Exam 1

In which culture is the father more likely to be expected to participate in the labor and delivery? a. Asian-American b. African-American c. European-American d. Hispanic

ANS: C - European-American European-Americans expect the father to take a more active role in the labor and delivery of a newborn than the other cultures.

Which activities are included in the role of a nurse practicing in the field of genetics? (Select all that apply.) a. Assessing the responses of family members to a genetic disorder b. Performing genetic testing, such as amniocentesis c. Constructing a family pedigree of three or more generations d. Advising a pregnant mother whose fetus has a genetic disorder to have an abortion e. Offering parents information about genetics

ANS: A - Assessing the responses of family members to a genetic disorder C - Constructing a family pedigree of three or more generations E -Offering parents information about genetics Assessing the responses of family members, constructing a family pedigree, and offering parents information about genetics are activities that a genetics nurse would carry out in caring for a family undergoing genetic counseling. Physicians perform amniocentesis, but the nurse may assist in this procedure. Being aware of their own values and beliefs and refraining from attempting to influence the family are important responsibilities for nurses. The nurse must respect the right of the individual or family to make autonomous decisions.

Which congenital malformations result from multifactorial inheritance? (Select all that apply.) a. Cleft lip b. Congenital heart disease c. Cri du chat syndrome d. Anencephaly e. Pyloric stenosis

ANS: A - Cleft lip B - Congenital heart disease D - Anencephaly E - Pyloric stenosis Cleft lip, congenital heart disease, anencephaly, and pyloric stenosis are associated with multifactorial inheritance. Cri du chat syndrome is related to a chromosomal deletion.

While completing an assessment of a homeless woman, the nurse should be aware of which of the following ailments this client is at a higher risk to develop? (Select all that apply.) a. Infectious diseases b. Chronic illness c. Anemia d. Hyperthermia e. Substance abuse

ANS: A - Infectious diseases B - Chronic illness C - Anemia E - Substance abuse Poor living conditions contribute to higher rates of infectious disease. Many homeless individuals engage in sexual favors, which may expose them to sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Poor nutrition can lead to anemia. Lifestyle factors also contribute to chronic illness. Exposure to cold temperatures and harsh environmental surroundings may lead to hypothermia. Many homeless people turn to alcohol and other substances as coping mechanisms.

The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA) was signed into law by President Obama in early 2010. The Act provides some immediate benefits, and other provisions will take place over the next several years. The practicing nurse should have a thorough understanding of how these changes will benefit his or her clients. Which outcomes are goals of the ACA? (Select all that apply.) a. Insurance affordability b. Improve public health c. Treatment of illness d. Elimination of Medicare and Medicaid e. Cost containment

ANS: A - Insurance affordability B - Improve public health E - Cost containment The ACA goals are to make insurance more affordable, contain costs, and strengthen Medicare and Medicaid. The Act contains provisions that promote the prevention of illness and improve access to public health. The ultimate goal of the Act is to improve the quality of care for all Americans while reducing waste, fraud, and abuse of the current system.

Which methods help alleviate the problems associated with access to health care for the maternity client? (Select all that apply.) a. Provide transportation to prenatal visits. b. Provide child care to enable a pregnant woman to keep prenatal visits. c. Increase the number of providers that will care for Medicaid clients. d. Provide low-cost or no-cost health care insurance. e. Provide job training.

ANS: A - Provide transportation to prenatal visits. B - Provide child care to enable a pregnant woman to keep prenatal visits. C - Increase the number of providers that will care for Medicaid clients. D - Provide low-cost or no-cost health care insurance. Lack of transportation to prenatal visits, child care, access to skilled obstetric providers, and affordable health insurance are prohibitive factors associated with the lack of prenatal care. Although job training may result in employment and income, the likelihood of significant changes during the time frame of the pregnancy is remote.

One of the most promising clinical applications of the Human Genome Project has been pharmacogenomic testing (the use of genetic information to guide a client's drug therapy). Which conditions are potential candidates for pharmacogenomic application? (Select all that apply.) a. Fragile X syndrome b. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) c. Breast cancer d. Myocardial infarction e. Hemophilia

ANS: B - Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) C - Breast cancer D - Myocardial infarction Associations between genetic variation and drug effect have been observed for a number of commonly used drugs. The conditions for which these are applicable include: DVT, breast cancer, and myocardial infarction. Gene therapy has been unsuccessfully used in hemophilia treatment. Fragile X syndrome is the leading cause of intellectual disability and lacks effective treatment of any kind.

Greater than one third of women in the United States are now obese (body mass index [BMI] of 30 or greater). Less than one quarter of women in Canada exhibit the same BMI. Obesity in the pregnant woman increases both maternal medical risk factors and negative outcomes for the infant. The nurse is about to perform an assessment on a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has a BMI of 35. What are the most frequently reported complications for which the nurse must be alert while assessing this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Potential miscarriage b. Diabetes c. Fetal death in utero d. Decreased fertility e. Hypertension

ANS: B - Diabetes E - Hypertension The two most frequently reported maternal medical risk factors associated with obesity are hypertension associated with pregnancy and diabetes. Decreased fertility, miscarriage, fetal death, and congenital anomalies are also associated with obesity. These clients often experience longer hospital stays and increased use of health services

Which statements indicate that the nurse is practicing appropriate family-centered care techniques? (Select all that apply.) a. The nurse commands the pregnant woman to do as she is told. b. The nurse allows time for the partner to ask questions. c. The nurse allows the mother and father to make choices when possible. d. The nurse informs the family about what is going to happen. e. The nurse tells the client's sister, who is a nurse, that she cannot be in the room during the delivery.

ANS: B - The nurse allows time for the partner to ask questions. C - The nurse allows the mother and father to make choices when possible. Including the partner in the care process and allowing the couple to make choices are important elements of family-centered care. The nurse should never tell the client what to do. Family-centered care involves collaboration between the health care team and the client. Unless an institutional policy limits the number of attendants at a delivery, the client should be allowed to have whomever she wants present (except when the situation is an emergency and guests are asked to leave).

To provide culturally competent care to an Asian-American family, which question should the nurse include during the assessment interview? a. "Do you prefer hot or cold beverages?" b. "Do you want some milk to drink?" c. "Do you want music playing while you are in labor?" d. "Do you have a name selected for the baby?"

ANS: A - "Do you prefer hot or cold beverages?" Asian-Americans often prefer warm beverages. Milk is usually excluded from the diet of this population. Asian-American women typically labor in a quiet environment. Delaying naming the child is not uncommon for Asian-American families.

Which statement indicates that a client requires additional instruction regarding BSE? a. "Yellow discharge from my nipple is normal if I'm having my period." b. "I should check my breasts at the same time each month, after my period." c. "I should also feel in my armpit area while performing my breast examination." d. "I should check each breast in a set way, such as in a circular motion."

ANS: A - "Yellow discharge from my nipple is normal if I'm having my period." Discharge from the nipples requires further examination from a health care provider. The breasts should be checked at the same time each month. The armpit should also be examined. A circular motion is the best method during which to ascertain any changes in the breast tissue.

Which term is an accurate description of the process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society? a. Acculturation b. Assimilation c. Ethnocentrism d. Cultural relativism

ANS: A - Acculturation Acculturation is the process by which people retain some of their own culture while adopting the practices of the dominant society. This process takes place over the course of generations. Assimilation is a loss of cultural identity. Ethnocentrism is the belief in the superiority of one's own culture over the cultures of others. Cultural relativism recognizes the roles of different cultures.

In evaluating the level of a pregnant woman's risk of having a low-birth-weight (LBW) infant, which factor is the most important for the nurse to consider? a. African-American race b. Cigarette smoking c. Poor nutritional status d. Limited maternal education

ANS: A - African-American race For African-American births, the incidence of LBW infants is twice that of Caucasian births. Race is a nonmodifiable risk factor. Cigarette smoking is an important factor in potential infant mortality rates, but it is not the most important. Additionally, smoking is a modifiable risk factor. Poor nutrition is an important factor in potential infant mortality rates, but it is not the most important. Additionally, nutritional status is a modifiable risk factor. Maternal education is an important factor in potential infant mortality rates, but it is not the most important. Additionally, maternal education is a modifiable risk factor.

Which condition or treatment reduces the risk of morbidity in women with the inherited factor V Leiden disorder? a. Anticoagulant therapy b. Pregnancy c. Oral contraceptives d. Hormone replacement therapy

ANS: A - Anticoagulant therapy Factor V Leiden is the most common inherited risk factor for primary or recurrent venous thromboembolism. It is an autosomal recessive disorder that increases an individual's risk for blood clots in the legs and pulmonary emboli. This risk significantly increases if the woman is pregnant or is taking oral contraceptives or hormone replacement therapy. Prophylactic anticoagulation therapy decreases the risk of comorbidities.

Due to the effects of cyclic ovarian changes in the breast, when is the best time for breast self-examination (BSE)? a. Between 5 and 7 days after menses ceases b. Day 1 of the endometrial cycle c. Midmenstrual cycle d. Any time during a shower or bath

ANS: A - Between 5 and 7 days after menses ceases The physiologic alterations in breast size and activity reach their minimal level approximately 5 to 7 days after menstruation ceases. Therefore, BSE is best performed during this phase of the menstrual cycle. Day 1 of the endometrial cycle is too early to perform an accurate BSE. After the midmenstrual cycle, breasts are likely to become tender and increase in size, which is not the ideal time to perform BSE. Lying down after a shower or bath with a small towel under the shoulder of the side being examined is appropriate teaching for BSE. A secondary BSE may be performed while in the shower.

A nurse caring for a pregnant client should be aware that the U.S. birth rate shows what trend? a. Births to unmarried women are more likely to have less favorable outcomes. b. Birth rates for women 40 to 44 years of age are declining. c. Cigarette smoking among pregnant women continues to increase. d. Rates of pregnancy and abortion among teenagers are lower in the United States than in any other industrialized country.

ANS: A - Births to unmarried women are more likely to have less favorable outcomes. LBW infants and preterm births are more likely because of the large number of teenagers in the unmarried group. Birth rates for women in their early 40s continue to increase. Fewer pregnant women smoke. Teen pregnancy and abortion rates are higher in the United States than in any other industrial country.

Ovarian function and hormone production decline during which transitional phase? a. Climacteric b. Menarche c. Menopause d. Puberty

ANS: A - Climacteric The climacteric phase is a transitional period during which ovarian function and hormone production decline. Menarche is the term that denotes the first menstruation. Menopause refers only to the last menstrual period. Puberty is a broad term that denotes the entire transitional period between childhood and sexual maturity.

Which pictorial tool can assist the nurse in assessing the aspects of family life related to health care? a. Genogram b. Ecomap c. Life-cycle model d. Human development wheel

ANS: A - Genogram A genogram depicts the relationships of the family members over generations. An ecomap is a graphic portrayal of the social relationships of the woman and her family. The life-cycle model, in no way, illustrates a family genogram; rather, it focuses on the stages that a person reaches throughout life. The human development wheel describes various stages of growth and development rather than the family members' relationships to each other.

Nurses who elect to practice in the field of obstetrics must have a basic working knowledge of genetics. What is the correct term used to describe an individual's genetic makeup? a. Genotype b. Phenotype c. Karyotype d. Chromotype

ANS: A - Genotype The genotype comprises all the genes the individual can pass on to a future generation. The phenotype is the observable expression of an individual's genotype. The karyotype is a pictorial analysis of the number, form, and size of an individual's chromosomes. Genotype refers to an individual's genetic makeup.

A recently graduated nurse is attempting to understand the reason for increasing health care spending in the United States. Which information gathered from her research best explains the rationale for these higher costs compared with other developed countries? a. Higher rate of obesity among pregnant women b. Limited access to technology c. Increased use of health care services along with lower prices d. Homogeneity of the population

ANS: A - Higher rate of obesity among pregnant women Health care is one of the fastest growing sectors of the U.S. economy. Currently, 17.4% of the gross domestic product is spent on health care. Higher spending in the United States, as compared with 12 other industrialized countries, is related to higher prices and readily accessible technology along with greater obesity rates among women. More than one third of women in the United States are obese. In the population in the United States, 16% are uninsured and have limited access to health care. Maternal morbidity and mortality are directly related to racial disparities.

Which health care service represents a primary level of prevention? a. Immunizations b. Breast self-examination (BSE) c. Home care for high-risk pregnancies d. Blood pressure screening

ANS: A - Immunizations Primary prevention involves health promotion and disease prevention activities to reduce the occurrence of illness and enhance the general health and quality of life. This level of care includes, for example, immunizations, using infant car seats, and providing health education to prevent tobacco use. BSE is an example of secondary prevention that involves early detection of health problems. Home care for a high-risk pregnancy is an example of tertiary prevention. This level of care follows the occurrence of a defect or disability. Blood pressure screening is an example of secondary prevention and is a screening tool for early detection of a health care problem

Which statement best describes Kegel exercises? a. Kegel exercises were developed to control or reduce incontinent urine loss. b. Kegel exercises are the best exercises for a pregnant woman because they are so pleasurable. c. Kegel exercises help manage stress. d. Kegel exercises are ineffective without sufficient calcium in the diet.

ANS: A - Kegel exercises were developed to control or reduce incontinent urine loss. Kegel exercises help control the urge to urinate. Although these exercises may be fun for some, the most important factor is the control they provide over incontinence. Kegel exercises help manage urination, not stress. Calcium in the diet is important but not related to Kegel exercises.

A nurse is assessing the knowledge of new parents of a child born with Klinefelter syndrome. Which statement accurately describes this genetic disorder? a. Klinefelter syndrome is a sex chromosome abnormality. b. It affects only female children. c. The disorder is expressed as trisomy XYY. d. The child with this disorder will grow to be infertile.

ANS: A - Klinefelter syndrome is a sex chromosome abnormality. Klinefelter syndrome, also known as trisomy XXY, is a sex chromosomal deviation that is expressed in males. Turner syndrome (monosomy X) is displayed in females. Most males with Klinefelter syndrome are tall, may be infertile, and are slow to learn; however, those who have mosaic Klinefelter syndrome may be fertile as adults

A married couple lives in a single-family house with their newborn son and the husband's daughter from a previous marriage. Based on this information, what family form best describes this family? a. Married-blended family b. Extended family c. Nuclear family d. Same-sex family

ANS: A - Married-blended family Married-blended families are formed as the result of divorce and remarriage. Unrelated family members join to create a new household. Members of an extended family are kin or family members related by blood, such as grandparents, aunts, and uncles. A nuclear family is a traditional family with male and female partners along with the children resulting from that union. A same-sex family is a family with homosexual partners who cohabit with or without children.

A client's household consists of her husband, his mother, and another child. To which family configuration does this client belong? a. Multigenerational family b. Single-parent family c. Married-blended family d. Nuclear family

ANS: A - Multigenerational family A multigenerational family includes three or more generations living together. Both parents and a grandparent are living in this extended family. Single-parent families comprise an unmarried biologic or adoptive parent who may or may not be living with other adults. Married-blended families refer to those who are reconstructed after divorce. A nuclear family comprises male and female partners and their children living together as an independent unit.

The woman's family members are present when the nurse arrives for a postpartum and newborn visit. What should the nurse do? a. Observe the family members' interactions with the newborn and one another. b. Ask the woman to meet with her and the baby alone. c. Perform a brief assessment on all family members who are present. d. Reschedule the visit for another time so that the mother and infant can be privately assessed.

ANS: A - Observe the family members' interactions with the newborn and one another. The nurse should introduce her or himself to the client and to the other family members who are present. Family members in the home may be providing care and assistance to the mother and infant. However, this care may not be based on sound health practices. Nurses should take the opportunity to dispel myths while family members are present. The responsibility of the home care maternal-child nurse is to provide care to the new postpartum mother and to her infant, not to all family members. The nurse can politely ask about the other people in the home and their relationships with the mother. Unless an indication is given that the woman would prefer privacy, the visit may continue.

Healthy People 2020 has established national health priorities that focus on a number of maternal-child health indicators. Nurses are assuming greater roles in assessing family health and are providing care across the perinatal continuum. Which of these priorities has made the most significant progress? a. Reduction of fetal deaths and use of prenatal care b. LBW infants and preterm births c. Elimination of health disparities based on race d. Infant mortality and the prevention of birth defects

ANS: A - Reduction of fetal deaths and use of prenatal care Trends in maternal child health indicate that progress has been made in relation to reduced infant and fetal deaths and increased prenatal care. Notable gaps remain in the rates of LBW infants and preterm births. According to the March of Dimes, persistent disparities still exist between African-Americans and non-Hispanic Caucasians. Many of these negative outcomes are preventable through access to prenatal care and the use of preventive health practices. These preventable negative outcomes demonstrate the need for comprehensive community-based care for all mothers, infants, and families.

Which type of genetic tests in clinical practice are most often offered to clients with a family history of disease? a. Single-gene disorders b. Carrier screening c. Predictive value testing d. Predispositional testing

ANS: A - Single-gene disorders Most tests now offered are tests for single-gene disorders in clients with clinical symptoms or clients who have a family history of a genetic disease. Carrier screening is used to identify individuals who have a gene mutation for a genetic condition but do not display symptoms. Predictive value testing is used only to clarify the genetic status of asymptomatic family members. Predispositional testing differs from the other types of genetic screening in that a positive result does not indicate a 100% chance of developing the condition.

Maternity nurses can enhance communication among health care providers by using the SBAR technique. The acronym SBAR stands for what? a. Situation, background, assessment, recommendation b. Situation, baseline, assessment, recommendation c. Subjective, background, analysis, recommendation d. Subjective, background, analysis, review

ANS: A - Situation, background, assessment, recommendation SBAR is an easy-to-remember, useful, and concrete mechanism for communicating important information that requires a clinician's immediate attention. Baseline is not discussed as part of SBAR. Subjective and analysis are not specific to the SBAR acronym. Subjective, analysis, and review are not specific to the SBAR acronym.

What is the minimum level of practice that a reasonably prudent nurse is expected to provide? a. Standard of care b. Risk management c. Sentinel event d. Failure to rescue

ANS: A - Standard of care Guidelines for standards of care are published by various professional nursing organizations. Risk management identifies risks and establishes preventive practices, but it does not define the standard of care. Sentinel events are unexpected negative occurrences. They do not establish the standard of care. Failure to rescue is an evaluative process for nursing, but it does not define the standard of care

A client is 5 months pregnant. On a routine ultrasound scan, the physician discovers that the fetus has a diaphragmatic hernia. The woman becomes distraught and asks the nurse what she should do. Which response would be most suitable? a. Talk to the client, and refer her to a genetic counselor. b. Suggest that the client travel to a fetal treatment center for intrauterine surgery. c. Tell her that everything is going to be fine. d. Sit with the client, and calmly suggest that she consider terminating this pregnancy.

ANS: A - Talk to the client, and refer her to a genetic counselor. Before the client makes any decisions, she should discuss this newly discovered information with a genetic counselor. Genetic counselors can help with the diagnosis and management of families affected by genetic conditions. The discussion of potential surgery should be pursuant to genetic counseling. Telling the woman that everything is going to be fine may give her false hope and is not accurate. All options should be discussed with the genetic counselor. Furthermore, the guiding principle for genetic counseling is nondirection, which respects the right of the individual or family who are being counseled to make autonomous decisions.

Which female reproductive organ(s) is(are) responsible for cyclic menstruation? a. Uterus b. Ovaries c. Vaginal vestibule d. Urethra

ANS: A - Uterus The uterus is responsible for cyclic menstruation and also houses and nourishes the fertilized ovum and the fetus. The ovaries are responsible for ovulation and the production of estrogen. The vaginal vestibule is an external organ that has openings to the urethra and vagina. The urethra is not a reproductive organ, although it is found in the area.

Individual irregularities in the ovarian (menstrual) cycle are most often caused by what? a. Variations in the follicular (preovulatory) phase b. Intact hypothalamic-pituitary feedback mechanism c. Functioning corpus luteum d. Prolonged ischemic phase

ANS: A - Variations in the follicular (preovulatory) phase Almost all variations in the length of the ovarian cycle are the result of variations in the length of the follicular phase. An intact hypothalamic-pituitary feedback mechanism would be regular, not irregular. The luteal phase begins after ovulation. The corpus luteum is dependent on the ovulatory phase and fertilization. During the ischemic phase, the blood supply to the functional endometrium is blocked, and necrosis develops. The functional layer separates from the basal layer, and menstrual bleeding begins.

Through the use of social media technology, nurses can link with other nurses who may share similar interests, insights about practice, and advocate for clients. Which factor is the most concerning pitfall for nurses using this technology? a. Violation of client privacy and confidentiality b. Institutions and colleagues who may be cast in an unfavorable light c. Unintended negative consequences for using social media d. Lack of institutional policy governing online contact

ANS: A - Violation of client privacy and confidentiality The most significant pitfall for nurses using this technology is the violation of client privacy and confidentiality. Furthermore, institutions and colleagues can be cast in an unfavorable light with negative consequences for those posting information. Nursing students have been expelled from school and nurses have been fired or reprimanded by their Board of Nursing for injudicious posts. The American Nurses Association has published six principles for social networking and the nurse. All institutions should have policies guiding the use of social media, and the nurse should be familiar with these guidelines.

Which statement regarding chromosomal abnormalities is most accurate? a. Chromosomal abnormalities occur in approximately 10% of newborns. b. Abnormalities of number are the leading cause of pregnancy loss. c. Down syndrome is a result of an abnormal chromosomal structure. d. Unbalanced translocation results in a mild abnormality that the child will outgrow.

ANS: B - Abnormalities of number are the leading cause of pregnancy loss. Aneuploidy is an abnormality of number that is also the leading genetic cause of mental retardation. Chromosomal abnormalities occur in fewer than 1% of newborns. Down syndrome is the most common form of a trisomal abnormality, an abnormality of chromosome number (47 chromosomes). Unbalanced translocation is an abnormality of chromosomal structure that often has serious clinical effects.

Which statement describes a key finding of the Human Genome Project? a. Humans produce one protein per gene. b. All human beings are 99.9% identical at the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) level. c. The Human Genome Project has not yet been able to translate the accumulating raw research into anything medically practical. d. Humans have more genes than other species.

ANS: B - All human beings are 99.9% identical at the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) level. The majority of the 0.1% genetic variations are found within and not among populations. Most human genes produce at least three proteins. The project's research has been very valuable in the identification of genes involved in disease and in the development of genetic testing. There are 20,500 genes in the human genome; scientists originally estimated more than 50,000 genes. Human genes are more efficient than the genes in other species, thereby increasing the human genetic complexity.

The secondary level of prevention is best illustrated by which example? a. Approved infant car seats b. BSE c. Immunizations d. Support groups for parents of children with Down syndrome

ANS: B - BSE Infant car seats are an example of primary prevention. BSE is an example of the secondary level of prevention, which includes health-screening measures for early detection of health problems. Immunizations are an example of the primary level of prevention. Support groups are an example of tertiary prevention, which follows the occurrence of a defect or disability (e.g., Down syndrome).

Which key point is important for the nurse to understand regarding the perinatal continuum of care? a. Begins with conception and ends with the birth b. Begins with family planning and continues until the infant is 1 year old c. Begins with prenatal care and continues until the newborn is 24 weeks old d. Refers to home care only

ANS: B - Begins with family planning and continues until the infant is 1 year old The perinatal continuum of care begins with family planning and continues until the infant is 1 year old. It takes place both at home and in health care facilities. The perinatal continuum does not end with the birth. The perinatal continuum begins before conception and continues after the birth. Home care is one delivery component; health care facilities are another.

Which key factors play the most powerful role in the behaviors of individuals and families? a. Rituals and customs b. Beliefs and values c. Boundaries and channels d. Socialization processes

ANS: B - Beliefs and values Beliefs and values are the most prevalent factors in the decision-making and problem-solving behaviors of individuals and families. This prevalence is particularly true during times of stress and illness. Although culture may play a part in the decision-making process of a family, ultimately, values and beliefs dictate the course of action taken by family members. Boundaries and channels affect the relationship between the family members and the health care team, not the decisions within the family. Socialization processes may help families with interactions within the community, but they are not the criteria used for decision making within the family.

The unique muscle fibers that constitute the uterine myometrium make it ideally suited for what? a. Menstruation b. Birth process c. Ovulation d. Fertilization

ANS: B - Birth process The myometrium is made up of layers of smooth muscle that extend in three directions. These muscles assist in the birth process by expelling the fetus, ligating blood vessels after birth, and controlling the opening of the cervical os.

Which body part both protects the pelvic structures and accommodates the growing fetus during pregnancy? a. Perineum b. Bony pelvis c. Vaginal vestibule d. Fourchette

ANS: B - Bony pelvis The bony pelvis protects and accommodates the growing fetus. The perineum covers the pelvic structures. The vaginal vestibule contains openings to the urethra and vagina. The fourchette is formed by the labia minor

A 62-year-old woman has not been to the clinic for an annual examination for 5 years. The recent death of her husband reminded her that she should come for a visit. Her family physician has retired, and she is going to see the women's health nurse practitioner for her visit. What should the nurse do to facilitate a positive health care experience for this client? a. Remind the woman that she is long overdue for her examination and that she should come in annually. b. Carefully listen, and allow extra time for this woman's health history interview. c. Reassure the woman that a nurse practitioner is just as good as her old physician. d. Encourage the woman to talk about the death of her husband and her fears about her own death.

ANS: B - Carefully listen, and allow extra time for this woman's health history interview. The nurse has an opportunity to use reflection and empathy while listening, as well as ensure an open and caring communication. Scheduling a longer appointment time may be necessary because older women may have longer histories or may need to talk. A respectful and reassuring approach to caring for women older than age 50 years can help ensure that they continue to seek health care. Reminding the woman about her overdue examination, reassuring the woman that she has a good practitioner, and encouraging conversation about the death of her husband and her own death are not the best approaches

Which factor is least likely to influence the decision to undergo genetic testing? a. Anxiety and altered family relationships b. Cost of testing or denial of insurance benefits c. Imperfection of test results d. Ethnic and socioeconomic disparity associated with genetic testing

ANS: B - Cost of testing or denial of insurance benefits Testing is not 100% accurate and has a high percentage of false-negative results. An individual may not take these results seriously and subsequently fail to have testing completed or to seek necessary follow-up consultation. Anxiety and altered family relationships are often the result of genetic testing. The results of genetic testing may be difficult to keep confidential, and family members may feel pressured to have testing performed. Decisions about genetic testing are shaped by socioeconomic status and the ability to pay for the testing. Some types of genetic testing are expensive and are not covered by insurance benefits. Caucasian middle-class families have greater access to genetic screening; therefore, this population is less at likely to decide against genetic testing.

During a health history interview, a woman states that she thinks that she has "bumps" on her labia. She also states that she is not sure how to check herself. The correct response by the nurse would be what? a. Reassure the woman that the examination will reveal any problems. b. Explain the process of vulvar self-examination, and reassure the woman that she should become familiar with normal and abnormal findings during the examination. c. Reassure the woman that "bumps" can be treated. d. Reassure her that most women have "bumps" on their labia.

ANS: B - Explain the process of vulvar self-examination, and reassure the woman that she should become familiar with normal and abnormal findings during the examination. During the assessment and evaluation, the responsibility for self-care, health promotion, and enhancement of wellness is emphasized. The pelvic examination provides a good opportunity for the practitioner to emphasize the need for regular vulvar self-examination. Providing reassurance to the woman concerning the "bumps" would not be an accurate response.

Which statement regarding the Family Systems Theory is inaccurate? a. Family system is part of a larger suprasystem. b. Family, as a whole, is equal to the sum of the individual members. c. Changes in one family member affect all family members. d. Family is able to create a balance between change and stability.

ANS: B - Family, as a whole, is equal to the sum of the individual members. A family, as a whole, is greater than the sum of its individual members. The other statements are accurate and can be attributed to the Family Systems Theory.

Which statement best exemplifies contemporary maternity nursing? a. Use of midwives for all vaginal deliveries b. Family-centered care c. Free-standing birth clinics d. Physician-driven care

ANS: B - Family-centered care Contemporary maternity nursing focuses on the family's needs and desires. Fathers, partners, grandparents, and siblings may be present for the birth and participate in activities such as cutting the baby's umbilical cord. Both midwives and physicians perform vaginal deliveries. Free-standing clinics are an example of alternative birth options. Contemporary maternity nursing is driven by the relationship between nurses and their clients

What is the primary difference between hospital care and home health care? a. Home care is routinely and continuously delivered by professional staff. b. Home care is delivered on an intermittent basis by professional staff. c. Home care is delivered for emergency conditions. d. Home care is not available 24 hours a day.

ANS: B - Home care is delivered on an intermittent basis by professional staff. Home care is generally delivered on an intermittent basis by professional staff members. The primary difference between health care in a hospital and home care is the absence of the continuous presence of professional health care providers in a client's home. In a true emergency, the client should be directed to call 9-1-1 or to report to the nearest hospital's emergency department. Generally, home health care entails intermittent care by a professional who visits the client's home for a particular reason and provides on-site care for periods shorter than 4 hours at a time.

A maternal-newborn nurse is caring for a mother who just delivered a baby born with Down syndrome. Which nursing diagnosis would be the most essential in caring for the mother of this infant? a. Disturbed body image b. Interrupted family processes c. Anxiety d. Risk for injury

ANS: B - Interrupted family processes This mother will likely experience a disruption in the family process related to the birth of a baby with an inherited disorder. Therefore, the probable nursing diagnosis for this family is "Interrupted family processes." Women commonly experience "body image disturbances in the postpartum period"; however, this nursing diagnosis is unrelated to giving birth to a child with Down syndrome. The mother will likely have a mix of emotions that may include anxiety, guilt, and denial, but this nursing diagnosis is not the most essential for this family. "Risk for injury" is not an applicable nursing diagnosis

Which statement best describes maternity nursing care that is based on knowledge gained through research and clinical trials? a. Maternity nursing care is derived from the Nursing Intervention Classification. b. Maternity nursing care is known as evidence-based practice. c. Maternity nursing care is at odds with the Cochrane School of traditional nursing. d. Maternity nursing care is an outgrowth of telemedicine.

ANS: B - Maternity nursing care is known as evidence-based practice. Evidence-based practice is based on knowledge gained from research and clinical trials. The Nursing Intervention Classification is a method of standardizing language and categorizing care. Dr. Cochrane systematically reviewed research trials and is part of the evidence-based practice movement. Telemedicine uses communication technologies to support health care.

How would the physiologic process of the sexual response best be characterized? a. Coitus, masturbation, and fantasy b. Myotonia and vasocongestion c. Erection and orgasm d. Excitement, plateau, and orgasm

ANS: B - Myotonia and vasocongestion Physiologically, according to Masters (1992), sexual response can be analyzed in terms of two processes: vasocongestion and myotonia. Coitus, masturbation, and fantasy are forms of stimulation for the physical manifestation of the sexual response. Erection and orgasm occur in two of the four phases of the sexual response cycle. Excitement, plateau, and orgasm are three of the four phases of the sexual response cycle

Which statement about the development of cultural competence is inaccurate? a. Local health care workers and community advocates can help extend health care to underserved populations. b. Nursing care is delivered in the context of the client's culture but not in the context of the nurse's culture. c. Nurses must develop an awareness of and a sensitivity to various cultures. d. Culture's economic, religious, and political structures influence practices that affect childbearing.

ANS: B - Nursing care is delivered in the context of the client's culture but not in the context of the nurse's culture. Although the cultural context of the nurse affects the delivery of nursing care and is very important, the work of local health care workers and community advocates, developing sensitivity to various cultures, and the impact of economic, religious, and political structures are all parts of cultural competence.

What fatty acids (classified as hormones) are found in many body tissues with complex roles in many reproductive functions? a. GnRH b. Prostaglandins (PGs) c. FSH d. Luteinizing hormone (LH)

ANS: B - Prostaglandins (PGs) PGs affect smooth muscle contraction and changes in the cervix. GnRH is part of the hypothalamic-pituitary cycle, which responds to the rise and fall of estrogen and progesterone. FSH is part of the hypothalamic-pituitary cycle, which responds to the rise and fall of estrogen and progesterone. LH is part of the hypothalamic-pituitary cycle, which responds to the rise and fall of estrogen and progesterone.

A 32-year-old woman is pregnant for the third time. One child was born with cystic fibrosis, and the other child is healthy. The client and her husband wonder what chance this child has of having cystic fibrosis. This type of testing is most commonly known as what? a. Occurrence risk b. Recurrence risk c. Predictive testing d. Predisposition testing

ANS: B - Recurrence risk The couple already has a child with a genetic disease; therefore, this couple will be given a recurrence risk test. If a couple has not yet had a child but is known to be at risk for having a child with a genetic disease, then an occurrence risk test is administered. Predictive testing clarifies the genetic status of an asymptomatic family member. Predisposition testing differs from presymptomatic testing in that a positive result does not indicate 100% risk of a condition developing.

During a prenatal intake interview, the client informs the nurse that she would prefer a midwife to provide both her care during pregnancy and deliver her infant. Which information is most appropriate for the nurse to share with this client? a. Midwifery care is only available to clients who are uninsured because their services are less expensive than an obstetrician. b. She will receive fewer interventions during the birth process. c. She should be aware that midwives are not certified. d. Her delivery can take place only at home or in a birth center.

ANS: B - She will receive fewer interventions during the birth process. This client will be able to participate actively in all decisions related to the birth process and is likely to receive fewer interventions during the birth process. Midwifery services are available to all low-risk pregnant women, regardless of the type of insurance they have. Midwifery care in all developed countries is strictly regulated by a governing body to ensure that core competencies are met. In the United States, this body is the American College of Nurse-Midwives (ACNM). Midwives can provide care and delivery at home, in freestanding birth centers, and in community and teaching hospitals.

When the services of an interpreter are needed, which is the most important factor for the nurse to consider? a. Using a family member who is fluent in both languages b. Using an interpreter who is certified, and documenting the person's name in the nursing notes c. Directing questions only to the interpreter d. Using an interpreter only in an emergency \

ANS: B - Using an interpreter who is certified, and documenting the person's name in the nursing notes Using a certified interpreter ensures that the standards of care are met and that the information exchanged is reliable and unaltered. The name of the interpreter should be documented for legal purposes. Asking a family member to interpret may not be appropriate, although many health care personnel must adopt this approach in an emergency. Furthermore, most states require that certified interpreters be used when possible. When using an interpreter, the nurse should direct questions to the client. The interpreter is simply a means by which the nurse communicates with the client. Every attempt should be made to contact an interpreter whenever one is needed. During an emergency, health care workers often rely on information interpreted by family members. This information may be private and should be protected under the rules established by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Furthermore, family members may skew information or may not be able to interpret the exact information the nurse is trying to obtain.

Which information regarding substance abuse is important for the nurse to understand? a. Although cigarette smoking causes a number of health problems, it has little direct effect on maternity-related health. b. Women, ages 21 to 34 years, have the highest rates of specific alcohol-related problems. c. Coffee is a stimulant that can interrupt body functions and has been related to birth defects. d. Prescription psychotherapeutic drugs taken by the mother do not affect the fetus; otherwise, they would not have been prescribed.

ANS: B - Women, ages 21 to 34 years, have the highest rates of specific alcohol-related problems. Although a very small percentage of childbearing women have alcohol-related problems, alcohol abuse during pregnancy has been associated with a number of negative outcomes. Cigarette smoking impairs fertility and is a cause of low-birth-weight infants. Caffeine consumption has not been related to birth defects. Psychotherapeutic drugs have some effect on the fetus, and that risk must be weighed against their benefit to the mother.

A couple has been counseled for genetic anomalies. They ask you, "What is karyotyping?" Which description is most accurate? a. "Karyotyping will reveal if the baby's lungs are mature." b. "Karyotyping will reveal if the baby will develop normally." c. "Karyotyping will provide information about the gender of the baby and the number and structure of the chromosomes." d. "Karyotyping will detect any physical deformities the baby has."

ANS: C - "Karyotyping will provide information about the gender of the baby and the number and structure of the chromosomes." Karyotyping provides genetic information such as gender and chromosomal structure. The lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio, not karyotyping, reveals lung maturity. Although karyotyping can detect genetic anomalies, the range of normal is nondescriptive, and not all such anomalies display obvious physical deformities. The term deformities is a nondescriptive word, and physical anomalies may be present that are not detected by genetic studies (e.g., cardiac malformations).

The nurse guides a woman to the examination room and asks her to remove her clothes and put on an examination gown with the front open. The woman replies, "I have special undergarments that I do not remove for religious reasons." Which is the most appropriate response from the nurse? a. "You can't have an examination without removing all your clothes." b. "I'll ask the physician to modify the examination." c. "Tell me about your undergarments. I'll explain the examination procedure, and then we can discuss how you can comfortably have your examination." d. "I have no idea how we can accommodate your beliefs."

ANS: C - "Tell me about your undergarments. I'll explain the examination procedure, and then we can discuss how you can comfortably have your examination." Explaining the examination procedure reflects cultural competence by the nurse and shows respect for the woman's religious practices. The nurse must respect the rich and unique qualities that cultural diversity brings to individuals. The examination can be modified to ensure that modesty is maintained. In recognizing the value of cultural differences, the nurse can modify the plan of care to meet the needs of each woman. Telling the client that her religious practices are different or strange is inappropriate and disrespectful to the client.

A father and mother are carriers of phenylketonuria (PKU). Their 2-year-old daughter has the condition. The couple tells the nurse that they are having a second baby. Because their daughter has PKU, they are certain that this baby will not be affected. Which response by the nurse is the most accurate? a. "Good planning. You need to take advantage of the odds that are in your favor." b. "I think you'd better first check with your physician." c. "You are both carriers; therefore, each baby has a 25% chance of being affected." d. "The ultrasound indicates a boy, and boys are not affected by PKU."

ANS: C - "You are both carriers; therefore, each baby has a 25% chance of being affected." Each child conceived by this couple has a one-in-four chance of being affected with the PKU disorder. This couple still has an increased likelihood of having a child with PKU; having one child already with PKU does not guarantee that they will not have another. These parents need to discuss their options with their physician. However, an opportune time has presented itself for the couple to receive correct teaching about inherited genetic risks. No correlation exists between gender and inheritance of the disorder, because PKU is an autosomal recessive disorder.

A client at 24 weeks of gestation says she has a glass of wine with dinner every evening. Why should the nurse counsel her to eliminate all alcohol intake? a. Daily consumption of alcohol indicates a risk for alcoholism. b. She is at risk for abusing other substances as well. c. Alcohol places the fetus at risk for altered brain growth. d. Alcohol places the fetus at risk for multiple organ anomalies.

ANS: C - Alcohol places the fetus at risk for altered brain growth. No period during pregnancy is safe to consume alcohol. The documented effects of alcohol consumption during pregnancy include fetal mental retardation, learning disabilities, high activity level, and short attention span. The fetal brain grows most rapidly in the third trimester and is vulnerable to alcohol exposure during this time. Abuse of other substances has not been linked to alcohol use

A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection, and she has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it. How should the nurse initially respond? a. Inform the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Papanicolaou (Pap) test for which she is scheduled. b. Reassure the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination. c. Ask the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection. d. Ask the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination.

ANS: C - Ask the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection. An important element of the health history and physical examination is the client's description of any symptoms she may be experiencing. The best response is for the nurse to inquire about the symptoms the woman is experiencing. Women should not douche, use vaginal medications, or have sexual intercourse for 24 to 48 hours before obtaining a Pap test. Although the woman may need to reschedule a visit for her Pap test, her current symptoms should still be addressed.

Cancer is now recognized as a genetic disorder that begins with one or more genetic mutations. Which type of cancer is specifically being investigated in this regard? a. Lung cancer b. Liver cancer c. Colorectal cancer d. Oral cancer

ANS: C - Colorectal cancer Colorectal cancer usually results from one or more predisposing genes and is the third leading cause of cancer deaths in women. Although tobacco smoke is a known causative factor for lung cancer, an acquired mutation of an oncogene may also be present. Liver cancer is not being investigated in this regard. Oral cancer may be caused by an inherited mutation of one or more oncogenes.

Preconception and prenatal care have become important components of women's health. What is the guiding principal of preconception care? a. Ensure that pregnancy complications do not occur. b. Identify the woman who should not become pregnant. c. Encourage healthy lifestyles for families desiring pregnancy. d. Ensure that women know about prenatal care.

ANS: C - Encourage healthy lifestyles for families desiring pregnancy. Preconception counseling guides couples in how to avoid unintended pregnancies, how to identify and manage risk factors in their lives and in their environment, and how to identify healthy behaviors that promote the well-being of the woman and her potential fetus. Preconception care does not ensure that pregnancy complications will not occur. In many cases, problems can be identified and treated and may not recur in subsequent pregnancies. For many women, counseling can allow behavior modification before any damage is done, or a woman can make an informed decision about her willingness to accept potential hazards. If a woman is seeking preconception care, then she is likely aware of prenatal care

Using the family stress theory as an interventional approach for working with families experiencing parenting challenges, the nurse can assist the family in selecting and altering internal context factors. Which statement best describes the components of an internal context? a. Biologic and genetic makeup b. Maturation of family members c. Family's perception of the event d. Prevailing cultural beliefs of society

ANS: C - Family's perception of the event The family stress theory is concerned with the family's reaction to stressful events. Internal context factors include elements that a family can control such as psychologic defenses, family structure, and philosophic beliefs and values. The family stress theory focuses on ways that families react to stressful events. Maturation of family members is more relevant to the family life-cycle theory. The family stress theory focuses on internal elements that a family might be able to alter.

When weighing the advantages and disadvantages of planning home care for perinatal services, what information should the nurse use in making the decision? a. Home care for perinatal services is more dangerous for vulnerable neonates at risk of acquiring an infection from the nurse. b. Home care for perinatal services is more cost-effective for the nurse than office visits. c. Home care for perinatal services allows the nurse to interact with and include family members in teaching. d. Home care for perinatal services is made possible by the ready supply of nurses with expertise in maternity care.

ANS: C - Home care for perinatal services allows the nurse to interact with and include family members in teaching. Treating the whole family is an advantage of home care. Forcing neonates out in inclement weather and in public is more risky. Office visits are more cost-effective for the providers such as nurses because less travel time is involved. Unfortunately, home care options are limited by the lack of nurses with expertise in maternity care.

What is the primary role of practicing nurses in the research process? a. Designing research studies b. Collecting data for other researchers c. Identifying researchable problems d. Seeking funding to support research studies

ANS: C - Identifying researchable problems When problems are identified, research can be properly conducted. Research of health care issues leads to evidence-based practice guidelines. Designing research studies is only one factor of the research process. Data collection is another factor of research. Financial support is necessary to conduct research, but it is not the primary role of the nurse in the research process.

To ensure client safety, the practicing nurse must have knowledge of The Joint Commission's current "Do Not Use" list of abbreviations. Which term is acceptable for use regarding medication administration? a. q.o.d. or Q.O.D. b. MSO4 or MgSO4 c. International Unit d. Lack of a leading zero

ANS: C - International Unit "I.U." and "i.u." are no longer acceptable because they could be misread as "I.V." or the number "10." "Q.O.D." should be written out as "every other day." The period after the "Q" could be mistaken for an "I" and the "o" could also be mistaken for an "i." Confusing one medication for another is too easy. Medications are used for very different purposes and could place a client at risk for an adverse outcome. For example, these medications should be written as morphine sulfate and magnesium sulfate. The decimal point should never be missed before a number (e.g., 0.4 rather than .4). A leading zero is the preferred form.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a Hispanic client who just delivered a newborn. Which cultural variation is most important to include in the care plan? a. Breastfeeding is encouraged immediately after birth. b. Male infants are typically circumcised. c. Maternal grandmother participates in the care of the mother and her infant. d. Bathing is encouraged immediately after delivery.

ANS: C - Maternal grandmother participates in the care of the mother and her infant. In the Hispanic family, the expectant mother is strongly influenced by her mother or mother-in-law. Breastfeeding is often delayed until the third postpartum day. Hispanic male infants are not usually circumcised. Bathing after delivery is most often delayed.

A client who is gravida 2 and 16 weeks of gestation comes in for her prenatal appointment. Her 2-year-old daughter is with her and is wearing a sleeveless top. While interacting with her daughter, you note axillary freckling and several café-au-lait spots (>2 cm). In reviewing her chart, the nurse should assess for documentation of which genetic disease? a. Tay-Sachs disease b. Galactosemia c. Neurofibromatosis (NF) d. PKU

ANS: C - Neurofibromatosis (NF) Clinical manifestations of NF may include axillary freckling and café-au-lait spots. Tay-Sachs disease is an incurable lipid-storage disorder and is not associated with café-au-lait spots. Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism and is also not associated with café-au-lait spots. PKU is not associated with café-au-lait spots. A child with PKU would have difficulty manufacturing the liver enzyme phenylalanine.

Which traditional family structure is decreasing in numbers and attributable to societal changes? a. Extended family b. Binuclear family c. Nuclear family d. Blended family

ANS: C - Nuclear family The nuclear family has long represented the traditional American family in which husband, wife, and children live as an independent unit. As a result of rapid changes in society, this number is steadily decreasing as other family configurations are socially recognized. Extended families involve additional blood relatives other than the parents. A binuclear family involves two households. A blended family is reconstructed after divorce and involves the merger of two families.

Which statement regarding female sexual response is inaccurate? a. Women and men are more alike than different in their physiologic response to sexual arousal and orgasm. b. Vasocongestion is the congestion of blood vessels. c. Orgasmic phase is the final state of the sexual response cycle. d. Facial grimaces and spasms of the hands and feet are often part of arousal.

ANS: C - Orgasmic phase is the final state of the sexual response cycle. The final state of the sexual response cycle is the resolution phase after orgasm. Men and women are surprisingly alike. Vasocongestion causes vaginal lubrication and engorgement of the genitals. Arousal is characterized by increased muscular tension (myotonia).

The nurses working at a newly established birthing center have begun to compare their performance in providing maternal-newborn care against clinical standards. This comparison process is most commonly known as what? a. Best practices network b. Clinical benchmarking c. Outcomes-oriented practice d. Evidence-based practice

ANS: C - Outcomes-oriented practice Outcomes-oriented practice measures the effectiveness of the interventions and quality of care against benchmarks or standards. The term best practice refers to a program or service that has been recognized for its excellence. Clinical benchmarking is a process used to compare one's own performance against the performance of the best in an area of service. The term evidence-based practice refers to the provision of care based on evidence gained through research and clinical trials.

The microscopic examination of scrapings from the cervix, endocervix, or other mucous membranes to detect premalignant or malignant cells is called what? a. Bimanual palpation b. Rectovaginal palpation c. Papanicolaou (Pap) test d. Four As procedure

ANS: C - Papanicolaou (Pap) test The Pap test is a microscopic examination for cancer that should be regularly performed, depending on the client's age. Bimanual palpation is a physical examination of the vagina. Rectovaginal palpation is a physical examination performed through the rectum. The four As procedure is an intervention to help a client stop smoking.

Which statement regarding genetic health care is most important to the nurse practicing in this specialty? a. Genetic disorders equally affect people of all socioeconomic backgrounds, races, and ethnic groups. b. Genetic health care is more concerned with populations than individuals. c. Providing emotional support to the family during counseling is the most important of all nursing functions. d. Taking genetic histories is the province of large universities and medical centers.

ANS: C - Providing emotional support to the family during counseling is the most important of all nursing functions. Perhaps the most important of all nursing functions is the ability to provide emotional support. Nurses should be prepared to help with various stress reactions from a couple facing the possibility of a genetic disorder. Although anyone may have a genetic disorder, certain disorders appear more often in certain ethnic and racial groups. Genetic health care is highly individualized because treatments are based on the phenotypic responses of the individual. Individual nurses at any facility can take a genetic history, although larger facilities may have better support services.

Which questionnaire would be best for the nurse to use when screening an adolescent client for an eating disorder? a. Four Cs b. Dietary Guidelines for Americans c. SCOFF screening tool d. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

ANS: C - SCOFF screening tool A screening tool specifically developed to identify eating disorders uses the acronym SCOFF. Each question scores 1 point. A score of 2 or more indicates that the client may have anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The letters represent the following questions: • Do you make yourself Sick because you feel too full? • Do you worry about loss of Control over the amount that you eat? • Have you recently lost more than One stone (14 pounds) in a 3-month period? • Do you think that you are too Fat, even if others think you are thin? • Does Food dominate your life? The 4 Cs are used to determine cultural competence. Dietary Guidelines for Americans provide nutritional guidance for all, not only for those with eating disorders. The DEXA scan is used to determine bone density.

Which phase of the endometrial cycle best describes a heavy, velvety soft, fully matured endometrium? a. Menstrual b. Proliferative c. Secretory d. Ischemic

ANS: C - Secretory The secretory phase extends from the day of ovulation to approximately 3 days before the next menstrual cycle. During this secretory phase, the endometrium becomes fully mature again. During the menstrual phase, the endometrium is shed. The proliferative phase is a period of rapid growth. During the ischemic phase, the blood supply is blocked and necrosis develops.

A 38-year-old Hispanic woman vaginally delivered a 9-pound, 6-ounce baby girl after being in labor for 43 hours. The baby died 3 days later from sepsis. On what grounds could the woman have a legitimate legal case for negligence? a. Inexperienced maternity nurse was assigned to care for the client. b. Client was past her due date by 3 days. c. Standard of care was not met. d. Client refused electronic fetal monitoring.

ANS: C - Standard of care was not met. Not meeting the standard of care is a legitimate factor for a case of negligence. An inexperienced maternity nurse would need to display competency before being assigned to care for clients on his or her own. This client may have been past her due date; however, a term pregnancy often goes beyond 40 weeks of gestation. Although fetal monitoring is the standard of care, the client has the right to refuse treatment. This refusal is not a case for negligence, but informed consent should be properly obtained, and the client should have signed an against medical advice form when refusing any treatment that is within the standard of care.

Which statement accurately describes the walking survey as a data collection tool? a. The walking survey determines how much exercise an expectant mother has been getting, to help her make health care decisions. b. The walking survey usually takes place on the maternity ward but can be expanded to other areas of the hospital. c. The walking survey is a method of observing the resources and health-related environment of the community. d. The walking survey is performed by government census takers as part of their canvas.

ANS: C - The walking survey is a method of observing the resources and health-related environment of the community. The walking survey is a valuable tool for the nurses in the community and has nothing to do with exercise. It is an observational method used to assess the health environment of the community. A walking survey takes place in the community, not the maternity ward, and is not part of the census; it is conducted by nurses in the community.

A blind woman has arrived for an examination. Her guide dog assists her to the examination room. She appears nervous and says, "I've never had a pelvic examination." What response from the nurse would be most appropriate? a. "Don't worry. It will be over before you know it." b. "Try to relax. I'll be very gentle, and I won't hurt you." c. "Your anxiety is common. I was anxious when I first had a pelvic examination." d. "I'll let you touch each instrument that I'll use during the examination as I tell you how it will be used."

ANS: D - "I'll let you touch each instrument that I'll use during the examination as I tell you how it will be used." The client who is visually impaired needs to be oriented to the examination room and needs a full explanation of what the examination entails before the nurse proceeds. Telling the client that the examination will be over quickly diminishes the client's concerns. The nurse should openly and directly communicate with sensitivity. Women who have physical disabilities should be respected and involved in the assessment and physical examination to the full extent of their abilities. Telling the client that she will not be hurt does not reflect respect or sensitivity. Although anxiety may be common, the nurse should not discuss her own issues nor compare them to the client's concerns.

While obtaining a detailed history from a woman who has recently immigrated from Somalia, the nurse realizes that the client has undergone female genital mutilation. What is the nurse's most appropriate response in this situation? a. "This is a very abnormal practice and rarely seen in the United States." b. "Are you aware of who performed this mutilation so that it can be reported to the authorities?" c. "We will be able to restore fully your circumcision after delivery." d. "The extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications."

ANS: D - "The extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications." The extent of the circumcision is important. The client may experience pain, bleeding, scarring, or infection and may require surgery before childbirth. Although this practice is not prevalent in the United States, it is very common in many African and Middle Eastern countries for religious reasons. Mentioning that the practice is abnormal and rarely seen in the United States is culturally insensitive. The infibulation may have occurred during infancy or childhood; consequently, the client will have little to no recollection of the event. She would have considered this to be a normal milestone during her growth and development. The International Council of Nurses has spoken out against this procedure as harmful to a woman's health.

During the childbearing experience, which behavior might the nurse expect from an African-American client? a. Seeking prenatal care early in her pregnancy b. Avoiding self-treatment of pregnancy-related discomfort c. Requesting liver in the postpartum period to prevent anemia d. Arriving at the hospital in advanced labor

ANS: D - Arriving at the hospital in advanced labor African-American women often arrive at the hospital in far-advanced labor and may view pregnancy as a state of wellness, which is often the reason for the delay in seeking prenatal care. African-American women practice many self-treatment options for various discomforts of pregnancy. African-American women may also request liver in the postpartum period, which is based on a belief that liver has a higher blood content.

During a prenatal intake interview, the nurse is in the process of obtaining an initial assessment of a 21-year-old Hispanic client with limited English proficiency. Which action is the most important for the nurse to perform? a. Use maternity jargon to enable the client to become familiar with these terms. b. Speak quickly and efficiently to expedite the visit. c. Provide the client with handouts. d. Assess whether the client understands the discussion.

ANS: D - Assess whether the client understands the discussion. Nurses contribute to health literacy by using simple, common words, avoiding jargon, and evaluating whether the client understands the discussion. Speaking slowly and clearly and focusing on what is important will increase understanding. Most client education materials are written at a level too high for the average adult and may not be useful for a client with limited English proficiency.

A Native-American woman gave birth to a baby girl 12 hours ago. The nurse notes that the woman keeps her baby in the bassinet except for bottle feeding and states that she will wait until she gets home to begin breastfeeding. The nurse recognizes that this behavior is most likely a reflection of what? a. Delayed attachment b. Embarrassment c. Disappointment in the sex of the baby d. Belief that babies should not be fed colostrum

ANS: D - Belief that babies should not be fed colostrum Native Americans often use cradle boards and often avoid handling their newborn. They also believe that the infant should not be fed colostrum. Delayed attachment is a developmental concern, not a cultural belief. Embarrassment is not likely the cause for a delay in the initiation of breastfeeding and should be explored further by the nurse. The mother may voice her disappointment that the infant is a girl; however, this would rarely cause her to delay breastfeeding and would exhibit itself in other ways.

When the nurse is unsure how to perform a client care procedure that is high risk and low volume, his or her best action in this situation would be what? a. Ask another nurse. b. Discuss the procedure with the client's physician. c. Look up the procedure in a nursing textbook. d. Consult the agency procedure manual, and follow the guidelines for the procedure.

ANS: D - Consult the agency procedure manual, and follow the guidelines for the procedure. Following the agency's policies and procedures manual is always best when seeking information on correct client procedures. These policies should reflect the current standards of care and the individual state's guidelines. Each nurse is responsible for his or her own practice. Relying on another nurse may not always be a safe practice. Each nurse is obligated to follow the standards of care for safe client care delivery. Physicians are responsible for their own client care activity. Nurses may follow safe orders from physicians, but they are also responsible for the activities that they, as nurses, are to carry out. Information provided in a nursing textbook is basic information for general knowledge. Furthermore, the information in a textbook may not reflect the current standard of care or the individual state or hospital policies.

A 23-year-old African-American woman is pregnant with her first child. Based on the statistics for infant mortality, which plan is most important for the nurse to implement? a. Perform a nutrition assessment. b. Refer the woman to a social worker. c. Advise the woman to see an obstetrician, not a midwife. d. Explain to the woman the importance of keeping her prenatal care appointments.

ANS: D - Explain to the woman the importance of keeping her prenatal care appointments. Consistent prenatal care is the best method of preventing or controlling risk factors associated with infant mortality. Nutritional status is an important modifiable risk factor, but it is not the most important action a nurse should take in this situation. The client may need assistance from a social worker at some time during her pregnancy, but a referral to a social worker is not the most important aspect the nurse should address at this time. If the woman has identifiable high-risk problems, then her health care may need to be provided by a physician. However, it cannot be assumed that all African-American women have high-risk issues. In addition, advising the woman to see an obstetrician is not the most important aspect on which the nurse should focus at this time, and it is not appropriate for a nurse to advise or manage the type of care a client is to receive.

The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services has designated Thanksgiving Day as National Family History Day. The U.S. Surgeon General encourages family members to discuss important family health information while sharing in holiday gatherings. Why is this initiative significant to nurses? a. Few genetic tests are available that identify this information. b. Only physicians should obtain this detailed information. c. Clients cannot accurately complete these histories on their own. d. Family history is the single most cost-effective source for genetic information.

ANS: D - Family history is the single most cost-effective source for genetic information. Although more than 1000 genetic tests are available, the single most cost-effective piece of genetic information is the family history. Nurses are ideally suited to take the lead in ongoing efforts to recognize the significance of the family history as an important source of genetic information. A computerized tool called My Family Health Portrait is available free of charge (https://familyhistory.hhs.gov/fhh-web/home.action). Other tools designed to help the lay community in completing their family histories are available to the public

As part of their participation in the gynecologic portion of the physical examination, which approach should the nurse take? a. Take a firm approach that encourages the client to facilitate the examination by following the physician's instructions exactly. b. Explain the procedure as it unfolds, and continue to question the client to get information in a timely manner. c. Take the opportunity to explain that the trendy vulvar self-examination is only for women at risk for developing cancer. d. Help the woman relax through the proper placement of her hands and proper breathing during the examination.

ANS: D - Help the woman relax through the proper placement of her hands and proper breathing during the examination. Breathing techniques are important relaxation techniques that can help the client during the examination. The nurse should encourage the client to participate in an active partnership with the health care provider. Explanations during the procedure are fine, but many women are uncomfortable answering questions in the exposed and awkward position of the examination. Vulvar self-examination on a regular basis should be encouraged and taught during the examination

What is a limitation of a home postpartum visit? a. Distractions limit the nurse's ability to teach. b. Identified problems cannot be resolved in the home setting. c. Necessary items for infant care are not available. d. Home visits to different families may require the nurse to travel a great distance.

ANS: D - Home visits to different families may require the nurse to travel a great distance. One limitation of home health visits is the distance the nurse must travel between clients. Driving directions should be obtained by telephone before the visit. The home care nurse is accustomed to distractions but may request that the television be turned off so that attention can be focused on the client and her family. Problems cannot always be resolved; however, appropriate referrals may be arranged by the nurse. The nurse is required to bring any necessary equipment, such as a thermometer, baby scale, or laptop computer, for documentation.

Which part of the menstrual cycle includes the stimulated release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)? a. Menstrual phase b. Endometrial cycle c. Ovarian cycle d. Hypothalamic-pituitary cycle

ANS: D - Hypothalamic-pituitary cycle The cyclic release of hormones is the function of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands. The menstrual cycle is a complex interplay of events that simultaneously occur in the endometrium, hypothalamus, pituitary glands, and ovaries. The endometrial cycle consists of four phases: menstrual phase, proliferative phase, secretory phase, and ischemic phase. The ovarian cycle remains under the influence of FSH and estrogen

While working in the prenatal clinic, nurses care for a very diverse group of clients. Which cultural factor related to health is most likely to drive acceptance of planned interventions? a. Educational achievement b. Income level c. Subcultural group d. Individual beliefs

ANS: D - Individual beliefs The client's beliefs are ultimately the key to the acceptance of health care interventions. However, these beliefs may be influenced by factors such as educational level, income level, and ethnic background. Educational achievement, income level, and being part of a subcultural group all are important factors. However, the nurse must understand that a woman's concerns from her own point of view will have the most influence on her compliance and acceptance of health care interventions.

Which resource best describes a health care service representing the tertiary level of prevention? a. Stress management seminars b. Childbirth education classes for single parents c. BSE pamphlet and teaching d. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) support group

ANS: D - Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) support group A PMS support group is an example of tertiary prevention, which follows the occurrence of a defect or disability (e.g., PMS). Stress management seminars are a primary prevention technique for preventing health care issues associated with stress. Childbirth education is a form of primary prevention. BSE information is a form of secondary prevention, which is aimed toward early detection of health problems.

Which hormone is responsible for the maturation of mammary gland tissue? a. Estrogen b. Testosterone c. Prolactin d. Progesterone

ANS: D - Progesterone Progesterone causes maturation of the mammary gland tissue, specifically acinar structures of the lobules. Estrogen increases the vascularity of the breast tissue. Testosterone has no bearing on breast development. Prolactin is produced after birth and released from the pituitary gland; it is produced in response to infant suckling and an emptying of the breasts

When attempting to communicate with a client who speaks a different language, which action is the most appropriate? a. Promptly and positively respond to project authority. b. Never use a family member as an interpreter. c. Talk to the interpreter to avoid confusing the client. d. Provide as much privacy as possible.

ANS: D - Provide as much privacy as possible. Providing privacy creates an atmosphere of respect and puts the client at ease. The nurse should not rush to judgment and should ensure she or he clearly understands the client's message. In crisis situations, the nurse may need to use a family member or neighbor as a translator. The nurse should speak directly to the client to create an atmosphere of respect

What information should the nurse be aware of regarding telephonic nursing care such as warm lines? a. Were developed as a reaction to impersonal telephonic nursing care b. Were set up to take complaints concerning health maintenance organizations (HMOs) c. Are the second option when 9-1-1 hotlines are busy d. Refer to community service telephone lines designed to provide new parents with encouragement and basic information

ANS: D - Refer to community service telephone lines designed to provide new parents with encouragement and basic information Warm lines are one aspect of telephonic nursing care specifically designed to provide new parents with encouragement and basic information. Warm lines and similar services sometimes are set up by HMOs to provide new parents with encouragement and basic information. The name, warm lines, may have been suggested by the term hotlines, but these are not emergency numbers but are designed to provide new parents with encouragement and basic information.

What is the goal of a long-term treatment plan for an adolescent with an eating disorder? a. Managing the effects of malnutrition b. Establishing sufficient caloric intake c. Improving family dynamics d. Restructuring client perception of body image

ANS: D - Restructuring client perception of body image The treatment of eating disorders is initially focused on reestablishing physiologic homeostasis. Once body systems are stabilized, the next goal of treatment for eating disorders is maintaining adequate caloric intake. Although family therapy is indicated when dysfunctional family relationships exist, the primary focus of therapy for eating disorders is to help the adolescent cope with complex issues. The focus of treatment in individual therapy for an eating disorder involves restructuring cognitive perceptions about the individual's body image.

A new father has just been told that his infant has trisomy 18. Which identifying physical feature is unique to an infant with this genetic disorder? a. Microcephaly and capillary hemangiomas b. Epicanthal folds and a simian crease c. Oblique palpebral fissures and Cri du chat syndrome d. Rocker-bottom feet and clenched hands with overlapping fingers

ANS: D - Rocker-bottom feet and clenched hands with overlapping fingers Rocker-bottom feet and clenched hands with overlapping fingers are associated with trisomy 18. Microcephaly and capillary hemangiomas are associated with trisomy 13. Epicanthal folds and a simian crease are associated with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome). Deletion of the short arm of chromosome number 5 is manifested by Cri du chat syndrome.

In what form do families tend to be the most socially vulnerable? a. Married-blended family b. Extended family c. Nuclear family d. Single-parent family

ANS: D - Single-parent family The single-parent family tends to be economically and socially vulnerable, creating an unstable and deprived environment for the growth potential of children. The married-blended family, the extended family, and the nuclear family are not the most socially vulnerable.

Which action would be inappropriate for the nurse to perform before beginning the health history interview? a. Smile and ask the client whether she has any special concerns. b. Speak in a relaxed manner with an even, nonjudgmental tone. c. Make the client comfortable. d. Tell the client her questions are irrelevant.

ANS: D - Tell the client her questions are irrelevant. The woman should be assured that all of her questions are relevant and important. Beginning any client interaction with a smile is important and assists in putting the client at ease. If the nurse speaks in a relaxed manner, then the client will likely be more relaxed during the interview. The client's comfort should always be ensured before beginning the interview.

Which statement most accurately describes dominant genetic disorders? a. With a dominant disorder, the likelihood of the second child also having the condition is 100%. b. An autosomal recessive disease carries a one-in-eight risk of the second child also having the disorder. c. Disorders involving maternal ingestion of drugs carry a one-in-four chance of being repeated in the second child. d. The risk factor remains the same no matter how many affected children are already in the family.

ANS: D - The risk factor remains the same no matter how many affected children are already in the family. Each pregnancy is an independent event. The risk factor (e.g., one-in-two, one-in-four) remains the same for each child, no matter how many children are born to the family. In a dominant disorder, the likelihood of recurrence in subsequent children is 50% (i.e., one-in-two). An autosomal recessive disease carries a one-in-four chance of recurrence. In disorders involving maternal ingestion of drugs, subsequent children would be at risk only if the mother continued to take the drugs; the rate of risk would be difficult to calculate

The National Quality Forum has issued a list of "never events" specifically pertaining to maternal and child health. These include all of the following except: a. infant discharged to the wrong person. b. kernicterus associated with the failure to identify and treat hyperbilirubinemia. c. artificial insemination with the wrong donor sperm or egg. d. foreign object retained after surgery.

ANS: D - foreign object retained after surgery. Although a foreign object retained after surgery is a never event, it does not specifically pertain to obstetric clients. A client undergoing any type of surgery may be at risk for this event. An infant discharged to the wrong person specifically pertains to postpartum care. Death or serious disability as a result of kernicterus pertains to newborn assessment and care. Artificial insemination affects families seeking care for infertility.