Exam 15

Developmental Psychology 78. Several demographic characteristics are associated with the risk of divorce. According to the National Survey of Family Growth (2002), divorce rates are highest for women who: A have a higher level of education and marry at a younger age B have a lower level of education and marry at a younger age C have a higher level of education and marry at an older age D have a lower level of education and marry at an older age

ANSWER "B" B. The likelihood of a marriage ending in divorce varies based on age at marriage, income, education, length of marriage, race and other factors distinguished in the National Survey of Family Growth. The survey data indicates that rates of divorce are highest for women who marry at a younger age, have a lower level of education, had a child when she got married, have a lower income or live in a community with low family income, or have no religious affiliation. (See: Bramlett, M.D. & Mosher, W.D. (2002) Cohabitation, Marriage, Divorce, and Remarriage in the United States. National Center for Health Statistics. Vital Health Statistics, 23(22).).

Clinical Psychology 125. Differing locus of control and locus of responsibility combinations yield the four worldviews described by Sue and Sue (2003). Mainstream American culture would best be characterized by an: A internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility B internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility C external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility D external locus of control and external locus of responsibility

ANSWER "B" B. Worldview refers to the manner in which people perceive, evaluate and react to encountered situations. Sue and Sue describe mainstream American culture "as the epitome of the individual-centered approach that emphasizes uniqueness, independence and self-reliance" (p.277). This is characterized by an internal locus of control and locus of responsibility in Sue, D.W. & Sue, D. (2003). Counseling the culturally diverse: Theory and practice. 4th edition. New York: John Wiley.

Developmental Psychology 178. An intervention targeting Bronfenbrenner's microsystem will focus on A family members. B family members and/or classmates. C school and church. D parents' work and friends.

ANSWER "B" Bronfenbrenner's ecological model distinguishes between four interacting environmental levels that range from the most proximal to the most global. The microsystem is the individual's immediate environment and includes parents, siblings, caregivers, classmates, and teachers.

School Psychology/Intelligence 19. Children with Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder are most likely to score lowest on which subtest of the WISC-III? A block design B digit span C information D similarities

ANSWER "B" Children with ADHD have been found to score lowest in the digit span and arithmetic subtests of the WISC-III. Indeed, these two subtests make up the Freedom From Distractibility index which measures distractibility, concentration, and short-term memory. Although children with ADHD tend to score lower in digit span and arithmetic, researchers have cautioned against using the WISC-III as a diagnostic tool for ADHD (A. Anastopoulos, M. Spisto, & M. Maher. The WISC--III freedom from distractibility factor: Its utility in identifying children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Psychological Assessment, 1994, 6(4), 368-371).

Developmental Psychology 138. Research has found that Mexican-American children begin to accurately apply ethnic labels to themselves and others between: A 3 and 4 years B 5 and 9 years C 7 and 12 years D 10 and 15 years

ANSWER "B" Children's ethnic perspective-taking ability (EPTA) has been evaluated and described in several stages. In the first stage, which develops between 3 and 4 years, children can begin to describe ethnicity in terms of physical traits (e.g. skin color, clothes, physical features); however, it is not until the next stage, which occurs between 5 and 9 years, can they accurately apply ethnic labels to themselves and others. In the following stage, from 7-12 years, children express a social perspective of ethnicity, including prejudice. And between 10 and 15 years they begin to immerse themselves into their ethnic group. [S.M. Quintana, V.C. Ybarra, P. Gonzalez-Doupe, & Y. DeBaessa, Cross-Cultural Evaluation of Ethnic Perspective-Taking Ability: An Exploratory Investigation With U.S. Latino and Guatemalan Ladino Children. Cultural Diversity and Ethnic Minority Psychology, 2000, 6 (4), 334-351].

Clinical Psychology 49. The prevalence of mental disorders in people over 65 is: A higher than any other age group B lower than any other age group C higher, and includes cognitive impairment D The same as the under 65 population

ANSWER "B" Contrary to what may be expected, the prevalence of mental disorders in people 65 and older is lower than any other age group; only cognitive impairment shows a definite age-associated increase in incidence. (Dorothy M. Tucker, Ph.D, "Treating Our Elders: Exploring the Relationship Between Psychology and Medicine" California Psychologist, March 2000, pg. 4 Volume XXXIII Number Three.) .

Developmental Psychology 60. According to Kohlberg's theory, which of the following would be the best example of conventional morality? A maximizing individual gains B support of social standards C behaving solely in line with one's own conscience D behaving in such a way as to avoid risk and cost to the individual

ANSWER "B" Conventional morality is the second level of Kohlberg's three levels of moral reasoning. It is between pre-conventional morality, where the behaviors we view as moral are those that result in a reward or avoidance of punishment; and post-conventional morality, where we function according to our own conscience, no matter what the conventional wisdom is. The person at the conventional level supports the social order. He or she believes in that which is approved of by others or by societal standards is moral.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 89. According to equity theory, individuals are most likely to feel content and maintain their level of performance when: A they perceive a balance between their contributions and the benefits they receive B they perceive their input-output ratio as equal to others C they accept the goals, even if the goals were assigned by their supervisor D there is no adverse impact

ANSWER "B" Equity theory holds that, in any work situation we assess both our input (how much effort we are contributing to a work situation) and our output (how much we get out of it). We then compare our input/output ratio to what we perceive are the ratios of our co-workers. A state of balance exists when we perceive that our input/output ratios are equal to those of our co-workers. If our input/output ratio is not equal to the ratios of others, a state of inequity exists and we will be motivated to create equity. Choice A does not address the comparison to others. Choice C is related to Goal-setting theory. Adverse impact (D) is an important concept, but is not related to equity theory.

Neuropsychology 98. Disinhibition, indifference, and jocularity are most likely caused by damage to the: A right frontal lobe B left frontal lobe C corpus callosum D left parietal lobe

ANSWER "A" Disinhibition/impulsiveness, happy indifference, and jocularity frequently result from damage to the right frontal lobe. Damage to the left frontal lobe (B) most often results in reduced speech, depression, and apathy.

Community Psychology 111. A member of which of the following groups is most likely to be admitted to an inpatient mental health facility? A never married men B divorced/separated men C married men D never married women

ANSWER "A" Of the groups listed, never married men have the highest rates of admission to inpatient mental health facilities regardless of the type of facility (state/county versus private). The other groups listed have similar rates; but, if you have to choose the group with the lowest rate, the best answer is never married women (answer D).

Developmental Psychology 59. Symptoms of anxiety in response to the presence of unfamiliar adults usually begins at: A 9 months B 12 months C 18 months D 24 months

ANSWER "A" Stranger anxiety can first appear as early as 6 months of age, but it usually begins in infants between 8 and 10 months of age, peaks at about 18 months of age, and then gradually declines during the end of the second year.

Community Psychology 173. A class designed to teach senior citizens how to avoid financial scams, led by former con artists, would be considered: A primary prevention B secondary prevention C tertiary prevention D rehabilitative consultation

ANSWER "A" The key issue in these prevention questions is not the age of the target population, but rather, whether or not they already have the identified problem, and if so, whether it's in an early stage (secondary prevention) or full-blown (tertiary prevention). Since the question did not indicate that these senior citizens have already been victims of financial scams, this class would be considered primary prevention. Primary prevention is aimed at preventing problems before they occur in the first place by targeting high risk groups.

Research Design and Statistics 61. An admissions committee is planning to modify its application and admissions policy. They are evaluating the current student enrollment and are interested in the relationship between gender and high school GPA. Which statistical method would be used? A Point biserial correlation B Multiple correlation C Canonical correlation D Tetrachoric correlation

ANSWER "A" The point biserial correlational technique is used when one variable is dichotomous (gender) and one is continuous (high school GPA). Multiple correlation is used when there are two or more predictor variables and a single criterion variable (response "B"). Canonical correlation (response "C") is used when there are two or more predictor variables and two or more criterion variables. Tetrachoric correlation (response "D") is a technique used to estimate the magnitude of the relationship between two continuous variables that have been dichotomized, such as dividing age into two groups: under 40 and over 40.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 139. In old age, the best predictor of adaptation would be: A health. B number of grandchildren. C marital status. D SES level.

ANSWER "A" This is tough. All of the distractors mentioned predict good adaptation in our older age. But the best answer is good health, according to the research.

Developmental Psychology 127. A three-year-old sees a tree with droopy leaves and tells her father that the tree is "tired." This is an example of: A magical thinking B animistic thinking C egocentricity D centration

ANSWER "B" All of the responses are factors in Piaget's preoperational stage. Animistic thinking is believing that objects, like the tree with droopy leaves, have lifelike qualities such as thoughts and feelings. Magical thinking is believing one has control over objects or events. Egocentricity is believing that others experience the world in the same way and centration refers to the tendency to focus on one detail while neglecting others.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 128. Depressive episodes that occur in a seasonal pattern most likely include: A loss of weight B increased sleep C increased energy D increased craving for protein-rich foods

ANSWER "B" Mood Disorder With Seasonal Pattern (better known as Seasonal Affective Disorder) is diagnosed when the person displays onset and remission of Major Depressive Episodes at characteristic times of the year. In most cases, onset is in fall or winter and remission is in spring. The depressive symptoms in Seasonal Affective Disorder most often include: decreased energy, increased sleep, overeating, weight gain, and a craving for carbohydrates.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 68. "Flashbulb memories" are vivid memories of emotionally-arousing events. Flashbulb memories are considered part of A procedural memory. B implicit memory. C episodic memory. D prospective memory.

ANSWER "C" Like other episodic memories, flashbulb memories are for events that involve specific people, places, or things and that occurred at a specific time.

Clinical Psychology 74. Minuchin, the founder of structural family therapy, defines "triangulation" as occurring when A the child and one parent "gang up" on the other parent. B the parents either consistently attack or protect the child. C each parent demands that the child side with him/her. D two members of the family consistently challenge the therapist's authority.

ANSWER "C" Minuchin defines three types of "rigid triangles" that involve chronic boundary disturbances - triangulation (answer C); detouring (answer B); and a stable coalition (answer A).

Neuropsychology 189. The brand name for one of the medications used for ADHD is: A Tegretol B Depakote C Dolophine D Dexedrine

ANSWER "D" Dexedrine is sometimes used in the treatment of ADHD. Tegretol and Depakote are both used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. Dolophine is used for the treatment of heroin addiction.

Developmental Psychology 40. Of the following groups, which one would probably have better metacognition skills? A mentally retarded children B children of average intelligence C children who have an IQ score of one standard deviation above the mean D gifted children

ANSWER "D" Gifted children have better metacognition skills-they are more aware of their cognitive processes and better at evaluating cognitive strategies (Leng, 1993). In order to be classified as "gifted," most school programs require an IQ that is two standard deviations above the mean or 130 +/- 3 points.

Developmental Psychology 155. The "terminal drop" phenomenon refers to: A declines in intellectual functioning B declines in sensory functioning C declines in REM sleep D declines in non-REM sleep

ANSWER "A" "Terminal drop" refers to findings indicating in the months before death, a substantial drop in all facets of intelligence occurs.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 62. Behavioral assessments are useful for determining behavioral: A contingencies B consequences C constraints D interventions

ANSWER "A" A behavioral assessment identifies "contingencies," which is a term for the antecedents of and consequences that maintain the behavior one is planning to alter. While a behavioral assessment may be undertaken to determine the best behavioral treatment, it may also be done for research purposes with no goal of offering treatment, or to see if a previous treatment was effective. Behavioral contingencies is more inclusive than consequences (response "B") or interventions (response "D"), and therefore the correct answer.

Clinical Psychology 172. Which of the following is the reason why many experts recommend 6 to 8 sessions as the duration of crisis intervention therapy? A Six to eight sessions is about how long many crises last. B Most people who are experiencing a crisis would not be able to endure the anxiety evoked by long-term psychotherapy. C Most people who are experiencing a crisis cannot afford long-term psychotherapy. D Individuals in a crisis state are usually so unbalanced that their unconscious mental contents have become conscious; as a result, the assessment and exploration phase of dynamic therapy is not necessary.

ANSWER "A" A crisis occurs when a person's normal ways of adapting and coping are insufficient to meet the demands of a highly stressful situation. Intervention focuses on resolution of the immediate problem and restoration of the person to a previous level of functioning and coping. The assumption is that the person's problems do not represent a mental illness or any type of pathology; instead, the reaction, though maladaptive and inadequate, is viewed as understandable, under the circumstances. Since global personality change is not a goal, the duration is 6 to 8 sessions, in line with the normal evolution of a crisis.

Clinical Psychology 174. Psychoanalytic theory and ethology both emphasize A critical periods. B psychic determinism. C the oedipal complex. D imprinting.

ANSWER "A" A critical period is a discrete time period during which an organism is particularly sensitive to environmental events that could influence its development one way or the other. Both ethology (the study of animals in their natural habitat) and psychoanalytic developmental theory emphasize critical periods. For example, Lorenz's research found that the critical period for imprinting in geese is 2-3 days after they are born. And in Freud's theory of development, the different stages (e.g., oral, anal) represent critical periods for successful or unsuccessful resolution of specific psychosexual conflicts.

School Psychology/Intelligence 140. For which population would it be least appropriate to give the performance subtests only of the WISC-III as a measure of general intelligence? A suburban middle-class children B reading-disabled children C immigrant, non English-speaking children D poor, rural Appalachian children

ANSWER "A" A number of factors that are not related to general intelligence can suppress one's verbal IQ score on the Wechsler tests, including a lack of formal education, a learning disability, and a lack of proficiency in English. Therefore, for the children mentioned in choices "B," "C," and "D," it may be that their WISC-III verbal IQ scores would not be reflective of their overall intelligence level, but their performance IQ scores would be less affected. By contrast, in suburban middle-class children, the performance IQ scores have been found to underestimate general intelligence.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 184. Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to agree that the performance of the behavior depends on several factors including the characteristics of the setting and the learner's expectations about the outcomes of performing the behavior but that the learning of a behavior can be the result of observation alone: A Bandura B Wittrock C Lave D Bruner

ANSWER "A" A. According to Bandura's observational (social) learning theory, learning can occur without being evident in performance. Wittrock (b.) is associated with the generative learning model, which proposes that learners construct meaning from the connections of previous learning and experience with new knowledge or unfamiliar experiences. Lave's (c.) situated learning model has two principles: learning is a function of the activity, context and culture in which it occurs; and learning requires social interaction and collaboration. Bruner (d.) is associated with discovery learning, which suggests greater learning occurs when individuals engage in situations to question, explore, or experiment for themselves (i.e., information and examples are presented and inductive reasoning is employed until they "discover" the interrelationships). (See: Wittrock, M.C. (1974). Learning as a generative process. Educational Psychologist, 11, 87-95.; Lave, J., & Wenger, E. (1990). Situated Learning: Legitimate Periperal Participation. Cambridge, UK: Cambridge University Press.; and Bruner, J. (1960). The Process of Education, Cambridge, Mass.: Harvard University Press.) .

Community Psychology 4. The Acute Phase of rape trauma syndrome is characterized by: A disbelief B fear C denial D depression

ANSWER "A" A. Although coping with sexual assault is influenced by an individual's personality, support system, the responding professionals' reactions after the assault and the assault itself, research has shown that there is a set of characteristic reactions, referred to as the Rape Trauma Syndrome, that many sexually assaulted individuals experience. The Acute Distress stage immediately follows the assault and is associated with an acute reaction taking the form of shock, disbelief, and dismay. Two styles of responding to the assault include an Expressive style (crying, sobbing, shaking, restlessness, tenseness), and a Controlled style (appearing calm, subdued, numb). The Outward Adjustment stage is characterized by denial (c.), suppression or rationalization; and the Integration stage, which can overlap the others, is the long-term response of striving to come to terms with the assault. (See: Burgess, A.W., and Holstrom, L.L. Rape: Victims of Crisis, Maryland: Robert J. Brady Co, 1974.).

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 104. If a person learns a behavior through modeling coupled with external reinforcement, why, according to Bandura, would that behavior continue in the absence of a model or external reinforcement? A The accomplishment of new behavioral skills can be reinforcing in itself. B The process of response generalization makes further modeling and reinforcement unnecessary. C The process of classical conditioning ensures that the behavior will continue, as long as antecedent stimulus conditions remain the same. D Individuals do not need any type of motivation to learn a new behavior; mere exposure to a model is sufficient.

ANSWER "A" According to Bandura, the effectiveness of modeling is mediated by four processes: attention, retention, reproduction, and motivation. Motivation may but does not necessarily involve external reinforcement; it is also possible that behaviors learned through modeling can be internally or self-reinforcing (e.g., pride and satisfaction in accomplishment can operate as motivators). You might have learned that Bandura does not believe that reinforcement is necessary for a behavior to occur and, as a result, chosen D. However, D is incorrect because mere exposure to a model is not sufficient for learning; the person must attend to the model, retain the model's behavior, have the capability to reproduce the behavior, and be motivated to engage in the behavior.

Social Psychology 83. An aggressive child was probably A Spanked often and inconsistently B Never given proper boundaries C Spanked for specific naughty behaviors D Encouraged to think about the end results of her behaviors

ANSWER "A" According to Jerry Patterson and his colleagues, aggressive behavior often develops from the parent's style of parenting; an aggressive child's parent used lots of directives combined with inconsistent harsh physical punishment.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 147. A diagnosis of Mental Retardation is dependent upon cognitive functioning of two standard deviations below the mean and A deficits in adaptive functioning. B lack of social skills. C cognitive deficits in at least two academic areas. D an inability to inhibit impulses.

ANSWER "A" According to the DSM-IV, the three criteria for a diagnosis of Mental Retardation are (1) significantly subaverage intellectual functioning (an IQ score of 70 or less), (2) deficits in at least two areas of adaptive functioning, and (3) onset before age 18. The other choices may be part of the clinical picture of Mental Retardation, but they are not diagnostic criteria.

Neuropsychology 77. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most associated with muscular contractions? A acetylcholine B GABA C norepinephrine D serotonin

ANSWER "A" Acetylcholine transmits messages from peripheral nerves to muscles which causes the muscles to contract. GABA (B), the most abundant neurotransmitter in the CNS, has an inhibitory role, particularly in the limbic system which controls emotions. Low levels of GABA are also associated with anxiety. Deficits of GABA in the motor regions of the brain are associated with Huntington's Chorea, characterized by dementia and involuntary jerky movements in the arms and legs. Thus, GABA (or rather, the absence of GABA) does play a role in muscular contractions. However, acetylcholine is more specifically associated with muscular contractions than GABA. Norepinephrine (C) helps regulate arousal, dreaming, and moods. And serotonin (D) is associated with personality, mood, and drive states.

Ethics and Professional Practice 91. Which of the following is not a recommendation of APA's Guidelines for Providers of Service to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations? A Psychologists should downplay their own culture and emphasize the client's culture. B Psychologists should help clients understand, maintain, and resolve their own sociocultural identification. C Psychologists should seek to help determine whether a so-called "problem" stems from racism or bias in others so that clients don't inappropriately personalize problems. D Psychologists should work to eliminate biases, prejudices, and discriminatory practices.

ANSWER "A" Although these Guidelines do emphasize the need to consider, respect, and understand the client's cultural background, they don't advise psychologists to downplay their own backgrounds. The other choices are all paraphrases of statements contained in these Guidelines.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 82. Transformational leaders emphasize all of the following except: A stability B interpersonal communciation C change D higher-order needs

ANSWER "A" As the name implies, transformational leaders are change-focused and are able to create a vision of organizational change. They motivate by appealing to their subordinates' higher-order needs. Transformational leaders are particularly effective communicators who are good listeners and are able to express complicated ideas clearly and vividly, often through the use of analogies and metaphors. This is in contrast to transactional leaders, who focus more on stability (A) than change. They foster normal, work-related activities and typically motivate through reward and punishment.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 80. In the classical conditioning paradigm, backward conditioning has been found to be: A ineffective. B moderately effective. C more effective than simultaneous conditioning. D more effective than delayed conditioning.

ANSWER "A" Backward conditioning occurs when the UCS precedes the CS. Think of it as giving Spot the food and then sounding the buzzer. What would you expect? Do you really think that Spot would pay any attention to the buzzer once he had his Alpo? Hardly. He's probably too busy gulping down his chopped liver to have any attention channels available to perceive your experimental buzzer. So, the answer must be that backward conditioning has no true effect. For classical conditioning to be effective, the CS must precede the UCS. Then, after a sufficient number of pairings, the response can be elicited by the CS only.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 23. Members of a cohesive group, as compared to members of a non-cohesive group, are more likely to have: A lower absenteeism B lower productivity C better decision-making D higher turnover

ANSWER "A" Group cohesiveness has been associated with less absenteeism and turnover and, in some situations, greater productivity. You should have been able to eliminate "C" (better decision-making) if you recalled the research on groupthink, which is characterized, in part, by high group cohesiveness, and is associated with poorer quality decisions.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 48. Habituation would be most likely to occur in which of the following situations. A An experimenter repeatedly presents the same stimulus. B An experimenter increases the intensity of a stimulus. C An examinee focuses his/her attention. D Background music is played during exposure to the stimulus.

ANSWER "A" Habituation most likely occurs if the experimenter repeatedly presents the same stimulus. Habituation is defined as a decrease in response strength due to repeated stimulation and occurs when one no longer responds to a repeatedly applied stimulus. It is believed to occur because of a decrease in the amount of neurotransmitter released.

Research Design and Statistics 32. A psychologist in a hospital is conducting research designed to assess the effects of a new drug on the social behavior of psychotic patients. Which of the following would be the best way to decrease experimenter bias in this type of study? A a double-blind study B counterbalancing C a randomized block design D a Solomon four-group design

ANSWER "A" In a double-blind study, neither the experimenter nor the subjects know the research hypothesis. This technique thus controls for all types of experimenter and subject expectancies, including experimenter bias. The experimenter's bias in favor of the research hypothesis cannot influence the results of the study if he or she does not know the hypothesis.

Developmental Psychology 97. Kohlberg's theory of moral development is based on the assumption that progress through his hypothesized stages is related to A changes in social perspective. B changes in self-concept. C socioemotional development. D identity development.

ANSWER "A" Kohlberg believed that the three levels of moral reasoning reflect different levels of cognitive development, which encompasses changes in social perspective-taking. At the conventional level, the person views an individual as a member of society and bases his/her moral judgments on that conceptualization.

Test Construction 115. Adding more items to a test would most likely: A increase the test's reliability B decrease the test's validity C have no effect on the test's reliability or validity D preclude the use of the Spearman-Brown prophecy formula

ANSWER "A" Lengthening a test, that is, adding more test items, generally results in an increase in the test's reliability. For example, a test consisting of only 3 questions would probably be more reliable if we added 10 more items. The Spearman-Brown formula (D) is specifically used to estimate the reliability of a test if it were lengthened or shortened.

Clinical Psychology 17. Which of the following variables is most strongly related to positive outcome after exposure to a highly stressful situation? A perceived social support B actual social support C accessible social support D quality of social support

ANSWER "A" Many studies have confirmed the predictions of the buffering hypothesis, which states that perceived social support provides a buffer that reduces the adverse effects of stressful situations.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 3. Which of the following disorders is most likely to respond to pharmacotherapy alone? A Bipolar I Disorder. B Major Depressive Disorder C Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. D Anorexia Nervosa.

ANSWER "A" Pharmacotherapy (specifically, Lithium therapy in most cases) is the treatment of choice for manic-depressive illnesses such as Bipolar I Disorder. Pharmacotherapy may be supplemented with adjunctive psychotherapy (e.g., to provide support and coping skills). However, psychotherapy is not considered that useful in treating the core symptoms of Bipolar I Disorder. By contrast, although the disorders in the other choices are commonly treated with medication, they also respond to psychotherapy.

Neuropsychology 26. A person whose corpus callosum has been severed will be able to do all of the following except A name an object he cannot see but has felt with his left hand. B say "spoon" when a picture of a spoon is flashed to his right visual field at the same time that a picture of a plate is flashed to his left visual field. C use his left hand to find and match an object that appears in his left visual field. D repeat a sentence that has been whispered into his right ear.

ANSWER "A" Remember, the left side of the brain controls the functions of the right side of the body and, in most people, language. Keeping this in mind would have helped you pick the right answer to this question.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 200. Which of the following is not true about members of self-directed work teams? A Each member of a self-directed team has unique, specialized works skills to contribute to the group product. B Members plan the group's work processes and set the group's work goals. C Members may be authorized to hire their own replacements. D Members of self-directed work teams tend to be absent more than members of traditional work groups.

ANSWER "A" Self-directed work teams are self-directed; i.e., they determine their own goals, plan their own work processes, and may even hire their own replacements. A distinguishing characteristic of self-directed work teams is that members are generalists (versus specialists), and each member has (or learns) a broad range of skills. A possible downside of self-directed work teams is that they are associated with higher absenteeism than more traditional work groups.

Neuropsychology 157. The third and fourth stages of sleep, sometimes referred to as deep sleep is characterized by delta brain waves; however, the first stage of sleep is characterized by: A alpha waves B beta waves C K-complexes D sleep spindles

ANSWER "A" Stage 1 of the sleep cycle is characterized by alpha waves which then give way to the slower theta waves. Stage 2 consists primarily of theta waves and intermittent sleep spindles and K-complexes. The 5th stage is REM sleep, which is also known as paradoxical sleep since the EEG pattern is characteristic of alertness (beta waves) but the sleeper's responsiveness to the environment is low.

Clinical Psychology 24. An African-American client who is referred to an African-American therapist states that he has been cheated because he is getting sub-standard care. According to the minority identity development model, this person is in which stage of development? A conformity B dissonance C resistance D introspection

ANSWER "A" The Minority Identity Development (MID) model defines five stages of identity development in African-Americans and other minority groups who share an experience of oppression. The stages are Conformity, Dissonance, Resistance and Immersion, Introspection, and Synergistic Articulation and Awareness. In the first stage, Conformity, the person is likely to have strong negative feelings toward one's own culture and strong positive feelings toward the dominant culture. Thus, an African-American who feels cheated by having to see an African-American therapist would likely be in the Conformity stage of development.

Neuropsychology 22. Emotional responses such as anger and fear are mediated by which of the following brain structures? A amygdala B pons C thalamus D hypothalamus

ANSWER "A" The amygdala is a limbic system structure that apparently functions to integrate and direct emotional behavior. It attaches emotional significance to sensory stimuli and mediates defensive and aggressive behavior (i.e., behavior based on fear and anger). Damage to the amygdala can produce Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which involves, among other things, reduced fear and aggression.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 72. Negative reinforcement is essential to: A escape conditioning. B punishment. C aversion conditioning. D phobias.

ANSWER "A" The concept of negative reinforcement involves increasing the likelihood of a behavior through the elimination of an aversive stimulus (the negative part). As you might recall, this is exactly what the dog does by learning to escape the electric shock by jumping to the other side of the cage. This is the classic example of escape conditioning. Jumping to the other side is reinforced by the elimination of the aversive stimulus. You may have chosen punishment, but this is the common error of confusing negative reinforcement with punishment. To avoid this error, keep in mind that reinforcement (whether negative or not) and punishment are antithetical.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 116. As opposed to industrial psychology, the approach of engineering psychology is to fit the A job to the worker. B worker to the job. C job to the organization. D worker to the organization.

ANSWER "A" The engineering psychologist tends to examine the factors making up the job and how these impact the worker. The job elements, from such things as the illumination in the plant to the work rate, are manipulated to maximize the productive work of the employee. Fitting the worker to the job (e.g., hiring better people) is a function of personnel psychology. By contrast, the engineering psychologist works with the job elements and designs the most productive environment for the worker hired.

Clinical Psychology 14. The strongest bond among Hispanic-American families is typically between: A parent and child B husband and wife C siblings D godparent and godchild

ANSWER "A" The strongest bond in Hispanic-American families is most often found between parent and child, and especially the mother-son and father-son relationships [See C. Falicov, Latino families in therapy, New York: Guilford, 1998].

Community Psychology 149. Among white males, the highest suicide rates are among those aged 75 and older. Among African-American males, the rates are highest for those: A 25 to 44. B 45 to 64. C 65 to 74. D 75 and above.

ANSWER "A" The suicide rates for whites and African-Americans have both increased in recent years. However, the highest rates for white males are among the elderly; for African-Americans, the highest rates are among those aged 25 to 44.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 135. Goal setting as a motivational technique is most effective when: A performance goals are difficult and specific feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal B performance goals are difficult and general feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal C performance goals are easy and specific feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal D performance goals are easy and general feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal

ANSWER "A" The technique of goal setting involves allowing workers to set their own performance goals, or setting performance goals for them that they accept. Research on goal-setting theory indicates that the technique is most effective when goals are at least moderately difficult and specific feedback regarding progress toward the goal is provided.

Neuropsychology 118. A patient suffers damage to the spinal cord severe enough to cause numbness and tingling. However, the spinal cord is not severed. The patient is most likely experiencing: A paresis. B hemiplegia. C quadriplegia. D paraplegia.

ANSWER "A" The term "paresis" means partial paralysis. Paresis can occur as a result of an injury to the spinal cord that does not result in its severation. If the spinal cord is severed, the result could be paraplegia (paralysis of the lower limbs), quadriplegia (paralysis of all four limbs), or hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body), depending on the location of the lesion. Note that the term paresis (or "general paresis") has been used to describe a syphilis-caused syndrome characterized by inflammation of cerebral tissue and mental and physical deterioration. However, the term's literal meaning is partial paralysis, and this is how it is often used as well.

Neuropsychology 66. ADHD is implicated in functioning in the A frontal lobe. B parietal lobe. C temporal lobe. D hypercortical lobe.

ANSWER "A" There is good reason to suspect that delayed or disturbed functioning in the frontal lobes may be involved with ADHD. Psychophysiological research in earlier decades has suggested underactivity in the frontal lobes of ADHD patients (Hastings and Barkley, 1978). More recently, numerous neuropsychological studies have shown deficits in performance by ADHD children on tests that were presumed to assess frontal lobe or executive functions, supporting frontal lobe involvement (Barley, 1997b; 1992).

Ethics and Professional Practice 179. The difference between the General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services and the Ethical Principles of Psychologists is that the former: A deals with delivery of services to consumers, and the latter with ethics in general. B deals with clinical practice, and the latter with ethics in general. C deals with consumers, and the latter with providers of psychological services. D is a case analysis of the latter.

ANSWER "A" This is a fundamental distinction. The Ethical Principles and Code of Conduct covers the actions and responsibilities of all APA members in teaching, research, clinical work, testing, private practice, administration, government, industry, etc. It's the basic standard of ethics for all of us. The General Guidelines, and the spin off known as Specialty Guidelines, apply only to those psychologists who work in clinical, counseling, school, and industrial psychology. Note that these guidelines apply to the work, not to the person. Hence a research social psychologist who finds herself working as the director of a mental health center now finds her work falling under the province of the General Guidelines. Now if you go back to the question you'll see why A is a better answer than B or C. The General Guidelines refer to all the work of applied psychology and this is subsumed best under alternative A. Choice B mentions only clinical practice, which is only part of what is covered by the Guidelines. And C mentions only consumers, which again isn't quite right: the General Guidelines deal also with agencies, private concerns in industrial areas, third-party payers such as insurance companies, etc.

Social Psychology 142. In a rape case, jurors highest in their "belief in a just world" are most likely to: A wonder what the rape victim was wearing. B assume the truth will come out. C want to punish the defendant most harshly. D try to be most fair in judging the defendant.

ANSWER "A" This may be a difficult item until one is clear about the "just world" concept. Those scoring high on the "belief in a just world" scale tend to blame the victim for crimes, out of a need to believe that bad crimes should not occur to good people. Thus, such individuals might wonder if a short skirt or make-up invited the crime. Otherwise, these people are not systematically more prejudiced, punitive, or fair in their judgments.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 159. According to Fiedler's contingency model, a task-oriented leader is most effective when A the task is very structured or very unstructured. B the task is moderately structured. C the employees are either very high or very low in ability. D the employees are moderate in terms of ability level.

ANSWER "A" To answer this question, you need to know that Fiedler referred to task-oriented leaders as "low-LPC" leaders and that he proposed that low-LPC leaders are most effective in very favorable and very unfavorable situations. The favorability of the situation is determined by several factors, including the structure of the task (but not the ability of the employees).

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 64. When undertaking token economies with seriously disturbed individuals in mental institutions, one of the major problems with the program's efficacy has to do with A generalization of behaviors. B choice of reinforcers. C exchange ratio. D reinforcement value.

ANSWER "A" Use of a token economy involves administering secondary reinforcers such as a token each time the person engages in a desired behavior, or taking away a reinforcer when a person engages in an undesired behavior. The tokens can then be exchanged for primary reinforcers such as food or desired activities. Token economies are commonly used in institutional settings. A problem with them is that behaviors learned often fail to generalize to the real world, since tokens are not available in the real world every time we do something right.

Neuropsychology 102. Following a stroke, a person cannot understand language. Although the person can speak clearly, his speech makes no sense. The person is most likely suffering from: A Wernicke's aphasia. B Broca's aphasia. C conduction aphasia. D global aphasia.

ANSWER "A" Wernicke's area, in the temporal lobe of the brain, is involved with language comprehension. Lesions in the temporal lobe may produce Wernicke's aphasia, which is associated with impaired comprehension of language, fluent aphasia (clear speech that makes little or no sense), and dysnomia (inability to name objects). Broca's aphasia, which may occur following lesions in the frontal lobe, is associated with nonfluent aphasia -- the person would not be able to speak clearly. In conduction aphasia, which is a lesion of the pathway between Wernicke's and Broca's area, the person can speak clearly and understand language but cannot repeat what he or she has heard.

Research Design and Statistics 160. A psychologist wants to study the effectiveness of a new treatment she developed to reduce self-mutilative behaviors in patients with Borderline Personality Disorder. She plans to use a single-subject design but, if effective, she does not want to withdraw the treatment due to the potential harm that could result. She should, therefore, use which of the following research designs: A ABAB B multiple baseline C reversal D latin square

ANSWER "B" A multiple baseline design is a single-subject design in which an independent variable is sequentially administered across two or more subjects, behaviors, or settings (i.e., across "baselines"). The multiple baseline design has the advantage of not having to withdraw the treatment once it has been applied to a baseline. Reversal designs, on the other hand, such as the ABA or ABAB designs have a second baseline (the second "A"), during which the treatment is withdrawn. The latin square design is not a single-subject design. Rather, it uses many subjects who are all administered all levels of an independent variable, but the order of administration varies between subjects or subgroups of subjects.

Clinical Psychology 131. An example of a paradoxical directive would be: A Telling an argumentative couple they must take turns telling the other what they appreciated about each other B Telling an argumentative couple that they must argue four hours a day C Arranging flowers in a vase D Recommending to an arguing couple that they take a second honeymoon

ANSWER "B" A paradoxical directive is an instruction to engage in the symptomatic behavior. The idea is to utilize the energy of resistance and use to help the couple make changes in their communication patterns.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 31. Which of the following is one of the first signs of AIDS-related dementia? A loss of abstract thinking functions B mild memory loss for recent events C seizures D apathy

ANSWER "B" AIDS dementia complex occurs in about 2/3 of all AIDS patients. Usually, one of the first cognitive signs of dementia (both in AIDS and non-AIDS patients) is a loss of concentration and a mild memory loss, especially for recent events.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 1. Significant evidence of retrograde and anterograde amnesia, restlessness, and fluent aphasia are most characteristic of which stage in Alzheimer's Dementia? A first B second C third D fourth

ANSWER "B" Alzheimer's Disease is often categorized into 3 stages. In Stage 1, which lasts 2-4 years, short-term memory loss begins. Patients in this stage frequently complain about forgetting where they placed things. In Stage 2, which lasts 2-10 years, there is further memory impairment (mostly explicit rather than implicit), resulting in retrograde and anterograde amnesia. During this intermediate stage, patients often exhibit restlessness, flat or labile mood, fluent aphasia, and begin having difficulty performing complex tasks, such as balancing a checkbook or going grocery shopping. They may get lost in familiar places and become apathetic. In the final stage -- Stage 3 -- which lasts 1-3 years, there is serious impairment in most areas. During Stage 3, they may lose the ability to speak and become unable to recognize family, friends, or even themselves. They lose all capacity to care for themselves and have difficulty walking, are incontinent, and are ultimately bedridden and often die of an opportunistic respiratory infection.

Test Construction 166. The item difficulty ("p") index yields information about the difficulty of test items in terms of a(n) _________ scale of measurement. A nominal B ordinal C interval D ratio

ANSWER "B" An item difficulty index indicates the percentage of individuals who answer a particular item correctly. For example, if an item has a difficulty index of .80, it means that 80% of test-takers answered the item correctly. Although it appears that the item difficulty index is a ratio scale of measurement, according to Anastasi (1982) it is actually an ordinal scale because it does not necessarily indicate equivalent differences in difficulty.

Test Construction 162. When looking at an item characteristic curve (ICC), which of the following provides information about how well the item discriminates between high and low achievers? A the Y-intercept B the slope of the curve C the position of the curve (left versus right) D the position of the curve (top versus bottom)

ANSWER "B" An item response curve provides one to three pieces of information about a test item - its difficulty (answer C); its ability to discriminate between high and low scorers (answer B); and the probability of answering the item correctly just by guessing (answer A).

Clinical Psychology 124. The development of depressive symptomology according to Beck's cognitive theory, a diathesis-stress model, proposes _____________ serves as the vulnerability. A a genetic predisposition B depressogenic schema C exposure to a negative event D a negative attributional style

ANSWER "B" B. Diathesis-stress models state that illness is the result of diathesis (vulnerability) combined with stress, with the nature of the vulnerability depending on the type of theory. Beck's theory of depression identifies the source of vulnerability as cognitive factors. His cognitive diathesis-stress model of depression suggests some people, when exposed to a negative life event (stress), are vulnerable to experiencing depression as they have depressogenic schemata (dysfunctional attitudes). A negative attributional style (d.) or types of attributions such as internal, stable, and global attributions are recognized as the diathesis in Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy's (1989) hopelessness model of depression .

Neuropsychology 129. Kluver-Bucy Syndrome is associated with damage to the: A hippocampus B amygdala C septum D thalamus

ANSWER "B" B. Kluver-Bucy Syndrome is associated with lesions in the amygdala and characterized by reduced fear and aggression, increased acquiescence, and hypersexuality. Damage to the amygdala, which normally attaches emotional significance to information received from the senses, can also produce a lack of emotional response to stimuli. You may have considered response "C" since the septum inhibits emotionality; however, animal research on this structure indicates lesions produce hyper-emotionality and vicious behavior, known as "septal-rage syndrome." The hippocampus is associated more with memory than emotion and the thalamus functions as the central relay for all sensory information to and from the cortex except olfaction. .

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 163. Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia is considered a more severe disorder than Panic Disorder without Agoraphobia and is associated with higher rates of comorbidity. A client receiving a primary diagnosis of Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia is least likely to receive a co-diagnosis for which of the following Anxiety Disorders: A Generalized Anxiety Disorder B Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder C Social Phobia D Specific Phobia

ANSWER "B" B. Of the Anxiety Disorders listed, PTSD has been found to have the lowest comorbidity with a primary diagnosis of Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia. (See: R. D. Goodwin et al., Generalizability and correlates of clinically derived panic subtypes in the population, Depression and Anxiety, 2002, 15, 69-74.) In contrast, GAD has been identified as the disorder most likely to co-occur with a primary diagnosis of Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia. In fact, some studies contend that Panic Disorder and GAD are not distinct disorders. (See: V. Starcevic et al., Co-morbidity rates do not support distinction between panic disorder and generalized anxiety, Psychopathology, 1994, 27, 269-272.) Social and Specific Phobia also co-exist at a fairly high rate with a primary diagnosis of Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia. .

Neuropsychology 119. Once exposed to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the process of converting from antibody negative to antibody positive is referred to as: A retroviral-conversion B seroconversion C seronegative D seropositive

ANSWER "B" B. Seroconversion describes the development of antibodies to a particular antigen, or the conversion from seronegative (HIV negative) to seropositive (HIV positive) as the result of the presence of antibodies. An individual who is infected may develop symptoms of acute HIV infection while still having a negative HIV antibody test because seroconversion often does not occur until several weeks after infection.

Ethics and Professional Practice 167. The APA's position on notification of partners of clients/patients with HIV/AIDS is consistent with its emphasis on: A duty to protect B confidentiality C informed consent D protection from civil or criminal liability

ANSWER "B" B. The American Psychological Association's position on partner notification is consistent with the emphasis on maintaining client confidentiality. Specifically, it recommends "a legal duty to protect third parties from HIV infection should not be imposed." In its statement, Legal Liability Related to confidentiality and the Prevention of HIV Transmission, the APA (1991) also addresses the possibility of such legislation passing and recommends disclosure should be permitted only when (1) there is a known identifiable third party at significant risk for infection; (2) the third party is unaware of the risk; (3) the client has been urged to tell the partner and has refused to do so; and (4) the psychologist is protected legally from civil or criminal liability for disclosing.

School Psychology/Intelligence 8. Psychodiagnostic tests such as the WAIS-III are commonly utilized to assist in the diagnosis of traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which of the following WAIS-III factor indices is most likely to be impacted by traumatic brain injury? A Perceptual Organization B Processing Speed C Verbal Comprehension D Working Memory

ANSWER "B" B. The Processing Speed score is most negatively impacted by traumatic brain injury, especially for individuals with moderate to severe TBI. The Working Memory (d.) score tends to be less adversely affected than the Processing Speed score and Perceptual Organization is less affected than Processing Speed or Working Memory. (See, e.g., D. Fisher et al., WAIS-III and WMS-III profiles of mildly to severely brain-injured patients, Applied Neuropsychology, 2000, 7(3), 126-132; and P. van der Heijden and J. Donders, WAIS-III factor index score patterns after traumatic brain injury, Assessment, 2003, 10(2), 115-122.) .

Ethics and Professional Practice 7. A father brings his 10-year-old son to a psychologist for therapy due to symptoms of depression. The father states that the boy's symptoms began shortly after the parents separated several months ago. The boy is currently living with his father. The father further states that he only wants help for his son and does not want any report or testimony from the psychologist for the divorce proceedings. The psychologist should: A have both parents sign an agreement that neither will require the psychologist to provide a report or testimony about the child's therapy B contact the parents' attorneys to clarify the psychologist's role C refuse to treat the child unless you can evaluate both parents D provide therapy for the child but do not maintain any records that could be subpoenaed

ANSWER "B" Ethical Standard 10.02(b) states, "If it becomes apparent that psychologists may be called on to perform potentially conflicting roles (such as family therapist and then witness for one party in divorce proceedings), psychologists take reasonable steps to clarify and modify, or withdraw from, roles appropriately." Although the patient's father has indicated that he does not want a report or testimony from the psychologist, it would be more prudent to clarify the psychologist's role with the attorneys of each of the parents. Having the parents sign an agreement as suggested in "A" does imply a clarification of the psychologist's role, but it may not be legally binding or in the child's best interests and is not as good a choice as "B." Choice "C" is incorrect because although it is necessary to evaluate all members of a family before making recommendations regarding child custody, in this case, it is therapy that is requested, not a custody evaluation. Finally, "D" is incorrect because psychologists must maintain adequate records.

Developmental Psychology 150. A baby whose mother used cocaine during pregnancy will most likely: A be unresponsive to noise and other stimuli B be difficult to comfort when upset C have minor cranial/facial abnormalities D be clingy and abnormally dependent

ANSWER "B" Exposure to cocaine during prenatal development often causes oversensitivity to stimulation, excessive irritability, and retarded growth. These babies are easily agitated and difficult to soothe.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 96. Which of the following aspects of the Type A behavior pattern, is, according to research, most strongly connected to increased risk for coronary heart disease? A job involvement B anger and hostility C need for achievement D impatience

ANSWER "B" Friedman and Rosenman (1974) described the Type A personality as someone who is competitive, achievement oriented, highly involved in his work, active, aggressive, and urgent about time and meeting deadlines. Originally, it was hypothesized that the Type A behavior pattern (TABP) increases the risk of coronary heart disease (CHD). However, recent research suggests that some but not all aspects of the TABP increase the risk of CHD. Specifically, hostility, aggression, and anger have been found to be the primary risk factors.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 12. During a grand mal seizure, the clonic phase involves A minor abrupt movements of the eyelids, facial muscles, and arms. B violent rhythmic contractions of the extremities. C extension of the extremities. D nonrhythmic jerks of the head, limbs, and trunk.

ANSWER "B" Grand mal seizures involve a tonic phase (extension of the limbs), which is then followed by a clonic phase (violent rhythmic contractions).

Research Design and Statistics 190. The correlation obtained between two tests supposedly measuring the same ability will be affected most by the: A time of day during which the tests are taken. B reliability of the tests used. C whether raw scores or standard scores are used as data. D ranges of abilities tested.

ANSWER "B" If a test's reliability is low, the scores obtained will not be accurate. You will get too much error. If you compare two tests with a lot of error in them, you will not get an accurate prediction of their relationship. Remember that low reliabilities of measures used on the predictor or on the criterion measures will restrict your obtained correlation.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 156. Which of the following is an example of an implicit memory? A recalling the first time you drove a car B knowing how to dress yourself C knowing the definition of implicit memory D recalling a time when someone implied that you had done something that you hadn't

ANSWER "B" Implicit memories are recalled without conscious effort or awareness. This is in contrast to explicit memories which are retrieved with conscious awareness. Implicit memories can generally be considered the same as procedural memories, which is about how to do things. Dressing oneself and driving a car are examples of implicit/procedural memories. These can be done automatically, without conscious thought. However, Choice A, "recalling the first time you drove a car" is an explicit, episodic, conscious memory and is different than simply "driving a car." Knowing the meaning of words (C) involves explicit, semantic memories.

Clinical Psychology 187. Rationalist, cognitive therapy is most likely to involve A relaxation training, systematic desensitization, and guided imagery. B cognitive restructuring, reducing automatic thoughts, and thought stopping. C a focus on unconscious and developmental processes. D stress inoculation training, self-instruction, and stimulus control.

ANSWER "B" In the literature, a distinction has been made between rationalist and constructivist cognitive therapies. Rationalist therapies are based on the assumptions that irrationality is the primary source of neurotic pathology, that explicit beliefs and logical reasoning can serve as a guide to emotion and behavior, and that the core process in effective therapy is the substitution of rational for irrational thought. The techniques described in choice B are all designed to increase rational thought processes and/or decrease irrational thinking; thus, they are most in line with the assumptions of rationalist cognitive therapy. As compared to rationalist therapy, constructivist cognitive therapy is based on more complex and abstract assumptions, in which unconscious, developmental, and interactional processes are emphasized. You might have been thrown off by the word "rationalist" in the question. If so, it would have been best to answer the question as if it were about cognitive therapy in general. The best answer would still be B.

Research Design and Statistics 113. You are investigating whether there is a relationship between the number of years one has been smoking cigarettes and the number of psychotherapy sessions required to quit smoking. The best statistical method to analyze the results is: A chi-square B Pearson r C t-test for independent samples D multiple regression analysis

ANSWER "B" In this case, you are attempting to assess the relationship between two variables that are measured on a continuous (interval or ratio) scale. The Pearson r allows you to do this. The Pearson r is the bivariate (i.e., for two variables) correlation coefficient used when variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale.

Neuropsychology 117. A person taking an MAO inhibitor must always avoid consuming all of the following, except: A beer and wine. B cottage cheese. C packaged soup. D aged cheese.

ANSWER "B" Individuals taking MAO inhibitors (a class of anti-depressants) must avoid foods that are high in the amino acid tyramine; otherwise, they may experience a life-threatening hypertensive reaction. Foods that these individuals must always avoid include beer and wine, aged cheese, beef or chicken liver, orange pulp, pickled or smoked meats, packaged soups, and yeast vitamin supplements. Cottage cheese is considered safe.

Developmental Psychology 42. If a man and a woman are each heterozygous for phenylketonuria (PKU), the probability that their next child will have PKU is: A 0% B 25% C 50% D 100%

ANSWER "B" Knowing that PKU is caused by two autosomal (i.e., not sex-linked) recessive genes would have helped you answer this question correctly. Because it is caused by recessive genes, a child would need to receive the PKU gene from both parents in order to develop the disease. Since both parents are heterozygous they each carry one dominant gene and one recessive gene for PKU, but do not have the disease themselves. Thus, the probability that the father will contribute the PKU gene is 50% and the probability that the mother will contribute the gene is also 50%. Fifty percent times 50% is 25% (0.5 x 0.5 = 0.25). People born with PKU lack the enzyme needed to digest the amino acid phenylalanine, which undigested causes severe brain damage. Most to all of the PKU symptoms can be prevented by early detection and adherence to a diet low in phenylalanine during the first 9 years of life.

Neuropsychology 177. Lesions in the prefrontal association cortex result in: A impaired spatial orientation and facial recognition B impaired "executive functions" C hallucinations, delusions, and mood disturbances D loss of depth perception and visual agnosia

ANSWER "B" Lesions in this area of the frontal lobe disrupt the control and regulation of cognition and planning. Impaired spatial orientation is associated with lesions in the parietal lobe. Damage to the temporal lobe may cause hallucinations, delusions, and mood disturbances. Loss of depth perception and visual agnosia is associated with damage to the occipital lobe which contains the visual cortex.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 152. A supervisee begins to unconsciously act toward her supervisor in similar ways as her own client acts towards her. This is an example of: A Projective identification B Parallel process C Transference D Identification.

ANSWER "B" Parallel process is a phenomenon in clinical supervision where the therapist in training behaves toward the supervising therapist in ways that mirror how the client is behaving toward the therapist in training.

Ethics and Professional Practice 47. A psychologist who is very fearful of getting sued decides for this reason that he will not treat any patients with a diagnosis of Borderline Personality Disorder. The psychologist's actions are: A unethical, assuming that the psychologist is competent to treat such patients. B ethical as long as appropriate referrals are provided. C ethical regardless of whether appropriate referrals are made. D unethical, because it is inappropriate to consider the possibility of getting sued in making any clinical or treatment decision.

ANSWER "B" Psychologists and other health professionals have no legal or ethical obligation to enter into a professional relationship. Though they cannot discriminate on the basis of race, gender, sexual orientation, or any basis proscribed by law, they can refuse to enter into a relationship based on a client's diagnosis -- even if they are competent to treat individuals with that diagnosis and even if their reasons for doing so are not valid. However, if they do refuse to take a case, psychologists are required to make appropriate referrals.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 54. Research shows that, of the following, the most accurate predictor of future violence on the part of a patient is A therapists' judgment. B past violent behavior. C psychological test results. D none of the above; no predictor has been found to yield an above chance level of accuracy.

ANSWER "B" Recent meta-analyses have confirmed that past behavior alone is a better predictor of future violence than clinical judgments. Past behavior is also a better predictor than test results, including multiple predictor batteries developed on the basis of discriminant analysis. Nonetheless, violence predictions that are made by mental health professionals are significantly more accurate than chance.

Clinical Psychology 55. Which of the following best describes the purpose of reframing in family therapy? A It is a paradoxical technique designed to harness the family's resistance in the service of positive behavioral change. B It is designed to increase the family's compliance with the therapist's directives and the treatment plan in general. C It is designed to restore the family's homeostasis, or "balance." D It is designed to increase the family's ability to differentiate intellectual from emotional functioning.

ANSWER "B" Reframing is a technique of family therapy, especially structural and strategic family therapy. It involves relabeling or redefining a problem behavior in order to get the family to see it in a new light. For example, a therapist might tell a family that a child who frequently "talks back" is expressing insecurity and the need for love, rather than anger and disrespect. The purpose of reframing is usually to increase the family's compliance with treatment. In the example given, reframing might increase the family members' willingness to make changes in their own behavior, rather than focusing only on the identified patient.

Ethics and Professional Practice 20. A woman seeks help from a psychologist in dealing with her 12-year-old daughter who has been misbehaving lately. The mother says that the daughter has not been listening to her and last week cursed at her mother. The mother reacted by slapping her daughter which left a bruise. The mother feels very remorseful about it and says that she has never done anything like that before. The psychologist should: A insist that the woman attend anger management classes B report the incident to a child protective services agency before the end of the session C monitor the situation and report any further abuse incidents to a child protective services agency D seek consultation

ANSWER "B" State laws require mandated reporters to report any reasonable suspicion of child abuse. Abuse generally includes, but is not limited to, physical injury that is inflicted upon a child by other than accidental means. The reporting laws do not provide exceptions for those who are remorseful or first-time offenders. Although the reporting laws do not require the reporter to inform the abuser of the report, or to involve him or her in making the report, it is often clinically useful to do so. Referral to anger management classes (A) might be appropriate, but the psychologist should not insist upon it and the psychologist must still meet the reporting requirements.

Developmental Psychology 87. Stranger anxiety is typically found in children aged: A 3 to 6 months B 12 to 24 months C 24 to 36 months D 36 to 48 months

ANSWER "B" Stranger anxiety first appears in infants between 8 and 10 months of age. The intensity of stranger anxiety typically peaks at about 18 months of age and then gradually declines during the end of the second year.

Ethics and Professional Practice 126. The California Tarasoff Statute: A Changed the Ethics Code in Canada and the United States B Extended the duty to warn clause C Was necessary as issues implicated by the Tarasoff case account for a majority of forensic cases D Applies to everyone working in a public setting

ANSWER "B" The California Tarasoff statute gives clinicians explicit guidance about when a duty to act arises and tells clinicians what actions fulfill their duty. The first Tarasoff decision established a "duty to warn," however, the case was reheard several years later and the Tarasoff II decision modified the duty to warn to a "duty to protect." Choice C contradicts the conclusion by Behnke, Preis and Bates in "The Essentials of California Mental Health Law" Norton and Company, 1998, pg. 9 in which they state, "issues implicated by the Tarasoff case and its legal progeny account for a small percentage of forensic cases." .

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 145. Which of the following is not a proposed axis for further study according to the DSM-IV-TR? A Social and Occupational Functioning Assessment Scale B Sickness Impact Profile C Defensive Functioning Scale D Global Assessment of Relational Functioning Scale

ANSWER "B" The Sickness Impact Profile (SIP) is a quality of life measure used to assess the impact of disease on both physical and emotional functioning. The self, or interviewer, administered items address activities of daily living with the score indicating the level of dysfunction. The higher the score, the greater the level of dysfunction. The Social and Occupational Functioning Assessment Scale, or SOFAS, focuses exclusively on an individual's level of social and occupational functioning, typically the functioning for the current time period. The Defensive Functioning Scale, or DFS, reflects the defenses or coping styles exhibited by an individual at the time of evaluation. The Global Assessment of Relational Functioning Scale, or GARFS, uses a hypothetical continuum, ranging from optimal to dysfunctional, to rate the overall functioning of a family or relationship. It is similar to the DSM-IV Axis V - Global Assessment of Functioning Scale.

Ethics and Professional Practice 186. You belong to a managed-care panel and a client with a 12-session limit was referred to you. Without calling to cancel, she does not show up for her fourth session. How would you bill for the missed session? A bill the insurance company B bill the client according to office policies C bill the client for the co-payment and the insurance company for the no-show D you cannot bill either the client or insurance company

ANSWER "B" The best answer is that you should bill according to your office policies which, presumably, was explained and agreed to by the client at the beginning of treatment (Standard 6.04: Fees and Financial Arrangements). If charging the client for the missed session was not agreed upon in advance, this would be unethical (which response "D" suggests). Responses "A" and "D" are correct in stating that you cannot bill the insurance company, since you should only bill insurance for services that you actually provide (Standard 6.06: Accuracy in Reports to Payors and Funding Sources). While your financial agreement may or may not require the client to cover the co-payment for missed sessions (response "C"), Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes do not provide a code for no-shows, and billing for services not rendered is unethical.

Developmental Psychology 52. For children of divorce, frequent visitation with the noncustodial father usually results in: A fewer behavioral problems among boys but not girls and higher academic achievement among girls but not boys B fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement if the noncustodial father is supportive and authoritative C fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement regardless of the characteristics of the noncustodial father D fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement regardless of the parent's level of conflict

ANSWER "B" The effects of visitation on children's adjustment following divorce are dependent upon several factors, including the quality of the relationship between the divorced parents and certain attributes and behaviors of the noncustodial parent. Specifically, frequent visitation with the noncustodial father has been found to result in fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement, especially in boys, when the father was supportive, authoritative, and lacked any significant problems in adjustment, and when the child was not exposed to high levels of conflict between the parents [See: E. M. Hetherington, An overview of the Virginia Longitudinal Study of Divorce and Remarriage with a focus on early adolescence, Journal of Family Psychology,7(1), 1993, 39-56].

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 51. One of the highest correlations with smoking cessation outcome is related to A gender. B level of dependence. C age. D duration of smoking.

ANSWER "B" The greater the level of dependence on nicotine, the harder it is to stop smoking (American Psychiatric Association, Practice Guidelines for the Treatment of Nicotine Dependence, Washington, DC, 1996). In terms of gender (answer A), and age (answer C), females and males and older and younger adults generally do equally well in treatment. The duration of smoking is not really a factor; it is far more critical to determine the amount of smoking in order to determine dependence.

Research Design and Statistics 130. If you wanted to compare the average depression level (as measured by the number of scored responses given on a depression inventory) of anorexic females to that of non-anorexic females, you would use which of the following statistical tests? A two-way ANOVA B student's t-test C chi-square D Kolmogorov

ANSWER "B" The t-test (which is also known as student's t-test) is the appropriate statistical test to use when comparing two means. A two-way ANOVA (A) would be used to compare means from a study with two independent variables; in this case, there is only one independent variable (diagnosis) with two levels (anorexic vs. non-anorexic). A chi-square (C) test is used when the data from a study is frequency of observations within categories, as opposed to (as in this case) mean scores of groups. Finally, the Kolmogorov, an infrequently used test, is used with ordinal data (e.g., ranks).

Social Psychology 13. When the local public library removes a book from its shelves because of the book's shocking sexual content, sales of the book in the local bookstores rise sharply. This is an example of A the rebound phenomenon. B reactance. C reaction formation. D reactivity.

ANSWER "B" The tendency to react in a way that is opposite of what is requested or desired is referred to as psychological reactance. Reactance is most likely to occur when the individual feels that his/her personal freedom is being restricted, which would probably be the case in the situation described in the question.

Neuropsychology 123. A patient with right hemisphere damage is most likely to respond to jokes with which of the following reactions? A indifference B indifference or exaggerated jocularity C frustration and irritation D rage

ANSWER "B" The two hemispheres appear to have different functions in terms of emotions - the left hemisphere governs positive emotions, while the right hemisphere governs negative ones. Consequently, damage to the right hemisphere can produce apathy or undue cheerfulness, which may be reflected in the individual's response to humor.

Test Construction 69. Which of the following statements is not true regarding concurrent validity? A It is used to establish criterion-related validity. B It is appropriate for tests designed to assess a person's future status on a criterion. C It is obtained by collecting predictor and criterion scores at about the same time. D It indicates the extent to which a test yields the same results as other measures of the same phenomenon.

ANSWER "B" There are two ways to establish the criterion-related validity of a test: concurrent validation and predictive validation. In concurrent validation, predictor and criterion scores are collected at about the same time; by contrast, in predictive validation, predictor scores are collected first and criterion data are collected at some future point. Concurrent validity indicates the extent to which a test yields the same results as other measures of the same phenomenon. For example, if you developed a new test for depression, you might administer it along with the BDI and measure the concurrent validity of the two tests.

Clinical Psychology 191. Which of the following statements is most consistent with Troiden's (1989) model of gay and lesbian identity development? A Identity confusion and identity assumption begin somewhat earlier for females than males, but identity commitment begins earlier for males than females. B Identity confusion, identity assumption, and identity commitment begin somewhat earlier for males than females. C Identity confusion, identity assumption, and identity commitment begin somewhat earlier for females than males. D There are no gender differences in the age of onset for homosexual identity development.

ANSWER "B" Troiden's (1989) model of homosexual identity development describes four stages: Sensitization, identity confusion, identity assumption, and identity commitment. Sensitization begins before puberty and consists of homosexual feelings or experiences without an understanding of them in terms of self-identity. Identity confusion, which usually develops in adolescent males around 17 years and in females around 18 when they realize that they may be homosexual. During identity assumption, the individual comes out as a homosexual - typically from 19-21 years for males and 21-23 for females. Identity commitment is characterized by the individual adopting a homosexual lifestyle - which usually occurs from 21-24 years for males and 22-23 for females [The formation of homosexual identities, Journal of Homosexuality, 17(1/2), 43-73].

Developmental Psychology 122. Vygotsky's work has most influenced which of the following teaching strategies? A computer-adaptive testing B reciprocal teaching C Montessori method D cognitive constructivism

ANSWER "B" Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development emphasized the role of social and cultural factors. He believed that learning occurs best through social interaction. His approach has influenced a teaching method known as "reciprocal teaching" in which the teacher and students take turns leading a dialogue. This approach encourages students to stretch beyond the role of simply answering questions. Computer-adaptive testing (A) refers to a computer-administered exam which adapts the level of difficulty of subsequent test items based on the examinee's performance on previous items. The Montessori method (C) emphasizes "hands-on" learning and has been criticized for lacking enough cooperative learning and small-group opportunities. Cognitive constructivism (D) is based on Piaget's work which proposed that humans construct knowledge through their experiences with the world. Vygotsky's approach is similar to Piaget's, but because of his emphasis on the social context of learning, Vygotsky's theory is classified as social constructivism.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 76. Slot machines provide reinforcement on a(n) ________ schedule. A variable interval B variable ratio C fixed interval D fixed ratio

ANSWER "B" When playing the slot machines, reinforcement depends on the number of times you play, with that number varying from reinforcement to reinforcement. Sometimes you "win" after 8 plays, sometimes after 12, and so on. This is a variable ratio schedule.

Ethics and Professional Practice 101. Which of the following client's rights are protected in a court of law? A A second opinion B Tarasoff C Right of confidentiality D Right to receive medication.

ANSWER "C" A client's right to confidentiality is protected by a court of law. The client's right to keep his/her matters confidential is referred to as privilege. The court also determines exceptions to privilege, such as the Tarasoff Statute.

Ethics and Professional Practice 165. According to APA's Record Keeping Guidelines, client records: A may not be maintained in electronic media B may not be exclusively maintained in electronic media C may be maintained in a variety of media D may be maintained in electronic media if write-protected software is used which prevents changes from being made after initial data storage.

ANSWER "C" According to APA's Record Keeping Guidelines, client "records may be maintained in a variety of media, so long as their utility, confidentiality and durability are assured" (1993, 48 (9), 984-986).

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 181. Which of the following statements regarding children with Oppositional Defiant Disorder is most true? A Symptoms of the disorder are usually present in all settings and with all people. B Symptoms of the disorder are more likely to be present when the child is with people he or she doesn't know very well than when the child is around familiar people. C Symptoms of the disorder are more likely to be present when the child is around familiar people than when the child is with people he or she doesn't know that well. D The disorder is characterized by unexpected and unpredictable symptoms, so, although symptoms of the disorder occur infrequently, they are just as likely to occur with familiar people as with strangers.

ANSWER "C" According to DSM-IV, manifestations of Oppositional Defiant Disorder are almost invariably present in the home setting and in interactions with adults or peers whom the individual knows well. They may not be apparent in school or community settings or in interactions with people the individual does not know that well. For this reason, symptoms of the disorder are often not present during the initial clinical examination.

Social Psychology 15. A tour guide is likely to get the smallest tip from a tour group when the group is large and the tourists contribute to a group tip. This is predicted by: A social inhibition theory B social comparison theory C social loafing theory D social exchange theory

ANSWER "C" According to social loafing theory, people "loaf" (don't do their share) when they are participating in a large group and when their contribution, or lack of contribution, will not be detected.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 198. A diagnosis of Mental Retardation requires the person to have subaverage intelligence and: A an I.Q. score of 55 or below B two or more Learning Disorders C onset before age 18 D clinically significant deficits in social skills

ANSWER "C" According to the DSM-IV-TR, the three criteria for a diagnosis of Mental Retardation are (1) significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning (an IQ score of70 or less), (2) deficits in at least two areas of adaptive functioning, and (3) onset before age 18. A person with MR could also be diagnosed with one or more Learning Disorders (B) (if the specific deficit is out of proportion to the severity of the MR), but this is not required for a MR diagnosis. Deficits in social skills (D) may be present, but this is only one of several possible deficits in adaptive functioning.

Ethics and Professional Practice 94. You conduct a psychological assessment on a patient and then refer the patient to another psychologist. The new psychologist doesn't understand your assessment and offers to pay you for consultation concerning the assessment. The proposed arrangement is A unethical, because it represents a payment for a referral. B unethical, because it represents a dual relationship. C ethical, as long as the payment is not for the referral. D ethical, because the current version of the APA's ethical standards permits payment for referrals.

ANSWER "C" According to the ethical standards, a referring psychologist can receive payment from the new psychologist, as long as the payment is "based on the services (clinical, consultative, administrative, or other) provided and is not based on the referral itself." In this situation, it appears that the new psychologist is paying for legitimate consultative services, rather than providing you with a "kickback." Therefore, the arrangement appears to be ethical.

Neuropsychology 107. The neurotransmitter associated with Alzheimer's Dementia is A serotonin. B dopamine. C acetylcholine. D epineprine.

ANSWER "C" Acetylcholine and L-glutamate are two neurotransmitters that have been linked to Alzheimer's Disease.

Clinical Psychology 193. African-American families use an authority structure that can be best characterized as: A matriarchal B patriarchal C egalitarian D too diverse to generalize

ANSWER "C" Although African-American families were previously believed to most often have a matriarchal authority structure, more recent authors have concluded that they are typically egalitarian. That is, the husband and wife equally share authority in the family.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 56. The parents of a child with Mental Retardation are most likely to say that, during infancy, one of the earliest signs that something "was wrong" was A the child's failure to cuddle. B the child's lack of eye contact. C the child's lack of interest in the environment. D the persistence of primitive reflexes.

ANSWER "C" Answers A and B are more characteristic of Autistic Disorder, and answer D is more likely in cerebral palsy or other serious motor disorder. Lack of age-appropriate interest in the environment is one of the earliest signs of retardation.

Neuropsychology 143. The earliest symptoms of Huntington's Disease are usually: A memory impairments. B mild motor disturbances (e.g., mild tremor, incoordination). C affective changes (e.g., irritability or depression). D confusion and disorientation.

ANSWER "C" Because the early signs of Huntington's Disease often involve changes in affect, in the early stages, it may be erroneously diagnosed as a depression or other mental disorder.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 71. The presence of which of the following suggests the diagnosis is Acute Stress Disorder rather than Posttraumatic Stress Disorder? A response to the traumatic stressor involved intense fear, helplessness, or horror B a sense of reliving or reexperiencing the traumatic stressor C dissociative symptoms occur during or immediately following a traumatic stressor D increased symptoms of anxiety, poor concentration and irritability

ANSWER "C" C. Acute Stress Disorder, is by definition, only appropriate when the duration of symptoms last at least two days and occur within one month of the extreme stressor or traumatic event. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder requires symptoms to persist for more than a month so this diagnosis cannot be made within the initial month following the traumatic stressor.

Developmental Psychology 185. Self-conscious emotions like pride, shame or embarrassment begin to be exhibited by children between the ages of: A 3-9 months B 6-12 months C 18-24 months D 30-36 months

ANSWER "C" C. Between 18 and 24 months, the sense of self emerges and children begin expressing self-conscious emotions. The emergence of self-conscious emotions is a predictable milestone in the sequence of stages during emotional development. (See: L. Berk, Development Through the Lifespan, Boston, Allyn & Bacon, 2004.) .

Neuropsychology 110. Hypoglycemia may be a primary condition, a complication of another disorder or a consequence of certain drugs. Hypoglycemia is the result of: A dehydration B excessive salt intake C low levels of blood glucose D high levels of blood glucose

ANSWER "C" C. Hypoglycemia is an abnormally low level of blood glucose (sugar) that reduces the brain's ability to function properly. Symptoms include headache, dizziness, sweating, impaired concentration, confusion, clumsy or jerky movements, weakness, and, in extreme cases, convulsions or a loss of consciousness. Hypoglycemia may be a complication of diabetes, severe liver disease, insulinoma (a pancreatic tumor that produces insulin), or other disorder or a consequence of using certain drugs. Dehydration (a.), or too little water, has symptoms such as thirst, fatigue, irritability, muscle weakness or cramps, headache, dizziness, nausea, forgetfulness, confusion, and, in severe cases, diminished consciousness, lowered blood pressure, and a rapid, feeble pulse. High blood pressure may result from excessive salt intake (b.).

Clinical Psychology 164. A Caucasian comes to a stage where he does not want to have racist views. According to Helms, which stage of identity development is this person in? A Reintegration B Pseudo-independence C Immersion-Emersion D Autonomy

ANSWER "C" C. Janet Helms (1984) originally developed her White and People of Color Racial Identity Model to try and help resolve interracial tension in cross cultural psychotherapy. She developed a white racial identity model that reflects abandonment of racism and the development of a nonracist white identity. At the Immersion-Emersion level of identity development, people embrace their whiteness without rejecting members of minority groups and attempt to determine how they can feel proud of their own race without being racist. In "A" Reintegration, people resolve their conflicts by adopting the position that whites are superior. In Pseudo-Independence, "B", people become dissatisfied with reintegration and re-examine their beliefs about racial inequalities. In "D", Autonomy, Whites internalize a nonracist white identity and seek out cross-racial interactions.

School Psychology/Intelligence 192. Componential, experiential, and practical are the three aspects of which intelligence model? A Gardner B Cattell and Horn C Sternberg D Perkins

ANSWER "C" C. Robert Sternberg's triarchic model of intelligence consists of three interacting components: the componential, or analytical, aspect includes the methods used to process and analyze information; the experiential, or creative, aspect refers to how unfamiliar circumstances and tasks are dealt with; and the practical, or contextual, component refers to how people respond to their environment. (Beyond IQ, New York, Cambridge University Press, 1985). Howard Gardner (a.) developed the theory of multiple intelligences which currently lists eight intelligences: linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical intelligence, bodily-kinesthetic, spatial, interpersonal, intrapersonal and naturalist. (See: Gardner, Howard (1983; 1993) Frames of Mind: The theory of multiple intelligences, New York: Basic Books.) Raymond Cattell and John Horn (b.) identified the dimensions fluid intelligence, crystallized intelligence, and visual-spatial reasoning. David Perkins identified three dimensions to intelligence: the neural, the experiential, and the reflective that are considered contrasting causal factors that all contribute to intelligence. (See: Perkins, David. Outsmarting IQ: The Emerging Science of Learnable Intelligence. Free Press. 1995.).

Community Psychology 121. According to Rollins and Feldman, marital satisfaction across the lifespan: A follows a linear pattern of gradually increasing satisfaction over time B follows a linear pattern of gradually decreasing satisfaction over time C follows a U-shaped pattern of gradually decreasing satisfaction over the first decade then gradually increasing over time. D does not follow a consistent pattern of satisfaction over time.

ANSWER "C" C. Rollins and Feldman (1970) found marital satisfaction tends to be greatest at the beginning and at the end of the family life cycle, in other words, a U-shaped relationship between length of marriage and satisfaction. The arrival of children or adolescents in the family was associated with increased dissatisfaction, but children leaving home and being of retirement age were associated with increased satisfaction. However, more recent evidence suggests that, on average, marital satisfaction may not follow a U-shaped pattern but instead decreases markedly over the first ten years and then drops more gradually over time (See: Glenn, N. D. (1998). The course of marital success and failure in five American 10-year marriage cohorts. Journal of Marriage and the Family, 60, 569-576. Vaillant, C. O., & Vaillant, G. E. (1993). Is the U-curve of marital satisfaction an illusion? A 40-year study of marriage. Journal of Marriage and the Family, 55, 230-239.) .

Research Design and Statistics 37. While studying the use of journaling in the treatment of depression, a researcher finds only individuals with good writing ability benefit from journaling. Writing ability is a(n): A outcome variable B mediating variable C moderator variable D feedback variable

ANSWER "C" C. The strength of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables is affected by a moderator variable. Writing ability is moderating the effects of journaling on the treatment of depression. Outcome variable (a.) is another term for dependent variable. A mediating variable (c.) is affected by the independent variable and affects the dependent. It is responsible for an observed relationship between an independent variable and a dependent (outcome) variable. A feedback variable (d.) is an unrelated term.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 33. By the time an individual diagnosed with __________________ reaches middle age, particularly the fourth decade of life, the symptoms often become less evident or remit to no longer meeting all the diagnostic criteria. A Histrionic Personality Disorder B Avoidant Personality Disorder C Antisocial Personality Disorder D Schizotypal Personality Disorder

ANSWER "C" C. The symptoms of Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD), particularly criminal behaviors, often become less evident as an individual grows older (DSM-TR-IV, p. 704). APD has a chronic course and while some symptoms like criminal behaviors may decrease, other symptoms such as difficulties with interpersonal relationships may persist. (See: Paris, J. (2004). Personality disorders over time: Implications for therapy, American Journal of Psychotherapy, 58(4), 420-429.).

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 16. Employees are provided with a training program designed to improve the quality of their work. At the conclusion of the training program a supervisor administers a test to the employees. Three months later the same supervisor evaluates the employees on their job performance and correlates the two scores. The correlation between the scores is 0.70. The results are most likely biased due to: A a contrast effect B a restricted range of scores C criterion contamination D demand characteristics

ANSWER "C" Criterion contamination occurs when a rater knows how a ratee did on a predictor test, and this knowledge affects the rating. For example, if an employee obtained a very high score on the post-training test and the supervisor knows this, the supervisor's ratings of the employee's on-the-job performance might be biased upward. To prevent criterion contamination, the rater should have no knowledge of the ratees' predictor scores. Contrast effect (A) refers to the tendency to give ratings on the basis of comparisons to other ratees. There is no indication that there is a restricted range of scores (B), and if there was, that would reduce the correlation between the predictor and criterion scores. Demand characteristics (D) are cues in the environment that inform research participants what behaviors are expected of them.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 35. Which of the following is NOT true regarding patients with Parkinson's Disease? A Forty percent have comorbid depression. B There is little correlation between their depression and the extent of motor impairment, age, or duration of PD symptoms. C They have elevated levels of dopamine. D Depression precedes the onset of Parkinson's symptoms in about 20% of patients.

ANSWER "C" Depression is the most common neuropsychiatric problem associated with Parkinson's Disease. A review of the literature concluded that 40% of Parkinson's patients have comorbid depression (about half have Major Depressive Disorder and the other half have Dysthymic Disorder). And in 20% of these patients, the depressive symptoms preceded the onset of motor impairments (characteristic of Parkinson's Disease) by an average of five years. Contrary to what might be expected, their depression did not appear to be correlated with the extent of motor impairment, age, or duration of Parkinson symptoms. One consistent finding in Parkinson's Disease patients is a low level of dopamine. Recent research has found that they have reduced levels of serotonin as well, which is probably related to the increased incidence of depression [Lieberman, N. Depression in Parkinson's Disease. Retrieved February 2003, from http://www.parkinson.org/depression.htm ].

Developmental Psychology 137. When a pregnant woman drinks moderate amounts of alcohol during pregnancy, the child may exhibit "fetal alcohol effects." In comparison to the full-scale fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS), fetal alcohol effects A are less severe than those associated with FAS and, for the most part, are reversible. B are less severe than those associated with FAS and are largely reversible following birth as long as the child is provided with adequate nutrition and an enriched environment. C are less severe than those associated with FAS but are also largely irreversible. D involve minor physical defects and behavioral problems without the cognitive impairments and more severe physical problems associated with FAS.

ANSWER "C" Different authors define fetal alcohol effects differently. All seem to agree that fetal alcohol effects are less severe than the symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome, but are also largely irreversible. Some describe fetal alcohol effects as involving cognitive and behavioral symptoms but not the physical defects (e.g., facial abnormalities and growth retardation) that the full-scale syndrome involves.

Clinical Psychology 25. The use of the technique known as self-instruction with hyperactive children involves A programmed learning. B having the children write down their daily goals in advance. C having the children make self-statements. D having the children do the their schoolwork by themselves.

ANSWER "C" Donald Meichenbaum developed the technique of self-instruction as a means of helping impulsive and hyperactive children to perform tasks more successfully. The technique involves teaching the subject to make appropriate self-statements while performing a desired task.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 44. Meta-analyses on gender differences in leadership have found that female leaders are: A more effective than male leaders overall B less effective than male leaders overall C equally effective as male leaders overall D more effective than male leaders in first-level management positions, but males are more effective in middle management positions

ANSWER "C" Eagly and colleagues conducted a series of meta-analyses on the effects of gender on leadership. They found that overall, male and female leaders are equally effective. However, certain gender differences in leadership were found to exist. For example, female leaders were more effective when the leadership role was defined as "feminine" and males were more effective when the role was defined as "masculine." Contrary to D, males were found to be more effective in first-level management positions and females were more effective in middle management positions. One interpretation of this finding is that lower-level management requires more technical skills, whereas middle-level management requires more human relations skills [A. Eagly, S. Karau, M. Makhijani, Gender and the effectiveness of leaders: A meta-analysis, Psychological Bulletin, 117(1), 1995, 125-145].

Neuropsychology 85. Decreased amounts of GABA are most associated with: A depression B eating disorders C Huntington's Disease D Raynaud's Disease

ANSWER "C" Gamma Amino Butyric Acid (GABA) is the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Low levels of GABA have been linked to several disorders, including Huntington's Disease, Parkinson's Disease, and anxiety disorders.

Clinical Psychology 75. Research suggests that, generally speaking, individuals who migrate to the United States from another country would be most likely to experience symptoms of psychiatric disorders: A immediately before they migrate to the United States. B immediately after they arrive in the United States. C about one or two years after they arrive in the United States. D five years or more after they arrive in the United States.

ANSWER "C" In general, psychiatric disorders among immigrants and refugees are most frequent somewhere between the end of the first year through the third year after they immigrate to this country. This observation is related to what has been termed the "social displacement syndrome." This is the tendency of immigrants to initially experience elation and optimism, followed by a period of frustration, depression, and confusion as the reality of the adjustments required by their new lives sets in.

Ethics and Professional Practice 106. A researcher working in an institutionalized setting wishes to do some research with moderately mentally retarded patients. The researcher has obtained the approval of the institution's research review committee. Before beginning the research, she should also A obtain informed consent from the patients' legal guardians. B obtain informed consent from the patients' legal guardians and the participants. C obtain informed consent from the patients' legal guardians and assent from the participants. D not worry about obtaining consent from the participants or their guardians, since she has already obtained the institution's permission.

ANSWER "C" In the context of research, the term "informed consent" implies agreement to participate from a person who has been informed of all relevant information and is competent enough to understand that information. With few exceptions (e.g., where deception is necessary and permissible), the Ethical Principles require researchers to obtain informed consent from all participants who are capable of giving it. If the potential participant is not competent to give informed consent, the Ethics require that informed consent be obtained from his or her legal guardian. In addition, when the potential participant is not competent to give informed consent, the research must be explained to the potential participant in language that he or she can understand, and his or her consent must be obtained.

Ethics and Professional Practice 169. Your new patient is a 20-year-old gang member who informs you that he has killed a couple of people in the past and that he will probably kill others in the future. He states that he has no intentions of leaving the gang but wants help dealing with his cocaine addiction. You should: A notify the police of the patient's previous murders B notify the police of the patient's danger to others C provide the patient with substance abuse treatment D refuse to provide treatment for this patient unless he agrees to leave the gang

ANSWER "C" Many states have laws based on Tarasoff that require psychologists to warn or protect a potential victim from serious harm when there is an imminent threat to an identifiable victim. However, this question does not indicate an imminent threat nor an identifiable victim; therefore, confidentiality should be maintained. The Ethics Code similarly permits a breach of confidentiality without client consent in order to protect others from harm, but without an identifiable victim such a breach would not serve to protect others and would be inappropriate. The best option would be to provide the treatment requested (C). Refusing to provide treatment for this patient unless he leaves the gang (D) would be a clinical option, but would probably be ineffective at this stage because he has stated that he has no intentions of leaving the gang. Besides, engaging the patient in treatment for his substance abuse might later lead him to want to leave the gang.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 28. Personal reality and common reality were defined by: A Ginzberg's Stages of Career Development B Super's Career and Life Development C Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman's Decision Making Model D Gottfredson's Theory of Career Development

ANSWER "C" Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman defined personal authoritative reality as what feels right to the individual and common reality as what the individual is told they should do. This was an expansion on Tiedeman and O'Hare's Decision Making Model. The other responses also represent stage theories of career choice. Ginzberg's theory contains three periods (fantasy, tentative, and realistic) with sub-stages corresponding to ages preteen through the early 20's. (See: Ginzberg, E., Ginzberg, S.W., Axelrad, S., & Herman, J.L. (1951). Occupational Choice: an approach to a general theory. New York: Columbia University Press; Ginzberg, E. (1972). Toward a theory of occupational choice: A restatement. Vocational Guidance Quarterly, 20, 169-176.) Super's stages continue across the life-span. In Gottfredson's theory, there are four stages of cognitive development: orientation to size and power; orientation to sex roles; influence of social class; introspection and perceptiveness. The first stage typically begins around age 3 and the last in mid-adolescence. The theory addresses how gender and prestige influence and limit career choice. (See: Gottfredson, L.S. (1981). Circumscription and compromise: A developmental theory of occupational aspirations. Journal of Counseling Psychology, 28, 545-579.) .

Developmental Psychology 108. Studies on gender differences in physical development suggest that, until about age _____, girls should be able to compete effectively with boys in baseball and other sports. A 7 B 10 C 12 D 15

ANSWER "C" Most physical differences between boys and girls do not become prominent until puberty. Before puberty, boys and girls are about equal, for instance, in terms of speed and strength, implying that they should do about equally well in many sports.

Clinical Psychology 196. Research on the impact of therapist experience on therapy outcome suggests that A there is a strong positive relationship between experience and outcome. B there is a moderate relationship between experience and outcome, with the relationship being strongest when the client's symptoms are mild to moderate. C there is a moderate relationship between experience and outcome, with the relationship being strongest when the client's symptoms are severe. D there is, contrary to what might be expected, no predictable relationship between experience and outcome.

ANSWER "C" Most research studies report a moderate relationship between a therapist's experience and the outcomes of therapy for the client overall, but a somewhat stronger relationship when the client's symptoms are severe. This makes sense: Experience would seem to be more important for very troubled clients. See A. Roth and P. Fanagy, What Works for Whom? A Critical Review of the Psychotherapy Research, New York, Guilford Press, 1996. Note that in the Clincal Psychology section, we report that there is little relationship between therapist experience and outcome. This finding is based on older research, and you should use the newer information included in this explanation.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 171. A young child is brought in by his parents because he is having difficulty sleeping through the night. He wakes up frequently, crying that "the big monster" is chasing him. The preliminary diagnosis is: A primary insomnia B sleep terror disorder C nightmare disorder D sleepwalking disorder

ANSWER "C" Nightmare disorder is marked by repeated awakenings accompanied by detailed recollection of frightening dreams. According to DSM-IV-TR, the dream content commonly focuses on imminent physical danger to the person such as pursuit, attack, or injury. Sleep terror disorder (response "B") involves episodes of abrupt awakening, usually with a panicky scream; however, a dream is not recalled.

Developmental Psychology 120. According to Piaget, a child in the autonomous stage of development believes that A rules are absolute B rules are useless C rules are arbitrary and alterable D punishment should be based on the damage caused by a behavior

ANSWER "C" Piaget distinguished two stages of moral development: heteronomous and autonomous. Heteronomous morality is characteristic of children 4-7 years old. The heteronomous child views rules as absolute (Choice "A") and unchangeable and believes that punishment should fit the consequences of the behavior (regardless of the intentions of the actor) (Choice "D"). By age 7 or 8 children begin to exhibit autonomous morality, in which they realize that rules are determined, and agreed to, by individuals and are, therefore, alterable. They also consider the intention of the actor to be most important in determining punishment.

Developmental Psychology 105. According to Piaget, the concrete operations stage occurs during: A 2 to 5 years B 5 to 7 years C 7 to 11 years D 11 to 16 years

ANSWER "C" Piaget proposed that cognitive abilities develop in a fixed sequence of four stages: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. The sensorimotor stage (birth to 2 years) is characterized by learning through sensory information and the development of object permanence. The preoperational stage (2 to 7 years) is marked by a tremendous increase in symbolic thought and language. Concrete operational stage (7 to 11 years), which is predominant during the elementary school years, is marked by the development of reversibility and decentration which enables conservation. Finally, the formal operational stage (11 to 16 years), begins in early adolescence and is characterized by the ability to abstract, which enables hypothetical-deductive reasoning.

Clinical Psychology 27. According to Prochaska and DiClemente's Stages of Change Model, which stage best applies to a man who is aware of his drinking problem, recognizes the benefits of getting sober, and plans to quit drinking on his birthday in three months? A Minimization B Precontemplation C Contemplation D Preparation

ANSWER "C" Prochaska and DiClemente described five Stages of Change in their model - which applies to many types of behaviors - not just substance abuse. The first stage is "Precontemplation," characterized by denial, resistance, and no plans to change. In the second stage, "Contemplation," a person begins to recognize the benefits of change and, although somewhat ambivalent, plans to change within the next 6 months. This best describes the person in this question. In the third stage, "Preparation," a person has decided to take action within the next 30 days and may have already begun to take small steps towards change. In the next stage, "Action," the person is actively engaged in making changes or acquiring new behaviors. The final stage is the "Maintenance" stage, in which the person has maintained action for at least 6 months and is actively working to prevent a relapse.

Clinical Psychology 67. In psychoanalytic practice, transference is: A counteracted through direct interpretation of its use as a resistance. B discouraged as an interference with the treatment process. C a sign that treatment is having an effect and discussed as the patient is made conscious of it. D actively encouraged through direct confrontations regarding the patient's thoughts and feelings toward the therapist.

ANSWER "C" Psychoanalysis as a treatment rests on the work of interpreting transference and resistance. The goal is to replace the acting-out neurosis with the transference neurosis, so that the patient can be made to see his or her conflicts as they are exemplified by his or her reactions in the analytic situation. In fact, the transference neurosis is something the therapist attempts to engender by remaining neutral and letting the patient project his or her feelings toward past significant others onto the therapist. Thus, it is a sign that the analysis is having an effect. If the patient cannot develop a true transference neurosis, as is true of many severely disturbed individuals, psychoanalytic success will be limited.

Social Psychology 151. The "pseudopatients" who were admitted to mental hospitals in Rosenhan's (1973) study were: A all discharged from the hospitals within72 hours due to their "remission" B identified by hospital staff as being "normal" during the second week of their stay C identified by other patients but not staff members as being "normal" D identified by staff members as being "normal" only after they stopped feigning symptoms

ANSWER "C" Rosenhan's famous "pseudopatient study" involved 8 confederates who presented themselves to mental hospitals complaining of hearing voices. All were admitted to the hospital and7 of the 8 were given the diagnosis "Schizophrenia." Once admitted, they all stopped feigning any symptoms and behaved normally. Nevertheless, their hospital stays ranged from7 to 52 days with an average stay of 19 days and although nearly one-third of the other patients recognized the pseudopatients as "normal," none of the hospital staff recognized them as such.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 134. When minimum cutoff procedures are used in selection tests of standard cognitive abilities, one would expect, according to recent research A no adverse impact on either majority or minority applicants. B adverse impact on majority applicants. C adverse impact on minority applicants. D adverse impact on both majority and minority applicants.

ANSWER "C" Since we know that there are significant and consistent differences in mean ability scores between minority and Caucasian populations, this would be translated into differences in hiring rates when ability tests are used in job selection. Thus, you'd likely have adverse impact, which occurs when the hiring rate for one subgroup is 80% or less than the hiring rate for another subgroup.

Ethics and Professional Practice 99. You have developed and administered a reading enrichment program for gifted children. A friend of yours, who happens to be a newspaper reporter, asks you if his 7-year old daughter can enroll in the program. Would it be ethical for you to agree to enroll her? A Yes, as long as the reporter doesn't give you any publicity for the program in exchange. B Yes, as long as the friend pays the same amount for the program as everybody else and his daughter meets the requirements for enrollment in the program. C No, because, if you did, you'd be involved in a dual relationship. D No, because the reporter may feel pressured into giving your program free publicity.

ANSWER "C" Standard 3.05(a) of the Ethics Code applies here. It states in part that "A psychologist refrains from entering into a multiple relationship if the multiple relationship could reasonably be expected to impair the psychologist's objectivity, competence, or effectiveness in performing his or her functions as a psychologist, or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person with whom the professional relationship exists." Here, the risk for such harm is present. For instance, your objectivity might be impaired because of your friendship with the reporter.

Developmental Psychology 58. Children of divorced parents not only have to adjust to their parents' separation but often have to eventually adapt to the remarriage of one or both of their parents. Investigators looking as the impact of stepparents have found that A stepmothers discipline their stepchildren more than the children's biological mothers. B stepmothers have more difficulty with stepsons than with stepdaughters. C stepfathers provide less support, less control, and less punishment than biological fathers. D stepfathers get along better with stepdaughters than with stepsons.

ANSWER "C" Stepparent-stepchild relationships have been investigated by Hetherington and others, who have found that stepfathers are generally uninvolved in the raising and discipline of their stepchildren (although the relationship between stepfathers and stepsons may improve somewhat over time).

Neuropsychology 103. Your client has been injured in a car wreck and now reports that he has "lost his sense of touch." At what level has the spinal injury most likely occurred? A L1 B S1 to S3 C C8 to T1 D T2 to T3

ANSWER "C" T1 is the first level of the thoracic spinal cord and innervates the hand and arm. C8 innerverates the ring and little fingers. L1 (answer A) refers to the lumbar region which contains nerves that affect to hip, thigh, and leg. S1 to S3 (answer B) is referring to the sacral region which innerverates parts of the foot and leg. T2 to T3 is referring to the lower thoracic region which innervates the trunk. It would be good to know that the spinal cord is divided into four regions: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 170. Which of the following statements best exemplifies the Premack Principle? A "If you're a good boy, you'll get candy." B "If you don't get home before midnight, you'll be grounded." C "Eat your spinach before you go out to play." D "I have no idea what those socks are doing on the chandelier."

ANSWER "C" The Premack Principle refers to using a frequently occurring behavior to reinforce an infrequently occurring one. Choice C is an example -- if the child eats his spinach (presumably, something he does not do very often on his or her own), he will be allowed to play (presumably, something he does quite often on his own).

Neuropsychology 36. Damage to the hippocampus would most likely result in deficits in: A sensory memory B short-term memory C long-term memory D implicit memory

ANSWER "C" The hippocampus is believed to be responsible for memory consolidation, or the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory. Sensory memory (A) is thought to be stored at the sense organs. Short-term memory (B) is associated with the prefrontal cortex. And implicit memory (D), although a type of long-term memory, is less affected by damage to the hippocampus than other types of long-term memory.

Developmental Psychology 95. Hostile pre-schoolers who are aggressive toward their schoolmates exhibited which of the following attachment patterns in infancy? A secure attachment B anxious/resistant attachment C disorganized/disoriented attachment D anxious/avoidant attachment

ANSWER "C" The strongest single predictor of deviant levels of hostile behavior toward peers in the classroom is early disorganized/disoriented attachment status. Seventy-one percent of aggressive pre-schoolers were classified as disorganized in their attachment relationships in infancy according to Lyons-Ruth, Alpern, and Rapacholi (1993). Ainsworth (1978) described infants with a disorganized/disoriented attachment as "dazed, confused, and apprehensive." According to Ainsworth, securely attached babies are emotionally sensitive and responsive, anxious/resistant attached babies are anxious when their mother is present and distressed when she leaves, and anxious/avoidant attached babies are uninterested in their environment, show little distress when their mothers leave and avoid contact with her when she returns.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 183. The research has shown that the extent and severity of the long-term problems associated with ADHD are strongly related to whether or not the child also had: A symptoms of depression. B a learning disability. C conduct problems. D a "difficult" temperament.

ANSWER "C" The studies have consistently shown that the combination of hyperactivity and conduct problems is most associated with antisocial behavior and other serious problems in adulthood.

Social Psychology 63. A lab subject heard a woman in the next lab fall and cry for help. In this "lady in distress" experiment, a person was least likely to help when tested with: A no others present. B a stranger. C a passive confederate. D a friend.

ANSWER "C" The subject is most likely to rush to aid someone in distress when all alone in the lab; less likely when there is a stranger or a friend in the room; and least likely when there is a passive confederate in the same room who has been instructed to ignore the whole thing. There is no "diffusion of responsibility" or "pluralistic ignorance" when the subject is alone.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 197. When using the method of loci, you: A sort objects you want to remember into meaningful categories. B retrieve information by remembering where you were at the time you learned it. C pair images of objects you want to remember with places you are familiar with. D make sure that the recall environment is similar to the learning environment.

ANSWER "C" The word "loci" should have helped you pick the right answer. When using this mnemonic device, you visualize names or objects to be remembered in familiar locations. For example, you might visualize the objects on different pieces of furniture in the living room of your house. When it's time to recall the objects, you visually "walk through" the living room.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 34. The discrimination hypothesis, frustration theory, and sequential theory are alternative explanations for the reason why A organisms exhibit experimental neurosis when presented with difficult discriminations during classical conditioning trials. B organisms do not respond to punishment when it is initially presented at low intensity and then gradually increased in intensity. C organisms respond for a longer period of time during extinction trials when they were previously reinforced on an intermittent schedule than when they were reinforced on a continuous schedule. D organisms often exhibit a temporary increase in one reinforced behavior when reinforcement for another previously-reinforced behavior is withdrawn.

ANSWER "C" This is a difficult question because it asks about some rather obscure theories. So this is one of those questions you wouldn't want to spend too much time trying to figure out on the actual exam. Now you know, though -- these theories are all explanations for the "partial reinforcement effect.".

Ethics and Professional Practice 73. You are treating a client, a five-year old girl, with the consent of her father. After five sessions, you receive a call from the girl's mother, who tells you that she is the custodial parent, that the father is a non-custodial parent, and that she doesn't want her daughter seeing you for therapy. You believe that it's in the girl's best interest to continue treatment. Assuming that the mother's statement is truthful, you should: A terminate therapy immediately. B refuse to stop therapy, since it's in the girl's best interest to continue. C urge the mother to consent to a few additional sessions, so you can terminate appropriately with the child. D tell the mother to work out the problem with the father, but in the meantime, continue to see the girl for therapy.

ANSWER "C" This is a good example of a conflict between ethical and legal obligations. Your ethical obligation is to serve the best interests of the child, but legally, you cannot proceed with treatment if the custodial parent does not give you consent to do so. The Ethics Code is instructive in such situations: Standard 1.02 states that "If psychologists' ethical responsibilities conflict with law, regulations, or other governing legal authority, psychologists make known their commitment to the Ethics Code and take steps to resolve the conflict. If the conflict is unresolvable via such means, psychologists may adhere to the requirements of the law, regulations, or other governing legal authority." Thus, you could not just terminate without attempting to advocate for the patient; you also could not continue to treat the child without the mother's consent, because violating the law is not consistent with resolving the conflict in a responsible manner. Thus, your best option is to explain to the mother why you believe that immediate termination could harm the child and urge her to let you continue seeing the girl for a few more sessions.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 45. With regard to interventions for cigarette smoking, the studies have shown that A psychosocial interventions that emphasize behavioral techniques are superior to pharmacological approaches and adding pharmacological treatments to psychosocial interventions does not improve outcomes. B pharmacological approaches that include nicotine replacement therapy are superior to psychosocial interventions and adding psychosocial interventions to a pharmacological treatment does not improve outcomes. C combining a psychosocial intervention (especially a behavioral treatment) with a pharmacological approach (especially nicotine replacement therapy) is more effective than either technique alone, especially in terms of long-term effects. D combining a psychosocial intervention (especially a behavioral treatment) with a pharmacological approach (especially nicotine replacement therapy) is more effective than either technique alone in terms of short-term effects only.

ANSWER "C" This is another situation in which a combined treatment is best, especially in terms of long-term outcomes. While nicotine replacement therapy is very successful alone, there is evidence that combining it with behavioral interventions produces the best long-term effects. See R. C. Klesges, K. D. Ward, and M. DeBon, Smoking cessation. Clinical Psychology Review, 1996, 16(6), 479-496.

Clinical Psychology 79. Traditional psychoanalytic psychotherapy and brief therapies derived from it share several characteristics but also differ in a number of ways. Which of the following is not true about brief forms of psychodynamic psychotherapy? A In brief psychotherapy, past experiences are important to the degree that they contribute to the client's current conflicts. B Brief therapy targets specific therapeutic goals, which are identified during the first few sessions. C In order to solve a client's problems rapidly, brief therapy makes use of the "transference cure" rather than fostering the client's insight into his or her problems. D Brief therapy can be described as a problem-solving process in which the therapist helps the client use his or her own resources to resolve current difficulties.

ANSWER "C" This is the opposite of what is true. In brief forms of psychodynamic psychotherapy, client insight is desirable, although it is limited to those areas that are identified as the targets of therapy.

Ethics and Professional Practice 176. A therapist routinely waives co-payments for all low income clients. This is A unethical, unless the client is on welfare. B ethical, if the psychologist is doing this in order to create a sliding scale. C unethical. D ethical.

ANSWER "C" This is unethical (and illegal) because it constitutes insurance fraud -- the insurance company thinks it's paying for a portion of the client's treatment when it is really paying for the whole thing. Of course, it would not be unethical if you told the insurance company what you were doing. However, most if not all insurance companies would not accept such an arrangement; instead, the company would lower its own contribution to the fee.

Social Psychology 112. Which of the following bases of social power, as defined by French and Raven, is a consultant most likely to rely on? A referent and legitimate B coercive and reward C referent and expert D legitimate and coercive

ANSWER "C" This may be a difficult question for a number of reasons. First, it requires knowledge of two content areas: the function of a consultant, and the bases of social power, as defined by French and Raven. A consultant is an expert or specialist who is hired on an ad-hoc basis to solve a specific, work-related problem. French and Raven described five bases of social power -- legitimate, expert, referent, coercive, and reward. This brings us to the second reason why this question may be somewhat difficult. Consultants clearly rely on expert power, since they are hired as a specialists whose advice is followed because they are considered to be authorities on the matter at hand. It is not so clear that they have referent power, though it is possible, since consultants may serve as respected role models for their clients. However, since choice C is the only one which includes expert power, it must be right. It is also helpful to go through the other bases of social power and rule them out as applying to a consultant. Consultants do not have legitimate power because they do not have administrative authority; that is, the client is free to reject any of the consultant's suggestions. Moreover, the consultant holds neither coercive nor reward power, since the consultant's role is not to punish or reward the client.

Ethics and Professional Practice 90. A client of yours has signed up for the same exercise class you attend. You should: A Terminate the client B Change your health club membership C Make a decision depending on whether the class has two or 100 participants D Ask the client if he can tell that you are losing weight

ANSWER "C" This question is about multiple relationships. Ethical Standard 3.05(a) (Multiple Relationships) indicates that, "A psychologist refrains from entering into a multiple relationship if the multiple relationship could reasonably be expected to impair the psychologist's objectivity, competence, or effectiveness in performing his or her functions as a psychologist, or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person with whom the professional relationship exists." Thus, if there are just two of you in the class, this relationship might impact the therapeutic one, while in a large class, the effects will probably be negligible. The Standard doesn't tell you how to decide-it just instructs you to determine what is in the best interest of your client.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 29. The validity coefficient of a new job selection test is 0.25. This test would most likely be useful when: A the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very low B the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very high C there are many applicants for few job openings D there are few applicants for many job openings

ANSWER "C" This question is referring to a test's incremental validity. Incremental validity is the increase in decision-making accuracy resulting from the use of a particular predictor. Three factors influence the incremental validity of a test: 1) the base rate, or the percentage of correct hiring decisions made when the test is not used; 2) the test's validity coefficient; and 3) the selection ratio, or the ratio of job openings to total applicants (for instance, if 100 people are applying for 5 positions, the selection ratio is 5/100, or .05). Incremental validity is greatest when the base rate is moderate, the validity coefficient is high, and the selection ratio is low. The Taylor-Russell tables can be used to determine a test's incremental validity, given specific values for the base rate, validity coefficient, and selection ratio. We can eliminate Choices A and B because a moderate base rate maximizes the usefulness of a selection test more than a low or high base rate does. Contrary to Choice D, a low selection ratio (many applicants for few job openings) is better than a high selection ratio.

Social Psychology 70. To best reduce the likelihood that a persuasive message will change a person's mind, the person should be provided with which of the following before hearing the persuasive message? A weak support for his initial position B strong support for his initial position C a weak argument against his current position. D a strong argument against the persuasive message

ANSWER "C" This question is referring to the notion of inoculation, which was derived from the medical usage of the term where it refers to exposing people to a weak form of a virus so that they are resistant to the virus in the future. In terms of resistance to persuasion, inoculation here refers to exposing a person to a weak argument against one's current position.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 132. A psychologist serves as the head of a social service agency. The psychologist likes the job because, in addition to allowing her to work with clients in a clinical setting, it provides her with the opportunity for raises and promotions. On the Strong Interest Inventory, the psychologist would likely receive high scores for which of the following personality types? A investigative and conventional B realistic and artistic C social and enterprising D investigative and enterprising

ANSWER "C" This questions is about Holland's six personality types -- realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. One's results on the Strong Interest Inventory include a 3-letter personality type that indicates, in order, which three types best describe the individual. Individuals in the mental health professions typically obtain a 3-letter code of social, enterprising, and artistic (SEA); if you knew this, you knew enough to answer the question. If you didn't, the question helped you out by telling you that the psychologist likes to work hands-on with clients (which would be characteristic of the social type) and that she is interested in promotions and pay raises (which would be characteristic of the enterprising type).

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 194. A rat is placed in a Skinner box which has two levers. Pressing Lever #1 delivers a food pellet on a variable interval schedule on an average of every 30 seconds. Lever # 2 also delivers a food pellet on a variable interval schedule, but on an average of every 2 minutes. We would expect the rat to press Lever # 1 in what proportion of the total lever presses? A 0.4 B 0.6 C 0.8 D 1.0

ANSWER "C" You may have been able to intuitively guess the correct answer. The proportion of lever presses would match the relative frequency of the reinforcement schedule. Since the reinforcement schedule of Lever # 1 compared to Lever # 2 is 4:1, Lever # 1 would receive four-fifths (or 80%) of the total number of presses.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 10. One of the diagnostic criteria for Mental Retardation is deficits or impairments in adaptive functioning. All of the following are true regarding adaptive functioning except: A it can be measured with the Vineland B it refers to an individual's ability to cope with common life demands C it is viewed in the context of a person's age group, sociocultural background, and community setting D it remains stable over time

ANSWER "D" According to DSM-IV-TR, "adaptive functioning refers to how effectively individuals cope with common life demands and how well they meet the standards of personal independence expected of someone in their particular age group, sociocultural background, and community setting" (p. 42). One of the most popular measures of adaptive functioning is the Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales ("A"). Contrary to Choice D, problems in adaptation can improve with remedial training, although cognitive IQ tends to remain stable.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 81. A Hypomanic Episode would most likely result in: A decreased productivity, decreased efficiency, and decreased creativity B decreased productivity, decreased efficiency, and increased creativity C increased productivity, decreased efficiency, and decreased creativity D increased productivity, increased efficiency, and increased creativity

ANSWER "D" According to DSM-IV-TR, a Hypomanic Episode is characterized by a period of persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood that lasts at least 4 days and is accompanied by three or more symptoms including: inflated self-esteem or grandiosity; decreased need for sleep; talkativeness; racing thoughts; distractibility; excessive involvement in high-risk pleasurable activities; and increase in goal-directed activity. The symptoms are not severe enough to cause marked impairment in functioning and there are no psychotic features. During a Hypomanic Episode many individuals exhibit increased productivity, efficiency, and creativity.

Neuropsychology 65. Withdrawal from morphine dependence is most likely to result in: A sedation B pupillary constriction C constipation D diarrhea

ANSWER "D" According to the DSM-IV-TR, the symptoms of opiate withdrawal include: dysphoric mood; nausea or vomiting; muscle aches; lacrimation or rhinorrhea (runny eyes and nose); pupillary dilation, pilorerection (gooseflesh), or sweating; diarrhea; yawning; fever; and insomnia. The other choices (sedation, pupillary constriction, and constipation) are signs of opiate intoxication.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 11. Which of the Big Five personality traits is least stable over time? A Conscientiousness B Extraversion C Agreeableness D Neuroticism

ANSWER "D" All of the Big Five traits are relatively stable throughout adulthood. However, several studies have concluded that extraversion is the most stable trait, while neuroticism is the least stable over time. In a meta-analysis of 152 longitudinal studies, researchers obtained the following stability coefficients: Extraversion (.55), followed by Agreeableness (.52), Openness (.51), Conscientiousness (.49), and Neuroticism (.46) [B. W. Roberts & W. F. DelVecchio, The rank-order consistency of personality traits from childhood to old age: A quantitative review of longitudinal studies, Psychological Bulletin, 2000, 126(1), 3-25].

Clinical Psychology 92. Jungian theory differs from Freudian theory in that A Jung had a more optimistic outlook on the ability of psychoanalysis to effect a cure. B Jung endorsed the notion of psychic determinism. C Jung focused on the "here-and-now"; Freud focused on the past. D Jung had a different theory about the role of the unconscious than Freud.

ANSWER "D" Among other things, Jung and Freud disagreed about the nature of the unconscious. For Freud, the unconscious is primarily the product of the individual's personal history -- it contains innate drives as well as material (e.g., fantasies, memories, affects) accumulated over the life span. For Jung, the unconscious consists of both a personal and collective component. The collective unconscious contains latent memories of our cultural past, archetypes (innate ideas that ready us for human experience), and even prehuman memories.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 30. Most studies of correlates of industrial accidents indicate that the strongest association is with A machine malfunction. B organizational ambiance. C supervisory attitude. D human error.

ANSWER "D" As you can imagine, what people do (or don't do) is the leading cause of industrial accidents. Not paying attention, daydreaming, not fixing the machine correctly, not training properly, etc., all can lead to accidents. It follows that to correct this problem one would want people trained better and one would want an environment in which attention is paid to possible accident-causing conditions.

Clinical Psychology 144. When working with African-American families, Nancy Boyd-Franklin recommends: A An ecostructural approach B A multisystems approach C A matrilineal approach D Both a and b

ANSWER "D" Boyd-Franklin (1989) recommends the use of a multisystems (ecostructural) approach when working with African-American families. During both the assessment and treatment processes this approach targets the individual, the immediate and extended family, nonblood relations and friends, church and other community services.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 180. The tension-reduction hypothesis proposes that alcohol abuse is due to the effects of: A tolerance B withdrawal C habituation D conditioning

ANSWER "D" Conger's (1956) tension-reduction hypothesis proposed that alcohol consumption reduces stress, which reinforces alcohol use, resulting in a greater likelihood of alcohol consumption in times of stress. Thus, the basis of the theory is operant conditioning [J. Conger, Reinforcement theory and the dynamics of alcoholism, Quarterly Journal of Studies on Alcohol, 1956, 17, 296-305]. Subsequent research findings on Conger's theory have been mixed, leading some researchers to conclude that the theory is overly simplistic.

Social Psychology 148. Solomon, Pyszczynski, and Greenberg's terror management theory proposes anxiety or "terror" results from the conscious awareness that human beings have of the inevitability of their death and is best dealt with by: A religious faith B consensual validation C mortality salience D self-esteem and a cultural worldview

ANSWER "D" D. According to terror management theory (TMT), individuals utilize two things to manage the terror associated with the fear of death: a cultural worldview and self-esteem. Consensual validation (b.), or others' agreement with one's own worldviews and self-concept, is critical for the effectiveness of cultural worldviews and self-esteem. An outside group, person or differing ideas that clash may threaten the validation system (religion, political ideology) that provides a sense of security. Studies have found increased mortality salience (c.), encountering or recently thinking about death, results in people strongly connecting to their worldview elements like religious beliefs or national pride and increased emergence of prejudices against an outside group in addition to creating a longing for structure, order, acceptance of quick, easy answers to problems and foregoing careful consideration of all options. (See: Pyszczynski, T., Solomon, S., & Greenberg, J. (2003). In the Wake of 9/11: The Psychology of Terror. Washington, D.C.: American Psychological Association. and Solomon, S., Greenberg, J. & Pyszczynski, T. (1991). "A Terror Management Theory of Social Behavior: The Psychological Functions of Self-Esteem and Cultural Worldviews." Advances in Experimental Social Psychology, 24, Zanna, M.P. (Ed).).

Neuropsychology 53. The condition describing a side-effect of antipsychotic medication that is incorrectly matched with its symptoms is: A akathisia — inability to sit, constantly pacing, restlessness B dysarthia — imperfect articulation of speech C akinesia — appears to be slow moving, indifferent to stimuli, emotionally constricted D opisthotonus — spasms in the lower extremities

ANSWER "D" D. All four terms describe possible short-term side effects of antipsychotic medications, especially the older antipsychotics associated with extrapyramidal syndrome (EPS) which include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, dyskinesia and akathisia. Opisthotonus (d.) refers to whole body spasm, oculogyric crisis refers to rapid eye movements and dysarthia (b.) refers to imperfect articulation of speech. These are some of the symptoms of dystonia and dyskinesia. Akathisia (a.) is most common after about a week of treatment and characterized by constant pacing or an inability to sit still. Akinesia (c.) is one of the side effects associated with Parkinsonism, a neurologic side effect of typical antipsychotic medication. .

Clinical Psychology 5. Which of the following therapeutic approaches refers to changing or adapting to the environment by altering one's own behaviors or responses? A emic B etic C alloplastic D autoplastic

ANSWER "D" D. Autoplastic ("self-change") refers to changing or adapting to the environment by altering one's own behaviors or responses. An emic (a.) perspective involves focusing on the intrinsic distinctions that are meaningful to members of a particular culture or society. An etic (b.) perspective involves focusing on extrinsic distinctions that have meaning for the observer of the culture or society. Alloplastic (c.) refers to changing or adapting to the environment by effecting changes in the environment.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 2. According to Bass, transformational leadership contains four interrelated components. Which of the following is characterized by high moral and ethical standards? A intellectual stimulation B inspirational motivation C individualized consideration D idealized influence

ANSWER "D" D. Bass (1985) suggested that transformational leadership contains the interrelated components of idealized or charisma influence (attributed or behavioral), inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration. In truly transformational leadership, high morals and ethical standards characterize charismatic or idealized influence. In research by Podsakoff, MacKenzie, Moorman and Fetter (1990), trust was found to be the single most important variable moderating the effects of transformational leadership on the performance, attitudes, and satisfaction of the followers. Inspirational motivation (b.) provides followers with meaning and challenges for engaging in undertakings and shared goals. Intellectual stimulation (a.) helps followers to question assumptions and to generate more creative solutions to problems. Individual consideration (c.) treats each follower as an individual and provides coaching, mentoring and growth opportunities. (See: Bass, B. (1985). Leadership and performance beyond expectations. New York: The Free Press. Bass, B. (1998). Transformational leadership: Industry, military, and educational impact. Mahwah, NJ: Lawrence Erlbaum Associates, Inc. and Podsakoff, P. M., MacKenzie, S. B., Moorman, R. H., & Fetter, R. (1990). Transformational leader behaviors and their effects on followers' trust in leader, satisfaction, and organizational citizenship behaviors. Leadership Quarterly, 1, 107--142.).

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 161. Recent research on HIV infection has examined the role of psychosocial risk factors on disease progression and prognosis. The results of studies involving infected adults has most consistently found: A lower intellectual functioning and younger age are related to a more rapid progression B higher intellectual functioning and older age are related to a more rapid progression C somatic symptoms of depression and younger age are related to a more rapid progression D somatic symptoms of depression and older age are related to a more rapid progression

ANSWER "D" D. Findings of recent studies indicate that the factors of intellectual functioning, age and somatic symptoms of depression are significant predictors of HIV progression and prognosis. Specifically, lower IQ, older age and the presence of somatic symptoms of depression are associated with a more rapid progression from HIV infection to AIDS, HIV-related dementia, and death. (See: Farinpour, R., et al., Psychosocial risk factors of HIV morbidity and mortality: Findings from the Multicenter Aids Cohort Study (MACS), Journal of Clinical and Experimental Neuropsychology, 2003, 25(5), 654-670.).

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 141. Research utilizing functional brain imaging techniques has shown a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) and has linked it to abnormalities in the following brain structures: A parietal lobe, hypothalamus, and corpus callosum B parietal lobe, striatum, and amygdala C frontal lobe, thalamus, and amygdala D frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum

ANSWER "D" D. Recent research has established a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) with abnormalities in the right frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum most consistently implicated in this disorder. Other areas of the brain, including certain regions of the parietal lobe, have been linked to ADHD to a lesser extent. Using the core symptoms of ADHD and functions of the major brain structures, you may have determined the frontal lobes (mediates higher-order functions), the striatum (part of the basal ganglia and composed of the caudate nucleus and the putamen) and cerebellum (involved in motor activity) are the areas linked to this disorder. (See: J. Giedd et al., Brain imaging of attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, Annals of New York Academy of Sciences, 2001, 931, 33-49.) .

Test Construction 146. The factor loading for Test A and Factor II is .80 in a factor matrix. This means that: A only 80% of variability in Test A is accounted for by the factor analysis B only 64% of variability in Test A is accounted for by the factor analysis C 80% of variability in Test A is accounted for by Factor II D 64% of variability in Test A is accounted for by Factor II

ANSWER "D" D. The correlation coefficient for a test and an identified factor is referred to as a factor loading. To obtain a measure of shared variability, the factor loading is squared. This example, the factor loading is .80, meaning that 64% (.80 squared) of variability in the test is accounted for by the factor. The other identified factor(s) probably also account for some variability in Test A, which is why (b.) is not the best answer. .

Research Design and Statistics 100. In which of the following research designs is autocorrelation most likely to be a problem: A between groups B Solomon four-group C double-blind D repeated measures

ANSWER "D" D. When the dependent variable is repeatedly administered to the same subjects, the correlation between measurements of the dependent variable is referred to as autocorrelation. Repeated measures is the only design listed that repeated measurement occurs in.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 199. According to the DSM-IV-TR, which of the following is related to exposure to sexual abuse, sexual harassment or sexual trauma? A Gender Identity Disorder B Dyspareunia C Female Orgasmic Disorder D Vaginismus

ANSWER "D" D. While Vaginismus (which involves involuntary contractions of the muscles in the outer third of the vagina when vaginal penetration is attempted) doesn't have a clear etiology, evidence suggests that sexual trauma may precede the disorder's onset. In addition to this association, the DSM-IV-TR states it is more common in younger women and in women with negative attitudes toward sex. .

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 88. The most commonly associated features of Tourette's Disorder are A depression and shame B academic and social difficulties C orthopedic and skin problems D obsessions and compulsions

ANSWER "D" DSM-IV lists obsessions and compulsions as the most commonly associated features of Tourette's Disorder. While the other features that are included in responses A, B, and C are also associated with the disorder, they are not as common.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 136. An engineering psychologist hired by a company to decrease accidents and improve safety in the organization would most likely focus on: A working with employees to ensure that they understand and accept the company's safety policies B ensuring that enough information about ways to increase safety is available to employees C working with managers to increase their commitment to safety D identifying aspects of the work environment that could be modified in order to improve safety

ANSWER "D" Engineering psychology is concerned with fitting aspects of the job to the worker. The focus is on the total environmental system, including procedures, work environments, and the design and functioning of equipment. Thus, in this situation, an engineering psychologist would most likely focus on the safety of the work environment.

Developmental Psychology 114. Erikson's final developmental stage is: A generativity vs. stagnation. B contentment vs. despondency. C intimacy vs. isolation. D ego integrity vs. despair.

ANSWER "D" Erikson is among those developmental psychologists who postulate qualitatively different stages we pass through from birth to senescence. Erikson's final stage is called integrity versus despair. That is, in the last stage we look at our life and say "I did the best I could" or, alternatively, "I regret what I did.".

Research Design and Statistics 9. A linear relationship is an assumption of all of the following, except: A structural modeling equation B regression analysis C Pearson r D eta

ANSWER "D" Eta is a correlational coefficient used for non-linear, or curvilinear, relationships. Structural modeling (response "A"), a variety of techniques based on correlations between multiple variables, regression analysis (response "B"), a method used to estimate the value of one variable based on the value of another variable, and Pearson r (response "C"), all assume a linear relationship between variables.

Ethics and Professional Practice 21. An experimental treatment that has been used successfully with animals only has recently been approved for research with human participants. Which of the following statements regarding the need to inform participants of the experimental status of the treatment is true? A There is no need to inform participants that the treatment is experimental, since the treatment was shown to be safe in animal research. B There is no need to inform participants that the treatment is experimental, because they would not likely understand the connotations of the word "experimental." C There is no need to inform participants that the treatment is experimental as long as the study was approved by an institutional review board. D Participants should be informed that the treatment is experimental.

ANSWER "D" Ethical Standard 8.02(b) states that "Psychologists conducting intervention research involving the use of experimental treatments clarify to participants at the outset of the research (1) the experimental nature of the treatment; (2) the services that will or will not be available to the control group(s) if appropriate; (3) the means by which assignment to treatment and control groups will be made; (4) available treatment alternatives if an individual does not wish to participate in the research or wishes to withdraw once a study has begun; and (5) compensation for or monetary costs of participating, including if appropriate, whether reimbursement from the participant or a third-party payor will be sought.".

Ethics and Professional Practice 154. You have been treating a client for six months, and the original problem the client sought treatment for is in remission. The client tells you that he wants to terminate. You, however, are reluctant to terminate because you believe that the client can benefit from further psychotherapy. In this situation, you should: A terminate in line with the client's wishes, since the client's presenting problem is solved. B seek consultation. C discuss the client's reasons for wanting to terminate. D discuss the reasons why you feel he shouldn't terminate, and, if he still wants to terminate, allow him to do so.

ANSWER "D" Even though you might not have too much difficulty handling this situation in real life, this question might have been difficult because none of the choices is clearly "wrong." The best answer is choice D -- it's in the client's best interests that you explain why you feel he should not terminate, but, if he chooses to do so, you must respect his right to self-determination. Choice A does not include your explaining your concerns to the client, so it is not as good. You might have been seduced by choice B, because seeking consultation is never a bad thing to do, but it is not necessary in this common and relatively straightforward situation. Similarly, when clients want to terminate, it's always important to discuss their reasons, as stated by choice C. In this case, however, the client's reasons are pretty clear -- the problem for which he sought therapy is solved.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 195. According to Fiedler's contingency theory, the most effective leaders: A are person-oriented, as opposed to task-oriented B are able to alter their leadership style to fit the demands of the situation C are able to alter their leadership style to match the characteristics of the employee D have a leadership style that matches the demands of the situation

ANSWER "D" Fiedler's Contingency (LPC) theory proposes that a leader's effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader's style and the characteristics of the situation. However, Fiedler believed that leaders cannot change their leadership style. Rather, their effectiveness is determined by the match between the leader's style and the demands of the situation. A high LPC leader describes his least preferred coworker in positive terms and is primarily person-centered. Whereas, a low LPC leader describes his least preferred coworker in negative terms and is more task-oriented. Low LPC leaders are most effective in either "very favorable" or "very unfavorable" situations, in which favorableness refers to amount of control. High LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations.

Test Construction 38. If a student scored between 1 and 2 standard deviations above the mean in a normal distribution of scores, you could conclude that the student's A T-score is greater than 70 B z-score is greater than 2 C percentile rank is between 68 and 95 D percentile rank is between 84 and 98

ANSWER "D" If a score falls between 1 and 2 standard deviations in a normal distribution we can readily conclude that it's T score is between 60 and 70 and it's z-score is between 1 and 2 (since z-scores are stated in standard deviation units). We can, therefore, eliminate choices "A" and "B." To determine percentile ranks you can do a simple calculation if you know the areas under a normal curve. Remember that 50% of all scores in a normal distribution fall below the mean and 50% fall above the mean. And 68% of scores fall within +/- 1 SD of the mean. If you divide 68% by 2, you get 34% (the percentage of scores that fall between 0 and +1 SD). If you then add that 34% to the 50% that fall below the mean, you get a percentile rank of 84. Thus, the 84 percentile score is equivalent to 1 SD above the mean. The same calculation is used for determining the percentile rank at 2 standard deviations. Since 95% of all scores fall within +/- 2 SD, we divide 95% by 2 which equals 47.5 and add that to the 50% which falls below the mean, which totals 97.5 (rounded off = 98). Thus, the percentile rank is between 84 and 98.

Test Construction 41. Computer-adaptive testing will yield A more accurate results for high scorers on a test. B more accurate results for low scorers on a test. C more accurate results for examinees who score in the middle range of a test. D equally accurate results across all range of scores on a test.

ANSWER "D" In computerized adaptive testing, the examinee's previous responses are used to tailor the test to his or her ability. As a result, inaccuracy of scores is reduced across ability levels.

Clinical Psychology 188. Manual-guided treatment is to used to: A reduce "treatment errors" and legal liability of practitioners B ensure validity of procedures used to evaluate effectiveness of treatment C improve treatment outcomes for diverse populations and diagnoses D ascertain treatment effects in research by standardizing treatment delivery

ANSWER "D" Initially, treatment manuals were developed to standardize treatments so that their effects could be empirically evaluated and provide guidelines for training therapists. Manual-guided treatments detail the theoretical underpinnings of a treatment, the treatment goals, and specific therapeutic strategies and guidelines. Research on manual-guided treatment outcome (response "C") is inconsistent but has generally not found it to have substantially better outcomes than treatments not guided by the use of a manual. (See: Beutler, L. E., et al. (2000). Therapist variables, in M. Lambert (ed.), Bergin and Garfield's Handbook of Psychotherapy and Behavior Change (pp. 227-306), New York: John Wiley & Sons.) .

Neuropsychology 50. Which of the following statements best reflects the cross-cultural findings on emotions? A Most researchers have only found fear, anger, and sadness to be universal emotions. B Most researchers agree on the existence of 12 basic emotions. C Most researchers have disputed the existence of universal basic emotions. D Most researchers have agreed on the existence of at least 6 basic emotions, but have disagreed on the inclusion of several other emotions as basic.

ANSWER "D" Interest in the existence of innate universal (cross-cultural) emotions began with Darwin in 1872 who found that the facial expressions of certain emotions were the same across different cultures. Many researchers since Darwin have tried to identify which emotions are universal. Most have agreed on the existence of at least six basic emotions (happiness, surprise, fear, sadness, anger, and disgust). However, there has been much disagreement on whether other emotions such as interest, guilt, and shame are also universal and innate emotions [See P. Eckman, Are there basic emotions? Psychological Review, 99(3), 1992, 550-553].

Clinical Psychology 57. According to the theory underlying Gestalt therapy, introjection involves: A viewing other people's emotions as one's own B failing to develop a healthy "social interest" C blaming oneself for the problems of others D interpreting the values of the larger society as one's own

ANSWER "D" Introjection involves absorbing the values or behaviors of others, including the larger society, without really understanding or assimilating those values or behaviors. Introjection represents a disturbance in the boundary between self and others -- the person does or believes things that are not reflective of a self that is clearly distinct from others in the environment. Choice A is incorrect because it is primarily values, not emotions, that are absorbed from the environment in Gestalt therapy's view of introjection.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 133. Which of the following types of headaches is most likely to be exacerbated by jarring motions, bending forward, and lifting? A tension B cluster C sinus D migraine

ANSWER "D" Migraine headaches are triggered and exacerbated by a number of factors including certain body movements such as those listed in the question.

Clinical Psychology 46. Which of the following factors are considered most important for competent multicultural counseling? A commitment, sensitivity, and technique B sensitivity, instillation of hope, and acceptance C acceptance, awareness, and flexibility D awareness, knowledge, and skills

ANSWER "D" Multicultural competence is most often attributed to one's level of awareness, knowledge, and skills. "Awareness" refers to awareness of one's own beliefs, values, and stereotypes. "Knowledge" refers to knowledge of the worldviews of clients with different cultural backgrounds. And "skills" refers to the skills that are most appropriate for clients with different cultural backgrounds (D. W. Sue, Multidimensional facets of cultural competence. Counseling Psychologist, 2001, 29(6), 790-821).

Social Psychology 6. Decisions made by a group are typically better than those made individually when: A the group is highly cohesive B the group leader is directive C the task requires a high degree of creativity D members of the group have complementary skills

ANSWER "D" One of the major obstacles to good group decision-making is groupthink. Groupthink is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group, which prevents full consideration of alternative decisions, to the point where the decisions reached may become irrational. Some of the factors which contribute to groupthink include: high group cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader. A group consisting of members with complementary skills is not homogeneous, and would be less likely to succumb to groupthink. Contrary to Choice C, tasks which require a high degree of creativity tend to be performed better by individuals than groups.

Ethics and Professional Practice 39. Dr. Emm believes that one of his patients would benefit from in-patient treatment. The patient's HMO (health maintenance organization) is most likely to approve this type of treatment if: A Dr. Emm will be providing services at the in-patient facility. B Dr. Emm is a licensed psychologist. C the patient's presenting problem has become chronic. D the patient has recently shown a decline in functioning.

ANSWER "D" Policies regarding in-patient treatment vary from HMO to HMO. However, most emphasize the patient's level of functioning and consider approval of in-patient treatment when there has been a recent decline in functioning.

School Psychology/Intelligence 168. Research suggests that African-American children's scores on the WISC A tend to be lower than those of Caucasian children only when the examiner is Caucasian. B tend to be lower than those of Caucasian children only when the examiner is African-American. C tend to be higher than those of Caucasian children when the examiner is African-American, but lower than those of Caucasian children when the examiner is Caucasian. D are not related to the race of the examiner.

ANSWER "D" Research has suggested that scores of African-American children on the WISC are not reliably related to the race of the examiner. Though some studies have shown that African-American children's scores on some subtests increase when the examiner is Caucasian, this effect has not been shown to be consistent. In general, African-American children's scores tend to be lower than those of Caucasian children, regardless of the race of the examiner.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 175. What percentage of children diagnosed with Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder continue to exhibit signs of the disorder in adulthood? A 5 B 10 C 25 D 50

ANSWER "D" Research studies have found that between 30% and70% of children with ADHD continue to exhibit signs of the disorder throughout their lives. [See J. Biederman, et al. High risk for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder among children with parents with childhood onset of the disorder: A pilot study. American Journal of Psychiatry, 1995, 152, 431-435.].

School Psychology/Intelligence 84. Scores on the WAIS-III are: A ipsative scores B percentile ranks C ratio I.Q. scores D standard scores

ANSWER "D" Scores on the Wechsler I.Q. tests are reported as standard scores. A standard score is a transformed score that reports an examinee's test performance in terms of the mean and standard deviation of the score distribution. The mean on the WAIS-III is 100 and the standard deviation is 15. Ipsative scores (A) report an examinee's scores using the examinee him or herself as a frame of reference. Thus, ipsative scores indicate an examinee's relative strengths and weaknesses in each domain measured. By contrast, normative measures provide a measure of the absolute strength of each domain measured, relative to the normative group. Percentile ranks (B) provide the percentage of cases in a group that fall below a given score. A "ratio I.Q." (C) is a score derived by dividing mental age by chronological age and multiplying the result by 100. A ratio I.Q. was used in the early version of the Stanford-Binet. However, because the scores could not be compared across ages, it was replaced by standardized scores.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 109. Anxiety and depression share which of the following symptoms? A anhedonia B somatic arousal C obsessive thoughts D negative affect

ANSWER "D" Several researchers have suggested that a general distress factor, sometimes referred to as "negative affect," is a core symptom in both anxiety and depression. Anhedonia ("A") is unique to depression and somatic arousal ("B") is unique to anxiety disorders. Obsessive thoughts ("C") is a characteristic of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, but it is not a universal symptom in all of the anxiety disorders or the depressive disorders. [See D. Burns, Why Are Depression and Anxiety Correlated? A Test of the Tripartite Model. Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 1998, 66 (3), 461-473].

Neuropsychology 86. An advantage of clozapine (Clozaril) over conventional antipsychotic drugs is that it is A significantly more effective for the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia. B less likely to produce anticholinergic effects. C less likely to cause agranulocytosis. D often effective for those who don't respond to conventional drugs.

ANSWER "D" The atypical antipsychotic clozapine affects different neurotransmitters than conventional antipsychotics and, to some degree, has different side effects. For example, although it doesn't produce tardive dyskinesia, it does cause agranulocytosis, a potentially fatal blood disease. An important advantage of clozapine is that it's often effective when conventional antipsychotic drugs aren't.

Ethics and Professional Practice 158. You are treating a patient with both an AXIS I and an AXIS II diagnosis. You know that the insurance company is much more likely to pay for the AXIS I treatment. What should you do? A Bill for AXIS I as the diagnosis; state that the AXIS II diagnosis is provisional. B Just bill for AXIS I; at present there is not a successful treatment modality for AXIS II disorders C Bill for both, but indicate that you are only seeking reimbursement for the AXIS I treatment D Write a request to the insurance company providing a clinical rationale for treating both and bill accordingly

ANSWER "D" The best choice when dealing with insurance companies is to behave ethically. Present a clear and complete diagnosis and an appropriate treatment plan. Bill for the stated service. Let the insurance company decide who pays for what.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 182. Super's (1992) concept that relates the five life stages of growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and disengagement to nine major life roles is called A Role of Self-Concept. B Arch of Career Determination. C Career Maturity. D Life-Career Rainbow.

ANSWER "D" The question is describing Super's Life-Career Rainbow. Super also emphasized the role of self-concept (answer A), suggesting that people will choose an occupation that allows them to express their self-concept. Answer B refers to Super's Arch of Career Determination which illustrates the psychological and socioeconomic variables that shape one's career.

Test Construction 18. If someone achieves a score of 30 on a standardized test with a standard error of measurement of 5 points, what is the approximate probability that the person's true score is between 20 and 40? A 2/3 B 4/5 C 9/10 D 19/20

ANSWER "D" The range given in the question encompasses the obtained score plus and minus two standard errors of measurement. That is, the standard error of measurement is 5, and the range is 10 points (2 X 5) below the obtained score to 10 points above the obtained score. One thing you should memorize is that there is about a 95% probability that a person's true score lies within two standard errors of measurement of the obtained score. But even if you knew that, you might have had trouble with this question, since the choices are given as fractions, not percentages. To answer it correctly, you needed to figure out that 19/20 is the fractional equivalent of 95%.

Ethics and Professional Practice 43. A psychologist working in the prison system is asked to evaluate a prisoner and make a recommendation about his eligibility for parole. The psychologist should A refuse to do so since this is outside the scope of a psychologist's work. B do the evaluation and report its results but refuse to make a specific recommendation. C make a recommendation as long as it is based on the results of valid standardized tests. D make a recommendation but point out any possible limitations of the data on which it is based.

ANSWER "D" This answer is most consistent with the requirements of the Ethics Code and the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists. For example, Standard 9.06 of the Code requires that psychologists "indicate any significant limitations of their interpretations." Although recommendations should be based on valid assessment techniques, those techniques do not have to be standardized tests (answer C). .

Research Design and Statistics 153. If a person has a T-score of 70 in a normal distribution with 200 people, what does the 70 mean? A 70th percentile B 3 standard deviations above the mean C z-score of plus one D better than 97%

ANSWER "D" This is a difficult question because none of the choices offer what you are expecting which would be "the 98th percentile." Instead the best choice is answer D, which is "better than 97%." In actuality, a T-score of 70 is two standard deviations above the mean (the mean of a T-score distribution is 50; the standard deviation is 10). When any score is two standard deviations above the mean, 98 percent of the distribution is below that score. In this case, 98 percent of the scores are below a T-score of 70, in other words, better than approximately 97% of people in the distribution.

School Psychology/Intelligence 93. An examinee's scaled scores on the WAIS-III can be calculated with: A the examinee's subtest raw scores and the subtest means B the examinee's subtest raw scores and their index test scores C the examinee's subtest raw scores and a conversion formula D the examinee's subtest raw scores, chronological age, and a score conversion table

ANSWER "D" To calculate the scaled scores on the WAIS-III, one must use the subtest raw scores, the examinee's chronological age, and a score conversion table.