Exam 3 final questions
The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment of a patient who has been experiencing episodes of hypoxia. The nurse is aware that this is ultimately attributable to impaired gas exchange. On what factor does adequate gas exchange primarily depend?
Answer: An adequate ventilation:perfusion ratio Rationale: Adequate gas exchange depends on an adequate ventilation:perfusion ratio. There is no perfusion:diffusion ratio. Adequate gas exchange does not depend on the diffusion of gas in shunted blood or a particular concentration of nitrogen
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been hospitalized with an acute asthma exacerbation. What drugs should the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient to gain underlying control of persistent asthma?
Answer: Anti-inflammatory drugs Rationale: Because the underlying pathology of asthma is inflammation, control of persistent asthma is accomplished primarily with regular use of anti-inflammatory medications. Rescue inhalers, antibiotics, and antitussives do not aid in the first-line control of persistent asthma.
A patient's plan of care specifies postural drainage. What action should the nurse perform when providing this noninvasive therapy?
Answer: Assist the patient into a position that will allow gravity to move secretions. Rationale: Postural drainage is usually performed two to four times per day. The patient uses gravity to facilitate postural draining. The skin should be covered with a cloth or a towel during percussion to protect the skin. Postural drainage is not administered in an upright position or directly following a meal.
While planning a patient's care, the nurse identifies nursing actions to minimize the patient's pleuritic pain. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Answer: Avoid actions that will cause the patient to breathe deeply. Rationale: The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain. A soft diet is not necessarily indicated and there is no need for the patient to avoid speaking. Ambulation has multiple benefits, but pain management is not among them. (His answer choices were different and the correct answer (presumably) was analgesics.)
The physician has ordered continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) with the delivery of a patient's high-flow oxygen therapy. The patient asks the nurse what the benefit of CPAP is. What would be the nurse's best response?
Answer: CPAP allows a lower percentage of oxygen to be used with a similar effect. Rationale: Prevention of oxygen toxicity is achieved by using oxygen only as prescribed. Often, positive end- expiratory pressure (PEEP) or CPAP is used with oxygen therapy to reverse or prevent microatelectasis, thus allowing a lower percentage of oxygen to be used. Oxygen is moistened by passing through a humidification system. Changing the tubing on the oxygen therapy equipment is the best technique for controlling bacterial growth. (His answer choices were different and that ^ was not an option...)
A nurse is teaching a patient with asthma about Azmacort, an inhaled corticosteroid. Which adverse effects should the nurse be sure to address in patient teaching?
Answer: Cough and oral thrush Rationale: Azmacort has possible adverse effects of cough, dysphonia, oral thrush (candidiasis), and headache. In high doses, systemic effects may occur (e.g., adrenal suppression, osteoporosis, skin thinning, and easy bruising). The other listed adverse effects are not associated with this drug.
A student nurse is preparing to care for a patient with bronchiectasis. The student nurse should recognize that this patient is likely to experience respiratory difficulties related to what pathophysiologic process?
Answer: Dilation of bronchi and bronchioles Rationale: Bronchiectasis is a chronic, irreversible dilation of the bronchi and bronchioles that results from destruction of muscles and elastic connective tissue. It is not characterized by acute bronchospasm, alveolar distention, or excessive gas exchange.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a lobectomy for a diagnosis of lung cancer. While assisting with a subclavian vein central line insertion, the nurse notes the client's oxygen saturation rapidly dropping. The patient complains of shortness of breath and becomes tachypneic. The nurse suspects a pneumothorax has developed. Further assessment findings supporting the presence of a pneumothorax include what?
Answer: Diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side Rationale: In the case of a simple pneumothorax, auscultating the breath sounds will reveal absent or diminished breath sounds on the affected side. Paradoxical chest wall movements occur in flail chest conditions. Sudden loss of consciousness does not typically occur. Muffled or distant heart sounds occur in pericardial tamponade. (Not sure if this exact question was on there, but there was something along those lines.)
The nurse is assessing a patient who has a chest tube in place for the treatment of a pneumothorax. The nurse observes that the water level in the water seal rises and falls in rhythm with the patient's respirations. How should the nurse best respond to this assessment finding?
Answer: Document that the chest drainage system is operating as it is intended. Rationale: Fluctuation of the water level in the water seal shows effective connection between the pleural cavity and the drainage chamber and indicates that the drainage system remains patent. No further action is needed. (His answer said something like document that it is tidaling.)
The nurse is assessing the respiratory status of a patient who is experiencing an exacerbation of her emphysema symptoms. When preparing to auscultate, what breath sounds should the nurse anticipate?
Answer: Faint breath sounds with prolonged expiration Rationale: The breath sounds of the patient with emphysema are faint or often completely inaudible. When they are heard, the expiratory phase is prolonged.
A sputum study has been ordered for a patient who has developed coarse chest crackles and a fever. At what time should the nurse best collect the sample?
Answer: First thing in the morning Rationale: Sputum samples ideally are obtained early in the morning before the patient has had anything to eat or drink.
A patient's total laryngectomy has created a need for alaryngeal speech which will be achieved through the use of tracheoesophageal puncture. What action should the nurse describe to the patient when teaching him about this process?
Answer: Fitting for a voice prosthesis Rationale: In patients receiving transesophageal puncture, a valve is placed in the tracheal stoma to divert air into the esophagus and out the mouth. Once the puncture is surgically created and has healed, a voice prosthesis (Blom-Singer) is fitted over the puncture site. A nasogastric tube and belching are not required. An artificial pharynx is not used.
The ED nurse is assessing a young gymnast who fell from a balance beam. The gymnast presents with a clear fluid leaking from her nose. What should the ED nurse suspect?
Answer: Fracture of the cribriform plate Rationale: Clear fluid from either nostril suggests a fracture of the cribriform plate with leakage of cerebrospinal fluid. The symptoms are not indicative of an abrasion of the soft tissue or rupture of a sinus. Clear fluid leakage from the nose would not be indicative of a fracture of the nasal septum.
An asthma educator is teaching a patient newly diagnosed with asthma and her family about the use of a peak flow meter. The educator should teach the patient that a peak flow meter measures what value?
Answer: Highest airflow during a forced expiration Rationale: Peak flow meters measure the highest airflow during a forced expiration.
A nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. The patient's medication regimen has been recently changed and the nurse is assessing for therapeutic effect of a new bronchodilator. What assessment parameters suggest a consequent improvement in respiratory status? (Select all that apply)
Answer: Increased expiratory flow rate, relief of dyspnea Rationale: The relief of bronchospasm is confirmed by measuring improvement in expiratory flow rates and volumes (the force of expiration, how long it takes to exhale, and the amount of air exhaled) as well as by assessing the dyspnea and making sure that it has lessened. Increased respiratory rate and viscosity of secretions would suggest a worsening of the patient's respiratory status. Bronchodilators would not have a direct result on the patient's infectious process.
The nurse is assessing a patient who has a 35 pack-year history of cigarette smoking. In light of this known risk factor for lung cancer, what statement should prompt the nurse to refer the patient for further assessment?
Answer: Lately, I have this cough that just never seems to go away. Rationale: The most frequent symptom of lung cancer is cough or change in a chronic cough. People frequently ignore this symptom and attribute it to smoking or a respiratory infection. A new onset of allergies, frequent respiratory infections and fatigue are not characteristic early signs of lung cancer.
A nurse is caring for a young adult patient whose medical history includes an alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency. This deficiency predisposes the patient to what health problem?
Answer: Lobular emphysema Rationale: A host risk factor for COPD is a deficiency of alpha1-antitrypsin, an enzyme inhibitor that protects the lung parenchyma from injury. This deficiency predisposes young patients to rapid development of lobular emphysema even in the absence of smoking. This deficiency does not influence the patient's risk of pulmonary edema, CF, or empyema. (Again, not this exact question. I think his question was about COPD and the answer was alpha1-antitrypsin.)
The nurse is caring for a patient whose recent unexplained weight loss and history of smoking have prompted diagnostic testing for cancer. What symptom is most closely associated with the early stages of laryngeal cancer?
Answer: Low Pitch Hoarseness Rationale: Hoarseness is an early symptom of laryngeal cancer. Dyspnea, dysphagia, and lumps are later signs of laryngeal cancer. Alopecia is not associated with a diagnosis of laryngeal cancer. I checked the textbook and it said lower in pitch... "Hoarseness of more than 2 weeks' duration occurs in the patient with cancer in the glottic area because the tumor impedes the action of the vocal cords during speech. The voice may sound harsh, raspy, and lower in pitch. " p. 573
A patient is undergoing testing to see if he has a pleural effusion. Which of the nurses respiratory assessment findings would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
Answer: Lung fields dull to percussion, absent breath sounds, and a pleural friction rub Rationale: Assessment findings consistent with a pleural effusion include affected lung fields being dull to percussion and absence of breath sounds. A pleural friction rub may also be present. The other listed signs are not typically associated with a pleural effusion.
The nurse is explaining the safe and effective administration of nasal spray to a patient with seasonal allergies. What information is most important to include in this teaching?
Answer: Overuse of nasal spray may cause rebound congestion. Rationale: The use of topical decongestants is controversial because of the potential for a rebound effect. The patient should hold his or her head back for maximal distribution of the spray. Only the patient should use the bottle.
A nurse educator is reviewing the indications for chest drainage systems with a group of medical nurses. What indications should the nurse identify? (Select all that apply)
Answer: Post thoracotomy, spontaneous pneumothorax, chest trauma resulting in pneumothorax Rationale: Chest drainage systems are used in treatment of spontaneous pneumothorax and trauma resulting in pneumothorax. Postural drainage and pleurisy are not criteria for use of a chest drainage system.
The nurse has noted the emergence of a significant amount of fresh blood at the drain site of a patient who is postoperative day 1 following total laryngectomy. How should the nurse respond to this development?
Answer: Rapidly assess the patient and notify the surgeon about the patient's bleeding. Rationale: The nurse promptly notifies the surgeon of any active bleeding, which can occur at a variety of sites, including the surgical site, drains, and trachea. The drain should not be removed or connected to suction. Supine positioning would exacerbate the bleeding. Vitamin K would not be administered without an order.
A patient with emphysema is experiencing shortness of breath. To relieve this patient's symptoms, the nurse should assist her into what position?
Answer: Sitting upright, leaning forward slightly Rationale: The typical posture of a person with COPD is to lean forward and use the accessory muscles of respiration to breathe. Low Fowler's positioning would be less likely to aid oxygenation. Prone or Trendelenburg positioning would exacerbate shortness of breath.
A 54-year-old man has just been diagnosed with small cell lung cancer. The patient asks the nurse why the doctor is not offering surgery as a treatment for his cancer. What fact about lung cancer treatment should inform the nurse's response?
Answer: Small cell cancer of the lung grows rapidly and metastasizes early and extensively . Rationale: Surgery is primarily used for NSCLCs, because small cell cancer of the lung grows rapidly and metastasizes early and extensively. Difficult visualization and a patient's medical instability are not the limiting factors. Lung cancer is not a self-limiting disease. (I'm pretty sure this one was on there.)
The nurse is caring for a 46-year-old patient recently diagnosed with the early stages of lung cancer. The nurse is aware that the preferred method of treating patients with non-small cell tumors is what?
Answer: Surgical resection Rationale: Surgical resection is the preferred method of treating patients with localized non-small cell tumors with no evidence of metastatic spread and adequate cardiopulmonary function. The other listed treatment options may be considered, but surgery is preferred.
An older adult patient has been diagnosed with COPD. What characteristic of the patient's current health status would preclude the safe and effective use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI)?
Answer: The patient has severe arthritis in her hands. Rationale: Safe and effective MDI use requires the patient to be able to manipulate the device independently, which may be difficult if the patient has arthritis. Smoking does not preclude MDI use. A modest loss of vision does not preclude the use of an MDI and a patient can safely use more than one MDI.
While assessing the patient, the nurse observes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the patients closed chest-drainage system. What should the nurse conclude?
Answer: The system has an air leak. Rationale: Constant bubbling in the chamber often indicates an air leak and requires immediate assessment and intervention. The patient with a pneumothorax will have intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber. If the tube is obstructed, the nurse should notice that the fluid has stopped fluctuating in the water-seal chamber. (His answer said something like the tube became dislodged.)
A patient with a severe exacerbation of COPD requires reliable and precise oxygen delivery. Which mask will the nurse expect the physician to order?
Answer: Venturi mask Rationale: The Venturi mask provides the most accurate method of oxygen delivery. Other methods of oxygen delivery include the aerosol mask, tracheostomy collar, and face tents, but these do not match the precision of a Venturi mask.
