Exam #1
1-52 Many of the mechanisms that cells use for maintenance and reproduction were first studied at the molecular level in bacteria. Which bacterial species had a central role in advancing the field of molecular biology? (a) E. coli (b) D. melanogaster (c) S. pombe (d) C. elegans
A
1-56 Drosophila melanogaster is a/an __________. This type of animal is the most abundant of all animal species, making it an appropriate choice as an experimental model. (a) insect (b) bird (c) amphibian (d) mammal
A
1-5 The flow of genetic information is controlled by a series of biochemical reactions that result in the production of proteins, each with its own specific order of amino acids. Choose the correct series of biochemical reactions from the options presented here. (a) replication, transcription, translation (b) replication, translation, transcription (c) translation, transcription, replication (d) translation, replication, transcription
A
1-17 By definition, prokaryotic cells do not possess __________. (a) a nucleus. (b) replication machinery. (c) ribosomes. (d) membrane bilayers.
A
1-31 The mitochondrial proteins found in the inner membrane are involved in the conversion of ADP to ATP, a source of energy for the cell. This process consumes which of the following substances? (a) oxygen (b) nitrogen (c) sulfur (d) carbon dioxide
A
1-40 Eukaryotic cells are able to trigger the release of material from secretory vesicles to the extracellular space using a process called exocytosis. An example of materials commonly released this way is _____________. (a) hormones. (b) nucleic acids. (c) sugars. (d) cytosolic proteins.
A
1-9 Select the option that best finishes the following statement: "Evolution is a process __________." (a) that can be understood based on the principles of mutation and selection. (b) that results from repeated cycles of adaptation over billions of years. (c) by which all present-day cells arose from 4-5 different ancestral cells. (d) that requires hundreds of thousands of years.
A
2-10 Which of the following elements is least abundant in living organisms? (a) sulfur (b) carbon (c) oxygen (d) nitrogen
A
2-16 A covalent bond between two atoms is formed as a result of the ______________. (a) sharing of electrons. (b) loss of electrons from both atoms. (c) loss of a proton from one atom. (d) transfer of electrons from one atom to the other.
A
2-23 Table Q2-23 indicates the electrons in the first four atomic electron shells for selected elements. On the basis of the information in the chart and what you know about atomic structure, which elements form stable but reactive diatomic gases? (a) nitrogen, oxygen (b) helium, neon (c) sodium, potassium (d) magnesium, calcium
A
2-25 Which of the following factors do not influence the length of a covalent bond? (a) the tendency of atoms to fill the outer electron shells (b) the attractive forces between negatively charged electrons and positively charged nuclei (c) the repulsive forces between the positively charged nuclei (d) the minimization of repulsive forces between the two nuclei by the cloud of shared electrons
A
2-3 Which subatomic particles contribute to the atomic number for any given element? (a) protons (b) protons and neutrons (c) neutrons (d) protons and electrons
A
2-31 Although covalent bonds are 10-100 times stronger than noncovalent interactions, many biological processes depend upon the number and type of noncovalent interactions between molecules. Which of the noncovalent interactions below will contribute most to the strong and specific binding of two molecules, such as a pair of proteins? (a) electrostatic attractions (b) hydrogen bonds (c) hydrophobic interactions (d) Van der Waals attractions
A
2-32 Which of the following expressions accurately describes the calculation of pH? (a) pH = -log10[H+] (b) pH = log10[H+] (c) pH = -log2[H+] (d) pH = -log10[OH-]
A
2-36 Larger molecules have hydrogen-bonding networks that contribute to specific, high- affinity binding. Smaller molecules such as urea can also form these networks. How many hydrogen bonds can urea (Figure Q2-36) form if dissolved in water? (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 4
A
2-39 Aromatic carbon compounds such as benzene are planar and very stable. Double-bond character extends around the entire ring, which is why it is often drawn as a hexagon with a circle inside. This characteristic is caused by electron __________. (a) resonance. (b) pairing. (c) partial charge. (d) stacking.
A
2-46 The amino acids glutamine and glutamic acid are shown in Figure Q2-46. They differ only in the structure of their side chains (circled). At pH 7, glutamic acid can participate in molecular interactions that are not possible for glutamine. What types of interactions are these? (a) ionic bonds (b) hydrogen bonds (c) van der Waals interactions (d) covalent bonds
A
2-48 Oligosaccharides are short sugar polymers that can become covalently linked to proteins and lipids through condensation reactions. These modified proteins and lipids are called glycoproteins and glycolipids, respectively. Within a protein, which of the amino acids (shown in Figure Q2-48) is the most probable target for this type of modification? a) serine (b) glycine (c) phenylalanine (d) methionine
A
2-49 Which of the following are examples of isomers? (a) glucose and galactose (b) alanine and glycine (c) adenine and guanine (d) glycogen and cellulose
A
2-6 Figure Q2-6 depicts the structure of carbon. Use the information in the diagram to choose the correct atomic number and atomic weight, respectively, for an atom of carbon. (a) 6, 12 (b) 12, 12 (c) 6, 18 (d) 12, 6
A
2-62 Each nucleotide in DNA and RNA has an aromatic base. What is the principal force that keeps the bases in a polymer from interacting with water? (a) hydrophobic interactions (b) hydrogen bonds (c) covalent bonds (d) van der Waals interactions
A
2-64 There are 20100 different possible sequence combinations for a protein chain with 100 amino acids. In addition to the amino acid sequence of the protein, what other factors increase the potential for diversity in these macromolecules? (a) free rotation around single bonds during synthesis (b) noncovalent interactions sampled as protein folds (c) the directionality of amino acids being added (d) the planar nature of the peptide bond
A
3-13 During respiration, energy is retrieved from the high-energy bonds found in certain organic molecules. Which of the following, in addition to energy, are the ultimate products of respiration? (a) CO2, H2O (b) CH3, H2O (c) CH2OH, O2 (d) CO2, O2
A
3-15 Oxidation is a favorable process in an aerobic environment, which is the reason cells are able to derive energy from the oxidation of macromolecules. Once carbon has been oxidized to _______________, its most stable form, it can only cycle back into the organic portion of the carbon cycle through __________________. (a) CO2, photosynthesis. (b) CH3, combustion. (c) CO2, respiration. (d) CO, reduction.
A
3-11 In the first stage of photosynthesis, light energy is converted into what other form of energy? (a) electrical (b) chemical (c) potential (d) kinetic
A or D
1-18 Although there are many distinct prokaryotic species, most have a small range of shapes, sizes, and growth rates. Which of the following characteristics are not observed in prokaryotes? (a) a highly structured cytoplasm (b) endoplasmic reticulum (c) the ability to divide rapidly (d) a cell wall
A,B
1-27 Which of the following organelles has both an outer and an inner membrane? (a) endoplasmic reticulum (b) mitochondrion (c) lysosome (d) peroxisome
B
1-1 Living systems are incredibly diverse in size, shape, environment, and behavior. It is estimated that there are between 10 million and 100 million different species. Despite this wide variety of organisms, it remains difficult to define what it means to say something is alive. Which of the following can be described as the smallest living unit? (a) DNA (b) cell (c) organelle (d) protein
B
1-10 Select the option that correctly finishes the following statement: "A cell's genome _________________." (a) is defined as all the genes being used to make protein. (b) contains all of a cell's DNA. (c) constantly changes, depending upon the cell's environment. (d) is altered during embryonic development.
B
1-11 Which statement is NOT true about the events/conclusions from studies during the mid- 1800s surrounding the discovery of cells? (a) Cells came to be known as the smallest universal building block of living organisms. (b) Scientists came to the conclusion that new cells can form spontaneously from the remnants of ruptured cells. (c) Light microscopy was essential in demonstrating the commonalities between plant and animal tissues. (d) New cells arise from the growth and division of previously existing cells.
B
1-16 What is the smallest distance two points can be separated and still resolved using light microscopy? (a) 20 nm (b) 0.2 μm (c) 2μm (d) 200 μm
B
1-26 The nucleus, an organelle found in eukaryotic cells, confines the __________, keeping them separated from other components of the cell. (a) lysosomes (b) chromosomes (c) peroxisomes (d) ribosomes
B
1-34 Photosynthesis enables plants to capture the energy from sunlight. In this essential process, plants incorporate the carbon from CO2 into high-energy __________ molecules, which the plant cell mitochondria use to produce ATP. (a) fat (b) sugar (c) protein (d) fiber
B
1-37 Which of the following choices best describes the role of the lysosome? (a) transport of material to the Golgi (b) clean-up, recycling, and disposal of macromolecules (c) sorting of transport vesicles (d) the storage of excess macromolecules
B
1-42 The cytoskeleton provides support, structure, motility, and organization, and it forms tracks to direct organelle and vesicle transport. Which of the cytoskeletal elements listed below is the thickest? (a) actin filaments (b) microtubules (c) intermediate filaments (d) none of the above (all the same thickness)
B
1-53 Brewer's yeast, apart from being an irreplaceable asset in the brewery and in the bakery, is an experimental organism used to study eukaryotic cells. However, it does have some limitations. Which of the processes below cannot be studied in yeast? (a) DNA replication (b) cell motility (c) exocytosis (d) cell division
B
1-55 A. thaliana, or Arabidopsis, is a common weed. Biologists have selected it over hundreds of thousands of other flowering plant species to serve as an experimental model organism because __________________. (a) it can withstand extremely cold climates. (b) it can reproduce in 8-10 weeks. (c) it produces thousands of offspring per plant. (d) Both (b) and (c) are true.
B
1-57 Caenorhabditis elegans is a nematode. During its development, it produces more than 1000 cells. However, the adult worm has only 959 somatic cells. The process by which 131 cells are specifically targeted for destruction is called ______________. (a) directed cell pruning. (b) programmed cell death. (c) autophagy. (d) necrosis.
B
1-59 You wish to explore how mutations in specific genes affecting sugar metabolism might alter tooth development. Which organism is likely to provide the best model system for your studies, and why? (a) horses (b) mice (c) E. coli (d) Arabidopsis
B
1-8 Changes in DNA sequence from one generation to the next may result in offspring that are altered in fitness compared with their parents. The process of change and selection over the course of many generations is the basis of __________. (a) mutation. (b) evolution. (c) heredity. (d) reproduction.
B
2-13 The first task you are assigned in your summer laboratory job is to prepare a concentrated NaOH stock solution. The molecular weight of NaOH is 40. How many grams of solid NaOH will you need to weigh out to obtain a 500 mL solution that has a concentration of 10 M? (a) 800 g (b) 200 g (c) 400 g (d) 160 g
B
2-20 Table Q2-20 indicates the electrons in the first four atomic electron shells for selected elements. On the basis of the information in the chart and what you know about atomic structure, which elements are chemically inert? (a) carbon, sulfur (b) helium, neon (c) sodium, potassium (d) magnesium, calcium
B
2-30 Which combination of answers best completes the following statement: When atoms are held together by ___________ __________, they are typically referred to as _________. (a) hydrogen bonds, molecules. (b) ionic interactions, salts. (c) ionic interactions, molecules. (d) double bonds, nonpolar.
B
2-4 Which subatomic particles contribute to the atomic mass for any given element? (a) protons (b) protons and neutrons (c) neutrons (d) protons and electrons
B
2-44 Which of the following monomer building blocks is necessary to assemble selectively permeable boundaries around and inside cells? (a) sugars (b) fatty acids (c) amino acids (d) nucleotides
B
2-45 The variety and arrangement of chemical groups on monomer subunits contribute to the conformation, reactivity, and surface of the macromolecule into which they become incorporated. What type of chemical group is circled on the nucleotide shown in Figure Q2-45? (a) pyrophosphate (b) phosphoryl (c) carbonyl (d) carboxyl
B
2-57 DNA and RNA are different types of nucleic acid polymer. Which of the following is true of DNA but not true of RNA? (a) It contains uracil. (b) It contains thymine. (c) It is single-stranded. (d) It has 5′-to-3′ directionality.
B
2-61 Both DNA and RNA are synthesized by covalently linking a nucleoside triphosphate to the previous nucleotide, constantly adding to a growing chain. In the case of DNA, the new strand becomes part of a stable helix. The two strands are complementary in sequence and antiparallel in directionality. What is the principal force that holds these two strands together? (a) ionic interactions (b) hydrogen bonds (c) covalent bonds (d) van der Waals interactions
B
2-63 Because there are four different monomer building blocks that can be used to assemble RNA polymers, the number of possible sequence combinations that can be created for an RNA molecule made of 100 nucleotides is _______. (a) 1004 (b) 4100 (c) 4 × 100 (d) 100/4
B
2-7 Carbon 14 is an unstable isotope of carbon that decays very slowly. Compared to the common, stable carbon 12 isotope, carbon 14 has two additional ______________. (a) electrons. (b) neutrons. (c) protons. (d) ions.
B
3-1 Chemical reactions carried out by living systems depend on the ability of some organisms to capture and use atoms from nonliving sources in the environment. The specific subset of these reactions that break down nutrients in food can be described as _____________. (a) metabolic. (b) catabolic. (c) anabolic. (d) biosynthetic.
B
3-14 Your body extracts energy from the food you ingest by catalyzing reactions that essentially "burn" the food molecules in a stepwise fashion. What is another way to describe this process? (a) reduction (b) oxidation (c) dehydration (d) solvation
B
3-17 Oxidation is the process by which oxygen atoms are added to a target molecule. Generally, the atom that is oxidized will experience which of the following with respect to the electrons in its outer shell? (a) a net gain (b) a net loss (c) no change (d) an equal sharing
B
3-18 When elemental sodium is added to water, the sodium atoms ionize spontaneously. Uncharged Na becomes Na+. This means that the Na atoms have been _____________. (a) protonated. (b) oxidized. (c) hydrogenated. (d) reduced.
B
3-22 Seed oils are often dehydrogenated and added back into processed foods as partly unsaturated fatty acids. In comparison with the original oil, the new fatty acids have additional double carbon-carbon bonds, replacing what were once single bonds. This process could also be described as _____________. (a) isomerization. (b) oxidation. (c) reduction. (d) protonation.
B
3-26 Catalysts are molecules that lower the activation energy for a given reaction. Cells produce their own catalysts called _____________. (a) proteins. (b) enzymes. (c) cofactors. (d) complexes.
B
3-3 The second law of thermodynamics states that the disorder in any system is always increasing. In simple terms, you can think about dropping NaCl crystals into a glass of water. The solvation and diffusion of ions is favored because there is an increase in _____________. (a) pH. (b) entropy. (c) ions. (d) stored energy.
B
1-22 Some prokaryotes can live by utilizing entirely inorganic materials. Which of the following inorganic molecules would you predict to be the predominant building block for fats, sugars, and proteins? (a) O2 (b) N2 (c) CO2 (d) H2
C
1-28 Mitochondria perform cellular respiration, a process that uses oxygen, generates carbon dioxide, and produces chemical energy for the cell. Which answer below indicates a correct pairing of material "burned" and the form of energy produced during cellular respiration? (a) fat, ADP (b) sugar, fat (c) sugar, ATP (d) fat, protein
C
1-30 Mitochondria contain their own genome, are able to duplicate, and actually divide on a different time line from the rest of the cell. Nevertheless, mitochondria cannot function for long when isolated from the cell because they are __________________. (a) viruses. (b) parasites. (c) endosymbionts. (d) anaerobes.
C
1-41 __________ are fairly small organelles that provide a safe place within the cell to carry out certain biochemical reactions that generate harmful, highly reactive oxygen species. These chemicals are both generated and broken down in the same location. (a) Nucleosomes (b) Lysosomes (c) Peroxisomes (d) Endosomes
C
1-45 Choose the phrase that best completes this sentence: Microtubules ____________ and are required to pull duplicated chromosomes to opposite poles of dividing cells. (a) generate contractile forces (b) are intermediate in thickness (c) can rapidly reorganize (d) are found in especially large numbers in muscle cells
C
1-50 Scientists learned that cell death is a normal and even important part of life by studying the development of the nematode worm C. elegans. What was the most important feature of C. elegans for the study of programmed cell death? (a) The nematode is smaller and simpler than the fruit fly. (b) 70% of C. elegans genes have homologs in humans. (c) The developmental pathway of each cell in the adult worm was known. (d) Its genome was partially sequenced.
C
1-58 Zebrafish (Danio rerio) are especially useful in the study of early development because their embryos ______________. (a) are exceptionally large. (b) develop slowly. (c) are transparent. (d) are pigmented.8
C
1-6 Proteins are important architectural and catalytic components within the cell, helping to determine its chemistry, its shape, and its ability to respond to changes in the environment. Remarkably, all of the different proteins in a cell are made from the same 20 __________. By linking them in different sequences, the cell can make protein molecules with different conformations and surface chemistries, and therefore different functions. (a) nucleotides. (b) sugars. (c) amino acids. (d) fatty acids.(a) nucleotides. (b) sugars. (c) amino acids. (d) fatty acids.
C
1-7 Which statement is NOT true about mutations? (a) A mutation is a change in the DNA that can generate offspring less fit for survival than their parents. (b) A mutation can be a result of imperfect DNA duplication. (c) A mutation is a result of sexual reproduction. (d) A mutation is a change in the DNA that can generate offspring that are as fit for survival as their parents are.
C
2-21 Table Q2-21 indicates the electrons in the first four atomic electron shells for selected elements. On the basis of the information in the chart and what you know about atomic structure, which elements will form ions with a net charge of +1 in solution? (a) carbon, sulfur (b) helium, neon (c) sodium, potassium (d) magnesium, calcium
C
2-26 Double covalent bonds are both shorter and stronger than single covalent bonds, but they also limit the geometry of the molecule because they ____________________. (a) create a new arrangement of electron shells. (b) change the reactivity of the bonded atoms. (c) limit the rotation of the bonded atoms. (d) prevent additional bonds from being formed with the bonded atoms.
C
2-5 Which subatomic particles can vary between isotopes of the same element, without changing the observed chemical properties? (a) electrons (b) protons and neutrons (c) neutrons (d) neutrons and electrons
C
2-51 Most types of molecules in the cell have asymmetric (chiral) carbons. Consequently there is the potential to have two different molecules that look much the same but are mirror images of each other and therefore not equivalent. These special types of isomer are called stereoisomers. Which of the four carbons circled in Figure Q2-51 is the asymmetric carbon that determines whether the amino acid (threonine in this case) is a ᴅ or an ʟ stereoisomer? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Figure Q2-51
C
2-8 If the isotope 32S has 16 protons and 16 neutrons, how many protons, neutrons, and electrons will the isotope 35S have, respectively? (a) 16, 20, 15 (b) 16, 19, 15 (c) 16, 19, 16 (d) 16, 19, 17
C
3-2 When there is an excess of nutrients available in the human body, insulin is released to stimulate the synthesis of glycogen from glucose. This is a specific example of a(n) __________ process, a general process in which larger molecules are made from smaller molecules. (a) metabolic (b) catabolic (c) anabolic (d) biosynthetic
C
3-21 Oxidation and reduction states are relatively easy to determine for metal ions, because there is a measurable net charge. In the case of carbon compounds, oxidation and reduction depend on the nature of polar covalent bonds. Which of the following is the best way to describe these types of bond? (a) hydrogen bonds in a nonpolar solution (b) covalent bonds in an aqueous solution (c) unequal sharing of electrons across a covalent bond (d) equal sharing of electrons across a covalent bond
C
3-23 Chemical reactions that lead to a release of free energy are referred to as "energetically favorable." Another way to describe these reactions is: _____________. (a) uphill. (b) uncatalyzed. (c) spontaneous. (d) activated.
C
3-24 Even though cellular macromolecules contain a large number of carbon and hydrogen atoms, they are not all spontaneously converted into CO2 and H2O. This absence of spontaneous combustion is due to the fact that biological molecules are relatively __________ and an input of energy is required to reach lower energy states. (a) large (b) polar (c) stable (d) unstable
C
3-5 At first glance, it may seem that living systems are able to defy the second law of thermodynamics. However, on closer examination, it becomes clear that although cells create organization from raw materials in the environment, they also contribute to disorder in the environment by releasing _____________. (a) water. (b) radiation. (c) heat. (d) proteins.
C
1-44 Which of the following characteristics would not support the idea that the ancestral eukaryote was a predator cell that captured and consumed other cells? (a) dynamic cytoskeleton (b) large cell size (c) ability to move (d) rigid membrane
D
1-47 Which pair of values best fills in the blanks in this statement: On average, eukaryotic cells are __________ times longer and have _________ times more volume than prokaryotic cells. (a) 5, 100 (b) 10, 200 (c) 10, 100 (d) 10, 1000
D
1-51 Biologists cannot possibly study all living species. Instead, they try to understand cell behavior by studying a select subset of them. Which of the following characteristics are useful in an organism chosen for use as a model in laboratory studies? (a) amenability to genetic manipulation (b) ability to grow under controlled conditions (c) rapid rate of reproduction (d) all of the above
D
1-12 What unit of length would you generally use to measure a typical plant or animal cell? (a) centimeters (b) nanometers (c) millimeters (d) micrometers
D
1-15 Cell biologists employ targeted fluorescent dyes or modified fluorescent proteins in both standard fluorescence microscopy and confocal microscopy to observe specific details in the cell. Even though fluorescence permits better visualization, the resolving power is essentially the same as that of a standard light microscope because the resolving power of a microscope is limited by the __________ of light. (a) absorption (b) intensity (c) filtering (d) wavelength
D
1-20 Prokaryotic cells are able to evolve very fast, which helps them to rapidly adapt to new food sources and develop resistance to antibiotics. Which of the options below lists the three main characteristics that support the rapid evolution of prokaryotic populations? (a) microscopic, motile, anaerobic (b) aerobic, motile, rapid growth (c) no organelles, cell wall, can exchange DNA (d) large population, rapid growth, can exchange DNA
D
1-25 The __________ __________ is made up of two concentric membranes and is continuous with the membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum. (a) plasma membrane (b) Golgi network (c) mitochondrial membrane (d) nuclear envelope
D
1-33 Chloroplasts are found only in eukaryotic cells that carry out photosynthesis: plants and algae. Plants and algae appear green as a result of the presence of chlorophyll. Where is chlorophyll located in the chloroplast? (a) in the first, outer membrane (b) in the space between the first and second membranes (c) in the second, inner membrane (d) in the third, innermost membrane
D
1-39 The cell constantly exchanges materials by bringing nutrients in from the external environment and shuttling unwanted by-products back out. Which term describes the process by which external materials are captured inside vesicles and brought into the cell? (a) degradation (b) exocytosis (c) phagocytosis (d) endocytosis
D
1-43 Despite the differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells, prokaryotes have proteins that are distantly related to eukaryotic actin filaments and microtubules. What is likely to be the most ancient function of the cytoskeleton? (a) cell motility (b) vesicle transport (c) membrane support (d) cell division
D
2-1 Select the answer that best completes the following statement: Chemical reactions in living systems occur in an ____________ environment, within a narrow range of temperatures. (a) optimal (b) organic (c) extracellular (d) aqueous
D
2-12 Avogadro's number, calculated from the atomic weight of hydrogen, tells us how many atoms or molecules are in a mole. The resulting base for all calculations of moles and molarity (how many molecules are present when you weigh out a substance or measure from a stock solution) is the following: 1 g of hydrogen atoms = 6 × 1023 hydrogen atoms = 1 mole of hydrogen Sulfur has a molecular weight of 32. How many moles and atoms are there in 120 grams of sulfur? (a) 3.75 and 6 × 1023 (b) 32 and 6 × 1023 (c) 1.75 and 1.05 ×1024 (d) 3.75 and 2.25 × 1024
D
2-14 You have a concentrated stock solution of 10 M NaOH and want to use it to produce a 150 mL solution of 3 M NaOH. What volume of water and stock solutions will you measure out to make this new solution? (a) 135 mL of water, 15 mL of NaOH stock (b) 115 mL of water, 35 mL of NaOH stock (c) 100 mL of water, 50 mL of NaOH stock (d) 105 mL of water, 45 mL of NaOH stock
D
2-17 An ionic bond between two atoms is formed as a result of the ______________. (a) sharing of electrons. (b) loss of electrons from both atoms. (c) loss of a proton from one atom. (d) transfer of electrons from one atom to the other.
D
2-22 Table Q2-22 indicates the electrons in the first four atomic electron shells for selected elements. On the basis of the information in the chart and what you know about atomic structure, which elements will form ions with a net charge of +2 in solution? (a) carbon, sulfur (b) helium, neon (c) sodium, potassium (d) magnesium, calcium
D
2-27 Polar covalent bonds are formed when the electrons in the bond are not shared equally between the two nuclei. Which one of these molecules contains polar bonds? (a) molecular oxygen (b) methane (c) propane (d) water
D
2-33 The pH of an aqueous solution is an indication of the concentration of available protons. However, you should not expect to find lone protons in solution; rather, the proton is added to a water molecule to form a(n) ______________ ion. (a) hydroxide (b) ammonium (c) chloride (d) hydronium
D
2-47 Cells require one particular monosaccharide as a starting material to synthesize nucleotide building blocks. Which of the monosaccharides below fills this important role? (a) glucose (b) fructose (c) ribulose (d) ribose
D
2-54 Many types of cells have stores of lipids in their cytoplasm, usually seen as fat droplets. What is the lipid most commonly found in these droplets? (a) cholesterol (b) palmitic acid (c) isoprene (d) triacylglycerol
D
2-55 Choose the answer that best fits the following statement: Cholesterol is an essential component of biological membranes. Although it is much smaller than the typical phospholipids and glycolipids in the membrane, it is a(n) _________________ molecule, having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions. (a) polar (b) oxygen-containing (c) hydrophobic (d) amphipathic
D
2-66 Macromolecules in the cell can often interact transiently as a result of noncovalent interactions. These weak interactions also produce stable, highly specific interactions between molecules. Which of the factors below is the most significant in determining whether the interaction will be transient or stable? (a) the size of each molecule (b) the concentration of each molecule (c) the rate of synthesis (d) surface complementarity between molecules
D
3-25 ΔG° indicates the change in the standard free energy as a reactant is converted to product. Given what you know about these values, which reaction below is the most favorable? (a) ADP + PiàATP ΔG° = +7.3 kcal/mole (b) glucose 1-phosphate à glucose 6-phosphate ΔG° = -1.7 kcal/mole (c) glucose + fructoseàsucrose ΔG° = +5.5 kcal/mole (d) glucoseàCO2 + H2O ΔG° = -686 kcal/mole
D
3-28 Figure Q3-28 is an energy diagram for the reaction XàY. Which equation below provides the correct calculation for the amount of free-energy change when X is converted to Y? (a) a+ b -c (b) a-b (c) a-c (d) c-a
D
3-4 The energy used by the cell to generate specific biological molecules and highly ordered structures is stored in the form of _____________. (a) Brownian motion. (b) heat. (c) light waves. (d) chemical bonds.
D
