Exam 2-2

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Functional decomposition is a repetitive process of breaking the description or perspective of a system down into finer and finer detail.

Generally speaking, highlighting methods appear the same on all output devices.

Generally speaking, legal and contractual feasibility is a greater consideration if your organization has historically used an outside organization for specific systems or services that you now are considering handling yourself.

Graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute data between a system and its environment and among components within a system refers to: A) data modeling. B) structure modeling. C) process modeling. D) transition modeling. E) logic modeling.

Having a level-1 diagram with no level-0 diagram is an example of a: A) violation of completeness. B) violation of consistency. C) balancing error. D) structuring violation. E) cohesion error.

Human interface design is performed during: A) systems planning and selection. B) systems analysis. C) systems design. D) systems implementation and operation. E) requirements structuring.

Ideally, each data store on a primitive data-flow diagram will be an individual attribute.

Identifying mandatory features by surveying users and other stakeholders who have been involved in requirements determination would occur: A) near the end of the analysis phase, after all requirements have been structured and analyzed. B) near the end of the project identification and selection phase, after a formal request to conduct a project to design and develop an information systems solution has been approved. C) during the logical design phase, while detailed function specifications of all data, forms, reports, screens, and processing rules for all aspects of the system are prepared. D) during systems planning and selection. E) during systems implementation and operation.

If STUDENT and COURSE participate in a relationship, this is an example of a(n): A) unary relationship. B) coupled relationship. C) binary relationship. D) ternary relationship. E) extraordinary relationship.

If a data flow appears on the context diagram and is also represented on a level-0 diagram, this would be referred to as: A) leveling. B) flow conservation. C) balancing. D) cohesion. E) coupling.

If two processes are connected by a data flow, they are said to: A) exhibit cohesion. B) share the same data. C) be coupled to each other. D) be strapped to each other. E) be intertwined.

If your DFD contains data flows that do not lead anywhere, it is not: A) gap proof. B) a primitive diagram. C) complete. D) consistent. E) balanced.

If your analysis of several written procedures reveals a duplication of effort in two jobs, you should: A) indicate that one job be deleted from the new system. B) call the duplication to the attention of management as an issue to be resolved before system design can proceed. C) justify the duplication of effort. D) restructure the tasks so that the duplication is removed. E) not mention the duplication of effort to management.

In general, JADs benefit greatly from computer support.

Increased flexibility is an example of an intangible benefit.

Interface and dialogue design focuses on how information is provided to and captured from users.

Invoices and mailing labels are examples of forms.

Joint application design and prototyping can help keep the analysis effort at a minimum yet still effective.

Key business processes are the structured, measured set of activities designed to produce a specific output for a particular customer or market.

Logic modeling graphically represents the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute data between a system and its environment and among components within a system.

More than one data flow noun phrase can appear on a single arrow as long as all of the flows on the same arrow move together as one package.

Most techniques for analyzing economic feasibility employ the time value of money concept.

Neutrality is a guideline for effective interviewing.

No data stores appear on a context diagram.

Notifying the user of the last page of a multipage sequence is a guideline for designing forms and reports.

On a data-flow diagram, a check and payment coupon mailed to the company is represented as a data store.

On a data-flow diagram, a diamond represents a process.

On a data-flow diagram, a rectangle represents a source or a(n): A) data store. B) process. C) action stub. D) data flow. E) sink.

On a data-flow diagram, a rectangle with the right vertical line missing represents a data store.

On a data-flow diagram, a rectangle with the right vertical line missing represents a: A) data store. B) data flow. C) process. D) source. E) relationship.

On a data-flow diagram, an arrow represents an action, such as calculating an employee's pay.

On a data-flow diagram, you may: A) repeat data stores and processes. B) repeat sources/sinks and processes. C) only repeat processes. D) repeat relationships. E) repeat both data stores and sources/sinks.

On an entity-relationship diagram, a rectangle represents a(n): A) data flow. B) entity. C) multivalued attribute. D) repeating group. E) relationship.

On an entity-relationship diagram, the entity's identifier is: A) identified by using a double-lined ellipse. B) underlined on an E-R diagram. C) bold on an E-R diagram. D) written in all capital letters on an E-R diagram. E) placed in italics.

On the Internet, form interaction is the standard method of gathering and displaying information.

One advantage of open-ended questions in an interview is: A) a significant amount of time can be devoted to each interviewee. B) the interviewee is restricted to providing just a few answers. C) previously unknown information can result. D) they work well when the answers to the questions are well known. E) they are not biased.

Opening new markets and increasing sales opportunities are both examples of tangible benefit.

Potential development projects with a cross-functional focus are often identified by: A) a steering committee. B) top management. C) a senior IS manager. D) individual departments. E) customers.

Processes, rather than data, are the most complex aspects of many modern information systems.

Providing a current date that identifies when the form or report was generated corresponds to the form and report guideline of: A) balance the layout. B) design an easy navigation system. C) include meaningful information. D) use meaningful titles. E) market the form.

A candidate key that has been selected as the unique, identifying characteristic for an entity type is called a(n): A) attribute. B) identifier. C) secondary key. D) gerund. E) index.

A context diagram shows the scope of the organizational system, system boundaries, external entities that interact with the system, and the major information flows between entities and the system.

A cost associated with an information system that can be measured in dollars and with certainty best describes: A) economic cost. B) tangible cost. C) intangible cost. D) one-time cost. E) measurable cost.

A data-flow diagram (DFD) is a graphical tool that allows analysts to illustrate the flow of data in an information system.

A deliverable from conceptual data modeling is a set of entries about data objects to be stored in the project dictionary or repository.

A faculty identification number could be used as an identifier.

A file folder containing orders would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a: A) process. B) source. C) data flow. D) data store. E) relationship.

A first step in any BPR effort is to understand what processes need to change.

A fork in a data flow means that exactly the same data go from a common location to two or more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks.

A relationship between instances of two entity types is a: A) unary relationship. B) binary relationship. C) ternary relationship. D) multiple occurrence. E) partnership occurrence.

A relationship between the instances of one entity type is a: A) unary relationship. B) binary relationship. C) ternary relationship. D) singular occurrence. E) partnership occurrence.

A renewal is an example of a(n): A) data element. B) attribute. C) entity. D) relationship. E) action stub.

A true data entity will have many possible instances, each with a distinguishing characteristic, as well as one or more other descriptive pieces of data.

A walkthrough is a peer group review of any product created during the systems development process.

Activities designed to assist in organizing a team to conduct project planning is the focus of: A) project development. B) project identification and selection. C) project initiation. D) analysis. E) implementation and operation.

An analyst would ask, "What must we know about each object in order to run a business?" in order to determine relationships, their cardinality, and degrees.

An audit trail is a record of the sequence of data entries and the date of those entries.

An entity instance is a single occurrence of an entity type.

An order number is a good example of a candidate key.

Application software maintenance, new software and hardware leases, and incremental communications are examples of: A) recurring costs. B) one-time costs. C) incremental costs. D) frequent costs. E) consumable costs.

As a general guideline, you should prepare an agenda with approximate time limits for different sections of the interview.

Asking system users and managers, "Who is responsible for establishing legitimate values for these data?" helps determine: A) the candidate key. B) security controls and understanding who really knows the meaning of data. C) relationships and their cardinality and degrees. D) attributes and secondary keys. E) integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data.

Because a data flow name represents a specific set of data, another data flow that has even one more or one less piece of data must be given a different, unique name.

By placing a data store between two processes, this: A) decouples the processes. B) enables store and forward capabilities. C) enhances the flow of data between the processes. D) structures the processes. E) disintegrates the processes.

Closed-ended questions work well when the major answers to the questions are known.

Collection of information is at the core of systems analysis.

Color, intensity, and size differences are methods of highlighting.

Commonly used methods for highlighting include each of the following EXCEPT: A) reverse video. B) boxing. C) spacing. D) underlining. E) all capital letters.

Completeness, consistency, timing, iterative development, and primitive DFDs are guidelines for drawing DFDs.

Coupling is the conservation of inputs and outputs to a data-flow diagram process when that process is decomposed to a lower level.

DFD cohesion means your DFDs include all of the necessary components for the system you are modeling.

Data at rest, which may take the form of many different physical representations, best describes a: A) source. B) data store. C) data flow. D) process. E) relationship.

Data cannot move directly from a source to a sink.

Data contained on a customer order form would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a: A) process. B) data flow. C) source. D) sink. E) relationship.

Data in motion, moving from one place in a system to another, best describes a: A) data store. B) process. C) source. D) data flow. E) relationship.

Data on a customer form could be represented on a data-flow diagram as a data flow.

Display sequence refers to the way a user can move from one display to another.

Double-ended arrows are used to represent data flowing in both directions.

Drawbacks to prototyping include: A) a tendency to create formal documentation of systems requirements which can then make the system more difficult to develop into a fully working system. B) using when requirements are not clear. C) creating when tools and data are readily available. D) checks in the SDLC are bypassed so that some more subtle, but still important, system requirements might be forgotten. E) support from management.

Due to the principle of incremental commitment, a selected project will result in a working system.

Each of the following are true statements EXCEPT: A) every output form or report is a data flow produced by a process on a data-flow diagram. B) forms have a stylized format and are usually not in simple rows and columns. C) a report is only for reading and often contains data about multiple unrelated records in a computer file. D) a form typically contains data from only one record. E) systems inputs and outputs are produced during the systems implementation and operation phase of the systems development life cycle.

Ensuring that every fact fits with every other fact best describes: A) the impertinence characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination. B) the impartiality characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination. C) the relaxing of constraints characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination. D) the attention to details characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination. E) the reframing characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

Essential features are those that everyone agrees are necessary to solve the problem or meet the opportunity.

Finding the best solution to a business problem or opportunity describes the attention to details characteristic that a systems analyst should exhibit during the requirements determination phase.

Functional capabilities for providing smooth and easy navigation within a form include cursor-control, editing, exit, and help capabilities.

Requirements creep is a term used to describe a project that has become bogged down in an abundance of analysis work.

Systems analysis is the first phase of the systems development life cycle.

The size validation test tests for too few or too many characters.

When referencing an employee entity, an employee's skills are an example of a multivalued attribute.

A primitive level data-flow diagram is the first deliverable produced during requirements structuring.

A product is an example of a(n): A) data element. B) attribute. C) entity. D) relationship. E) process.

A relationship must be turned into an associative entity when the associative entity has other relationships with entities besides the relationship that caused its creation.

A repeating group is a set of two or more multivalued attributes that are logically related.

A supplier of auto parts to your company would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a: A) process. B) source. C) data flow. D) data store. E) relationship.

A ternary relationship is the equivalent of three binary relationships.

A ternary relationship occurs when a simultaneous relationship exists among instances of: A) the same entity. B) two entity types. C) three entity types. D) four entity types. E) nine entity types.

During the designing the human interface step of the design phase, you would enumerate different potential implementation environments that could be used to deliver the different sets of capabilities.

Features that everyone agrees are necessary to solve the problem or meet the opportunity are called: A) desired features. B) essential features. C) mandatory features. D) minimum features. E) requested features.

Questions in interviews and on questionnaires that have no pre-specified answers are: A) nonspecific questions. B) closed-ended questions. C) open-ended questions. D) investigative questions. E) exploratory questions.

Referencing a walkthrough, the maintenance oracle ensures that the work product adheres to organizational technical standards.

Referencing a walkthrough, the user makes sure that the work product meets the needs of the project's customers.

Referencing interface layout guidelines, data fields should be grouped into logical categories with labels describing the contents of the category.

Referencing interface layout guidelines, data should not be permanently saved by the system until the user makes an explicit request to do so.

Referencing interface layout guidelines, the standard screen navigation that users use to move between fields should be from left-to-right and top-to-bottom.

Referencing interface layout guidelines, users should not be able to access areas of the screen not used for data entry or commands.

Relationships are labeled with verb phrases.

Research has found that projects identified by individual departments or business units most often: A) have a narrow, tactical focus. B) reflect diversity and have a cross-functional focus. C) have a strategic, organizational focus. D) will integrate easily with existing hardware and systems. E) have a very high systems development priority.

Research has found that projects identified by top management more often: A) have a narrow, tactical focus. B) reflect diversity and have a cross-functional focus. C) have a strategic, organizational focus. D) will integrate easily with existing hardware and systems. E) have a very low systems development priority.

Since data-flow diagrams concentrate on the movement of data between processes, these diagrams are often referred to as: A) process models. B) data models. C) flow models. D) flow charts. E) logic models.

Testing to ensure that data conforms to a standard format is the purpose of the: A) missing data validation test. B) pictures/templates validation test. C) reasonableness validation test. D) size validation test. E) self-checking digits validation test.

The conservation of inputs and outputs is called: A) decomposition. B) balancing. C) flow conservation. D) data flow structuring. E) gap proofing.

The data modeling perspective that derives the business rules for a data model from an intimate understanding of the nature of the business, rather than from any specific information requirements in screens, reports, or business forms, is referred to as the: A) top-down approach. B) bottom-up approach. C) overview approach. D) business approach. E) conceptual approach.

The data on all forms and reports must consist of data elements in data stores and on the E-R data model for the application or else be computed from these data elements.

The decomposition of Process 2.4.3.4 would be shown on a level-4 diagram.

The determination of which items are low in stock is represented on a data-flow diagram as a process.

The development group identifies projects based on the ease with which existing hardware and systems will integrate with the proposed project.

The reduction of waste creation is an example of a(n): A) intangible benefit. B) qualitative benefit. C) tangible benefit. D) operational benefit. E) profitable benefit.

The search for, and implementation of, radical change in business processes to achieve breakthrough improvements in products and services best defines: A) joint application design. B) rapid application development. C) structured programming. D) business process reengineering. E) disruptive design.

The sequence of interaction between a user and a system best describes a(n): A) interface. B) discussion. C) dialogue. D) session. E) listing.

The technique where users must confirm their intention twice before being allowed to proceed is called: A) double-confirmation. B) double-checking. C) replacement confirmation. D) validity confirmation. E) feedback confirmation.

To identify the financial benefits and costs associated with the development project is the purpose of: A) financial feasibility. B) technical feasibility. C) operational feasibility. D) economic feasibility. E) schedule feasibility.

To maintain consistency, the classification and ranking of projects should only be performed by top management or a steering committee.

When comparing alternative methods for making information systems identification and selection decisions, top management's selection decisions often involve a small system size and have a cross-functional focus.

When comparing observations and document analysis: A) the time required to conduct observations compared to document analysis is low. B) the expense of the observation method is quite low. C) the potential audience of the observation method is limited. D) a clear commitment is discernible. E) the chances of probing and clarification are good with document analysis.

When designing textual output, the text's case should be displayed in mixed upper- and lowercase.

When gathering system requirements, document analysis and observation are used the least.

When reviewing job procedures, you may find: A) data definition conflicts. B) duplicate CEOs. C) data manipulation conflicts. D) a contradiction between a formal procedure and interview or observation results. E) competitors mission statements.

Which of the following is the standard method of gathering and displaying information on the Internet? A) Dialogue interaction B) Form interaction C) Report interaction D) Menu selection E) VRML interaction

Structure charts, flow charts, and dialogue diagrams are the major deliverables for the human interface design stage.

The JAD approach is used for designing interfaces and dialogues.

The alternative that goes beyond simply solving the problem in question and focuses instead on systems that contain many extra features users may desire is referred to as a: A) low-end alternative. B) high-end alternative. C) quality-focused alternative. D) requirements-dependent alternative. E) constraints-dependent alternative.

The characteristics of data captured during data modeling are crucial in the design of databases, programs, computer screens, and printed reports.

When designing textual output, you should use single spacing wherever possible.

When designing the navigation procedures within a system, the primary concerns are dialogue flow and the instructional features.

A gross violation of DFD consistency would be a level-1 diagram with no level-0 diagram.

A join is an association between the instances of one or more entity types that is of interest to the organization.

Rating a response or idea on some scale, say from strongly agree to strongly disagree, would be classified as a(n): A) open-ended question. B) stratified question. C) closed-ended question. D) contemporary question. E) structured question.

Recording a customer's payment would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a(n): A) process. B) source. C) data flow. D) data store. E) action stub.

Referencing a walkthrough, the coordinator reviews the work product in terms of future maintenance activities.

Structured analysis techniques, such as data-flow diagramming, can help companies avoid misunderstanding how existing systems will have to work with the new system and incorrect specifications for necessary data, forms, and reports.

Student data contained on an enrollment form would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a: A) process. B) data flow. C) source. D) data store. E) relationship.

System inputs and outputs are produced at the end of the: A) systems analysis phase of the SDLC. B) systems design phase of the SDLC. C) systems planning and selection phase of the SDLC. D) systems implementation and operation phase of the SDLC. E) logic modeling stage.

Techniques developed to keep the analysis effort minimal, yet still effective include: A) JAD. B) interviewing. C) observations. D) document analysis. E) questionnaires.

Techniques used for modeling system logic include: A) flow charts. B) decision tables. C) data-flow diagrams. D) dialogue charts. E) entity-relationship diagrams.

Technologies that enable the breaking of long-held business rules that inhibit organizations from making radical business changes best defines: A) technology barrier breakers. B) reengineered technologies. C) disruptive technologies. D) state-of-the-art technologies. E) innovative technologies.

Templates used to display and process common attributes of higher-level, more abstract items best describes: A) object-oriented templates. B) CGI scripts. C) Java. D) style sheet-based HTML. E) style sheet-based XML.;

Testing to assure that data is of proper type is the purpose of the: A) expected values validation test. B) range validation test. C) class or composition validation test. D) values validation test. E) self-checking digits validation test.

The lowest level of DFDs are: A) level-0 diagrams. B) context diagrams. C) level-1 diagrams. D) primitive data-flow diagrams. E) systematic diagrams.

The lowest level of decomposition for a data-flow diagram is called the: A) context diagram. B) level-0 diagram. C) level-1 diagram. D) primitive diagram. E) cohesive diagram.

The lowest-level data-flow diagrams are called level-0 diagrams.

The major deliverables associated with the human interface design stage are: A) process models. B) the Baseline Project Plan and structure charts. C) logic models. D) design specifications. E) program specifications.

The part of a decision table that lists the actions that result for a given set of conditions is called: A) action stubs. B) condition stubs. C) rule section. D) execution stubs. E) processing stubs.

The person who makes detailed notes of the happenings at a joint application design session is referred to as the: A) JAD analyst. B) scribe. C) JAD manager. D) JAD session leader. E) JAD oracle.

The minimum requirements for a new system are also its mandatory features.

The minimum requirements for the new system are called: A) essential features. B) desired features. C) minimum features. D) mandatory features. E) designated features.

The most common format used for data modeling is: A) state-transition diagramming. B) entity-relationship diagramming. C) process modeling. D) logic modeling. E) a flowchart.

The most conservative solutions in terms of the effort, cost, and technology involved in developing a new system are the: A) low-end solutions. B) high-end solutions. C) mid-range solutions. D) constraint-dependent solutions. E) requirements-dependent solutions.

The most useful forms do not contain data.

The names of data stores on primitive-level data flow diagrams often correspond to the names of data entities in entity-relationship (E-R) diagrams.

The number of entity types that participate in a relationship refers to: A) cardinality. B) association. C) count. D) degree. E) normalization.

The objective of project identification and selection is to transform a vague system request document into a tangible project description.

The objective of return on investment (ROI) analysis is to discover at what point cumulative benefits equal costs.

The objective of the project planning process is the development of: A) a Baseline Project Plan and Project Scope Statement. B) a Systems Service Request. C) entity relationship diagrams. D) corporate strategic plan. E) an information systems plan.

The official way a system works as described in organizational documentation is referred to as a(n): A) formal system. B) informal system. C) official system. D) desired system. E) primary system.

The primary deliverable from the conceptual data-modeling step within the analysis phase is: A) a state-transition diagram. B) an entity-relationship diagram. C) a context data flow diagram. D) a decision table. E) Structured English.

When comparing observations and document analysis, the chances for follow-up and probing with document analysis are rated high to excellent.

When designing a form or report, which of the following is a fundamental question? A) Who will pay for the form or report? B) What reports will be removed? C) When is the form or report needed and used? D) Where will the report be housed? E) How will the report be marketed?

When designing interfaces and dialogues, you follow a: A) prototyping approach. B) structured methodology approach. C) structured design approach. D) structured analysis approach. E) Structured English approach.

When designing textual output, you should hyphenate words between lines.

When designing the navigation procedures within your system, the primary concerns are: A) the design of between-field navigation and the ability to provide feedback. B) grouping data fields into logical categories and assigning group labels. C) consistency. D) formatting and meaningful labels. E) spacing and color differences.

When displaying tables and lists, you should break long sequences of alphanumeric data into small groups of three to four characters each.

When displaying tables and lists, you should right-justify numeric data and align columns by decimal points or other delimiters.

When displaying textual information, use abbreviations and acronyms as often as possible.

When selecting an identifier, one should choose a candidate key that will not change its value over the life of each instance of the entity type.

Which of the following are organizational components that a systems analyst needs to understand? A) Non-key events affecting data values (not including dates) B) Policies and guidelines that are not related to the nature of the business C) The sequence and other dependencies among different data-handling activities D) The data handled by competitors E) Departmental Politics

The primary deliverable from the project identification and selection phase is: A) a context data flow diagram. B) at least three substantively different system design strategies for building the replacement information system. C) the development of a new version of the software and new versions of all design documents. D) an entity relationship diagram. E) a schedule of specific IS development projects.

The primary deliverables from requirements determination include: A) a completed prototype. B) a completed system. C) a final systems design document. D) a draft systems design document. E) identifying a steering committee.

The primary purpose of using JAD in the analysis phase is to collect systems requirements simultaneously from the key people involved with the system.

The process of discovering discrepancies between two or more sets of data-flow diagrams or discrepancies within a single DFD is referred to as: A) requirements structuring. B) logic modeling. C) DFD validation. D) gap analysis. E) DFD stress testing.

The project charter reflects the best estimate of the project's scope, benefits, costs, risks, and resource requirements, given the current understanding of the project.

Which of the following is NOT a rule for structuring data entry fields? A) Never require the user to enter information that is already available within the system. B) Users should enter current dates into the form. C) Require users to specify the dimensional units of a particular value. D) All data entered onto a screen should automatically justify in a standard format. E) Always place a caption adjacent to fields.

"Please wait while I open the file" is an example of: A) status information. B) a remark. C) a warning message. D) a prompting cue. E) a class or composition validation test.

A data flow can go directly back to the same process it leaves.

A data flow repository entry would include the composition or list of data elements contained in the data flow.

A data flow represents data in motion, moving from one place in the system to another.

A data flow to a data store means update.

A multivalued attribute is an attribute that may take on more than one value for each entity instance.

A ternary relationship is a relationship between instances of one entity type.

Analysts should use intelligent keys as identifiers.

As a rule of thumb, no data-flow diagram should have more than about seven processes on it.

BPR efforts often result in the development of information system maintenance requests or requests for system replacement.

Book, supplier, and state are examples of entity types.

Building dialogue prototypes and assessing usability are often optional activities.

Cardinality is the number of instances of entity B that can (or must) be associated with each instance of entity A.

Conceptual data modeling for an Internet-based electronic commerce application differs significantly from the process followed when analyzing the data needs for other types of applications.

Conceptual data modeling is typically done in parallel with other requirements analysis and structuring steps during: A) systems planning and selection. B) systems design. C) systems analysis. D) systems implementation and operation. E) systems evaluation.

Context diagrams have only one process labeled "P-1."

Contrary to popular belief, interviewing is not one of the primary ways analysts gather information about an information systems project.

Cost is the primary focus of high-end alternatives.

Cost reduction and avoidance, error reduction, and increased flexibility are examples of: A) intangible benefits. B) qualitative benefits. C) tangible benefits. D) legal and contractual benefits. E) profitable benefits.

Data-flow diagramming is one of several structured analysis techniques used to increase software development productivity.

Data-flow diagrams (DFD) illustrate important concepts about the movement of data.

Data-flow diagrams allow you to: A) show the timing of data flows. B) model how data flow through an information system. C) demonstrate the sequencing of activities. D) show the relationship among entities. E) represent the internal structure and functionality of processes.

Data-flow diagrams evolve from the more general to the more detailed as current and replacement systems are better understood.

Decision support tools aiding nonmanagers is an example of a disruptive technology.

Designing usable forms and reports requires your active interaction with users.

Designing usable forms and reports requires: A) prototyping. B) data modeling. C) active interaction with end users. D) process modeling. E) using structured analysis.

Disruptive technologies enable the breaking of long-held business rules that inhibit organizations from making radical business changes.

Disruptive technologies include: A) cash. B) accounts receivable. C) a calculator. D) high-performance computing. E) systems analysis.

Employee identification number, name, address, and skill are examples of attributes.

Enumerating different potential implementation environments that could be used to deliver the different sets of capabilities occurs during the: A) requirements structuring step of the analysis phase. B) shaping alternative system design strategies phase. C) testing step of the implementation and operation phase. D) project initiation and planning step of the planning and selection phase. E) designing the human interface step of the design phase.

Form and report design: A) generally follows a prototyping approach. B) generally follows a structured methodology. C) generally follows a structured design approach. D) generally follows a structured analysis approach. E) uses Structured English to prepare the design specifications.

Form designers should use highlighting as often as possible to distinguish the different categories of data.

Forms are most useful: A) when they do not contain any data. B) during the initial planning stages. C) when they contain actual organizational data. D) during the design stage. E) during the requirements structuring stage.

If an input from a source appears on a level-0 diagram, it must: A) appear on the context diagram. B) be connected to a data flow. C) be connected to a sink. D) be connected to a data store. E) be connected to two entities.

Induction refers to the process of first identifying problems and then formulating solutions.

One way to handle repeating data within an entity is to separate the repeating data into another entity, called a weak entity.

Open-ended questions are usually used to probe for information when you cannot anticipate all possible responses or when you do not know the precise question to ask.

Open-ended questions put the interviewee at ease, are easily summarized, and save time.

Projects identified by top management have a cross-functional focus.

Reversing the sequence of one or more characters in a field is called: A) transposing. B) transcripting. C) appending. D) truncating. E) hashing.

Tables are very beneficial for analyzing data changes over time.

Which of the following is a method for representing human-computer dialogues? A) Logic modeling B) Sequence modeling C) Process modeling D) Dialogue diagramming E) Transition diagramming

Which of the following is a true statement regarding sources/sinks? A) Data must originate inside a system from one or more sources. B) The system must produce information to only one sink. C) Sources/sinks are always outside the information system. D) If any processing takes place inside the source/sink, we are very interested in it. E) Sinks and sources are used interchangeably.

Which of the following is an example of a form? A) Invoice B) Pie chart C) Mailing labels D) An electronic spreadsheet E) Weekly sales summaries by region and salesperson

While being observed, employees may follow exact procedures more carefully than they typically do.

A JAD is an inexpensive, popular requirements determination technique.

A good number of alternatives to generate is five.

A miracle process is one that: A) has only inputs. B) has only outputs. C) cannot be exploded further. D) has insufficient inputs to produce the associated processes. E) is connected directly to a source.

A named property or characteristic of an entity that is of interest to the organization defines: A) attribute. B) relationship. C) instance. D) associative entity. E) data flow.

A particular approach to developing an information system best describes: A) design strategy. B) problem statement. C) requirements statement. D) scope. E) systems service request.

A primary key should be null.

A written work procedure: A) indicates the job an analyst will need to perform on a given project. B) describes how a particular job or task is performed. C) indicates what data flow in or out of a system and which are necessary for the system to function. D) enables you to work backwards from the information on a report to the data that must have been necessary to generate it. E) determines if the information makes sense for the organization from an economic and operational standpoint.

An assessment of the development group's understanding of the possible target hardware, software, and operating environments, system size, complexity, and the group's experience with similar systems should be included as part of: A) technical feasibility. B) political feasibility. C) operational feasibility. D) schedule feasibility. E) construction feasibility.

An association between the instances of one or more entity types that is of interest to the organization best defines: A) occurrence. B) relationship. C) natural connection. D) cardinality. E) entity link.

An attribute (or combination of attributes) that uniquely identifies each instance of an entity type defines: A) data element occurrence. B) trigger. C) candidate key. D) associative entity. E) data marker.

An attribute that can have more than one value for each entity instance is referred to as: A) a gerund. B) a multivalued attribute. C) a nonexclusive attribute. D) a data replica. E) composite attribute

An entity is a person, place, object, event, or concept in the user environment about which the organization wishes to maintain data.

An ideal number of alternatives to generate is: A) 3. B) 2. C) 4. D) 5. E) 7.

An identifier is a candidate key that has been selected as the unique, identifying characteristic for an entity type.

Analysts should consider substituting single-attribute surrogate keys for large composite keys.

As a systems analyst, it is part of your job to create a document for a missing work procedure.

Assuming anything is possible and eliminating the infeasible describes the reframing characteristic that a systems analyst should exhibit during the requirements determination phase.

Good interface design provides a consistent way for moving the cursor to different places on the form, editing characters and fields, moving among form displays, and obtaining help.

Good interview guidelines consist of: A) phrasing the question to illicit the correct response. B) typing your notes within two weeks of the interview. C) establishing expectation levels about the new system. D) seeking a variety of perspectives from the interviews. E) using as much time as you need.

Highlighting methods should be consistently selected and used based upon the level of importance of the emphasized information.

Highlighting should be used as often as possible to draw the user away from or to certain information.

If each employee can have more than one skill, then skill is referred to as a: A) gerund. B) multivalued attribute. C) nonexclusive attribute. D) repeating attribute. E) data replica.

If entity B is a mandatory participant, then: A) the minimum cardinality of the relationship is two. [Type here] B) the minimum cardinality of the relationship cannot be defined. C) the minimum cardinality of the relationship is one. D) the minimum cardinality of the relationship is optional. E) the join level is not null.

If the net present value (NPV) of all costs is $100,000 and the NPV of all benefits is $170,000, then the ROI would be 35 percent.

If you encounter contradictory information about procedures from interviews, questionnaires, or observations, you should reconcile the contradictions before proceeding to other analysis tasks.

In business-related systems, textual output is becoming less important as the text-based applications that use these systems are slowly disappearing.

In order to determine security controls and understand who really knows the meaning of data, an analyst might ask, "What natural activities or transactions of the business involve handling data about several objects of the same or different type?"

In order to determine the integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data, an analyst might ask, "Are values for data characteristics limited in any way?"

Key business processes are customer focused.

Meeting notes, procedure manuals, and consultant reports are specific deliverables that might be obtained during the requirements determination process.

Multiple choice, rating, and ranking are types of closed-ended questions.

Rapid process redesign is the search for, and implementation of, radical change in business processes to achieve breakthrough improvements in products and services.

Referencing a JAD session, the sponsor is the individual responsible for organizing and running a JAD session.

Since a name represents a set of entities, it is plural on an entity-relationship diagram.

Since observations are unbiased, they are preferable to other requirements determination techniques.

Site preparation is an example of a one-time cost.

Social security number, last name, and first name are examples of entity types.

Sources and sinks are internal to the system.

Structured analysis is the process of discovering discrepancies between two or more sets of 5 data-flow diagrams or discrepancies within a single DFD.

Tangible benefits would include: A) improved organizational planning. B) ability to investigate more alternatives. C) improved asset control. D) lower transaction costs. E) first to market.

The ability to provide field-level help is often referred to as: A) context-sensitive help. B) screen-level help. C) systems-level help. D) application-level help. E) user-level help.

The baseline project plan (BPP) is the primary deliverable from the project identification and selection phase.

The extent to which information contained on one level of a set of nested data-flow diagrams is also included on other levels refers to: A) DFD consistency. B) DFD completeness. C) DFD gap proofing. D) DFD flexibility. E) DFD cohesion.

The number of instances of entity B that can (or must) be associated with each instance of entity A refers to: A) cardinality. B) domain. C) ternary occurrence. D) participation level. E) join level.

The prototyping process usually includes formal documentation of system requirements.

The systems planning and selection process for an Internet-based electronic commerce application is no different than the process followed for other applications.

The time value of money (TVM) compares present cash outlays to future expected returns.

Use a verb or verb phrase to name an entity.

Using a discount rate of 10 percent, the present value of a $2,500 benefit received five years from now is $1,552.30.

When comparing observations and document analysis, the expense of observations is rated moderate.

When designing textual output, both the left and right margins should appear justified.

Which of the following alternative methods for making information systems identification and selection decisions has the highest associated cost? A) Development group B) User department C) Steering committee D) Top management E) End user

Which of the following are general guidelines for displaying tables and lists? A) All columns and rows should not contain labels. B) Place three blank lines between every five rows in long columns. C) Use the same family of typefaces within and across displays and reports. D) Do not include white space on printed reports for the user to write notes. E) Rows should be limited to 1000.

Which of the following can be considered an advantage of open-ended questions? A) The interviewer cannot explore unexpected lines of inquiry. B) Open-ended questions often make the interviewee scared. C) The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview. D) Interviewees can respond by selecting true or false. E) Data cannot be collected over the phone.

Which of the following focuses on how information is provided to and captured from users? A) Structure chart B) Flow chart C) Entity-relationship diagram D) PERT diagram E) Interface and dialogue design

Which of the following functional capabilities are required for providing smooth and easy navigation within a form? A) Star capabilities B) Blending capabilities C) Capital capabilities D) Help capabilities E) Cash capabilities

Which of the following is NOT a general guideline for displaying tables and lists? A) Labels should be separated from other information by using highlighting. B) Avoid overly fancy fonts. C) Columns should have at least two spaces between them. D) Right-justify textual data, and use a short line length. E) Similar information displayed in multiple columns should be sorted vertically.

Which of the following is NOT a process modeling deliverable? A) A context data-flow diagram B) Thorough descriptions of each DFD component C) DFDs of the current physical system D) An entity relationship diagram E) DFDs of the new logical system

Which of the following is NOT a project initiation activity? A) Establishing management procedures B) Dividing the project into manageable tasks C) Establishing a relationship with the customer D) Establishing the project initiation team E) Establishing the project initiation plan

Which of the following is NOT a project planning activity? A) Determining project standards and procedures B) Establishing management procedures C) Developing a Statement of Work D) Dividing the project into manageable tasks E) Developing a communication plan

Which of the following is NOT a rule for structuring data entry fields? A) Never require data that is already online or that can be computed. B) Always provide default values when appropriate. C) Data entries should not be justified. D) Always place a caption adjacent to fields. E) Provide context-sensitive help when appropriate.

Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding data flows? A) A data flow can go directly back to the same process it leaves. B) A fork in a data flow means that exactly the same data go from a common location to two or more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks. C) A data flow from a data store means retrieve or use. D) A data flow has a noun-phrase label. E) A data flow has only one direction of flow between symbols.

Which of the following is a true statement? A) A data model explains what the organization does and what rules govern how work is done in the organization. B) To construct a data model, you need to know how data are processed. C) To construct a data model, you need to know when data are processed. D) A data flow diagram graphically illustrates the structure and relationships among data items. E) During conceptual data modeling, the preparation of a Network diagram is necessary.

Which of the following is one of the three primary activities associated with identifying and selecting IS development projects? A) Preliminary investigation of the system problem or opportunity B) Identification of potential development projects C) Requirements determination D) Generate alternative initial designs E) Requirements structuring

Which of the following is the design specification section that provides a general overview of the characteristics of the target users, tasks, systems, and environmental factors in which the form or report will be used? A) System description B) Narrative overview C) Sample design D) Testing and usability assessment E) Project overview

Which part of the design specification explains to those who will actually develop the final form why this form exists and how it will be used so that they can make the appropriate implementation decisions? A) System description B) Narrative overview C) Sample design D) Testing and usability assessment E) Project overview

You should use the interview process to set expectations about the new or replacement system.

A "many" maximum cardinality is noted on the E-R diagram by: A) placing a crow's foot notation near the entity. B) placing a zero through the line near the entity. C) using a double ellipse near the entity. D) placing two slash marks near the entity. E) using brackets.

A DFD that is a result of three nested decompositions of a series of subprocesses from a process on a level-0 diagram describes a: A) level-3 diagram. B) level-1 diagram. C) level-2 diagram. D) primitive diagram. E) context diagram.

A Web site's customer is represented as a source on a data-flow diagram.

A benefit derived from the creation of an information system that can be measured in dollars and with certainty is a(n): A) intangible benefit. B) qualitative benefit. C) tangible benefit. D) operational benefit. E) profitable benefit.

A black hole is a process that: A) has only inputs. B) has only outputs. C) has not been exploded to show enough detail. D) has insufficient inputs to produce the associated processes. E) generates output directly to a sink.

A business document that contains some predefined data and may include some areas where additional data are to be filled in best describes a: A) written procedure. B) turn-around document. C) form. D) report. E) coupon.

A major disadvantage of closed-ended questions is that useful information that does not quite fit the defined answers may be overlooked as the respondent tries to make a choice instead of providing his or her best answer.

A major outcome and deliverable from project initiation and planning that reflects the best estimate of the project's scope, benefits, costs, risks, and resource requirements defines the: A) Baseline Project Plan. B) Information Systems Plan. C) Mission Statement. D) Resource Requirements Statement. E) Systems Service Request.

A major outcome and deliverable from the project initiation and planning phase that contains an estimate of the project's scope, benefits, costs, risks, and resource requirements best defines: A) Baseline Project Plan. B) Information Systems Plan. C) Business Case. D) Statement of Work. E) System Service Request.

A peer-group review of any product created during the systems development process is called a: A) baseline project plan. B) structured workflow. C) structured walkthrough. D) statement of work. E) none of the above.

A person, place, object, event, or concept in the user environment about which the organization wishes to maintain data refers to a(n): A) attribute. B) data element. C) relationship. D) entity. E) process.

A plural relationship is a relationship that the data modeler chooses to model as entity type.

A process has a verb label.

Because many projects may be competing for the same investment dollars and may have different useful life expectancies, all costs and benefits must be viewed in relation to their present rather than future value when comparing investment options.

Challenging yourself to look at the organization in new ways describes the impertinence characteristic that a systems analyst should exhibit during the requirements determination phase.

During requirements determination, information can be gathered from users of the current system, forms, reports, and procedures.

Each of the following is a guideline for displaying text EXCEPT: A) use abbreviations and acronyms instead of full text. B) do not hyphenate words between lines. C) left-justify text and leave a ragged right margin. D) display text in mixed upper- and lowercase and use conventional punctuation. E) use double spacing if space permits.

Each of the following is a true statement about highlighting EXCEPT: A) highlighting techniques can be used singularly or in combination, depending upon the level of emphasis desired by the designer. B) highlighting should be used conservatively. C) highlighting methods should be consistently selected and used based upon the level of importance of the emphasized information. D) highlighting should be used as frequently as possible to draw the user to or away from certain information and to group together related information. E) it is important to examine how a particular highlighting method appears on all possible output devices that could be used with the system.

Economic feasibility is a process of identifying the financial benefits and costs associated with a development project.

Forms are important for understanding a business because they: A) indicate the correct sequencing of tasks. B) describe how particular tasks are performed. C) indicate what data flow in or out of a system and which are necessary for the system to function. D) enable you to work backwards from the information on a report to the necessary data that must have been necessary to generate them. E) identify duplicate efforts within a system.

Fulfillment feasibility is the process of examining the likelihood that the project will attain its desired objectives.

Gaining an understanding of the skills of the intended system users and the tasks they will be performing is invaluable when constructing a form or report.

Gathering the information you need for data modeling by reviewing specific business documents handled within the system describes the: A) bottom-up approach. B) conceptual approach. C) top-down approach. D) investigative approach. E) business approach.

Highlighting techniques can be used singularly or in combination, depending upon the level of emphasis desired by the designer.

In documents you can find information about special information processing circumstances that occur irregularly.

In documents you can find information about the values of the organization or individuals who can help determine priorities for different capabilities desired by different users.

In theory, if there are four sets of requirements, three implementation environments, and four sources of application software, then there would be thirty-six possible design strategies.

In theory, if there are four sources of application software, two implementation environments, and three sets of requirements, how many design strategies are possible? A) 4 B) 24 C) 9 D) 2 E) 27

In theory, if there are six sets of requirements, four implementation environments, and five sources of application software, then there would be one hundred twenty possible design strategies.

Informal systems develop because of inadequacies of formal procedures, individual work habits and preferences, and resistance to control.

Information refinement means taking the system requirements you find during requirements determination and ordering them into tables, diagrams, and other formats that make them easier to translate into technical system specifications.

Movement to another screen corresponds to the functional requirement of: A) cursor-control capabilities. B) editing capabilities. C) exit capabilities. D) help capabilities. E) formatting capabilities.

Often, the initial prototypes of forms and reports are mock screens that are not working modules or systems.

Project initiation focuses on activities that will help organize a team to conduct project planning.

Project planning focuses on defining clear, discrete tasks and the work needed to complete each task.

Proper and insightful project initiation and planning, including determining project scope and identifying project activities, can reduce the time needed to complete later project phases, including systems analysis.

Prototyping is most useful for requirements determination when: A) user requirements are well understood. B) communication problems have existed in the past between users and analysts. C) possible designs are simple and require an abstract form to fully evaluate. D) multiple stakeholders are involved with the system. E) data are not readily available.

Questioning everything best describes: A) the impertinence characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination. B) the impartiality characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination. C) the relaxing of constraints characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination. D) the attention to details characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination. E) the reframing characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

Questions in interviews and on questionnaires asking those responding to choose from a set of specified responses are: A) specific questions. B) closed-ended questions. C) open-ended questions. D) structured questions. E) stratified questions.

Referencing the Management Issues section of the baseline project plan, the communication plan provides a description of the team member roles and reporting relationships.

Requirements structuring is the first activity of the systems planning and selection phase.

Reviewing computer screens, reports, and business forms for the purpose of gaining an understanding of data is indicative of the: A) investigative approach. B) business approach. C) bottom-up approach. D) top-down approach. E) conceptual approach.

The act of going from a single system to several component processes refers to: A) structuring. B) balancing. C) decomposition. D) formatting. E) regeneration.

The construction of an information system can have political ramifications.

The context and meaning of tables and lists are derived from the format of the information.

The criteria used to evaluate projects will vary by organization.

The current value of a future cash flow is referred to as: A) future value. B) present value. C) investment value. D) discount rate. E) cash flow rate.

The data a sink receives and often what data a source provides are fixed.

The decomposition of Process 1.1 would be shown on a level-1 diagram.

The major deliverables from the human interface design stage are logic models.

The major outcomes and deliverables from project initiation and planning are the baseline project plan and the project scope statement.

The minimum cardinality of a relationship is the minimum number of instances of entity B that may be associated with each instance of entity A.

The minimum number of instances of entity B that may be associated with each instance of entity A defines the: A) degree of the relationship. B) minimum cardinality of the relationship. C) maximum cardinality of the relationship. D) domain of the relationship. E) join level.

The origin and/or destination of data, sometimes referred to as external entities defines: A) source. B) data store. C) data flow. D) process. E) predecessor.

The part of a decision table that links conditions to actions is the section that contains the: A) action statements. B) rules. C) condition statements. D) decision stubs. E) relationship stubs.

The primary deliverable for the conceptual data-modeling step within the analysis phase is an entity-relationship diagram.

To date, data-flow diagrams have not been useful tools for modeling processes in business process reengineering.

To keep a data-flow diagram uncluttered, you may repeat data stores, sinks/sources, and processes.

Using a discount rate of 12 percent, the present value of a $50,500 benefit received two years from now is $40,258.29.

Using a discount rate of 14 percent, the present value of a $10,000 benefit received five years from now is $5,500.49.

Using lists to break information into manageable pieces conforms to the SOS guideline of: A) shortcuts. B) organize. C) simplicity. D) show. E) sequence.

Variable costs are costs resulting from the ongoing evolution and use of a system.

Vehicle identification number, color, weight, and horsepower best exemplify: A) entities. B) entity types. C) data markers. D) identifiers. E) attributes.

When a transcripting data error occurs, additional characters have been added to a field.

When an appending data error has occurred, characters have been lost from the field.

When comparing observations and document analysis, the time required for document analysis is rated as low to moderate.

When constructing data-flow diagrams, you should show the interactions that occur between sources and sinks.

When data are processed online, it is less likely that data-validity errors will be caught.

When performing observations, it is best to select typical people and sites as opposed to atypical people and sites.

When preparing an initial prototype of a form or report, the structuring and refinement of the requirements involves much input from the end users.

Which of the following is an advantage of closed-ended questions? A) Interviews based on closed-ended questions do not necessarily require a large time commitment, so more topics can be covered. B) Closed-ended questions enable the analysts to explore information that does not quite fit defined answers. C) The analyst can obtain previously unknown information. D) Closed-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease. E) The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview.

Which of the following is an example of a report? A) Mailing labels B) Computer sign-on screen C) Electronic spreadsheet D) Automated teller machine transaction layout E) Class registration sheet

Which of the following technologies disrupted the business rule that information can appear only in one place at a time? A) High-performance computing B) Distributed databases C) Expert systems D) Advanced telecommunications networks E) Decision support tools

Which of the following types of alternatives represent compromise solutions? A) Low-end alternatives B) High-end alternatives C) Midrange alternatives D) Requirements-dependent alternatives E) Constraints-dependent alternatives

Which of the following would be classified as a tangible cost? A) Loss of customer goodwill B) Cost of hardware C) Employee morale D) Operational inefficiency E) Not all customers use the Internet.

Which of the following would be classified as an intangible cost? A) Hardware costs B) Labor costs C) Employee morale D) Operational costs E) Internet service setup fee

A level-0 diagram is a data-flow diagram that represents a system's major processes, data flows, and data stores at a high level of detail.

A collection of entities that share common properties or characteristics best defines: A) entity type. B) entity instance. C) entity occurrence. D) entity collection. E) data set.

A common mistake using highlighting includes: A) blinking and audible tones. B) color differences. C) intensity differences. D) size differences. E) overusing highlighting elements.

A composite data flow on one level can be split into component data flows at the next level, but no new data can be added and all data in the composite must be accounted for in one or more subflows.

A computer-based file containing employee information would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a(n): A) data flow. B) source. C) data store. D) process. E) action stub.

A cost associated with an information system that cannot be easily measured in terms of dollars or with certainty refers to a(n): A) economic cost. B) tangible cost. C) intangible cost. D) one-time cost. E) nonconsumable cost.

A cost associated with project start-up refers to a(n): A) recurring cost. B) one-time cost. C) incremental cost. D) infrequent cost. E) consumable cost.

A cost resulting from the ongoing evolution and use of a system best defines a(n): A) recurring cost. B) one-time cost. C) incremental cost. D) frequent cost. E) variable cost.

A data-flow diagram that represents a system's major processes, data flows, and data stores at a high level of detail refers to a: A) context diagram. B) level-1 diagram. C) level-0 diagram. D) level-00 diagram. E) logic diagram.

A department head deciding which project requests to submit is an example of: A) a preliminary investigation of the system problem or opportunity. B) identifying potential development projects. C) requirements determination. D) generating alternative initial designs. E) requirements structuring.

A document prepared for the customer during project initiation and planning that describes what the project will deliver and outlines generally at a high level all work required to complete the project is the: A) Information Systems Plan. B) Project Scope Statement. C) Mission Statement. D) Baseline Project Plan. E) Systems Service Request.

A formal method for designing and representing human-computer dialogues using box and line diagrams is referred to as: A) interface design. B) dialogue diagramming. C) conversation modeling. D) entity-relationship diagramming. E) logic modeling.

All information collected during project initiation and planning is collected and organized into a document called the baseline project plan.

All of the following might attend a structured walkthrough meeting EXCEPT: A) CEO. B) Standards Bearer. C) User. D) Maintenance Oracle. E) Presenter.

An arrow on a data-flow diagram represents a(n): A) data store. B) data flow. C) process. D) source. E) action sequence.

Assuming anything is possible and eliminating the infeasible best describes: A) the impertinence characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination. B) the impartiality characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination. C) the relaxing of constraints characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination. D) the attention to details characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination. E) the reframing characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

Entering invalid data into a field describes: A) transposing. B) transcripting. C) appending. D) truncating. E) hashing.

If the project team and organizational officials reassess the project after each subsequent SDLC phase to determine if the business conditions have changed or if a more detailed understanding of a system's costs, benefits, and risks suggest that the project is not as worthy as previously thought, they are: A) adhering to the incremental commitment principle. B) overly cautious. C) using a CASE methodology. D) adhering to a bottom-up commitment principle. E) using a staged approach to systems development.

In order to promote more truthful responses, the general nature of the interview should not be explained to the interviewee in advance.

In terms of BPR, activities deemed important, changeable, and dysfunctional are primary candidates for alteration.

Making sure that all data and entry fields are clearly labeled corresponds to the following form and report guideline: A) balance the layout. B) design an easy navigation system. C) use meaningful titles. D) include meaningful information. E) market the form.

One of the primary advantages of impact printers is their ability to exactly replicate a screen report on paper.

One of the primary purposes of a DFD is to represent time, giving a good indication of whether data flows occur constantly in real time, once a day, or once a year.

Open-ended questions can put interviewees at ease because they can respond in their own words using their own structure.

The first phase of the systems development life cycle is: A) systems planning and selection. B) systems study. C) systems analysis. D) systems design. E) systems implementation and operation.

The goal of conceptual data modeling is to capture as much of the meaning of data as possible.

The goal of operational feasibility is to understand the degree to which a proposed system will likely solve the business problems or take advantage of opportunities.

The goal with using prototyping to support requirements determination is to build the ultimate system from prototyping.

The guideline specifying that dialogues be logically grouped and have a beginning, middle, and end is: A) closure. B) shortcuts and sequence. C) consistency. D) control. E) feedback.

The guideline specifying that dialogues be simple for users to enter information and navigate between screens is: A) navigation. B) ease. C) shortcuts and sequence. D) reversal. E) feedback.

The guidelines for displaying text include case, spacing, and justification guidelines.

The idea behind BPR is to reorganize the complete flow of data in major sections of an organization to eliminate unnecessary steps, achieve synergies among previously separate steps, and become more responsive to future changes.

The impartiality characteristic of a good systems analyst is represented by which of the following statements? A) You must challenge yourself to look at the organization in new ways. B) Your role is to find the best solution to a business problem or opportunity. C) Assume anything is possible, and eliminate the infeasible. D) You should question everything. E) Every fact must fit with every other fact.

When selecting an identifier, one should: A) use intelligent keys. B) use large composite keys instead of single-attribute surrogate keys. C) choose a candidate key that will not change its value over the life of each instance of the entity type. D) choose a candidate key such that for each instance of the entity, the attribute is guaranteed to have valid values or is null. E) choose a candidate key that allows for duplicate values.

When structuring data entry fields, always have the user enter the current date.

When structuring data entry fields, the system should automatically justify data entries.

When you believe that you have shown each business form or transaction, computer screen, and report as a single data flow, you have probably reached the: A) level-0 diagrams. B) ternary-level diagrams. C) primitive data-flow diagrams. D) secondary-level diagrams. E) context-level diagrams.

Where possible, text should appear in all uppercase on forms.

Which of the following JAD participants use the system in question and provide insight into new organizational directions? A) Managers B) Sponsors C) Session leaders D) Users E) Scribes

Which of the following alternative methods for making information systems identification and selection decisions has as its focus integration with existing systems? A) Development group B) User department C) Steering committee D) Top management E) End user

Which of the following best describes a business document that contains only predefined data? A. Electronic spreadsheet B. Turn-around document C. Form D. Report E. Coupon

Which of the following can be considered an advantage of closed-ended questions? A) The interviewer can explore unexpected lines of inquiry. B) Closed-ended questions work well when the major answers to the questions are well known. C) The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview. D) Closed-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease. E) Previously unknown information may surface.

Which of the following is a reason for directly observing end users? A) The analyst gets a snapshot image of the person or task being observed. B) Observations are not very time consuming. C) People often do not have a completely accurate appreciation of what they do or how they do it. D) Employees will alter their performance if they know that they are being observed. E) Interviewing is less rich, passive, and often provides ambiguous data.

Which of the following is a subphase of analysis? A) Project identification B) Project planning C) Requirements determination D) Database design E) Human interface design

Which of the following is a technique for showing users where they are in a Web site by placing a series of "tabs" on a Web page that shows users where they are and where they have been? A) Cookie crumbs B) Site markers C) Data markers D) Site locators E) Site maps

Which of the following is a traditional method of collecting systems requirements? A) Business process reengineering B) Observations C) Joint application design D) Rapid application development E) Prototyping

Which of the following is a true statement regarding a data store? A) Data can move directly from one data store to another data store. B) Data stores illustrate relationships among entities. C) A data store has a noun-phrase label. D) Data can move from an outside source to a data store. E) A data store shows data in motion.

Which of the following system requirement determination techniques can be applied to discovering and understanding key business processes? A) JAD B) Tacit Knowledge C) Internal Processes D) Non-measurable data E) Internal Interpretation

Which of the following technologies disrupted the business rule of you having to find out where things are? A) Distributed databases B) Expert systems C) Advanced telecommunications networks D) Automatic identification and tracking technology E) Interactive communications technologies

As a rule of thumb estimate, what percentage of the entire development effort should be devoted to the project initiation and planning process? A) Between 10 and 20 percent B) Less than 5 percent C) Less than 10 percent D) Between 20 and 30 percent E) Over 50 percent

Asking system users and business managers, "What are the subjects of the business?" would help determine: A) the data entities and their descriptions. B) the candidate key. C) attributes and secondary keys. D) relationships and their cardinality and degrees. E) integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data.

Assume Process 7.4 produces a data flow and that Process 7.2 must be ready to accept it; we would say that these processes are physically linked to each other.

Assume shipment data are entered into a logbook once shipments are received at the company's warehouse; the logbook is represented on a data-flow diagram as a sink.

Assume we have placed a data store between Process 5.1 and Process 5.5; we would say that these processes are decoupled.

Assume your local veterinarian records information about each of his patients on patient medical history forms; the collection of medical history forms is represented on a data-flow diagram as a data store.

A report: A) indicates the inputs required for the new system. B) describes how a particular job or task is performed, including data and information that are used and created in the process of performing the job. C) indicates what data flow in or out of a system and which are necessary for the system to function. D) enables you to work backward from the information on the document and identify the data that must have been necessary to generate it. E) does none of the above.

A savings of $5,000 resulting from data entry error reductions would most likely be classified as a(n): A) intangible benefit. B) qualitative benefit. C) tangible benefit. D) operational benefit. E) profitable benefit.

A schedule of specific IS development projects is the primary deliverable from the project identification and selection phase.

A set of two or more multivalued attributes that are logically related defines: A) relationship. B) associative entity. C) repeating group. D) class. E) repeating entity.

A single occurrence of an entity type defines: A) entity instance. B) entity appearance. C) attribute. D) data element. E) multivalued attribute.

A square on a data-flow diagram represents a sink or a: A) data flow. B) data store. C) process. D) predecessor. E) source.

A unary relationship is the most common type of relationship encountered in data modeling.

Analysts gathering information from as many sources as possible about what the new system should do is indicative of: A) requirements determination. B) requirements structuring. C) alternative generation and selection. D) project identification and selection. E) project initiation and planning.

Analyzing an organization's activities to determine where value is added to products and/or services and the costs incurred best describes: A) affinity clustering. B) business process reengineering. C) value chain analysis. D) resource availability. E) technical difficulty.

During systems analysis: A) a conceptual data model (E-R with attributes) is prepared. B) a logical model (relational) is prepared. C) physical files and database designs are prepared. D) an enterprise-wide data model is prepared. E) database and file definitions are prepared.

During which of the following steps will you bring the current phase to a close, prepare a report and presentation to management concerning continuation of the project, and get ready to move the project into design? A) Designing the human interface B) Requirements determination C) Project initiation and planning D) Alternative generation and selection E) Requirements structuring

The Baseline Project Plan does not: A) contain all information collected and analyzed during project initiation and planning. B) specify detailed project activities for the next life cycle phase, analysis, and less detail for subsequent project phases. C) include being used by the project selection committee to help decide if the project should be accepted, redirected, or canceled. D) reflect the best estimate of the project's scope, benefits, costs, risks, and resource requirements given the current understanding of the project. E) include the database metadata.

The Explanation of Services is a document prepared for the customer that describes what the project will deliver and outlines generally at a high level all work required to complete the project.

The analysis of documents can help you identify: A) problems with unknown systems. B) special information processing circumstances that occur frequently. C) the reason why current systems are designed the way they are. D) the organizational stock price. E) the steering committee.

The analysis technique that finds the amount of time required for the cumulative cash flow from a project to equal its initial and ongoing investment is referred to as: A) return on investment (ROI). B) break-even analysis (BEA). C) net present value (NPV). D) future value (FV). E) currency rate analysis (CRA).

The analysis technique that uses a discount rate determined from the company's cost of capital to establish the present value of a project is commonly called: A) return on investment (ROI). B) break-even analysis (BEA). C) net present value (NPV). D) future value (FV). E) currency rate analysis (CRA).

The calculation of a student's grade is represented on a data-flow diagram as a data flow.

The calculation of an employee's salary would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a(n): A) data flow. B) source. C) data store. D) process. E) action stub.

The concept of comparing present cash outlays to future expected returns best defines: A) cost/benefit analysis. B) internal rate of return. C) time value of money. D) investment return analysis. E) monetary futures analysis.

The diagram that shows the scope of the system, indicating what elements are inside and outside the system, is called a: A) context diagram. B) level-2 diagram. C) referencing diagram. D) representative diagram. E) decomposition diagram.

The extent to which all necessary components of a data-flow diagram have been included and fully described defines: A) DFD consistency. B) DFD completeness. C) DFD gap proofing. D) DFD flexibility. E) DFD cohesion.

The extent to which the project is viewed as helping the organization achieve its strategic objectives and long-term goals describes: A) potential benefits. B) resource availability. C) technical difficulty or risks. D) strategic alignment. E) value chain analysis.

The extent to which the project is viewed as improving profits, customer service, etc., and the duration of these benefits best defines which of the following evaluation criteria? A) Potential benefits B) Resource availability C) Technical difficulty or risks D) Strategic alignment E) Value chain analysis

The impertinence characteristic of a good systems analyst is represented by which of the following statements? A) You must challenge yourself to look at the organization in new ways. B) You should question everything. C) Assume anything is possible, and eliminate the infeasible. D) Your role is to find the best solution to a business problem. E) Every fact must fit with every other fact.

The interest rate used to compute the present value of future cash flows refers to: A) discount rate. B) investment rate. C) transfer rate. D) future cash flow rate. E) valuation rate.

The purpose of requirements structuring is to: A) enable the analysts to gather information on what the system should do from as many sources as possible. B) enable the analysts to develop a baseline project plan quickly. C) enable the large amount of information gathered during requirements determination to be organized. D) enable the analysts to identify several feasible alternatives. E) collect information about the information systems that are currently in use.

The purpose of the conceptual data model is to show as many rules about the meaning and interrelationships among data as possible.

The purpose of the testing and usability assessment section of a form design specification is to explain to those who will actually develop the final form why this form exists and how it will be used.

The ratio of the net cash receipts of the project divided by the cash outlays of the project, enabling trade-off analysis to be made between competing projects, is often referred to as: A) return on investment (ROI). B) break-even analysis (BEA). C) net present value (NPV). D) future value (FV). E) currency rate analysis (CRA).

The reframing characteristic of a good systems analyst is represented by which of the following statements? A) You must challenge yourself to look at the organization in new ways. B) Every fact must fit with every other fact. C) Assume anything is possible, and eliminate the infeasible. D) You should question everything. E) Your role is to find the best solution to a business problem.

The shape of a data-flow (DFD) diagramming process is a(n): A) arrow. B) square. C) rectangle. D) rounded rectangle. E) open box.

The structured, measured set of activities designed to produce a specific output for a particular customer or market best defines: A) formal systems. B) key business processes. C) secondary activities. D) production systems. E) primary processes.

The term that refers to systems development projects bogged down in an abundance of analysis work is: A) information overload. B) analysis paralysis. C) analysis overload. D) information abundance. E) disruptive analysis.

The top-down approach to data modeling derives a data model by reviewing specific business documents.

The trained individual who plans and leads joint application design sessions is referred to as the: A) scribe. B) session leader. C) manager. D) analyst. E) sponsor.

The two parts to systems analysis are determining requirements and structuring requirements.

The typical participants in a JAD include: A) the CEO. B) a city official. C) a systems analyst. D) a customer. E) academic faculty.

The use of small, simple images to allow a Web page to be displayed more quickly best describes: A) icons. B) lightweight graphics. C) cookie crumbs. D) MPEG files. E) template-based HTML.

The values validation test makes sure that values come from a standard set of values.

The way a system actually works is referred to as a(n): A) unofficial system. B) informal system. C) actual system. D) formal system. E) secondary system.

The way a user can move from one display to another best describes: A) dialogue sequence. B) transition plan. C) menu-driven interface. D) screen sequence. E) computer interface.

The work or actions performed on data so that they are transformed, stored, or distributed defines: A) source. B) data store. C) data flow. D) process. E) action stub.

To gain an understanding of the organization's ability to construct the proposed system is the goal of: A) operational feasibility. B) schedule feasibility. C) technical feasibility. D) political feasibility. E) construction feasibility.

Traditional methods of collecting systems requirements include: A) interviews. B) agile methodologies. C) joint application design. D) rapid application development. E) prototyping.

Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding paper versus electronic reports? A) Ink-jet printers and laser printers produce reports that look identical to the display screen. B) Impact printers can exactly replicate a screen report to paper. C) Impact printers are very fast, very reliable, and relatively inexpensive. D) Impact printers are mainly used for producing large batches of reports. E) When designing forms and reports for use with impact printers, you may be limited in the range of formatting, text types, and highlighting options.

Which of the following is a guideline for designing forms and reports? A) Design a complex navigation system B) Balance the layout C) Include as much additional information as possible to be comprehensive D) Use abbreviations in titles E) Limit the forms or reports to 1000 rows

Which of the following is a guideline for displaying text? A) Use double spacing if space permits. B) Do not hyphenate words between lines. C) Left-justify text and leave a ragged right margin. D) Display text in mixed upper- and lowercase and use conventional punctuation. E) All of the above are guidelines for displaying text.

Which of the following is a modern method for collecting system requirements? A) Interviewing B) Questionnaires C) Observations D) Joint application design E) Document analysis

Which of the following is a project initiation activity? A) Developing a preliminary schedule B) Setting a baseline project plan C) Determining project standards and procedures D) Establishing a relationship with the customer E) Developing a communication plan

Which of the following is a project planning activity? A) Establishing management procedures B) Establishing a relationship with the customer C) Estimating resources and creating a resource plan D) Establishing the project management environment and project workbook E) Establishing the project initiation plan

Which of the following is a true statement regarding JAD? A) A working system is the end result of a JAD. B) JAD sessions are usually conducted in the organization's conference room. C) The primary purpose of using JAD in the analysis phase is to collect systems requirements simultaneously from the key people involved with the system. D) A JAD session is inexpensive to conduct. E) JADs benefit greatly from computer support.

Which of the following is a true statement regarding data flows? A) A data flow to a data store means retrieve or use. B) A data flow from a data store means update. C) A data flow may have double-ended arrows. D) A data flow represents data at rest. E) A join in a data flow means that exactly the same data come from any of two or more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks to a common location.

Which of the following is a true statement regarding high-end alternatives? A) High-end alternative design strategies often do not involve computer technology; instead they focus on making paper flows more efficient or reducing redundancies in current processes. B) High-end alternative design strategies represent compromise solutions. C) Functionality is the primary focus of high-end alternative design strategies. D) High-end alternative design strategies provide all the required functionality users demand with a system that is minimally different from the current system. E) None of the above are correct.

Which of the following is a true statement regarding midrange alternatives? A) Midrange alternative design strategies often do not involve computer technology; instead they focus on making paper flows more efficient or reducing redundancies in current processes. B) Midrange alternative design strategies represent compromise solutions. C) Functionality is the primary focus of midrange alternative design strategies. D) Midrange alternative design strategies provide all the required functionality users demand with a system that is minimally different from the current system. E) Midrange alternative design strategies provide all the desired features using advanced technologies that often allow the system to expand to meet future requirements.

Which of the following is a true statement? A) Mandatory features screen out possible solutions: essential features are the important capabilities of a system that will serve as the primary basis for comparison of different design strategies. B) Essential features screen out possible solutions: mandatory features are the important capabilities of a system that will serve as the primary basis for comparison of different design strategies. C) Mandatory features screen out possible solutions: essential features are those that users could live without. D) Essential features screen out possible solutions: mandatory features are those that users could live without. E) Desired features screen out possible solutions: mandatory features are the important capabilities of a system that will serve as the primary basis for comparison of different design strategies. 1) The contents of a form or report correspond to the data elements contained in an associated data flow located on a data-flow diagram.

Which of the following is an example of a form? Invoice A). Pie chart B). Mailing labels C). Weekly sales summaries by region and salesperson D). Automated teller machine transaction layout

Which of the following is most likely a source/sink for a manufacturing system? A) A report B) A file C) Payment record D) A bank deposit E) A bank

Which of the following is true regarding the context diagram? A) The process symbol is labeled "0." B) The context diagram contains two processes. C) Data stores must be shown on the context diagram. D) The internal workings of the system are shown on the context diagram. E) The context diagram organizes the processes in a tree-like structure.

Which of the following possible project sources most often reflects the broader needs of the organization? A) User department B) Development group C) IS manager D) Top management E) Production manager

Exam 2-2

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