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The proximate cause for monogamy in prairie voles is linked to the brain chemistry of these rodents.

12) Treehoppers (a type of insect) produce honeydew, which ants use for food. Treehoppers have a major predator, the jumping spider. Researchers hypothesized that the ants would protect the treehoppers from the spiders. In an experiment, researchers followed study plots with ants removed from the system and compared them to a control plot. In the figure above, what can you conclude? A) Ants do somehow protect the treehoppers from spiders. B) Ants eat the honeydew produced by treehoppers C) Ants reduce the numbers of treehoppers. D) No specific conclusions can be drawn from this figure.

14) Resource partitioning would be most likely to occur between _____. A) sympatric populations of species with similar ecological niches B) sympatric populations of a flowering plant and its specialized insect pollinator C) allopatric populations of the same animal species D) allopatric populations of species with similar ecological niches

16) Which of the following is an example of Müllerian mimicry? A) two species of unpalatable butterfly that have the same color pattern B) a day-flying hawkmoth that looks like a wasp C) a chameleon that changes its color to look like a dead leaf D) two species of rattlesnakes that both rattle their tails

18) Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration? A) the brightly colored patterns of poison dart frogs B) eye color in humans C) green color of a plant D) a katydid whose wings look like a dead leaf

20) In some circumstances, grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the following terms would best describe such a plant-herbivore interaction? A) mutualism B) commensalism C) parasitism D) predation

25) What interactions exist between mycorrhizae and evergreen tree roots? A) +/+ B) +/o C) +/- D) o/o

3) What conclusion can you draw from the figure above? A) Without direct contact, mussels can sense the presence of crabs. B) Mussels can sense the presence of crabs only visually. C) Mussels are increasing their shell thickness in response to water current. D) Crabs hunt for mussels by focusing on the chemicals they emit into the water.

31) Elephants are not the most dominant species in African grasslands, yet they influence community structure. The grasslands contain scattered woody plants, but they are kept in check by the uprooting activities of the elephants. Take away the elephants, and the grasslands convert to forests or to shrublands. The newly growing forests support fewer species than the previous grasslands. Which of the following describes why elephants are the keystone species in this scenario? A) Elephants exhibit a disproportionate influence on the structure of the community relative to their abundance. B) Grazing animals depend upon the elephants to convert forests to grassland. C) Elephants are the biggest herbivore in this community. D) Elephants help other populations survive by keeping out many of the large African predators.

32) According to bottom-up and top-down control models of community organization, which of the following expressions would imply that an increase in the size of a carnivore (C) population would negatively impact its prey (P) population, but not vice versa? A) P ← C B) P → C C) C ↔ P D) P ← C → P

34) Imagine five forest communities, each with one hundred individuals distributed among four different tree species (W, X, Y, and Z). Which forest community would be most diverse? A) 25W, 25X, 25Y, 25Z B) 40W, 30X, 20Y, 10Z C) 50W, 25X, 15Y, 10Z D) 70W, 10X, 10Y, 10Z

44) Why do moderate levels of disturbance result in an increase in community diversity? A) Habitats are opened up for less competitive species. B) Competitively dominant species infrequently exclude less competitive species after a moderate disturbance. C) The resulting uniform habitat supports stability, which in turn supports diversity. D) Less-competitive species evolve strategies to compete with dominant species.

52) Which island would likely have the lowest extinction rate? A) A B) C C) D D) E

53) According to the equilibrium model of island biogeography, species richness would be greatest on an island that is _____. A) large and close to a mainland B) large and remote C) small and remote D) small and close to a mainland

58) Which of the following studies would shed light on the mechanism of spread of H5N1 virus from Asia? A) Perform cloacal or saliva smears of migrating waterfowl to monitor whether any infected birds show up in Alaska. B) Test fecal samples for H5N1 in Asian waterfowl that live near domestic poultry farms in Asia. C) Test for the presence of H5N1 in poultry used for human consumption worldwide. D) Locate and destroy birds infected with H5N1 in Asian open-air poultry markets.

61) Scientists interested in how populations interact within communities are attempting to determine the species diversity of an island under study. What kind of data would be most helpful to the scientists in determining diversity? A) The number of different species on the island and the size of the population of each species. B) The number of species on the island that are consumers, producers, and decomposers. C) The relative biomass of each species on the island separated by trophic level. D) The number of trophic levels on the island and the niche of each species.

A population of squirrels on an island has a carrying capacity of 350 individuals. If the maximum rate of increase is 1.0 per individual per year and the population size is 275, determine the population growth rate (Round to the nearest whole number). A) 59 squirrels per year B) -34 squirrels per year C) 75 squirrels per year D) 15 squirrels per year

Abstract: We derive measures for assessing the value of an individual habitat fragment for the dynamics and persistence of a metapopulation living in a network of many fragments. We demonstrate that the most appropriate measure of fragment value depends on the question asked. Specifically, we analyze four alternative measures: the contribution of a fragment to the metapopulation capacity of the network, to the equilibrium metapopulation size, to the expected time to metapopulation extinction and the long-term contribution of a fragment to colonization events in the network. The latter measure is comparable to density-dependent measures in general matrix population theory, though some differences are introduced by the fact that "density dependence" is spatially localized in the metapopulation context. We show that the value of a fragment depends not only on the properties of the landscape but also on the properties of the species. Most importantly, variation in fragment values between the habitat fragments is greatest in the case of rare species that occur close to the extinction threshold, as these species are likely to be restricted to the most favorable parts of the landscape. We expect that the measures of habitat fragment described and analyzed here have applications in landscape ecology and in conservation biology. Copyright © 2003 Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved. (Otso Ovaskainen and Ilkka Hanski. 2003. How much does an individual habitat fragment contribute to metapopulation dynamics and persistence? Theoretical Population Biology 64:481-95.) One measure for the value of the patch was given by the long-term contribution of a fragment to colonization events in the network. How do the properties of a landscape and the properties of a species affect the value of a patch? The value of the fragment depends _____. A) on the properties of the landscape and the properties of the species B) only on the properties of the landscape and not on the properties of the species C) not on the properties of the landscape but only on the properties of the species D) on neither the properties of the landscape nor on the properties of the species

All chordates studied to date, except tunicates, share a set of _____. A) 13 Hox genes B) 5 Dlx genes C) 9 Otx genes D) 7 FOXP2 genes

An ecologist recorded twelve white-tailed deer per square kilometer in one woodlot and twentyper square kilometer in another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing? A)Density B) Home range C) Dispersiond. D) Carrying capacity

An ecologist recorded twelve white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square kilometer in one woodlot and twenty per square kilometer in another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing? A) density B) dispersion C) carrying capacity D) range

An example of an ectothermic organism that has few or no behavioral options when it comes to its ability to adjust its body temperature is a _____. A) sea star living deep in the ocean B) bass living in a farm pond C) hummingbird flying through a prairie D) honeybee in a hive on a rural farm

Aquatic primary productivity is most limited by which of the following? A) nutrient availability and sunlight B) predation C) increased pressure D) disease E) temperature

As climate changes because of global warming, speciesʹ ranges in the northern hemisphere may move northward. The trees that are most likely to avoid extinction in such an environment are those that A) have seeds that are easily dispersed by wind or animals. B) have thin seed coats. C) produce well-provisioned seeds. D) have seeds that become viable only after a forest fire. E) disperse many seeds in close proximity to the parent tree.

Based on the figure above and given the populations of the following countries, which country uses the most oil overall? A) United States (population = 320 million) B) Canada (population = 36 million) C) China (population = 1.33 billion) D) Russia (population = 144 million)

Blood is best classified as connective tissue because _____. A) its cells are separated from each other by an extracellular matrix B) it contains more than one type of cell C) its cells can move from place to place D) it is found within all the organs of the body

Consider the food chain of grass → grasshopper → mouse → snake → hawk. About how much of the chemical energy fixed by photosynthesis of the grass (100 percent) is available to the hawk? A) 0.01% B) 0.1% C) 1% D) 10%

Consider the global nitrogen cycle depicted in the figure above. How are humans altering this cycle?A) industrial nitrogen fixation B) nitrogen lost to the atmosphere C) reduction of nitrogen available to terrestrial ecosystems D) reduction of nitrogen fixation by bacteria

Coral animals A) are a diverse group of cnidarians often forming mutualistic symbiotic relationships with dinoflagellate algae. B) are predominantly photosynthetic, multicellular algae. C) can tolerate low oxygen and nutrient levels, and varying levels of salinity. D) can only survive in tropical waters 30oC and above. E) build coral reefs by glueing sand particles together.

Deserts typically occur in a band at 30 degrees north and south latitude because A) descending air masses tend to be cool and dry. B) trade winds have a little moisture. C) water is heavier than air and is not carried far over land. D) ascending air tends to be moist. E) these locations get the most intense solar radiation of any location on Earth

Diagram of a food web (arrows represent energy flow and letters represent species) 9) If the figure above represents a marine food web, the smallest organism might be _____. A) A B) C C) I D) E

During chordate evolution, what is the sequence (from earliest to most recent) in which the following structures arose? 1. amniotic egg 2. paired fins 3. jaws 4. swim bladder 5. four-chambered heart A) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 B) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 C) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 D) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 E) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

During exponential growth, a population always _____. A) grows at its maximum per capita rate B) quickly reaches its carrying capacity C) cycles through time D) loses some individuals to emigration

Following extermination and a period of recolonization, islands closer to the mainland are expected to have _____?_____ insect species compared to more remote islands of similar size. (a) more (b) fewer (c) approximately the same number of.

Following extermination and a period of recolonization, larger islands are expected to have _____?_____ insect species compred to smaller islands of the same approximate distance from the mainland. (a) more (b) fewer (c) approximately the same number of

Food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem(arrows represent energy flow and letters represent species) 5) Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which species is autotrophic? A) A B) C C) D D) E

Generalized global air circulation and precipitation patterns are caused by A) rising, warm, moist air masses cool and release precipitation as they rise and then at high altitude, cool and sink back to the surface as dry air masses after moving north or south of the tropics. B) air masses that are dried and heated over continental areas that rise, cool aloft, and descend over oceanic areas followed by a return flow of moist air from ocean to land delivering high amounts of precipitation to coastal areas. C) polar, cool, moist high pressure air masses from the poles that move along the surface, releasing precipitation along the way to the equator where they are heated and dried. D) the revolution of the Earth around the sun. E) Mountain ranges that deflect air masses containing variable amounts of moisture.

How can biodiversity affect the way we decontaminate industrial sites? I) Bacteria have been found to be able to detoxify certain chemicals; perhaps there are more. II) Trees produce sawdust, which can be used to soak up chemicals. III) Species evolving in contaminated areas could adapt and detoxify the area. A) only I B) only II C) only III D) only II and III

How does inefficient transfer of energy among trophic levels result in the typically high endangerment status of many top-level predators? A) Top-level predators are destined to have small populations that are sparsely distributed. B) Predators have relatively large population sizes. C) Predators are more disease-prone than animals at lower trophic levels. D) Top-level predators are more likely to be stricken with parasites.

Human-induced modifications of the nitrogen cycle can result in A) eutrophication of adjacent wetlands. B) decreased availability of fixed nitrogen to primary producers. C) accumulation of toxic levels of N2 in groundwater. D) extermination of nitrogen-fixing bacteria on agricultural lands. E) deprivation of nitrogen to ecosystems adjacent to nitrogen application.

If a meteor impact or volcanic eruption injected a lot of dust into the atmosphere and reduced the sunlight reaching Earthʹs surface by 70% for one year, all of the following marine communities most likely would be greatly affected except A) deep-sea vent communities. B) coral reef communities. C) benthic communities. D) pelagic communities. E) estuary communities.

If a meteor impact or volcanic eruption injected a lot of dust into the atmosphere and reduced the sunlight reaching Earth's surface by 70 percent for one year, which marine community would most likely be affected? A) benthic ocean B) coral reef C) intertidal zone D) estuary

In temperate lakes, the surface water is replenished with nutrients during turnovers that occur in the A) autumn and spring. B) autumn and winter. C) spring and summer. D) summer and winter. E) summer and autumn

In the development of terrestrial biomes, which factor is most dependent on all the others? A) the species of colonizing animals B) prevailing temperature C) prevailing rainfall D) mineral nutrient availability E) soil structure

In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves most applies to humans living in developed countries? A) curve A B) curve B C) curve C D) curve A or curve B

Look at the nitrogen cycle. What term would be used to describe the role of 5? a. Nitrogen fixation b. Nitrogen uptake c. Ammonificationd. Denitrification

Mammals and birds eat more often than reptiles. Which of the following traits share by mammals and birds best explains this habit? a. endothermy b. ectothermy c. amniotic egg d. terrestrial

Refer to the figure above. Imagine that Species C is an introduced species. Which scenario bestdescribes a realistic potential effect of this biological invasion on the local ecology? a. Species C preys upon species B and also competes with it for food resources b. Species C competes with Species A for food resource c. Species C is a very effective predator that eats too many individuals of species D. d. Species C preys upon species E and also competes with it for food resources.

Suppose the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of vertical strata found in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes would you find the greatest number of bird species? A) tropical rain forest B) savanna C) desert D) temperate broadleaf forest E) temperate grassland

Terry catches a ray-finned fish from the ocean and notices that attached to its flank is an equally long, snakelike organism. The attached organism has no external segmentation, no scales, a round mouth surrounded by a sucker, and two small eyes. Terry thinks it might be a marine leech, a hagfish, or a lamprey. 30) Terry saved some of the tooth-like objects within the hagfish's round mouth to analyze their composition in his mentor's biochemistry research lab. Terry will find that they are composed of the same protein found in tetrapod _____. A) skin B) teeth C) bones D) cartilage

The benthic zone in an aquatic biome A) often supports communities of organisms that feed largely on detritus. B) supports communities of highly motile animals. C) is where one would most expect to find a thermocline. D) has wider seasonal fluctuations in temperature than other aquatic zones. E) is always devoid of light.

The earliest known mineralized structures in vertebrates are associated with..... a. feeding b. locomotion c. defense d. respiration

The figure above represents the dynamics of _____. A) metapopulations B) extinction C) emigration D) both extinction and emigration

The first step in ecosystem restoration is to _____. A) restore the physical structure B) restore native species that have been extirpated due to disturbance C) remove competitive invasive species D) remove toxic pollutants

The one-way flow of air along parabronchi makes what type of gas exchange mechanism possible, at least theoretically? A) the same as that occurring in fish gills B) the same as that occurring in insect tracheae C) the same as that occurring in mammalian lungs D) the same as that occurring in echinoderm skin gills

The ovals above represent mangrove islands of various sizes and distances from shore.According to the MacArthur/Wilson Island Biogeography Model, which island is expected tohave a higher number of insect species at equilibrium? a. Island A b. Island B c. Island C d. Island D

The symbols +, -, and o are to be used to show the results of interactions between individuals and groups of individuals in the examples that follow. The symbol + denotes a positive interaction, - denotes a negative interaction, and o denotes where individuals are not affected by interacting. The first symbol refers to the first organism mentioned. 24) What interactions exist between cellulose-digesting organisms in the gut of a termite and the termite? A) +/+ B) +/o C) +/- D) o/o

The table above is a comparison of several characteristics of H. floresiensis to those of nine other hominin species (arranged roughly from oldest to most recent). What do these data suggest?A) A large brain is not necessarily required for toolmaking. B) Body mass and braincase volume are completely unrelated. C) Hominins first evolved in and then radiated out from Asia. D) Homo floresiensis is most closely related to Australopithecus afarensis or A. africanus.

To reproduce, many plants produce seeds-structures containing embryonic offspring along with nutrients inside a tough case. These offspring develop after being released by the parent plant. To which animal reproductive strategy is seed production most comparable?A) oviparous reproduction B) ovoviviparous reproduction C) viviparous reproduction

Upon observing a golden eagle flying overhead, a sentry prairie dog puts its own safety at risk A) agonistic behavior B) dominance hierarchy C) altruistic behavior D) innate behavior

Use the following diagram of five islands formed at around the same time near a particular mainland, as well as MacArthur and Wilson's island biogeography principles, to answer the question(s) below. 50) Which island would likely have the greatest species diversity? A) A B) C C) D D) E

Using the table above, determine which age class year would hurt the population growth most if it were wiped out by disease. A) age class year 1 B) age class year 2 C) age class year 3 D) age class year 4

Using the table above, how would you describe the population dynamics of L. vivipara? A) The population is increasing. B) The population is decreasing. C) The population is stable. D) The figure does not provide this information

What group of mammals have (a) embryos that spend more time feeding through the placenta than the mother's nipples, (b) young that feed on milk, and (c) a prolonged period of maternal care after leaving the placenta? A) Eutheria B) Marsupiala C) Monotremata

What is believed to be the most significant result of the evolution of the amniotic egg? .A) Tetrapods were no longer tied to the water for reproduction. B) Tetrapods can now function with just lungs. C) Newborns are much less dependent on their parents. D) Embryos are protected from predators.

When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that are analogous to the changes A) in biomes at different latitudes. B) at different depths in the ocean. C) in a community through different seasons. D) in an ecosystem as it evolves over time. E) across the United States from east to west.

Which extant chordates are postulated to be most like the earliest chordates in appearance? A) lancelets B) adult tunicates C) amphibians D) reptiles E) chondrichthyans

Which of the following are the most abundant and diverse of the extant vertebrates? A) ray-finned fishes B) birds C) amphibians D) nonbird reptiles E) mammals

Which of the following best describes an abiotic component of an ecosystem? A) To a crocodile, the steepness of a river bank can influence whether this is a good spot tolay inb. B) To a tree-dwelling lizard, the diameter of the branches in its microhabitat can determinewhether it is successfully be able to move around, capture prey, and escape frompredators.c. C) The showshoe hare is the most important prey item in the diet of the Canadian lynx. D) The sea otter keeps he sea urchin population from overgrazing the kelp forest.

Which of the following could be considered the most recent common ancestor of living tetrapods? A) a sturdy-finned, shallow-water lobe-fin whose appendages had skeletal supports similar to those of terrestrial vertebrates B) an armored, jawed placoderm with two pairs of appendages C) an early ray-finned fish that developed bony skeletal supports in its paired fins D) a salamander that had legs supported by a bony skeleton but moved with the side-to-side bending typical of fishes

Which of the following events might you predict to occur if the tilt of Earthʹs axis relative to its plane of orbit was increased 33.5 degrees? A) Summers and winters in the United States would likely become warmer and colder, respectively. B) Winters and summers in Australia would likely become less distinct seasons. C) Seasonal variation at the equator might decrease. D) Both northern and southern hemispheres would experience summer and winter at the same time. E) Both poles would experience massive ice melts

Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion? A) red squirrels, who actively defend territories B) cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams C) dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest tree D) lake trout, which seek out cold, deep water high in dissolved oxygen

Which of the following is characteristic of K-selected populations? A) offspring with good chances of survival B) many offspring per reproductive episode C) small offspring D) a high intrinsic rate of increase

Which of the following is responsible for the summer and winter stratification of deep temperate lakes? A) Water is densest at 4°C. B) Oxygen is most abundant in deeper waters. C) Winter ice sinks in the summer. D) Stratification is caused by a thermocline. E) Stratification always follows the fall and spring turnovers.

Which of the following statements about light in aquatic environments is correct? A) Water selectively reflects and absorbs certain wavelengths of light. B) Photosynthetic organisms that live in deep water probably use red light. C) Longer wavelengths penetrate to greater depths. D) Light penetration seldom limits the distribution of photosynthetic species. E) Most photosynthetic organisms avoid the surface where the light is not too intense.

Which of the following statements best describes the difference in approach to studying the environment by early naturalists compared to present-day ecologists? A) Early naturalists employed a descriptive approach; present-day ecologists generate hypotheses, design experiments, and draw conclusions from their observations. B) Early naturalists manipulated the environment and observed changes in plant and animal populations, while modern ecology focuses on population dynamics. C) Early naturalists systematically recorded what they observed in their environment; modern ecology is only concerned with manʹs impact on the environment. D) Early naturalists were interested with manʹs interaction with the natural world; present-day ecologists seek to link ecology to developmental biology. E) Early naturalists were interested in interactions between organisms and their environment; present day ecologists are interested in interactions between organisms

Which of the following terms encompasses all of the others? A) heterotrophs B) herbivores C) carnivores D) primary consumers

Which of the following would be considered an example of bioremediation? A) adding nitrogen-fixing microorganisms to a degraded ecosystem to increase nitrogen availability B) using a bulldozer to regrade a strip mine C) dredging a river bottom to remove contaminated sediments D) adding seeds of a chromium-accumulating plant to soil contaminated by chromium

Which of these characteristics added most to vertebrate success in relatively dry environments? a. the shelled, amniotic egg b. the ability to maintain a constant body temperature c. two pairs of appendages d. a four-chambered heart

Which of these might have been observed in the common ancestor of chondrichthyans and osteichthyans? A) a mineralized, bony skeleton B) opercula C) bony fin rays D) a spiral valve intestine E) a swim bladder

Which one of the following correctly ranks these organisms in order from lowest to highest percent in production efficiency? A) mammals, fish, insects B) insects, fish, mammals C) fish, insects, mammals D) mammals, insects, fish

Which term best describes an evolutionary trend in the physical features of the organismthemselves, in which characteristics are more different in competing species that live in thesame place (compared to allopatric populations of the same two species)? a. Character displacement b. Patchiness c. Resource partitioning d. Succession

Which term best describes the differentiation of niches that enables similar species to coexist ina community? a. Resource partitioning b. Succession c. Dispersal d. Commensalism

Which term describes a population growth model that accounts for resource limitation?a. Logistic growth b. Exponential growthc. c. Type III survivorship d. Uniform dispersion

Why do adult urochordates (tunicates) lack notochords, even though larval urochordates have them? Larvae use notochords to _____. A) aid in swimming; adults are sessile and thus no longer propel themselves .B) stiffen their bodies; in adults, the notochord is replaced by a column of bone. C) induce tissue differentiation; in adults, tissue is already differentiated. D) organize their nervous systems; adults' nervous systems are fully developed and do not

With which of the following statements would a biologist be most inclined to agree? A) Humans and apes represent divergent lines of evolution from a common ancestor. B) Humans evolved directly from Old World monkeys. C) Humans represent the pinnacle of evolution and have escaped from being affected by natural selection. D) Humans evolved from chimpanzees. E) Humans and apes are the result of disruptive selection in a species of chimpanzee.

You are planning a dive in a lake, and are eager to observe not many underwater organisms but be able to observe them both close up and far away. You would do well to choose A) an oligotrophic lake. B) an eutrophic lake. C) a relatively shallow lake. D) a nutrient-rich lake. E) a lake with consistently warm temperatures.

stickleback fish will attack a fish model as long as the model has red coloring. This is best described as A) sign stimulus B) cognition C) imprinting D) classical conditioning

1) Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics. As the ants march along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates, birds follow and pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of the ants. This situation is an example of what kind of species interaction between the birds and the ants? A) consumption B) commensalism C) parasitism D) mutualism

17) Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry? A) a butterfly that resembles a leaf B) a nonvenomous snake that looks like a venomous snake C) a fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the forest environment D) a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting fish

19) Dwarf mistletoes are flowering plants that grow on certain forest trees. They obtain nutrients and water from the vascular tissues of the trees. The trees derive no known benefits from the dwarf mistletoes. Which of the following best describes the interactions between dwarf mistletoes and trees? A) mutualism B) parasitism C) competition D) facilitation

21) The Noormets et al. study (2004) shows that there was an ecosystem-specific control over soil energy fluxes, and this constrained the biotic response to climate change. How do you think radiative heat would affect the water table in a wetland versus a temperate forest? A) The wetland would likely absorb less heat than the temperate forest and, therefore, not significantly change water table depth. B) The wetland would likely absorb more heat than the temperate forest and significantly change water table depth. C) The temperate forest would likely absorb more heat than the wetland and significantly change water table depth. D) Both areas would absorb similar amounts of radiative heat and, therefore, affect the water table equally.

27) What does the graph in the figure above tell you about the definition of a keystone species? A) A keystone species has little interaction with other species in an environment. B) Removing a keystone species from the community drastically reduces diversity. C) Adding a keystone species to the community will make it more diverse. D) Removing a keystone species from the community will eventually allow for the invasion of a new species.

28) In the figure above, which community has the highest species diversity? A) Community 1 B) Community 2 C) Community 1 and community 3 have the highest species diversity. D) Community 4

3) To recycle nutrients, an ecosystem must have, at a minimum, _____. A) producers B) producers and decomposers C) producers, primary consumers, and decomposers D) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and decomposers

30) In a tide pool, fifteen species of invertebrates were reduced to eight after one species was removed. The species removed was likely a(n) _____. A) pathogen B) keystone species C) herbivore D) resource partitioner

33) Which of the following is a likely explanation for why invasive species take over communities into which they have been introduced? A) Invasive species are less efficient than native species in competing for the limited resources of the environment. B) Invasive species are not held in check by the predators and agents of disease that have always been in place for native species. C) Invasive species have a higher reproductive potential than native species. D) Invasive species come from geographically isolated regions, so when they are introduced to regions where there is more competition, they thrive.

38) Keystone predators can maintain species diversity in a community if they _____. A) competitively exclude other predators B) prey on the community's dominant species C) allow immigration of other predators D) prey only on the least abundant species in the community

47) There are more species in tropical areas than in places more distant from the equator. This is probably a result of _____. A) fewer predators B) more intense annual solar radiation C) more frequent ecological disturbances D) fewer agents of disease

54) The most plausible hypothesis to explain why species richness is higher in tropical than in temperate regions is that _____. A) tropical communities are younger B) tropical regions generally have more available water and higher levels of solar radiation C) higher temperatures cause more rapid speciation D) tropical regions have very high rates of immigration and very low rates of extinction

55) Zoonotic disease _____. A) is caused by suborganismal pathogens such as viruses, viroids, and prions only B) is caused by pathogens that are transferred from other animals to humans by direct contact or by means of a vector C) can only be spread from animals to humans through direct contact D) can only be transferred from animals to humans by means of an intermediate host

60) The oak tree fungal pathogen, Phytophthora ramorum, has migrated eight hundred kilometers in fifteen years. West Nile virus spread from New York State to forty-six other states in five years. The difference in the rate of spread is probably related to _____. A) the lethality of each pathogen B) the mobility of their hosts C) the fact that viruses are very small D) innate resistance

7) Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Species C is toxic to predators. Which species is most likely to benefit from being a mimic of C? A) A B) B C) C D) E

8) What interactions exist between a tick on a dog and the dog? A) +/o B) +/- C) o/o D) -/-

A fungus consumes a soil dwelling roundworm. a. Commensalism b. Predation c. Mutualism d. Parasitism

A new species of aquatic chordate is discovered that closely resembles an ancient form. It has the following characteristics: external armor of bony plates, no paired lateral fins, and a suspension-feeding mode of nutrition. In addition to these, it will probably have which of the following characteristics? A) legs B) no jaws C) an amniotic egg D) endothermy

A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics? I) inhabiting the same general area II) belonging to the same species III) possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion A) III only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) I, II, and III

A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Calculate an estimate of the total number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1000 individuals in one year. A) 120 individuals added B) 40 individuals added C) 20 individuals added D) 400 individuals added

A population of white-footed mice becomes severely overpopulated in a habitat that has been disturbed by human activity. Sometimes intrinsic factors cause the population to increase in mortality and lower reproduction rates to occur in reaction to the stress of overpopulation. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic population control? A) Owl populations frequent the area more often because of increased hunting success. B) Females undergo hormonal changes that delay sexual maturation, and many individuals suffer depressed immune systems and die due to the stress of overpopulation. C) Clumped dispersion of the population leads to increased spread of disease and parasites, resulting in a population crash. D) All of the resources (food and shelter) are used up by overpopulation, and much of the population dies of exposure and/or starvation.

A porcupine eats 3000 J of plant material. Of this, 2100 J is indigestible and is eliminated as feces, 800 J are used in cellular respiration, and 100 J are used for growth and reproduction. What is the approximate production efficiency of this animal? A) 0.03% B) 3% C) 10% D) 33%

After looking at the figure above, what can be said about productivity in this ecosystem? A) Nothing can be said based on this information. B) Between 80% and 90% of the energy is lost between most trophic levels. C) Between 10% and 20% of the energy is lost between most trophic levels. D) Productivity increases with each trophic level.

Air masses formed over the Pacific Ocean are moved by prevailing westerlies where they encounter extensive north-south mountain ranges, such as the Sierra Nevada and the Cascades. Which statement best describes the changes that these air masses undergo? A) The cool, moist Pacific air heats up as it rises, releasing its precipitation as it passes the tops of the mountains, and this warm, now dry air cools as it descends on the leeward side of the range. B) The warm, moist Pacific air rises and cools, releasing precipitation as it moves up the windward side of the range, and this cool, now dry air mass heats up as it descends on the leeward side of the range. C) The cool, dry Pacific air heats and picks up moisture from evaporation of the snowcapped peaks of the mountain range, releasing this moisture as precipitation as the air cools as it descends on the leeward side of the range. D) These air masses are blocked by these mountain ranges producing high annual amounts of precipitation on the windward sides of these mountain ranges. E) These air masses remain essentially unchanged in moisture content and temperature as they pass over these mountain ranges.

Anolis lizards that are closely related and ecologically similar tend to have different body shapes that allow them to utilize different microhabitats within the same forest. This is most closely related to which ecological phenomenon? (a) dispersal (b) resource partitioning (c) keystone species (d) mutualism (e) ecological succession

Arrange the following taxonomic terms from most inclusive (most general) to least inclusive (most specific). 1. apes 2. hominins 3. Homo 4 anthropoids 5. primates A) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3 B) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3 C) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3 D) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3 E) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3

As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation? A) The growth rate will not change. B) The growth rate will approach zero. C) The population will increase exponentially. D) The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.

Chordate pharyngeal slits appear to have functioned first as A) the digestive system's opening. B) suspension-feeding devices. C) components of the jaw. D) gill slits for respiration. E) portions of the inner ear

Considering its total area covered, which ecosystem type represented in the figure above has a very low level of economic impact on Earth's ecosystem? A) tropical wet forest B) rock, sand, and ice C) tropical seasonal forest D) ocean neritic zone

Ecology as a discipline directly deals with all of the following levels of biological organization except A) population. B) cellular. C) organismal. D) ecosystem. E) community.

Female birds lay their eggs, thereby facilitating flight by reducing weight. Which "strategy" seems most likely for female bats to use to achieve the same goal? A) lay shelled eggs B) limit litters to a single embryo C) refrain from flying throughout pregnancy (about 6 weeks long) D) give birth to underdeveloped young, and subsequently carry them in a pouch that has teats E) feed multiple embryos internally using placentas

Fire suppression by humans A) will always result in an increase in the species diversity in a given biome. B) can change the species composition within biological communities. C) will result ultimately in sustainable production of increased amounts of wood for human use. D) is necessary for the protection of threatened and endangered forest species. E) is a management goal of conservation biologists to maintain the healthy condition of biomes.

For most terrestrial ecosystems, pyramids composed of species abundances, biomass, and energy are similar in that they have a broad base and a narrow top. The primary reason for this pattern is that _____. A) secondary consumers and top carnivores require less energy than producers B) at each step, energy is lost from the system C) biomagnification of toxic materials limits the secondary consumers and top carnivores D) top carnivores and secondary consumers have a more general diet than primary producers

How is net ecosystem production (NEP) typically estimated in ecosystems? A) the amount of heat energy released by the ecosystem B) the net flux of carbon dioxide or oxygen in or out of an ecosystem C) the rate of decomposition by detritivores D) the annual total of incoming solar radiation per unit of area

If global warming continues at its present rate, which biomes will likely take the place of the coniferous forest (taiga)? A) tundra and polar ice B) temperate broadleaf forest and grassland C) desert and chaparral D) tropical forest and savanna E) chaparral and temperate broadleaf forest

In Florida during the 1940s, a canal was built to contain the Kissimee River and reduce flood risk tohuman populations. Due in part in faster water flow (and the drying up of formerly associated wetlandhabitat) the canal caused problems and was labeled as a failure. Which term best describes the 1990seffort to deconstruct the canal and allow the river to perform its original environmental service onceagain? a) Conservation biology b) Restoration ecology c) Sustainable development d) Urban ecology

In the figure above, each distinct shape represents different species. Which forest floor is morediverse in relative abundance of mushroom species? a. Funky community b. Psychedelic community c. They are equal d. None of the above

In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves implies that an animal may lay many eggs, of which a regular number die each year on a logarithmic scale? A) curve A B) curve B C) curve C

In which of the following terrestrial biome pairs are both dependent upon periodic burning? A) tundra and coniferous forest B) teperate grassland and savanna C) desert and savanna D) tropical forest and temperate broadleaf forest E) grassland and tundra

It is believed that the coelacanths and lungfish represent a crucial link between other fishes and tetrapods. What is the major feature in these fish in support of this hypothesis? A) Like amphibians, they are tied to the water for reproduction. B) Their fins have skeletal and muscular structures similar to amphibian limbs. C) They have highly evolved nervous and circulatory systems. D) They have lungs and are able to breathe air when water is scarce.

Jaws first occurred in which extant group of fishes? A) lampreys B) chondrichthyans C) ray-finned fishes D) lungfishes E) placoderms

Long-term studies of Belding's ground squirrels show that immigrants move nearly 2 kilometers from where they are born and become 1%-8% of the males and 0.7%-6% of the females in other populations. On an evolutionary scale, why is this significant? A) These immigrants make up for the deaths of individuals, keeping the other populations' size stable. B) These immigrants provide a source of genetic diversity for the other populations. C) Those individuals that emigrate to these new populations are looking for less crowded conditions with more resources. D) Gradually, the populations of ground squirrels will move from a clumped to a uniform population pattern of dispersion.

Looking at the data in the figure above, what can be said about survival and clutch size? A) Animals with low survival tend to have smaller clutch sizes. B) Large clutch size correlates with low survival. C) Animals with high survival tend to have larger clutch sizes. D) Probability of survivorship does not correlate with clutch size.

Matter is gained or lost in ecosystems. How does this occur? A) Chemoautotrophic organisms can convert matter to energy. B) Matter can be moved from one ecosystem to another. C) Photosynthetic organisms convert solar energy to sugars. D) Heterotrophs convert heat to energy.

Organisms categorized as osmoconformers are most likely A) found in freshwater lakes and streams. B) marine. C) amphibious. D) found in arid terrestrial environments. E) found in terrestrial environments with adequate moisture.

Phytoplankton is most frequently found in which of the following zones? A) oligotrophic B) photic C) benthic D) abyssal E) aphotic

Rachel Carson would most likely have endorsed which of the following statements? A) Conserving wildness will lead to the preservation of the Earth. B) The greatest liberty humans have taken is with nature. C) Humans have dominion over the Earth and all of its inhabitants. D) All pesticides are unsafe and must be banned. E) The environment can repair damage created by human activity.

The evolution of similar insulating skin coverings such as fur, hair, and feathers in mammals and birds is a result of _____. A) shared ancestry B) convergent evolution C) homology D) evolutionary divergence

The goal of restoration ecology is to _____. A) replace a ruined ecosystem with a more suitable ecosystem for that area B) return degraded ecosystems to a more natural state C) manage competition between species in human-altered ecosystems D) prevent further degradation by protecting an area with park status

The main reason polar regions are cooler than the equator is because A) there is more ice at the poles. B) sunlight strikes the poles at an lower angle. C) the poles are farther from the sun. D) the poles have a thicker atmosphere. E) the poles are permanently tilted away from the sun.

The most plausible hypothesis to explain why terrestrial species richness is often higher in trophic regions is that A) tropical communitites are younger B) tropical regions generally have more available water and higher levels of solar radiation C) higher temperatures cause more rapid speciation D) Tropical regions have very high rates of immigration and very low rates of extinction

The organism was found to have two lungs, but the left lung was much smaller than the right lung. Kelly added that the herpetology instructor had said that in most snakes, the same condition exists. If the size difference between the lungs in this organism is not a shared ancestral characteristic with its occurrence in snakes, then its existence in this organism is explained as which of the following? 1. a result of convergent evolution 2. an example of homologous structures 3. a similar adaptation to a shared lifestyle or body plan 4. a result of having identical Hox genes A) 1 only B) 1 and 3 C) 2 and 3 D) 3 and 4

The proximate causes of behaviors are interactions with the environment, but behavior is A) hormones B) evolution C) pheromones D) temperate grassland

Through trial and error, a rat learns to run a maze without mistakes to receive a food reward A) habituation B) operant conditionning C) social learning D) imprinting

Through trial and error, a rat learns to run a maze without mistakes to receive a food reward. A) habituation B) operant conditioning C) insight D) imprinting

Two plant species live in the same biome but on different continents. Although the two species are not at all closely related, they may appear quite similar as a result of A) parallel evolution. B) convergent evolution. C) allopatric speciation. D) introgression. E) gene flow.

Unlike eutherians, both monotremes and marsupials A) lack nipples. B) have some embryonic development outside the uterus. C) lay eggs. D) are found in Australia and Africa. E) include only insectivores and herbivores.

Use the following diagram of a hypothetical food web to answer the question(s) below. The arrows represent the transfer of energy between the various trophic levels. 36) Which letter represents an organism that could be a producer? A) A B) B C) D D) E

What is the primary limiting factor that determines why no female animal can produce a very large number of very large eggs? A) Time is limited. B) There are energy constraints. C) Temperature constraints will prevent females from carrying too many eggs. D) There will be an increase in predation pressure if the females carry too many large eggs.

Which clade does NOT include humans? A) lobe-fins B) diapsids C) craniates D) osteichthyans

Which era is known as the "age of reptiles"? A) Cenozoic B) Mesozoic C) Paleozoic D) Devonian E) Cambrian

Which group's members have had both lungs and gills during their adult lives? A) sharks, skates, and rays B) lungfishes C) lancelets D) amphibians E) ichthyosaurs and plesiosaurs

Which habitat type in the figure above makes available the most new tissue to consumers? A) tropical wet forest B) open ocean C) algal beds and reefs D) wetlands

Which habitat types in the figure above cover the largest area? A) tropical wet forest plus the ocean neritic zone B) open ocean C) algal beds and reefs plus the ocean neritic zone D) wetlands plus the ocean neritic zone

Which lake zone would be absent in a very shallow lake? A) benthic zone B) aphotic zone C) pelagic zone D) littoral zone E) limnetic zone

Which marine zone would have the lowest rates of primary productivity (photosynthesis)? A) pelagic B) abyssal C) neritic D) continental shelf E) intertidal

Which of the examples below provides appropriate abiotic and biotic factors that might determine the distribution of the species in question? A) The amount of nitrate and phosphate in the soil and wild flower abundance and diversity B) The number of frost-free days and competition between species of introduced grasses and native alpine grasses C) Increased predation and decreased food availability and a prairie dog population after a prairie fire D) Available sunlight and increased salinity in the top few meters of the ocean and the abundance and diversity of phytoplankton communities E) The pH and dissolved oxygen concentration and the streams in which brook trout can live

Which of the following best describes resource partitioning?A) Competitive exclusion results in the success of the superior species. B) Slight variations in niche allow similar species to coexist. C) Two species can coevolve to share the same niche. D) Differential resource utilization results in the decrease in species diversity E) A climax community is reached when no new niches are available.

Which of the following ecosystems would likely have the largest net primary productivity per hectare and why? A) open ocean, because of the total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs B) grassland, because of the small standing crop biomass that results from consumption by herbivores and rapid decomposition C) tundra, because of the incredibly rapid period of growth during the summer season D) cave, due to the lack of photosynthetic autotrophs

Which of the following is a characteristic of all chordates at some point during their life cycle? A. Jaws B. Post-anal tail C. Four-chambered heart D. Vertebrae

Which of the following is a density-independent factor limiting human population growth? A) social pressure for birth control B) earthquake C) plague D) famine E) pollution

Which of the following levels of organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive? A) community, ecosystem, individual, population B) ecosystem, community, population, individual C) population, ecosystem, individual, community D) individual, population, community, ecosystem E) individual, community, population, ecosystem

Which of the following scenarios would provide the most relevant data on population density? A) Count the number of nests of a particular species of songbird and multiply this by a factor that extrapolates these data to actual animals. B) Count the number of pine trees in several randomly selected 10-meter-square plots and extrapolate this number to the fraction of the study area these plots represent. C) Use the mark-recapture method to estimate the size of the population. D) Calculate the difference between all of the immigrants and emigrants to see if the population is growing or shrinking.

Which of the following statements best describes the interaction between fire and ecosystems? A) The chance of fire in a given ecosystem is highly predictable over the short term. B) Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires. C) The prevention of forest fires has allowed more productive and stable plant communities to develop. D) Chaparral communities have evolved to the extent that they rarely burn. E) Fire is unnatural in ecosystems and should be prevented.

Which of the following statements is correct about biogeochemical cycling? A) The phosphorus cycle involves the recycling of atmospheric phosphorus. B) The phosphorus cycle involves the weathering of rocks. C) The carbon cycle has maintained a constant atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide for the past million years. D) The nitrogen cycle involves movement of diato

Which population(s) appear(s) to be stable? A) I B) III C) I and II D) II and III

Which statement best contrasts environmentalism with ecology? A) Ecology is the study of the environment; environmentalism is the study of ecology. B) Ecology provides scientific understanding of living things and their environment; environmentalism is more about conservation and preservation of life on Earth. C) Environmentalists are only involved in politics and advocating for protecting nature; ecologists are only involved in scientific investigations of the environment. D) Ecologists study organisms in environments that have been undisturbed by human activities; environmentalists study the effects of human activities on organisms. E) Environmentalism is devoted to applied ecological science; ecology is concerned with basic/theoretical ecological science

Which term describes a population growth model in an environment with unlimited resources? A) Logistic growthb. B) Exponential growthc. C)Type III survivorship D) Uniform dispersion

While on an intersession course in tropical ecology, Kris pulls a large, snakelike organism from a burrow (the class was granted a collecting permit). The 1-meter-long organism has smooth skin, which appears to be segmented. It has two tiny eyes that are hard to see because they seem to be covered by skin. Kris brings it back to the lab at the field station, where it is a source of puzzlement to the class. Kris says that it is a giant oligochaete worm; Shaun suggests it is a legless amphibian; Kelly proposes it belongs to a snake species that is purely fossorial (lives in a burrow). 25) The class decided to humanely euthanize the organism and subsequently dissect it. Having decided that it was probably not a reptile, two of their original hypotheses regarding its identity remained. Which of the following, if observed, should help them arrive at a conclusive answer? A) presence of moist, highly vascularized skin B) presence of lungs C) presence of a nerve cord D) presence of a digestive system with two openings

Why does the 2009 U.S. population continue to grow even though the United States has essentially established a zero population growth (ZPG)? A) emigration B) immigration C) baby boomer reproduction D) the 2007-2009 economic recession

You are interested in studying how organisms react to a gradient of a variety of abiotic conditions and how they coexist in this gradient. The best location in which to conduct such a study is A) a grassland. B) an intertidal zone. C) a river. D) tropical forest. E) an eutrophic lake.

You are working for the Environmental Protection Agency and researching the effect of a potentially toxic chemical in drinking water. There is no documented scientific evidence showing that the chemical is toxic, but many suspect it to be a health hazard. Using the precautionary principle, what would be a reasonable environmental policy? A) Establish no regulations until there are conclusive scientific studies. B) Set the acceptable levels of the chemical conservatively low, and keep them there unless future studies show that they can be safely raised. C) Set the acceptable levels at the highest levels encountered, and keep them there unless future studies demonstrate negative health effects. D) Caution individuals to use their own judgment in deciding whether to drink water from a potentially contaminated area. E) Establish a contingency fund to handle insurance claims in the event that the chemical turns out to produce negative health effects.

which of the following is the pattern of spacing for individuals within the boundaries of the population? A) cohort B) dispersion C) displacement D) dispersal E) partitioning

1) If the sun were to suddenly stop providing energy to Earth, most ecosystems would vanish. Which of the following ecosystems would likely survive the longest after this hypothetical disaster? A) tropical rain forest B) tundra C) benthic ocean D) desert

13) During a one-year study, researchers found no difference in treehopper populations in any of their control and experimental groups. What could they measure during the second year to gain information about why this might have occurred? A) Measure the number of ant females. B) Measure the relative sizes of the treehoppers. C) Measure the relative abundance of jumping spiders. D) Measure the relative sizes of different ant species.

26) Bouchard and Brooks studied the effect of insect flight on dispersal and speciation in rain forest insects. They sampled all of the insects in the study area and found that 60 insect species are flightless and 19 are macropterous (able to fly). What can you conclude so far about this study? A) Flightless insects have a greater dispersal potential from this study area. B) Flightless insects are more numerous in the study area. C) Flightless insects have a higher richness in the study area. D) Flightless insects are better suited for the tropics.

29) Approximately how many kilograms (kg) of carnivore (secondary consumer) biomass can be supported by a field plot containing 1000 kg of plant material? A) 1000 B) 100 C) 10 D) 1

37) Which letter represents an organism that could only be a primary consumer? A) A B) B C) C D) D

39) Food chains are sometimes short because _____. A) only a single species of herbivore feeds on each plant species B) local extinction of a species causes extinction of the other species in its food chain C) most of the energy in a trophic level is lost as it passes to the next higher level D) predator species tend to be less diverse and less abundant than prey species

41) Recall that Clements's view of biological communities is that of a highly predictable and interrelated structure, while Gleason's view of biological communities is that individual species operate independently. If we set up many identical sterilized ponds in the same area and allowed them to be colonized, what should we predict if we wished to test Gleason's hypothesis? A) Identical plankton communities will develop in all ponds. B) Similar plankton communities will develop in all ponds. C) Different plankton communities will develop in all ponds. D) Limited plankton communities will develop in all ponds.

42) What is the main advantage of controlled burnings of forested areas? Controlled burnings _____. A) eliminate the possibility of forest fires B) clear forested areas for farmland C) prevent the overgrowth of the underbrush D) allow new species to form

45) Based on the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, a community's species diversity is increased by _____. A) frequent massive disturbance B) stable conditions with no disturbance C) moderate levels of disturbance D) intensive disturbance by humans

46) In a particular case of secondary succession, three species of wild grass all invaded a field. By the second season, a single species dominated the field. A possible factor in this secondary succession was _____. A) equilibrium B) immigration C) inhibition D) parasitism

48) Which of the following is a widely supported explanation for the tendency of tropical communities to have greater species diversity than temperate or polar communities? A) There are fewer parasites to negatively affect the health of tropical communities. B) Tropical communities are low in altitude, whereas temperate and polar communities are high in altitude. C) Tropical communities are generally older than temperate and polar communities. D) More competitive dominant species have evolved in temperate and polar communities.

49) Which of the following is a correct statement about the MacArthur/Wilson Island Biogeography Model? A) As the number of species on an island increases, the emigration rate decreases. B) Competitive exclusion is less likely on an island that has large numbers of species. C) Small islands receive few new immigrant species. D) Islands closer to the mainland have higher extinction rates.

51) Which island would likely exhibit the most impoverished species diversity? A) A B) B C) C D) E

56) Why is a pathogen generally more virulent in a new habitat? A) Intermediate host species are more motile and transport pathogens to new areas. B) Pathogens evolve more efficient forms of reproduction in new environments. C) Hosts in new environments have not had a chance to become resistant to the pathogen through natural selection. D) New environments are almost always smaller in area so that transmission of pathogens is easily accomplished between hosts.

57) Which of the following best describes the consequences of white-band disease in Caribbean coral reefs? A) Staghorn coral is decimated by the pathogen, and Elkhorn coral takes its place. B) Key habitat for lobsters, snappers, and other reef fishes improves. C) Algal species take the place of the dead coral, and the fish community is dominated by herbivores. D) Algal species take over and the overall reef diversity increases due to increases in primary productivity.

59) In terms of community ecology, why are pathogens often more virulent now than in the past? A) More new pathogens have recently evolved. B) Host organisms have become more susceptible because of weakened immune systems. C) Human activities are transporting pathogens into new habitats (or communities) at an unprecedented rate. D) Medicines for treating pathogenic disease are in short supply.

9) Which of the following statements is consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion? A) The random distribution of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species. B) Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species. C) Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species. D) Natural selection tends to increase competition between related species.

A certain species of pine tree survives only in scattered locations at elevations above 2,800 m in the western United States. To understand why this tree grows only in these specific places an ecologist should A) conclude that lower elevations are limiting to the survival of this species. B) study the anatomy and physiology of this species. C) investigate the various biotic and abiotic factors that are unique to high altitude. D) analyze the soils found in the vicinity of these trees, looking for unique chemicals that may support their growth. E) collect data on temperature, wind, and precipitation at several of these locations for a year.

A trend first observed in the evolution of the earliest tetrapods was A) the appearance of jaws. B) the appearance of bony vertebrae. C) feet with digits. D) the mineralization of the endoskeleton. E) the amniotic egg.

According to the Intermediate Disturbance Hypothesis, which terrestrial ecosystem is predictedto have the greatest number of species? a. An ecosystem where disturbance (and succession) are extremely rare events b. An ecosystem where disturbance (and succession) happen with moderate regularity c. An ecosystem where disturbance (and succession) happens extremely often d. All three of these ecosystems are equally likely to have high levels of biological diversity

According to the drawing above, which forest floor is more diverse in richness of mushroomspecies?a. Funky community b. Psychedelic community c. They are equal d. None of the above

According to the logistic growth equation, = rmaxN , A) the number of individuals added per unit time is greatest when N is close to zero. B) the per capita growth rate (r) increases as N approaches K. C) population growth is zero when N equals K. D) the population grows exponentially when K is small.

Acid precipitation lowered the pH of soil in a terrestrial ecosystem that supported a diverse community of plants and animals. The decrease in pH eliminated all nitrogenfixing bacteria populations in the area. Which prediction most accurately reflects the impact this will have on the community? A) Since phosphorus can replace nitrogen as an essential nutrient, the impact will be minimal. B) Plants can obtain the nitrogen necessary for growth from the atmosphere, but bacterial communities will be negatively impacted. C) Primary producers will suffer from nitrogen deficiency and the entire community will experience a decrease in carrying capacity. D) The decrease in pH actually increases the availability of soil nutrients, so other nutrients that were less available cause an increase in primary production and an increase in biomass at other trophic levels.

After looking at the experiment in the figure above, what can be said about productivity in marine ecosystems? A) Nothing can be said based on this information. B) Marine organisms break down iron for energy and thus for productivity. C) Iron can be a limiting nutrient in productivity. D) Productivity increases when chlorophyll a is added.

An area in which different terrestrial biomes grade into each other is known as a(n) A) littoral zone. B) vertically stratified canopy. C) ecotone. D) abyssal zone. E) cline.

An elephant and a mouse are running in full sunlight, and both overheat by the same amount above their normal body temperatures. When they move into the shade and rest, which animal will cool down faster? A) The elephant will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio. B) The elephant will because it has the lower surface-area-to-volume ratio. C) The mouse will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio. D) They will cool at the same rate because they overheated by the same amount.

Based on the figure above, which of the following statements correctly interprets the data? A) As female density increases, clutch size increases. B) As female density increases, survivorship decreases. C) Clutch size decreases as female density increases.

Birds that live in marine environments and thus lack access to fresh drinking water A) osmoregulate without using a transport epithelium for this purpose. B) drink seawater and secrete excess ions through their kidneys only. C) drink seawater and secrete excess ions mainly through their nasal salt glands. D) have plasma that is isoosmotic to ocean water. E) obtain water by eating only osmoregulating prey.

Blue mussels take up almost all of the space available on rocks in the intertidal zone. Sea starsprey upon blue mussels, making room for other species to cling to rocks. Based on this scenario,which statement is true?a. Sea stars are the dominant species, because they are on the top of the food chain b. Blue mussels are a keystone species in this system, because they are superiorcompetitors for space on rocks. c. Seas stars are a keystone species because they exhibit a disproportionate influence onthe structure of the community relative to their abundance d. Sea stars and blue mussels are both ecological engineers in this system

Brown et al. and Morwood et al. reported in 2004 that they had found skeletal remains of a previously unknown type of hominin, now dubbed Homo floresiensis, on the Indonesian island of Flores. These hominins were small (approximately 1 meter tall) with small braincases (approximately 380 cubic centimeters) as compared with other hominins. The remains of H. floresiensis were found alongside handmade stone tools and the remains of dwarf elephants that also inhabited the island, suggesting that H. floresiensis was able both to make tools and to coordinate the hunting of animals much larger than itself. H. floresiensis is estimated to have lived at the site where the remains were found from at least 38,000 years ago to 18,000 years ago. 53) Refer to the paragraph on Brown et al. and Morwood et al. Which would be the most feasible method of figuring out to which other hominin species H. floresiensis was most closely related? A) Compare the type of prey hunted by H. floresiensis to that hunted by each of the other hominin species. B) Compare the average body size of H. floresiensis to that of each of the other hominin species. C) Compare the skeletal morphology of H. floresiensis to that of each of the other hominin species. D) Compare the estimated life span of H. floresiensis to that of each of the other hominin species.

Compared to the seawater around them, most marine invertebrates are A) hyperosmotic. B) hypoosmotic. C) isoosmotic. D) hyperosmotic and isoosmotic. E) hypoosmotic and isoosmotic.

Consider two old-growth forests: one is undisturbed while the other is being logged. In which region are species likely to experience exponential growth, and why? A) Old growth, because of stable conditions that would favor exponential growth of all species in the forest. B) Old growth, because each of the species is well established and can produce many offspring. C) Logged, because the disturbed forest affords more resources for increased specific populations to grow. D) Logged, because the various populations are stimulated to a higher reproductive potential.

Diagram of a food web (arrows represent energy flow and letters represent species) 42) If the figure above represents a terrestrial food web, the combined biomass of C + D would probably be _____. A) greater than the biomass of A B) greater than the biomass of B C) less than the biomass of A + B D) less than the biomass of E

Due to its system of air sacs connected to the lungs, the respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi. 39) If the inner lining of the air sacs is neither thin nor highly vascularized, then what can be inferred about the air sacs? A) They must not belong to the respiratory system. B) They cannot be derived from endoderm. C) They are not efficient sites of gas exchange between air and blood. D) They cannot effectively moisturize the air before it reaches the lungs.

Experts in deer ecology generally agree that population sizes of deer that live in temperate climates are limited by winter snow. The deer congregate in ʺyardingʺ areas under evergreen trees because venturing out to feed in winter is energetically too expensive when snowfall depths accumulate to above 40 cm. Deer often stay yarded until the spring thaw. Snow depth over 40 inches for more than 60 days results in high mortality due to starvation. This observation best illustrates which of the following principles about factors that limit distribution of organisms? A) Abiotic factors, such as weather extremes, ultimately limit distribution. B) Organisms will face extinction unless they adapt to conditions or evolve new mechanisms for survival. C) Environmental factors are limiting not only in amount but also in longevity. D) Daily accumulations in snow depth gradually add up to cause increased deer mortality. E) Temporary extremes in weather conditions usually result in high mortality in the deer population.

Graph (b) in the figure above shows the normal fluctuations of a population of grouse. Assuming graph (a) in the figure above is the result of some experimental treatment in the grouse population, what can be concluded? A) The experimental treatment exacerbated the population cycling. B) The experimental treatment did not affect population cycling in this species. C) The experimental treatment has most likely identified the cause of population cycling. D) None of the other responses is true.

Graylag geese learned very young to follow the pioneering ethologist Konrad Lorenz everywhere he went A) sign stimulus B) cognition C) imprinting D) classical conditioning

How did the evolution of the jaw contribute to diversification of early vertebrate lineages? A) It allowed for smaller body size. B) It was the first stage in the development of a bony skull .C) It made additional food sources available. D) It increased the surface area for respiration and feeding.

How is it that satellites can detect differences in primary productivity on Earth? A) Satellite instruments can detect reflectance patterns of the photosynthetic organisms of different ecosystems. B) Sensitive satellite instruments can measure the amount of NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate) produced in the summative light reactions of different ecosystems. C) Satellites compare the wavelengths of light captured and reflected by photoautotrophs in different ecosystems. D) Satellites detect differences by measuring the amount of water vapor emitted by transpiring producers.

In 2008, the population of New Zealand was approximately 4,275,000 people. If the birth rate was 14 births for every 1000 people, approximately how many births occurred in New Zealand in 2008? A) 6,000 B) 42,275 C) 60,000 D) 140,000

In July 2008, the United States had a population of approximately 302,000,000 people. How many Americans were there in July 2009, if the estimated 2008 growth rate was 0.88%? A) 5,500,000 B) 303,000,000 C) 304,000,000 D) 2,710,800,000

In what respect do hominins differ from all other anthropoids? A) lack of a tail B) eyes on the front of the face C) bipedal posture D) opposable thumbs

In which of the following situations would you expect to find the largest number of K- selected individuals? A) a recently abandoned agricultural field in Ohio B) a shifting sand dune community of south Lake Michigan C) an old-growth forest D) South Florida after a hurricane

Looking at the figure above, what is contributing significantly to stabilizing population size over time? I) no migration II) low migration III) high migration A) only I B) only II C) only III D) only II and III

Nitrifying bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle mainly by _____. A) converting nitrogen gas to ammonia B) releasing ammonium from organic compounds, thus returning it to the soil C) converting ammonium to nitrate, which plants absorb D) incorporating nitrogen into amino acids and organic compounds

Of the following examples of ecological effect leading to an evolutionary effect (→), which is most correct? A) When seeds are not plentiful → trees produce more seeds. B) A few organisms of a larger population survive a drought → these survivors then emigrate to less arid environments. C) A few individuals with denser fur survive the coldest days of an ice age → the reproducing survivors all have long fur. D) Fish that swim the fastest in running water → catch the most prey and more easily escape predation. E) The insects that spend the most time exposed to sunlight → have the most mutations.

On the back of your skull you can feel a small bump, below which is an opening where the spinal cord enters the skull. The location of this opening toward the bottom of the skull is significant in evolutionary biology for what reason? A) It allowed for the hominin brain to grow much larger than other primates. B) It provided greater protection for the spinal cord. C) It occurred as a result of the change to a bipedal stance. D) This change was necessary for the increase in size from prosimian forms to anthropoid forms.

On the diagram of the nitrogen cycle, which number represents nitrite (NO2)? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

Owls eat rats, mice, shrews, and small birds. Assume that, over a period of time, an owl consumes 5000 J of animal material. The owl loses 2300 J in feces and owl pellets and uses 2500 J for cellular respiration. What is the production efficiency of this owl? A) 0.02% B) 0.2% C) 4% D) 40%

Primate evolution and behavior, such as hunting skills, have been directed in part by the development of depth perception. What anatomical change made depth perception possible? A) a larger brain B) the formation of compound eyes C) movement of the eyes to the front of the head D) diurnal activity

Starting from a single individual, what is the size of a population of bacteria at the end of a two-hour time period if they reproduce by binary fission every twenty minutes? (Assume unlimited resources and no mortality.) A) 16 B) 32 C) 64 D) 128

Suppose researchers marked 800 turtles and later were able to trap a total of 300 individuals in that population, of which 150 were marked. What is the estimate for total population size? A) 200 B) 1050 C) 1600 D) 2100

Suppose you are studying the nitrogen cycling in a pond ecosystem over the course of a month. While you are collecting data, a flock of one hundred Canada geese lands and spends the night during a fall migration. What could you do to eliminate error in your study as a result of this event?A) Find out how much nitrogen is consumed in plant material by a Canada goose over about a twelve-hour period, multiply this number by 100, and add that amount to the total nitrogen in the ecosystem. B) Find out how much nitrogen is eliminated by a Canada goose over about a twelve-hour period, multiply this number by 100, and subtract that amount from the total nitrogen in the ecosystem. C) Find out how much nitrogen is consumed and eliminated by a Canada goose over about a twelve-hour period and multiply this number by 100; enter this +/- value into the nitrogen budget of the ecosystem. D) Put a net over the pond so that no more migrating flocks can land on the pond and alter the nitrogen balance of the pond.

Suppose you traveled back in time and located the first animals to have evolved feathers. You found that these animals were tree-dwelling ectotherms, able to run quickly but unable to fly. You also noticed that only males had feathers. Which hypothesis of feather evolution would these data most support? Feathers initially evolved in a role associated with _____. A) flight B) insulation C) sexual selection D) gliding

Suppose, while out camping in a forest, you found a chordate with a long, slender, limbless body slithering across the ground near your tent. This critter could be _____. A) a lampreys B) a mammal C) an amphibian D) a skate

The body's automatic tendency to maintain a constant and optimal internal environment is termed _____. A) balanced equilibrium B) physiological chance C) homeostasis D) static equilibrium

The discipline that applies ecological principles to returning degraded ecosystems to a more natural state is known as _____. A) landscape ecology B) conservation ecology C) restoration ecology D) resource conservation

The success with which plants extend their range northward following glacial retreat is best determined by A) whether there is simultaneous migration of herbivores. B) their tolerance to shade. C) their seed dispersal rate. D) their size. E) their growth rate.

Their scales most closely resemble teeth in both structure and origin. A) amphibians B) nonbird reptiles C) chondrichthyans D) mammals E) osteichthyans

To measure the population of lake trout in a 250-hectare lake, 400 individual trout were netted and marked with a fin clip, then returned to the lake. The next week, the lake was netted again, and out of the 200 lake trout that were caught, 50 had fin clips. Using the mark-recapture estimate, the lake trout population size could be closest to which of the following? A) 200 B) 400 C) 1,600 D) 80,000

Tropical grasslands with scattered trees are also known as A) taigas. B) tundras. C) savannas. D) chaparrals. E) temperate plains

Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with _____. A) patterns of high humidity B) the random distribution of seeds C) competitive interaction between individuals of the same population D) the concentration of nutrients within the population's range

What is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from the graphs above? Developed countries have _____. A) lower infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing countries B) higher infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing countries C) lower infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing countries D) higher infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing countries

What should be true of fossils of the earliest tetrapods? A) They should show evidence of internal fertilization. B) They should show evidence of having produced shelled eggs. C) They should indicate limited adaptation to life on land. D) They should be transitional forms with the fossils of chondrichthyans that lived at the same time. E) They should feature the earliest indications of the appearance of jaws.

When it comes to mate preference, female guppies learn through observing the behavior of other females A) habituation B) operant conditioning C) social learnning D) imprinting

Where would an ecologist find the most phytoplankton in a lake? A) profundal zone B) benthic zone C) photic zone D) oligotrophic zone E) aphotic zone

Which category in the figure above makes available the highest productivity per square meter? A) tropical wet forest B) open ocean C) algal beds and reefs D) wetlands

Which is the most specific group that includes both the Old World monkeys and the New World monkeys? Match the taxonomic terms below with the descriptions that follow. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A) hominoids B)Homo C) anthropoids D) hominids E) primates

Which of the following abiotic factors has the greatest influence on the metabolic rates of plants and animals? A) water B) wind C) temperature D) rocks and soil E) disturbances

Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities? A) precipitation, wind B) nutrient availability, soil pH C) predation, competition D) temperature, water E) light intensity, seasonality

Which of the following are the only extant animals that descended directly from dinosaurs? A) lizards B) crocodiles C) birds D) tuataras

Which of the following areas of study focuses on the exchange of energy, organisms, and materials between ecosystems? A) population ecology B) organismal ecology C) landscape ecology D) ecosystem ecology E) community ecology

Which of the following examples would most accurately measure the density of the population being studied? A) counting the number of times a one-kilometer transect is intersected by tracks of red squirrels after a snowfall B) counting the number of coyote droppings per hectare C) counting the number of moss plants in one-square-meter quadrants D) counting the number of zebras from airplane census observations.

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the rate of chemical cycling in an ecosystem? A) the ecosystem's rate of primary production B) the production efficiency of the ecosystem's consumers C) the rate of decomposition in the ecosystem D) the trophic efficiency of the ecosystem

Which of the following is (are) unique to animals? A) cells that have mitochondria B) the structural carbohydrate, chitin C) nervous conduction and muscular movement D) heterotrophy E) Two of these responses are correct.

Which of the following is a true statement regarding mineral nutrients in soils and their implication for primary productivity? A) Globally, phosphorous availability is most limiting to primary productivity. B) Adding a nonlimiting nutrient will stimulate primary productivity. C) Phosphorous is sometimes unavailable to producers due to leaching. D) Alkaline soils are more productive than acidic soils.

Which of the following is the best natural example of uniform dispersion? A) Clusters of mushrooms growing on the floor of an old growth forestb. B) A plant with wind dispersed seedsc. C) Territorial songbirds nesting in a mature forestd. Snails seeking moisture in an intertidal zone at low tide

Which of the following is the best natural example of uniform distribution? A) bees collecting pollen in a wildflower meadow B) snails in an intertidal zone at low tide C) territorial songbirds in a mature forest during mating season D) mushrooms growing on the floor of an old growth forest

Which of the following organisms is INCORRECTLY paired with its trophic level? A) cyanobacterium — primary producer B) grasshopper — primary consumer C) zooplankton — primary producer D) fungus — detritivore

Which of the following statements about ecology is incorrect? A) Ecologists may study populations and communities of organisms. B) Ecological studies may involve the use of models and computers. C) Ecology is a discipline that is independent from natural selection and evolutionary history. D) Ecology spans increasingly comprehensive levels of organization, from individuals to ecosystems. E) Ecology is the study of the interactions between biotic and abiotic aspects of the environment

Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome distribution? A) Knowledge of annual temperature and precipitation is sufficient to predict which biome will be found in an area. B) Fluctuation of environmental variables is not important if areas have the same annual temperature and precipitation means. C) It is not only the average climate that is important in determining biome distribution, but also the pattern of climatic variation. D) Temperate forests, coniferous forests, and grasslands all have the same mean annual temperatures and precipitation. E) Correlation of climate with biome distribution is sufficient to determine the cause of biome patterns.

Which of the following statements regarding the future of populations in developing countries are correct? I) The fecundity is predicted to increase. II) Survivorship will increase. III) Overall population size will increase dramatically. IV) The number of offspring each year is predicted to remain high. A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only II, III, and IV D) only I, II, and III

Which of these are amniotes? A) amphibians B) fishes C) turtle D)lungfish

Which shark structure is closest in function to a swim bladder full of gas? A) its lateral line system B) its spiral valve C) its liver D) its gills

Which statements about K are correct? I) K varies among populations. II) K varies in space. III) K varies in time. IV) K is constant for any given species. A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only I, II, and III D) only II, III, and IV

Why do logged tropical rain forest soils typically have nutrient-poor soils? A) Tropical bedrock contains little phosphorous. B) Logging results in soil temperatures that are lethal to nitrogen-fixing bacteria. C) Most of the nutrients in the ecosystem are removed in the harvested timber. D) The cation exchange capacity of the soil is reversed as a result of logging.

Why does a vegetarian leave a smaller ecological footprint than an omnivore? a. Fewer animals are slaughtered for human consumption. b. Vegetarians need to ingest less chemical energy than omnivores. c. Eating meat is an inefficient way of acquiring photosynthetic productivity. d. There is an excess of plant biomass in all terrestrial ecosystems.

Why is net primary production (NPP) a more useful measurement to an ecosystem ecologist than gross primary production (GPP)? A) NPP can be expressed in energy/unit of area/unit of time. B) NPP can be expressed in terms of carbon fixed by photosynthesis for an entire ecosystem. C) NPP represents the stored chemical energy that is available to consumers in the ecosystem. D) NPP shows the rate at which the standing crop is utilized by consumers.

Why is the climate drier on the leeward side of mountain ranges that are subjected to prevailingwinds? A) Deserts create dry conditions on the leeward side of mountain rangesb. B) The sun illuminates the leeward side of mountain ranges at a more direct angle,converting to which evaporates most of the water present. C) Pushed by prevailing winds on the windward side, air is forced to rise, cool, andcondense and drop precipitation, leaving drier air to descend the leeward side. D) Air masses pushed by prevailing winds are stopped by mountain ranges and the moisture is stagnant air masses on the leeward side.

You observe two female fish of the same species breeding. One female lays 100 eggs and the other female lays 1000 eggs. Which one of the following is LEAST likely given the limits of fitness trade-offs? A) The female laying 100 eggs breeds more often than the female laying 1000 eggs. B) The female laying 100 eggs lives longer than the female laying 1000 eggs. C) The eggs from the female laying 1000 eggs have larger yolks than the yolks of the eggs from the female laying 100 eggs. D) The female laying 1000 eggs is larger than the female laying 100 eggs.

You own three hundred acres of patchy temperate forest. Which one of the following actions would increase the net primary productivity of the area the most? A) adding fertilizer to the entire area B) introducing one hundred rabbits into the area C) planting five hundred new trees D) relocating all of the deer found in the area

the ochre sea star is a keystone species in the rocky intertidal zone of the North American Pacific Coast. Which scenario best describes the effect of removing this species from an experimental field plot? (a) Cthalamus barnacles will take over the zone where Balanus barnacles historically lived. (b) Kelp will overgrow the rocks, turning the intertidal zone into a marine forest. (c) The blue mussel population will increase, and other species will be displaced from the rocks. (d) The jellyfish population will increase, resulting in a reduction of plankton biomass.

10) If two species are close competitors, and one species is experimentally removed from the community, the remaining species would be expected to _____. A) change its fundamental niche B) decline in abundance C) become the target of specialized parasites D) expand its realized niche

11) Which of the following is an example of a commensalism? A) fungi residing in plant roots, such as endomycorrhizae B) bacteria fixing nitrogen in plants C) rancher ants that protect aphids in exchange for sugar-rich honeydew D) cattle egrets eating insects stirred up by grazing bison

14) Which of the following threats to biodiversity is targeted at specific species rather than groups of species? A) introduced species B) habitat destruction C) increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide, a cause of global warming D) overharvesting

15) Which of the following is an example of cryptic coloration? A) bands on a coral snake B) brown or gray color of tree bark C) markings of a viceroy butterfly's wings D) a "walking stick" insect that resembles a twig

2) In the hypothesis that C. stellatus (a species of barnacle) is competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by B. balanoides (another species of barnacle), what could be concluded about the two species? A) The fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides and C. stellatus are identical. B) The fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides and C. stellatus are different. C) The fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides are different, but the fundamental and realized niches of C. stellatus are identical. D) The fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides are identical, but the fundamental and realized niches of C. stellatus are different.

21) Which of the following would be most significant in understanding the structure of an ecological community? I) determining how many species are present overall II) determining which particular species are present III) determining the kinds of interactions that occur among organisms of different species IV) determining the relative abundance of species A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only I, II, and III D) I, II, III, and IV

22) Which of the following studies would a community ecologist undertake to learn about competitive interactions? I) selectivity of nest sites among cavity-nesting songbirds II) the grass species preferred by grazing pronghorn antelope and bison III) stomach analysis of brown trout and brook trout in streams where they coexist A) only I and II B) only I and III C) only II and III D) I, II, and III

23) How might an ecologist test whether a species is occupying all of its fundamental niche or only a portion of it? A) Study the temperature range and humidity requirements of the species. B) Observe if the niche size changes after the introduction of a similar non-native species. C) Measure the change in reproductive success when the species is subjected to environmental stress. D) Observe if the species expands its range after the removal of a competitor.

35) According to the Shannon Diversity Index, which of the five blocks above, with each containing thirty-six squares, would show the greatest diversity? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5

4) As you study two closely related predatory insect species, the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles, you notice that each species seeks prey at dawn in areas without the other species. However, where their ranges overlap, the two-spot avenger beetle hunts at night and the three-spot hunts in the morning. When you bring them into the laboratory and isolate the two different species, you discover that the offspring of both species are found to be nocturnal. You have discovered an example of _____. A) mutualism B) character displacement C) Batesian mimicry D) resource partitioning

4) Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem? A) all of the brook trout in a 500-square-hectare river drainage system B) the plants, animals, and decomposers that inhabit an alpine meadow C) the intricate interactions of the various plant and animal species on a savanna during a drought D) all of the organisms and their physical environment in a tropical rain forest

40) Which of the following could qualify as a top-down control on a grassland community? A) limitation of plant biomass by rainfall amount B) influence of temperature on competition among plants C) influence of soil nutrients on the abundance of grasses versus wildflowers D) effect of grazing intensity by bison on plant species diversity

43) According to the nonequilibrium model of community diversity, _____. A) community structure remains stable in the absence of interspecific competition B) communities are assemblages of closely linked species that are irreparably changed by disturbance C) interspecific interactions induce changes in community composition over time D) communities are constantly changing after being influenced by disturbances

6) Connell conducted this experiment to learn more about _____. A) character displacement in the color of barnacles B) habitat preference in two different species of barnacles C) how sea-level changes affect barnacle distribution D) competitive exclusion and distribution of barnacle species

62) Red-cheeked salamanders are partially protected from predators because of cardiac glycosides they produce from glands on their back. When ingested, cardiac glycosides disrupt normal heart rhythms. A different salamander species, the imitator salamander, also has red cheek patches, but does not produce cardiac glycosides. It does gain protection from predators that have learned to avoid red cheeked salamanders. How does this relationship affect the population dynamics of both species? A) Both species are negatively affected. B) Both species are positively affected. C) The red cheeked salamander is positively affected, the imitator is negatively affected. D) The red cheeked salamander is negatively affected, the imitator is positively affected.

A team of researchers has developed a poison that has proven effective against lamprey larvae in freshwater cultures. The poison is ingested and causes paralysis by detaching segmental muscles from the skeletal elements. The team wants to test the poison's effectiveness in streams feeding Lake Michigan, but one critic worries about potential effects on lancelets, which are similar to lampreys in many ways. Why is this concern misplaced? A) A chemical poisonous to lampreys could not also be toxic to organisms as ancestral as lancelets. B) Lamprey larvae and lancelets have very different feeding mechanisms. C) Lancelets do not have segmental muscles. D) Lancelets live only in saltwater environments. E) Lancelets and lamprey larvae eat different kinds of food.

All types of muscle tissue have _____. A) striated banding patterns seen under the microscope B) cells that lengthen when appropriately stimulated C) a response that can be consciously controlled D) interactions between actin and myosin

Although many chimpanzees live in environments containing oil palm nuts, members of only a few populations use stones to crack open the nuts. The likely explanation is that A) members of different populations have different nutritional requirements B) members of different populations differ in learning ability C) the behavioral difference is caused by genetic differences between populations D) the cultural tradition of using stones to crack nuts has arisen in only some populations

Based on the experiment in the figure above, which of the following are plausible reasons for the result?I) No nutrients evaporate now that vegetation is absent.II) Nutrients dissolve in the water running through the watershed. III) Nutrients are attached to small particles of sand or clay that leave the watershed. IV) Plant roots that held soil particles in place are no longer there. A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only I, II, and IV D) only II, III, and IV

Consider the global nitrogen cycle depicted in the figure above. What is the limiting portion of the cycle for plants?A) industrial nitrogen fixation B) nitrogen lost to the atmosphere C) internal nitrogen cycling in the oceans D) nitrogen fixation by bacteria

Consider the global water cycle depicted in the figure above. Which one of the reserves contains the smallest percentage of global water? A) rivers and lakes B) polar ice caps C) glaciers D) atmosphere

Coral reefs can be found on the southern east coast of the United States but not at similar latitudes on the southern west coast. Differences in which of the following most likely account for this? A) sunlight intensity B) precipitation C) day length D) ocean currents E) salinity

During a year, plants never use 100% of the incoming solar radiation for photosynthesis. What is a reasonable explanation for this?I) Plants cannot photosynthesize as well during winter (in cold winter climates).II) Plants cannot photosynthesize as well on cloudy days. III) The pigments that drive photosynthesis respond to only a fraction of the wavelengths that are available. A) only I B) only II C) only III D) I, II, and III

Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which pair of species could be omnivores?A) A and D B) B and C C) C and D D) C and E

Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which species is most likely a decomposer on this food web? A) A B) B C) C D) E

Fishes that have swim bladders can regulate their density and, thus, their buoyancy. There are two types of swim bladder: physostomous and physoclistous. The ancestral version is the physostomous version, in which the swim bladder is connected to the esophagus via a short tube (see the figure above). The fish fills this version by swimming to the surface, taking gulps of air, and directing them into the swim bladder. Air is removed from this version by "belching." The physoclistous version is more derived, and has lost its connection to the esophagus. Instead, gas enters and leaves the swim bladder via special circulatory mechanisms within the wall of the swim bladder. 16) The presence of a swim bladder allows the typical ray-finned fish to stop swimming and still _____. A) effectively circulate its blood B) use its lateral line system C) use its swim bladder as a respiratory organ D) not sink

Generally speaking, deserts are located in places where air masses are usually A) tropical. B) humid. C) rising. D) descending. E) expanding

How would an ecologist likely explain the expansion of the cattle egret? A) The areas to which the cattle egret has expanded have no cattle egret parasites. B) Climatic factors, such as temperature and precipitation provide suitable habitat for cattle egrets. C) There are no natural predators for cattle egrets in the New World, so they continue to expand their range. D) A habitat left unoccupied by native herons and egrets met the biotic and abiotic requirements of the cattle egret transplants and their descendants. E) The first egrets to colonize South America evolved into a new species capable of competing with the native species of herons and egrets.

If Earthʹs axis of rotation suddenly became perpendicular to the plane of its orbit, the most predictable effect would be A) no more night and day. B) a big change in the length of the year. C) a cooling of the equator. D) a loss of seasonal variation at high latitudes. E) the elimination of ocean currents

If a ray-finned fish is to both hover (remain stationary) in the water column and ventilate its gills effectively, then what other structure besides its swim bladder will it use? A) its pectoral fins B) its lateral line system C) its caudal (tail) fin D) its opercula

If a tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits were suddenly blocked, the animal would have trouble _____. A) respiring B) feeding C) moving D) respiring and feeding

If the flow of energy in an arctic ecosystem goes through a simple food chain, perhaps involving humans, starting from phytoplankton to zooplankton to fish to seals to polar bears, then which of the following could be true? A) Polar bears can provide more food for humans than seals can. B) The total biomass of the fish is lower than that of the seals. C) Seal populations are larger than fish populations. D) Fish can potentially provide more food for humans than seal meat.

If you applied a fungicide to a cornfield, what would you expect to happen to the rate of decomposition and net ecosystem production (NEP)?A) Both decomposition rate and NEP would decrease. B) Both decomposition rate and NEP would increase. C) Decomposition rate would increase and NEP would decrease. D) Decomposition rate would decrease and NEP would increase.

Imagine that you are managing a large game ranch. You know from historical accounts that a species of deer used to live there, but they have been extirpated. After doing some research to determine what might be an appropriately sized founding population, you reintroduce them. You then watch the population increase for several generations, and graph the number of individuals (vertical axis) against the number of generations (horizontal axis). With no natural predators impacting the population, the graph will likely appear as _____. A) a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation B) an "S" that ends with a vertical line C) an upside-down "U" D) a "J," increasing with each generation

In the figure above (look at nitrogen cycle), which formula best corresponds to number 1,representing atmospheric nitrogen? a. NH3 b. NO2 c. NO3 d. N2

In this experiment, Balanus was removed from the habitat shown on the left. 5) Which of the following statements is a valid conclusion of this experiment? A) Balanus can survive only in the lower intertidal zone because it is unable to resist desiccation. B) Balanus is inferior to Chthamalus in competing for space on rocks lower in the intertidal zone. C) The two species of barnacles do not compete with each other because they feed at different times of day. D) The removal of Balanus shows that the realized niche of Chthamalus is smaller than its fundamental niche.

In which community would organisms most likely have adaptations enabling them to respond to different photoperiods? A) tropical forest B) coral reef C) savanna D) temperate forest E) abyssal

In which vertebrates is fertilization exclusively internal? A) chondrichthyans, osteichthyans, and mammals B) amphibians, mammals, and reptiles C) chondrichthyans, osteichthyans, and reptiles D) reptiles and mammals E) reptiles and amphibians

Looking at the data in the figure above from the hare/lynx experiment, what conclusion can you draw? I) Food is a factor in controlling hare population size. II) Excluding lynx is a factor in controlling hare population size. III) The effect of excluding predators and adding food in the same experiment is greater than the sum of excluding lynx alone plus adding food alone. A) only I B) only II C) only III D) I, II, and III

Most of the exchange surfaces of multicellular animals are lined with _____. A) connective tissue B) smooth muscle cells C) neural tissue D) epithelial tissue

Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between _____. A) choosing how many offspring to produce over the course of a lifetime and how long to live B) producing large numbers of gametes when employing internal fertilization versus fewer numbers of gametes when employing external fertilization C) increasing the number of individuals produced during each reproductive episode and a corresponding decrease in parental care D) high survival rates of offspring and the cost of parental care

Often the growth cycle of one population has an effect on the cycle of another. As moose populations increase, for example, wolf populations also increase. Thus, if we are considering the logistic equation for the wolf population, dN/dt = rN , which of the factors accounts for the effect of the moose population? A) r B) N C) rN D) K

On the diagram of the nitrogen cycle, which number represents the ammonium ion (NH4+)? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

Once heat is transferred to the soil, where does it go next (reference the study by Noormets et al. 2004)?I) The heat is emitted back to the atmosphere.II) Theheatistransferredtoothersoillayers. III) The heat is stored in the soil. A) only I B) only II C) only III D) I, II, and III

Probably the most important factor(s) affecting the distribution of biomes is (are) A) wind and ocean water current patterns. B) species diversity. C) proximity to large bodies of water D) climate. E) day length and rainfall

Refer to the figure above. Which statement best explains survivorship curve B? A) It is likely a species that provides little postnatal care, but lots of care for offspring during midlife as indicated by increased survivorship. B) This curve is likely for a species that produces lots of offspring, only a few of which are expected to survive. C) It is likely a species where no individuals in the cohort die when they are at 60-70% relative age. D) Survivorship can only decrease; therefore, this curve could not happen in nature

Refer to the paragraph on Brown et al. and Morwood et al. It is speculated that H. floresiensis and H. sapiens may have lived on Flores concurrently. Suppose researchers obtained mitochondrial DNA samples from the H. floresiensis remains, amplified a 1000-base-pair sequence via PCR, and compared it to that of several currently living H. sapiens native to Indonesia, North Africa, and North America. Also suppose H. floresiensis were found to differ from the average Indonesian H. sapiens in 28 base pairs, from the average North African H. sapiens in 51 base pairs, and from the average North American H. sapiens in 53 base pairs, while two randomly selected H. sapiens differed from each other in an average of 21 base pairs. What would you surmise from these data?A) H. floresiensis and H. sapiens probably did not live on Flores concurrently. B) H. floresiensis and H. sapiens probably lived on Flores concurrently but did not interact. C) H. floresiensis and H. sapiens probably lived on Flores concurrently, and H. sapiens killed and consumed H. floresiensis. D) H. floresiensis and H. sapiens probably lived on Flores concurrently and interbred to some degree.

Species introduced to new geographic locations A) are usually successful in colonizing the area. B) always spread because they encounter no natural predators. C) increase the diversity and therefore the stability of the ecosystem. D) can out-compete and displace native species for biotic and abiotic resources. E) are always considered pests by ecologists

Studying species transplants is a way that ecologists A) determine the abundance of a species in a specified area. B) determine the distribution of a species in a specified area. C) develop mathematical models for distribution and abundance of organisms. D) determine if dispersal is a key factor in limiting distribution of organisms. E) consolidate a landscape region into a single ecosystem

The Hubbard Brook watershed deforestation experiment revealed that _____. I) deforestation increased water runoff II) nitrate concentration in waters draining the deforested area became dangerously high III) calcium levels remained high in the soil of deforested areas A) only I B) only II C) only III D) only I and II

The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be ________ with its ________ environment. A) hyperosmotic; freshwater B) isotonic; freshwater C) hyperosmotic; saltwater D) isoosmotic; saltwater E) hypoosmotic; saltwater

The oceans affect the biosphere in all of the following ways except A) producing a substantial amount of the biosphereʹs oxygen. B) removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. C) moderating the climate of terrestrial biomes. D) regulating the pH of freshwater biomes and terrestrial groundwater. E) being the source of most of Earthʹs rainfall.

The swim bladder of ray-finned fishes A) was probably modified from simple lungs of chondrichthyans. B) developed into lungs in saltwater fishes. C) first appeared in sharks. D) provides for regulation of buoyancy. E) Two of the options listed are correct.

The symbols +, -, and o are to be used to show the results of interactions between individuals and groups of individuals in the examples that follow. The symbol + denotes a positive interaction, - denotes a negative interaction, and o denotes where individuals are not affected by interacting. The first symbol refers to the first organism mentioned. 7) What interactions exist between a lion pride and a hyena pack? A) +/+ B) +/- C) o/o D) -/-

Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is made possible by which of the following? A) warm, less dense water layered at the top B) cold, more dense water layered at the bottom C) a distinct thermocline between less dense warm water and cold, dense water. D) the density of water changes as seasonal temperatures change. E) currents generated by nektonic animals

Vertebrates and tubicates share... A. Jaws adapted for feeding B. A high degree of cephalization C. The formation of structures from the neural crest D. A notochord and a dorsal, hollow nerve cord

Vertebrates and tunicates share _____. A) jaws adapted for feeding B) a high degree of cephalization C) the formation of structures from the neural crest D) a notochord and a dorsal, hollow nerve cord

What conclusion can you draw from the figure above? A) Hares control lynx population size. B) Lynx control hare population size. C) Lynx and hare populations are independent of each other. D) The relationship between the populations cannot be determined only from this graph.

What do researchers typically focus on when they study a particular biogeochemical cycle? I) the nature and size of the reservoirsII) the rate of element movement between reservoirsIII) interaction of the current cycle with other cycles A) only I B) only II C) only III D) only II and III

Which biome requires frequent disturbance events such as drought and fire (i.e. to prevent succession)? A) tundra B) taiga/coniferous forest C) tropical forest D) temperate grassland

Which characteristic is common to all the modern representatives of all major reptilian lineages (turtles, lepidosaurs, crocodilians, and birds)? A) presence of teeth B) presence of four walking limbs C) ectothermy D) presence of a notochord

Which of the following assumptions have to be made regarding the mark-recapture estimate of population size? I) Marked and unmarked individuals have the same probability of being trapped. II) The marked individuals have thoroughly mixed with the population after being marked. III) No individuals have entered or left the population by immigration or emigration, and no individuals have been added by birth or eliminated by death during the course of the estimate. A) I only B) II only C) I and II only D) I, II, and III

Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an exponential to a logistic population growth? A) favorable climatic conditions B) removal of predators C) decreased death rate D) competition for resources

Which of the following characteristics evolved independently in mammals and birds? A) amniotic eggs B) jaws C) bone D) endothermy

Which of the following characteristics is shared by a hagfish and a lamprey? A) a rasping tongue B) paired fins C) jaws D) a well-developed notochord

Which of the following is an example of negative feedback? A) During birthing contractions, oxytocin (a hormone) is released and acts to stimulate further contractions. B) When a baby is nursing, suckling leads to the production of more milk and a subsequent increase in the secretion of prolactin (a hormone that stimulates lactation). C) After a blood vessel is damaged, signals are released by the damaged tissues that activate platelets in the blood. These activated platelets release chemicals that activate more platelets. D) When the level of glucose in the blood increases, the pancreas produces and releases the hormone insulin. Insulin acts to decrease blood glucose. As blood glucose decreases, the rate of production and release of insulin decreases as blood glucose decreases.

Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes? A) annual average rainfall in excess of 250 cm B) a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns C) clear boundaries between adjacent biomes D) vegetation demonstrating stratification E) cold winter months

Which of the following is not true about estuaries? A) Estuaries are often bordered by mudflats and salt marshes. B) Estuaries contain waters of varying salinity. C) Estuaries support a variety of animal life that humans consume. D) Estuaries usually contain no or few producers. E) Estuaries support many semiaquatic species.

Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in most ecosystems? A) Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders. B) Decomposers compete with higher-order consumers for nutrients and energy. C) Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition. D) Energy transfer between trophic levels is usually less than 20 percent efficient.

Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in mostecosystems? a. Many primary and higher order consumers are opportunistic feeders b. Decomposers compete with higher-order consumers for nutrient and energy c. Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition d. Efficiency of energy transfer between trophic levels is extremely low.

Which of the following is required for a behavioral trait to evolve by natural selection? A) the behavior is not genetically inherited B) the behavior is the same in all individuals in the population C) the behavior is determined entirely by genes D) An individual's reproductive success depends in part on how the behavior is performed

Which of the following is the most important assumption for the mark-recapture method to estimate the size of wildlife populations? A) More individuals emigrate from, as opposed to immigrate into, a population. B) Over 50% of the marked individuals need to be trapped during the recapture phase. C) There is a 50:50 ratio of males to females in the population before and after trapping and recapture. D) Marked individuals have the same probability of being recaptured as unmarked individuals during the recapture phase

Which of the following is true of innate behaviors? A) Genes have very little influence on the expression of innate behaviors. B) Innate behaviors tend to vary considerably among members of a population. C) Innate behaviors are limited to invertebrate animals. D) Innate behaviors are expressed in most individuals in a population across a wide range of environmental conditions. E) Innate behaviors occur in in

Which of the following is true with respect to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic lakes? A) Oligotrophic lakes are more subject to oxygen depletion. B) Rates of photosynthesis are lower in eutrophic lakes. C) Eutrophic lake water contains lower concentrations of nutrients. D) Eutrophic lakes are richer in nutrients. E) Sediments in oligotrophic lakes contain larger amounts of decomposable organic matter.

Which of the following locations are major reservoirs for carbon for the carbon cycle? I) atmosphere II) sediments and sedimentary rocks III) fossilized plant and animal remains (coal, oil, and natural gas) IV) plant and animal biomass A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only II, III, and IV D) I, II, III, and IV

Which of the following represents the strongest evidence that two of the three middle ear bones of mammals are homologous to certain reptilian jawbones? A) They are similar in size to the reptilian jawbones. B) They are similar in shape to the reptilian jawbones. C) The mammalian jaw has fewer bones than does the reptilian jaw. D) These bones can be observed to move from the developing jaw to the developing middle ear in mammalian embryos. E) Mammals can hear better than reptiles.

Which of the following statements about human population in industrialized countries are correct? I) Life history is r-selected. II) The population has undergone the demographic transition. III) The survivorship curve is Type III. IV) Age distribution is relatively uniform. A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only I, II, and IV D) only II, III, and IV

Which of the following statements about the ocean pelagic biome is true? A) The ocean is a vast, deep storehouse that always provides sustenance; it is the next ʺfrontierʺ for feeding humanity. B) Because it is so immense, the ocean is a uniform environment. C) More photosynthesis occurs in the ocean than in any other biome. D) Pelagic ocean photosynthetic activity is disproportionately low in relation to the size of the biome. E) The most abundant animals are unicellular zooplankton.

Which of the following statements would be least acceptable to most zoologists? A) The extant lancelets are contemporaries, not ancestors, of vertebrates. B) The first fossils resembling lancelets appeared in the fossil record around 530 million years ago. C) Recent work in molecular systematics supports the hypothesis that lancelets are the most recent common ancestor of all vertebrates. D) The extant lancelets are the immediate ancestors of the fishes. E) Lancelets display the same method of swimming as do fishes.

Which of these statements about human evolution is correct? A) The ancestors of Homo sapiens were chimpanzees. B) Human evolution has proceeded in an orderly fashion from an ancestral anthropoid to Homo sapiens. C) The evolution of upright posture and enlarged brain occurred simultaneously. D) Different species of the genus Homo have coexisted at various times throughout hominin evolution. E) Mitochondrial DNA analysis indicates that modern humans are genetically very similar to Neanderthals.

Which of these statements accurately describes a similarity between sharks and ray-finned fishes? A) The skin is typically covered by flattened bony scales. B) They are equally able to exchange gases with the environment while stationary. C) They are highly maneuverable due to their flexibility. D) They have a lateral line that is sensitive to changes in water pressure. E) A swim bladder helps control buoyancy.

Which of these traits is most strongly associated with the adoption of bipedalism? A) enhanced depth perception B) shortened hind limbs C) opposable big toe D) repositioning of foramen magnum

Which of these would a paleontologist most likely do to determine if a fossil represents a reptile or a mammal? A) Look for the presence of milk-producing glands. B) Look for the mammalian characteristics of a four-chambered heart and a diaphragm. C) Use molecular analysis to look for the protein keratin. D) Examine the teeth.

Which pair of terms most accurately describes life history traits for a stable population of wolves? A) semelparous; r-selected B) semelparous; K-selected C) iteroparous; r-selected D) iteroparous; K-selected

Which statement best describes what ultimately happens to the chemical energy that is not converted to new biomass in the process of energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem?A) It is undigested and winds up in the feces and is not passed on to higher trophic levels. B) It is used by organisms to maintain their life processes through the reactions of cellular respiration. C) Heat produced by cellular respiration is used by heterotrophs for thermoregulation. D) It is eliminated as feces or is dissipated into space as heat, consistent with the second law of thermodynamics.

Which structure of the amniotic egg most closely surrounds the embryo? A) the chorion B) the yolk sac C) the allantois D) the amnion

Which term best describes the emigration of individuals from a population of high density insearch of a habitat with lower population density? a. Character displacement b. Random dispersion c. Resource partitioning d. Dispersal

Which term describes the uppermost layer (entire surface) of a large body of water? A) intertidal zone B) benthic zone C) estuary D) photic zone

Which trophic level is most vulnerable to extinction? A) producer level B) primary consumer level C) secondary consumer level D) tertiary consumer level

Which type of biome would most likely occur in a climate with mild, rainy winters and hot, dry summers? A) desert B) taiga C) temperate grassland D) chaparral E) savanna

Which type of ecosystem is most likely to be threatened by the phenomenon of eutrophication? A) tundra B) chaparral C) savanna D) wetland

Why do skates and rays have flattened bodies, while sharks are torpedo shaped? A) Sharks are more closely related to the tubelike lampreys than skates and rays are. B) Skates and rays need enlarged pectoral fins to help them stay level in turbulent water, while sharks do not. C) Skates and rays exchange gases across their skin and thus require a high surface-area-to- volume ratio, while sharks use gills to respire. D) Sharks are streamlined for active swimming off the bottom, while skates move about mostly on the ocean bed.

Why does a vegetarian leave a smaller ecological footprint than an omnivore? A) Fewer animals are slaughtered for human consumption. B) There is an excess of plant biomass in all terrestrial ecosystems. C) Vegetarians need to ingest less chemical energy than omnivores. D) Eating meat is an inefficient way of acquiring photosynthetic productivity

Why is terrestrial productivity higher in equatorial climates? A) Productivity increases with temperature. B) Productivity increases with water availability .C) Productivity increases with available sunlight. D) The answer is most likely a combination of the other responses.

Your friend is wary of scientific claims that global warming could lead to major biological change onEarth. Which of the following statements can you use in response to your friend's suspicions? I. We know that atmospheric carbon dioxide has increased over the past 150 years. II. Through measurements and observations, we know that carbon dioxide levels and temperaturefluctuations are directly correlated, even in prehistoric times. III. Global warming could have significant effects on agriculture in the United States. a. I b. II c. III d. All of the above

recent study of ecological footprints concluded that _____. A) Earth's carrying capacity would increase if per capita meat consumption increased B) current demand by industrialized countries for resources is much smaller than the ecological footprint of those countries C) it is not possible for technological improvements to increase Earth's carrying capacity for humans D) the ecological footprint of the United States is large because per capita resource use is high

3. Which of the following biomes is associated with a permanent layer of frozen soil called permafrost? (a) chaparral (b) taiga (c) savanna (d) temperate forest (e) tundra

Differentiation of teeth is observed in A) sharks. B) bony fishes. C) amphibians. D) reptiles. E) mammals.

Freshwater flatworms form a urine that is typically A) of high solute concentration, in order to conserve body fluids. B) of very low volume, in order to conserve body fluids. C) of high solute concentration and very low volume, in order to conserve body fluids. D) of high solute concentration and of high volume, matching their normal fluid uptake. E) of low solute concentration and of high volume, matching their normal fluid uptake.

Imagine some cosmic catastrophe jolts Earth so that its axis is perpendicular to the orbital plane between Earth and the sun. The most obvious effect of this change would be A) the elimination of tides. B) an increase in the length of night. C) an increase in the length of a year. D) a decrease in temperature at the equator. E) the elimination of seasonal variation.

In mountainous areas of western North America, north-facing slopes would be expected to A) receive more sunlight than similar southern exposures B) be warmer and drier than comparable southern exposed slopes C) consistently steeper than southern exposures D) support biological communities similar to those found lower elevations on similar south-facing slopes. E) support biological communities similar to those found at higher elevations on similar south-facing slopes.

Lampreys differ from hagfishes in A) lacking jaws. B) having a cranium. C) having pharyngeal clefts that develop into pharyngeal slits. D) having a notochord throughout life. E) having a notochord that is surrounded by a tube of cartilage.

Landscape ecology is best described as the study of A) the flow of energy and materials between the biotic and abiotic components of an ecosystem. B) how the structure and function of species enable them to meet the challenges of their environment. C) what factors affect the structure and size of a population over time. D) the interactions between the different species that inhabit and ecosystem. E) the factors controlling the exchanges of energy, materials, and organisms among ecosystem patches.

Many marine and freshwater bony fish achieve osmoregulation via A) loss of water through the gills. B) gain of salt through the gills. C) loss of water in the urine. D) no drinking of water. E) gain of water through food.

The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes? A) savanna B) temperate broadleaf forest C) temperate grassland D) tropical rain forest E) coniferous forest

There is evidence that ray-finned fishes evolved A) in response to a crisis that wiped out the chondrichthyans. B) directly from lampreys and hagfish. C) early in the Cambrian period. D) directly from lancelets. E) the swim bladder from a lung.

Trees are not usually found in the tundra biome because of A) insufficient annual precipitation. B) acidic soils. C) extreme winter temperatures. D) overbrowsing by musk ox and caribou. E) permafrost

Which biome is able to support many large animals despite receiving moderate amounts of rainfall? A) tropical rain forest B) temperate forest C) chaparral D) taiga E) savanna

Which of the following belongs to the lobe-fin clade? A) chondrichthyans B) ray-finned fishes C) lampreys D) hagfishes E) tetrapods

Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate? A) savanna-low temperature, precipitation uniform during the year B) tundra-long summers, mild winters C) temperate broadleaf forest-relatively short growing season, mild winters D) temperate grasslands-relatively warm winters, most rainfall in summer E) tropical forests-nearly constant day length and temperature

Which of the following causes Earthʹs seasons? A) global air circulation B) global wind patterns C) ocean currents D) changes in Earthʹs distance from the sun E) the tilt of Earthʹs axis

Which of the following environmental features might influence microclimates? A) a discarded soft-drink can B) a tree C) a fallen log D) a stone E) all of the above

Which of the following organisms is the most likely candidate for geographic isolation? A) sparrow B) bat C) squirrel D) salt-water fish E) land snail

Which of these species had members who moved out of Africa? A) H. erectus B) H. ergaster C) H. habilis D) H. sapiens E) both H. sapiens and H. erectus

ʺHow does the foraging of animals on tree seeds affect the distribution and abundance of the trees?ʺ This question A) would require an elaborate experimental design to answer. B) is difficult to answer because a large experimental area would be required. C) is difficult to answer because a long-term experiment would be required. D) is a question that a present-day ecologist would be likely to ask. E) A, B, C and D are correct.

T/F Schooling fish and other highly social animals tend to exhibit uniform dispersion patterns within their habitat.

The preference of female guppies for 'popular' males would be an example of social learning.

Arrange these taxonomic terms from most inclusive (most general) to least inclusive (most specific). 1. lobe-fins 2. amphibians 3. gnathostomes 4. osteichthyans 5. tetrapods

3, 4, 1, 5, 2

15) Introduced species can have deleterious effects on biological communities by ________. A) competing with native species for resources and displacing them B) spreading rapidly in their new region C) reducing erosion D) increasing the biodiversity in their new region

17) Of the following ecosystem types, which have been impacted the most by humans? A) wetland and riparian B) desert and high alpine C) taiga and second-growth forests D) tundra and arctic

18) Burning fossil fuels releases oxides of sulfur and nitrogen. These air pollutants can be responsible for ________. A) the death of fish in lakes B) precipitation with a pH as high as 8.0 C) eutrophication of lakes D) global temperature decrease

30) The primary difference between the small-population approach and the declining-population approach to biodiversity recovery is that ________. A) small-population approach is interested in bolstering the genetic diversity of a threatened population rather than the environmental factors that caused the population's decline B) small-population approach applies for conservation biologists when population numbers fall below 500 C) declining-population approach would likely involve bringing together individuals from scattered small populations to interbreed in order to promote genetic diversity D) small-population approach would investigate and eliminate all of the human impacts on the habitat of the species being studied for recovery

31) Which of the following statements is accurate with respect to the red-cockaded woodpecker populations in the southeastern United States? A) The bird requires feeding grounds in and around mature pine forest that are uninterrupted by the structure of other vegetation. B) The mature pine forests in which they live should continue to be protected from forest fire. C) All of the appropriate red-cockaded woodpecker habitats have already been logged or converted to agricultural land. D) The red-cockaded woodpecker relies on dense forest to hide their nests from ground-dwelling predators.

32) Managing southeastern forests specifically for the red-cockaded woodpecker ________. A) required periodic forest burning to reduce the growth of a dense understory of trees and shrubs B) contributed to greater abundance and diversity of other forest plant species C) required the construction of nest boxes in the forest to promote successful nesting D) focused on the removal of standing dead longleaf pine to promote growth of young longleaf pine

34) Which one of the following is most likely to be a hot spot of biodiversity for birds? A) Central America B) Northern Europe C) Central Australia D) Eastern North America

35) Use the following figure to answer the question. In looking at the species-area plot in the figure, what can be concluded? A) The number of bird species increases linearly with island area. B) Two island land areas do not correlate to the number of bird species C) Diversity is independent from island area. D) The number of bird species increases exponentially with island area.

38) A land developer and several ecologists are discussing how a parcel of private land should be developed with housing while saving 20 hectares as natural habitat. The land developer suggests that the 20 hectares be divided into 20 separate 1-hectare areas, spread out across the area. The ecologists suggest that it would be better to have one intact parcel of 20 hectares on one side of the larger area. What is the significance of these different arrangements of the 20 hectares? A) The single intact parcel would have a smaller amount of edge than the 20 separate parcels. B) The isolated hectare plots increase the ability of individuals to disperse from one habitat to another. C) The separate 1-hectare plots are less vulnerable to edge effects. D) The large plot will create more inbreeding in many species.

39) Use the following figure to answer the question. Looking at the figure showing the results of forest fragmentation, what can be said about edge effects? A) Biomass declines along edges of forest fragments. B) Biomass increases along the edges of forest fragments. C) Species diversity decreases along the edges of forest fragments. D) Fragmentation does not affect biomass.

44) What is the biggest problem with selecting a site for a reserve? A) Making a proper selection is difficult because currently the environmental conditions of almost any site can change quickly. B) Keystone species are difficult to identify in potential reserve sites. C) Only lands that are not useful to human activities are available for reserves. D) Most of the best sites are inaccessible by land transportation, so making roads to them is often prohibitively expensive.

52) Which of the following is a consequence of biological magnification? A) Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary consumers. B) Populations of top-level predators are generally smaller than populations of primary consumers. C) Only a small portion of the energy captured by producers is transferred to consumers. D) The amount of biomass in the producer level of an ecosystem decreases if the producer turnover time increases.

55) Use the following figure to answer the question. Examine the figure and consider this hypothesis: Plant biomass increases with species richness. Functional groups are categories of plants each containing numerous species, such as grasses and wildflowers, or trees and shrubs. In looking at the data in the figure, how would you relate it to this hypothesis? The hypothesis is ________. A) partially supported B) supported C) rejected D) neither rejected nor supported

59) Which of the following nations has become a world leader in the establishment of zoned reserves? A) Costa Rica B) China C) United States D) Mexico

66) Which of the following is a consequence of biological magnification? A) Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary consumers. B) Populations of top-level predators are generally smaller than populations of primary consumers. C) The biomass of producers in an ecosystem is generally higher than the biomass of primary consumers. D) Only a small portion of the energy captured by producers is transferred to consumers.

68) Of the following statements about protected areas that have been established to preserve biodiversity, which one is not correct? A) About 25% of Earth's land area is now protected. B) National parks are one of many types of protected areas. C) Management of a protected area should be coordinated with management of the land surrounding the area. D) It is especially important to protect biodiversity hot spots.

As climate changes because of global warming, plant species' ranges in the northern hemisphere may move northward. The trees that are most likely to avoid extinction in such an environment are those that _____. A) have seeds that are easily dispersed by wind or animals B) produce well-provisioned seeds C) have seeds that become viable only after a forest fire D) disperse many seeds in close proximity to the parent tree

Fire suppression by humans _____. A) can change the species composition within biological communities. B) will result ultimately in sustainable production of increased amounts of forest products for human use. C) is necessary for the protection of threatened and endangered forest species. D) is a management goal of conservation biologists to maintain the healthy condition of forest communities.

Generalized global air circulation and precipitation patterns are caused by _____. A) rising, warm, moist air masses that cool and release precipitation as they rise and then, at high altitude, cool and sink back to the surface as dry air masses after moving north or south of the tropics B) air masses that are dried and heated over continental areas that rise, cool aloft, and descend over oceanic areas followed by a return flow of moist air from ocean to land, delivering high amounts of precipitation to coastal areas C) polar, cool, moist high-pressure air masses from the poles that move along the surface, releasing precipitation along the way to the equator, where they are heated and dried D) the revolution of Earth around the sun

If a meteor impact or volcanic eruption injected a lot of dust into the atmosphere and reduced the sunlight reaching Earth's surface by 70 percent for one year, which of the following marine communities most likely would be least affected? A) deep-sea vent B) coral reef C) intertidal D) estuary

If global warming continues at its present rate, which biomes will likely take the place of the coniferous forest (taiga)? A) temperate broadleaf forest and grassland B) desert and chaparral C) tropical forest and savanna D) chaparral and temperate broadleaf forest

If you are interested in observing a relatively simple community structure in a clear water lake, you would do well to choose diving into _____. A) an oligotrophic lake B) a eutrophic lake C) a relatively shallow lake D) a nutrient-rich lake

In the development of terrestrial biomes, which factor is most dependent on all the others? A) the species of colonizing animals B) prevailing rainfall C) mineral nutrient availability D) soil structure

In the figure above, which number would designate the biome with the highest variation in annual precipitation? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

In the figure above, which of the lines represents the highest per-capita rate increase (r)? A) line A B) line B C) line C D) line D

Refer to the figure above. Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants? A) A B) B C) C D) E

Suppose that the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of vertical strata found in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes would you find the greatest number of bird species? A) tropical rain forest B) savanna C) temperate broadleaf forest D) temperate grassland

The main reason polar regions are cooler than the equator is that _____. A) sunlight strikes the poles at a lower angle B) the poles are farther from the sun C) the polar atmosphere is thinner and contains fewer greenhouse gases D) the poles are permanently tilted away from the sun

The oceans affect the biosphere by _____. I) producing a substantial amount of the biosphere's oxygen II) adding carbon dioxide to the atmosphere III) being the source of most of Earth's rainfall IV) regulating the pH of freshwater biomes and terrestrial groundwater A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only I, II, and IV D) only I, II, and III

Two plant species live in the same biome but on different continents. Although the two species are not at all closely related, they may appear quite similar as a result of _____. A) convergent evolution B) allopatric speciation C) introgression D) gene flow

When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that are analogous to the changes _____. A) in biomes at different latitudes B) in a community through different seasons C) in an ecosystem as it evolves over time D) across the United States from east to west

Which climograph shows the climate for location 1? A) A B) C C) E D) H

Which of the following can be said about light in aquatic environments? A) Water selectively reflects and absorbs certain wavelengths of light. B) Longer wavelengths penetrate to greater depths. C) Light penetration seldom limits the distribution of photosynthetic species. D) Most photosynthetic organisms avoid the surface where the light is too intense.

Which of the following choices includes all of the others in creating global terrestrial climates? A) differential heating of Earth's surface B) ocean currents C) global wind patterns D) Earth's rotation on its axis

Which of the following events might you predict to occur if the tilt of Earth's axis relative to its plane of orbit was increased to degrees? A) Summers and winters in the United States would likely become warmer and colder, respectively. B) Seasonal variation at the equator might decrease. C) Both northern and southern hemispheres would experience summer and winter at the same time. D) Both poles would experience massive ice melts.

Which of the following is responsible for the differences in summer and winter temperature stratification of deep temperate zone lakes? A) Water is densest at 4°C. B) Oxygen is most abundant in deeper waters. C) Winter ice sinks in the summer. D) Stratification is caused by a thermocline.

Which of the following statements regarding turnover in a lake is correct? A) In fall turnover, dense water at 4°C sinks and disturbs sediments in the benthic zone. B) In fall turnover, dense water at 4°C rises and disturbs sediments in the benthic zone. C) The surface water gets to 4°C only by cooling. D) Fall turnovers and spring turnovers are exactly the same.

Which of the following types of organisms is likely to have the widest geographic distribution? A) bacteria B) songbirds C) bears D) lizards

Which statements about dispersal are correct? I) Dispersal is a common component of the life cycles of plants and animals. II) Colonization of devastated areas after floods or volcanic eruptions primarily depends upon climate. III) Seeds are important dispersal stages in the life cycles of most flowering plants. IV) Dispersal occurs only on an evolutionary time scale. A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only I, II, and IV D) only II, III, and IV

1) Philippe Bouchet and colleagues conducted a massive survey of marine molluscs on the west coast of New Caledonia. For 20% of the total species that were located and identified, only a single specimen was found. What does that suggest about the diversity of molluscs in this area? A) The west coast of New Caledonia is not an appropriate habitat for molluscs. B) Many of the species from this 20% are probably rare. C) They were not sampling uniformly throughout the area. D) Many of the species from this 20% are most likely just dispersing through the area.

11) Which of the following terms includes all of the others? A) species diversity B) biodiversity C) genetic diversity D) ecosystem diversity

13) Loss of biodiversity matters not only with regard to mammals or other vertebrates, but also microbes. Why are microbes worthy of discovery and protection from extinction? A) Microbes play a role in digestion. B) Microbes may produce unique proteins useful in genetic research. C) Microbes are much greater in species number than any other taxa on Earth. D) Microbes may be the most sensitive to the next large extinction event.

16) Overharvesting encourages extinction and is most likely to affect ________. A) animals that occupy a broad ecological niche B) large animals with low intrinsic reproductive rates C) most organisms that live in the oceans' coral reefs D) edge-adapted species

25) Which of the following criteria have to be met for a species to qualify as invasive? A) endemic to the area, spreads rapidly, and displaces foreign species B) introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces native species C) introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces other invasive species D) endemic to the area, spreads slowly, and displaces native species

40) Which of the following is a generally accurate statement about the current research regarding forest fragmentation? A) Fragmented forests promote biodiversity because they result in the combination of forest-edge species and forest-interior species. B) In fragmented forests, the number of forested-adapted species tend to decline and the number of edge species tend to increase. C) Fragmented forests are the goal of conservation biologists who design wildlife reserves. D) The disturbance of timber extraction causes the species diversity to increase because of the new habitats created.

41) Brown-headed cowbirds utilize fragmented forests effectively by ________. A) feeding on the fruits of shrubs that tend to grow at the forest/open-field interface B) parasitizing the nests of forest birds and feeding on open-field insects C) consuming the eggs of other species as well as insects and seeds in open fields D) outcompeting other songbird species for access to nesting holes in old-growth trees

42) Movement corridors can be harmful to certain species because they ________. A) increase inbreeding B) spread disease and parasites C) increase genetic diversity D) allow seasonal migration

46) Agricultural lands frequently require nutrient augmentation because ________. A) nitrogen-fixing bacteria are not as plentiful in agricultural soils because of the use of pesticides B) the nutrients that become the biomass of plants are not cycled back to the soil on lands where they are harvested C) land that is available for agriculture tends to be nutrient-poor D) cultivation of agricultural land inhibits the decomposition of organic matter

48) Which of the following factors causes extremely high levels of toxic chemicals in fish-eating birds? A) acid precipitation B) biological magnification C) greenhouse effect D) eutrophication

5) Ecosystem services include processes that increase the quality of the abiotic environment. Which of the following processes would fall under this category? A) Keystone predators have a marked effect on species diversity. B) Green plants and phytoplankton produce the oxygen we breathe. C) Bees, flies, and wasps pollinate many plants. D) The presence of dams improves flood control.

56) Use the following figure to answer the question. Examine the figure, which notes the average barrels of oil used per person per year in different countries. What can be concluded? A) Residents in warmer climates use more energy per person. B) Residents of more affluent, industrialized countries use more energy per person. C) Residents of more populated countries use more energy per person. D) English-speaking countries tend to use more energy per person.

62) Elevated carbon dioxide levels have been shown to contribute to the greenhouse effect, resulting in an increase in mean global temperature. Ecosystems where the largest warming has already occurred include snow-covered northern coniferous forests, tundra, and arctic sea ice habitats. Which statement best explains how the elimination of ice-covered ecosystems affects the rise or fall in global temperature? A) Melting ice releases dissolved ozone gas, which adds to the greenhouse effect. B) More reflective surfaces of ice are replaced with darker, more absorptive surfaces, thereby contributing to the warming trend. C) Large-scale ice melts actually contribute toward lowering global temperatures by decreasing salinity of the oceans. D) Carbon dioxide levels are lowered as a result of the greater volume of water to accommodate greater levels of dissolved gas.

66) What is the single greatest threat to biodiversity? A) overharvesting of commercially important species B) habitat alteration, fragmentation, and destruction C) introduced species that compete with native species D) novel pathogens

67) Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic diversity of a population in an extinction vortex? A) Establish a reserve that protects the population's habitat. B) Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species. C) Sterilize the least fit individuals in the population. D) Control populations of the endangered population's predators and competitors.

7) Erwin and Scott used an insecticidal fog to knock down insects from the top section of a L. seemannii tree. The researchers identified over 900 species of beetles among the individuals that fell. Erwin also projected that this entire tree from top to bottom is host to about 600 arthropod species that are unique to this tree species and not found on any other tree species. There are approximately 50,000 species of tropical trees. Although it could not be entirely accurate, what would be the best way to estimate the total number of arthropod species? A) Estimate the species density and then multiply by 50,000. B) Multiply 600 by 50,000. C) Multiply 50,000 by 900. D) Add 900 to 600, and then multiply by 50,000.

A certain species of pine tree survives only in scattered locations at elevations above 2800 meters in the western United States. To understand why this tree grows only in these specific places, an ecologist should _____. A) study the anatomy and physiology of this species B) investigate the various biotic and abiotic factors that are unique to high altitude C) analyze the soils found in the vicinity of these trees, looking for unique chemicals that may support their growth D) collect data on temperature, wind, and precipitation at several of these locations for a year `

Air masses formed over the Pacific Ocean are moved by prevailing westerlies where they encounter extensive north-south mountain ranges, such as the Sierra Nevada and the Cascades. Which statement best describes the outcome of this encounter between a landform and an air mass? A) The cool, moist Pacific air heats up as it rises, releasing its precipitation as it passes the tops of the mountains. This warm, now dry air cools as it descends on the leeward side of the range. B) The warm, moist Pacific air rises and cools, releasing precipitation as it moves up the windward side of the range. This cool, now dry air mass heats up as it descends on the leeward side of the range. C) The cool, dry Pacific air heats up and picks up moisture from evaporation of the snowcapped peaks of the mountain range, releasing this moisture as precipitation when the air cools while descending on the leeward side of the range. D) These air masses are blocked by the mountain ranges, producing high annual amounts of precipitation on the windward sides of these mountain ranges.

Based on the diagrams in the figure above and on the large population of baby boomers in the United States, which graph best reflects U.S. population in twenty years? A) A B) B C) C D) D

If the direction of Earth's rotation reversed, the most predictable effect would be _____. A) a big change in the length of the year B) winds blowing from west to east along the equator C) a loss of seasonal variation at high latitudes D) the elimination of ocean currents

In areas of permafrost, stands of black spruce are frequently observed in the landscape, while other tree species are noticeably absent. Often these stands are referred to as "drunken forests" because many of the black spruce are displaced from their normal vertical alignment. What is the most likely explanation for the unusual growth of these forests in this marginal habitat? A) Branches are adapted to absorb more carbon dioxide with this displaced alignment. B) Taproot formation is impossible, so trees developed shallow root beds. C) Trees are tilted so snow prevents them from breaking or tipping over. D) Trees tip so that they do not compete with each other for sunlight.

In deep water, which of the following abiotic factors would most limit productivity? A) temperature B) light availability C) solute concentration

Subtropical plants are commonplace in Land's End, England, whose latitude is the equivalent of Labrador in coastal Canada, where the local flora is subarctic. Which statement best explains why this apparent anomaly exists between North America and Europe? A) Labrador does not get enough rainfall to support the subtropical flora found in Land's End. B) Warm ocean currents interact with England, whereas cold ocean currents interact with Labrador. C) Rainfall fluctuates greatly in England; rainfall is consistently high in Labrador. D) Labrador receives sunlight of lower duration and intensity than does Land's End.

What would happen to the seasons if the Earth were tilted 35 degrees off its orbital plane instead of the usual 23.5 degrees? A) The seasons would disappear. B) Winters and summers would be more severe. C) Winters and summers would be less severe. D) The seasons would be shorter.

Which climograph shows the climate for location 5? A) A B) C C) D D) H

Which of the following best substantiates why location 3 is an equatorial (tropical) climate? A) It has a monsoon season during the winter months. B) The temperature is high for each monthly average. C) The temperatures reach 100°F during some months. D) The temperatures are lower in June, July, and August.

Which of the following examples of an ecological effect leading to an evolutionary effect is most correct? A) When seeds are not plentiful, trees produce more seeds. B) A few individuals with denser fur survive the coldest days of an ice age, and the reproducing survivors of the ice age will likely have more dense fur. C) Fish that swim the fastest in running water catch the most prey and more easily escape predation. D) The insects that spend the most time exposed to sunlight have the most mutations.

Which of the following investigations would shed the most light on the future distribution of organisms in temperate regions that are faced with climate change? A) Remove, to the mineral soil, all of the organisms from an experimental plot and monitor the colonization of the area over time in terms of both species diversity and abundance. B) Look at the climatic changes that occurred since the last Ice Age and how species redistributed as glaciers melted, then make predictions on future distribution in species based on past trends. C) Compare and contrast the flora and fauna of warm/cold/dry/wet climates to shed light on how they evolved to be suited to their present-day environment. D) Quantify the impact of man's activities on present-day populations of threatened and endangered species to assess the rate of extirpation and extinction.

Which of the following statements best describes the interaction between fire and ecosystems? A) The likelihood of a wildfire occurring in a given ecosystem is highly predictable over the short term. B) Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires. C) The suppression of forest fires by man has prevented certain communities, such as grasslands, from reaching their climax stage. D) Chaparral communities have evolved to the extent that they rarely burn.

Which statement describes how climate might change if Earth was 75 percent land and 25 percent water? A) Terrestrial ecosystems would likely experience more precipitation. B) Earth's daytime temperatures would be higher and nighttime temperatures lower. C) Summers would be longer and winters shorter at midlatitude locations. D) Earth would experience an unprecedented global warming.

22) Use the following figure to answer the question. According to the figure, what is the most accurate explanation for the data after 1985? A) emigration B) immigration C) introduction of new alleles into the population D) increased resources in the area

10) Which of the following observations provides the best evidence of a biodiversity crisis? A) the incursion of a non-native species B) increasing pollution levels C) high rate of extinction D) climate change

12) To better comprehend the magnitude of current extinctions, it will be necessary to ________. A) differentiate between plant extinction and animal extinction numbers B) focus on identifying more species of mammals and birds C) identify more of the yet unknown species of organisms on Earth D) use the average extinction rates of vertebrates as a baseline

21) Use the following figure to answer the question. Five new individuals were added to a small population of bighorn sheep in 1986, and ten more were added between 1990 and 1994. According to the figure, what occurred in this population after these additions? A) The population increased exponentially. B) The population increased in overall numbers. C) The population growth rate increased. D) The population continued to decline.

23) Use the following figure to answer the question. According to the figure, which two consecutive years had the largest change in the population growth rate? A) 1967-1968 B) 1922-1923 C) 1938-1939 D) 1985-1986

24) Easter Island is an extremely isolated island in the Pacific, about 3,500 km from South America. Although there are no forests on the island now, archeological studies, fossil pollen, and other data show that Easter Island was once home to forests containing giant palms and other trees. Some scientists think that the removal of the giant palms caused the forest ecosystem to collapse. Which of the following factors might have caused this collapse? A) Shade-tolerant species increased in diversity in the absence of the palm. B) Soil erosion decreased in the absence of the palm. C) The absence of the palm trees may have reduced habitat quality for many other species. D) Productivity increased, thereby increasing competition, in the palms' absence.

26) Which of the following conditions is the most likely indicator of a population in an extinction vortex? A) The species in question is found only in small, stable pockets of its former range. B) The effective population size of the species falls below 1,000. C) Genetic measurements indicate a loss of genetic variation over time. D) The population is permanently small.

27) What strategy was used to rescue Illinois prairie chickens from a recent extinction vortex? A) determining the minimum viable population size by taking into account the effective population size B) establishing a nature reserve to protect its habitat nesting grounds C) introducing individuals from other populations to increase genetic variation D) reducing the population size of its predators and competitors

29) Which of the following factors could cause the largest increase in the effective population size of a species? A) an increased number of males B) an increase in the total population size C) an increase in the number of breeding males and females D) an increased number of females

3) What is the biological significance of genetic diversity between populations? A) Genes for traits conferring an advantage to local conditions are unlikely. B) The population that is most fit would survive by competitive exclusion. C) Genetic diversity reduces the probability of extinction. D) Diseases and parasites are not spread between separated populations.

33) Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic diversity of a population in an extinction vortex? A) Capture all remaining individuals in the population for captive breeding followed by reintroduction to the wild. B) Establish a reserve that protects the population's habitat. C) Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species. D) Sterilize the least fit individuals in the population.

36) Use the following figure to answer the question. Based on the species-area plot in the figure, if habitable area on an island were reduced from 10,000 square kilometers (km2) to 1,000 km2, roughly what percentage of the species would disappear? A) 0.3 percent B) 3 percent C) 30 percent D) 60 percent

4) Tropical forests are being converted to farm or pasture land at an alarming rate, and one major focus is on the biodiversity and the impact to these ecosystems. What is a direct benefit to humans that helps explain why these forests need to be preserved? A) This diversity provides areas for coffee growing. B) Natural and undisturbed areas are important wildlife habitats. C) The diversity could contain novel drugs for consumers. D) The plant diversity provides shade, which lowers global warming.

45) What is a critical load? A) the amount of nutrient augmentation necessary to bring a depleted habitat back to its former level B) the level of a given toxin in an ecosystem that is lethal to 50 percent of the species present C) the amount of added nutrient that can be absorbed by plants without damaging ecosystem integrity D) the number of predators an ecosystem can support that effectively culls prey populations to healthy levels

49) Use the following graph and information to answer the question. Flycatcher birds that migrate from Africa to Europe feed their chicks a diet that is almost exclusively moth caterpillars. The graph shows the peak dates of flycatcher arrival in Europe, bird hatching, and peak caterpillar season for the years 1980 and 2000. The y-axis is a measure of the abundance of birds, hatching chicks, and caterpillars. The shift in the peak of caterpillar season is most likely due to ________. A) earlier migration returns of flycatchers B) an innate change in the biological clock of the caterpillars C) global warming D) acid precipitation in Europe

51) The main cause of the increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in Earth's atmosphere over the past 150 years is ________. A) increased worldwide primary production B) an increase in the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere C) the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels D) additional respiration by the rapidly growing human population

53) Why are changes in the global carbon cycle important? A) Burning increases available carbon for primary producers and, therefore, primary consumers. B) Deforestation and suburbanization increase an area's net primary productivity. C) Increasing atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide are altering Earth's climate. D) By using fossil fuels, we are replenishing a nonrenewable resource.

54) Use the following figure to answer the question. Looking at the figure, what can you conclude about the data? A) As species richness changes, plant biomass remains consistent. B) As species richness increases, plant biomass increases. C) As species richness increases, plant biomass increases and then levels off. D) As species richness decreases, plant biomass increases.

57) The main goal of sustainable development is to ________. A) involve more countries in conservation efforts B) use only natural resources in the construction of new buildings C) use natural resources such that they do not decline over time D) reevaluate and re-implement management plans over time

58) Use the graphs to answer the question. Copyright © 2003 American Institute of Biological Sciences. (Foster, D.R., F. Swanson, J. Aber, D. Tilman, N. Brokaw, I. Burke and A. Knapp. 2003. The importance of land-use and its legacies to ecology and environmental management. BioScience 53:77-88.) Archeological, fossil, and geological data provide information on the Mayan populations and their environment in Mexico, in the Caribbean state of Yucatán. The graphs depict population size, percentage of the land that was forested, and the amount of soil erosion. Based on the figure, what can you conclude about the history of land use in the southern Yucatán? A) Massive soil erosion caused the Mayan population to crash. B) Reduction in forest cover caused the Mayan population to crash. C) As Mayan population increased, deforestation increased, probably leading to increased soil erosion. D) This Mayan population practiced sustainable development.

60) Which of the following statements about protected areas that have been established to preserve biodiversity is correct? A) About 25 percent of Earth's land area is now protected. B) Developing nations have a larger ecological footprint than developed nations, thus protected areas should be primarily established in developing nations. C) Management of a protected area should be coordinated with management of the land surrounding the area. D) It is only important to protect land within biodiversity hot spots.

63) A parasitic fungus, Geomyces destructans, has decimated millions of bats in the United States since it was first observed in upstate New York in 2006. The disease has been named white-nose syndrome because of the white fungal hyphae that cover the bat upon infection. It is believed that this fungus was introduced from Europe by tourists entering into caves with hibernating bat populations. Which prediction most likely reflects changes that will occur in natural communities as a result of massive bat mortality? A) increased animal populations as a result of niche availability B) increased rodent populations as a result of an increase in flying insect populations C) increased flying insect populations D) decreased bird populations as the spread of the fungus infects other closely related species

64) One characteristic that distinguishes a population in an extinction vortex from most other populations is that A) it is a rare, top-level predator. B) its effective population size is lower than its total population size. C) its genetic diversity is very low. D) it is not well adapted to edge conditions.

A fish species known for its success in the aphotic zone may have which of the following characteristics? I) symbioses with photosynthetic organisms II) highly developed chemoreception III) adaptations for burrowing IV) adaptations for sit-and-wait predation A) only I and III B) only I, II, and IV C) only II, III, and IV D) only I, II, and III

Based on the data in the figure above, which of the following statements is true? A) Area 1 could be called a boreal forest/taiga. B) Area 2 could be called a temperate grassland. C) Area 1 could be called a tropical wet/rain forest. D) Area 2 could be tundra.

Coral reefs can be found on the southeast coast of the United States but not at similar latitudes on the southwest coast. Differences in which of the following most likely account for this? A) precipitation B) day length C) ocean currents D) salinity

Imagine that a deep temperate zone lake did not turn over during the spring and fall seasons. Based on the physical and biological properties of limnetic ecosystems, what would be the difference from normal seasonal turnover? A) The lake would fail to freeze over in winter. B) An algal bloom of algae would result every spring. C) Lakes would suffer a nutrient depletion in surface layers. D) The pH of the lake would become increasingly alkaline.

In the figure above, which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity? A) arrow A B) arrow B C) arrow C D) Carrying capacity cannot be found in the figure because species under density-dependent control never reach carrying capacity.

In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves applies to most plant species? A) curve A B) curve B C) curve C

Studying species transplants is a way that ecologists _____. A) determine the distribution of a species in a specified area B) develop mathematical models for distribution and abundance of organisms C) determine if dispersal is a key factor in limiting distribution of organisms D) consolidate a landscape region into a single ecosystem

The range of cattle egrets has expanded between 1937 and today. How would an ecologist likely explain the expansion of the cattle egret? A) Climatic factors, such as temperature and precipitation, provide a suitable habitat for cattle egrets. B) There are no predators for cattle egrets in the New World, so they continue to expand their range. C) A habitat left unoccupied by native herons and egrets met the biotic and abiotic requirements of the cattle egret transplants and their descendants. D) The first egrets to colonize South America evolved into a new species capable of competing with the native species of herons and egrets.

The success of plants extending their range northward following glacial retreat is best determined by _____. A) whether there is simultaneous migration of herbivores B) their tolerance to shade C) their seed dispersal rate D) their size

Wetlands are standing bodies of freshwater, just like lakes and ponds. However, wetlands are different from lakes and ponds because wetlands have _____. A) emergent vegetation B) oxygen-poor water C) shallow water and emergent vegetation D) emergent vegetation and oxygen-poor water

Which climograph shows the climate for location 2? A) C B) D C) F D) H

Which climograph shows the climate for location 3? A) B B) C C) D D) E

Which climograph shows the climate for location 4? A) A B) C C) E D) G

Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome distribution? A) Average annual temperature and precipitation are sufficient to predict which biome will be found in an area. B) Seasonal fluctuation of temperature is not a limiting factor in biome distribution if areas have the same annual temperature and precipitation means. C) The average climate and pattern of climate are important in determining biome distribution. D) Correlation of climate with biome distribution is sufficient to determine the cause of biome patterns.

Why is the climate drier on the leeward (downwind) side of mountain ranges that are subjected to prevailing winds? A) Deserts create dry conditions on the leeward side of mountain ranges. B) The sun illuminates the leeward side of mountain ranges at a more direct angle, converting to heat energy, which evaporates most of the water present. C) Pushed by the prevailing winds on the windward side, air is forced to rise, cool, condense, and drop its precipitation, leaving drier air to descend the leeward side. D) Air masses pushed by the prevailing winds are stopped by mountain ranges and the moisture is used up in the stagnant air masses on the leeward side.

19) Suppose you attend a town meeting at which some experts tell the audience that they have performed a cost-benefit analysis of a proposed transit system that would probably reduce overall air pollution and fossil fuel consumption. The analysis, however, reveals that ticket prices will not cover the cost of operating the system when fuel, wages, and equipment are taken into account. As a biologist, you know that if ecosystem services had been included in the analysis, the experts might have arrived at a different answer. Why are ecosystem services rarely included in economic analyses? A) Federal laws of the United States exclude their inclusion in any cost benefit analysis. B) They have a low value and are usually not cost effective. C) Ecosystem services only take into account abiotic factors that affect local environments. D) Their cost is difficult to estimate, and people take them for granted.

2) If all individuals in the last remaining population of a particular frog species were all highly related, which type of diversity would be of greatest concern when planning to prevent the species from going extinct? A) global diversity B) local diversity C) ecosystem diversity D) genetic diversity

20) Researchers have been studying a rare population of 87 voles in an isolated area. Ten voles from a larger population were added to this isolated population. Besides having ten additional animals, what benefits are there to importing individuals? A) There is no benefit other than increasing the overall population size. B) Additional voles will strengthen competition and increase the survival of the fittest. C) Additional animals would increase beneficial genetic drift. D) Additional voles from a distant population will likely increase genetic diversity and reduce inbreeding.

28) If the sex ratio in a population is significantly different from 50:50, then which of the following statements will always be accurate? A) The population will enter the extinction vortex. B) The genetic variation in the population will increase over time. C) Modeling of the minimum viable population size will underestimate the actual population size. D) The effective population size will be less than the actual population size.

43) Establishing new nature reserves in biodiversity hot spots may not necessarily the best choice because ________. A) hot spots are situated in remote areas not accessible to the public B) their ecological importance makes land purchase very expensive C) a hot spot helps conserve only a few species D) changing environmental conditions may shift the location of the hot spot

47) Which of the following outcomes is caused by excessive nutrient runoff into aquatic ecosystems? A) depletion of ozone layer B) acid precipitation C) biological magnification D) eutrophication

50) Your friend is wary of environmentalists' claims that global warming could lead to major biological change on Earth. Which of the following statements can you use in response to your friend's suspicions? A) We know that atmospheric carbon dioxide has decreased over the past 150 years. B) Through measurements and observations, we know that carbon dioxide levels and temperature fluctuations are indirectly correlated. C) Global warming could have minor effects on agriculture in the United States. D) Scientist have evidence that climate change has already altered primary production, as well as ecosystem services.

6) During the inventory of bacterial genes present in the Sargasso Sea, a deep isolated area in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean, a research team concluded that at least 1,800 bacterial species were present. Based on what you might predict about the habitat structure of such an area, what kind of bacterial diversity would you expect to see in tropical coral reef waters? A) slightly greater genetic diversity B) slightly smaller genetic diversity C) markedly smaller genetic diversity D) markedly greater genetic diversity

61) Eutrophication is often caused by excess limiting-nutrient runoff from agricultural fields into aquatic ecosystems. This process results in massive algal blooms that eventually die and decompose, ultimately depleting the dissolved oxygen, killing large numbers of fish and other aquatic organisms. Predict which of the following human actions would best address the problem of eutrophication near agricultural areas? A) After each eutrophication event, remove the dead fish and invertebrates to place on agricultural fields instead of fertilizer. B) Determine which limiting nutrient is responsible for the algal bloom, and use other fertilizers to apply to crops. C) Remove the algae before it dies and decomposes to prevent eutrophication from occurring. D) Determine critical nutrient loads required for certain crops, and do not exceed this amount during fertilizer application.

65) The main cause of the increase in the amount of CO2 in Earth's atmosphere over the past 150 years is A) increased worldwide primary production. B) increased worldwide standing crop. C) an increase in the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere. D) the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels.

8) Which of the following statements regarding extinction is accurate? A) A large percentage of species are immune from extinction; however, rates of extinction may increase with continued human impacts. B) Extinctions occur only periodically, separated by long time spans with no extinctions. C) Extinction is occurring at a similar rate now as compared to historical fossil evidence. D) The small-population approach is inferior to the declining-population approach if the goal is to conserve the maximum number of species in a given region.

9) The human impact that scientists determined has caused the most extinctions on record is ________, and beyond further losses from this impact, the other impact with the largest potential to cause future extinctions is ________. A) introduced species; habitat loss B) habitat loss; overharvesting C) climate change; habitat loss D) habitat loss; climate change

A fish swimming into an estuary from a river would have which of the following as its greatest physiological challenge? A) The high water flow would make the fish expend more energy. B) The low oxygen content would give the fish difficulty in swimming aerobically. C) The temperature change would stress the fish by denaturing its proteins. D) The change in water solute content would challenge the osmotic balance of the fish.

Based on the data in the figure above, which of the following statements are correct? I) Area 1 has more average precipitation than Area 2. II) Area 1 has a higher average temperature than Area 2. III) Both areas have low variation in monthly precipitation. IV) Area 2 has a lower annual temperature variation compared to Area 1. A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only II, III, and IV D) only I, II, and III

Based on the data in the figure above, which of the following statements are correct? I) Area 1 would be considered a desert because of its high average temperature. II) Area 1 has more average precipitation than Area 2. III) Area 2 would be considered a desert because of its low average precipitation. IV) Area 2 has a larger annual temperature variation. A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only I, II, and IV D) only II, III, and IV

Besides sunlight, which would be the next most important climatic factors for terrestrial plants? A) wind and fire B) moisture and wind C) temperature and wind D) temperature and moisture

Generally speaking, deserts are located in places where air masses are usually _____. A) tropical B) humid C) rising D) descending

If carbon dioxide levels continue to increase and climate change continues over the next century, which of the following would best predict the directional migration of the North American ecosystems from the biomes shown in this climograph? A) The ecosystems will shift to the south due to decreasing transpiration rates. B) The ecosystems will move to both the eastern and western coastlines as these areas will be more moderate. C) The ecosystems will move down mountains as the temperatures warm. D) The ecosystems will shift to the north as temperatures warm.

Imagine some cosmic catastrophe jolts Earth so that its axis is perpendicular to the orbital plane between Earth and the sun. The most obvious effect of this change would be _____. A) the elimination of tides B) an increase in the length of a year C) a decrease in temperature at the equator D) the elimination of seasonal variation

In mountainous areas of western North America, north-facing slopes would be expected to _____. A) receive more sunlight than similar southern exposures B) be warmer and drier than comparable southern exposed slopes C) support biological communities similar to those found at lower elevations on similar south-facing slopes D) support biological communities similar to those found at higher elevations on similar south-facing slopes

In the figure above, which number would designate the arctic tundra biome? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is made possible by which of the following? A) warm, less dense water layered at the top B) cold, more dense water layered at the bottom C) a distinct thermocline between less dense, warm water and cold, dense water D) the changes in the density of water as seasonal temperatures change

What would be the effect on climate in the temperate latitudes if Earth were to slow its rate of rotation from a 24-hour period of rotation to a 48-hour period of rotation? A) Seasons would be longer and more distinct (colder winters and warmer summers). B) Large-scale weather events such as tornadoes and hurricanes would no longer be a part of regional climates. C) Winter seasons in both the northern and southern hemispheres would have more abundant and frequent precipitation events. D) There often would be a larger range between daytime high and nighttime low temperatures.

Which level of ecological study focuses the most on abiotic factors? A) speciation ecology B) population ecology C) community ecology D) ecosystem ecology

Which of the following is an important feature of most terrestrial biomes? A) annual average rainfall in excess of 250 centimeters B) a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns C) clear boundaries between adjacent biomes D) vegetation demonstrating vertical layering

Which of the following might be an investigation of microclimate? A) the effect of ambient temperature on the onset of caribou migration B) the seasonal population fluctuation of nurse sharks in coral reef communities C) competitive interactions between various species of songbirds during spring migration D) the effect of sunlight intensity on species composition in a decaying rat carcass

37) The main purpose of movement corridors is to ________. A) slow down the introduction of new individuals of a species B) slowly introduce a species to a new reserve C) create more edge habitat D) connect two otherwise isolated populations

Refer to the figure above. Which curve best describes survivorship in marine molluscs? A) A B) B C) C D) E

Movement of organisms away from habitats with high population density is called character displacement.

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