravenous.

Intravenous

Which chemical acts as a mordant in a Gram stain procedure? Crystal violet. Alcohol. Safranin. Iodine.

Iodine Iodine is the mordant in the Gram stain procedure, fixing the crystal violet in the gram positive bacteria. The Gram stain procedure begins with crystal violet for staining organisms that are gram positive. The slides are rinsed with water, fixed with iodine, treated with a decolorizer, and then stained with safranin to color the gram negatives.

Which common inhalant anesthetic agent is irritating to mucous membranes and causes patients to hold their breath? Isoflurane. Sevoflurane. Halothane. Nitrous oxide.

Isoflurane Isoflurane is one of the most commonly used inhalant anesthetic agents used in veterinary medicine; this agent can cause irritation of the mucous membranes andalso causes patients to hold their breath. Sevoflurane is the other commonly used anesthetic agent used in veterinary medicine; however, it is not irritating to the mucous membranes. Halothane is no longer used in veterinary medicine. Nitrous oxide will not produce anesthetic effects alone.

Which parameter is commonly used to determine a patient's readiness for endotracheal intubation? Jaw tone. Cardiac muscle tone. Muscle tone. Nerve tone.

Jaw tone The technician must assess the patient's jaw tone in order to determine whether or not the patient is ready for intubation. If the patient has too much jaw tone, intubation may not be possible.

Inducing vomiting is contraindicated following the ingestion of which substance? Organophosphates. Salicylates. Kerosene. Ethylene glycol.

Kerosene Inducing emesis is contraindicated following the ingestion of hydrocarbon-containing products, which include lubrication oils, fuel oil, butane, propane, gasoline, and kerosene. Vomiting should not be induced after the ingestion of hydrocarbons such as kerosene because the risk of aspiration is high. Organophosphates, salicylates, and ethylene glycol cause more damage if allowed to circulate through the body; inducing vomiting after initial ingestion would be preferred to remove these toxins before they do more damage.

A veterinarian administers ketoconazole to a canine patient for the treatment of blastomycosis and requests a follow-up visit in 2 weeks for blood work. Which explanation should the veterinary technician provide the owner in order to explain the importance of the follow-up visit? Ketoconazole is hepatotoxic, so liver enzymes must be monitored. Ketoconazole may cause vomiting, so sodium and potassium levels must be monitored. Ketoconazole may cause adrenal gland insufficiency, so cortisol levels must be monitored. Ketoconazole is nephrotoxic, so BUN and creatinine levels must be monitored.

Ketoconazole is hepatotoxic, so liver enzymes must be monitored.

Which acts as a storage site for drugs? Muscle. Kidney. Blood. Integument.

Kidney

Which organ eliminates drugs from the body? Kidney. Stomach. Intestine. Liver.

Kidney

Which setting on the x-ray machine controls the penetrating power of the beam? Kilovolts peak (kVp). Time (seconds). Focal spot size (FSS). Milliamperage (mA).

Kilovolts peak (kVp). The kVp controls the penetrating power of the x-ray beam. The mA controls the amount, or quantity of x-rays produced. Time determines the length of the exposure, which also affects the quantity of radiation. The focal spot size affects image detail, or sharpness.

Between which two vertebrae is the epidural needle placed for a Great Dane undergoing a tail amputation procedure? L7 and S1. S1 and S2. L6 and S1. L6 and L7.

L7 and S1 The needle should be placed between L7 and S1 for a tail amputation procedure requiring lumbosacral epidural anesthesia. There are 7 lumbar vertebrae so it is impossible to place the needle between L6 and S1. Placing it between L6 and L7 is too high, while placing it between S1 and S2 is too low.

Which is a common complication when intubating felines? Coughing. Cyanosis. Larynogospasm. Vomiting.

Larynogospasm A common complication when intubating cats, as well as swine and small ruminants, is laryngospasm. This occurs when the glottis closes as soon as it is touched and does not open easily thereafter. Cyanosis can occur due to laryngospasm, as patients are unable to oxygenate their blood. Coughing and vomiting are complications that may occur in any animal that requires intubation.

Which example depicts the safest method for re-capping a needle? Place the cap of the needle in the technician's mouth and place the needle in the cap. Hold the cap sideways in one hand and place the needle in the cap with the other hand. Lay the cap on the table and use one hand to scoop the cap with the needle. Hold the cap in one hand facing downward and insert the needle with the other hand.

Lay the cap on the table and use one hand to scoop the cap with the needle. If at all possible, re-capping needles should be avoided. However, the safest way to re-cap a needle is to place the cap on the table and using one hand, scooping the cap with the needle. This will prevent the needle from puncturing the hand or finger. Veterinary technicians should not place caps inside the mouth to re-cap a needle since this method increases the risk of needlestick injuries. Using both hands to re-cap needles also increases the risk of needlestick injuries.

Which position of restraint is preferred when performing venipuncture on a cat using the left femoral vein? Left lateral. Dorsal. Right lateral. Sternal.

Left lateral When performing venipuncture on a cat using the left femoral vein, the patient should be placed in left lateral recumbency. With the patient in this position, the restrainer can occlude the vein by pressing the medial side of the upper thigh with one hand. The dorsal and sternal recumbent positions do not allow easy access to this vein. Right lateral recumbency is preferred when accessing the right femoral vein.

Which best describes the main advantage of collimating the x-ray beam? Less scatter radiation reaches the image receptor. Patients do not need to be manually restrained by the technician. Fewer repeat exposures are necessary. More anatomy can be visualized.

Less scatter radiation reaches the image receptor. Collimation is important when taking radiographs, as it reduces scatter radiation by restricting the beam to the area of interest. Scatter radiation produces fog on the radiographic image, and it also increases the radiation dose to personnel who are near the patient during the exposure. As collimation is increased, less anatomy is visualized. Too much collimation will most likely require additional imaging (although most stationary x-ray units have automatic collimators). Collimation does not impact the need for some patients to be manually restrained.

Which part of the equine mouth plays a prehensile role? Lips. Hard palate. Soft palate. Tongue.

Lips The lips play a prehensile role in the equine mouth, as they can be used to grasp food and pull it into the mouth. The tongue is a muscular organ used for tasting and processing food, grooming, and articulating sound. The soft palate is the soft mucosal flap on the roof of the mouth. The hard palate is the bony roof of the mouth, which is made up of portions of the maxillary and palatine bones.

Which organ metabolizes and excretes drugs? Stomach. Intestines. Kidneys. Liver.

Liver

Which is an advantage of monofilament sutures over multifilament sutures? Greater tensile strength. Superior knot holding ability. Less memory. Lower incidence of infection.

Lower incidence of infection

The spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi causes which disease? Lyme. Distemper. Rickettsiae. Leptospirosis.

Lyme The spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi causes lyme disease, which is passed to an animal or human through the Ixodes tick bite. Rickettsiae is caused by Ehrlichia canis and is passed through the Rhipicephalus tick bite. Leptospirosis, a zoonotic disease, is passed through the urine and feces of infected animals and attacks the liver and kidneys. Distemper is a contagious disease that is passed through aerosolization of body fluids, as it causes encephaitis and neological signs.

Which imaging technique is not recommended during avian echocardiography because of unique anatomical impediments? B-mode technique. Spectral Doppler. Two-dimensional (2D) imagery. M-mode trace.

M-mode trace Due to anatomical peculiarities, standard M-mode traces cannot be interpreted correctly in birds. By contrast, the B-mode technique and spectral Doppler can both be useful for sonographic examination of the avian heart. Finally, measurements have to be taken from two-dimensional (2D) images because a suitable cross-section for M-mode technique cannot be attained.

A fecal culture has been ordered for an 8-year-old American Bulldog suffering from colitis. Which media should be selected to perform this test? Blood. Salt mannitol. MacConkey. Mueller-Hinton.

MacConkey A fecal culture performed using a MacConkey agar plate is selective and differential for gram negative bacteria, which commonly cause colitis. Mueller-Hinton agar is used for antimicrobial sensitivity testing. Blood agar grows both gram negative and gram positive bacteria so this medium is not selective for this pathogen. Salt mannitol is selective for staphylococci, which are more commonly associated with skin infections.

Which sex and species of animal is prone to urinary problems due to the structure of the urethra? Female cat. Male dog. Female dog. Male cat.

Male cat Although male dogs have long narrow urethras, male cats are more prone to urinary blockages. Female dogs and cats are less likely to have urinary blockages since their urethras are wider.

Which types of personal protective equipment must be worn by non-sterile surgical technicians? Mask, cap, shoe covers, and a sterile gown. Mask, cap, clean scrubs, and shoe covers. Mask, cap, and clean scrubs. Mask and clean scrubs.

Mask, cap, clean scrubs, and shoe covers

Which absorbable suture material is contraindicated for procedures that require the suture to retain strength for longer than 21 days? Monocryl. PDS. Dexon. Polysorb.

Monocryl Monocryl should be avoided in patients having surgery where the suture needs to retain its strength for longer than 21 days, as it is marketed to last less than 21 days. Dexon, PDS, and Polysorb are sutures that retain strength for more than 21 days.

Which bacterial organism is associated with contagious conjunctivitis (pinkeye) in cattle? Moraxella bovis. Staphylococcus aureus. Streptococcus pyogenes. Actinomyces bovis.

Mortadella bovis Pinkeye in cattle is caused by Moraxella bovis, which is transmitted by the face fly, Musca autumnalis. Streptococcus pyogenes can cause mastitis in cattle. Actinomyces bovis causes lumpy jaw in cattle, a condition characterized by swelling of the mandible. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of wound infections.

Which type of media is mainly used to perform antimicrobial sensitivity testing? Salt mannitol. MacConkey. Blood. Mueller-Hinton.

Muller- Hinton Mueller-Hinton agar is a general purpose media used for antimicrobial sensitivity testing because it does not interfere with the diffusion of the antimicrobials through the agar. MacConkey is used for gram-negative selective growth. Blood agar is a general all-purpose media. Salt mannitol agar is used for isolation Staphylococci.

Which route of drug administration provides the longest lasting effects? Intradermal. Subcutaneous. Oral. Intravenous.

Oral

Which procedure is most often preferred to relieve bovine dystocia from a malpositioned, but viable, fetus? Fetotomy. Mutation. Forced extraction. Caesarean.

Mutation. Mutation involves returning the fetus to a normal presentation, position, and posture by repulsion, rotation, version, and adjustment or extension of the fetal extremities. It is primarily indicated when the fetus is alive and the procedure can be performed in a relatively short period with a high probability of success. Traction or forced extraction can usually be successfully implemented after correction of the malposition. Cesarean section is indicated for a dam with dystocia when attempts to deliver the fetus by reposition, traction, and fetotomy are unsuccessful or contraindicated. In the case of a dead fetus, fetotomy procedures can eliminate a postural abnormality and are often faster and less stressful to the mare.

A client whose dog has just been diagnosed with bone cancer asks why the animal can't immediately be put on morphine IV. Which series best describes the WHO "analgesic ladder" for treatment of cancer pain? NSAIDs, weak opioids, strong opioids. Surgery, bisphosphonate therapy, radiation therapy. Surgery, radiation therapy, chemo. Radiation therapy, chemotherapy, strong opioids.

NSAIDs, weak opioids, strong opioids. The World Health Organization's three-step "analgesic ladder" to treat cancer pain consists of prompt administration of oral drugs beginning with non-opioids and mild opioids, progressing as needed to strong opioids as necessary until the patient is free of pain. Adjuvant methods, such as bisphosphonate therapy or radiation therapy, may be included in any of these three steps to improve pain control as necessary. Using surgery, radiation and chemotherapy to reduce the tumor itself in addition to pain medications are not part of the WHO analgesic ladder.

What is the antagonist for opioids? Naloxone. Yohimbine. Antisedan. Atipamezole.

Naloxone Naloxone is the antagonist (reversal agent) for opioids. Antisedan and atipamezole are the antagonists for dexdomitor. Yohimbine is the antagonist for xylazine.

A 1-year-old Boxer is scheduled for surgery to remove a corn cob that was ingested and now has caused an intestinal obstruction. Which medication will cause an adverse reaction in this particular case? Sevoflurane. Isoflurane. Nitrous oxide. Propofol.

Nitrous oxide Nitrous oxide should not be used in cases of GI obstruction because it is known to accumulate in areas where gas is trapped, forcing the already gas-filled intestines to distend even more. Isoflurane, sevoflurane, and propofol, besides being safer anesthetic choices, do not have this particular effect and are not contraindicated in this patient.

Which kind of pain is demonstrated in a dog flinching because of a burr stuck in his paw? Dysfunctional. Neuropathic. Nociceptive. Inflammatory.

Nociceptive Nociceptive or physiologic, pain is minimal or non-tissue-damaging stimuli that is experienced in everyday life and serves a protective role from noxious stimuli (e.g., heat, cold, pressure); it is adaptive, caused by stimulation of high-threshold pain receptors, usually in skin or viscera, and serves as an early warning system (protective). Neuropathic pain is low-threshold, spontaneous pain caused by damage to the nervous system (e.g., burning, stabbing). Inflammatory pain is caused by peripheral tissue damage (e.g., crushing, surgery); and finally, dysfunctional pain is low-threshold, spontaneous pain caused by abnormal pain processing; there may be no evidence for neural lesions or inflammation.

What is another name for pain receptors? Proprioceptors. Prostaglandins. Neurotransmitters. Nociceptors.

Nociceptors Nociceptors, another term for pain receptors are located inside and superficially on the body. Prostaglandins, neurotransmitters and proprioceptors are not other terms for pain receptors. Prostaglandins are hormones. Neurotransmitters are chemicals released by the neuron. Proprioceptors are receptors responsible for body position and movement.

What is the best way to deliver inhalant anesthesia for patients weighing less than 7 kg? Rebreather. Non-breather. Chamber. Mask.

Non- breather For patients weighing less than 7kg, a non-breather is the best way to deliver inhalant anesthetic. A mask can be used, but only if the patient is not intubated. A chamber can also be used, but only for vicious animals that can not be handled by other means. A breather is used for animals weighing more than 7kg since anesthetic gases are more easily distributed in larger animals.

Which parasite typically enters through the nasal cavity of sheep? Gastrophilus. Hypoderma. Oestrus. Cuterebra.

Oestrus Oestrus ovis, also known as the nasal bot fly, enters the nasal cavity and deposits first stage larvae in the nostrils of the sheep. Gastrophilus, Hypoderma, and Cuterebra primarily affect horses, cattle, and small mammals respectively.

Which task should be performed by the surgical technician only after the surgical procedure has begun? Drape the patient. Open the pack and arrange the instruments. Open the suture material. Place the blade on the scalpel handle.

Open the suture material. Suture materials should not be opened before the surgery has begun and only opened at the time they are needed. Draping the patient, opening the instrument pack, and placing the blade on the scalpel handle are roles of the sterile surgicical technician to complete before the surgery begins.

Which task can be completed by a nonsterile surgical team member? Opening outer pack wrappers. Placing surgical drapes. Passing surgical instruments. Cutting suture material.

Opening outer pack wrappers

A patient has been placed on an MLK (morphine-lidocaine-ketamine) constant rate infusion for optimal analgesia and treatment postoperative wind-up. What class of pain medication is morphine? Opioid. Alpha-2 agonist. Local anesthetic. Dissociative.

Opioid MLK infusion combines an opioid (morphine), a local anesthetic (lidocaine), a dissociative (ketamine), and an NMDA antagonist to provide optimal analgesia and treat wind-up. Alpha-2 agonists are not in this CRI but would include pain medications and sedatives such xylazine, medetomidine (Domitor), and dexmedetomidine (dexdomitor).

Which agent causes miosis? Opioids. Benzodiazepines. Phenothiaines. Alpha 2-adreneric

Opioids Opioids cause miosis (constriction of the pupils) in patients. Benzodiazepines cause sedation and muscle relaxation. Phenothiazines reduce anxiety. Alpha 2-adrenergic agents cause sedation, analgesia, and muscle relaxation.

Horses become infected with equine protozoal myeloencephalitis by ingesting feed and water that is contaminated with sporocysts from which animal? Canine. Opposum. Snail. Raccoon.

Opposum Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis is caused by ingestion of feed and water containing the parasite Sarcocystis neurona that is present in the fecal matter of the opposum. The snail is the intermediate host for Fasciola hepatica. Raccoon feces contains the eggs of Baylisascaris procyonis. Toxocara canis eggs are transmitted in the feces of canines.

Which oral disease is commonly associated with sneezing after drinking water? Malocclusion. Oronasal fistula. Gingivitis. Periodontal disease.

Oronasal fistula

Which type of parasite is most commonly detected by cleaning the ear with a cotton swab? Sarcoptes scabei. Notoedres cati. Demodex canis. Otodectes cynotis.

Otodectes cynotis Otodectes cynotis, the ear mite, is most commonly found by swabbing the external ear of dogs and cats. The other options refer to burrowing mange mites that are collected using the skin scrape method.

Which instrument is used to examine the ear canals? Otoscope. Doppler. Opthalmascope. Tonometer.

Otoscope The otoscope is used to examine the ear canals. The opthalmascope is used to examine the eyes. The tonometer is used to measure the pressure inside the eye. The doppler is used to monitor blood flow through the vessels.

Which items must be included in the radiography log book? Owner's name, patient measurements, and hospital address. Date, patient name, and patient age. Owner's name, patient measurements, and technical factors. Date, patient name, and hospital phone number.

Owner's name, patient measurements, and technical factors. A radiography log book must be maintained by the facility which should include the owner's name, patient measurements, and technical factors. The name of the patient, the date, the type of exam, and the acquisition number should also be recorded. This information must be made available to representatives of applicable regulatory agencies upon request. Each of the factors must be entered consistently and accurately to ensure quality control within the clinic.

With the patient in lateral recumbancy for a dental prophylaxis, which additional precaution will provide the most protection from aspiration pneumona? Elevating the head above the hindquarters. Positioning the head lower than the hindquarters. Packing the oropharynx with a laparotomy sponge. Flushing the oropharynx with chlorhexidene rinse.

Packing the oropharynx with a laparotomy sponge. When the patient is in the lateral recumbent position during dental prophylaxis, the oropharynx should be packed off with a laparotomy sponge to create a barrier for the trachea from water and bacteria. Positioning the head lower than the hindquarters will help prevent pooling of water and bacteria in the oropharynx, but it will also cause the abdominal viscera to be pushed against the diaphragm, impeding its movement in effective inspiration. The practice of flushing the oropharynx with chlorhexidine decreases the potential for aerosolized bacteria, but it does not prevent water from entering the trachea. Placing the patient in the ateral recumbent position with the head elevated above the hindquarters may lead to pooling of water and debris in the oropharynx.

Which task can only be completed by a sterile surgical nurse in order to maintain the sterile field? Adapting the anesthetic equipment. Opening instrument packs. Adjusting the table height. Passing instruments to the surgeon.

Passing instrument to the surgeon

Which is the correct radiographic technique for demonstrating the mandibular carnassial tooth? Paralleling technique. Bisecting angle technique. Palatal surface technique. Occlusal technique.

Paralleling technique The paralleling technique is the best method for demonstrating the mandibular teeth that are caudal to the second premolar; the mandibular carnassial tooth, or mandibular first molar, is caudal to the second premolar. The occlusal technique may be used for imaging the maxillary teeth or the nasal cavity. The bisecting angle technique is used for the rostral mandibular teeth and the maxillary teeth, as these areas are not conducive to placing the film parallel to the teeth. The palatal surface technique is not a dental radiographic technique.

Which agent found in some flea and tick preventatives is toxic to cats? (S)-Methoprene. Fipronil. Imidaclopride. Perrmethrin.

Perrmethrin. Permethrin, especially in high doses is toxic to cats, as cats lack the enzyme to properly metabolize this agent. Fipronil, (S)-Methoprene, and Imidaclopride are common agents found in both feline and canine flea and tick preventatives. It is important that all dogs and cats receive the correct dose of flea and tick preventatives based on age and weight. Felines should only receive agents for felines and canines should only receive agents made for canines.

Which non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) is most commonly used in the equine patient for pain management? Etodolac. Deracoxib. Meloxicam Phenylbutazone.

Phenylbutazone. Phenylbutazone, one of the original NSAIDS, is one of the most widely used agents in equine medicine for pain management. Newer generation NSAIDs, such as etodolac, meloxicam, and deracoxib, are used in small animal medicine for pain control.

Which species is most susceptible to hyperpyrexia and malignant hyperthermia from intravenous (IV) drugs such as ketamine and inhalant anesthetics such as isoflurane? Cats. Dogs. Rabbits. Pigs.

Pigs. Hyperpyrexia and malignant hyperthermia can occur in genetically predisposed pigs and is triggered by intravenous (IV) drugs such as ketamine and inhalant anesthetics such as isoflurane. Elevations in body temperature occur because of the relatively low body surface area to body mass ratio, the relative absence of effective sweat glands, and inefficient thermoregulatory mechanisms. These conditions are not common side effects in dogs, cats, or rabbits.

Which is considered a core vaccine for canines and felines? Lyme. Borditella. Rabies. Leptosporsis.

Rabies Core vaccines provide protection against common diseases that any feline or canine may come in contact with. Rabies is a core vaccine for both felines and canines. Bordetella, lyme, and leptospirosis are considered non-core vaccines or only given to animals that are at high risk for contracting these diseases. Bordetella vaccine can be administered to both felines and canines, while Lyme and Leprospirosis vaccines are administered to canines only.

Which process will ensure that surgical and other materials have been adequately sterilized? Leave the autoclave door closed after the cycle until ready to use the packs or materials. Place one indicator inside the pack or material and one on the outside of the wrap. Turn up the temperature and increase the time of the cycle. Wrap the materials prior to placing in the autoclave.

Place one indicator inside the pack or material and one on the outside of the wrap. In order to ensure that all packs and materials have been adequately sterilized, one indicator strip should be placed inside the pack or material, and one indicator (usually autoclave tape) should be placed on the outside. Prior to using the pack or material, both indicator strips should be checked to ensure sterilization is complete. Double wrapping of packs is not required for all materials in order to sterilize them. Generally, surgical packs are double wrapped. It is not necessary to turn up the temperature or increase the time to ensure sterility, as long as instructions are followed according to the material that is being sterilized. And the autoclave door should be cracked open after the cycle to allow the packs and materials to dry.

What is a common side effect of prednisone? Constipation. Polydipsea. Anorexia. Hypertension.

Polydipsea

Which chemical is added to skin and hair samples to dissolve debris when checking for fungal elements or microscopic mites? Physiologic saline. Hydrogen peroxide. Distilled water. Potassium hydroxide.

Potassium hydroxide Potassium hydroxide is used for the digestion of debris to aid in the examination of fungus and mites. Distilled water, physiologic saline, and hydrogen peroxide do not dissolve skin debris.

Which location serves as the incision site for a canine castration procedure? Prescrotal prepuce. Scrotum. Flank. Mid abdomen.

Prescrotal prepuce.

What effect does atropine at normal doses have on the heart rate? Decreases. Prevents a decrease. No effect. Increases.

Prevents a decrease Atropine, at a normal dose, inhibits bradycardia by decreasing vagal tone. A decrease in heart rate and hypotension may occur after rapid intravenous administration of Valium (diazepam).

Which instrument is used to measure attachment levels, sulcus and pocket depths, and alveolar bone loss? Exploror. Scaler. Probe. Extractor.

Probe

Which type of medical record is endorsed by the American Animal Hospital Association and provides the best communication for the veterinary team caring for the patient? Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan (SOAP). The working problem list. Source-oriented veterinary medical record. Problem-oriented medical record.

Problem-oriented medical record. The problem oriented medical record is endorsed by American Animal Hospital Association and provides the best communication for the team caring for the patient. SOAP or Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan are part of the medical records, the working problem list just lists all medical problems and treatments for them and the source oriented medical record is disorganized, and usually arranged by source (labs, x-rays, etc).

Which medical record format is endorsed by the American Animal Hospital Association? History-oriented. Treatment-oriented. Problem-oriented. Source-oriented.

Problem-oriented. The American Animal Hospital Association endorses the problem-oriented record keeping method, as it provides great communication for the team. Source-oriented records are not organized and the medication administration / order record provides only a summary of the patient's care while in the hospital.

Which intravenous anesthetic agent is extremely short-acting and is known to cause apnea if administered too quickly? Propofol. Domitor. Thiopental. Ketamine.

Propofol Propofol is an extremely short-acting anesthetic given intravenously, which can cause apnea. Additionally, propofol is used for the induction of general anesthesia or can be used at a constant rate for anesthesia itself. Ketamine is used for minor and short procedures to immobilize patients. Thiopental is now typically used to induce anesthesia in lab animals. Domitor is also a shorting reversable anesthetic agent.

Which nutrient should be restricted in quantity (but not quality) for a cat with uremia? Vitamin E. Vitamin B complex. Electrolytes. Protein.

Protein. Cats with uremia may not tolerate high-protein diets. Restricted quantity (but high-quality) protein and restricted phosphorus diet ("renal diet") slows progression, prolongs survival, and decreases signs of uremia. The reduced ability to digest fats as a cat ages (and falls more prone to renal disease, including uremia) can lead to deficiencies in fat-soluble vitamins such as vitamin E along with water-soluble vitamins (e.g., B vitamins) and electrolytes. These may require supplementation, not restriction.

A veterinary technician is charged with educating pet owners regarding zoonotic disease during a free rabies clinic. Which are common zoonotic disease that should be mentioned in this discussion? Kennel cough, feline herpes, and demodex. Parvovirus, flea allergies, and feline aids. Heartworm, distemper, demodex. Rabies, sarcoptic mange, and leptospirosis.

Rabies, sarcoptic mange, and leptospirosis. Pet owners should be informed about rabies, sarcoptic mange, and leptospirosis, as these are all zoonotic. It is also important to educate pet owners on parvovirus, flea allergies, feline aids. Kennel cough, feline herpes and demodex should be mentioned to the client; however, they are not zoonotic.

Which is the most acceptable chewing toy that the technician can recommend as part of the patient's home dental care? Tennis ball. Sterilized bone. Cow hooves. Rawhide strips.

Rawhide strips

A 7-year-old male intact iguana presents to the office with a maxillary abscess due to a bite. To perform a baterial culture for the exudative pyogranulamatous discharge, which collection device is most suitable? Syringe. Fine-needle biopsy. Sterile cotton swab. Rayon swab.

Rayon swab Rayon swabs are the most suitable collection device, as they do not have fibers that trap bacteria which can inhibit growth like cotton swabs. As iguanas normally have thick exudative abscesses, syringes and fine-needle biopsies would not be suitable.

Which body part usually requires the reflectance, or reflective, probe sensor when performing pulse oximetry? Ear pinna. Hocks. Rectum. Toe webbing.

Rectum. In pulse oximetry, the reflectance probe can be used in the rectum or at the base of the tail. The lingual sensor, as the name implies, is most frequently used on the tongue but can be used on the ear pinna, toe webbing, external genitalia (vulva or prepuce), or any body region with no hair. The universal C-clamp sensor can be used on feet, hocks, and other areas.

Which blood components are disintegrated when hemolysis occurs? Red blood cells. Serum. Platelets. White blood cells.

Red blood cells Hemolysis refers to the rupture of red blood cells and subsequent release of cellular contents into the plasma or serum. Hemolysis is evident when the serum is no longer clear to a light pink, but instead takes on a shade of darker red. Hemolysis does not affect the white blood cells or platelets. Although the rupturing of red blood cells influences the plasma, the effect of hemolysis is indirect.

Which is a component of a Bain non-rebreathing anesthetic circuit? Carbon dioxide absorber. Unidirectional valves. Reservoir bag. Oxygen flush valve.

Reservoir bag The Bain non-rebreathing system uses a reservoir bag and a coaxial (tube inside of a tube) design. Unidirectional valves, oxygen flush, and a carbon dioxide absorber are all components of a rebreathing anesthesia system.

The veterinary technician is restraining a fractious cat for a blood sample. Which sign should the veterinary technician monitor to ensure the patient remains stable? Color around the eyes. Temperature. Foot pads. Respiratory rate.

Respiratory rate. Although the color around the eyes and the body temperature can indicate stress, the veterinary technician should monitor the respiratory rate for severe breathing problems.

Which monthly flea and tick preventative containing selamectin is also effective in treating Otodectes cynotis in felines? Advantix. Frontline. Advantage. Revolution.

Revolution Revolution is the monthly flea and tick preventive that contains the active ingredient selamection which is effective in treating Otodectes cynotis or ear mites in felines. Front line covers fleas and ticks only with the active ingredient fipronil. Advantage covers fleas only with the active ingredient imidacloprid. Advantix is for use in dogs only as it contains permethrin, which is toxic to cats, as cats lack the ability to metabolize permethrin.

In which anatomical location is Dioctophyma renale most commonly found in canines? Left kidney. Right kidney. Right ureter. Left ureter.

Right Kidney Dioctophyma renale, the "giant kidney worm" of dogs, is most commonly found in the right kidney of canines. This parasite is not normally found elsewhere.

A 5-year-old male intact feline is diagnosed with distributive shock after presenting with numerous purulent wounds, decreased blood pressure, fever, and decreased skin turgor. Which form of distributive shock is the most likely cause of this presentation? Anaphylactic. Neurogenic. Septic. Drug induced.

Septic Distributive shock is characterized by an impairment of the mechanisms regulating vascular tone, with maldistribution of the vascular volume and massive systemic vasodilation. This decrease in systemic vascular resistance results in inadequate filling of vascular space, which creates relative hypovolemia and a reduction in venous return. Septic shock results from an infectious process and is the most common cause of distributive shock. Distributive shock can also occur as the result of noninfectious causes such as anaphylaxis, drug reactions, and neurogenic shock due to injury to the central nervous system.

A 6-year-old MC DSH is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a transverse fracture to the radius and ulna caused by a fall from a second story window. Which bandage should the veterinary technician apply until surgical repair is performed? Velpeau. Ehmer. Robert Jones. Modified Robert Jones.

Robert jones The Robert Jones bandage is used for temporary stablilization of fractures distal to the elbow and stifle until surgery can be performed. The modified Robert Jones is used for swelling and provides minimal support for fractured limbs. The Ehmer and Velpeau are slings used to stablize the hind limb and scapula respectively.

Which type of hemostatic forceps are used to crush the ovarian pedicle or the base of the uterus during an ovariohysterectomy? Rochester-Carmalt. Crile. Rochester-Pean. Kelly.

Rochester- Carmalt. Rochester-Carmalt forceps are large crushing forceps that are commonly used to crush the vessels of the ovarian pedicle or the body of the uterus during an ovariohysterectomy (spay). Kelly and Crile forceps are large hemostatic forceps used on larger vessels, not on tissues containing vessels. Rochester-Pean forceps are large, transversely grooved forceps used to clamp tissue bundles and large vessels during orthopedic or large animal surgeries.

Which instruction should a veterinary technician give to the owner of a diabetic dog to ensure that insulin quality is maintained? Use the insulin syringes only once. Feed the dog 30 minutes before insulin injection. Roll the bottle gently before drawing the insulin into the syringe. Rotate the injection site with each injection.

Roll the bottle gently before drawing the insulin into the syringe

When giving intramuscular injections in the pelvic limb, which nerve should be avoided? Alveolar. Maxillary. Sciatic. Infraorbital.

Sciatic

An 8-year-old Golden Retriever is undergoing surgery for a mast cell tumor resection. The veterinarian prescribes diphenhydramine (Benadryl) preoperatively. Which adverse side effect should be discussed with the owner? Polyuria. Sedation. Constipation. Polyphagia.

Sedation Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is the most popular antihistamine used in conjunction with anesthesia and surgery before mast cell tumor resection in dogs and cats. Diphenhydramine is also used as an antiemetic and to prevent motion sickness in dogs. Adverse side effects include sedation and vomiting. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) does not cause polyuria, but it is known to cause urinary retention. It does not cause polyphagia, but it is associated with appetite loss. Constipation is not an adverse side effect, but rather diarrhea is likely.

Which method should the veterinary technician employ when discarding expired or unused drugs? Discard drugs in the sharps containers. Flush the medications down the toilet. Dump the drugs down the drain. Send the medications back to the distributer.

Send the medications back to the distributor All unused or expired drugs must be sent back to the distributer. Medications should never be discarded in the sharps containers, as someone could remove them and abuse the medications. Discarding unused drugs down the drain or toilet could lead to contamination of the water supply or sewage and plumbing problems.

Which is most helpful in testing for pancreatitis in a dog newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus? Serum lipase/TLI. Baseline serum insulin concentration. CBC/serum biochemical panel. Urinalysis with bacterial culture.

Serum lipase/TLI. Because of the relatively high prevalence of pancreatitis in diabetic dogs, measurement of serum lipase or serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI) should be considered if abdominal ultrasound is not available. The minimum laboratory evaluation in any nonketotic diabetic dog should include a CBC, serum biochemical panel, and urinalysis with bacterial culture. Measurement of the baseline serum insulin concentration or an insulin response test is not routinely done.

Which anesthetic reacts with CO2 absorbents as it degrades, producing both heat and nephrotoxic compound A? Desflurane. Isoflurane. Sevoflurane. Sodasorb LF.

Sevoflurane. Many anesthetics react with CO2 absorbents and degrade, producing heat and breakdown products, including compound A in the case of sevoflurane, and carbon monoxide in the case of desflurane and isoflurane. More recent CO2 absorbents like Sodasorb LF have been specifically formulated to inhibit the degradation of anesthetic gases (CO; compound A) while retaining their CO2 absorption efficiency.

Which is the first step in treating equine frostbite? Apply topical wet soaks along with a topical steroid. Thaw area rapidly at 41-44 C. Administer systemic antibiotics to prevent gangrene. Smear a heat-attracting steroid ointment or cream.

Thaw area rapidly at 41-44 C. As soon as there is no danger of refreezing, frozen tissues should be rapidly thawed by the gentle application of warm water (41-44 C). Rewarming may be followed by the application of bland, protective ointments or creams--without steroids. In severe cases with necrosis and sloughing, systemic antibiotics are also indicated, but this should not be the first response; rewarming must come first.

Which anatomical part requires the lowest kilovolts peak (kVp) setting to produce a quality radiographic image? Skull. Pelvis. Chest. Abdomen.

Skull The penetrating power of the x-ray beam is controlled by the kVp setting; thinner parts require less kVp to adequately penetrate the patient. A radiographic examination of the skull requires less kVp than the chest, pelvis, or abdomen.

Which specialty retractor is used specifically for ovariohysterectomy procedures? Gelpi retractor. Snook hook. Weitlaner retractor. Senn retractor.

Snook hook

Which anticoagulant is the most effective preservative for use in blood glucose testing? EDTA. Sodium citrate. Sodium fluoride. Heparin.

Sodium fluoride Sodium fluoride is the most effective preservative for stabilizing blood glucose samples due to its ability to inhibit cell metabolism. Sodium citrate prevents clotting by binding with calcium and is used for anticoagulation studies. EDTA also binds with calcium and is used for collection of whole blood samples. Heparin works as an antithrombin and is used for plasma determinations.

Which scaling device is powered by an air compressor? Sonic. Piezoelectric. Power. Ultrasonic.

Sonic The sonic scaler is powered by an air compressor. The ultrasonic scaler is powered by vibrations. The power scaler usies water-cooling vibrations. The piezoelectric scaler uses a transducer.

A 10-year-old canine exhibits a pulse rate of 80 and a respiratory rate of 8. The pupils are centrally positined, jaw tone is slack, and reflexes are absent. This presentation is most consistent with which stage and plane of anesthesia? Stage III, plane 4. Stage IV, plane 1. Stage III, plane 3. Stage III, plane 2.

Stage III, plane 3. Based on the information provided, this patient is in stage III, plane 3. In stage III, Plane 2, respiratory rate may be increased or decreased, and respiratory volume (tidal volume) is decreased; cardiovascular function is mildly depressed. Stage III, plane 4 involves complete paralysis of muscles needed for breathing and cardiovascular function is generally impaired; this plane of anesthesia condition causes vasodilation, which leads to hypotension. Stage IV is marked with respiratory arrest followed by circulatory collapse; death ensues within 1 to 5 minutes.

Which cytology smear technique is recommended for preparation of highly viscous samples? Compression. Starfish. Squash. Line.

Starfish The starfish smear technique is especially useful for highly viscous samples because it allows one to use the tip of a syringe needle to spread out the sample in multiple directions. The compression method, also known as the squash method, is used on aspirates from solid masses. The line method is used on fluid samples with low cellularity.

A sterile swab is used to collect a specimen from an infected area of an 8-year-old domestic shorthair cat. Which transport device should be used to submit this sample to the lab for culturing? Sterile syringe semisolid reducing medium. Blood culture medium. Sterile tube with saline. Screw-cap jar.

Sterile syringe semisolid reducing medium Aspirates or swabs of the skin should be transported via sterile syringe semisolid reducing medium to ensure that the sample can be preserved for several days. A sterile tube with saline is used for tissue biopsies. Screw-cap jars are used for necropsy evaluations. Blood culture media are used for aspirates of spinal fluid and joints.

Which brushing technique should be used after periodontal surgery? Stillman. Buccal. Mechanical. Bass.

Stillman The stillman technique is used for patients who have experienced periodontal surgery, as this method promotes healing. The bristles on the tooth brush are moved with a sweeping technique, which allows healing and prevents further damage. The bass technique is the most common and is brushing against the tooth along the gingival margin. Mechanical cleaning is actually the action that occurs with regular tooth brushing to control plaque buildup.

Which type of absorbable suture is made from nonsynthetic materials? Silk. Polydioxanone (PDS). Surgical gut. Nylon.

Surgical Gut

Which surgery is most likely to result in severe pain for the patient? Surgical fracture repair. Laparotomy. Cruciate ligament repair. Ovariohysterectomy.

Surgical fracture repair Pain resulting from the surgical repair of a fracture is likely to be severe. Mild to moderate pain is expected with an ovariohysterectomy, a cruciate ligament repair, and a laparotomy.

A 8-year-old Laborador Retreiver has undergone surgery to repair an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. The post-operative nurse is advised to watch the patient for signs of pain. Which sign / symptom is the patient likely to experience? Bradycardia. Polyuria. Diarrhea. Tachycardia.

Tachycardia. Tachycardia, along with dysuria, constipation, self-mutilation and vocalization are signs of post-operative pain following orthopedic procedures. Bradycardia, polyuria, and diarrhea are not the most likely signs / symptoms of post-operative pain.

Which essential amino acid must be added to all feline food? Taurine. Glutamine. Lysine. Cysteine.

Taurine. All cat food must contain the essential amino acid, taurine. Lysine and glutamine are essential, but do not need to be added to the cat food, and cysteine is not essential. Taurine must be added to cat food, as cats unlike dogs are unable to synthesize taurine from other amino acids.

A client refuses vaccinations for her 14-week-old male puppy for fear of a possible adverse reaction. How should the technician address the client's concerns? Tell the client that a rabies vaccine is required by law and explain the importance of the other vaccinations. Explain that all vaccines are optional and she can refuse treatment. Tell the client that vaccinations are not required as long as the puppy stays at home or in the yard. Explain that a rabies vaccine is strongly recommended, but the other vaccinations are not required.

Tell the client that a rabies vaccine is required by law and explain the importance of the other vaccinations. The technician should convey that the rabies vaccine is required by law and explain the importance of the other vaccinations. Although some vaccines are optional, the technician should explain that the client cannot refuse vaccinations. Some immunities are passed along to offspring; however, the patient still needs his vaccinations to protect from rabies and other viruses. Although the yard seems safe, he is still at risk for rabies, parvovirus, leptospirosis, and distemper.

When acquiring a lateral view of a small animal abdomen, what are the recommended borders of collimation? The caudal aspect of T1 cranially and the greater trochanter caudally. Manubrium sterni cranially and a point midway between the xiphoid and last rib caudally. Second cervical vertebra cranially and 5th thoracic vertebra caudally. Manubrium sterni cranially and the greater trochanter caudally.

The caudal aspect of T1 cranially and the greater trochanter caudally. The lateral view of a small animal abdomen should be collimated to include the caudal aspect of T1 cranially and the greater trochanter caudally. Collimating cranially to the second cervical vertebra or to the manubrium sterni would include part of the thorax, which is not the area of interest for this exam.

How much sterile water for injection must to be added to 1 gm of drug in order to make a 2.5% solution? 4 ml. 0.4 ml. 40 ml. 400 ml.

The correct answer is 40 ml of sterile water for injection. A 2.5% solution is equivalent to 25 mg/ml (1 gm = 1000 mg). The correct formula is V1 x C1 = V2 X C2: 1000 mg / 25 mg/ml = 40 ml. The incorrect value of 0.4 ml results from failing to convert 1 gm and 2.5% to the same units. The incorrect value of 4 ml results from using an incorrect value of 250 mg/ml for the 2.5% solution. The incorrect value of 400 ml results from failing to convert 2.5% to 25 mg/ml, and dividing that into 1000 mg.

The veterinarian orders 550 ml of lactated Ringer's solution (LRS) to be administered over a 12 hour period. Using a 60 gtt/ml IV set, what is the correct drip rate to set for this patient? 0.76 ml/sec. 0.76 gtt/min. 45.0 gtt/min. 45.8 ml/hr.

The correct drip rate is 45 gtt/min in order to dispense the required 550 ml in a 12 hour period: 550 ml per 12 hours = 45.8 ml/ hr; 45.8 ml/hr = 0.755 ml/ min; 0.755 x 60 gtt/ml (IV set factor) = 45.3, or 45 gtt/min. The settings of 0.76 gtt/min and 0.76 ml/sec are both incorrect units for drip rate. The administration of 45.8 ml/hr is the correct hourly amount, but this value needs to be converted to gtt/min to set the proper drip rate.

client has been giving his new dog NSAIDs, as recommended by the previous owner. He notices that whenever he orders his new dog to lie down, the dog often appears to be "praying"-head on forelegs, rear end raised high. Which is the most appropriate response? The dog may have been trained to do tricks by a previous owner. The dog may be shy, timid, or intimidated. The dog may be seeking attention. The dog may have abdominal pain.

The dog may have abdominal pain. Behavioral responses to pain can range from hiding, avoidance, and escape, to agonistic body postures and expressions; the NSAIDs may not be strong enough, depending on the pain being treated--or abdominal pain may be a side effect. Although some behaviors can be interpreted as playful or indicative of emotion, expressive behaviors and postures such as attention soliciting, whining, or purring, and head rubbing might also be indicative of attempts to relieve pain.

What happens first when the exposure switch is depressed on an x-ray machine? The x-ray exposure is completed. The focal spot size is selected. The filament is heated and the rotor speed increases. Electrons travel from the cathode to the anode.

The filament is heated and the rotor speed increases. When the exposure button is pressed, the filament is heated and the rotor accelerates to the designated speed. Electrons are then boiled off at the filament (thermionic emission), and are accelerated toward the focal spot of the anode where x-rays are produced. When the exposure is completed, the rotor quickly slows down and stops. The focal spot size is selected before the exposure is initiated.

Which is the correct description of a normal occlusion scissor bite in a canine? The maxillary fourth premolar is buccal to the mandibular first molar. The mandibular canine is distal to the maxillary canine. The mandibular incisors are labial to the maxillary incisors. The maxillary first premolar is mesial to the mandibular first premolar.

The maxillary forth premolar is buccal to the mandibular first molar. The maxillary fourth premolar is buccal to the mandibular first molar since the upper jaw is wider than the lower jaw in canines. In the normal scissor bite, the mandibular incisors are palatal to the maxillary incisors. The mandibular canine is mesial to the maxillary canine. The maxillary first premolar is distal to the mandibular first premolar.

Which factor is especially important when educating clients concerning vaccines? Parasite prevention. The need for boosters. Placement of the vaccines. Manufacturers of vaccines.

The need for boosters

Which procedural error is most likely to cause a long bone to appear foreshortened on a radiographic image? The part is too far form the image receptor. The x-ray tube is too far from the image receptor. The x-ray beam is not perpendicular to the image receptor. The part is not parallel to the image receptor.

The part is not parallel to the image receptor. Foreshortening, a type of shape distortion, occurs when the part is not parallel to the image receptor (IR), causing the bone to appear shorter than it actually is. Failing to direct the x-ray beam perpendicular to the IR results in elongation. Although some degree of image magnification is unavoidable, placing the part too far from the IR causes increased magnification (size distortion). Positioning the x-ray tube too far from the IR does not produce shape distortion or size distortion, but increased x-ray exposure would likely be required to compensate for the increased distance.

Which statement is true regarding a feline patient with type A blood? The patient can receive both AB and B blood. The patient can receive only B blood. The patient cannot receive AB or B blood. The patient can receive only AB blood.

The patient cannot receive AB or B blood. A cat with blood type A blood cannot recieve AB or B blood, since they may only receive type A blood. Cats with type A blood will have a reaction to AB or B blood.

What is the best explanation for a dog under anesthesia with a heart rate of 200 beats per minute? The patient is in too light a plane of anesthesia. The patient is in too deep a plane of anesthesia. This is normal. The patient is hypothermic.

The patient is in too light a plane of anesthesia

A veterinary technician performs the hourly treatments for a 2-year-old cat, who had a foreign body removed from the intestines. The technician notes an increased respiratory rate, moaning, and the patient is hunched over during the incision site check. What information should the technician report to the doctor? The patient is dehydrated and needs intravenous fluids. The patient seems to be in pain and may need more medication. The patient had too much pain medication and seems sedate. The patient became stressed when the cage door was opened.

The patient seems to be in pain and may need more medication. Since the patient was moaning a bit, hunched over, and had an increased respiratory rate, this may indicate pain and the patient requires more pain medication. Although an increase in respiratory rate when the cage door being opened might cause stress, it seems more like the patient is in pain. The patient has not had too much pain medication and is not sedated.

Which anesthetic agent should be avoided in an animal with a body condition score of 5? Guaifenesin. Thiopental. Propofol. Xylazine.

Thiopental Barbiturates such as thiopental are highly soluble in fat tissue. Animals with a body condition score of 5 (indicating obesity) will store more of this drug and, as a result, are at increased risk for overdose and extended recovery times. Propofol, xylazine, and guaifenesin are not lipophilic, and are therefore not contraindicated in patients with a high body condition score.

Which is the most common complication to arise as a result of IV catheterization during equine surgery? Endotoxemia. Coagulopathy. Salmonellosis. Thrombophlebitis.

Thrombophlebitis. Thrombophlebitis, the inflammation and thrombosis of a vein, commonly occurs as a result of IV catheterization, particularly in horses. Horses with GI disease are at risk of developing coagulopathies, which contribute to the propensity to develop jugular thrombophlebitis during treatment. Salmonellosis and endotoxemia increase the odds of catheter-associated thrombophlebitis.

Which protozoan parasite should the patient be tested for if the patient's owner is pregnant? Toxoplasma gondii. Sarcocystis neurona. Giardia lamblia. Isospora canis.

Toxoplasma gondii Patients should be tested for Toxoplasma gondii if the owner is pregnant, since this parasite can cause birth defects or abortion of the fetus. Animals infected with Isospora , Giardia, and Sarcocystis do not pose a particular risk for pregnant women.

What should the veterinary technician include in the dental history? Current medications. Number of pets in the household. Amount of water consumed. Toys the pet uses.

Toys the pet uses

Which orthopedic surgical instrument is used to obtain samples for bone marrow biopsies? Osteotomes. Chisels. Trephines. Gigli wires.

Trephines

Which structure is best seen using an open mouth, end-on radiographic view? Nasal turbinates. Pinnae. Tympanic bullae. Zygomatic arch.

Tympanic bullae An open mouth, end-on radiograph allows for the tympanic bullae to be viewed without obstruction. The nasal turbinates, pinnae, and zygomatic arch can all be viewed without the mouth open view.

The maxilla refers to which part of the jaw? Lingual. Lower. Upper. Medial.

Upper

A 9-year-old terrier is undergoing preoperative labs for dental extractions next week. The doctor requests a cystocentesis to collect a specimen for urinalysis. After palpating the abdomen, the technician feels that the bladder is rather small and difficult to locate. What should the technician do next? Place a urinary catheter in the bladder and obtain the specimen. Take a radiograph to view the exact size and location of the bladder. Express the bladder and catch the urine in a sterile container. Use the ultrasound machine to view the exact size and location of the bladder.

Use the ultrasound machine to view the exact size and location of the bladder. If the bladder is difficult to locate, the technician should use ultrasound to determine the size and location of the bladder prior to cystocentesis. Expressing the bladder or placing a urinary catheter may result in contamination of the specimen. Although a radiograph will allow the technician to see the bladder, it is not as useful as ultrasound, which provides real-time visualization during the cystocentesis.

Which organization is tasked with verifying internet pharmacies? Verified Internet Pharmacy Practice Site. Drug Enforcement Administration. Food and Drug Administration. Center for Veterinary Medicine.

Verified Internet Pharmacy Practice Site

A 3-year-old female spayed Poodle presents to the clinic with petechiae on her abdomen, bleeding gums, and lethargy. Which toxic substance has the patient likely ingested? Grapes. Ice melt. Warfarin. Toilet cleaner.

Warfarin Petechiae are small pinpoint areas of hemorrhage which can be caused by warfarin, which is present in rat poison. Toilet cleaner and ice melt produce affects in the gastrointestinal tract. Ingestion of grapes is likely to affect the urinary system.

A 1-year-old Husky is brought into the hospital with petechiae on his abdomen, bleeding gums, and lethargy. What is the most likely cause of these signs? Heatstroke. Head trauma. Warfarin poisoning. Seizure.

Warfarin poisoning Ingestion of rodenticides, such as warfarin, often results in spontaneous bruising and bleeding. Head trauma, heatstroke, and seizure do not cause petechiae on the abdomen, bleeding gums, and lethargy.

A 4-year-old German Shepard presents with severe bloating and gagging. An examination reveals a distended abdomen and some retching. How should the veterinary technician manage this patient? Inform the doctor that the patient appears to be in stable condition. Reassure the owners that their dog is fine and then inform the doctor of the patient's condition. Weigh the patient and then immediately alert the doctor. Weigh the patient and inform his owners it may be an hour before a veterinarian evaluation.

Weigh the patient and then immediately alert the doctor. The patient has a distended abdomen and is retching due to his breed and he is at risk for gastric dilation volvulus (GDV), which can be fatal if it is not detected and treated in time. The technician should bring the patient immediately to the back, alert the doctor of his symptoms, and have the doctor examine him immediately. The technician should not place the patient in a cage and tell the doctor he is stable, or take time to reassure the owners before alerting the doctor.

A 6-month-old Poodle scheduled for an ovariohysterectomy is administered ketamine / diazepam and maintained on isoflurane anesthesia. Failure to administer intraoperative analgesia results in the animal's postoperative pain level to be more severe than the damage from the surgery itself. Which option is likely responsible for this dog's presentation? Windup. Transduction. Transmission. Modulation.

Windup Windup refers to painful stimuli bombarding the spinal cord even under anesthesia which results in a higher postoperative pain response than would be expected. Transmission, transduction, and modulation are the processes of nociception.

Which best describes the phenomenon in which a patient's perception of untreated pain becomes more intense as nerve fibers become more sensitive and thus more effective in transmitting messages of pain to the brain? Proprioception. Allodynia. Windup. Nociception.

Windup Windup phenomenon causes untreated pain to get worse because the nerve fibers become more effective in transmitting pain impulses to the brain. Over time, the brain becomes more sensitive to the pain, and the pain seems to get worse. Allodynia is a painful response to a stimulus that is normally not painful. Nociception is the ability to take a painful stimulus and translate it into a nerve impulse that will travel to the brain for interpretation and reaction. Proprioception is body position and movement sensation.

The veterinarian prescribes an anesthetic combination of Rompun, acepromazine, and Torbugesic ("RAT"), but the office does not carry the brand name Rompun.What generic drug should be used instead? Xylazine. Butorphanol. Ketamine. Tiletamine.

Xylazine The generic name for Rompun is xylazine. Ketaset is a brand name for ketamine. Tiletamine is the generic for Telazol. The generic for Torbugesic is butorphanol.

Which fecal flotation solution is preferred when testing for the presence of Giardia? Sodium nitrate. Zinc sulfate. Sodium chloride. Sheather's sugar.

Zinc sulfate Zinc sulfate is the ideal solution to recover Giardia cysts, since they are less likely to be distorted with this flotation solution. Sheather's sugar solution is inexpensive but is known to distort Giardia oocytes. Sodium nitrate is a commonly used fecal flotation solution, but it can also distort Giardia. Sodium chloride is the least desirable solution, as it corrodes the microscope and severely distorts ova, not just Giardia.