exam 2

A 28-week-gestation client with intact membranes is admitted with the following findings: Contractions every 5 min 60 sec, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced. Which of the following medications will the obstetrician likely order? 1. Oxytocin (Pitocin). 2. Ergonovine (Methergine). 3. Magnesium sulfate. 4. Morphine sulfate.

4 Magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic agent. It would be appropriate for this medication to be administered at this time.

32. Hypovolemia resulting from hemorrhage a. Elevated temperature within the first 24 hours b. Rapid pulse c. Elevated temperature at 36 hours postpartum d. Hypertension e. Hypoventilation

ANS B

33. Excessive use of oxytocin a. Elevated temperature within the first 24 hours b. Rapid pulse c. Elevated temperature at 36 hours postpartum d. Hypertension e. Hypoventilation

ANS D

30. Unusually high epidural or spinal block a. Elevated temperature within the first 24 hours b. Rapid pulse c. Elevated temperature at 36 hours postpartum d. Hypertension e. Hypoventilation

ANS E

A medication order reads: Methergine (ergonovine) 0.2 mg po q 6 h 4 doses. Which of the following assessments should be made before administering each dose of this medication? 1. Apical pulse. 2. Lochia flow. 3. Blood pressure. 4. Episiotomy.

The blood pressure should be assessed before administering Methergine. TEST-TAKING TIP: Methergine is an oxytoxic agent that works directly on the myofibrils of the uterus. The smooth muscle of the vascular tree is also affected. The blood pressure may elevate, therefore, to dangerous levels. The me ication should be held if the blood pressure is 130/90 or higher and the woman's health care practitioner should be notified if appropriate.

Nifedepine

The presence of audi- ble rales is indicative of pulmonary edema, a serious side effect related to the medication. The pulmonary edema may be caused by the development of congestive heart failure. Whenever a client is on nifedipine, the nurse should regularly monitor the client's lung fields.

Terbutaline (Brethine)

Uses to relax uterine smooth muscle to inhibit uterine activity

Hypermagnesemia

When magnesium sul- fate is being administered, the nurse should monitor the client for adverse side effects including respiratory depres- sion, oliguria, and depressed reflexes. When the magnesium level is above 7 gm/dL, toxic effects can be seen.

With regard to the postpartum uterus, nurses should be aware that: a.At the end of the third stage of labor it weighs approximately 500 g. b.After 2 weeks postpartum it should not be palpable abdominally. c.After 2 weeks postpartum it weighs 100 g. d.It returns to its original (prepregnancy) size by 6 weeks postpartum.

ANS: B After 2 weeks postpartum, the uterus should not be palpable abdominally; however, it has not yet returned to its original size. At the end of the third stage of labor, the uterus weighs approximately 1000 g. It takes 6 full weeks for the uterus to return to its original size. After 2 weeks postpartum the uterus weighs about 350 g, not its original size. The normal self-destruction of excess hypertrophied tissue accounts for the slight increase in uterine size after each pregnancy.

In helping the breastfeeding mother position the baby, nurses should keep in mind that: a. The cradle position usually is preferred by mothers who had a cesarean birth. b. Women with perineal pain and swelling prefer the modified cradle position. c. Whatever the position used, the infant is belly to belly with the mother. d. While supporting the head, the mother should push gently on the occiput.

ANS: C Feedback A The football position usually is preferred after cesarean birth. B Women with perineal pain and swelling prefer the side-lying position because they can rest while breastfeeding. C The infant inevitably faces the mother, belly to belly. D The mother should never push on the back of the head. It may cause the baby to bite, hyperextend the neck, or develop an aversion to being brought near the breast.

4. Which hormone remains elevated in the immediate postpartum period of the breastfeeding woman? a. Estrogen c. Prolactin b. Progesterone d. Human placental lactogen

ANS: C Prolactin levels in the blood increase progressively throughout pregnancy. In women who breastfeed, prolactin levels remain elevated into the sixth week after birth. Estrogen and progesterone levels decrease markedly after expulsion of the placenta and reach their lowest levels 1 week into the postpartum period. Human placental lactogen levels decrease dramatically after expulsion of the placenta.

Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth? a. The fetal head is felt at 0 station during vaginal examination. b. Bloody mucus discharge increases. c. The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head. d. The membranes rupture during a contraction.

C A bulging vulva that encircles the fetal head describes crowning, which occurs shortly before birth. Birth of the head occurs when the station is +4. A 0 station indicates engagement. Bloody show occurs throughout the labor process and is not an indication of an imminent birth. Rupture of membranes can occur at any time during the labor process and does not indicate an imminent birth.

A nulliparous woman who has just begun the second stage of her labor would most likely: a. Experience a strong urge to bear down. b. Show perineal bulging. c. Feel tired yet relieved that the worst is over. d. Show an increase in bright red bloody show.

C Common maternal behaviors during the latent phase of the second stage of labor include feeling a sense of accomplishment and optimism because "the worst is over." During the latent phase of the second stage of labor, the urge to bear down often is absent or only slight during the acme of contractions. Perineal bulging occurs during the transition phase of the second stage of labor, not at the beginning of the second stage. An increase in bright red bloody show occurs during the descent phase of the second stage of labor.

Because the risk for childbirth complications may be revealed, nurses should know that the point of maximal intensity (PMI) of the fetal heart tone (FHT) is: a. Usually directly over the fetal abdomen. b. In a vertex position heard above the mother's umbilicus. c. Heard lower and closer to the midline of the mother's abdomen as the fetus descends and rotates internally. d. In a breech position heard below the mother's umbilicus.

C Nurses should be prepared for the shift. The PMI of the FHT usually is directly over the fetal back. In a vertex position it is heard below the mother's umbilicus. In a breech position it is heard above the mother's umbilicus.

The nurse recognizes that a woman is in true labor when she states: a. "I passed some thick, pink mucus when I urinated this morning." b. "My bag of waters just broke." c. "The contractions in my uterus are getting stronger and closer together." d. "My baby dropped, and I have to urinate more frequently now."

C Regular, strong contractions with the presence of cervical change indicate that the woman is experiencing true labor. Loss of the mucous plug (operculum) often occurs during the first stage of labor or before the onset of labor, but it is not the indicator of true labor. Spontaneous rupture of membranes often occurs during the first stage of labor, but it is not the indicator of true labor. The presenting part of the fetus typically becomes engaged in the pelvis at the onset of labor, but this is not the indicator of true labor.

Indomethacin (Indocin)

pre term labor

Which finding 12 hours after birth requires further assessment? a.The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus. b.The fundus is palpable at the level of the umbilicus. c.The fundus is palpable one fingerbreadth below the umbilicus. d.The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus.

ANS: A The fundus rises to the umbilicus after delivery and remains there for about 24 hours. A fundus that is above the umbilicus may indicate uterine atony or urinary retention. A fundus that is palpable at or below the level of the umbilicus is a normal finding for a patient who is 12 hours postpartum. Palpation of the fundus 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus is an unusual finding for 12 hours postpartum; however, it is still appropriate.

1. A woman gave birth to an infant boy 10 hours ago. Where would the nurse expect to locate this woman's fundus? a. One centimeter above the umbilicus b. Two centimeters below the umbilicus c. Midway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis d. Nonpalpable abdominally

ANS: A Within 12 hours after delivery the fundus may be approximately 1 cm above the umbilicus. The fundus descends about 1 to 2 cm every 24 hours. Within 12 hours after delivery the fundus may be approximately 1 cm above the umbilicus. By the sixth postpartum week the fundus normally is halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. The fundus should be easily palpated using the maternal umbilicus as a reference point.

Which condition, not uncommon in pregnancy, is likely to require careful medical assessment during the puerperium? a.Varicosities of the legs b.Carpal tunnel syndrome c.Periodic numbness and tingling of the fingers d.Headaches

ANS: D Headaches in the postpartum period can have a number of causes, some of which deserve medical attention. Total or nearly total regression of varicosities is expected after childbirth. Carpal tunnel syndrome is relieved in childbirth when the compression on the median nerve is lessened. Periodic numbness of the fingers usually disappears after birth unless carrying the baby aggravates the condition.

Which description of postpartum restoration or healing times is accurate? a.The cervix shortens, becomes firm, and returns to form within a month postpartum. b.Vaginal rugae reappear by 3 weeks postpartum. c.Most episiotomies heal within a week. d.Hemorrhoids usually decrease in size within 2 weeks of childbirth.

ANS: B Vaginal rugae reappear by 3 weeks postpartum; however, they are never as prominent as in nulliparous women. The cervix regains its form within days; the cervical os may take longer. Most episiotomies take 2 to 3 weeks to heal. Hemorrhoids can take 6 weeks to decrease in size.

5. Two days ago a woman gave birth to a full-term infant. Last night she awakened several times to urinate and noted that her gown and bedding were wet from profuse diaphoresis. One mechanism for the diaphoresis and diuresis that this woman is experiencing during the early postpartum period is: a.Elevated temperature caused by postpartum infection. b.Increased basal metabolic rate after giving birth c. Loss of increased blood volume associated with pregnancy. d.Increased venous pressure in the lower extremities.

ANS: C Within 12 hours of birth women begin to lose the excess tissue fluid that has accumulated during pregnancy. One mechanism for reducing these retained fluids is the profuse diaphoresis that often occurs, especially at night, for the first 2 or 3 days after childbirth. Postpartal diuresis is another mechanism by which the body rids itself of excess fluid. An elevated temperature would cause chills and may cause dehydration, not diaphoresis and diuresis. Diaphoresis and diuresis sometimes are referred to as reversal of the water metabolism of pregnancy, not as the basal metabolic rate. Postpartal diuresis may be caused by the removal of increased venous pressure in the lower extremities.

2. The perinatal nurse accurately defines postpartum hemorrhage to a group of nursing students by including a decrease in hematocrit levels from prebirth to postbirth by which percentage? A. 5% B. 8% C. 10% D. 15%

ANS: C Postpartum hemorrhage can be defined as a blood loss of greater than 500 mL after a vaginal birth or greater than 1,000 mL after a cesarean birth, a decrease in hematocrit levels by 10% from prebirth to postbirth levels, and the need for transfusion.

Changes in blood volume after childbirth depend on several factors such as blood loss during childbirth and the amount of extravascular water (physiologic edema) mobilized and excreted. A postpartum nurse anticipates blood loss of (Select all that apply): a. 100 mL b. 250 mL or less c. 300 to 500 mL d. 500 to 1000 mL e. 1500 mL or greater

ANS: C, D The average blood loss for a vaginal birth of a single fetus ranges from 300 to 500 mL (10% of blood volume). The typical blood loss for women who gave birth by cesarean is 500 to 1000 mL (15% to 30% of blood volume)

Postbirth uterine/vaginal discharge, called lochia: a.Is similar to a light menstrual period for the first 6 to 12 hours. b.Is usually greater after cesarean births. c.Will usually decrease with ambulation and breastfeeding. d.Should smell like normal menstrual flow unless an infection is present

ANS: D An offensive odor usually indicates an infection. Lochia flow should approximate a heavy menstrual period for the first 2 hours and then steadily decrease. Less lochia usually is seen after cesarean births and usually increases with ambulation and breastfeeding.

The nurse caring for the postpartum woman understands that breast engorgement is caused by: a. Overproduction of colostrum. b. Accumulation of milk in the lactiferous ducts. c. Hyperplasia of mammary tissue. d. Congestion of veins and lymphatics.

ANS: D Breast engorgement is caused by the temporary congestion of veins and lymphatics, not by overproduction of colostrum, overproduction of milk, or hyperplasia of mammary tissue.

Because a full bladder prevents the uterus from contracting normally, nurses intervene to help the woman empty her bladder spontaneously as soon as possible. If all else fails, the last thing the nurse could try is: a. Pouring water from a squeeze bottle over the woman's perineum. b. Placing oil of peppermint in a bedpan under the woman. c. Asking the physician to prescribe analgesics. d. Inserting a sterile catheter.

D Invasive procedures usually are the last to be tried, especially with so many other simple and easy methods available (e.g., water, peppermint vapors, pain medication). Pouring water over the perineum may stimulate voiding. It is easy, noninvasive, and should be tried early. The oil of peppermint releases vapors that may relax the necessary muscles. If the woman is anticipating pain from voiding, pain medications may be helpful. Other nonmedical means and pain medication should be tried before insertion of a catheter.

If a woman complains of back labor pain, the nurse could best suggest that she: a. Lie on her back for a while with her knees bent. b. Do less walking around. c. Take some deep, cleansing breaths. d. Lean over a birth ball with her knees on the floor.

D The hands-and-knees position, with or without the aid of a birth ball, should help with the back pain. The supine position should be discouraged. Walking generally is encouraged.

Methergine (Methylergonovine)

- Causes contraction of the uterus and arterial vasoconstriction -Methergine should never be administered unless the placenta is already delivered. - For PP hemorrhage - Prior to admin check BP - Do NOT use during pregnancy, will shut down uterus and baby will die Contraindication: - Hypertension - Severe renal/hepatic disease - Coronary disease

A postoperative cesarean client, who was diagnosed with severe preeclampsia in la- bor and delivery, is transferred to the postpartum unit. The nurse is reviewing the client's doctor's orders. Which of the following medications that were ordered by the doctor should the nurse question? 1. Methergine (methylergonovine). 2. Magnesium sulfate. 3. Advil (ibuprofen). 4. Morphine sulfate

1 Methergine is an oxyto- cic agent. It is administered after delivery if the uterus is atonic or if the client is high risk for uterine atony. When the uterus is noted to be well contracted and at the appropriate position in the ab- domen, the nurse can conclude that the medication action was successful.

A nurse has administered Methergine (methylergonovine) 0.2 mg po to a grand multipara who delivered vaginally 30 minutes earlier. Which of the following out- comes indicates that the medication is effective? 1. Blood pressure 120/80. 2. Pulse rate 80 bpm and regular. 3. Fundus firm at umbilicus. 4. Increase in prothrombin time.

3 Methergine is an oxyto- cic agent. It is administered after delivery if the uterus is atonic or if the client is high risk for uterine atony. When the uterus is noted to be well contracted and at the appropriate position in the ab- domen, the nurse can conclude that the medication action was successful.

A client is scheduled for an external version. The nurse would expect to prepare which of the following medications to be administered prior to the procedure? 1. Oxytocin (Pitocin). 2. Ergonovine (Methergine). 3. Betamethasone (Celestone). 4. Terbutaline (Brethine).

4 Terbutaline (Brethine) is a smooth muscle relaxing agent. It would be administered prior to an external version.

In the recovery room, if a woman is asked either to raise her legs (knees extended) off the bed or to flex her knees, place her feet flat on the bed, and raise her buttocks well off the bed, most likely she is being tested to see whether she: a. Has recovered from epidural or spinal anesthesia. b. Has hidden bleeding underneath her. c. Has regained some flexibility. d. Is a candidate to go home after 6 hours.

A If the numb or prickly sensations are gone from her legs after these movements, she has likely recovered from the epidural or spinal anesthesia.

A primiparous woman is to be discharged from the hospital tomorrow with her infant girl. Which behavior indicates a need for further intervention by the nurse before the woman can be discharged? a. The woman leaves the infant on her bed while she takes a shower. b. The woman continues to hold and cuddle her infant after she has fed her. c. The woman reads a magazine while her infant sleeps. d. The woman changes her infant's diaper and then shows the nurse the contents of the diaper.

A Leaving an infant on a bed unattended is never acceptable for various safety reasons. Holding and cuddling the infant after feeding and reading a magazine while the infant sleeps are appropriate parent-infant interactions. Changing the diaper and then showing the nurse the contents of the diaper is appropriate because the mother is seeking approval from the nurse and notifying the nurse of the infant's elimination patterns.

When assessing a multiparous woman who has just given birth to an 8-pound boy, the nurse notes that the woman's fundus is firm and has become globular in shape. A gush of dark red blood comes from her vagina. The nurse concludes that: a. The placenta has separated. b. A cervical tear occurred during the birth. c. The woman is beginning to hemorrhage. d. Clots have formed in the upper uterine segment.

A Placental separation is indicated by a firmly contracting uterus, a change in the uterus from a discoid to a globular ovoid shape, a sudden gush of dark red blood from the introitus, an apparent lengthening of the umbilical cord, and a finding of vaginal fullness. Cervical tears that do not extend to the vagina result in minimal blood loss. Signs of hemorrhage are a boggy uterus, bright red vaginal bleeding, alterations in vital signs, pallor, lightheadedness, restlessness, decreased urinary output, and alteration in the level of consciousness. If clots have formed in the upper uterine segment, the nurse would expect to find the uterus boggy and displaced to the side.

Knowing that the condition of the new mother's breasts will be affected by whether she is breastfeeding, nurses should be able to tell their clients all the following statements except: a.Breast tenderness is likely to persist for about a week after the start of lactation. b.As lactation is established, a mass may form that can be distinguished from cancer by its position shift from day to day. c.In nonlactating mothers colostrum is present for the first few days after childbirth. d.If suckling is never begun (or is discontinued), lactation ceases within a few days to a week.

ANS: A Breast tenderness should persist for 24 to 48 hours after lactation begins. That movable, noncancerous mass is a filled milk sac. Colostrum is present for a few days whether the mother breastfeeds or not. A mother who does not want to breastfeed should also avoid stimulating her nipples.

8. The factors that affect the process of labor and birth, known commonly as the five Ps, include all except: a. Passenger. b. Passageway. c. Powers. d. Pressure.

ANS: D Feedback The five Ps are passenger (fetus and placenta), passageway (birth canal), powers (contractions), position of the mother, and psychologic response.

A woman gave birth 48 hours ago to a healthy infant girl. She has decided to bottle-feed. During your assessment you notice that both of her breasts are swollen, warm, and tender on palpation. The woman should be advised that this condition can best be treated by: a. Running warm water on her breasts during a shower. b. Applying ice to the breasts for comfort. c. Expressing small amounts of milk from the breasts to relieve pressure. d. Wearing a loose-fitting bra to prevent nipple irritation.

B Applying ice to the breasts for comfort is appropriate for treating engorgement in a mother who is bottle-feeding. This woman is experiencing engorgement, which can be treated by using ice packs (because she is not breastfeeding) and cabbage leaves. A bottle-feeding mother should avoid any breast stimulation, including pumping or expressing milk. A bottle-feeding mother should wear a well-fitted support bra or breast binder continuously for at least the first 72 hours after giving birth. A loose-fitting bra will not aid lactation suppression. Furthermore, the shifting of the bra against the breasts may stimulate the nipples and thereby stimulate lactation.

The nurse expects to administer an oxytocic (e.g., Pitocin, Methergine) to a woman after expulsion of her placenta to: a. Relieve pain. b. Stimulate uterine contraction. c. Prevent infection. d. Facilitate rest and relaxation.

B Oxytocics stimulate uterine contractions, which reduce blood loss after the third stage of labor. Oxytocics are not used to treat pain or prevent infection. They cause the uterus to contract, which reduces blood loss. Oxytocics do not facilitate rest and relaxation.

Postpartal overdistention of the bladder and urinary retention can lead to which complications? a. Postpartum hemorrhage and eclampsia b. Fever and increased blood pressure c. Postpartum hemorrhage and urinary tract infection d. Urinary tract infection and uterine rupture

C Incomplete emptying and overdistention of the bladder can lead to urinary tract infection. Overdistention of the bladder displaces the uterus and prevents contraction of the uterine muscle, thus leading to postpartum hemorrhage. There is no correlation between bladder distention and high blood pressure or eclampsia. The risk of uterine rupture decreases after the birth of the infant.

The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the characteristics of true labor contractions. The nurse evaluates the woman's understanding of the instructions when she states, "True labor contractions will: a. Subside when I walk around." b. Cause discomfort over the top of my uterus." c. Continue and get stronger even if I relax and take a shower." d. Remain irregular but become stronger."

C True labor contractions occur regularly, becoming stronger, lasting longer, and occurring closer together. They may become intense during walking and continue despite comfort measures. Typically true labor contractions are felt in the lower back, radiating to the lower portion of the abdomen. During false labor, contractions tend to be irregular and felt in the abdomen above the navel. Typically the contractions often stop with walking or a change of position.

For the labor nurse, care of the expectant mother begins with any or all of these situations, with the exception of: a. The onset of progressive, regular contractions. b. The bloody, or pink, show. c. The spontaneous rupture of membranes. d. Formulation of the woman's plan of care for labor.

D Labor care begins when progressive, regular contractions begin; the blood-tinged mucoid vaginal discharge appears; or fluid is discharged from the vagina. The woman and nurse can formulate their plan of care before labor or during treatment.

The nurse who performs vaginal examinations to assess a woman's progress in labor should: a. Perform an examination at least once every hour during the active phase of labor. b. Perform the examination with the woman in the supine position. c. Wear two clean gloves for each examination. d. Discuss the findings with the woman and her partner.

D The nurse should discuss the findings of the vaginal examination with the woman and her partner and report them to the primary care provider. A vaginal examination should be performed only when indicated by the status of the woman and her fetus. The woman should be positioned to avoid supine hypotension. The examiner should wear a sterile glove while performing a vaginal examination for a laboring woman.

. The only tocolytic agent

The client in the sce- nario is exhibiting signs that meet the criteria for preterm labor. The test taker should deduce, therefore, that a tocolytic agent may be ordered in this situation. The only tocolytic agent included in the choices is magnesium sulfate.

Nifedipine (Procardia)

Tocolytic. Side effects: hypotension, fatigue, nausea, flushing, uteroplacental perfusion complications. Monitor BP, avoid concurrent use with magnesium sulfate, monitor contractions and FHT, prevent complication with hypotension.

On examining a woman who gave birth 5 hours ago, the nurse finds that the woman has completely saturated a perineal pad within 15 minutes. The nurse's first action is to: a. Begin an intravenous (IV) infusion of Ringer's lactate solution. b. Assess the woman's vital signs. c. Call the woman's primary health care provider. d. Massage the woman's fundus.

D The nurse should assess the uterus for atony. Uterine tone must be established to prevent excessive blood loss. The nurse may begin an IV infusion to restore circulatory volume, but this would not be the first action. Blood pressure is not a reliable indicator of impending shock from impending hemorrhage; assessing vital signs should not be the nurse's first action. The physician would be notified after the nurse completes the assessment of the woman.

A multiparous woman has been in labor for 8 hours. Her membranes have just ruptured. The nurse's initial response would be to: a. Prepare the woman for imminent birth. b. Notify the woman's primary health care provider. c. Document the characteristics of the fluid. d. Assess the fetal heart rate and pattern.

D The umbilical cord may prolapse when the membranes rupture. The fetal heart rate and pattern should be monitored closely for several minutes immediately after ROM to ascertain fetal well-being, and the findings should be documented. Rupture of membranes (ROM) may increase the intensity and frequency of the uterine contractions, but it does not indicate that birth is imminent. The nurse may notify the primary care provider after ROM occurs and fetal well-being and the response to ROM have been assessed. The nurse's priority is to assess fetal well-being. The nurse should document the characteristics of the amniotic fluid, but the initial response is to assess fetal well-being and the response to ROM.

The absence of seizures is an ex- pected outcome related to magnesium sulfate administration.

Eclamptic clients have seized. Magnesium sulfate is ordered and administered to these clients because it is an anticonvulsant. An expected

Magnesium Sulfate Indications

Torsades De Pointes, Seizures of eclampsia (toxemia of pregnancy). Status asthmaticus refractory to beta-2 agonists, anticholinergic drugs, and steroid treatments.

A hospital has a number of different perineal pads available for use. A nurse is observed soaking several of them and writing down what she sees. This activity indicates that the nurse is trying to: a. Improve the accuracy of blood loss estimation, which usually is a subjective assessment. b. Determine which pad is best. c. Demonstrate that other nurses usually underestimate blood loss. d. Reveal to the nurse supervisor that one of them needs some time off.

A Saturation of perineal pads is a critical indicator of excessive blood loss, and anything done to aid in assessment is valuable. The nurse is noting the saturation volumes and soaking appearances. It is' possible that the nurse is trying to determine which pad is best, but it is more likely that the nurse is noting saturation volumes and soaking appearances to improve the accuracy of blood loss estimation. Nurses usually overestimate blood loss, if anything.

When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, the nurse recognizes that the most conclusive sign that uterine contractions are effective would be: a. Dilation of the cervix. c. Rupture of the amniotic membranes. b. Descent of the fetus. d. Increase in bloody show.

A The vaginal examination reveals whether the woman is in true labor. Cervical change, especially dilation, in the presence of adequate labor indicates that the woman is in true labor. Descent of the fetus, or engagement, may occur before labor. Rupture of membranes may occur with or without the presence of labor. Bloody show may indicate slow, progressive cervical change (e.g., effacement) in both true and false labor

A laboring woman is lying in the supine position. The most appropriate nursing action at this time is to: a. Ask her to turn to one side. b. Elevate her feet and legs. c. Take her blood pressure. d. Determine whether fetal tachycardia is present.

A The woman's supine position may cause the heavy uterus to compress her inferior vena cava, thus reducing blood return to her heart and reducing placental blood flow. Elevating her legs will not relieve the pressure from the inferior vena cava. If the woman is allowed to stay in the supine position and blood flow to the placental is reduced significantly, fetal tachycardia may occur. The most appropriate nursing action is to prevent this from occurring by turning the woman to her side. Blood pressure readings may be obtained when the patient is in the appropriate and safest position.

The laboratory results for a postpartum woman are as follows: blood type, A; Rh status, positive; rubella titer, 1:8 (EIA 0.8); hematocrit, 30%. How would the nurse best interpret these data? a. Rubella vaccine should be given. b. A blood transfusion is necessary. c. Rh immune globulin is necessary within 72 hours of birth. d. A Kleihauer-Betke test should be performed.

A This client's rubella titer indicates that she is not immune and that she needs to receive a vaccine. These data do not indicate that the client needs a blood transfusion. Rh immune globulin is indicated only if the client has a negative Rh status and the infant has a positive Rh status. A Kleihauer-Betke test should be performed if a large fetomaternal transfusion is suspected, especially if the mother is Rh negative. The data do not provide any indication for performing this test.

A pregnant woman is in her third trimester. She asks the nurse to explain how she can tell true labor from false labor. The nurse would explain that "true" labor contractions: a. Increase with activity such as ambulation. b. Decrease with activity. c. Are always accompanied by the rupture of the bag of waters. d. Alternate between a regular and an irregular pattern.

A True labor contractions become more intense with walking. False labor contractions often stop with walking or position changes. Rupture of membranes may occur before or during labor. True labor contractions are regular.

When managing the care of a woman in the second stage of labor, the nurse uses various measures to enhance the progress of fetal descent. These measures include: a. Encouraging the woman to try various upright positions, including squatting and standing. b. Telling the woman to start pushing as soon as her cervix is fully dilated. c. Continuing an epidural anesthetic so pain is reduced and the woman can relax. d. Coaching the woman to use sustained, 10- to 15-second, closed-glottis bearing-down efforts with each contraction.

A Upright positions and squatting both may enhance the progress of fetal descent. Many factors dictate when a woman will begin pushing. Complete cervical dilation is necessary, but it is only one factor. If the fetal head is still in a higher pelvic station, the physician or midwife may allow the woman to "labor down" (allowing more time for fetal descent, thereby reducing the amount of pushing needed) if the woman is able. The epidural may mask the sensations and muscle control needed for the woman to push effectively. Closed glottic breathing may trigger the Valsalva maneuver, which increases intrathoracic and cardiovascular pressures, reducing cardiac output and inhibiting perfusion of the uterus and placenta. In addition, holding the breath for longer than 5 to 7 seconds diminishes the perfusion of oxygen across the placenta and results in fetal hypoxia.

When planning care for a laboring woman whose membranes have ruptured, the nurse recognizes that the woman's risk for _________________________ has increased. a. Intrauterine infection c. Precipitous labor b. Hemorrhage d. Supine hypotension

A When the membranes rupture, microorganisms from the vagina can ascend into the amniotic sac and cause chorioamnionitis and placentitis. Rupture of membranes (ROM) is not associated with fetal or maternal bleeding. Although ROM may increase the intensity of contractions and facilitate active labor, it does not result in precipitous labor. ROM has no correlation with supine hypotension.

A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 6-ounce infant girl 1 hour ago. The birth was vaginal, and the estimated blood loss (EBL) was approximately 1500 mL. When assessing the woman's vital signs, the nurse would be concerned to see: a. Temperature 37.9° C, heart rate 120, respirations 20, blood pressure (BP) 90/50. b. Temperature 37.4° C, heart rate 88, respirations 36, BP 126/68. c. temperature 38° C, heart rate 80, respirations 16, BP 110/80. d. Temperature 36.8° C, heart rate 60, respirations 18, BP 140/90.

ANS: A An EBL of 1500 mL with tachycardia and hypotension suggests hypovolemia caused by excessive blood loss. An increased respiratory rate of 36 may be secondary to pain from the birth. Temperature may increase to 38° C during the first 24 hours as a result of the dehydrating effects of labor. A BP of 140/90 is slightly elevated, which may be caused by the use of oxytocic medications.

A nurse is discussing the signs and symptoms of mastitis with a mother who is breastfeeding. What signs and symptoms should the nurse include in her discussion? Choose all that apply. a. Breast tenderness b. Warmth in the breast c. An area of redness on the breast often resembling the shape of a pie wedge d. A small white blister on the tip of the nipple e. Fever and flulike symptoms

ANS: A, B, C, E Feedback Correct These symptoms are commonly associated with mastitis and should be included in the nurses discussion of mastitis. Incorrect This symptom generally is not associated with mastitis. It is commonly seen in women who have a plugged milk duct.

A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 3-ounce infant boy 2 hours ago. The nurse determines that the woman's bladder is distended because her fundus is now 3 cm above the umbilicus and to the right of the midline. In the immediate postpartum period, the most serious consequence likely to occur from bladder distention is: a. Urinary tract infection. b. Excessive uterine bleeding. c. A ruptured bladder. d. Bladder wall atony.

ANS: B Excessive bleeding can occur immediately after birth if the bladder becomes distended because it pushes the uterus up and to the side and prevents it from contracting firmly. A urinary tract infection may result from overdistention of the bladder, but it is not the most serious consequence. A ruptured bladder may result from a severely overdistended bladder. However, vaginal bleeding most likely would occur before the bladder reaches this level of overdistention. Bladder distention may result from bladder wall atony. The most serious concern associated with bladder distention is excessive uterine bleeding.

1. A woman gave birth to a healthy 7-pound, 13-ounce infant girl. The nurse suggests that the woman place the infant to her breast within 15 minutes after birth. The nurse knows that breastfeeding is effective during the first 30 minutes after birth because this is the: a. Transition period. b. First period of reactivity. c. Organizational stage. d. Second period of reactivity.

ANS: B Feedback A The transition period is the phase between intrauterine and extrauterine existence. B The first period of reactivity is the first phase of transition and lasts up to 30 minutes after birth. The infant is highly alert during this phase. C There is no such phase. D The second period of reactivity occurs roughly between 4 and 8 hours after birth, after a period of prolonged sleep.

With regard to afterbirth pains, nurses should be aware that these pains are: a.Caused by mild, continuous contractions for the duration of the postpartum period. b.More common in first-time mothers. c.More noticeable in births in which the uterus was overdistended. d.Alleviated somewhat when the mother breastfeeds.

ANS: C A large baby or multiple babies overdistend the uterus. The cramping that causes afterbirth pains arises from periodic, vigorous contractions and relaxations, which persist through the first part of the postpartum period. Afterbirth pains are more common in multiparous women because first-time mothers have better uterine tone. Breastfeeding intensifies afterbirth pain because it stimulates contractions.

If the patient's white blood cell (WBC) count is 25,000/mm on her second postpartum day, the nurse should: a.Tell the physician immediately. b.Have the laboratory draw blood for reanalysis. c.Recognize that this is an acceptable range at this point postpartum. d.Begin antibiotic therapy immediately.

ANS: C During the first 10 to 12 days after childbirth, values between 20,000 and 25,000/mm are common. Because this is a normal finding there is no reason to alert the physician. There is no need for reassessment or antibiotics because it is expected for the WBCs to be elevated.

Which documentation on a woman's chart on postpartum day 14 indicates a normal involution process? a.Moderate bright red lochial flow b.Breasts firm and tender c.Fundus below the symphysis and not palpable d. Episiotomy slightly red and puffy

ANS: C The fundus descends 1 cm/day, so by postpartum day 14 it is no longer palpable. The lochia should be changed by this day to serosa. Breasts are not part of the involution process. The episiotomy should not be red or puffy at this stage.

A woman who is gravida 3 para 2 enters the intrapartum unit. The most important nursing assessments are: a. Contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history. b. Fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the woman's nearness to birth. c. Identification of ruptured membranes, the woman's gravida and para, and her support person. d. Last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires.

B All options describe relevant intrapartum nursing assessments; however, this focused assessment has priority. If the maternal and fetal conditions are normal and birth is not imminent, other assessments can be performed in an unhurried manner. This includes: gravida, para, support person, pregnancy history, pain assessment, last food intake, and cultural practices.

What is an expected characteristic of amniotic fluid? a. Deep yellow color b. Pale, straw color with small white particles c. Acidic result on a Nitrazine test d. Absence of ferning

B Amniotic fluid normally is a pale, straw-colored fluid that may contain white flecks of vernix. Yellow-stained fluid may indicate fetal hypoxia up to 36 hours before rupture of membranes, fetal hemolytic disease, or intrauterine infection. Amniotic fluid produces an alkaline result on a Nitrazine test. The presence of ferning is a positive indication of amniotic fluid.

When caring for a newly delivered woman, the nurse is aware that the best measure to prevent abdominal distention after a cesarean birth is: a. Rectal suppositories. b. Early and frequent ambulation. c. Tightening and relaxing abdominal muscles. d. Carbonated beverages.

B Activity will aid the movement of accumulated gas in the gastrointestinal tract. Rectal suppositories can be helpful after distention occurs; however, they do not prevent it. Ambulation is the best prevention. Carbonated beverages may increase distention.

antidote for magnesium sulfate

Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxic- ity. It is very important the test taker know that, if needed, calcium gluconate must be administered very slowly. If administered rapidly, the client may experience sudden convulsions.

After an emergency birth, the nurse encourages the woman to breastfeed her newborn. The primary purpose of this activity is to: a. Facilitate maternal-newborn interaction. b. Stimulate the uterus to contract. c. Prevent neonatal hypoglycemia. d. Initiate the lactation cycle.

B Stimulation of the nipples through breastfeeding or manual stimulation causes the release of oxytocin and prevents maternal hemorrhage. Breastfeeding facilitates maternal-newborn interaction, but it is not the primary reason a woman is encouraged to breastfeed after an emergency birth. The primary intervention for preventing neonatal hypoglycemia is thermoregulation. Cold stress can result in hypoglycemia. The woman is encouraged to breastfeed after an emergency birth to stimulate the release of oxytocin, which prevents hemorrhage. Breastfeeding is encouraged to initiate the lactation cycle, but it is not the primary reason for this activity after an emergency birth.

A patient whose cervix is dilated to 5 cm is considered to be in which phase of labor? a. Latent phase b. Active phase c. Second stage d. Third stage

B The latent phase is from the beginning of true labor until 3 cm of cervical dilation. The active phase of labor is characterized by cervical dilation of 4 to 7 cm. The second stage of labor begins when the cervix is completely dilated until the birth of the baby. The third stage of labor is from the birth of the baby until the expulsion of the placenta. This patient is in the active phase of labor.

Nurses alert to signs of the onset of the second stage of labor can be certain that this stage has begun when: a. The woman has a sudden episode of vomiting. b. The nurse is unable to feel the cervix during a vaginal examination. c. Bloody show increases. d. The woman involuntarily bears down.

B The only certain objective sign that the second stage has begun is the inability to feel the cervix because it is fully dilated and effaced. Vomiting, an increase in bloody show, and involuntary bearing down are only suggestions of second-stage labor.

As relates to rubella and Rh issues, nurses should be aware that: a. Breastfeeding mothers cannot be vaccinated with the live attenuated rubella virus. b. Women should be warned that the rubella vaccination is teratogenic, and that they must avoid pregnancy for 1 month after vaccination. c. Rh immune globulin is safely administered intravenously because it cannot harm a nursing infant. d. Rh immune globulin boosts the immune system and thereby enhances the effectiveness of vaccinations.

B Women should understand they must practice contraception for 1 month after being vaccinated. Because the live attenuated rubella virus is not communicable in breast milk, breastfeeding mothers can be vaccinated. Rh immune globulin is administered intramuscularly; it should never be given to an infant. Rh immune globulin suppresses the immune system and therefore could thwart the rubella vaccination.

The nurse knows that the second stage of labor, the descent phase, has begun when: a. The amniotic membranes rupture. b. The cervix cannot be felt during a vaginal examination. c. The woman experiences a strong urge to bear down. d. The presenting part is below the ischial spines.

C During the descent phase of the second stage of labor, the woman may experience an increase in the urge to bear down. Rupture of membranes has no significance in determining the stage of labor. The second stage of labor begins with full cervical dilation. Many women may have an urge to bear down when the presenting part is below the level of the ischial spines. This can occur during the first stage of labor, as early as 5-cm dilation.

Which description of the phases of the second stage of labor is accurate? a. Latent phase: Feeling sleepy, fetal station 2+ to 4+, duration 30 to 45 minutes b. Active phase: Overwhelmingly strong contractions, Ferguson reflux activated, duration 5 to 15 minutes c. Descent phase: Significant increase in contractions, Ferguson reflux activated, average duration varied d. Transitional phase: Woman "laboring down," fetal station 0, duration 15 minutes

C The descent phase begins with a significant increase in contractions; the Ferguson reflex is activated, and the duration varies, depending on a number of factors. The latent phase is the lull, or "laboring down," period at the beginning of the second stage. It lasts 10 to 30 minutes on average. The second stage of labor has no active phase. The transition phase is the final phase in the second stage of labor; contractions are strong and painful.

Which action is correct when palpation is used to assess the characteristics and pattern of uterine contractions? a. Place the hand on the abdomen below the umbilicus and palpate uterine tone with the fingertips. b. Determine the frequency by timing from the end of one contraction to the end of the next contraction. c. Evaluate the intensity by pressing the fingertips into the uterine fundus. d. Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes throughout the first stage of labor.

C The nurse or primary care provider may assess uterine activity by palpating the fundal section of the uterus using the fingertips. Many women may experience labor pain in the lower segment of the uterus that may be unrelated to the firmness of the contraction detectable in the uterine fundus. The frequency of uterine contractions is determined by palpating from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. Assessment of uterine activity is performed in intervals based on the stage of labor. As labor progresses this assessment is performed more frequently.

A 25-year-old gravida 2, para 2-0-0-2 gave birth 4 hours ago to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy after augmentation of labor with Pitocin. She puts on her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating, "I'm bleeding a lot." The most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this woman is: a. Retained placental fragments. b. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations. c. Uterine atony. d. Puerperal infection.

C This woman gave birth to a macrosomic boy after Pitocin augmentation. The most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, combined with these risk factors, is uterine atony. Although retained placental fragments may cause postpartum hemorrhage, this typically would be detected in the first hour after delivery of the placenta and is not the most likely cause of hemorrhage in this woman. Although unrepaired vaginal lacerations may cause bleeding, they typically would occur in the period immediately after birth. Puerperal infection can cause subinvolution and subsequent bleeding; however, this typically would be detected 24 hours after delivery.

Excessive blood loss after childbirth can have several causes; the most common is: a. Vaginal or vulvar hematomas. b. Unrepaired lacerations of the vagina or cervix. c. Failure of the uterine muscle to contract firmly. d. Retained placental fragments.

C Uterine atony can best be thwarted by maintaining good uterine tone and preventing bladder distention. Although vaginal or vulvar hematomas, unpaired lacerations of the vagina or cervix, and retained placental fragments are possible causes of excessive blood loss, uterine muscle failure (uterine atony) is the most common cause.

A woman gave birth vaginally to a 9-pound, 12-ounce girl yesterday. Her primary health care provider has written orders for perineal ice packs, use of a sitz bath tid, and a stool softener. What information is most closely correlated with these orders? a. The woman is a gravida 2, para 2. b. The woman had a vacuum-assisted birth. c. The woman received epidural anesthesia. d. The woman has an episiotomy.

D These orders are typical interventions for a woman who has had an episiotomy, lacerations, and hemorrhoids. A multiparous classification is not an indication for these orders. A vacuum-assisted birth may be used in conjunction with an episiotomy, which would indicate these interventions. Use of epidural anesthesia has no correlation with these orders.

Which nursing action is most appropriate to correct a boggy uterus that is displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus? a. Notify the physician of an impending hemorrhage. b. Assess the blood pressure and pulse. c. Evaluate the lochia. d. Assist the patient in emptying her bladder.

D Urinary retention may cause overdistention of the urinary bladder, which lifts and displaces the uterus. Nursing actions need to be implemented before notifying the physician. It is important to evaluate blood pressure, pulse, and lochia if the bleeding continues; however, the focus at this point in time is to assist the patient in emptying her bladder.

In documenting labor experiences, nurses should know that a uterine contraction is described according to all these characteristics except: a. Frequency (how often contractions occur). b. Intensity (the strength of the contraction at its peak). c. Resting tone (the tension in the uterine muscle). d. Appearance (shape and height).

D Uterine contractions are described in terms of frequency, intensity, duration, and resting tone.