EXAM 3 Microbiology

Antiviral for Treating HIV/AIDS: - Antiretroviral: * nucleoside analog = Zidovudine * nucleotide analog = Tenofovir * non-nucleoside inhibitors = Nevirapine * protease inhibitors = Atazanavir * Integrase inhibitors = Raltegravir * Entry inhibitors = ________ = binds to CCR5 and inhibits the ability of gp120 to bind to CD4+ receptor on the T helper cell. * fusion inhibitors = Enfuvirtide

* Maraviroc (miraviroc)

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID): - Extensive bacterial infection of the female pelvic organs. - Polymicrobial infection, usually; * ________ and _________. - Chronic ________ pain. - __________: infection of the uterine tubes. * most serious form of PID. * scarring can cause infertility or _________. - Treatment with _______ and ______.

* N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis - abdominal - salpingitis * ectopic pregnancy - doxycycline and cefoxitin

Type II (Cytotoxic) Reactions: - Rh blood group system * _________ antigen (___) found on RBCs of 85% of the population. * Rh+ blood given to an Rh- recipient will stimulate _______ antibodies in the recipient. - ____________: Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus causes the mother to produce anti-Rh antibodies/ second Rh+ fetus will receive _________ (cross the placenta= _____ antibodies) = damage fetal RBCs.

* Rh factor (Rh+) * anti-Rh - hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDNB)/ anti-Rh antibodies (IgG)

- Inhibiting Cell Wall Synthesis: * Penicillins prevent the synthesis of _________ (prevents the cross-linkage of the NAG/NAM (carbohydrates) and the protein = prevents covalent bond). * work well against _______ bacteria.

* peptidoglycan * gram-positive

- Injury to the Plasma Membrane: * polypeptide antibiotics change membrane ________. * _________ drugs combine with membrane sterols (topical) = disruption of membrane = leak insides and die = Polymyxin B does this!

* permeability * antifungal

Bacterial Diseases of the Reproductive Systems: - Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs): * also known as _________. * often no signs or symptoms. * over 30 types of infections. * 15 million new cases in the United States annually. * treatment with ________ and prevented with _______. - The facts about STDs: * half of all sexually active people will get an STD by age 25. * 80% of sexually active people will have HPV at some point. * STDs are starting to show antibiotic resistance. * why are STDs on the rise: substance abuse and people not using condoms. * what are the most common STDs: chlamydia (the most common), gonorrhea, syphilis, HPV, and HIV.

* sexually transmitted infections (STIs). * antibiotics/ condoms

Type II (Cytotoxic) Reactions: - Drug-Induced Cytotoxic Reactions: * ____________: platelets combine with drugs, forming a complex that is antigenic/ antibody and complement destroy platelets. Often misdiagnosed as ________. * _____________: drug-induced immune destruction of granulocytes. * ____________: drug-induced immune destruction of RBCs.

* thrombocytopenic purpura/ hemophilia * agranulocytosis * hemolytic anemia

Organs of the Human Urinary System: - Urinary system: * two kidneys, two ureters, one urinary bladder, and one urethra. - Infections prevented by: * _____ that prevent back flow to the kidneys. * ______ of urine. * mechanical flushing. - Urethra is shorter in females = leads to more infections! - Urinary system should be sterile!!!!

* valves * acidity

Cytomegalovirus Infections: - Cytomegalovirus (________) - Infected cells swell (_______, ________). - Latent in ______ blood cells. - May be asymptomatic or mild. - Transmitted across the placenta; may cause __________. - Transmitted sexually, by blood, or by transplanted tissue.

- (HHV-5) - (cyto-, mega-) - white - mental retardation

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS): - 1981: in the United States, a cluster of cases of Pneumocystis pneumonia, Kaposi's sarcoma, and loss of immune function are discovered in young homosexual men. - 1983: the discovery of a virus causing the loss of immune function (_______) * selectively infects _______ cells.

- (HIV) * T helper (CD4+)

The Action of Antimicrobial Drugs: - Inhibiting Protein Synthesis: * target bacterial ______ ribosomes. * examples: chloramphenicol, erythromycin, streptomycin, and tetracyclines

- * 70S

Antifungal Drugs: - Agents affecting fungal cell walls: * __________: inhibit the synthesis of beta-glucan - Agents affecting nucleic acids: * _________: cytosine analog interferes with RNA synthesis.

- * Echinocandins - * Flucytosine

Viral Diseases: - Infectious Mononucleosis (Mono): * _________ virus (HHV-4) * childhood infections are asymptomatic. * Transmitted via ________ (kissing, sharing drinks). * Characterized by proliferation of _________ and large lobed _________ in the blood. - Burkitt's Lymphoma: * _______ virus (HHV-4). * nasopharyngeal __________ * cancer in immunosuppressed individuals and in malaria and AIDS patients. - By age 30, almost 100% US population infected with EB virus.

- * Epstein-Barr * saliva * monocytes/ lymphocytes - * Epstein-Barr * carcinoma

Antibacterial Antibiotics: Inhibitors of Cell Wall Synthesis: - Natural Penicillins: * extracted from _______ cultures. * EX: ________ (injected) and ______ (oral). * _____ spectrum of activity * susceptible to ________ (beta-lactamases) = no longer can interfere with the peptidoglycan.

- * Penicillium * Penicillin G/ Penicillin V * narrow * penicillinases

Malaria: - Four species of causative agents: * __________ (benign malaria). * __________ (benign malaria). * __________ (benign malaria). * __________ (malignant malaria). - Vector: _________ - Definitive host: __________. ***** With vector diseases, the BIG push it to just get rid of the vectors!!!!

- * Plasmodium vivax * P. ovale * P. malariae * P. falciparum - Anopheles mosquito - Anopheles mosquito

Chickenpox and Shingles: - Viral diseases of the skin - Chickenpox: * also known as ________ * caused by __________ * transmitted via the ______ route. * causes pus-filled vesicles. * ________; severe complications of chickenpox = vomiting and brain dysfunction/ ______ use increases risk. * virus becomes latent in the ______ nerve ganglia * prevented by a _______ vaccine. - Shingles: * also known as _________ * reactivation of the latent ________ virus that moves along peripheral nerves to the skin (1 in 3 will get this)/ due to stress or lowered immunity. * follows the distribution of affected cutaneous sensory nerves/ limited to one side of the body. * prevention via the _________.

- * Varicella * herpesvirus varicella-zoster (human herpesvirus 3) * respiratory * Reye's syndrome/ aspirin * central * live attenuated - * herpes zoster * varicella-zoster * zoster vaccine

The Progression of HIV Infection: - Phase 1: * ________ or chronic lymphadenopathy. * 1. about 2 months following initial infection, the population of HIV in the blood peaks at about 10 million per ml. * 2. population of _____ cells plunges during acute phase of HIV infection, then recovers as immune response appears. * 3. __________: detectable antibodies against HIV appear. Immune response causes rapid decline in HIV population. * 4. HIV in blood stabilizes at steady rate of 1000 to 10000 per ml (latent). - Phase 2: * symptomatic; early indication of _______ failure. * 5. CD4+ T cell population ______ steadily. * 6. Clinical _____ or chronic HIV infection can last up to 10 years or longer, HIV continues to multiply. - Phase 3: * _______ indicator conditions. * 7. clinical AIDS; CD4+ T cell population drops to _____ cells/microliter. * 8. HIV levels in blood ______ as the immune system breaks down/ most people won't die from this but will rather die from a ______ infection that can't be cleared by the weakened immune system.

- * asymptomatic 2. CD4+ T cells 3. seroconversion - * immune 5. declines 6. latency - * AIDS 7. 200 8. rises/ secondary

Antibacterial Antibiotics: Inhibitors of Cell Wall Synthesis: - Penicillin: * contains a _______ ring = types are differentiated by the chemical side chains attached to the ring (part that interacts with the enzymes that create the cross-linkage in the peptidoglycan = active site of penicillin). * prevent the cross-linkage of peptidoglycan, interfering with _______ construction (especially GRAM +).

- * beta-lactam * cell wall

Syphilis: - Primary stage: * _______ at the site of infection about 3 weeks after exposure = painless and highly infectious = disappears after 2 weeks. - Secondary stage: * skin and mucosal _______, especially on the palms and soles = due to an inflammatory response. - Latent period: * no symptoms - Tertiary stage: * appears years after latency = due to __________ immune reactions. * ___________: gummas on many organs. * ___________: weakens the aorta. * _________: affects the CNS; dementia. - _________: neurological damage to the fetus.

- * chancre - * rashes - * cell-mediated * gummatous syphilis * cardiovascular syphilis * neurosyphilis - congenital syphilis

Malaria: - Prophylaxis: * _________ (accumulates in digestive vacuoles in mosquito). * ________: atovaquone and proguanil. * _________ - Treatment after infection: * _________: artesunate and artemether (acts on the parasite during the merozoite stage). - Control: * bed nets (Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation) * Notes (2015): 3.15 billion at risk/ 214 million cases/ 438,000 deaths (90% in Africa/ 70% under age 5).

- * chloroquine * malarone * mefloquine - * artemisinin

Some Diseases Commonly Associated with AIDS: - Protozoa: * Cryptosporidium hominis = persistent _______ * Toxoplasma gondii = _________ * Isospora belli = _________. - Viruses: * __________: fever, encephalitis, and blindness. * _______ virus: vesicles of skin and mucous membranes * Varicella-zoster virus: ________. - Bacteria: * Mycobacterium tuberculosis: _________ * M. avian-intracellulare = may infect many organs = gastroenteritis and other highly variable symptoms. - Fungi: * Pneumocystis jirovecii = life-threatening _________ * Histoplasma capsulatum = _______ infection. * Cryptococcus neoformans = disseminated, but especially _______. * Candida albicans = overgrowth on ____ and ______ mucous membranes (phase 2 stage of HIV infection). * C. albicans = overgrowth in _____ and _____ (phase 3 stage of HIV infection). - Cancers or Precancerous Conditions: * _______: cancer of skin and blood vessels (caused by human herpesvirus 8). * ______: whitish patches on mucous membranes; commonly considered precancerous. * _______: abnormal cervical growth.

- * diarrhea * encephalitis * gastroenteritis - * cytomegalovirus * herpes simplex * shingles - * tuberculosis - * pneumonia * disseminated * meningitis * oral and vaginal * esophagus and lungs - * Kaposi's sarcoma * hairy leukoplakia * cervical dysplasia

Syphilis: - Microscopic tests: * __________ with monoclonal antibodies. - Nontreponemal serological tests (not against the bacteria itself but rather for the antigens on their surface): * slide agglutination _______ test. * ________ test. - Treponemal-type serological tests (for the bacteria itself): * _________ and __________ - Treatment with _________ and ________.

- * direct fluorescent-antibody test (DFA-TP) - * VDRL * rapid plasma reagin (RPR) - * enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS) - benzathine and penicillin

Antifungal Drugs: - Agents affecting fungal sterols: * interrupt the synthesis of _______, making the membrane excessively permeable. 1. _________: produced by Streptomyces (a bacteria)/ toxic to the kidneys (low selective toxicity = can damage our cells). 2. Azoles: * _________: topical/ treat cutaneous mycoses * ________: treat systemic fungal infections. 3. ________: for azole-resistant infections.

- * ergosterol 1. Amphotericin B 2. * Imidazoles * Triazole 3. Allylamines

- Staphylococci: * spherical _______ bacteria; form irregular clusters. * many produce ________: enzyme that clots fibrin in the blood/ used to identify types of staphylococci

- * gram-positive * coagulase

Diseases Related to Specific HLAs: - People with certain HLAs have a high risk of getting these diseases! - Inflammatory Diseases: * __________: progressive inflammatory disease affecting nervous system. * __________: cross-reaction with antibodies against streptococcal antigen. - Endocrine Diseases: * __________: deficiency in production of hormone by adrenal gland. * _________: disorder in which antibodies attached to certain receptors in the thyroid gland cause it to enlarge and produce excessive hormones. - Malignant Disease: * ___________: cancer of lymph nodes.

- * multiple sclerosis * rheumatic fever - * Addison's disease * Graves' disease - * Hodgkin's disease

Antibacterial Antibiotics: Inhibitors of Cell Wall Synthesis: - Semisynthetic Penicillins: * contain chemically added side chains, making them resistant to __________. * EX: _______: narrow spectrum (only Gram +) but resistant to penicillinases * EX: _______: extended spectrum (many Gram -).

- * penicillinases * Oxacillin * Ampicillin

Amebic Meningoencephalitis: - Protozoan diseases of the nervous system. - Naegleria fowleri: * causes ___________ * protozoan infects the ________ from swimming in warm water, penetrates the brain, and feeds on brain tissue. * "ONE HUNDRED percent fatal". - Acanthamoeba: * causes ___________ * ________ form around the site of infection, forming multiple lesions around the brain.

- * primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) - * granulomatous amebic encephalitis (GAE) * granulomas

Antiviral Drugs: - Interference with assembly and release of viral particles: * ________ inhibitors: block the cleavage of protein precursors. - Exit inhibitors: * inhibit ________, an enzyme required for some viruses to bud from the host cell.

- * protease - * neuraminidase

Antiviral Drugs: - Entry and Fusion Inhibitors: * block the ________ on the host cell that bind to the virus/ block ______ of the virus and cell. - Uncoating: * prevent viral uncoating - Genome Integration: * inhibit viral _________ into the host genome. - Nucleic Acid Synthesis Inhibitors: * _______ analogs inhibit RNA or DNA synthesis/ EX: _________

- * receptors/ fusion - * DNA integration - * nucleoside/ Acyclovir

Which of the following is true regarding systemic anaphylactic reactions?

- A systemic reaction can be fatal in only a few minutes. - Systemic reactions can result in a dramatic decrease in blood pressure. - Systemic reactions are commonly associated with injected antigens.

The ABO Blood Group System: - Type A: _____ antigen on RBC/ ______ plasma antibodies/ can receive type _____ or _____ blood. - Type B: _____ antigen on RBC/ ______ plasma antibodies/ can receive type _____ or _____ blood. - Type AB: _____ antigen on RBC/ ______ plasma antibodies/ can receive type _____ blood. - Type O: _____ antigen on RBC/ ______ plasma antibodies/ can receive type _____ blood. - Universal donor = ______/ universal acceptor = _______

- A/ anti-B/ A or O - B/ anti-A/ B or O - A and B/ no/ A, B, AB, or O - no/ anti-A and anti-B/ O - O/ AB

Protozoan Disease of the Nervous System: - ___________: Trypanosoma brucei gambiense * humans are the only reservoir. - T. b. rhodesiense * reservoir in livestock and wild animals. - Transmitted from animals to humans by __________ * distributed in west and central Africa. - Few early symptoms, followed by fever, headache, and deterioration of the CNS. - Parasite evades antibodies through __________. * difficult for vaccine development. - Treated with _________; cross the blood-brain barrier; blocks an enzyme necessary for the parasite. - Prevention: elimination of tsetse fly vectors.

- African trypanosomiasis - tsetse fly - antigenic variation - eflornithine

Select all of the statements that describe a mechanism that would enable a microorganism to resist the action of an antibiotic.

- Altered porins in the cell wall block passage of antibiotic through the cell wall. - An enzyme that destroys the antibiotic is produced. - A microbe develops a transport mechanism in the plasma membrane that rapidly pumps antibiotic out of the bacterial cell. - Target site is modified, so that an antibiotic is unable to bind to its target.

Chagas' Disease: - Protozoan disease! - Also called _________. - Causative agent: ___________ * feeds on blood and reproduces in the circulatory and lymphatic systems. - Reservoir: _______, _______, and _______. - Vector: _________ * called the kissing bug because it often bites near the lips.

- American trypanosomiasis - Trypanosoma cruzi - rodents, opossums, and armadillos - reduviid bug

Select all of the statements that accurately describe the origins and spread of antibiotic resistance.

- Antibiotic-resistance genes can be passed from one bacterium to another by bacterial transformation. - Antibiotic-resistance genes can be passed horizontally via transduction. - Antibiotic-resistance genes can be passed horizontally via bacterial conjugation. - Mutations are the ultimate source of antibiotic-resistance genes. - Antibiotic resistance is readily transmitted to the next generation during binary fission. - Antibiotics select for those microbes that have developed resistance, increasing their frequency in the bacterial population.

Which other recommendations will any pregnant mother be given in order to prevent exposure to pathogens that can be vertically transmitted? Select all statements that are correct.

- Avoid cleaning cat litter boxes to prevent exposure to Toxoplasma gondii.

Anthrax: - Caused by _________ = bacterial. * Gram-positive, endospore-forming aerobic rod. - Found in _______, cattle are routinely vaccinated. - Treated with _________ (DNA replication inhibition) or _________ (protein synthesis inhibition). - ___________: endospores enter through minor cut = 20% mortality. - __________: ingestion of undercooked, contaminated food = 50% mortality. - __________: inhalation of endospores, germinate in lungs, enter bloodstream and replicate, septic shock = 100% mortality.

- Bacillus anthracis - soil - ciprofloxacin/ doxycycline - cutaneous anthrax - gastrointestinal anthrax - inhalational (pulmonary) anthrax

Lyme Disease: - Vector-transmitted bacterial disease: - Causative agent: _________. - Reservoir: __________. - Vector: _______ (susceptible to high temperature, low humidity = thrive in northeast area of the US). - First symptom: _________ rash. - Second phase: irregular heartbeat, encephalitis. - Third phase: arthritis. - PRINTED PICTURE!!!!

- Borrelia burgdorferi - deer - ticks - bull's-eye

Fungal Disease of the Reproductive System: Candidiasis: - Caused by _________. * grows on the mucosa of the mouth, the intestinal tract, and the genitourinary tract. * due to __________ caused by: antibiotic use, diabetes, and/or hormones. - ____________: thrush. - ____________: vaginitis (yeast infection). - Yeasty, thick, yellow discharge - Treatment with _______ or _________.

- C. albicans * opportunistic overgrowth - oral candidiasis - vulvovaginal candidiasis - clotrimazole or fluconazole

Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV): - Caused by ________. - Infects the _______ tissue. * regional lymph nodes become enlarged and tender. * discharge of pus and scarring. - Diagnosis with _______ for antibodies to the organism. - Treatment with ________.

- C. trachomatis - lymphoid - blood test - doxycycline

Candidiasis: - Overgrowth of ________ (yeast = normal microbiota). * forms ________, making it resistant to phagocytosis. - Occurs in the skin and mucous membrane of the genitourinary tract and mouth. * _________: infection of the oral cavity. * _________: infection of the vagina. * _________: infection of the skin and nails. - Results when ______ suppress competing bacteria or a change occurs in the mucosal ______. - Fulminating (occurs suddenly and escalates quickly) disease in the immunosuppressed.

- Candida albicans * pseudohyphae - * thrush * vaginal yeast infection * cutaneous candidiasis - antibiotics/ pH

The two most common STI organisms associated with PID in the United States are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. There are many similarities between these STIs. Which of the following statements comparing chlamydia and gonorrhea are true? Select all statements that are TRUE.

- Chlamydia and gonorrhea can infect a patient and be transmitted without causing obvious symptoms. - Chlamydia is found more often in women, whereas gonorrhea is found more often in men. - Patients may be coinfected with both gonorrhea and chlamydia.

Trachoma: - Caused by some serotypes of ________. - Leading cause of ______ worldwide. - Transmitted via hand contact or flies. - Infection causes permanent scarring; scars abrade the _______, leading to blindness. * secondary infections can also be a factor. - Oral ________ are used in treatment.

- Chlamydia trachomatis - blindness - cornea - azithromycin

Botulism: - Caused by __________ * Gram-positive, endospore forming, obligate anaerobe (bacterial) - Intoxication comes from ingesting the ___________ (most potent toxin known; 1ng/kg lethal dose) * specific for the synaptic end of the nerve. * blocks release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, causing _____________. - Death usually comes from _______ or ________ failure.

- Clostridium botulinum - botulinal exotoxin * flaccid paralysis (everything relaxes) - respiratory or cardiac

Tetanus: - Caused by __________ * Gram-positive, endospore-forming, obligate anaerobe (bacterial) - Grows in deep wounds with _______ conditions. - __________ (TeNT) exotoxin released from vegetative cells. * enters CNS * blocks the relaxation pathway in muscles, causing muscle spasms (death occurs from spasms of ________ muscles). Also experience lock jaw. - Prevented by vaccination with a tetanus ______ (DTaP) * stimulates antibodies that neutralize the toxin. * booster required every 10 years. - Fewer than 50 cases per year. * mortality of 25-50% - Treatment with tetanus immune globulin (TIG). - Infected tissue removed via _________.

- Clostridium tetani - anaerobic - Tetanospasmin * (respiratory) - toxoid - debridement

Cryptococcus neoformans Meningitis - Also called __________ - Fungal disease of the nervous system - _____ fungus associated with pigeon and chicken droppings. - Transmitted by the _______ route through dried contaminated droppings. - In the immunocompromised, it spreads through blood of the CNS. - Mortality of up to 30%. - Treatment: _______ and _______ (have side effects because they are eukaryotic cells).

- Cryptococcosis - soil - respiratory - amphotericin B and flucytosine

Pyelonephritis: - 75% of cases caused by ________. - Fever and back or flank pain. - Generally results in _________. - Can form ________ in kidneys and become life-threatening. - Diagnosis: > 10,000 CFU/ml and a positive LE test. - Treatment with _________.

- E. coli - bacteremia - scar tissue - cephalosporin

Cystitis: - Commonly caused by _______; also __________. - Causes: _______ (difficult or painful urination) and _______ (pus in the urine). - Eight times more common in women than men. * due to the short length of the urethra. - Diagnosis: > 100 CFU/ml of potential pathogens and a positive leukocyte esterase (LE) test. - Treatment with ___________.

- E. coli/ Staphylococcus saprophyticus - dysuria/ pyuria - trimethoprim-sulfamethexazole

History of Chemotherapy: - Early 20th century: _______ staining bacteria and not surrounding tissue. * speculated about a ________ that would kill pathogens but not host. * began the discussion of ________ and _________. - 1928: _________ discovered penicillin, produced by Penicillium. - 1932: _______ used for streptococcal infections (first sulfonamide drug). * inhibits the biochemical pathway of folic acid production. - 1940: first clinical trails of _______. - Today there is a growing problem of _______.

- Ehrlich * magic bullet * chemotherapy and selective toxicity - Fleming - Prontosil red dye - penicillin - antibiotic resistance

There are numerous examples of microorganisms displaying each of the four major resistance mechanisms. In this activity, you are asked to identify the mechanism that each example best illustrates.

- Enzymatic Inactivation of the Antibiotic: * Many strains of Neisseria gonorrhoeae are resistant to penicillin because of the production of β-lactamases. - Prevention of Penetration to the Target Site within the Microbe: * Resistance to tetracycline may result from modified pore proteins in the outer membrane that form a porin too small for the tetracycline to pass through. - Alteration of the Drug's Target Site: * Resistance to clindamycin develops when mutations in bacteria alter the ribosomal binding site to which clindamycin would normally bind. * MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) is resistant to all β-lactam drugs because of a mutation in its penicillin-binding protein (PBP). - Rapid Efflux of the Antibiotic: * Pseudomonas aeruginosa has membrane pumps that export a number of different antibiotics from its cells.

Streptococcal Skin Infections: - _________: S. pyogenes infects the dermal layer of the skin, causing local tissue destruction and sepsis. - __________: "flesh-eating" disease * ________ produced by S. pyogenes acts as a superantigen. - Streptococcal _________: similar to Staphylococcal TSS. * exotoxin A not TSST-1!

- Erysipelas - Necrotizing fasciitis * exotoxin A - toxic shock syndrome

Bacterial Vaginosis: - Caused by ___________. * pleomorphic Gram-negative rod - _________: inflammation of the vagina due to infection. - _________: no sign of inflammation (is the actual disease). - Diagnosis: * pH _____ 4.5, _____ odor (from amines), copious frothy discharge. * ____ cells (sloughed-off vaginal epithelial cells covered with a ________ of G. vaginalis). - Treatment with __________ (_______). * inhibits DNA synthesis.

- Gardnerella vaginalis - vaginitis - vaginosis - * above/ fishy * clue/ (biofilm) - metronidazole (Flagyl)

Antifungal Drugs: - _________: produced by Penicillium (a fungus)/ inhibits microtubule formation/ active against superficial dermatophytes. - _________; for athlete's foot. - ________: anti-Pneumocystis/ may bind to DNA.

- Griseofulvin - Tolnaftate - Pentamidine

Subtypes of HIV: - SO MANY DIFFERENT TYPES OF DISEASES = STARTS NUMBERING THEM! - ______ and ______ - HIV-1: * related to viruses that infect ______ and ______. * 99% of cases * Group ____ (majority) accounts for 90%. - HIV-2: * related to viruses that infect ______ and ______. * not often encountered outside of Africa. * less ______ than HIV-1.

- HIV-1 and HIV-2 - * chimpanzees and gorillas * M - * monkeys and sooty mangabeys * pathogenic

Reactions Related to the Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) Complex: - ________ identifies and compares HLAs. - In ________ surgery, the donor and the recipient must be matched by tissue typing. * uses standardized ________ or ___________ specific for HLAs.

- HLA typing - transplant * antisera or monoclonal antibodies

Bacterial Meningitis: - __________: Gram-negative aerobic bacteria; normal throat microbiota. * prevented by the Hib vaccine. * accounts for 45% of bacterial meningitis cases; 6% mortality. - ___________ (________) * Gram-negative aerobic cocci with a capsule. * forty percent of people are healthy nasopharyngeal carriers. * mortality of 9-12% with antibiotic therapy; 80% without. * outbreaks common in dorms and military barracks. - ___________ (_________): * Gram-positive encapsulated diplococcus * seventy percent of people are healthy nasopharyngeal carriers. * also causes _______ and _______ * most common in children (1 month to 4 years) * mortality; 30% in children, 80% in elderly. * prevented with ______ vaccine.

- Haemophilus influenzae meningitis - Neisseria meningitidis meningitis (meningococcal meningitis) - Streptococcus pneumoniae meningitis (pneumococcal meningitis) * pneumonia and otitis media * conjugated

Leprosy: - Also called _______. - Caused by ____________. * acid-fast rod that grows best at 30 degrees C (bacterial) * generation time of 12 days * grows in peripheral nerves and skin cells (survives _______ and invades the _________) - Transmission requires prolonged contact with an infected person or the inhalation of secretions. - _________ (neural) form: loss of sensation in skin areas. - ________ (progressive) form: disfiguring nodules over the body; mucous membranes are affected. - Cases increasing due to infected immigrants from endemic countries. - Diagnosed with a ________ or ________. - Treatment with antibiotics for 6 to 24 months. * __________: inhibits folic acid synthesis similar to sulfonamides. * __________: inhibits bacterial RNA-polymerase.

- Hansen's disease - Mycobacterium leprae * (macrophages/ myelin sheath) - tuberculoid - lepromatous - skin biopsy or skin smear * Dapsone * Rifampin

In microbiology class, a pregnant student learned about the TORCH test. This panel of tests was originally developed to screen mothers for antibodies to microbes that can harm their fetuses. Which of the following microbes and diseases are included in the TORCH test?

- Herpes - Measles - Chickenpox - Rubella

Which of the following mediators are involved in anaphylactic reactions? - T cells - B cells - IgE - mast cells - basophils - IgM

- IgE - mast cells - basophils

An indirect immunofluorescence assay is described as the CDC "gold standard serological test" for RMSF. Keeping in mind the principles behind indirect fluorescent-antibody (indirect FA) testing, which of the following characteristics contributes to its choice as the gold standard?

- Indirect FA is more sensitive than direct immunofluorescent testing. - Indirect FA is rapid, sensitive, and specific. - Indirect FA will detect R. rickettsii-specific antibodies present in the patient's serum. - Indirect FA uses an antibody that reacts with any human antibody.

The Structure of HIV: - Genus = _________ - ________: RNA virus. - Two identical strands of ______, ________ enzyme, and contains a phospholipid _________. - ______ glycoprotein spikes. * is the attachment site to T helper cells.

- Lentivirus - Retrovirus - RNA/ reverse transcriptase/ envelope - gp120

Leptospirosis: - Caused by __________. * fine spiral; stains poorly; Gram negative; obligate aerobe (is a zoonosis). - Transmitted by skin/mucosal contact with ___________ from domestic or wild animals. - Headaches, muscular aches, fever * kidney failure (___________) * pulmonary hemorrhagic syndrome. - Treatment with ________ (inhibits protein synthesis). - On the rise infectious disease around the world!!!!!

- Leptospira interrogans - urine contaminated water * (Weil's disease) - doxycycline

Emerging Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers: - _______________: * transmitted from African monkeys (reservoir). * headache, high fever, vomiting blood, profuse bleeding internally and externally. - _____________: * Arenavirus; found in rodent urine. * found in West Africa. - ____________: * caused by the Sin Nombre virus. * fatal pulmonary infection; lungs fill with fluids. * found in the western United States. - ___________: * caused by the Ebolavirus; a _______ similar to the Marburg virus. * reservoir is the cave-dwelling fruit bat near the Ebola River in Africa. * spread by contact with infected body fluids. * damages blood vessel walls and interferes with ____________ = blood leaks into surrounding tissue. * mortality rate of 90%.

- Marburg virus (green monkey virus) - Lassa fever - Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome - Ebola hemorrhagic fever * filovirus * coagulation

Ophthalmia: - Caused by _________. - Large amount of pus forms; ulceration of ________ results. * untreated cases may lead to blindness. - Transmitted to a newborn's eyes during passage through the birth canal. - Prevented by treating a newborn's eyes with _________ at birth.

- Neisseria gonorrhoeae - corneas - antibiotics

Gonorrhea: - Caused by ________. * Gram-negative diplococcus - 300,000 cases in the U.S. annually. - Attaches to the epithelial mucosa by the _________. * invades the spaces between the columnar epithelial cells = causes inflammation and forms pus. - Can be acquired at any point of sexual contact: * cervical, urethral, pharyngeal, rectal.

- Neisseria gonorrhoeae - fimbriae

Antihelminthic Drugs: - _________: prevents ATP production/ treats tapeworms - ________: alters membrane permeability/ treats tapeworms and flukes. - _________ and ________; interfere with nutrient absorption/ treat intestinal helminths - _________: paralysis of helminths/ treats roundworms and mites

- Niclosamide - Praziquantel - Mebendazole and albendazole - Ivermectin

Warts: - Viral disease of the skin - Caused by __________ * some cause skin and cervical cancers (HPV) - ________: small skin growths. - Transmitted via contact. - Treated with cryotherapy, electrodesiccation, or salicylic acid

- Papillomavirus - Papillomas

Antiprotozoan Drugs: - _______ and ______: treat malaria - ________: kills Plasmodium (parasite) that causes malaria. - ________: also interferes with anaerobic bacteria/ treats Trichomonas, giardiasis, and amebic dysentery

- Quinine and chloroquine - Artemisinin - Metronidazole (Flagyl)

Typhus: - Vector-transmitted bacterial disease. - _______ spp. (species): * obligate intracellular parasites. * in endothelial cells of the vascular system. * arthropod vector. - Epidemic typhus: * causative agent: ___________. * reservoir: ________. * vector: ___________ (body louse) * transmitted when louse feces are rubbed into bite wound. - Endemic murine typhus: * causative agent: ___________. * reservoir: __________. * vector: __________ = also vector for the plague!!!!.

- Rickettsia - * Rickettsia prowazekii * rodents * Pediculus humanus corporis/ or humanus - * Rickettsia typhi * rodents * Xenopsylla cheopis

Spotted Fevers: - Also called ____________ * tick borne typhus (vector) - Caused by __________. - Measles-like rash, except that the rash also appears on palms and soles. - PRINTED PICTURES!!!!!

- Rocky Mountain spotted fever - Rickettsia rickettsii

Measles - Viral disease of the skin - Virus that causes measles = ______ - Viral disease transmitted by the ______ route. - Cold-like symptoms, macular rash - Encephalitis in 1 in 1000 cases. - ____________: rare; occurs 1 to 10 years after measles recovery; progressive neurological disorder. - Prevented by the ______ vaccine.

- Rubeola - respiratory - subacute sclerosing panencephalitis - MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)

The Origin of AIDS: - _____ crossed over into the human population in west and central Africa from chimpanzees (around 1908, from bushmeat). - Spread throughout Africa as a result of _________ and increased sexual promiscuity. - Patient who died in 1959 in the Congo is the oldest known case. - Norwegian sailor who died in 1976 is the first known case in Western world.

- SIV - urbanization

Staphylococcal Types on Skin: - _________: ninety percent of normal skin microbiota. * healthcare-associated pathogen * produces _______ on catheters * coagulase-__________ - _________: carried in the nasal passages of 20% of the population. * ________ colonies * coagulase-________ * may produce damaging toxins and cause _______(exotoxins). * avoids host defenses in the skin: secretes _______ and _______ that kill phagocytic cells. * ______ strains are antibiotic-resistant.

- Staphylococcus epidermidis * biofilms * negative - Staphylococcus aureus * golden-yellow * positive * sepsis * proteins and toxins * MRSA (methicillin resistant S. aureus)

- ___________: gram-positive cocci in chains. * produce ________ that lyse RBCs. * ________ streptococci often cause disease: streptococci differentiated into groups A through T based on antigenic cell wall _________. - Group A Streptococci (GAS), also known as ____________. * produce virulence factors: 1. _________ = lyse RBCs/ 2. ______ external to the cell wall; allow adherence and immune system avoidance.

- Streptococci * hemolysins * beta-hemolytic/ carbohydrates - Streptococcus pyogenes * 1. Streptolysins/ 2. M proteins

Cell-Mediated Autoimmune Reactions: - Mediated by ______ that attack tissues. * ___________: T cell destruction of insulin-secreting cells. * ______ and ______: autoimmune disorders of the skin.

- T cells * insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus * psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis

Reactions to Transplantation: - Doctors try to get around the destruction of the organ by doing the tissue tests. * close genetically to the person (immediate family) the more like the HLA is to be close = compatibility. - Transplants may be attacked by ______, _______, and ______ fixing antibodies. - Transplants to a _________ and ________ do not cause an immune response. * EX: ______ transplants and _______ transplants (ON EXAM!!!!)

- T cells, macrophages, and complement - privileged site and privileged tissue * cornea/ heart valve

RMSF results from the interactions that occur between the R. rickettsii pathogen and the host. The infection results from a coordinated series of events that ultimately result in disease. Apply your knowledge of bacterial pathogenesis and the symptoms of RMSF to predict the order of events that occur during RMSF.

- Tick bites transmit R. rickettsii into bloodstream - R. rickettsii travels throughout the body via the blood and lymph systems. - R. rickettsii invades endothelial cells of blood vessels. - R. rickettsii multiples within host cells. - Blood begins to escape from vessels as a result of increased vascular permeability. - Symptoms, such as macular rash, develop.

Staphylococcal Skin Infections: - ____________; fever, vomiting, shock, and organ failure caused by TSS toxin 1 (TSST-1) in the bloodstream. * more common in young females

- Toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

Toxoplasmosis: - Protozoan disease! - Causative agent: __________ - Transmission: * ingesting undercooked meat * contact with _____ feces. - Congenital infection: * _______ and neurological damage. - PRINTED PICTURE!!!!

- Toxoplasma gondii * cat * stillbirth

Syphilis: - Caused by ___________: * Gram-negative spirochete. - Invades the mucosa or through skin breaks and enters the bloodstream. - Induces an _______ response. - Some strains cause ________: * skin disease is not sexually transmitted. - Stable incidence in the United States.

- Treponema pallidum - inflammatory - yaws

Protozoan Disease of the Reproductive System: Trichomoniasis: - Caused by ____________. * normal inhabitant of the vagina and urethra. - Grows when normal acidity of the vagina is disturbed. - Irritation and a profuse foul, greenish yellow frothy discharge. - Diagnosis with microscopic identification or a DNA probe. - Treatment with ________ (______).

- Trichomonas vaginalis - metronidazole (Flagvl)

Brucellosis: - Also called _________ = bacterial. - Transmitted via ___________ and ______ from infected animals or contact with fluids from infected animals. * can cause endocarditis. - ______ spp. (species): * Gram-negative rods that grow in phagocytes. - _________: elk, bison, and cows. - _________: swine. - _________: goats, sheep, and camels. - Undulating fever spikes to 40 degrees C each evening (telltale sign).

- Undulant fever - unpasteurized milk and cheese - Brucella - B. abortus - B. suis - B. melitensis

Smallpox: - Viral disease of the skin - Also known as _______ - Caused by an _________ - Two forms of the disease: * _________ has a 20% mortality * _________ has less than 1% mortality - Transmitted via the ________ route, moves into the bloodstream, and infects the skin. - Completely eradicated from the human population by vaccination. - Potential bioterrorism agent.

- Variola - Orthropoxvirus - * Variola major * Variola minor - respiratory

The IV regimen administered by Ron's doctors is consistent with the CDC's recommendation that doxycycline be administered when RMSF is suspected. Apply your knowledge of RMSF to choose the most likely reasons behind this recommendation.

- Without prompt treatment, RMSF can have a mortality rate as high as 20%. - The symptoms of RMSF are similar to those of several other infections, making definitive diagnosis difficult. - A delay in treatment can lead to complications that include respiratory, cardiac, and renal failure. - Most tests that can definitively identify R. rickettsii are not very effective early in infection.

Plague: - Vector-transmitted bacterial disease. - Caused by __________ (causative agent). * Gram-negative rod. * Transmitted by the rat flea = __________ (vector). * endemic to rats, ground squirrels, and prairie dogs (which are known as the __________). - Bacteria blocks the flea's _______ tract. * flea bites the host and ingested blood is regurgitated into the host. - Bacteria enter the bloodstream and proliferate in the _______ tissue. * causes intense swellings called _________. - Antibiotics can treat infection! * need to be administered early.

- Yersinia pestis * Xenopsylla cheopis * (reservoirs) - digestive - lymph * buboes

- _______: skin cells shed in the hair follicles and combine with sebum, causing blockages. * most common skin disease in humans * sebum formation is affected by ________, not diet. 1. ___________: easily treated with topical formations. 2. __________: caused by Propionibacterium acnes = metabolizes ________ = fatty acids produce an inflammatory response. * treated with antibiotics and ________. 3. ___________: inflamed lesion with pus deep in the skin.

- acne * hormones 1. comedonal (mild) acne 2. inflammatory (moderate) acne/ sebum * benzoyl peroxide 3. nodular cystic (severe) acne

Immunodeficiencies: - Targets the ______ immune system = does not function properly. - EX: * _________: virus destroys CD4+ T cells; allows cancer and bacterial, viral, fungal, and protozoan diseases, caused by HIV infection. * _________: B and T cells affected; affect about 1 in 700, causing frequent mucosal infections; specific cause unknown. * _________: B and T cells affected (decreased immunoglobulins); frequent viral and bacterial infections; second most common immune deficiency, affecting about 1 in 70000; inherited. * _________: B, T, and stem cells affected (a combined immunodeficiency; deficiencies in B and T cells and neutrophils); usually fatal in early infancy; very rare; inherited; bone marrow transplant is a possible treatment. * ________: B, T, and stem cells affected (deficiency of both B and T cells); affect about 1 in 100000; allows severe infections; inherited; treated with bone marrow and fetal thymus transplants; gene therapy treatment is promising. * _________: T cells affected *defective thymus causes deficiency of T cells); absence of cell-mediated immunity; usually fatal in infancy from Pneumocystis pneumonia or viral or fungal infections; due to failure of the thymus to develop in embryo. * _________: B, T cells affected (few platelets in blood, abnormal T cells); frequent infections by viruses, fungi, protozoa; eczema, defective blood clotting; usually causes death in childhood; inherited on X chromosome. * __________: B cells affected (decreased immunoglobulins); frequent extracellular bacterial infections; affects about 1 in 200000; the first immunodeficiency disorder recognized (1952); inherited on X chromosome.

- adaptive (B and T cells) * acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) * selective IgA immunodeficiency * common variable hypogammaglobulinemia * reticular dysgenesis * severe combined immunodeficiency * thymic aplasia (DiGeorge syndrome) * Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome * X-linked infantile (Bruton's) agammaglobulinemia

Type 1 Reactions: - Known as ______ reactions. - Occurs _______ after a person sensitized to an antigen is reexposed to that antigen. - Antigens combine with _____ antibodies. - IgE attaches to _______ and _______. * mast cells and basophils undergo __________, which releases mediators. - _________: increases the permeability of blood capillaries. - _________: cause prolonged contraction of smooth muscle. - _________: affect smooth muscle and increase mucus secretion (part of fever response).

- anaphylactic - minutes - IgE - mast cells and basophils * degranulation - histamines - leukotrienes - prostaglandins

Cytotoxic Autoimmune Reactions: - ______ react with cell-surface antigens. * _________: abnormal antibodies in the thyroid produce excessive amounts of hormone. * ________: antibodies coat acetylcholine receptors; muscles fail to receive nerve signals.

- antibodies * Graves' disease * Myasthenia gravis

Immune Complex Autoimmune Reactions: - Immune complexes of _______ and _______ deposit in tissues. * __________: immune complexes form in the kidney glomeruli. * _________: immune complexes form in the joints.

- antibodies and complement * systemic lupus erythematosus * rheumatoid arthritis

Hypersensitivity: - Definition: ________ response beyond normal. - Occurs when sensitized by previous exposure to an _______ (__________). * ______: have already had initial exposure to an antigen. - Four types of hypersensitivity: _________, _________, _________, and _________. - ___________ suggests that limiting exposure to pathogens may lower immune tolerance and the ability to cope with harmless antigens.

- antigenic - antigen (allergen) * sensitized - anaphylactic, cytotoxic, immune complex, and delayed cell-mediated - hygiene hypothesis

The Stages of HIV Infection: - Phase 1: ________ or ________. - Phase 2: ______ decline steadily; only a few infected cells release the virus; few serious disease symptoms (______ infections, fever, and oral leukoplakia). - Phase 3: _____ develops; the _____ count below 200 cell/microliter; indicator conditions. - HIV + = ______ and ______/ AIDS = _______.

- asymptomatic or lymphadenopathy - CD4+ T cells/ (persistent) - AIDS/ CD4+ - Phase 1 and 2/ Phase 3

Graft - _______: use of one's own tissue - _______: use of identical twin's tissue - _______: use of tissue from another person. * start to run into compatibility issues. - _______: use of nonhuman tissue * must overcome ___________: is a response to nonhuman antigens. * highest probability to rejection! - ______________: can result from transplanted bone marrow that contains immunocompetent cells.

- autograft - isograft - allograft - xenotransplantation product * hyperacute rejection - graft-versus-host (GVH) disease

The Action of Antimicrobial Drugs: - ________: kill microbes directly - _______: prevent microbes from growing (NOT KILLING).

- bactericidal - bacteriostatic

Plague: - ___________: bacterial growth in the blood and lymph/ most common form; 50-75% mortality rate. - ___________: septic shock due to bacteria in the blood. - __________: bacteria in the lungs/ easily spread by airborne droplets/ near 100% mortality rate. - Picture: on the West coast: 100th meridian is sometimes called the plague line = vector only lives in the climates to the west.

- bubonic plague - septicemic plague - pneumonic plague

- _____________: circulates blood through the body's tissues. * includes the _______ and associated arteries, veins, and capillaries. * delivers substances to and removes substances from the cells. * ________ carry blood away from the heart. * ________ carry blood to the heart. * ________: gas exchange in the tissues occurs here (only one cell thick). - NO ... blood is not blue. - The faster you breathe, the more carbon dioxide is released (because it is toxic). - Remember pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins are the opposite!!!!!

- cardiovascular system * heart * arteries * veins * capillaries

Structure and Function of the Nervous System: - ______________; brain and spinal cord. - ______________; nerves that branch from the CNS. - ________ protect the brain and spinal cord. * ______, ________, and _______; outer, middle, and innermost layers, respectively (layers between encephalon and skull) * subarachnoid space (between arachnoid and pia mater) contains ____________ (shock absorbing layer/ concussion = gray matter comes in contact with the skull bone). - Blood-brain barrier * brain uses a lot of glucose and oxygen (hogs) - Gray matter = ________.

- central nervous system - peripheral nervous system - meninges * dura, arachnoid, and pia mater * cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) - encephalon

Chlamydia PID is just part of the overall spectrum of disease caused by Chlamydia organisms. Even though we now understand more about STIs and their complications, we are still exploring how the organisms "branch out" beyond just a single infection. Which of the following diseases have Chlamydia infection as an etiology? Select all diseases associated with Chlamydia.

- cervical cancer - trachoma - inclusion conjunctivitis - lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) - infertility - pneumonia

The History of Chemotherapy: - __________; the use of chemicals to treat a disease. - _________; selectively finding and destroying pathogens without damaging the host. - _________: a substance produced by a microorganism that, in small amounts, inhibits another microorganism. * comes from the word ________: an antagonistic association between two organisms (especially microorganisms), in which one is adversely affected. - ________: substances that interfere with the growth of microbes (broad term/ antibiotics are ONE example).

- chemotherapy - selective toxicity - antibiotics * antibiosis - antimicrobial drugs

Nervous System Diseases Caused by Prions: - __________: TSE in deer and elk. - __________: TSE in humans. - __________: TSE in humans that is caused by cannibalism. - __________: mad cow disease/ possibly due to cattle eating feed containing bone meal from scrapie-infected sheep. - __________: TSE in sheep. - Variant of CJD (vCJD) * occurs in younger individuals - Some forms of CJD may be inherited. - Prions are difficult to destroy via standard methods. * sterilization of surgical instruments by ______ with extended autoclaving at ______ degrees C.

- chronic wasting disease - Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) - kuru - bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) - sheep scrapie * NaOH/ 134

Preventing and Treating AIDS: - Use of _____ and discouraging sexual promiscuity. - Use of ______ needles - Availability of ________.

- condoms - sterile - medications

Genital Warts: - Also known as _________. - Caused by __________. - 25% of 14 - 59 year old women in the United States are infected. - Visible warts caused by serotypes _____ and ______. - Serotypes _____ and _____ cause cervical cancer * kills 4000 women in the United States annually. - Treatment via removal of warts; ________ and _______. - Prevention with the _______ and _______ vaccines.

- condyloma acuminata - human papillomaviruses - 6 and 11 - 16 and 18 - podofilox and imiquimod - Gardasil and Cervarix

Inflammation of the Eye Membranes: - _________: an inflammation of the conjunctiva. - Also called ______ or _______. - Commonly caused by __________; also caused by _________. - Can be caused by ________ associated with unsanitary contact lenses.

- conjunctivitis - red eye or pinkeye - Haemophilus influenzae/ adenoviruses - pseudomonads

Type IV (Delayed Cell-Mediated) Reactions: - Allergic _________ * ______ combine with proteins in the skin, producing an immune response. * allergic response to _______(urushiol = its hapten!), cosmetics, metals, and latex. * skin may _______, or you may get a raised red rash. your skin will itch and maybe burn. * contact dermatitis (_________) tends to BURN and be more painful than ITCHY.

- contact dermatitis * haptens * poison ivy * blister * (skin damage)

Subcutaneous Mycoses: - More serious than ______ mycoses (fungal infections). - Penetrate the _________. - Usually caused by fungi that inhabit the soil. - __________: caused by Sporothrix schenkii; dimorphic fungus * enters a wound; forms a small ulcer * treated with ________.

- cutaneous - stratum corneum - Sporotrichosis * potassium iodide

Type II Reactions: - Known as ______ reactions. - Activation of _______ by the combination of ______ or ______ antibodies with an antigenic cell. * causes cell _____ or damage by ________. - _______ group system. * antibodies form against certain _________ antigens on RBCs. - A antigens, B antigens, or both - Type _____ RBCs have no antigens. - AB = codominance

- cytotoxic - complement/ IgG or IgM * lysis/ macrophages - ABO blood * carbohydrates - O

Predict which of the following outcomes would result from taking an antihistamine.

- decreased mucus secretions - decreased histamine-based stimulation of cells - decreased permeability of blood vessels

Type IV Reactions: - Also known as ________. - Cell-mediated immune responses caused by ______. * _______ hypersensitivity - Antigens are _________ and presented to receptors on T cells, causing _________. - Reexposure to antigen cause memory cells to release destructive _________.

- delayed cell-mediated - T cells * delayed - phagocytized/ sensitization - cytokines

The Infectiveness and Pathogenicity of HIV: - Spread by _______ cells and carried to the lymphoid organs; contacts activated T cells. - gp120 combines with ______ receptor and _____ or ______ coreceptors. * CD4 molecules are carried on _____ cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells. - Virus fuses and enters into the cell.

- dendritic cells - CD4+/ CCR5 or CXCR4 * T helper (CD4+ cells)

Acyclovir: - Structurally resembles the nucleoside _________.

- deoxyguanosine

Mucous Membranes: - Line the body cavities open to the exterior: _______, _______, _______, and ______. - Tightly packed epithelial cells attached to an extracellular matrix. * cells secrete _______ (goblet cells)/ some cells have _______. - Often _______. - Membrane of eyes washed by tears containing ________. - Often folded to maximize ________.

- digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive * mucus/ cilia - acidic - lysozyme - surface area

Rabies: - Diagnosed from bodily fluids with the __________ test. - ___________: 3 doses killed virus. - __________: 4 doses of killed virus plus immune globulin. * Human diploid cell vaccine (HDCV). * Human rabies immune globulin (RIG).

- direct fluorescent-antibody (DFA) - pre-exposure schedule - post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)

The Diffusion Methods: - ___________ (________): tests the effectiveness of chemotherapeutic agents. * paper disks with a chemotherapeutic agent are places on agar containing the test organism. * _________ around the disk determines the sensitivity of the organism to the antibiotic. * Mueller-Hinton plates: starches absorb toxins from the bacteria. * CANNOT tell if it is bacteriostatic or bactericidal/ only tells the effectiveness of the agents. * NOT quantifiable! - ________: determines the ___________ (lowest antibiotic concentration preventing bacterial growth). * E test = epsilometer * estimations = actual numbers = more accurate dosage

- disk-diffusion method (Kirby-Bauer test) * zone of inhibition - E test/ minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)

Normal Microbiota of the Skin: - Resistant to ______ and high ______ concentrations. - Large number of __________ * Staphylococci * Micrococci - Areas with _______ have higher populations. * metabolize _____ and contribute to body _______.

- drying/ salt - gram-positive cocci - moisture * sweat/ odor

Bacterial Infections of the Heart: - __________: inflammation of the endocardium (heart rate increases = has to work harder). * _____________: impairs the function of the heart valves/ alpha-hemolytic streptococci from an oral or tonsil infection. * _____________: most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus. - ___________: inflammation of the sac around the heart. * fluid buildup is called _________ and can led to cardiac tamponade. * commonly caused by ________.

- endocarditis * subacute bacterial endocarditis * acute bacterial endocarditis - pericarditis * pericardial effusion * Streptococci spp.

Structure of the Heart: - ________: inner endothelial lining covering trabeculae. - ________: muscle layer (middle). - Pericardium: outer layer: * protects the overall heart muscle.

- endocardium - myocardium - PRINTED PICTURE

Gram-Negative Sepsis: - Also called ________ shock. - Endotoxins (_______________) cause a severe drop in blood pressure (systemic vasodilation). - _________ can worsen the condition by killing bacteria. - Treatment involves neutralizing the _______ components and inflammatory-causing _________ (examples = toxoid treatments).

- endotoxin - (lipopolysaccharides [LPS]) - antibiotics - LPS/ cytokines

Immunotherapy for Cancer: - What are the three types: ______? - Endotoxins from Bacteria: * called ________ * stimulate _____ that interferes with the blood supply of cancers. - Vaccines used for _________ * feline leukemia * ______ cancer (Gardasil = HPV vaccine) * liver cancer (hepatitis B) - Monoclonal antibodies: * herceptin (progesterone antagonist) for _____ cancer * ________ combines a Mab with a toxic agent; targets and kills a tumor without damage to healthy cells.

- endotoxins from bacteria, vaccines, and monoclonal antibodies - * Coley's toxin * TNF - * prophylaxis * cervical - * breast * immunotoxin

Preventing Anaphylactic Reactions: - Antigens are inoculated beneath the _______ to test for a rapid inflammatory reaction (_______). - __________: increasing dosages of antigen injected beneath the skin. * produces ______, which act as blocking antibodies to intercept and neutralize antigens. - Different tests can include _______ test or _______ test.

- epidermis/ (wheal) - desensitization * IgG - skin prick/ scratch

Microbial Diseases of the Skin: - ________: skin rash arising from a disease. * appears abruptly and affects several areas of the skin simultaneously * Greek origin "exanthema" which means "a breaking out" - ________: rash on mucous membranes arising from a disease. * eruption upon a mucous membrane.

- exanthem (exanthema) - enanthem (enanthema)

Gram-Positive Sepsis: - Potent _______ that cause toxic shock syndrome. * hemolysin, exfoliative toxin, enterotoxin, and toxic-shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) produced by ____________. - Hospital-Acquired Infections: * ___________ and _____________: inhabit the colon, colonize wounds and the urinary tract/ resistant to many antibiotics. - Group B streptococci (GBS): * ____________ * found in the vagina, intestines, and rectum. * responsible for neonatal sepsis (passed to baby during birth).

- exotoxins * Staphylococcus aureus - * Enterococcus faecium and Enterococcus faecalis - * Streptococcus agalactiae

Other Viral Rashes: - Viral diseases of the skin - ___________: * human parvovirus B19 * mild flulike symptoms; "slapped-cheek" facial rash. - ___________: * human herpesviruses 6 and 7 * high fever, body rash; recovery within 1 to 2 days - ___________: * Enteroviruses * spread via mucous or saliva (usually children) * fever and sore throat; rash on the hands, feet, mouth, and tongue.

- fifth disease (erythema infectiosum) - Roseola - Hand-foot-mouth disease

Staphylococcal Skin Infections: - __________: infections of the hair follicles. - _________; folliculitis of an eyelash. - _________; a type of abscess; localized region of pus surrounded by inflamed tissue. - ________: damage and inflammation of deep tissue (dermis) from a spreading furuncle. - ________; crusting (nonbullous) sores, spread by auto inoculation.

- folliculitis - sty - furuncle (boil) - carbuncle - impetigo

Aminoglycosides: - Amino sugars linked by _______ bonds. - Change the shape of the ______ subunit of the 70S ribosome (protein synthesis inhibition). * nonsense protein = interfere with translation. - Can cause _______ damage - EX: streptomycin, neomycin, and gentamicin

- glycoside - 30S - auditory

HIV Structure and Attachment to Receptors on Target T cells: - The ______ glycoprotein spike on the membrane attaches to a receptor on the CD4+ cell. * mimics hormone that CD4+ cell bind too. - The _______ transmembrane glycoprotein probably facilitates fusion by attaching to a fusion receptor on the CD4+ cell.

- gp120 - gp41

Rheumatic Fever: - Inflammation of ________. - Occurs if _______ or _______ is not properly treated. - Autoimmune complication of ________ (GAS) infections = bacterial.

- heart valves - strep throat or scarlet fever - Streptococcus pyogenes

Genital Herpes: - Caused by ___________ (______) * in the United States, 1 in 4 over age 30 are infected. - Painful _______ on the genitals; painful urination. * heals within 2 weeks. - Recurrences from viruses latent in _____ cells. * due to menstruation, emotional stress, or illness. - Diagnosis via culture or PCR. - No cure; suppression and management with ______, _______, and ________ (lifetime infection).

- herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) - vesicles - nerve - acyclovir, famciclovir, and valacyclovir

Reactions Related to the Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) Complex: - ___________: self antigens on cell surfaces - __________: genes encoding histocompatibility antigens. - ____________: MHC genes in humans (human part of MHC = matches this in donors and recipients). - Certain HLAs are related to increased ________ to specific diseases.

- histocompatibility antigens - major histocompatibility complex (MHC) - human leukocyte antigen (HLA) complex - susceptibility

Herpes Simplex: - Viral diseases of the skin - Caused by ________ and _______. * HSV-1 is spread primarily by ____ or ______ routes * HSV-2 is spread primarily _______. - Ninety percent of the population is infected. - Usually develop as _______ or _______. - HSV-1 reamins latent in _______ nerve ganglia. * outbreaks are triggered by the sun, stress, or hormonal changes. - HSV-2 remains latent in ______ nerve ganglia near the spine. - _________: vesicles on the skin. - _________: vesicles on the fingers. - _________; virus spreads to the brain * all treated with _______ = slows down the replication but doesn't clear it!

- human herpesvirus 1 (HSV-1) and 2 (HSV-2) * oral or respiratory * sexually - cold sores or fever blisters - trigeminal - sacral - herpes gladiatorum - herpetic whitlow - herpes encephalitis * acyclovir

Types of Hypersensitivity: - Type 1, 2, and 3 are all about the _______ response. - Type 4 is _______ response of the immune system. - Type 1: _________ * characteristics: ______ binds to mast cells or basophils; causes _______ of mast cells and basophils and release of reactive substances such as histamine. * example: drug interactions, _____ venom; common allergic condition such as hay fever and _______. - Type 2: ________ * characteristics: antigen causes formation of _____ and ______ antibodies that bind to target cell; when combined with action of _________, destroys target cell. * example: _______ reactions, ____ incompatibility. - Type 3: ________ * characteristics: antibodies and antigens form ______ that cause damaging _______. * effects: ______ reactions, _____ sickness. - Type 4: _______ * characteristics: antigens activate _____ that kills target cells. * effects: rejection of _______ tissues; _________, such as poison ivy; certain chronic diseases, such as _______.

- humoral (antibody) - cell-mediated (T cells) - anaphylactic * IgE/ degranulation * insect/ asthma - cytotoxic * IgM and IgG/ complement * transfusion/ Rh - immune complex * complexes/ inflammation * arthus/ serum - delayed cell-mediated * Tc * transplanted/ contact dermatitis/ tuberculosis

Rabies: - Initial symptoms: muscle spasms of the mouth and pharynx; __________. - Virus multiples in the skeletal muscles and travels through the PNS to the brain cells, causing _________. * average incubation of 30 to 50 days. - __________: animals are restless, then highly excitable. - ___________: animals seem unaware of their surroundings; minimally excitable. - Pathology of Rabies Infection: 1. rabies virus enters the host via a bite from a rabid animal. 2. virus proliferates in the PNS. 3. virus travels up the PNS to the CNS. 4. virus reaches the brain (CNS) and causes fatal encephalitis.

- hydrophobia - encephalitis - furious (classical) rabies - paralytic (dumb or numb) rabies

Immunodeficiencies: - Absence of a sufficient ______ response. - __________: due to defective or missing genes (acquired at birth). - _________: develop during an individual's life. * due to drugs, cancer, and infections.

- immune - congenital immunodeficiencies - acquired immunodeficiencies

Type III Reactions: - Also known as _______ reactions. - Antibodies form against soluble antigens in the ______. - Form _________ that lodge in the basement membranes beneath the cells. * activate complement, causing _________. - __________: inflammatory damage to the kidney glomeruli due to immune complexes as a result of infection.

- immune complex - serum - immune complexes * inflammation - glomerulonephritis

The Immune System and Cancer: - Cancer cells are removed by ________. - Cancer cells have _______ associated antigens that mark them as nonself. - ________ (releases perforins) and macrophages lyse cancer cells. - Limitations: * no antigenic ______ for the immune system to target (in viral induced cancers). * tumor cells reproduce too ______. * tumor becomes ________ and invisible to the immune system.

- immune surveillance (Tc lymphocytes) - tumor (MHC proteins) - CTLs (activated Tc cells) - * epitope * rapidly * vascularized

AIDS Worldwide: - 35 million infected worldwide * 70% in sub-Saharan Africa - ______ could exceed 1 million cases/year. - _______ transmission accounts for 85%. - _____ comprise 42% of cases. - 1/3 of cases in eastern Europe and central and Southeast Asia are from injected drugs.

- incidence - heterosexual - women

Incidence and Treatment of Botulism (bacterial): - __________: C. botulinum growing in the intestines of infants due to a lack of intestinal microbiota. * associated with ________. - ___________: ingestion of C. botulism endospores. - __________: growth of C. botulinum in wounds. - __________: intoxication occurs upon eating foods contaminated with C. botulinum neurotoxins. - ___________: overdose from a BoNT injection. - Treatment with respiratory assistance and ________ (BIG) - Prevented with proper canning and use of ________ in foods.

- infant botulism * honey - adult intestinal toxemia botulism - wound botulism - foodborne - iatrogenic botulism - antitoxins - nitrites

Gangrene: - __________: loss of blood supply to tissue. - __________: death of tissue. - __________: death of soft tissue. - __________: caused by Clostridium perfringens = bacterial. * Gram-positive, endospore-forming anaerobic rod, grows in necrotic tissue. * treatment includes surgical removal of necrotic tissue and/or use of ___________ (allows to force pure oxygen into the tissue = die because they are obligate anaerobic organisms).

- ischemia - necrosis - gangrene - gas gangrene * hyperbaric chamber

The Structure of the Human Skin: - _______; waterproofing protein coating outer layer of epidermis. * not to be confused with _______ = photosynthetic pigment made by plants. - _________: thin outer portion of skin; composed of layers of epithelial cells. - ________; inner, thick portion of skin; composed mainly of connective tissue.

- keratin * carotene - epidermis - dermis

Other Infectious Diseases of the Eye: - _________: * inflammation of the cornea. * bacterial (United States) * Fusarium and Aspergillus = fungi (Africa and Asia). - _________: * caused by herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1). * infects cornea and may cause blindness. * treated with _________.

- keratitis - herpetic keratitis * trifluridine

Latent And Active HIV Infections in CD4+ T cells: - ________ infection: viral DNA is integrated into cellular DNA as a provirus that can later be activated to produce infective viruses. - ________ infection: the provirus is activated, allowing it to control the synthesis of new viruses. Final assembly takes place at the cell membrane, taking up the viral envelope proteins as the virus buds from the cell. 1. HIV attaches to the receptor with the _______. 2. It gets _______ and uncoating happens. 3. The _________ transcribes the RNA into DNA. 4. DNA then incorporates itself into the host genome. 5. T helper cell produces RNA and mRNA = viral proteins get made (gp120 and gp41). 6. The assembly of all of this = _______ process. 7. Exocytosis process: new virus along with gp120 proteins and the membrane (_________) gets released = steady factory. - Can also occur in _______ and ______ cells (main difference is that these cells engulf the HIV virus).

- latent - active 1. gp120 2. endocytosed 3. reverse transcriptase 6. maturation 7. (envelope) - macrophages and dendritic cells

Pediculosis: - Parasitic infection of the skin - Commonly known as _______. * Pediculus humanus capitis = ______ * P. h. corporis = _________ - Feed on blood from the host. - Lay eggs (____) on the hair and attach to the shafts. - Treatment with topical insecticides (________ or __________). * malathion, lindane, or ivermectin are used in cases of resistance.

- lice * head louse * body louse - (nits) - (permethrin or pyrethrin)

Damage to CNS: - _________; caused by Listeria monocytogenes. * Gram-negative aerobic rod (bacterial) - Usually _______ and asymptomatic. * meningitis more common in the immunocompromised. - Can invade the bloodstream, causing sepsis. - Reproduces in _________. * spread phagocyte-to-phagocyte * escape from phagosome before fusion with lysosome * also has ability to activate the assembly of actin filaments and produce the pseudoflagella = cruise around = locomotion (pushes against macrophage = extensions = infect adjacent cells = cell-to-cell spread). - Infects pregnant women, crossing the placenta and leading to _______.

- listeriosis - foodborne - phagocytes - stillbirth

- ___________: system involved with the plasma, which leaves blood capillaries to become interstitial fluid (filtering system). * lymph ________ transport interstitial fluid (________) to lymph vessels (lymphatics) and lymph nodes = picks up microorganisms and infectious agents. * ________ contain fixed macrophages, B cells, and T cells. - ________: swollen lymph nodes. - Have one way back flow valves = prevent back flow. - OPEN system/ not closed like the circulatory system.

- lymphatic system * capillaries/ (lymph) * lymph nodes - buboes

Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis: - _________: contain a macrocyclic lactone ring = blocks exits of polypeptide chains! - Narrow spectrum against gram-positive - EX: erythromycin

- macrolides

Rubella - Viral disease of the skin - German _______ - Caused by the ______ virus - Macular rash and light fever. - Transmitted via the ______ route; 2 to 3 week incubation. - _________: fetal damage, deafness, heart defects, mental retardation/ fifteen percent mortality. - Prevented by the _____ vaccine. * not recommended for pregnant women.

- measles - Rubella - respiratory - congenital rubella syndrome - MMR

Structure and Function of the Nervous System: - _______: inflammation of the meninges. - ______: inflammation of the brain. * whole brain = encephalon - _____: inflammation of both.

- meningitis - encephalitis - meningoencephalitis

Sulfonamides: - Inhibiting the synthesis of essential ________. * antimetabolites compete with normal substrates for an _______. * sulfanilamide competes with __________, stopping the synthesis of folic acid (VERY GOOD WITH SELECTIVE TOXICITY). - Inhibit the _______ synthesis needed for nucleic acid and protein synthesis. - Competitively bind to the enzyme for ______ production, a folic acid precursor. - Combination of [2] trimethoprim and [1] sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) is an example of drug ________.

- metabolites * enzyme * para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) - folic acid - PABA - synergism PICTURE PRINTED = PATHWAY

Broth Dilution Tests: - Determines the MIC and __________ of a antimicrobial drug. - Test organism is placed into the wells of a tray containing dilutions of a drug; growth is determined. - _________: reports that record the susceptibility of organisms encountered clinically

- minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC) - antibiograms

Antibiotics: - _______ of antibiotics selected for resistance mutants. - Misuse includes: * using outdated or weakened antibiotics * using antibiotics for the common cold and other inappropriate conditions (antibiotics DO NOT work on viruses). * using antibiotics in animal feed. * failing to complete the prescribed regimen. * using someone else's leftover prescription.

- misuse

Scabies: - Parasitic infection of the skin. - Caused by Sarcoptes scabiei ______. * burrow in the skin and lay eggs - Causes inflammatory skin lesions - Transmitted via _______ contact. - Treatment with _________.

- mites - intimate - permethrin

Fungal Diseases of the Skin and Nails: - ________; fungal infection of the body. - ________: colonize the hair, nails, and outer epidermis. * metabolize keratin - _________: informally known as tineas or ringworm. * __________: scalp ringworm * __________: jock itch * __________: athlete's foot * __________: ringworm of nails

- mycosis - Cutaneous mycoses - Dermatomycoses * Tinea capitis * Tinea cruris * Tinea pedis * Tinea unguium

Spectrum of Antimicrobial Activity: - _________ of microbial activity: drugs that affect a narrow range of microbial types. - _________ antibiotics: affect a broad range of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. - _________: overgrowth of normal microbiota that is resistant to antibiotics. * C. difficile = a great example of this!

- narrow spectrum - broad-spectrum - superinfection

- The majority of current antibiotics come from ______ sources. * they are not synthetic * come from bacteria and fungus that produced these substances as an evolutionary adaptation.

- natural

Nongonococcal Urethritis (NGU): - Also called _________. * any inflammation of the urethra not caused by __________. - Caused by: * Chlamydia trachomatis * Mycoplasma hominis * Ureaplasma urealyticum - Painful urination and watery discharge; often asymptomatic; pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women. - Diagnosis: culture or PCR. - Treatment with ______ and ________.

- nonspecific urethritis (NSU). * N. gonorrhoeae - doxycycline and azithromycin

Rabies: - Global distribution - In the United States, it occurs in bats, skunks, foxes, raccoons, and domestic animals. * rarely in squirrels, rabbits, rats, and mice. - 7000 to 8000 animal cases of rabies in the United States annually. - _______ human cases in the United States annually.

- one to six

HIV Transmission: - HIV survives 6 hours ______ a cell. - HIV can serve more than 1.5 days ______ a cell. - Routes of transmission: intimate sexual contact, breast milk, transplacental infection, contaminated needles, organ transplants, and blood transfusion. * ______- receptive intercourse is the most dangerous form of sexual contact.

- outside - inside * anal

Chloramphenicol: - Inhibits ______ bond formation (protein synthesis inhibition). * binds to the ______ subunit of the 70S ribosome. - Synthesized chemically; broad spectrum. - Can suppress ________ and affect ____ cell formation.

- peptide * 50S - bone marrow/ blood

Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs: - __________: microbes with genetic characteristics allowing for their survival when exposed to an antibiotic. - _________: bacteria that are resistant to large numbers of antibiotics. - Resistance genes are often spread horizontally among bacteria on _______ or ________ via conjugation or transduction.

- persister cells - superbugs - plasmids/ transposons

Structure and Function of the Skin: - _________ provides moisture and nutrients for growth. * contain _____ that inhibits microorganisms = creates hypertonic environment/ why normal microbiota are Gram-positive = tolerate hypertonic environment. - ________ breaks down bacterial cell walls. - Antimicrobial ________: beta-defensins, Lactoferrin, Bradykinin, etc. - ______ secreted by oil glands contains fatty acids that inhibit pathogens.

- perspiration * salt - lysozyme - peptides - sebum

Neonatal Herpes: - Herpesvirus crosses the ______ barrier and infects the fetus. * damages the CNS, developmental delays, blindness, hearing loss, and/or spontaneous abortion. - Survival rate of 40% - Newborns infected from HSV exposure during delivery. - Diagnosed by PCR tests and fluorescent antibody tests. - Treatment with intravenous _______.

- placental - acyclovir

Injury to the Plasma Membrane: - Affects synthesis of bacterial _______. - Lipopeptide: * _______: produced by streptomycetes/ used for skin infections/ attacks the bacterial cell membrane. * _______: topical = bactericidal (effective against gram-negatives)/ combined with bacitracin and neomycin in nonprescription ointments. - Selective toxicity = not great = used topically because it can hurt our plasma membranes

- plasma membranes - * Daptomycin * Polymyxin B

Poliomyelitis: - Viral disease of the nervous system: - Caused by the ________ (polio for short). * naked, ssRNA virus - Transmitted by the _______ of water containing feces that contain the virus (oral-fecal route). - Initial symptoms: sore throat and nausea. - _______ may occur, enters the CNS. * one percent of cases become paralytic * destruction of motor cells * death by ________ failure (often in the iron lung). - ___________; muscle weakness occurring decades after infection. - Vaccine for all three serotypes: * _________: inactivated vaccine; injectable (1955). * ________: attenuated vaccine; oral; lifelong immunity (1964) - Polio cases fell 99% from 1988 to 2000. - Persistent reservoirs for polio remain in Pakistan, India, Afghanistan, and Nigeria. - 1980 = no new polio cases in the U.S.

- poliovirus - ingestion - viremia * respiratory - postpolio syndrome * Salk vaccine * Sabin vaccine

Nervous System Diseases Caused by Prions: - Prion: abnormally folded ________. - Causes normal proteins in the brain tissue to become abnormally folded. * leads to _________ degeneration. * chronic and fatal (no cure) * also called _____________ - PRINTED PICTURE for visual!

- protein * spongiform * transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSE)

Puerperal Sepsis: - Also called ________, ________, and _______. * caused by _____________ (Group A Strep, GAS) - bacterial. * 15% of all maternal deaths worldwide. * Mother is infected during childbirth = infects the uterus and progresses to an infection of the abdominal cavity (_________).

- puerperal fever, childbirth fever, and postpartum infection * Streptococcus pyogenes * (peritonitis)

Rabies: - Caused by the _____ virus. * Enveloped, ssRNA; easily develops mutants. * Genus ___________; bullet shape - Usually transmitted by the _______ of an animal bite. * can also cross ______ membranes. - In the United States, silver-haired ______ are the most common cause.

- rabies * Lyssavirus - saliva * mucous - bats

Inhibiting Nucleic Acid Synthesis: - Interfere with DNA _______ and ______. - EX: _________: inhibits mRNA synthesis (transcription)/ penetrates tissues/ antitubercular activity. - ________ and ________: * Nalidixic acid = synthetic/ inhibits DNA gyrase (inhibit DNA replication) * Norfloxacin and Ciprofloxacin = broad spectrum/ relatively nontoxic

- replication and transcription - Rifamycin - Quinolone and Fluoroquinolones

The Infectiveness and Pathogenicity of HIV: - Inside the cell, viral RNA is transcribed into DNA using _________. - DNA is integrated into the host's ________ DNA. * _________: new viruses bud from the host cell (lysogenic infection = host cell does not rupture). * ________: DNA is hidden in the chromosome as a provirus. - Some become ________ cells that serve as the reservoir for HIV. - Virus undergoes rapid antigenic _______ and a high rate of ________.

- reverse transcriptase - chromosomal * active infection * latent infection - memory T cells - changes/ mutation

Staphylococcal Skin Infections: - __________: bullous impetigo * ______ causes exfoliation = causes the breakdown of the tight junctions and proteins = no longer held together = massive amounts of epidermal layer to come off. * __________: impetigo of the newborn.

- scalded skin syndrome * Toxin B * Pemphigus neonatorum

Autoimmune Diseases: - Immune system responds to ____ antigens, causing damage to the organs. - Autoimmunity is loss of __________. * the ability to discriminate _____ from ______. - Three types: _______, ______, or _______.

- self - self-tolerance * self/ nonself - cytotoxic, immune complex, and cell-mediated

Sepsis and Septic Shock: - __________: acute illness due to the presence of REPLICATING pathogens or their toxins in the blood. - __________: systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). - __________: sepsis and uncontrollable decreased blood pressure. - __________: decreased blood pressure and dysfunction of at least one organ. - __________: inflamed lymph vessels.

- septicemia - sepsis - septic shock - severe sepsis - lymphangitis

Tissue Typing: - A type of ________ test. * is a _______ serological test. 1. Anti-HLA _______ attach to HLAs on lymphocytes. 2. _______ and trypan blue dye are added. 3. Cell ______ by complement takes up dye (positive result).

- serological * direct 1. antibodies 2. complement 3. damage

Chancroid: - Also called ________. - Caused by ___________: * Gram-negative rod. - Associated with _____ use. - Painful _______ of the genitals and swollen lymph nodes in the groin. * factors in the sexual transmission of HIV. - Treatment with ________ or _________. - Sometimes confused with syphilis because of similar chancre sores.

- soft chancre - Haemophilus ducreyi - drug - ulcers - azithromycin or ceftriaxone

Diagnosis and Treatment of the Most Common Types of Bacterial Meningitis: - Sample CSF via a ______ or ______. * pathogens in CSF do not survive storage or changes in temperature. * L4 and L5! - ______ agglutination test. - _______ initiated before diagnosis. * broad-spectrum third-generation _________.

- spinal tap or lumbar puncture - latex - chemotherapy * cephalosporins

Interferons: - Produced by viral-infected cells to inhibit further _______ of the infection. * alpha and beta interferons get release from virally infected cells and warn nearby cells = induces the production of antiviral proteins = prevent provirus and infection. - ________: promotes interferon production.

- spread - Imiquimod

- _______ are master cells capable of generating many different cell types. - What are the two broad categories of stem cells: _______ and _______? - Embryonic Stem Cells (ESCs): * harvested from ________; used to regenerate tissues and organs. * ________: can generate all types of cells. - Adult Stem Cells: * stem cells in adult tissues that have _________. * can become ________ stem cells by introducing genes.

- stem cells - embryonic stem cells (ESCs) and adult stem cells - * blastocysts * pluripotent - * differentiated * induced pluripotent stem cells

Normal Microbiota of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems: - Urinary bladder and upper urinary tract are ______ (both sexes). - Predominant microbes of the vagina: * __________: Gram-positive rod/ produce H2O2 and lactic acid/ growth promoted by estrogen * __________, anaerobes, and some Gram-negatives = other bacteria. * __________: yeast. * __________: protozoan. - Male urethra is usually _______. * some skin bacteria in distal urethra: ________, _________, and _______.

- sterile - * Lactobacilli spp. * streptococci * Candida albicans * Trichomonas vaginalis - sterile * Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus spp., and Corynebacterium spp.

Bacterial Meningitis: - Initial symptoms of fever, headache, and a _______. - Followed by nausea and vomiting. - May progress to convulsions and coma. - Death from ______ and inflammation. * due to _______ and cell wall release. - _________ is more common and mild.

- stiff neck - shock * endotoxin - viral meningitis

Resistance to HIV Infection: - Initial ______ and effective immune response. * ______ suppress viral numbers. - Once HIV establishes a pool of ______ infected CD4+ T cells, it is impossible to clear the infection (CD4+ T cells and macrophage = factories). * challenge to make a _______.

- strong * CTLs - latently * vaccine

Effects of Combinations of Drugs: - _________: the effect of two drugs together is greater than the effect of either alone. - _________: the effect of two drugs together is less than the effect of either alone. * birth control and antibiotics

- synergism - antagonism

Gonorrhea: - Symptoms: * men: painful urination and discharge of pus; epididymitis * women: fewer symptoms; pelvic inflammatory disease - If left untreated, may disseminate and become _______. * endocarditis, meningitis, and/or arthritis. - __________: infant blindness due to a gonorrheal infection of the eyes (apply antibiotics to newborn eyes). - No ________ immunity: * ______ variability (high) * _________ bind to Th receptors (CD4+), preventing activation and immunological memory. - Diagnosis with Gram stain, ELISA, or monoclonal antibodies (indirect ELISA). - Treatment first with __________. * ________ not recommended due to resistance.

- systemic - ophthalmia neonatorum - adaptive * antigenic * Opa proteins - cephalosporins * fluoroquinolones

Tetracyclines: - Produced by Streptomyces spp. - Interfere with the _____ attachment to the ribosome = physical inserts itself (protein synthesis inhibition). - Broad spectrum; penetrate tissues, making them valuable against ______ and _______. - Can suppress normal _______ microbiota.

- tRNA - rickettsias and chlamydias - intestinal

Antibiotic Safety: - ___________: risk versus benefit - Reactions of antibiotics with other drugs. - Damage to _______ - Risk to the fetus.

- therapeutic index - organs

The TORCH Panel of Tests: - Panel of tests (antigen tests) that screens for antibodies to infections in pregnant women. - T: ________ - O: other (such as syphilis, hepatitis B, enterovirus, Epstein-Barr virus, varicella-zoster virus). - R: ________ - C: _______ - H: _______

- toxoplasmosis - rubella - cytomegalovirus - herpes simplex virus

- _________: caused by Francisella tularensis. * Gram-negative rod = bacterial - Can cause endocarditis. - Zoonosis * transmitted from rabbits and deer by deer flies (vector) and ticks. * sometimes called ________ or ________. - Bacteria reproduce in _________.

- tularemia * rabbit fever or deer fly fever - phagocytes

A patient comes in with a possible Chikungunya infection. Rank the following in order.

- uninfected mosquito feeds on an infected person - replication of the virus inside the vector - infected mosquito feeds on uninfected person - patient has fever, headaches, and joint pain - treatment with supportive therapy

Bacterial Diseases of the Urinary System: - _________: an inflammation of the urethra. - ________: an inflammation of the urinary bladder. - _________: infection of the ureters. - _________: an inflammation of one or both kidneys. - 8.1 million urinary tract infections (UTI) annually in U.S. * most due to _______. * most in women due to close proximity of anus to urethra and vagina. * 60% of women and 12% of men will have at least 1 UTI.

- urethritis - cystitis - ureteritis - pyelonephritis * Escherichia coli

Skin Lesions (PICTURE ON LECTURE PP) - _________: small, fluid-filled lesions - _________: vesicles larger than 1 cm in diameter. - ________: flat, reddened lesions. - ________: raised lesions. - ________: raised lesions with pus.

- vesicles - bulla - macule - papule - pustule

Preventing and Treating AIDS - Now considered a treatable chronic disease in the developed world: here are a few ways: 1. Fusion/cell entry inhibitors. * target the _____ region of the viral envelope that prevents fusion of the virus with the cell. * Enfuvirtide and maraviroc 2. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors: * _______ reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs): tenofovir and emtricitabrine. * ___________ reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs): efavirenz 3. ____________: use combinations of drugs to minimize survival of resistant strains. 4. Integrase inhibitors: * inhibit HIV _______ that integrates _______ into the host chromosome: raltegravir. 5. Protease inhibitors: * inhibit proteases that cleave viral _________ into structural and functional proteins. 6. _______ inhibitors 7. ________: hold viruses to the cells, preventing their release and spread.

1. * gp41 2. * nucleoside * non-nucleoside 3. highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) 4. * integrase/ cDNA 5. * precursor proteins 6. maturation 7. tetherins

Arrange the following statements in the order that best represents the chronological order of events in generating an anaphylactic reaction.

1. IgE molecules bind to mast cells and basophils. 2. Antigen molecules cross-link adjacent IgE molecules 3. Degranulation occurs 4. Chemical mediators such as histamine are released 5. Capillary permeability and smooth muscle contractions increase. 6. Neutrophils and eosinophils move to the site.

Normal Microbiota of the Skin: - Gram-positive pleomorphic rods (diphtheroids): 1. _________ inhabits hard follicles; anaerobic * produce acids that maintain low skin pH 2. _________ occupy the skin surfaces; aerobic - Yeast: 1. _________: causes dandruff

1. Propionibacterium acnes 2. Corynebacterium xerosis 1. Malassezia furfur

Major Action Modes of Antibacterial Drugs: 1. Inhibition of _______ synthesis: penicillins, cephalosporins, bacitracin, vancomycin 2. Inhibition of ______ synthesis: chloramphenicol, erythromycin, tetracyclines, streptomycin. 3. Inhibition of ________ replication and transcription: quinolones, rifampin 4. Injury to __________: polymyxin B. 5. Inhibition of essential _______ synthesis: sulfanilamide, trimethoprim

1. cell wall 2. protein 3. nucleic acid 4. plasma membrane 5. metabolite LOOK AT PRINTED PICTURE

HIV Structure and Attachment to Receptors on Target T cells: 1. Attachment: the ______ attaches to a receptor and to a CCR5 or CXCR4 coreceptor on the cell. 2. Fusion: the _______ participates in fusion of the HIV with the cell. 3. Entry: following fusion with the cell, an entry pore is created. After entry, the viral envelope remains behind and the HIV ______, releasing the RNA core for directing synthesis of the new viruses. - There are example of people in the population that do not have the _______, meaning they are immune to HIV (because it cannot attach).

1. gp120 2. gp41 3. uncoats - CD4 receptor

Drug-induced Thrombocytopenic Purpura: 1. Drug binds to platelet, forming _______ complex. 2. Complex induces formation of _______ against hapten. 3. Action of antibodies and _______ causes platelet destruction.

1. hapten-platelet 2. antibodies 3. complement

Mechanisms of Resistance: 1. Blocking entry: prevention of _______ to target site within the microbe. 2. Inactivation of ________: enzymatic destruction or inactivation of the drug. 3. Alteration of target molecule: alteration of the drug's _________. 4. _______ of antibiotic: rapid efflux (ejection) of the antibiotic.

1. penetration 2. enzymes 3. target site 4. efflux

Type 1 (anaphylactic) Reaction Types: 1. ___________ * results when an individual sensitized to an antigen is exposed to it again. * may result in ________ collapse (vasodilation = not enough pressure) and death. * treated with ________. * also known as _________. 2. ____________ * usually associated with ingested or inhaled antigens. * symptoms depend on the route of ________. * EX: hives, ________, and ________; also pollen or house mite.

1. systemic anaphylaxis * circulatory * epinephrine * anaphylactic shock 2. localized anaphylaxis * entry * hay fever, asthma

Derivation of Embryonic Stem Cells: 1. Embryo, usually a fertilized egg discarded from attempt at in vitro fertilization. 2. _____ stage; the embryo divides repeatedly and forms a hollow ball of cells about the size of the period at the end of a sentence. 3. Embryonic stem cells from embryoblast are grown on feeder cells in __________. Stem cell lines and groups of stem cells form colonies in culture medium. Different conditions, as well as growth factors added to culture medium, direct stem cells to become stem cell lines for various tissues of the blood (ie blood and lymphatic cells, pancreatic islet cells, nerve cells).

2. blastocyst 3. culture medium

Immune Complex-Mediated Hypersensitivity: 1. Immune complexes are deposited in wall of blood vessel. 2. Presence of immune complexes activates _______ and attracts inflammatory cells such as ______. 3. Enzymes released from neutrophils cause damage to endothelial cells of _________.

2. complement/ neutrophils 3. basement membrane

A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which treatment is appropriate? A) Acyclovir B) Metronidazole C) Miconazole D) Penicillin E) Surgery

A) Acyclovir

Which of the following antibiotics causes misreading of mRNA? A) Aminoglycoside - changes shape of 30S units B) Chloramphenicol - inhibits peptide bonds at 50S subunit C) Oxazolidinone - prevents formation of 70S ribosome D) Streptogamin - prevents release of peptide from 70S ribosome E) Tetracyclines - bind with 30S subunit

A) Aminoglycoside - changes shape of 30S units

Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? A) Amphotericin B B) Bacitracin C) Cephalosporin D) Penicillin E) Polymyxin

A) Amphotericin B

A patient presents with inflammation of the heart valves, fever, malaise, and subcutaneous nodules at joints. The recommended treatment is A) Anti-inflammatory drugs/supportive care. B) Streptomycin. C) Chloroquine. D) Hyperbaric chamber. E) Praziquantel.

A) Anti-inflammatory drugs/supportive care.

Which of the following describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction? A) Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens. B) Antibodies are not made. C) Cells are killed. D) Immune complexes form. E) Mediate by T cells.

A) Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens.

Mebendazole is used to treat cestode infections. It interferes with mucrotubule formation; therefore, it would not affect A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Helminths D) Human cells E) Protozoa

A) Bacteria

A 35-year-old woman has a red, raised rash on the inside of her thighs. Gram-stained skin scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae. The infection is caused by A) Candida albicans. B) herpes simplex virus. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) Streptococcus pyogenes. E) varicella-zoster virus

A) Candida albicans.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Cat-scratch disease - malignant pustule developing into septicemia B) Brucellosis - a temperature of 40°C each evening C) Tularemia - a localized infection appearing as a small ulcer D) Borrelia - rash and flulike E) Toxoplasmosis - congenital brain damage

A) Cat-scratch disease - malignant pustule developing into septicemia

The antibiotic streptomycin binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.4. The effect is to A) Cause misreading of mRNA in 70S ribosomes B) Prevent binding of tRNA in eukaryotes C) Prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes D) Prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes E) None of the above

A) Cause misreading of mRNA in 70S ribosomes

A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Any of the following organisms could be responsible for her symptoms EXCEPT A) Clostridium botulinum. B) Listeria monocytogenes. C) Streptococcus pneumoniae. D) Haemophilus influenza. E) Any of these organisms could be the causative agent.

A) Clostridium botulinum.

Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes A) Cystitis. B) Pyelonephritis. C) Vaginitis. D) Gonorrhea. E) Syphilis.

A) Cystitis.

EB virus has been implicated in all of the following EXCEPT A) Endocarditis. B) Infectious mononucleosis. C) Burkitt's lymphoma. D) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. E) Hodgkin's disease.

A) Endocarditis.

Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by A) Escherichia coli. B) Enterococcus. C) Proteus. D) Klebsiella. E) Pseudomonas.

A) Escherichia coli.

A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfringens is A) Gangrene. B) Burns. C) Debridement. D) Hyperbaric treatment. E) An infected finger.

A) Gangrene.

Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents? A) Genital herpes B) Gonorrhea C) Syphilis D) Trichomoniasis E) Leptospirosis

A) Genital herpes

A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Which of the following is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of her symptoms? A) Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid B) biopsy of brain tissue C) check serum antibodies D) Gram stain of throat culture E) None of these would provide rapid identification.

A) Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid

Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with A) IgE antibodies. B) macrophages. C) IgG antibodies. D) complement. E) histamine.

A) IgE antibodies.

A normal urine sample collected by urinating into a sterile collection cup A) Is sterile. B) Contains fewer than 100 pathogens/ml. C) Contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml. D) Contains more than 100,000 pathogens/ml. E) Has leukocyte esterase.

A) Is sterile.

Which of the following statements about puerperal sepsis is false? A) It is transmitted from mother to fetus. B) It is caused by health care personnel. C) It begins as a focal infection. D) It is a complication of abortion or childbirth. E) It doesn't occur anymore because of antibiotics and aseptic techniques.

A) It is transmitted from mother to fetus.

Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons except A) It was the first antibiotic B) It doesn't affect eukaryotic cells C) It inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis D) It has selective toxicity E) None of the above

A) It was the first antibiotic

Infants born to asymptomatic mothers with recurrent genital herpes are less likely to acquire herpesvirus at birth than infants born to newly infected mothers because A) Maternal antibodies offer protection. B) The disease cannot be transmitted to newborns. C) The disease is not communicable. D) Prophylactic antibiotics are administered to the newborn. E) The virus isn't growing.

A) Maternal antibodies offer protection.

A patient is experiencing profuse greenish yellow, foul-smelling discharge from her vagina. She is complaining of itching and irritation. What is the most likely treatment? A) Metronidazole B) Cephalosporins C) Acyclovir D) Miconazole E) No treatment is available.

A) Metronidazole

Which of the following statements about rabies is FALSE? A) Most infections in the U.S. are the result of bites from infected dogs. B) It is caused by Lyssavirus. C) Diagnosis is based on immunofluorescent techniques. D) Average incubation period is 30 to 50 days after initial infection. E) Hydrophobia is associated with the disease.

A) Most infections in the U.S. are the result of bites from infected dogs.

The antibiotic chloramphenicol binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.3. The effect is to A) Prevent attachment of tRNA. B) Prevent peptide bond formation. C) Prevent transcription. D) Stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA. E) Prevent polypeptide formation in eukaryotes.

A) Prevent attachment of tRNA.

Which of the following is NOT a zoonosis? A) Puerperal sepsis B) Hantavirus infection C) Anthrax D) Brucellosis E) Tularemia

A) Puerperal sepsis

All of the following are normal microbiota of the skin EXCEPT A) Streptococcus. B) Micrococcus. C) Staphylococcus. D) Propionibacterium E) Corynebacterium

A) Streptococcus.

Which of the following is not bactericidal? A) Tetracycline B) Natural penicillin C) Streptomycin D) Bacitracin E) Semisynthetic penicillin

A) Tetracycline

Which of the following is greater? A) The number of reported cases of gonorrhea last year B) The number of reported cases of AIDS last year C) They are equal.

A) The number of reported cases of gonorrhea last year

There are many types of HPV, and the available vaccines don't (can't) cover all of them. However, the vaccine is still recommended for helping to control the disease caused by the virus. Why? A) The vaccine covers strains frequently associated with development of cancerous states. B) The vaccine gives cross-protection against bacterial STIs. C) The protection initiated against some strains of the virus gives cross-protection to a lesser extent against all HPV strains. D) The vaccine specifically and only provides protection against HPV types that produce genital warts.

A) The vaccine covers strains frequently associated with development of cancerous states.

Which of the following is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut, was due to bacterial infection? A) Treatable with penicillin B) Not contagious C) Accompanied by a rash D) Affected mostly children E) Transmitted by ticks

A) Treatable with penicillin

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Trichomoniasis - fungus B) Gonorrhea - gram-negative cocci C) Chancroid - gram-negative rod D) Gardnerella - clue cells E) Syphilis - gram-negative spirochete

A) Trichomoniasis - fungus

Which of the following is the same for both relapsing fever and undulant fever? A) Vector B) Mode of transmission C) Presence of rash D) Reservoir E) Etiology

A) Vector

Desensitization involves injection of A) antigens. B) IgG antibodies. C) IgE antibodies. D) antihistamine. E) histamine.

A) antigens.

Which region of the skin supports the largest bacterial population? A) armpits B) scalp C) forearms D) feet E) All of these support similarly sized bacterial populations

A) armpits

Which of the following is the least likely vaccine against HIV? A) attenuated virus B) glycoprotein C) protein core D) subunit E) All of these vaccines are equally likely.

A) attenuated virus

An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother, who had shingles. What infection does the eight-year-old have? A) chickenpox B) measles C) fever blisters D) scabies E) rubella

A) chickenpox

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) chickenpox — poxvirus B) conjunctivitis — Chlamydia trachomatis C) keratitis — Acanthamoeba D) otitis externa - Pseudomonas E) Buruli ulcer — Mycobacterium

A) chickenpox — poxvirus

An inherited immunodeficiency is termed ________ and a secondary immunodeficiency is also known as ________. A) congenital; acquired B) birth defect; inherited C) dysgenesis; congenital D) aplasia; SCID E) immune syndrome; lymphoma

A) congenital; acquired

Which of the terms regarding treatments after transplantation of an organ is mismatched? A) cyclosporine-suppression of B cells. B) cyclosporine- kidney toxicity. C) sirolimus-inhibit cell mediated and humoral immunity. D) basiliximab-chimeric monoclonal. E) tacrolimus-suppression of IL-2 secretion

A) cyclosporine-suppression of B cells.

A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of A) delayed cell-mediated immunity. B) autoimmunity. C) acute contact dermatitis. D) psoriasis. E) innate immunity.

A) delayed cell-mediated immunity.

During the asymptomatic phase I of HIV disease, HIV infection is diagnosed by A) detecting viral RNA. B) detecting antibodies against HIV. C) counting CD4+ T cells. D) counting CD8+ T cells. E) the Western blot test.

A) detecting viral RNA.

A possible complication of chickenpox is A) encephalitis. B) fever blisters. C) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. D) congenital rubella syndrome. E) macular rash.

A) encephalitis.

Scabies is transmitted by A) fomites. B) food. C) water. D) soil. E) respiratory secretions

A) fomites.

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are A) found in basophils and mast cells. B) antibodies. C) antigens. D) antigen-antibody complexes. E) the proteins of the complement system.

A) found in basophils and mast cells.

A drug that inhibits mitosis, such as griseofulvin, would be more effective against A) fungi. B) wall-less bacteria. C) gram-positive bacteria. D) mycobacteria. E) gram-negative bacteria.

A) fungi.

All of the following are characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT A) gram-positive cell wall. B) resistance to many types of disinfectants and antibiotics. C) growth in moist environments. D) production of pyocyanin. E) rod-shaped

A) gram-positive cell wall.

Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is A) heterosexual intercourse. B) homosexual intercourse. C) intravenous drug use. D) blood transfusions. E) nosocomial.

A) heterosexual intercourse.

All of the following are characteristic of the Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci EXCEPT A) methicillin resistance. B) M proteins. C) the ability to damage cell membranes. D) the ability to dissolve blood clots. E) hyaluronidase production

A) methicillin resistance.

The prodromal (i.e., pre-acute disease stage) symptom(s) of bacterial meningitis is/are A) mild cold symptoms. B) fever and headache. C) stiff neck and back pains. D) convulsions. E) fever, headache, and stiff neck.

A) mild cold symptoms.

Encephalitis is more common in the summer months because A) mosquito populations increase. B) ticks are encountered while hiking in the woods. C) ameba populations increase in swimming pools. D) people encounter more bats during warm summer evenings. E) pathogens are present in swimming pools and lakes.

A) mosquito populations increase.

Which of the following vaccines can cause the disease it is designed to prevent? A) oral polio vaccine B) Haemophilus influenzae capsule vaccine C) inactivated polio vaccine D) tetanus toxoid vaccine E) meningococcal capsule vaccine

A) oral polio vaccine

Warts are caused by A) papillomavirus. B) poxvirus. C) herpesvirus. D) parvovirus

A) papillomavirus.

All of the following organisms are correctly matched to the recommended treatment EXCEPT A) poliovirus — amphotericin B. B) Mycobacterium leprae — dapsone. C) Haemophilus influenzae — cephalosporins. D) Cryptococcus neoformans — amphotericin B. E) Neisseria meningitidis — cephalosporins.

A) poliovirus — amphotericin B.

Which of the following is the same for both relapsing fever and undulant fever? A) rising and falling body temperature B) mode of transmission C) presence of rash

A) rising and falling body temperature

Allergic contact dermatitis is due to A) sensitized T cells. B) IgG antibodies. C) IgE antibodies. D) IgM antibodies. E) activated macrophages.

A) sensitized T cells.

Naegleria fowleri meningoencephalitis is commonly acquired by A) swimming in warm ponds or streams. B) mosquito bites. C) exposure to body fluids of a contaminated individual. D) exposure to bird droppings. E) ingestion of water contaminated with fecal material.

A) swimming in warm ponds or streams.

Initial treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is A) tetanus immune globulin. B) penicillin. C) debridement. D) tetanus toxoid. E) none; no action is necessary.

A) tetanus immune globulin.

The most common route of central nervous system invasion by pathogens is through A) the circulatory system. B) the parenteral route. C) the skin. D) direct penetration into nerves. E) the gastrointestinal system.

A) the circulatory system.

All of the following pertain to serological tests EXCEPT A) they can detect antibodies but not antigens. B) they can be used to diagnose various diseases. C) reactions can be detected by uptake of trypan blue by damaged cells. D) they are used to test for specific HLAs on lymphocytes. E) they are used to detect compatible tissues for transplantation.

A) they can detect antibodies but not antigens.

Which of the following pairs regarding the epidemiology of malaria is mismatched? A) vector — Ixodes B) etiology — Plasmodium C) found in liver — sporozoites

A) vector — Ixodes

A patient has a red circular rash on his arm and fever malaise and joint pain. The most appropriate treatment is: A. Antibiotics B. Chloroquine C. Anti-inflammatory drugs D. Antimony E. No treatment

A. Antibiotics

The patient's fever spikes each evening. Oxidase-positive gram-negative cocci were isolated from a lesion on his arm. What is your diagnosis A. Brucellosis B. Malaria C. Relapsing fever D. Rocky Mountain speed fever E. Ebola hemorrhagic fever

A. Brucellosis

A patient presents with vomiting diarrhea and a history of fever and headache. Bacterial cultures of blood CSF and stool are negative. What is your diagnosis? A. Ehrlichiosos B. Lyme disease C. Septic shock D. Toxoplasmosis E. Viral hemorrhagic fever

A. Ehrlichiosos

Cystitis is most often caused by A. Escherichia coli B. Leptospira interrogans C. Candida albicans D Neisseria gonorrhoeae E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A. Escherichia coli

Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of A. Lactobacillus B. Streptococcus C. Mycobacterium D. Neisseria E. Candida

A. Lactobacillus

Which of the following is not transmitted in raw milk? A. Toxoplasmosis B. Anthrax C. Brucellosis D. Listeriosis E. All of these can be transmitted in raw milk

A. Toxoplasmosis

Male Reproductive and Urinary Organs: - Two testes - System of ducts: * epididymis * ductus (vas) deferens * ejaculatory duct * urethra - Accessory glands - Penis - Longer urethra than females and anus is further away from urethra.

ALREADY KNOW

Structure and Function of the Female Reproductive Systems: - Female Reproductive System: * two ovaries * two uterine (fallopian) tubes * the uterus, including the cervix * the vagina * external genitals (vulva) - Anus and digestive system is close to the vagina = UTI correlation.

ALREADY KNOW

In Table 20.1, the minimal inhibitory concentration of antibiotic X is A) 2 mg/ml B) 10 mg/ml C) 15 mg/ml D) 25 mg/ml E) Can't tell

B) 10 mg/ml

Which of the following vaccine characteristics is (are) mismatched? A) 4, 5, and 6 B) 2 only C) 1, 2, and 3 D) 1 and 3 only E) None of the answers are correct; all these characteristics are correctly matched.

B) 2 only

Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections? 1. Aminoglycosides 2. Cephalosporins 3. Griseofulvin 4. Polyenes 5. Bacitracin A) 1, 2, and 3 B) 3 and 4 C) 3, 4, and 5 D) 4 and 5 E) All of the antibiotics

B) 3 and 4

Glomerulonephritis is A) Caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. B) An immune complex disease. C) Treated with penicillin. D) Transmitted by contaminated water. E) A and C

B) An immune complex disease.

Lamisil is an allylamine used to treat dermatomycoses. Lamisil's method of action is similar to A) Polymyxin B B) Azole antibiotics C) Echinocandins D) Griseofulvin E) Bacitracin

B) Azole antibiotics

Arthropods can serve as a reservoir for which of the following diseases? A) Plague B) Brucellosis C) Epidemic typhus D) Yellow fever E) Malaria

B) Brucellosis

Which of the following statements is true of phase 3 HIV infection? A) HIV in blood stabilizes at 1000-10,000 per ml of blood. B) CD4+ cell population drops to less than 200 cells per μl of blood. C) HIV peaks to 10 million per ml of blood. D) asymptomatic infection. E) Seroconversion occurs

B) CD4+ cell population drops to less than 200 cells per μl of blood.

The most common NGU in the United States is treated with A) Penicillin. B) Cephalosporins. C) Acyclovir. D) AZT. E) Doxycycline.

B) Cephalosporins.

One form of NGU is lymphogranuloma venereum caused by A) Leptospira interrogans. B) Chlamydia trachomatis. C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D) Treponema pallidum. E) Candida albicans.

B) Chlamydia trachomatis.

Which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta? A) Borrelia B) Cytomegalovirus C) Spirillum D) Toxoplasma E) Yersinia

B) Cytomegalovirus

Which of the following produces a permanent carrier state following infection? A) Borrelia B) Cytomegalovirus C) Spirillum D) Toxoplasma E) Yersinia

B) Cytomegalovirus

A patient complains of fever, severe muscle and joint pain, and a rash. The patient reports returning from a Caribbean vacation one week ago. Which one of the following do you suspect? A) Bolivian hemorrhagic fever B) Dengue C) Hantavirus hemorrhagic fever D) Typhus E) Yellow fever

B) Dengue

The following data were obtained from a broth dilution test: Concentration of Antibiotic X and Growth 2.0 mg/ml (-) 1.0 mg/ml (-) 0.5 mg/ml (-) 0.25 mg/ml (+) 0.125 mg/ml (+) 0 (+) The data in the Table show that these bacteria A) Can be subcultured B) Developed resistance to antibiotics C) Were killed by 0.125 mg/ml of antibiotic X D) Were killed by 0.5 mg/ml of antibiotic X E) Were resistant to 1.0 mg/ml at the start of the experiment

B) Developed resistance to antibiotics

Antimicrobial peptides work by A) Inhibiting protein synthesis B) Disrupting the plasma membrane C) Complementary base-pairing with DNA D) Inhibiting cell-wall synthesis E) Hydrolyzing peptidoglycan

B) Disrupting the plasma membrane

Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus? A) Bacitracin - inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis B) Ethambutol - inhibits mycolic acid synthesis C) Streptogramin - inhibits protein synthesis D) Streptomycin - inhibits protein synthesis E) Vancomycin - inhibits peptoglycan synthesis

B) Ethambutol - inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which of the following is probable? A) Candidiasis B) Genital herpes C) Gonorrhea D) NGU E) Syphilis

B) Genital herpes

Recurring vesicles are symptoms of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) Genital herpes. C) Candidiasis. D) Trichomoniasis. E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.

B) Genital herpes.

The causative agent of chancroid is A) Treponema pallidum. B) Haemophilus ducreyi. C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D) HSV-2. E) HPV.

B) Haemophilus ducreyi.

Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic? A) Competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis B) Inhibition of RNA synthesis C) Injury to plasma membrane D) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis E) None of the above

B) Inhibition of RNA synthesis

All of the following organisms are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT A) Cryptococcus neoformans. B) Listeria monocytogenes. C) Haemophilus influenzae. D) Neisseria meningitidis. E) None of the answers is correct; all of these organisms are transmitted by the respiratory route.

B) Listeria monocytogenes.

All of the following antibiotics interfere with cell wall synthesis except A) Cephalosporins B) Macrolides C) Natural penicillins D) Semisynthetic penicillins E) Vancomycin

B) Macrolides

Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis? A) Cephalosporins B) Macrolides C) Natural penicillins D) Semisynthetic penicillins E) Vancomycin

B) Macrolides

A 62-year-old man was hospitalized with an 8-day history of fever, chills, sweats, and vomiting. His temperature on admission was 40°C. A routine peripheral blood smear revealed ring-shaped bodies in the RBCs. What treatment would you prescribe? A) Hyperbaric oxygen B) Mefloquine C) No treatment D) Penicillin E) Streptomycin

B) Mefloquine

The patient has scaling skin on his fingers. Conidiospores are seen in microscopic examination of skin scrapings. The etiology is A) Candida. B) Microsporum. C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Mycobacterium ulcerans

B) Microsporum.

A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. The etiology could be any of the following EXCEPT A) Borrelia. B) Mumps virus. C) Rickettsia. D) Streptococcus. E) Treponema.

B) Mumps virus.

Which of the following statements about leprosy is FALSE? A) It is rarely fatal. B) Patients with leprosy must be isolated. C) Diagnosis is based on skin biopsy. D) The etiologic agent is acid-fast. E) It is transmitted by direct contact.

B) Patients with leprosy must be isolated.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an A) Rh+ mother with an Rh fetus. B) Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus. C) AB mother with a B fetus. D) AB mother with an O fetus. E) Rh- mother and an A fetus

B) Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus.

A characteristic symptom of plague is A) Small red spots on the skin. B) Swollen lymph nodes C) Rose-colored spots. D) Recurrent fever. E) Nausea and vomiting.

B) Swollen lymph nodes/ Bruises on the skin.

Which of the following diseases causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and fever? A) Gonorrhea B) Syphilis C) NGU D) Trichomoniasis E) Genital herpes

B) Syphilis

A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which ofthe following causative agents is most likely to cause these symptoms? A) HPV B) Treponema C) Candida D) Nesseria E) HSV-2

B) Treponema

Assume that your lab partner swabs the side of his face and uses the swab to inoculate a nutrient agar plate. The next day, he performs a Gram stain on the colonies. They are gram-positive cocci. You advise him that he should next look for A) an acid-fast reaction. B) a coagulase reaction. C) conidiospores. D) pseudohyphae. E) pseudopods

B) a coagulase reaction.

Buruli ulcer is caused by A) gram-positive bacteria. B) acid-fast bacteria. C) a fungus. D) a virus. E) a mite

B) acid-fast bacteria.

All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT A) it is also known as "sleeping sickness." B) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts. C) death ultimately occurs without proper treatment. D) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is the more common cause of disease. E) it is transmitted by the tsetse fly.

B) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts.

In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the small, circular/spherical structure labeled a? A) antibody B) antigen C) complement D) neutrophil E) mast cell

B) antigen

In the United States, approximately how many people over the age of 30 are infected with HSV-2? A) 1-3% B) approximately 25% C) 90% D) approximately 75% E) 5-10%

B) approximately 25%

Which of the following is NOT caused by HSV-1? A) cold sores B) canker sores C) herpes gladiatorum D) herpes whitlow E) herpes encephalitis

B) canker sores

Arboviruses cause ________ and are transmitted by ________. A) meningitis; mosquitoes B) encephalitis; mosquitoes C) encephalitis; exposure to certain trees D) meningitis; exposure to certain trees E) both meningitis and encephalitis; mosquitoes

B) encephalitis; mosquitoes

All of the following are causative agents of conjunctivitis EXCEPT A) Chlamydia trachomatis. B) herpes simplex. C) adenovirus. D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E) Haemophilus influenzae

B) herpes simplex.

In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in joints. This is an example of A) cytotoxic autoimmunity. B) immune complex autoimmunity. C) cell-mediated autoimmunity. D) immunosuppression. E) acquired immunodeficiency.

B) immune complex autoimmunity.

All of the following are true of poliomyelitis EXCEPT A) the majority of cases are asymptomatic. B) most cases result in muscle paralysis. C) infection is due to ingestion of contaminated water. D) the oral polio vaccine contains attenuated strains of the virus. E) initial sites of viral replication are the throat and small intestine.

B) most cases result in muscle paralysis.

A pathologist detects Negri bodies while examining a brain section taken at autopsy. What was the cause of death? A) Hansen's disease B) rabies C) poliomyelitis D) eastern equine encephalitis E) meningococcal meningitis

B) rabies

Which of the following is a subcutaneous mycosis? A) tinea capitis. B) sporotrichosis. C) erysipelas. D) athlete's foot. E) Buruli ulcer

B) sporotrichosis.

Which of the following is treated with antibiotics? A) botulism B) streptococcal pneumonia C) tetanus D) polio E) All of these diseases can be successfully treated with antibiotics.

B) streptococcal pneumonia

On June 30, a 47-year-old man was hospitalized with dizziness, blurred vision, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, and nausea. Examination revealed facial paralysis. The patient had partially healed superficial knee wounds incurred while laying cement. He reported eating home-canned green beans and stew containing roast beef and potatoes 24 hours before onset of symptoms. The patient should be treated with A) vaccination. B) supportive care, including respiratory assistance. C) surgery. D) antibiotics. E) antitoxin.

B) supportive care, including respiratory assistance.

Initial treatment for tetanus in a fully immunized person with a puncture wound is A) penicillin. B) tetanus toxoid. C) tetanus immune globulin. D) DTaP. E) debridement.

B) tetanus toxoid (inactivated tetanus toxin) booster

Brucella bacteria are considered a potential agent of bioterrorism because A) they are not susceptible to antibiotics. B) they easily become airborne. C) infection causes a fever.

B) they easily become airborne.

Which of the following is NOT typically treated with penicillin? A) serious wounds at risk for gas gangrene B) tularemia C) patients at risk for rheumatic fever

B) tularemia

Which of the following bacterial infections cannot be transmitted by dog or cat bites? A. Pasteurella multocida B. Streptobacillus C. Bartonella henselae D. Fusobacterium E. None of the answers is correct; all of these bacterial infections can be transmitted by dog or cat bites

B. Streptobacillus

CHAPTER 20: ANTIMICROBIAL DRUGS

BEGINS HERE

CHAPTER 19: DISORDERS ASSOCIATED WITH THE IMMUNE SYSTEM

BEGINS HERE!

CHAPTER 23: MICROBIAL DISEASES OF THE CARDIOVASCULAR AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS

BEGINS HERE!!!!

A pregnant woman found a large variety of microbes that can be vertically transmitted. She is making a list for her doctor to assess her risk of becoming infected with any of them. Match the infectious agents with their respective classification.

Bacterial: - Treponema pallidum - Listeria monocytogenes - Elizabethkingia Viral: - CMV - HSV-2 Neither: - Toxoplasma gondii

In Table 20.1, the minimal bactericidal concentration of antibiotic X is A) 2 mg/ml B) 10 mg/ml C) 15 mg/ml D) 25 mg/ml E) Can't tell

C) 15 mg/ml

A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment? A) Metronidazole B) Cephalosporins C) Acyclovir D) Miconazole E) No treatment is available.

C) Acyclovir

Thrush and vaginitis are caused by A) herpesvirus. B) Chlamydia trachomatis. C) Candida albicans. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Streptococcus pyogenes

C) Candida albicans.

Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen? A) Trichomoniasis B) Genital herpes C) Candidiasis D) Gonorrhea E) Chancroid

C) Candidiasis

Itching and cheesy discharge are symptoms of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) Genital herpes. C) Candidiasis. D) Trichomoniasis. E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.

C) Candidiasis.

Which of the following CANNOT be transmitted to humans from domestic cats? A) Toxoplasmosis B) Plague C) Chagas' disease D) Bartonella E) None of these diseases is transmitted by cats.

C) Chagas' disease

The reservoir for leptospirosis (within the United States) is A) Humans. B) Water. C) Domestic dogs. D) Domestic cats. E) Hospitals.

C) Domestic dogs.

All of the following lead to drug-induced thrombocytopenic purpura. Which occurs first? A) Antibodies and complement react with platelets. B) Antibodies against haptens are formed. C) Drug binds to platelets. D) Platelets are destroyed. E) Purpura occurs on the skin.

C) Drug binds to platelets.

Pyelonephritis usually is caused by A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. B) Proteus spp. C) Escherichia coli. D) Enterobacter aerogenes. E) Streptococcus pyogenes.

C) Escherichia coli.

Which of the following is mismatched? A) Ehrlich - "magic bullet" theory B) Kirby and Bauer - disc-diffusion method C) Florey and Chain - identification of Penicillium as the producer of penicillin D) Fleming - identification of penicillin E) None of these is mismatched.

C) Florey and Chain - identification of Penicillium as the producer of penicillin

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Rickettsia - intracellular parasite B) Brucella - gram-negative aerobic rods C) Francisella - gram-positive facultatively anaerobic pleomorphic rods D) Bacillus - gram-positive endospore-forming rods E) None of the above

C) Francisella - gram-positive facultatively anaerobic pleomorphic rods

Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection? A) Gonorrhea B) Syphilis C) Genital herpes D) Chancroid E) LGV

C) Genital herpes

The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ________ to ________ by bacteria. A) Glucose; ethanol B) Protein; acetic acid C) Glycogen; lactic acid D) Mucosal cells; lactic acid E) Urine; lactic acid

C) Glycogen; lactic acid

The most common reportable disease in the United States is A) Cystitis. B) Lymphogranuloma venereum. C) Gonorrhea. D) Syphilis. E) Candidiasis.

C) Gonorrhea.

Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be effective against A) Gram-negative bacteria B) Gram-positive bacteria C) Helminths D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis E) Viruses

C) Helminths

Which one of the following statements about genital warts is false? A) It is transmitted by direct contact. B) It is caused by papillomaviruses. C) It is always precancerous. D) It is treated by removing them. E) It can lead to cervical cancer in women.

C) It is always precancerous.

Which is true regarding Herceptin therapy? A) It neutralizes the growth factor EGF. B) It acts as an immunotoxin to target and kill cancer cells. C) It is used to treat some breast cancer patients. D) It is a vaccine to prevent the development of cancer. E) It is an endotoxin that stimulates TNF by macrophages.

C) It is used to treat some breast cancer patients.

Which of the following statements about Reye syndrome is FALSE? A) It is associated with aspirin use. B) It is a complication that may occur in chickenpox infection. C) It mostly affects older adults. D) Symptoms may include vomiting, drowsiness, or behavior changes. E) Prolonged neurological problems may occur.

C) It mostly affects older adults.

A patient has the following symptoms: a papule, enlarged lymph nodes. Microscopic examination of the papule reveals nucleated cells in white blood cells. The patient most likely has A) Anthrax. B) Brucellosis. C) Leishmaniasis. D) Malaria. E) Schistosomiasis.

C) Leishmaniasis.

Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterium? A) Epidemic typhus B) Tickborne typhus C) Malaria D) Plague E) Relapsing fever

C) Malaria

Which of the following is treated with cephalosporins because the organism is resistant to penicillin and fluoroquinolones? A) Mycoplasma hominis B) Haemophilus ducreyi C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Treponema pallidum E) Gardnerella vaginalis

C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Which one of the following does NOT cause nongonococcal urethritis? A) Chlamydia. B) Mycoplasma. C) Neisseria. D) Ureaplasma. E) All of the above cause NGU.

C) Neisseria.

Which of these antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects? A) Streptomycin B) Tetracycline C) Penicillin D) Erythromycin E) Chloramphenicol

C) Penicillin

Which of the following antibiotics is not bactericidal? A) Aminoglycosides B) Cephalosporins C) Polyenes D) Rifampins E) Penicillin

C) Polyenes

The antibiotic cycloheximide binds to the 60S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.2. The effect is to A) Prevent mRNA-ribosome binding in eukaryotes B) Prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes C) Prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes D) Prevent transcription in prokaryotes E) None of the above

C) Prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes

A 17-year-old boy has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram-positive rods. This infection is caused by A) Acanthamoeba. B) herpes simplex virus. C) Propionibacterium acnes. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Streptococcus pyogenes

C) Propionibacterium acnes.

A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis 2 months earlier. What stage of disease is the patient in? A) NGU B) Primary C) Secondary D) Tertiary

C) Secondary

A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which of the following will be most useful for a rapid diagnosis? A) Bacterial culture B) Microscopic examination of blood C) Serological test for antibodies D) Serological test for antigen E) Viral culture

C) Serological test for antibodies

You advise your pregnant friend to give her cat away because A) She could contract plague. B) She could give the cat tularemia. C) She could get toxoplasmosis. D) She could get listeriosis. E) You don't like cats and want to see your friend without one.

C) She could get toxoplasmosis.

All of the following act by competitive inhibition except A) Ethambutol B) Isoniazid C) Streptomycin D) Sulfonamide E) None of the above

C) Streptomycin

Which of the following is diagnosed by detection of antibodies against the causative agent? A) Nongonococcal urethritis B) Gonorrhea C) Syphilis D) Lymphogranuloma venereum E) Candidiasis

C) Syphilis

Human-to-human transmission of plague is usually by A) Rat flea. B) Dog flea. C) The respiratory route. D) Wounds. E) Unsanitary conditions.

C) The respiratory route.

Why is vaccination for rubella recommended? A) It has a high mortality rate in school-age children. B) Death from secondary infections is common. C) There is a high incidence of congenital infections and birth defects. D) Health care workers have a high incidence of infection. E) It is no longer recommended; rubella has been eradicated

C) There is a high incidence of congenital infections and birth defects.

Which of the following statements about group B streptococci is false? A) They are present in healthy carriers. B) They cause gram-positive sepsis. C) They cause strep throat. D) They cause neonatal sepsis. E) They are classified as Str. agalactiae.

C) They cause strep throat.

In the serological method for tissue typing, if human cells expressing HLA-I are mixed with anti-HLA-I, complement, and trypan blue, what would indicate the cells are HLA-I? A) Enzyme is released from neutrophils. B) Cells are damaged by complement. C) Trypan blue enters the cells. D) Anti-HLA antibodies bind to HLAs on lymphocytes. E) None of the answers are correct; the T cells are missing.

C) Trypan blue enters the cells.

A patient has pus-filled vesicles and scabs on her face, throat, and lower back. She most likely has A) measles. B) mumps. C) chickenpox. D) rubella. E) smallpox

C) chickenpox.

Diagnosis of rabies is confirmed by A) patient's symptoms. B) patient's death. C) direct fluorescent-antibody test. D) passive agglutination. E) Gram stain.

C) direct fluorescent-antibody test.

Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis? A) uracil B) thymine C) flucytosine D) penicillin E) guanine

C) flucytosine

Which of the following utilizes a combination of monoclonal antitumor antibody and immunotoxin? A) immunologic enhancement B) immunologic surveillance C) immunotherapy D) immunosuppression E) immune complex

C) immunotherapy

Scabies is a skin disease caused by a A) slow virus. B) protozoan. C) mite. D) bacterium. E) prion

C) mite.

All of the following microorganisms can directly cause meningitis EXCEPT A) bacteria. B) protozoa. C) mosquitoes. D) virus. E) fungi.

C) mosquitoes.

Which one of the following is an effective means of treatment for genital warts? A) surgery B) cryotherapy C) podofilox and imiquimod gels D) acyclovir E) nine-valent vaccination

C) podofilox and imiquimod gels

On October 5, a pet store sold a kitten that subsequently died. On October 22, rabies was diagnosed in the kitten. Between September 19 and October 23, the pet store had sold 34 kittens. Approximately 1000 people responded to health care providers following local media alerts. These people were given A) human diploid cell vaccine. B) immune globulin injections. C) postexposure prophylaxis. D) antiviral medications. E) antibiotics.

C) postexposure prophylaxis.

All of the following diseases are caused by arbovirus EXCEPT A) West Nile encephalitis. B) eastern equine encephalitis. C) primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM). D) St. Louis encephalitis. E) None of the answers is correct; all of these diseases are caused by arbovirus.

C) primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM).

HIV can evade host antibodies by A) remaining an inactive provirus. B) causing cell-to-cell fusion. C) remaining an inactive provirus, causing cell to cell fusion, and virions remaining latent in vacuoles. D) lowering the CD4+ cell count. E) virions remaining latent in vacuoles.

C) remaining an inactive provirus, causing cell to cell fusion, and virions remaining latent in vacuoles.

Which of the following leads to all the others? A) toxemia B) scalded skin syndrome C) staphylococcal infection D) TSST-1 E) sudden drop in blood pressure

C) staphylococcal infection

The eradication of smallpox was possible because A) it was a relatively mild disease. B) insect vectors were eliminated. C) there are no animal reservoirs of the virus. D) it can be prevented with the same vaccine used to prevent chickenpox. E) it occurs only in the tropic

C) there are no animal reservoirs of the virus.

The greatest single cause of blindness in the world is A) neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia. B) keratoconjunctivitis. C) trachoma. D) inclusion conjunctivitis. E) pinkeye.

C) trachoma.

Which of the following is used to treat herpetic keratitis? A) penicillin B) sulfonamide C) trifluridine D) fungicide E) acyclovir

C) trifluridine

Patients with leprosy usually die from complications such as A) cardiac arrest. B) brain damage. C) tuberculosis. D) pneumonia. E) loss of nerve function.

C) tuberculosis.

Increases in the numbers of Kaposi's sarcoma and Pneumocystis pneumonia cases seen in the 1980s A) are examples of newly discovered diseases. B) were due to increased numbers organ transplantations. C) were examples of emerging diseases correlating with an increased population experiencing loss of normal immune function. D) were unusual phenomena due to climate change. E) were typical and expected

C) were examples of emerging diseases correlating with an increased population experiencing loss of normal immune function.

When testing donated blood for compatibility you would find a person with O type blood A) has O type antigens on their red blood cells. B) will lack plasma antibodies to A and B type antigens. C) will lack A and B red blood cell antigens. D) lacks HLA and MHC antigens. E) will have anti-O antibodies in their plasma.

C) will lack A and B red blood cell antigens.

Which of the following is not a tick borne disease? A. Babesiosis B. Ehrlichiosis C. Lyme disease D. Relapsing fever E. Tularemia

C. Lyme disease

Which of the following diseases has the highest incidence in the United States? A. Brucellosis B. Ebola hemorrhagic fever C. Malaria D. Plague E. Rocky mountain spotted fever

C. Malaria

19 workers in a slaughterhouse developed a fever and chills with a fever spiking to 40 degrees Celsius each evening. The most likely method of transmission of this disease is A. vector B. Respiratory route C. Puncture wound D. Animal bite E. Water

C. Puncture wound

The patient was hospitalized with fever and headache.. Spirochetes were observed and her blood. What is your diagnosis A. Brucellosis B. Malaria C. Relapsing fever D. Rocky Mountain speed fever E. Ebola hemorrhagic fever

C. Relapsing fever

A patient presents with mental confusion rapid breathing and heartbeat and low blood pressure. What is your diagnosis?A patient presents with vomiting diarrhea and a history of fever and headache. Bacterial cultures of blood CSF and stool are negative. What is your diagnosis? A. Ehrlichiosos B. Lyme disease C. Septic shock D. Toxoplasmosis E. Viral hemorrhagic fever

C. Septic shock

Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis? A. Gastroenteritis B. Relapsing fever C. Undulant fever D. Pneumonia E. Jaundice

C. Undulant fever

Which of the following leads to all the others? A) Subcutaneous hemorrhaging B) Presence of antirickettsial antibodies C) Blockage of capillaries D) Bacterial growth in endothelial cells E) Breakage of capillaries

D) Bacterial growth in endothelial cells

Semisynthetic penicillins differ from natural penicillins in all of the following respects except A) Broad spectrum B) Resistant to penicillinase C) Resistant to stomach acids D) Bactericidal E) None of the above

D) Bactericidal

The structures of the influenza drug Tamiflu and sialic acid, the substrate for influenza virus's neuramidase,are shown in Figure 20.6. What is the method of action of Tamiflu? A) Inhibits cell wall synthesis B) Inhibits plasma membrane synthesis C) Inhibits synthesis of neuramidase D) Competitive inhibition E) Prevents synthesis of virus spikes

D) Competitive inhibition

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Naegleria fowleri — causes amoebic encephalitis B) Neisseria meningitidis —produces deadly endotoxins C) Mycobacterium leprae — cultured in armadillos D) Cryptococcus neoformans — acid-fast rod E) Haemophilus influenzae — virulence due to capsule

D) Cryptococcus neoformans — acid-fast rod

Which of the following pairs does NOT apply to Chagas' disease? A) Causative agent - T. cruzi B) Vector - kissing bug C) Reservoir - rodents D) Diagnosis - serological tests for antibodies E) Treatment - Nifurtimox

D) Diagnosis of acute phase - serological tests for antibodies

Which of the following is NOT treated with antibiotics? A) plague B) tularemia C) Lyme disease D) Ebola

D) Ebola

In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the end result of the reaction? A) IgG is directed against cell membrane antigens. B) Complement is activated. C) Neutrophils are attracted and release enzymes. D) Endothelial cells are damaged. E) Antibodies destroy neutrophils.

D) Endothelial cells are damaged.

Which of the following statements is false? A) Fluoroquinolone inhibits DNA synthesis B) Acyclovir inhibits DNA synthesis C) Amantadine inhibits glycolysis D) Interferon inhibits glycolysis E) None of the above

D) Interferon inhibits glycolysis

Which of the following statements about congenital rubella syndrome is FALSE? A) It is contracted during the first trimester of pregnancy. B) It may be fatal to the unborn child. C) It may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation. D) It does not occur with subclinical infections. E) It can be prevented by vaccinating women prior to pregnancy

D) It does not occur with subclinical infections.

Which of the following statements about schistosomiasis is false? A) The cercariae penetrate human skin. B) A parasite of birds causes swimmer's itch in humans. C) The intermediate host is an aquatic snail. D) It is caused by a roundworm. E) The female worm is attached to the male.

D) It is caused by a roundworm.

All of the following statements about drug resistance are true except A) It may be carried on a plasmid B) It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation C) It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria E) It may be due to increased uptake of a drug

D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria

Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. What is the organism? A) Naegleria B) Neisseria C) Streptococcus D) Listeria E) Haemophilus

D) Listeria

Which of the following cause(s) ringworm? A) Microsporum B) Epidermophyton C) Mycobacterium D) Microsporum and Epidermophyton E) Microsporum, Epidermophyton, and Mycobacterium

D) Microsporum and Epidermophyton

All of the following organisms cause meningitis EXCEPT A) Haemophilus influenzae. B) Cryptococcus neoformans. C) Streptococcus pneumoniae. D) Mycobacterium leprae. E) Neisseria meningitidis.

D) Mycobacterium leprae.

Which of the following is a free-living amoeba that can cause encephalitis? A) Naegleria B) Entamoeba C) Acanthamoeba D) Naegleria and Acanthamoeba E) Entamoeba and Naegleria

D) Naegleria and Acanthamoeba

Which of the following statements about rheumatic fever is FALSE? A) It is a complication of a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection. B) It is an inflammation of the heart. C) It is an inflammation of the joints. D) Once resolved, a patient rarely experiences a reoccurrence.

D) Once resolved, a patient rarely experiences a reoccurrence. (It is rarely fatal, even when untreated or It is cured with penicillin).

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Borrelia - relapsing fever B) Yersinia - plague C) Streptobacillus - rat-bite fever D) Pasteurella - cat-scratch disease E) Spirillum - rat-bite fever

D) Pasteurella - cat-scratch disease

A 25-year-old male presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis 2 months earlier. This disease can be treated with A) Acyclovir. B) Metronidazole. C) Miconazole. D) Penicillin. E) Surgery.

D) Penicillin.

A positive LE text and 10,000 CFU/ml in urine indicates A) Cystitis. B) Gonorrhea. C) Urethritis. D) Pyelonephritis. E) Genital herpes.

D) Pyelonephritis.

The patient has vesicles and scabs over her forehead. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings shows gram-positive cocci in clusters. The etiology is A) Candida. B) Microsporum. C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Sarcoptes.

D) Staphylococcus aureus.

The antibiotic erythromycin binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome as shown in Figure 20.3. The effect is to A) Prevent attachment of tRNA B) Prevent peptide bone formation C) Prevent transcription D) Stop the ribosome from moving alone the mRNA E) None of the above

D) Stop the ribosome from moving alone the mRNA

Scrapings from a patient's rash reveal cercariae. The disease is most likely A) Lyme disease. B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever. C) Relapsing fever. D) Swimmer's itch. E) Chagas' disease.

D) Swimmer's itch.

Which of the following is treated with penicillin? A) Lymphogranuloma venereum B) Genital warts C) Candidiasis D) Syphilis E) Trichomoniasis

D) Syphilis

Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA polymerase or RNA polymerase is not true? A) They cause mutations B) They are used against viral infections C) They affect host cell DNA D) They are too dangerous to be used E) None of the above

D) They are too dangerous to be used

Which of the following is NOT controlled by a mosquito eradication program? A) Chikungunya fever B) Yellow fever C) Dengue D) Toxoplasmosis E) Malaria

D) Toxoplasmosis or schistosomiasis

Leukocytes at the infected site is a symptom of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) Genital herpes. C) Candidiasis. D) Trichomoniasis. E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.

D) Trichomoniasis.

Which of the following is NOT treated with antibiotics? A) Plague B) Tularemia C) Lyme disease D) Yellow fever E) Anthrax

D) Yellow fever

The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of increasing amounts of A) IgE. B) IgG. C) antihistamine. D) antigen. E) RhoGAM.

D) antigen.

Inflammation of the thin clear membrane lining the eyelid and eye is properly termed A) keratititis B) trachoma C) ophthalmia neonatorum D) conjunctivitis E) whitlow

D) conjunctivitis

If the compound shown in Figure 20.5 is the substance for a particular enzyme, which of the drugs would be the most effective competitive inhibitor? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) None of the above

D) d

The most effective control of mosquito-borne disease is A) treatment of infected wild animals. B) treatment of infected humans. C) avoidance of endemic areas. D) elimination of the mosquito population. E) treatment of uninfected humans.

D) elimination of the mosquito population.

Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause A) immunologic enhancement. B) immunologic surveillance. C) immunotherapy. D) immunosuppression. E) autoimmunity.

D) immunosuppression.

Detecting HIV antibodies during HIV infection A) is not possible due to immunosuppression during infection. B) is used to diagnose infection. C) is possible after a few weeks after infection. D) is possible after a few weeks and is used to diagnose infection. E) can occur during phase 2 and 3 of infection

D) is possible after a few weeks and is used to diagnose infection.

All of the following are true of chronic fatigue syndrome EXCEPT A) it may be triggered by a viral infection. B) it is also known as myalgic encephalomyelitis. C) it often begins with flu-like symptoms that do not go away. D) it is a psychological disorder. E) it may have a genetic component.

D) it is a psychological disorder.

Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because A) it is very difficult to determine the causative microbe. B) the infections move along peripheral nerves. C) no medications exist for treatment of these infections. D) many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood—brain barrier. E) antibiotics damage nervous tissue.

D) many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood—brain barrier.

Which of the following is used to treat candidiasis of the skin or mucous membranes? A) penicillin B) sulfonamide C) trifluridine D) miconazole E) acyclovir

D) miconazole

Which of the following is used to treat sporotrichosis? A) penicillin B) sulfonamide C) trifluridine D) oral potassium iodide E) acyclovir

D) oral potassium iodide

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) leprosy - direct contact B) rabies - direct contact C) meningococcal meningitis - respiratory route D) poliomyelitis - respiratory route E) listeriosis - ingestion

D) poliomyelitis - respiratory route

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) subacute bacterial endocarditis — alpha-hemolytic streptococci B) acute bacterial endocarditis — Staphylococcus aureus C) pericarditis — Streptococcus pyogenes D) puerperal sepsis — Staphylococcus aureus

D) puerperal sepsis — Staphylococcus aureus

All of the following are protective factors of the skin and its secretions EXCEPT A) keratin. B) tightly packed cells. C) lysozyme production. D) pyocyanin production. E) salt.

D) pyocyanin production.

Exfoliative toxin is responsible for A) otitis externa. B) impetigo. C) fever blisters. D) scalded skin syndrome. E) thrush

D) scalded skin syndrome.

Which of the following regions has the greatest distribution of HIV infection and AIDS in the world? A) North America B) Eastern Europe and Central Asia C) South and Southeast Asia D) sub-Saharan Africa E) Latin America

D) sub-Saharan Africa

All of the following are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT A) smallpox. B) chickenpox. C) rubella. D) tinea. E) measles

D) tinea.

A physician diagnoses a patient with lepromatous Hansen's disease. All of the following pertain to the patient EXCEPT A) infection probably occurred as a result of prolonged contact with another infected individual. B) a skin biopsy will be taken to aid diagnosis. C) disfiguring nodules form all over the body. D) treatment will include injections of penicillin. E) the disease has progressed from the tuberculoid stage.

D) treatment will include injections of penicillin.

All of the following are reasons why an HIV vaccine has not been developed EXCEPT A) there is no known animal model of natural immunity for HIV infection. B) use of a weakened virus would potentially transmit the infection. C) small, inexpensive animals which could be used for HIV vaccine research are not available. D) vaccines are not effective against viral infections. E) HIV has a high mutation rate so one vaccination would not be effective to treat the world-wide pandemic.

D) vaccines are not effective against viral infections.

Which of the following statements about toxoplasmosis is false? A. It is caused by a protozoan B. The reservoir is cats C. Is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route D. It is a severe illness in adults E. It can be congenital

D. It is a severe illness in adults

All of the following result from Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection. Which one leads to the others? A. Antibody production is stopped B. CD4+ T lymphocytes do not activate C. There is an increased risk of other STI's D. Opa protein attaches to CD4+ T lymphocytes E. CD4+ T lymphocytes do not proliferate

D. Opa protein attaches to CD4+ T lymphocytes

Unsanitary and crowded conditions increase the incidence of all of the following diseases except A. Plague B. Epidemic typhus C. Endemic murine typhus D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever E. Relapsing fever

D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Which of the following is not an antimicrobial feature of the urinary system? A. Physiological valves found in the ureter B. pH of the urine C. Flushing action of urine D. The use of the urethra for seminal fluid in women E. None of the answers is correct; all of these are antimicrobial features of the urinary system

D. The use of the urethra for seminal fluid in women

A patient complained of headache. A CT scan revealed cysts of varying size and her brain. What is your diagnosis?A patient presents with vomiting diarrhea and a history of fever and headache. Bacterial cultures of blood CSF and stool are negative. What is your diagnosis? A. Ehrlichiosos B. Lyme disease C. Septic shock D. Toxoplasmosis E. Viral hemorrhagic fever

D. Toxoplasmosis

All of the following are associated with botulism outbreaks EXCEPT A) endospores of C. botulinum have been recovered from honey. B) type E toxin is associated with seafood. C) antibodies are not an effective method of treatment. D) type B toxin is most virulent. E) Alaskan natives have the highest rate of botulism.

E) Alaskan natives have the highest (or lowest) rate of botulism.

Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factors to cystitis in females? A) The proximity of the anus to the urethra B) The length of the urethra C) Sexual intercourse D) Poor personal hygiene E) All of the above are predisposing factors.

E) All of the above are predisposing factors.

Which of the following is likely to spread MRSA among athletes? A) physical contact B) whirlpool baths C) taping gels D) shared equipment E) All of the answers are correct

E) All of the answers are correct

Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection? A) Virions may remain latent. B) There may be persistent yeast infections. C) Infection may initially be asymptomatic. D) The disease does not progress to AIDS. E) All of the answers are correct.

E) All of the answers are correct.

In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike? A) Both are broad spectrum. B) Both are resistant to stomach acids. C) Both are resistant to penicillinase. D) Both are bactericidal. E) Both are based on β-lactam.

E) Both are based on β-lactam.

The following results were obtained from a disk-diffusion test for microbial susceptibility to antibiotics. S aureus was the test organism. Antibiotic and Zone of Inhibition A - 3mm B - 7mm C - 0mm D - 10mm The antibiotic that exhibited bactericidal action was A) A B) B C) C D) D E) Can't tell

E) Can't tell

The following results were obtained from a disk-diffusion test for microbial susceptibility to antibiotics. S aureus was the test organism. Antibiotic and Zone of Inhibition A - 3mm B - 7mm C - 0mm D - 10mm Which antibiotic would be most useful for treating a Salmonella infection? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) Can't tell

E) Can't tell

An eight-year-old girl in rural Wisconsin has chills, headache, and fever and reports having been bitten by mosquitoes. How would you confirm your diagnosis? A) complement fixation test for IgG antibodies B) examination of local mosquitoes C) brain biopsy for Negri bodies D) Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid E) ELISA test for IgM antibodies

E) ELISA test for IgM antibodies

Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched for Gram reaction? A) Lyme disease — gram-negative B) tularemia — gram-negative C) anthrax — gram-positive D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever — gram-negative E) Ehrlichia — gram-positive

E) Ehrlichia — gram-positive

A one-year-old boy was listless, irritable, and sleepy. Capsulated Gram-negative rods were cultured from his cerebrospinal fluid. His symptoms were caused by A) Neisseria meningitidis. B) a prion. C) rabies. D) Clostridium tetani. E) Haemophilus influenzae.

E) Haemophilus influenzae.

Which of the following statements about type IV reactions is FALSE? A) Reactions are primarily due to T cell proliferation. B) Reactions are not apparent for a day or more. C) Cytokines initiate tissue damage. D) Allergic contact dermatitis is an example. E) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example.

E) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example.

Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is false? A) It can cause sterility and chronic pain. B) It can be caused by N. gonorrhoeae. C) It can be transmitted sexually. D) It can be caused by C. trachomatis. E) It can be caused by T. pallidum

E) It can be caused by T. pallidum or It affects men and women equally.

Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitis is FALSE? A) It is encapsulated. B) Its most distinguishing feature is a unique rash. C) It is typically transmitted by droplet aerosols or direct contact with secretions. D) A healthy carrier state can exist. E) It is a gram-positive anaerobe.

E) It is a gram-positive anaerobe.

Which of the following is caused by Chlamydia? A) Gardnerella vaginosis B) Genital herpes C) Candidiasis D) Trichomoniasis E) Lymphogranuloma venereum

E) Lymphogranuloma venereum

All of the following can cause congenital infections or infections of the newborn EXCEPT A) Syphilis. B) Gonorrhea. C) Nongonococcal urethritis. D) Genital herpes. E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.

E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.

Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT A) Mycoplasma homini. B) Candida albicans. C) Trichomonas vaginalis. D) Streptococci. E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Which of the following is NOT a complication of gonorrhea? A) arthritis B) pelvic inflammatory disease C) endocarditis D) meningitis E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are potential complications of gonorrhea.

E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are potential complications of gonorrhea.

The first antibiotic discovered was A) Quinine B) Salvarsan C) Streptomycin D) Sulfa drugs E) Penicillin

E) Penicillin

Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria? A) Polyenes B) Bacitracin C) Cephalosporin D) Penicillin E) Polymyxin

E) Polymyxin

Which of the following is incorrectly matched? A) Haemophilus influenzae — pinkeye B) Chlamydia trachomatis — trachoma C) Neisseria gonorrhea — opthalmia neonatorum D) Acanthamoeba — keratitis E) Pseudomonas — inclusion conjunctivitis

E) Pseudomonas — inclusion conjunctivitis

The patient has a papular rash. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals small eight-legged animals. The etiology is A) Candida. B) Microsporum. C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Sarcoptes

E) Sarcoptes

To date, most of our natural antibiotics have been found to be produced by members of what genus? A) Bacillus B) Cephalosporium C) Paenibacillus D) Penicillium E) Streptomyces

E) Streptomyces

Which one of the following does not belong with the others? A) Bacitracin B) Cephalosporin C) Monobactam D) Penicillin E) Streptomycin

E) Streptomycin

HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on A) T helper cells. B) macrophages. C) dendritic cells. D) T helper cells and macrophages. E) T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.

E) T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.

The antimicrobial drug with the broadest spectrum of activity are A) Aminoglysosides B) Chloramphenicol C) Lincomycin D) Macrolides E) Tetracyclines

E) Tetracyclines

Which of the following statements about human embryonic stem cells is TRUE? A) They are obtained in great numbers from umbilical cords of newborns. B) They express no MHC II antigens. C) They are pluripotent. D) They are typically obtained from the zygote stage of embryonic development. E) They are pluripotent and typically obtained from the blastocyst stage of embryonic development.

E) They are pluripotent and typically obtained from the blastocyst stage of embryonic development.

In which of the following respects is measles similar to German measles (rubella)? A) They have a similar type of rash. B) They are caused by the same virus. C) Encephalitis is a possible complication. D) Congenital complications may occur. E) They can be controlled by vaccination

E) They can be controlled by vaccination

Which of the following pairs regarding the epidemiology of malaria is mismatched? A) Vector - Anopheles B) Etiology - Plasmodium C) Found in liver - sporozoites D) Diagnosis - presence of merozoites E) Treatment - antibiotics

E) Treatment - antibiotics

Which of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)? A) Lymphogranuloma venereum B) Genital herpes C) Gonorrhea D) Chancroid E) Trichomoniasis

E) Trichomoniasis

Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT A) pimples. B) sties. C) boils. D) carbuncles. E) acne.

E) acne.

Which of the following is used to treat shingles? A) penicillin B) sulfonamide C) trifluridine D) fungicide E) acyclovir

E) acyclovir

Newborns' eyes are treated with an antibiotic A) when Neisseria gonorrhoeae is isolated from the eyes. B) when the mother is blind. C) when the mother has genital herpes. D) when the mother has gonorrhea. E) as a routine precaution.

E) as a routine precaution.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) tetanus - releases potent neurotoxin B) leprosy — deformation of nose and hands can occur C) rabies virus - destroys cells of the CNS D) poliomyelitis - multiplication of virus occurs in throat and small intestine E) botulism - stimulates transmission of nerve impulse

E) botulism - stimulates transmission of nerve impulse

Vaccination is available for all the following EXCEPT A) rabies. B) tetanus. C) Neisseria meningitis. D) Haemophilus meningitis. E) botulism.

E) botulism.

All of the following are acquired by ingestion EXCEPT A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. B) poliomyelitis. C) listeriosis. D) botulism. E) cryptococcosis.

E) cryptococcosis.

Which one of the following causes the most severe illness in humans, with a mortality rate of 30 percent? A) West Nile encephalitis B) California encephalitis C) St. Louis encephalitis D) western equine encephalitis E) eastern equine encephalitis

E) eastern equine encephalitis

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) malaria — Anopheles (mosquito) B) dengue — Aedes (mosquito) C) epidemic typhus — Pediculus(louse) D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever — Dermacentor (tick) E) encephalitis — Ixodes (tick)

E) encephalitis — Ixodes (tick)

The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following EXCEPT A) microbial fermentation. B) necrotizing exotoxins. C) proteolytic enzymes. D) hyaluronidase. E) endocarditis

E) endocarditis

All of the following are true of M. leprae EXCEPT A) it grows best at temperatures below 37° C. B) it invades cells of the PNS. C) it can be cultured in armadillos. D) it survives ingestion by macrophages. E) it has a very short generation time of approximately twelve hours.

E) it has a very short generation time of approximately twelve hours.

Koplik spots are a diagnostic indicator of A) chickenpox. B) smallpox. C) fifth disease. D) rubella. E) measles.

E) measles.

Which of the following are incorrectly matched? A) varicella-zoster — chickenpox B) parvovirus — fifth disease C) HHV-6 — roseola D) herpes zoster — shingles E) poxvirus — fever blisters

E) poxvirus — fever blisters

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis? A) is aerobic B) is gram-positive C) forms endospores D) found in soil E) produces endotoxins

E) produces endotoxins

Each of the following is caused by prions EXCEPT A) sheep scrapie. B) bovine spongiform encephalopathy. C) kuru. D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. E) rabies.

E) rabies.

The symptoms of tetanus are due to A) sustained relaxation of muscles. B) inflammation. C) systemic infection. D) endospore formation. E) tetanospasmin.

E) tetanospasmin.

All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT A) asthma. B) dust allergies. C) penicillin allergic reactions. D) pollen allergies. E) transplant rejections.

E) transplant rejections.

A 45-year-old man has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right quadrant, over his right shoulder, and upper right quadrant of his chest. His symptoms are most likely due to A) Candida albicans. B) herpes simplex virus. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) Streptococcus pyogenes. E) varicella-zoster virus

E) varicella-zoster virus

Pyelonephritis may result from A. Urethritis B. Cystitis C. Ureteritis D. Systemic infections E. All of the answers are correct

E. All of the answers are correct

Which of the following statements about tularemia is false? A. It is caused by Francisella tularensis B. The most common reservoir is rabbits C. It may be transmitted by arthropods D. It may be transmitted by direct contact E. It occurs only in California

E. It occurs only in California

A patient was hospitalized because of continuing fever and progression of symptoms including headache fatigue and back pain. Test for antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi was negative. What is your diagnosis?A patient presents with vomiting diarrhea and a history of fever and headache. Bacterial cultures of blood CSF and stool are negative. What is your diagnosis? A. Ehrlichiosos B. Lyme disease C. Septic shock D. Toxoplasmosis E. Viral hemorrhagic fever

E. Viral hemorrhagic fever

In this activity, you will identify the general mechanism of inhibition for the antimicrobial actions listed.

Inhibiting Cell Wall Synthesis: - Inhibiting synthesis of peptide cross-links - Inhibiting bonding of N-acetyl glucosamine to N-acetylmuramic acid - Inhibiting lipopolysaccharide synthesis - Inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis Injuring the Plasma Membrane: - Inhibiting fatty acid synthesis Interfering with DNA Replication: - Interfering with DNA polymerase - Inhibiting DNA gyrase Interfering with RNA synthesis (Transcription): - Interfering with RNA polymerase Interfering with Protein Synthesis: - Interfering with activity of 30S ribosomal subunit - Interfering with activity of 50S ribosomal subunit - Interfering with attachment of tRNA to mRNA - Interfering with peptide bond formation, catalyzed by the ribosome

Big Picture: STI Home Test Kits: - Pros of at-home testing: * more cases are diagnosed * better access for patients * quicker treatment - Cons of home-testing: * cost (not typically covered by insurance) * privacy * not all home test kits are equally accurate.

JUST READ

Big Picture: STI Home Test Kits: - 2 million new cases in 2016, 2.46 million in 2018 (many more believed to be undiagnosed or asymptomatic). - I want the kit (iwantthekit.org) * collect samples at home and mail to a lab = currently only available to Maryland, Washington D.C. and Alaska residents. * screens for chlamydia, gonorrhea, and trichomoniasis = results in 1-2 weeks/ positive tests receive referrals to clinics. - Test for HIV: * OraQuick: oral test (indirect ELISA). - Test for urinary tract infections * Uritest: dipstick test (nitrites).

JUST READ!!!!

All penicillins, or "cillins," share several structural features but differ in others. This activity asks that you identify several features common to all "cillin" antibiotics. Drag the labels to the appropriate locations on the image.

LOOK AT PICTURE

Drag the following labels to the appropriate antimicrobial target in the diagram.

LOOK AT PICTURE

There are basically four mechanisms of microbial resistance. This activity asks that you drag the statement describing each mechanism to the appropriate area of the image that represents the mechanism. Drag each statement to the appropriate area of the diagram.

LOOK AT PICTURE

Big Picture: Neglected Tropical Diseases: - Sixteen diseases contracted by 1 billion people per year. * half a million deaths. * disproportionally affect the poor. - Cause various maladies: blindness, disfigurement, liver or lung disease, movement-related disabilities, malnutrition, malaise, cognitive impairment, and neurological damage. - WHO set NTD reduction targets for 2020. - Strategies to reduce incidence of neglected tropical diseases: * preventive chemotherapy * innovative, intensified disease management. * veterinary care * vector control * improved sanitation and hygiene services.

LOOK AT PRINTED DISEASES!!!

Antibacterial Drugs: - Inhibitors of Cell Wall Synthesis: * natural penicillins = Penicillin G and Penicillin V * semisynthetic penicillins = Oxacillin, Ampicillin, Amoxicillin, Aztreonam, Imipenem * cephalosporins = Cephalothin, Cefixime * polypeptide antibiotics = Bacitracin, Vancomycin * antimycobacterial antibiotics = Isoniazid, Ethambutol - Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis: * Chloramphenicol * aminoglycosides = Streptomycin, Neomycin, Gentamicin * pleuromutilins = Mutilin, Retpamulin * tetracyclines = Tetracycline, Oxytetracycline, Chlortetracycline * macrolides = Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Telithromycin (Ketek) * streptogramins = Quinupristin and Dalfopristin (Synercid) * oxazolidinones = Linezolid (Zyvox) * glycylcyclines = Tygecycline - Injury to Plasma Membrane: * Polymyxin B * lipopeptides = Daptomycin - Inhibitors of Nucleic Acid Synthesis: * rifamycins = Rifampin * quinolones and fluoroquinolones = Nalidixic acid, Nofloxacin, Ciprofloxacin, Gatifloxacin - Competitive Inhibitors of the Synthesis of Essential Metabolites: * sulfonamides = Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

LOOK AT PRINTED PICTURE!

Antifungal Drugs: - Agents Affecting Fungal Sterols (Plasma Membrane): * polyenes = Amphotericin B * azoles = Clotrimazole, Miconazole, Ketoconazole * allylamines = Terbinafine, Naftifine - Agents Affecting Fungal Cell Walls * echinocandins = Caspofungin (Cancidas) - Agents Inhibiting Nucleic Acids: * Flucytosine - Other Antifungal Drugs: * Griseofulvin * Tolnaftate

LOOK AT PRINTED PICTURE!

Antihelminthic Drugs: * Niclosamide * Praziquantel * Pyrantel pamoate * Mebendazole, Albendazole * Ivermectin

LOOK AT PRINTED PICTURE!

Antiprotozoan Drugs: * Chloroquine * Diiodohydroxyquin * Metronidazole, Tinidazole

LOOK AT PRINTED PICTURE!

Antiviral Drugs: - Entry and Fusion Inhibitors: * Maraviroc * Zanamivir, Oseltamivir - Uncoating Inhibitors: * Amantadine, Zimantadine - Genome Integration and Nucleic Acid Synthesis Inhibitors: * Zidovudine (AZT) * Acyclovir, Ganciclovir, Ribavirin, Iamivudine * Cidofovir * Adefovir dipivoxil (Hepsera) - Assembly and Exit Inhibitors: * Saquinavir * Boceprevir * Zanamivir, Oseltamivir - Interferons: * Alpha interferon

LOOK AT PRINTED PICTURE!

Infants may acquire a serious form of conjunctivitis during birth if they are born to a mother infected with __________.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

The Effect of Penicillinase on Penicillins: - Penicillinase (enzyme) breaks down active site (_________), creating _______ (inactive penicillin).

PICTURE IN NOTES! - (beta-lactam ring)/ penicilloic acid

Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a significant problem in the world. The symptoms described in the case thus far are fairly general and may apply to multiple STIs. However, many STIs can be discerned by other visual signs that accompany the general symptoms. Drag each of the organism labels onto the picture that best matches the MOST identifiable trait/symptom associated with each disease appearance.

PICTURE!

Representative Sources of Antibiotics: - Gram-Positive Rods: * Bacillus subtilis = produced the antibiotic Bacitracin * Paenibacillus polymyxa = produced the antibiotic Polymyxin - Actinomycetes (Gram-Positive mycelial bacteria): * Streptomyces nodosus = produced the antibiotic Amphotericin B. * Streptomyces venezuelae = produced the antibiotic Chloramphenicol * Streptomyces aureofaciens = produced the antibiotic Chlortetracycline and tetracycline * Saccharopolyspora erythraea = produced the antibiotic Erythromycin * Streptomyces fradiae = produced the antibiotic Neomycin * Streptomyces griseus = produced the antibiotic Streptomycin * Micromonospora purpurea = produced the antibiotic Gentamicin - Fungi: * Cephalosporium spp. = produced the antibiotic Cephalothin * Penicillium griseofulvum = produced the antibiotic Griseofulvin * Penicillin chrysogenum = produced the antibiotic Penicillin

READ OVER = MATCHING

The Spectrum of Activity of Antibiotics and Other Antimicrobial Drugs: - Isoniazid = mycobacteria - Streptomycin = mycobacteria and gram-negative bacteria - Tetracycline = mycobacteria, gram-negative bacteria, gram-positive bacteria, and chlamydias/rickettsias - Penicillin G = gram-positive bacteria - Ketoconazole = fungi - Mefloquine (malaria) = protozoa - Niclosamide (tapeworms) and Praziquantel (flukes) = helminths - Acyclovir = viruses

READ OVER = MATCHING

Acyclovir: 1. The enzyme thymidine kinase combines phosphates with nucleosides to form nucleotides, which are then incorporated into DNA. 2. Acyclovir has no effect on a cell not infected by a virus, that is, with normal thymidine kinase. In a virally infected cell, the thymidine kinase is altered and converts the acyclovir (which resembles the nucleoside deoxyguanosine) to a false nucleotide, which blocks DNA synthesis by DNA polymerase = assembly of DNA stops. * there is no attachment (hydroxyl group) = no chain will be formed!

READ OVER STEPS

CHAPTER 21: MICROBIAL DISEASES OF THE SKIN AND EYES

STARTS HERE!

CHAPTER 22: MICROBIAL DISEASES OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

STARTS HERE!

CHAPTER 26: MICROBIAL DISEASES OF THE URINARY AND REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEMS

STARTS HERE!!!!!

HIV Lifecycle: 1. Fusion/entry (binding) * gp120 to CD4+ 2. Integration and uncoating 3. Reverse Transcriptase 4. Integration into a provirus 5. Use of the machinery to make viral particle = maturation 6. Release

Simplistic Overview of Lifecycle

A child presents with large red patches of skin. The top layers are peeling off. Because the parents report that the child hasn't been burned, you suspect that the lesions are due to infection with __________.

Staphylococcus aureus

What do Haemophilus influenzae, Chlamydia trachomitis, and adenoviruses have in common?

They all can cause conjunctivitis.

What do herpes simplex virus 1 and Acanthamoeba have in common?

They can both cause keratitis.

You have a culture of bacteria that you suspect is either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Is there any morphological difference between the two?

Yes. S. aureus tends to grow in clusters, whereas S. pyogenes tends to grow in chains.

In which of the following North American locations would you expect to find the highest incidence of infection with Borrelia burgdorferi? a) Atlantic coast b) Gulf of Mexico c) Pacific coast d) Colorado

a) Atlantic coast

Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitis is FALSE? a) It is a gram-positive anaerobe. b) It is encapsulated. c) A healthy carrier state can exist. d) Its most distinguishing feature is a unique rash.

a) It is a gram-positive anaerobe.

Which of the following is an accurate statement concerning the Sabin and Salk vaccines? a) The Sabin vaccine is slightly more dangerous because it is made from live, attenuated virus, and the virus occasionally reverts back to its pathogenic form. b) The Salk vaccine is easier to administer because it is given orally. c) The Salk vaccine is cheaper to make than the Sabin vaccine. d) The Salk vaccine is more effective in conferring immunity.

a) The Sabin vaccine is slightly more dangerous because it is made from live, attenuated virus, and the virus occasionally reverts back to its pathogenic form.

Cats have been identified as an essential part of the life cycle for the protozoan that causes which disease?a) toxoplasmosis b) malaria c) babesiosis d) Chagas' disease

a) toxoplasmosis

A patient has a skin ulcer from which a gram-negative bacillus is cultured. This patient has regional lymph nodes that are enlarged and filled with pockets of pus. He reports keeping pet rabbits. Which of the following is a possible diagnosis? a) tularemia b) puerperal sepsis c) anthrax d) relapsing fever

a) tularemia

When will someone infected with HIV have the most viral particles in his or her blood? a. 1 to 2 months after the initial infection b. 1 year after the initial infection c. 3 to 4 years after the initial infection d. When the patient dies

a. 1 to 2 months after the initial infection

Which of the following statements is true regarding chickenpox and shingles? a. A child who is not immune to chickenpox may get it following exposure to a patient with shingles. b. A nonimmune adult is likely to develop shingles after exposure to a person with chickenpox. c. An individual who has never been infected with varicella can get shingles as an adult. d. An individual is likely to develop shingles after exposure to a person with shingles. e. All of these statements are true.

a. A child who is not immune to chickenpox may get it following exposure to a patient with shingles.

Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a prion? a. African sleeping sickness b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease c. Scrapie d. Kuru e. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy

a. African sleeping sickness

Which one of the following diseases is transmitted by a vector? a. African trypanosomiasis b. Naegleria meningoencephalitis c. Leprosy d. Poliomyelitis

a. African trypanosomiasis

Which statement regarding cancer immunotherapy is FALSE? a. An immunotoxin is an antigen combined with a toxic agent. b. Monoclonal antibodies are a promising tool for cancer treatment delivery. c. Cancer immunotherapy is preferable to radiation therapy because it does not involve causing damage to healthy cells. d. Cancer vaccines may be either therapeutic or prophylactic.

a. An immunotoxin is an antigen combined with a toxic agent.

Which is used for passive immunization. a. Antirabies antibiotics b. HDVC

a. Antirabies antibiotics

A 67-year-old man works in a textile mill that processes imported goat hair into fabrics. One morning he notices a painless, slightly swollen pimple on his chin. He later develops a 1-cm ulcer at the pimple site, and it has a black scab. Gram-positive, endospore-forming rods are cultured from the ulcer. What is the etiology? a. Bacillus anthracis b. Ehrlichia spp. c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Borrelia burgdorferi

a. Bacillus anthracis

Bacterial infections are easier to treat using chemotherapy than are other types of infections caused by other types of microorganisms. Why? a. Bacteria are prokaryotic and thus, have targets different than eukaryotic cells. b. Bacteria grow more slowly. c. Bacteria are more sensitive to chemicals. d. Bacteria are smaller than the other types of pathogens.

a. Bacteria are prokaryotic and thus, have targets different than eukaryotic cells.

Which disease listed below, results in symptoms of a drooping eyelid or mouth on one side of the face, and is caused when a facial muscle nerve becomes inflamed? a. Bell's palsy b. chronic fatigue syndrome c. bovine spongiform encephalopathy d. Eastern equine encephalitis e. St. Louis encephalitis

a. Bell's palsy

Which of the following diseases is NOT an infection? a. Botulism b. Cryptococcosis c. Poliomyelitis d. Listeriosis

a. Botulism

A man found living in a rat-infested building develops a high fever and swollen lymph nodes, called buboes, in the armpit and groin. A gram-negative bacillus is isolated from the patient, and the rats are found to be infested with Xenopsylla cheopis. What is the disease? a. Bubonic plague b. Relapsing fever c. Lyme disease d. Cat-scratch disease e. Rat-scratch disease

a. Bubonic plague

The development of which disease is promoted by mosquito-borne malarial infections? a. Burkitt's lymphoma b. infectious mononucleosis ("mono") c. cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection d. Hodgkin's disease

a. Burkitt's lymphoma

Mycobacterium ulcerans causes a skin infection known as a __________. a. Buruli ulcer b. Tuberculosis c. Necrotizing fasciitis d. Scabies

a. Buruli ulcer

A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with a. CTLs and activated macrophages. b. CD+ T cells. c. tumor-specific antigens. d. activated macrophages. e. CTLs.

a. CTLs and activated macrophages.

Microscopic examination of vaginal smear shows ovoid eukaryotic cells. a. Candida b. Chlamydia c. Gardnerella d. Neisseria e. Trichomonas

a. Candida

A vaccine has reduced the incidence of which of the following cancers? a. Cervical cancer b. Leukemia c. Breast cancer d. Bone cancer

a. Cervical cancer

In cases of NGU, diagnosis is made using PCR to detect microbial DNA. a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Escherichia coli c. Mycobacterium hominis d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

a. Chlamydia trachomatis

Which of the following promotes the development of self-tolerance and prevents the eventual development of autoimmune diseases? a. Clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells b. Inhibition of B cell development c. Development of self-reactive B cell clones d. Loss of T memory cells

a. Clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells

Which drug would be used to treat athlete's foot? a. Clotrimazole b. Amantadine c. Polymyxin B d. Neomycin e. Chloroquine

a. Clotrimazole

Which one of these diseases has the highest incidence in the United States? a. Cmv (cytomegalovirus) infection b. Malaria c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever d. Plague

a. Cmv (cytomegalovirus) infection

Which enzyme is NOT produced by deep-tissue streptococcal infections? a. Coagulase b. Streptokinase c. Hyaluronidase d. Deoxyribonuclease e. Protease

a. Coagulase

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Streptococcus? a. Coagulase-positive b. Gram-positive c. Beta-hemolytic d. m proteins e. Cocci

a. Coagulase-positive

__________ is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, often called by the common name red eye, or pinkeye. a. Conjunctivitis b. Trachoma c. Herpetic Keratitis d. Ophthalmia Neonatorum

a. Conjunctivitis

A postmortem examination of a brain shows sponge-like degeneration. Which of the following is a likely cause? a. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease b. Arboviral encephalitis c. Poliomyelitis d. Rabies

a. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Which of the following begins as a lung infection but may cause meningitis in immunosuppressed individuals? a. Cryptococcosis b. Amebic encephalitis c. Scrapie d. Listeriosis e. Polio

a. Cryptococcosis

Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid from a person who washes windows on a building in a large city reveals ovoid cells. What are they? a. Cryptococcus b. Haemophilus c. Listeria d. Maegleria e. Neisseria

a. Cryptococcus

The yeast Malassezia furfur may be the cause of which of the following? a. Dandruff b. Impetigo c. Thrush d. Scabies

a. Dandruff

Which of the following diseases is most likely to be similar to AIDS in terms of the specific immunodeficiency? a. DiGeorge syndrome b. Selective IgA deficiency c. X-linked infantile agammaglobulinemia d. Severe combined immunodeficiency e. Common variable hypogammaglobulinemia

a. DiGeorge syndrome

Pyelonephritis is usually caused by __________, a normal flora organism in the large intestine. a. Escherichia coli b. Staphylococcus saprophyticus c. Streptococcus mutans d. Leptospira interrogans

a. Escherichia coli

The normal microbiota of the vagina change throughout a female's life. Which of the following cause the change? a. Estrogens b. Yeasts c. Acids d. Lactobacilli

a. Estrogens

Which of these statements about genital herpes is true? a. Genital herpes can be caused by HSV-1 and HSV-2. b. Genital herpes can be transmitted only when lesions are present. c. There is a vaccine available for preventing genital herpes. d. Valacyclovir will cure genital herpes.

a. Genital herpes can be caused by HSV-1 and HSV-2.

Which of the following is NOT a possible result of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? a. Genital warts b. Sterility c. Ectopic pregnancy d. Chronic pain

a. Genital warts

Which autoimmune diseases and terms are mismatched? a. Grave's disease - prevention of thyroid hormone production b. Systemic lupus erythematosus - immune complex reactions c. Rheumatoid arthritis - IgM binds Fc of IgG d. Myasthenia gravis - blocked acetocholine receptors e. Multiple sclerosis - myelin sheath destruction

a. Grave's disease - prevention of thyroid hormone production

__________ is a common cause of __________. It may be diagnosed by the presence of gram-negative rods in the cerebrospinal fluid. a. Haemophilus influenzae; meningitis b. Clostridium tetani; tetanus c. Listeria monocytogenes; listeriosis d. Streptococcus pneumoniae; meningitis

a. Haemophilus influenzae; meningitis

The etiologic agent of fever blisters is __________. a. Herpes simplex virus 1 b. Herpes simplex virus 2 c. Herpes simplex virus d. Papillomavirus e. Varicella zoster

a. Herpes simplex virus 1

Which of the following is FALSE concerning type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reactions? a. IgE binds to mast cells or basophils. b. They are responsible for transfusion reactions. c. IgM and IgG antibodies bind to antigens on foreign cells. d. Macrophage activity my lead to additional cellular damage.

a. IgE binds to mast cells or basophils.

The desensitization injections for allergy treatments are aimed at producing __________. a. IgG b. IgE c. IgA d. IgD e. IgM

a. IgG

All of the following are causes of immune deficiencies. Which one is artificially induced for clinical purposes? a. Immunodeficiency caused by transplant drugs b. Inheritance-related immunodeficiency c. Infection-related immunodeficiency d. All of the listed choices are correct.

a. Immunodeficiency caused by transplant drugs

__________ can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, or both. a. Impetigo b. Necrotizing fasciitis c. Scalded skin syndrome d. Toxic shock syndrome

a. Impetigo

Which of the following does NOT correctly represent a stage of syphilis? a. Incubation: 3- to 5-day incubation period b. Secondary stage: skin lesions on palm and any surface area of the body c. Tertiary stage: cardiovascular and neurological damage d. Primary stage: chancre at initial site e. Latent stage: no symptoms but can persist for life

a. Incubation: 3- to 5-day incubation period

Which of the following is NOT a common disease associated with AIDS? a. Influenza b. Candida albicans infection c. Pneumocystis pneumonia d. Toxoplasmosis of the brain e. Cytomegalovirus eye infections

a. Influenza

Which of the following modes of action would not be fungicidal? a. Inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis. b. Inhibition of mitosis. c. Injury to the plasma membrane. d. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis. e. None of the above.

a. Inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis.

All of the following are modes of action of antiviral drugs except: a. Inhibition of protein synthesis at 70S ribosomes. b. Inhibition of DNA synthesis. c. Inhibition of RNA synthesis. d. Inhibition of uncoating. e. None of the above.

a. Inhibition of protein synthesis at 70S ribosomes.

The most selective antimicrobial activity would be exhibited by a drug that: a. Inhibits cell wall synthesis. b. Inhibits protein synthesis. c. Injures the plasma membrane. d. Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis. e. All of the above.

a. Inhibits cell wall synthesis.

Why is polymyxin only used on the skin? a. It can also damage living human cell membranes, but the drug is safely used on the skin, where the outer layers of cells are dead. b. It is sensitive to degradation by acid, making oral delivery unsuitable. c. It can disrupt the metabolic pathways found in humans. d. It has no effect on bacteria that live in the GI tract.

a. It can also damage living human cell membranes, but the drug is safely used on the skin, where the outer layers of cells are dead.

What is the benefit of combining penicillins with potassium clavulanate (clavulanic acid)? a. It inhibits penicillinase. b. It decreases potency of penicillin. c. It increases the spectrum of activity. d. It makes penicillin more stable in stomach acid.

a. It inhibits penicillinase.

Which of the following statements concerning herpetic keratitis is FALSE? a. It is an untreatable infection. b. It is one of the most common infectious causes of blindness in the United States. c. It is an infection of the cornea. d. It is caused by infection with herpes simplex type 1 virus, which is the same virus that causes cold sores.

a. It is an untreatable infection.

Which of the following statements about sepsis is FALSE? a. It most always is self-limiting b. Lymphangitis may occur. c. It usually is caused by gram-positive bacteria. d. Symptoms include fever and decreased blood pressure. e. It may be aggravated by antibiotics.

a. It most always is self-limiting (or it usually is caused by gram-positive bacteria).

The __________ test is a commonly used disk-diffusion method for evaluating antibiotic effectiveness. a. Kirby-Bauer b. broth dilution test c. Ames test

a. Kirby-Bauer

Which of the following pairs is NOT a correct match? a. Leishmania spp.; water b. Rickettsia typhi; rodents c. Francisella tularensis; rabbits d. Clostridium perfringens; soil e. Yersinia pestis; rodents

a. Leishmania spp.; water

Which of the following microorganisms can cause congenital infections (infect a fetus via the placenta)? a. Listeria monocytogenes b. poliovirus c. Neisseria meningitidis d. Haemophilus influenzae

a. Listeria monocytogenes

A patient has flulike symptoms and a bull's-eye rash on his leg. Investigation reveals that he had been hiking in Connecticut and was bitten by two ticks. What is the diagnosis? a. Lyme disease b. Bubonic plague c. Relapsing fever d. Deer-lick fever e. Cat-scratch disease

a. Lyme disease

Which disease is NOT caused by an obligatory intracellular bacterium? a. Lyme disease b. Epidemic typhus c. Ehrlichiosis d. Endemic murine typhus e. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

a. Lyme disease

Although maternal-fetal incompatibilities are possible in the ABO blood group, the incidence of adverse reactions in the fetus or newborn is far less common than in the case of Rh incompatibilities. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? a. Maternal anti-A and anti-B antibodies typically do not cross the placenta. b. Antibody production is greatly reduced during pregnancy. c. Maternal antibodies are destroyed when they enter fetal circulation. d. The A and B antigens are not expressed on fetal red blood cells. e. Blocking antibodies exist in the fetal circulation.

a. Maternal anti-A and anti-B antibodies typically do not cross the placenta.

Chloroquine-resistant malaria may be treated with __________. a. Mefloquine b. Quinacrine c. Metronidazole d. Tinidazole

a. Mefloquine

Six people report to a Connecticut hospital with fever and anemia. Parasites are seen in smears of peripheral blood taken from all six people. They all have high titers for antibodies to Babesia microti. What are the reservoir and vector, respectively, for this disease? a. Mice; ticks b. Mice; lice c. Cats; none d. Rats; fleas

a. Mice; ticks

Infection with __________ causes a disease that closely resembles smallpox. a. Monkeypox virus b. Varicella zoster c. Papillomavirus d. Herpes simplex virus 1

a. Monkeypox virus

Endotoxin is responsible for symptoms caused by which of the following organisms? a. N. meningitidis b. S. pyogenes c. L. monocytogenes d. C. tetani e. C. botulinum

a. N. meningitidis

A 20-year-old male reports to an STI clinic with symptoms of painful urination. A Gram stain of urethral exudate reveals gram-negative diplococci inside leukocytes. What is the causative agent of the patient's symptoms? a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Escherichia coli c. Chlamydia trachomatis d. Candida albicans e. Treponema pallidum

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Which drug is NOT a nucleoside analog? a. Nevirapine b. Zidovudine c. Acyclovir d. Ribavirin e. Lamivudine

a. Nevirapine

__________ are added to sausages and hot dogs to prevent botulism. a. Nitrites b. Nitrates c. Antibiotics d. Salts

a. Nitrites

Why is schistosomiasis not as common in North America as it is in Africa and Asia? a. North America lacks a suitable host snail. b. North America has fewer rivers. c. There is greater resistance in North American populations. d. It is cooler in North America.

a. North America lacks a suitable host snail.

Which of the following is false? a. Only puncture wounds by rusty nails result in tetanus. b. Rabies is seldom found in rodents (e.g. rats, mice). c. Polio is transmitted by the fecal-oral route. d. Arboviral encephalitis is rather common in the United States. e. All of the above are true.

a. Only puncture wounds by rusty nails result in tetanus.

Which of the following is used for treating influenza infections? a. Oseltamivir b. Indinavir c. Acyclovir d. Interferon e. Pentamidine isethionate

a. Oseltamivir

Bacteria that are resistant to sulfonamide have enzymes that have a greater affinity for what? a. PABA b. Sulfonamide c. Tetrahyrdrofolic acid d. Tetracycline

a. PABA

In which stage of syphilis does a chancre develop at the site of infection? a. Primary stage b. Latent stage c. Secondary stage d. Tertiary stage

a. Primary stage

Microscopic examination of scrapings from the patient's rash shows gram-negative rods. What are they? a. Pseudomonas b. S. aureus c. Scabies d. Sporothrix e. Virus

a. Pseudomonas

Which of the following may produce infections of the skin with blue-green pus? a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Varicella-zoster virus e. Candida albicans

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A 12-year-old girl hospitalized for Guillain-Barre syndrome had a 4-day history of headache, dizziness, fever, sore throat, and weakness of legs. Seizures began 2 weeks later. Bacterial cultures were negative. She died 3 weeks after hospitalization. An autopsy revealed inclusions in brain cells that tested positive in an immunofluoresence test. She probably had: a. Rabies b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease c. Botulism d. Tetanus e. Leprosy

a. Rabies

Sally decides to go through the desensitization program recommended by her doctor. What is the overall purpose/goal of this process? a. Repeated exposure to wasp venom antigen will increase the amount of IgG produced by Sally's immune system. b. Desensitization will decrease the overall sensitivity of Sally's immune responses, eliminating its hyperactivity. c. The process will eliminate all of the wasp venom-specific IgE from Sally's body. d. During the desensitization process, the number of wasp venom-reactive mast cells will decrease.

a. Repeated exposure to wasp venom antigen will increase the amount of IgG produced by Sally's immune system.

Which of the following drugs inhibits the synthesis of mRNA in bacteria? a. Rifampin b. Ampicillin c. Trimethoprim d. Ethambutol e. Polymyxin B

a. Rifampin

__________ is found on the skin and is inhibitory to many microorganisms. However, the bacteria that cause acne can use it as a nutrient source. a. Sebum b. Salt c. Antimicrobial peptides d. Lysozyme

a. Sebum

Which of the following statements concerning sepsis is true? a. Sepsis is frequently accompanied by the appearance of red streaks underneath the skin. b. Sepsis caused by gram-positive bacteria frequently results in shock due to the production of endotoxin. c. The term sepsis is synonymous with the term septicemia. d. Currently, gram-negative bacteria are the most common cause of sepsis.

a. Sepsis is frequently accompanied by the appearance of red streaks underneath the skin.

A 22-year-old female college student visits the campus health center, complaining of low pelvic pain, dysuria, and hematuria. A clean-catch urine specimen is collected and upon culture, it grows more than 100,000 colony-forming units per millimeter of a catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, gram-positive cocci. What is the most likely identification of this etiologic agent? a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus b. Candida albicans c. Streptococcus faecalis d. Staphylococcus aureus e. Streptococcus pyogenes

a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis? a. Streptomycin b. Vancomycin c. Cephalosporin d. Rifampin e. Isoniazid

a. Streptomycin

Which of the following is treated using immunoglobulins? a. Tetanus b. Arboviral encephalitis c. Prion-caused infections d. Poliomyelitis

a. Tetanus

Antibodies against HIV are ineffective for all of the following reasons except: a. The fact that antibodies aren't made against HIV. b. Transmission by cell-cell function. c. Antigenic changes. d. Latency. e. Persistence of virus particles in vaculoes.

a. The fact that antibodies aren't made against HIV.

Postexposure treatment for rabies includes vaccination and injection of immunoglobulin; why does postexposure vaccination work? a. The infection progresses so slowly that there is time for postexposure vaccination to generate immunity. b. The immune response to this vaccine is very rapid. c. The rabies exposure increases the speed of the adaptive immune response. d. The virus is highly exposed to the immune system once it enters the peripheral nerves.

a. The infection progresses so slowly that there is time for postexposure vaccination to generate immunity.

What causes the rapid decline in the HIV population in the blood 3 to 6 months after the initial infection? a. The patient begins to make antibodies against HIV. b. New viruses are not being released from the T cells. c. Both of the listed choices are correct. d. Neither of the listed choices is correct.

a. The patient begins to make antibodies against HIV.

Which statement correctly describes the normal microbiota of the skin? a. The skin's normal microbiota are capable of growth at elevated salt concentrations. b. Most microorganisms that grow on the skin are sensitive to drying. c. Vigorous washing will eliminate all skin bacteria. d. On superficial skin surfaces, certain anaerobic bacteria produce fatty acids from oil gland secretions.

a. The skin's normal microbiota are capable of growth at elevated salt concentrations.

There are a large number of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis at 70S ribosomes found in bacterial cells but do not interfere with protein synthesis at the 80S ribosomes found in eukaryotic cells. Some of these antibiotics bind to the smaller ribosomal subunit and interfere with the reading of the mRNA code, whereas others bind to the larger ribosomal subunit and inhibit the formation of peptide bonds. Unfortunately, some of the antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria exhibit some toxicity to the eukaryotic host cells as well. What is the most likely reason for this toxicity to the host cell? a. These antibiotics interfere with protein synthesis within eukaryotic mitochondria. b. These antibiotics bind to eukaryotic cytoplasmic ribosomes. c. These antibiotics plug up the membrane transport mechanisms in eukaryotic cells. d. These antibiotics interfere with DNA replication in eukaryotic cell nuclei. e. These antibiotics bond to eukaryotic tRNA.

a. These antibiotics interfere with protein synthesis within eukaryotic mitochondria.

Which of the following statements is true about superinfections? a. They may be caused by antibiotic-resistant bacteria. b. They are caused by endospore-forming bacteria. c. They inhibit protein synthesis. d. They occur only in people who have immunodeficiencies.

a. They may be caused by antibiotic-resistant bacteria.

A 22-year-old woman experiences frequent and painful urination. Gram-negative rods are cultured from her urine. What is the recommended treatment? a. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole b. Penicillin c. Ceftriaxone d. Tetracycline

a. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

John's physician said that he might be suffering from Chikungunya fever, an emerging disease that once was limited to Asia, Africa, and Europe, but is now making appearances in the Caribbean and the United States. How did John most likely get infected? a. a mosquito bite b. a tick bite c. a spider bite d. a snake bite

a. a mosquito bite

A "teenage disease" called __________ is caused by gram-positive rods that can be isolated from pus-filled cysts on the face and upper back. a. acne b. pediculosis c. scabies d. trachoma

a. acne

In hypersensitivity reactions, the body becomes sensitized to an antigen, also called a(n) __________. a. allergen b. antibody c. mast cell d. leukotriene

a. allergen

__________ are substances that inhibit other microorganisms and are produced by bacteria and fungi. a. antibiotics b. sulfa drugs c. polyenes d. protease inhibitors

a. antibiotics

A patient with severe burns on her hands and arms has a skin graft with skin taken from her upper thigh. This type of tissue transplant is a(n) __________. a. autograft b. allograft c. isograft d. xenograft

a. autograft

A new bacterial molecule is discovered. This molecule binds to an antibiotic and facilitates the binding of a phosphate group, thus inactivating the antibiotic. Which category best describes the mechanism of antibiotic resistance conferred by this molecule? a. bacterial enzymes b. altered porins c. conjugation d. rapid efflux of the antibiotic

a. bacterial enzymes

Meningitis is difficult to treat because antibiotics cannot penetrate the __________ barrier. a. blood-brain barrier b. dura matter c. subarachnoid space

a. blood-brain barrier

A slaughterhouse worker develops fever and chills, with the fever reaching a high of 40°C each evening. Oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccobacilli are isolated from a lesion on his arm. What is your diagnosis? a. brucellosis b. malaria c. relapsing fever d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

a. brucellosis

The disease __________ was known in the Middle Ages as the Black Death. a. bubonic plague b. degue c. tularemia d. typhus

a. bubonic plague

The reservoir for toxoplasmosis is the __________. a. cat b. dog c. raccoon d. human

a. cat

Aedes mosquitoes transmit viral hemorrhagic fevers such as __________ fever. a. chikungunya b. dengue c. typhus d. relapsing

a. chikungunya

Toxoplasmosis is most commonly contracted by __________. a. contact with cat feces b. dog bites c. cat scratches d. flea bites e. African green monkeys

a. contact with cat feces

Support for the concept that cancer arises due to a failure of the immune response is found in all of the following statements EXCEPT a. development of hyperacute rejection reactions. b. cancers arise more frequently in the elderly. c. cancers occur more often in immunosuppressed individuals. d. tumor cells acquire tumor-associated antigens that stimulate cell-mediated responses. e. cancers arise in the very young more frequently than in adolescents.

a. development of hyperacute rejection reactions.

A drug that binds with sterols would injure __________. a. eukaryotic plasma membranes b. fungal cell walls c. DNA d. bacterial cell walls

a. eukaryotic plasma membranes

Which of the following is NOT a predisposing condition for candidiasis? a. fifth disease b. use of broad-spectrum antibiotics c. immunosuppression d. diabetes

a. fifth disease

Microscopic examination of blood from a patient with African trypanosomiasis would show __________. a. flagellated, nucleated cells b. gram-positive rods c. gram-negative cocci d. enveloped viruses

a. flagellated, nucleated cells

One of the most common reportable communicable diseases in the United States is __________, an STI caused by a gram-negative diplococcus. a. gonorrhea b. chlamydia c. syphilis d. pelvic inflammatory disease

a. gonorrhea

When mast cells degranulate, the mediators they release include leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and __________. a. histamines b. IgE c. IgM d. antibodies

a. histamines

All of the following have been suggested as potential triggers for the development of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) EXCEPT __________. a. infection with rabies virus b. infection with Epstein-Barr virus c. infection with Coxiella burnetii d. infection with Borrelia burgdorferi

a. infection with rabies virus

The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, as shown by the dark black bar on the right portion of the diagram in the figure. The effect is to a. interfere with the attachment of the tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex. b. stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA. c. prevent peptide bond formation. d. prevent transcription. e. prevent attachment of DNA.

a. interfere with the attachment of the tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex.

All of the following are exclusively sexually transmitted infections (STIs) EXCEPT __________. a. leptospirosis b. gonorrhea c. nongonococcal urethritis d. syphilis e. chancroid

a. leptospirosis

Scabies is a skin disease caused by a(n) __________. a. mite b. Pediculus humanus c. Haemophilus influenza d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

a. mite

Semisynthetic penicillins are __________ antibiotics than is natural penicillin. a. more effective b. less effective c. similarly effective d. None of the answers is correct. These antibiotics do not exist.

a. more effective

Which of the following is NOT a fungal infection? a. pediculosis b. ringworm c. thrush d. jock itch

a. pediculosis

More than half of our antibiotics are a. produced by bacteria. b. produced by fungi. c. synthesized in laboratories. d. produced by Fleming. e. produced by eukaryotic organisms.

a. produced by bacteria.

Streptococcus pyogenes can infect a woman's uterus following childbirth or abortion. The resultant disease is called __________. a. puerperal sepsis b. septicemia c. arbovirus d. Babesia

a. puerperal sepsis

A patient presents with a fever and flank pain. Microscopic analysis of the urine reveals bacteria at a concentration above 10,000 colony-forming units (CFUs) per milliliter. You perform a leukocyte esterase (LE) test, and it is positive. What is the diagnosis? a. pyelonephritis b. genital herpes c. cystitis d. leptospirosis

a. pyelonephritis

Infection of the uterine tubes, or __________, is the most serious form of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). a. salpingitis b. Pelvic inflammatory disease c. cystitis d. pyelonephritis

a. salpingitis

Most infections of the reproductive system are transmitted by sexual activity and are therefore called __________. a. sexually transmitted infections b. reproductive infections c. reproductive diseases d. sexual infections

a. sexually transmitted infections

Which of the following correctly lists the current distribution of HIV infection and AIDS in order of DECREASING prevalence? a. sub-Saharan Africa, Latin America, Western Europe, Australia / New Zealand b. sub-Saharan Africa, Western Europe, Latin America, Australia / New Zealand c. Latin America, sub-Saharan Africa, Western Europe, Australia / New Zealand d. sub-Saharan Africa, Australia / New Zealand, Western Europe, Latin America

a. sub-Saharan Africa, Latin America, Western Europe, Australia / New Zealand

A patient has a painless lesion on his penis, followed by a rash on his palms and soles. The most likely diagnosis is __________. a. syphilis b. cystitis c. gonorrhea d. genital herpes

a. syphilis

Al Capone contracted syphilis in his youth. By the time he was imprisoned in Alcatraz, he was suffering from syphilis-induced confusion and disorientation. What stage of syphilis did Mr. Capone have at this time? a. tertiary b. primary c. secondary d. impossible to know based on the information given

a. tertiary

Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because a. their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells. b. they replicate inside human cells. c. they have more genes than bacteria. d. they do not have ribosomes. e. they do not reproduce.

a. their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.

A 25-year-old HIV-positive man is hospitalized with a severe headache and lesions in his right eye. Cultures from the lesions are negative. Microscopic examination of the lesions reveals cysts. The disease is __________. a. toxoplasmosis b. schistosomiasis c. American trypanosomiasis d. dengue

a. toxoplasmosis

Rifampin blocks RNA polymerase and therefore inhibits __________. a. transcription b. cell wall synthesis c. DNA synthesis d. translation

a. transcription

The process of acquiring antibiotic resistance by means of bacteriophage activity is called a. transduction. b. R-plasmid acquisition. c. point mutation. d. transformation.

a. transduction.

A skin test is used to identify allergens that cause __________ in an individual. a. type I hypersensitivities b. type II hypersensitivities c. type III hypersensitivities d. type IV hypersensitivities

a. type I hypersensitivities

Hay fever, asthma, and systemic anaphylaxis are examples of __________. a. type I hypersensitivity b. type II hypersensitivity c. type III hypersensitivity d. type IV hypersensitivity

a. type I hypersensitivity

Which disease, resulting in damage to the heart muscle or the nerves controlling peristalsis in the gastrointestinal tract, is transmitted by the reduviid bug? a) babesiosis b) Chagas' disease c) malaria d) leishmaniasis

b) Chagas' disease

Which statement regarding the emerging viral hemorrhagic fevers is FALSE? a) A person may contract Lassa fever after exposure to the urine of an infected rodent. b) Emerging viral hemorrhagic fevers are successfully controlled by vaccines. c) Hemorrhagic viruses cause profuse bleeding, and this helps to spread the infection. d)The symptoms of infection by hemorrhagic viruses are initially mild.

b) Emerging viral hemorrhagic fevers are successfully controlled by vaccines. * Later symptoms of hemorrhagic viral infection include low-grade fever and severe, crippling joint pains.

Which of the following microbes has NOT been associated with bacterial meningitis? a) Neisseria meningitidis b) Mycobacterium leprae c) Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Haemophilus influenzae

b) Mycobacterium leprae

Which of the following statements regarding African trypanosomiasis is true? a) The protozoan that causes this infection, Trypanosoma brucei, is transmitted by mosquitoes. b) T.b. rhodesiense not only causes disease, but also severely affects food production because it infects domestic animals, which could otherwise be used for agriculture. c) There is no successful treatment for infection with either subspecies of T. brucei. d) African trypanosomiasis is a good candidate for vaccine development because T. brucei does not change much during the course of an infection.

b) T.b. rhodesiense not only causes disease, but also severely affects food production because it infects domestic animals, which could otherwise be used for agriculture.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning Clostridium species? a) They grow only in anaerobic environments. b) Their main reservoir is rabbits. c) They can cause gas gangrene and septicemia. d) They grow well in damaged tissues that are necrotic and have impaired blood flow.

b) Their main reservoir is rabbits.

Finding more than __________colony forming units per milliliter indicates a urinary tract infection. a. 10 b. 100 c. 1,000 d. 1 million

b. 100

Which blood transfusions in the table are incompatible? a. 1 and 2 b. 2, 3, and 5 c. 3 and 4 d. 2 and 5 e. 1, 2, and 3

b. 2, 3, and 5

You have a 200 mg/ml antibiotic solution. You prepare serial dilutions (1:2, 1:4, etc.) of the antibiotic; the first tube contains 100 mg/ml. You then inoculate each tube with Salmonella. Bacteria grow in tubes 4, 5, and 6. You subculture bacteria from tubes 1 through 3 to nutrient broth. Growth occurs in the tube 3 subculture. You can conclude that the MIC is __________. a. 12.5 mg/ml b. 25 mg/ml c. 50 mg/ml d. 200 mg/ml e. None of the listed choices

b. 25 mg/ml

What does pluripotent mean? a. Ability of a single cell to develop into an embryonic or adult stem cell. b. Ability of a stem cell to develop into many different cell types. c. A cell without MHC I and MHC II antigens. d. Ability of a single stem cell to heal different types of diseases. e. Ability of an adult cell to become a stem cell.

b. Ability of a stem cell to develop into many different cell types.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about botulism? a. The bacterium is anaerobic. b. Antibiotics are the first choice of treatment. c. The toxin is heat labile. d. Nitrites are added to foods to inhibit bacterial growth. e. The bacterium forms endospores.

b. Antibiotics are the first choice of treatment.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. Antihelminthic- Inhibition of oxidative phosphorylation. b. Antihelminthic- Inhibition of cell wall synthesis. c. Antifungal- Injury to plasma membrane. d. Antifungal- Inhibition of mitosis. e. Antiviral- Inhibition of DNA synthesis.

b. Antihelminthic- Inhibition of cell wall synthesis.

Frothy, fishy discharge: a. Candidiasis b. Bacterial vaginosis c. Genital herpes d. Lymphogranuloma venereum e. Trichomoniasis

b. Bacterial vaginosis

Which if the following diseases is caused by the toxin released by a bacterium? a. Rabies b. Botulism c. Polio d. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

b. Botulism

Which of the following types of antibiotics is most likely to be associated with the development of a superinfection? a. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics b. Broad-spectrum antibiotics c. Bacteriostatic antibiotics d. Bactericidal antibiotics e. β-lactam antibiotics

b. Broad-spectrum antibiotics

Cell membrane damage causes death because: a. The cell undergoes osmotic lysis. b. Cell contents leak out. c. The cell plasmolyzes. d. The cell lacks a wall. e. None of the above.

b. Cell contents leak out.

American trypanosomiasis is also known as __________. a. toxoplasmosis b. Chagas' disease c. brucellosis d. malaria

b. Chagas' disease

After receiving a corneal transplant, a woman developed dementia and loss of motor function; she then became comatose and died. Cultures were negative. Serological tests were negative. Autopsy revealed spongiform degeneration of her brain. She most likely had: a. Rabies b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease c. Botulism d. Tetanus e. Leprosy

b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Which of the following is/are NOT a component of the HIV virion? a. RNA strands b. DNA strands c. Reverse transcriptase d. Lipoprotein envelope e. gp120

b. DNA strands

Which of the following is a characteristic sign of septic shock? a. Lymphangitis b. Decreased blood pressure c. Heart murmur d. Maculopapular rash

b. Decreased blood pressure

Cytotoxic autoimmunity differs from immune complex autoimmunity in that cytotoxic reactions: a. Involve antibodies. b. Do not involve complement. c. Are caused by T cells. d. Do not involve IgE antibodies. e. None of the above.

b. Do not involve complement.

A 22-year-old woman experiences frequent and painful urination. Gram-negative rods are cultured from her urine. What is the etiological agent? a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus b. Escherichia coli c. Leptospira interrogans d. Chlamydia trachomatis

b. Escherichia coli

The most common cause of cystitis: a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Escherichia coli c. Mycobacterium hominis d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

b. Escherichia coli

Which of the following is NOT commonly found among the normal microbiota of the skin? a. Propionibacterium b. Escherichia spp. c. Corynebacterium d. Staphylococcus

b. Escherichia spp.

Which of the following is the etiologic agent of bacterial vaginosis? a. Candida albicans b. Gardnerella vaginalis c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Chlamydia trachomatis

b. Gardnerella vaginalis

Which produces the longest lasting protection? a. Antirabies antibiotics. b. HDVC

b. HDVC

The vaccine to prevent Haemophilus influenzae infection is the __________ vaccine. a. MMR b. Hib c. Dtap d. meningococcal

b. Hib

What is the most common mode of transmission of the poliovirus? a. It is ingested through contaminated foods. b. Ingestion of contaminated water c. The virus is inhaled. d. The virus enters through mucous membranes.

b. Ingestion of contaminated water

Which of the following is true concerning systemic anaphylaxis?a. Systemic anaphylaxis frequently occurs as a result of exposure to inhaled allergens. b. Injected antigens combine with IgE antibodies on the surface of certain cells, causing them to release histamines and other inflammatory mediators. c. Asthma is a type of systemic anaphylaxis. d. Anaphylactic shock results from an increase in blood pressure, which is caused by blood vessel constriction.

b. Injected antigens combine with IgE antibodies on the surface of certain cells, causing them to release histamines and other inflammatory mediators.

What is the importance of the human leukocyte antigen (HLA) complex? a. It controls production of antibodies. b. It controls production of molecules involved in self-recognition. c. It is targeted by immunosuppressive therapy. d. It is destroyed by HIV infection.

b. It controls production of molecules involved in self-recognition.

Which of the following is an accurate description of Cryptococcus neoformans? a. It is a mycobacterium; infection with this organism can cause disfiguring nodules all over the body. b. It is a fungus found in dried pigeon droppings. When inhaled, it is especially dangerous to immunocompromised individuals and can cause fatal meningitis. c. It is an ameba that inhabits freshwater and can cause rapidly fatal meningitis. d. It is a bacterium that is found in the soil. It causes meningitis and is especially dangerous to pregnant women.

b. It is a fungus found in dried pigeon droppings. When inhaled, it is especially dangerous to immunocompromised individuals and can cause fatal meningitis.

Which of the following statements about viral encephalitis is FALSE? a. It is often transmitted by mosquitoes. b. It is readily treated using antibiotics. c. In the United States, it is frequently caused by arboviruses. d. Infections can vary drastically in severity, ranging from subclinical to fatal.

b. It is readily treated using antibiotics.

As a child, Jamie suffered from rheumatic fever, which caused some major damage to one of her heart valves. Otherwise she is healthy. . However, she's been advised against getting body piercings, and her dentist gives her antibiotics before performing some dental procedures. What is the concern? a. Jamie is more likely to develop acute endocarditis. b. Jamie is more likely to develop subacute bacterial endocarditis. c. The fact that she contracted rheumatic fever seems to indicate that Jamie is particularly sensitive to Streptococcus pyogenes infection. d. Since Jamie has a heart murmur, her body is generally weaker, and she may not be able to fight off infections.

b. Jamie is more likely to develop subacute bacterial endocarditis.

Which of the following is usually transmitted by contaminated water? a. Chlamydia b. Leptospirosis c. Syphilis d. Trichomoniasis e. None of the above

b. Leptospirosis

__________ is an opportunist infection in immunocompromised individuals and can infect an unborn fetus. a. Poliovirus b. Listeria monocytogenes c. Neisseria meningitis d. Clostridium botulinum

b. Listeria monocytogenes

Borrelia burgdorferi is the causative agent of __________. a. botulism b. Lyme Disease c. pneumonia d. Whooping cough

b. Lyme Disease

A 12-year-old boy had a fever, rash, headaches, sore throat, and cough. He also had a macular rash on his trunk, face, and arms. A throat culture was negative for Streptococcus pyogenes.The boy most likely had: a. Streptococcal sore throat. b. Measles c. Rubella d. Smallpox e. None of the above All of the following are complications of this disease except: a. Middle ear infections. b. Pneumonia. c. Birth defects. d. Encephalitis. e. None of the above.

b. Measles c. Birth defects.

What is currently the best method for avoiding fatalities due to arboviral encephalitis? a. Vaccination b. Mosquito control c. Antibiotic chemotherapy d. Postexposure treatment with immunoglobulins

b. Mosquito control

Which of the following statements about antibiotics is true? a. Penicillin was first discovered by two researchers named Florey and Chain. b. Most of our antibiotics are produced by Streptomyces, a genus of filamentous soil bacteria. c. The finding of antibiotic-producing microorganisms is a rare event. d. Antibiotics are not typically produced by microorganisms growing in their natural environments.

b. Most of our antibiotics are produced by Streptomyces, a genus of filamentous soil bacteria.

Which of these statements about gonorrhea is true? a. Most isolates of Neisseria gonorrhoeae are susceptible to penicillin. b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae can disseminate from the genital area to the joints, causing arthritis. c. Infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae give rise to long-lasting immunity. d. Most women infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae experience headaches and nausea. e. Infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae is associated with the development of cervical cancer.

b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae can disseminate from the genital area to the joints, causing arthritis.

Which of the following statements concerning the blood-brain barrier is FALSE? a. Inflammation can alter the blood-brain barrier, increasing the likelihood that a substance can cross. b. Penicillin is useless against infections of the brain because it is completely incapable of crossing the barrier. c. Substances that are lipid-soluble can cross the blood-brain barrier readily. d. Many antibiotics cannot cross the blood-brain barrier.

b. Penicillin is useless against infections of the brain because it is completely incapable of crossing the barrier.

Which antifungal drug was recently introduced to treat systemic fungal infections? a. Amphotericin B b. Posaconazole c. Clotrimazole d. Tolnaftate e. Miconazole

b. Posaconazole

Which of the following descriptions does NOT match the autoimmune disease it is paired with? a. Myasthenia gravis: antibodies coat acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions, causing muscle weakness and eventually leading to death b. Psoriasis: IgE antibodies cause release of histamines in the skin, resulting in itchiness and red patches c. Rheumatoid arthritis: immune complexes accumulate in joints, causing joint damage and pain d. Graves' disease: the thyroid gland is stimulated by abnormal antibodies and becomes hyperactive

b. Psoriasis: IgE antibodies cause release of histamines in the skin, resulting in itchiness and red patches

Which of the following statements regarding the normal microbiota of the skin is true? a. Vigorous washing can eliminate the normal skin microbiota. b. Some of the normal microbiota include anaerobic organisms that live in hair follicles. c. Malassezia is a type of yeast that can cause skin ulcers when a person receives broad-spectrum antibiotics. d. The normal microbiota of the skin cause the skin to be salty.

b. Some of the normal microbiota include anaerobic organisms that live in hair follicles.

Which of the following organisms would MOST likely be sensitive to natural penicillin? a. penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. helminths d. Mycoplasma e. Penicillium

b. Streptococcus pyogenes

Desensitization to prevent an allergic response can be accomplished by injecting small, repeated doses of: a. IgE antibodies. b. The antigen (allergen). c. Histamine. d. IgG antibodies. e. Antihistamine.

b. The antigen (allergen).

An antimicrobial agent should meet all of the following criteria except: a. Selective toxicity. b. The production of hypersensitivities. c. A narrow spectrum of activity. d. No production of drug resistance. e. None of the above.

b. The production of hypersensitivities.

Which of the following statements concerning necrotizing fasciitis is FALSE? a. It may be caused by several different organisms, but Streptococcus pyogenes is the most common. b. The tissue damage is mainly due to the production of endotoxin, which stimulates a severe immune response. c. Some cases require limb amputation. d. It is often associated with streptococcal toxic shock syndrome.

b. The tissue damage is mainly due to the production of endotoxin, which stimulates a severe immune response.

Which of the following statements concerning viral sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is true? a. Individuals infected with herpesviruses are contagious only if a lesion is present. b. The viral infections that cause genital warts and herpes can be treated but not cured. c. Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) causes only oral herpes. d. The serotypes of human papillomaviruses that cause cancer are the same serotypes that cause large, visible warts.

b. The viral infections that cause genital warts and herpes can be treated but not cured.

Which of the following predictions can be made regarding the immune responses of individuals with AIDS? a. They can only make antibody in response to T-dependent antigens. b. They can make antibody in response to T-independent antigens. c. They cannot make any antibody. d. They produce good immune responses against fungal pathogens. e. They produce good immune responses against protozoan pathogens.

b. They can make antibody in response to T-independent antigens.

Why should children younger than 1 year of age NOT be fed honey? a. They may contract tetanus. b. They may contract botulism. c. Mycobacterium leprae is present in honey. d. They may contract listeriosis.

b. They may contract botulism.

Microscopic examination of the vaginal discharge of a patient with vaginitis reveals flagellated eukaryotic cells. What infection does the patient have? a. Gonorrhea b. Trichomoniasis c. Bacterial vaginosis d. Candidiasis

b. Trichomoniasis

Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together? a. It can prevent drug resistance. b. Two are always twice as effective as one. c. It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs. d. It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis. e. All of these are advantages of using two antibiotics together.

b. Two are always twice as effective as one.

Which of these diseases is NOT transmitted by ticks? a. Relapsing fever b. Typhus c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever d. Lyme disease

b. Typhus

Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? a. Pyelonephritis; inflammation of the kidneys b. Ureteritis; inflammation of the urethra c. Cystitis; inflammation of the urinary bladder d. Vaginitis; inflammation of the vagina

b. Ureteritis; inflammation of the urethra

Why is it difficult to find good chemotherapeutic agents against viruses? a. There is no effective way to deliver the drug to the virus. b. Viruses depend on the host cell's machinery, so it is hard to find a viral target that would leave the host cell unaffected. c. Viruses are not cells, and therefore not sensitive to such compounds. d. Viruses infect both bacteria and human cells.

b. Viruses depend on the host cell's machinery, so it is hard to find a viral target that would leave the host cell unaffected.

Why is it more difficult to treat viral infections than it is to treat bacterial infections? a. Viruses have cell walls. b. Viruses use the host cell's processes to carry out their own reproduction. c. Viruses are very similar to human cells. d. Viruses are smaller than human cells.

b. Viruses use the host cell's processes to carry out their own reproduction.

After returning from a family trip to Brazil, suffering from a fever and experiencing some minor joint and muscle pain and conjunctivitis, a pregnant woman has an appointment with her doctor. What will the doctor likely be testing her for after learning about her trip? a. Poliomyelitis b. Zika virus disease c. Botulism d. Cryptococcosis

b. Zika virus disease

All of the following are characteristics of the varicella-zoster virus EXCEPT __________. a. vesicular skin rash b. benign skin growths c. transmission via the respiratory route d. latent infection in nerve cells e. reactivation infections decades after initial infection

b. benign skin growths

A chemical that kills gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria would best be described as __________. a. specific b. broad spectrum c. narrow spectrum d. selectively toxic

b. broad spectrum

Which one of the following is a STI that may be confused with syphilis due to its ulcer formation on the genitalia? a. nongonococcal urethritis b. chancroid (soft chancre) c. gonorrhea d. leptospirosis e. candidiasis

b. chancroid (soft chancre)

Which antibiotic inhibits replication? a. rifampin b. ciprofloxacin c. Both of the listed antibiotics inhibit replication. d. Neither of the listed antibiotics inhibits replication.

b. ciprofloxacin

Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of a. IgG and IgA complexes in joints. b. complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints. c. IgA antibodies in joints. d. IgD and IgE complexes in joints. e. complement in joints.

b. complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints.

Symptoms of delayed cell-mediated reactions are due to a. IgE antibodies. b. cytokines. c. antigens. d. IgG antibodies. e. neutrophils.

b. cytokines.

Immune complexes cause tissue damage by __________. a. causing a drop in blood pressure b. fixing complement c. releasing cyclosporine d. causing T cells to destroy host cells

b. fixing complement

An antimicrobial drug that inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis is most likely to be effective against __________. a. gram-negative bacteria b. gram-positive bacteria c. protozoan parasites d. fungi e. viruses

b. gram-positive bacteria

The bone marrow and umbilical cord are sources of __________ stem cells. a. erythropoeitic b. hematopoietic c. leukopoeitic d. haemopoeitic

b. hematopoietic

All of the following concerning the clinical phases of HIV infection are correct EXCEPT__________. a. phase 1: persistent lymphadenopathy b. phase 1: Kaposi's sarcoma c. phase 2: persistent oral Candida infection d. phase 3: Pneumocystis pneumonia or toxoplasmosis of the brain e. phase 3: CD4 T cell count less than 200 cells per cubic millimeter

b. phase 1: Kaposi's sarcoma

An HIV-positive patient with persistent vaginal yeast infections and moderately reduced CD4+ T cell count would be diagnosed with __________. a. phase 1 HIV infection b. phase 2 HIV infection c. phase 3 HIV infection d. AIDS

b. phase 2 HIV infection

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by a __________. a. virus b. prion c. bacterium d. protozoan

b. prion

Which type of infection can result in infertility? a. ophthalmia neonatorum b. salpingitis c. leptospirosis d. bacterial vaginosis

b. salpingitis

Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis? a. immunodeficiency b. shock c. hay fever d. hives e. asthma

b. shock

Many antifungal drugs target __________ in the fungal cell membrane. a. proteins b. sterols c. peptidoglycan d. fatty acids

b. sterols

Consider a Kirby-Bauer disk-diffusion assay. If you put penicillin and streptomycin disks adjacent to one another, the zone of inhibition is greater than that obtained by either disk alone. This is an example of __________. a. antagonism b. synergism c. mutual exclusion d. RNA interference

b. synergism

Which of the following is a xenograft? a. transplantation of tissue from one area on a person's body to another b. the replacement of a human's heart valve with a pig's heart valve c. transplantation of a kidney from a woman to her twin sister. d. transplantation of a kidney from a woman to her older brother

b. the replacement of a human's heart valve with a pig's heart valve

Clindamycin binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit to inhibit translocation. This antibiotic stops __________. a. transcription in prokaryotes b. translation in prokaryotes c. transcription in eukaryotes d. DNA synthesis in eukaryotes

b. translation in prokaryotes

Blood transfusion hypersensitivity reactions are examples of __________. a. type I (anaphylactic) hypersensitivity b. type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity c. type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity d. type IV (cell-mediated) hypersensitivity e. delayed hypersensitivity

b. type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity

When an individual receives a blood transfusion, the blood types must be matched appropriately. If the blood types are incorrectly matched, an allergic reaction can occur. These types of reactions are best defined as __________. a. type I hypersensitivity b. type II hypersensitivity c. type III hypersensitivity d. type IV hypersensitivity

b. type II hypersensitivity

Now that we have looked at ways to prevent breeding in mosquitos, another possible prevention is to limit the vector geographically, but recent climate changes have led to changes in location where the mosquito can now be found. Which of the following climate change scenarios has allowed for this increase in vector habitat? a. warmer temperatures in northern regions with normal rainfall b. warmer temperatures in northern regions with increased rainfall c. warmer temperatures in southern regions with normal rainfall d. warmer temperatures in southern regions with increased rainfall

b. warmer temperatures in northern regions with increased rainfall

Drug resistance occurs a. against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents. b. when antibiotics are used indiscriminately. c. because bacteria are normal microbiota. d. when antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear. e. All of the answers are correct.

b. when antibiotics are used indiscriminately.

If a person in the United States is exposed to rabies, which animal is the most likely culprit? a. domestic dogs b. wild bats c. wild raccoon d. domestic cats

b. wild bats

Fluoroquinolones are the treatment prescribed for otitis externa, which is due to a __________.

bacterial infection

Herceptin is an example of which of the following? a. A cancer vaccine b. A treatment to prevent rejection of organ or tissue transplants c. A monoclonal antibody used to treat breast cancer d. A treatment for autoimmune diseases

c. A monoclonal antibody used to treat breast cancer

Which of the following is NOT caused by a virus? a. Chickenpox b. Cold sores c. Acne d. Warts

c. Acne

The Big Picture Activity mentioned that because no vaccine is available, prevention is the next method for keeping the number of infections to a minimum. One of the methods recommended by the CDC is to prevent infected individuals from receiving mosquito bites during the first week of their infection. How does this help prevent further spread of infection? a. Preventing additional mosquito bites will minimize the pathogenicity of the virus. b. Additional mosquito bites will allow transmission to occur person-to-person without the vector. c. Additional bites would increase the chances of an uninfected vector acquiring the virus. d. Preventing additional mosquito bites keeps the patient from suffering a subsequent infection.

c. Additional bites would increase the chances of an uninfected vector acquiring the virus.

__________ discovered penicillin and the first clinical trials in 1940 demonstrated its effectiveness as a chemotherapeutic agent. a. Robert Koch b. Louis Pasteur c. Alexander Fleming

c. Alexander Fleming

Which of the following does not have an animal reservoir or vector? a. Listeriosis. b. Cryptococcosis. c. Amebic Meningoencephalitis. d. Rabies. e. African Trypanosomiasis.

c. Amebic Meningoencephalitis.

Which of the following best describes thrombocytopenic purpura? a. An individual is exposed to an allergen, and T cells are activated. Symptoms of the allergic reaction occur a couple of days later. b. Complexes of soluble allergens and antibodies collect in basement membranes, where they activate complement and trigger inflammation. c. An antibody response is induced when a drug binds to platelets. Complement is activated, the platelets get destroyed, and purple spots appear on the skin. d. A drug binds to red blood cells, eliciting an antibody response and the activation of complement. The red blood cells are destroyed as a result, and the individual becomes anemic.

c. An antibody response is induced when a drug binds to platelets. Complement is activated, the platelets get destroyed, and purple spots appear on the skin.

Bacterial infections are easier to treat using chemotherapy than are other types of infections caused by other types of microorganisms. Why? a. Bacteria are smaller than the other types of pathogens. b. Bacteria grow more slowly. c. Bacteria are prokaryotic. d. Bacteria are more sensitive to chemicals.

c. Bacteria are prokaryotic.

Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease? a. Rabies b. Listeriosis c. Botulism d. Polio

c. Botulism

A slaughterhouse worker develops fever and chills, with the fever reaching a high of 40°C each evening. Gram-negative coccobacilli are isolated from a lesion on his arm. Which of the following is a possible diagnosis? a. Malaria b. Relapsing fever c. Brucellosis d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

c. Brucellosis

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism whereby HIV evades the immune system? a. By remaining latent in vacuoles b. By inducing cell–cell fusion as a means of moving between cells c. By destroying the host's antibodies d. By integrating into the host cell's chromosome as a provirus

c. By destroying the host's antibodies

Which of the following is least likely to be observed when diagnosing a case of bacterial meningitis? a. Bacteria are observed on a Gram stain of the CSF. b. The white blood cell count on the cerebrospinal fluid is significantly elevated (500 wbc/µl). Normally, there would be <5 wbc/µl . c. CSF is completely clear and colorless. d. Patient is experiencing a fever, severe headache, and stiff neck.

c. CSF is completely clear and colorless.

Which of the following is NOT a defense mechanism that helps to protect the urinary tract? a. Antimicrobial properties of urine b. Flushing action of urine, which helps prevent bacteria from becoming established in the bladder and urethra c. Cilia in the bladder lining that prevent bacteria from adhering to the bladder wall d. Valves at the base of the ureters, which prevent backflow from the bladder to the kidneys

c. Cilia in the bladder lining that prevent bacteria from adhering to the bladder wall

Which of the following helps promote the development of self-tolerance and prevent the eventual development of autoimmune diseases? a. Development of memory B cells b. Loss of memory T cells c. Clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells

c. Clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells

Which of the following microorganisms is NOT a bacterial cause of meningitis? a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Cryptococcus neoformans d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

c. Cryptococcus neoformans

A 34-year-old Caucasian male is being examined in the emergency room of a Boston hospital, complaining of a high fever and severe muscle pain and joint pain. He returned to Boston two days ago, after spending 10 days traveling throughout Brazil on business. He indicated that he was bitten by mosquitoes several times while on the trip. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Yellow fever b. Influenza c. Dengue fever d. Marburg virus e. Lassa fever

c. Dengue fever

A 6-year-old girl was taken to the physician for evaluation of a slowly growing bump on the back of her head. The bump was a raised, scaling lesion 4cm in diameter. A fungal culture of material from the lesion was positive for a fungus with numerous conidia.The girl's disease was: a. Rubella. b. Candidiasis. c. Dermatomycosis. d. A cold sore. e. None of the above. Besides the scalp, this disease can occur on all of the following except: a. Feet b. Nails c. The groin d. Subcutaneous tissue e. The disease can occur on all of these areas.

c. Dermatomycosis. d. Subcutaneous tissue

Which statement regarding the infectiveness and pathogenicity of HIV is FALSE? a. Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on the glycoprotein spike (gp120) combining with the CD4+ receptor. b. The ability of the HIV to remain as a provirus shelters it from the immune system. c. During latent infections, the provirus directs the synthesis of many new viruses. d. Some cells that do not carry the CD4 molecule can become infected with HIV.

c. During latent infections, the provirus directs the synthesis of many new viruses.

What do these four diseases have in common? Scrapie; Chronic wasting disease; Kuru; Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease a. These diseases are seen only in humans. b. These diseases can be treated by the administration of immunoglobulin. c. Each of these diseases is caused by the incorrect folding of proteins. d. Each of these diseases is readily treated with antibiotics.

c. Each of these diseases is caused by the incorrect folding of proteins.

You microscopically examine scrapings from a case of Acanthamoeba keratitis. What should you expect to see? a. Gram-positive cocci b. Gram-positive rods c. Eukaryotic cells d. Nothing, because viruses are too small to be seen using a standard microscope

c. Eukaryotic cells

Microscpic examination of vaginal smear shows epithelial cells. a. Candida b. Chlamydia c. Gardnerella d. Neisseria e. Trichomonas

c. Gardnerella

Difficult to treat with chemotherapy. a. Candidiasis b. Bacterial vaginosis c. Genital herpes d. Lymphogranuloma venereum e. Trichomoniasis

c. Genital herpes

Fluid-filled vesicles: a. Candidiasis b. Bacterial vaginosis c. Genital herpes d. Lymphogranuloma venereum e. Trichomoniasis

c. Genital herpes

__________ is currently the most common form of HIV transmission. a. Sharing contaminated needles b. Transplanting organs c. Heterosexual sex d. Breast milk

c. Heterosexual sex

__________ play(s) an important role in Type I (anaphylactic) hypersensitivity reactions. a. Helper T cells b. IgM c. Histamine d. Cytokines

c. Histamine

A 20-year-old woman goes to the college health center complaining of sore throat, fever, and chronic fatigue. Physical examination reveals that she has an enlarged spleen. A heterophile antibody test is positive. What is the etiology? a. Dengue virus b. Toxoplasma gondii c. Human herpesvirus-4 d. Borrelia spp.

c. Human herpesvirus-4

Why are chemotherapeutic agents that work on the peptidoglycan cell wall of bacteria a good choice of drug? a. They are less expensive that other chemotherapeutic agents. b. Bacteria are especially sensitive to these compounds. c. Humans and other animal hosts lack peptidoglycan cell walls. d. The drugs also work against DNA gyrase.

c. Humans and other animal hosts lack peptidoglycan cell walls.

Which of the following is a characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Antibodies attach to receptors on thyroid gland cells. b. Antibodies coat acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions. c. Immune complexes of IgM, IgG, and complement are involved. d. T cytotoxic cells attack joint tissue.

c. Immune complexes of IgM, IgG, and complement are involved.

What is the method of action of nucleoside analogs? a. Disruption of plasma membrane b. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis c. Inhibition of DNA synthesis d. Inhibition of protein synthesis

c. Inhibition of DNA synthesis

Which of the following statements concerning ophthalmia neonatorum is true? a. It is caused by the same bacterium that causes syphilis. b. It is very difficult to prevent. c. It carries a high risk of blindness. d. It is acquired by sexual activity.

c. It carries a high risk of blindness.

How does RhoGAM prevent the production of anti-Rh antibodies? a. It prevents the release of Rh molecules into the mother's bloodstream. b. It inhibits the release of cytokines by immune cells. c. It clears the Rh molecules from the bloodstream before they can cause an immune response. d. It suppresses the mother's immune response by inhibiting the activity of T cells.

c. It clears the Rh molecules from the bloodstream before they can cause an immune response.

A drug that intercalates into DNA has the following effects. Which one leads to the others? a. It disrupts transcription. b. It disrupts translation. c. It interferes with DNA replication. d. It causes mutations. e. It alters proteins.

c. It interferes with DNA replication.

Which of the following is true concerning trachoma? a. It is caused by the same bacterium that causes an STD. b. There are no serious complications with this infection. c. It is an infection of the conjunctiva. d. It is a very rare infection.

c. It is an infection of the conjunctiva.

Which of the following is true concerning cryptococcosis? a. It is a type of encephalitis. b. It is usually a mild disease. c. It is caused by a fungus that is commonly found in pigeon droppings. d. All individuals are uniformly susceptible to this disease.

c. It is caused by a fungus that is commonly found in pigeon droppings.

Which of the following statements concerning Hansen's disease is FALSE? a. It is caused by infection with Mycobacterium leprae. b. It can be treated using antibiotics. c. It is highly contagious. d. It is the same thing as leprosy.

c. It is highly contagious.

Which of the following statements concerning primary amebic encephalitis is FALSE? a. The causative agent for this disease is a protozoan. b. Even though many people get exposed, symptomatic disease is rare. c. It is highly treatable and rarely fatal. d. It is caused by an organism that lives in freshwater.

c. It is highly treatable and rarely fatal.

Which of the following is an antihelminthic drug that causes paralysis of the worm? a. Niclosamide b. Praziquantel c. Ivermectin d. Mebendazole

c. Ivermectin

Which of the following has an unknown etiology? a. Toxoplasmosis b. Schistosomiasis c. Kawasaki syndrome d. Chagas' disease

c. Kawasaki syndrome

Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by an organism that enters the body through the gastrointestinal (GI) tract? a. Infant botulism b. Polio c. Leprosy d. Adult listeriosis

c. Leprosy

Three weeks after swimming in water with a large population of seals, a 20-year-old man develops jaundice, muscle aches, and generalized illness. Darkfield microscopy reveals spirochetes in his blood. What is the etiology? a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Hepatitis B virus c. Leptospira interrogans d. Treponema pallidum

c. Leptospira interrogans

Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. What are they? a. Cryptococcus b. Haemophilus c. Listeria d. Maegleria e. Neisseria

c. Listeria

A microorganism has just been introduced to a point below the dermis of the foot via the parenteral route. It is in the interstitial fluid and will eventually become engulfed by a fixed macrophage in an inguinal lymph node. What is the next location it will travel to after leaving the interstitial fluid? a. Lymphatics b. Lymph node c. Lymph capillary d. Blood

c. Lymph capillary

Microscopic examination of the vaginal discharge of a patient with vaginitis reveals flagellated eukaryotic cells. What is the recommended treatment for this patient? a. Tetracycline b. Penicillin c. Metronidazole d. Miconazole

c. Metronidazole

Which of the following is NOT a predisposing condition that may lead to candidiasis? a. Use of broad-spectrum antibiotics b. Use of oral contraceptives c. Papillomavirus infection d. Pregnancy

c. Papillomavirus infection

Which antibiotic is overcome by beta-lactamases? a. Tetracycline b. Sulfonamide c. Penicillin d. Tetracycline, Penicillin, and Sulfonamide are all affected by beta-lactamase.

c. Penicillin

Which statement regarding normal microbiota of the urinary and reproductive systems is true? a. The male urethra is usually highly contaminated with microbes. b. Normal urine has a high level of normal, nonpathogenic microbes. c. Pregnancy and menopause are associated with higher rates of urinary tract infections. d. Candida albicans is the predominant bacterium in the vagina.

c. Pregnancy and menopause are associated with higher rates of urinary tract infections.

Which microorganism is responsible for otitis externa? a. Propionibacterium spp. b. Micrococcus spp. c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Staphylococcus aureus e. Streptococcus pyogenes

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which of the following is a characteristic of biological transmission from Dermacentor to a human host? a. R. rickettsii is transmitted to the human after the human drinks water that has been contaminated by feces from an animal infected with Dermacentor spp. b. The human host is infected after drinking water contaminated with Dermacentoreggs. c. R. rickettsii is transmitted to the human host after the human consumes food that the tick has contacted. d. R. rickettsii is transmitted to the human host during a bite, when tick saliva enters the wound.

c. R. rickettsii is transmitted to the human host after the human consumes food that the tick has contacted.

A patient is hospitalized with fever, jaundice, and rash. Spirochetes are observed in her blood. What is your diagnosis? a. Yellow fever b. Lyme disease c. Relapsing fever d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

c. Relapsing fever

__________ is an autoimmune complication of infection. Antibodies against beta-hemolytic streptococci cause inflammation and damage the heart valves. a. Undulant fever b. Bacterial endocarditis c. Rheumatic fever d. Lyme disease

c. Rheumatic fever

Which of the following is/are NOT targeted by current AIDS treatments? a. Reverse transcriptase b. Gp120 c. Ribosomes d. Viral protease

c. Ribosomes

An 8-year-old girl in rural North Carolina is hospitalized with a fever, severe headache, and macular rash on her body, including her palms and feet. A tick had been removed from her hairline one week earlier. An ELISA test is positive for anti-rickettsial antibodies. The girl has __________. a. typhus fever b. mononucleosis c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever d. Lyme disease

c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Which of the following mutations would not result in antibiotic resistance? a. Missense mutation b. Nonsense mutation c. Silent mutation d. Frameshift insertion e. Frameshift deletion

c. Silent mutation

Which one of the following is NOT caused by a herpesvirus? a. Chickenpox b. Shingles c. Smallpox d. Roseola

c. Smallpox

Graft-versus-host (GVH) disease can occur when __________. a. B cells undergo apoptosis b. T cells are eliminated c. T and B cells are transplanted d. memory cells in the host are activated by an antigen

c. T and B cells are transplanted

Which of the following toxins causes muscle spasms, especially spasms in the muscles of the jaw causing a condition known as lockjaw? a. Botulism toxin b. Mycobacterial toxins c. Tetanus d. Staphylococcal enterotoxin

c. Tetanus

Which statement regarding tests for microbial susceptibility to chemotherapeutic agents is FALSE? a. During the Kirby-Bauer test, a Petri plate with agar medium is uniformly inoculated with a standardized amount of a test organism. b. A broth dilution test is often used to determine MIC and MBC of an antimicrobial drug. c. The Kirby-Bauer test is useful because it can differentiate bacteriostatic effects from bactericidal effects. d. During a disk-diffusion test, a clear zone around the test disk indicates that growth was inhibited.

c. The Kirby-Bauer test is useful because it can differentiate bacteriostatic effects from bactericidal effects.

What is meant when a bacterium is said to become "resistant" to an antibiotic? a. The antibiotic kills or inhibits the bacterium. b. The antibiotic is metabolized by the bacterium, providing more energy for growth of the cell. c. The bacterium is neither killed nor inhibited by the antibiotic. d. The antibiotic mutates in a way that benefits the bacterium.

c. The bacterium is neither killed nor inhibited by the antibiotic.

The increased incidence of encephalitis in the summer months is due to: a. Maturation of the viruses. b. Increased temperature. c. The presence of adult mosquitoes. d. An increased population of birds. e. An increased population of horses.

c. The presence of adult mosquitoes.

While observing the results of a disk-diffusion susceptibility test, you note an enlarged oval zone of inhibition around two adjacent antibiotic disks. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? a. The two antibiotics are bactericidal. b. The two antibiotics are antagonistic. c. The two antibiotics are synergistic. d. The two antibiotics are bacteriostatic.

c. The two antibiotics are synergistic.

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about neonatal herpes? a. Disseminated viral infections can result in death of the newborn. b. Treatment usually involves intravenous administration of acyvlovir. c. The virus cannot cross the placenta. d. Most infections of the newborn occur from exposure to Herpes Simplex Virus during delivery.

c. The virus cannot cross the placenta

Which of the following statements concerning viral hemorrhagic fevers is true? a. They are usually treated using antibiotics. b. They are always caused by filoviruses. c. They are usually transmitted to humans from animals. d. They are rarely fatal.

c. They are usually transmitted to humans from animals.

Which of the following statements about type I reactions is FALSE? a. The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an antigen. b. They involve IgE antibodies. c. They involve helper T cells. d. The symptoms are due to histamine. e. Antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils.

c. They involve helper T cells.

Which of the following statements does NOT pertain to urinary tract infections (UTIs)? a. An enlarged prostate gland increases the incidence of infection. b. Incomplete or infrequent emptying of the bladder increases risk of infection. c. They typically begin in kidneys and descend to the bladder and urethra. d. Urethral infections easily spread to the bladder. e. The shorter urethra in females increases the risk of cystitis.

c. They typically begin in kidneys and descend to the bladder and urethra.

Chloramphenicol binds to the 50S portion of a ribosome, which will interfere with: a. Transcription in prokaryotic cells. b. Transcription in eukaryotic cells. c. Translation in prokaryotic cells. d. Translation in eukaryotic cells. e. DNA synthesis.

c. Translation in prokaryotic cells.

The drug Flagyl is commonly used to treat an STD caused by __________. a. HIV b. Herpesvirus c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae e. Treponema pallidum

c. Trichomonas vaginalis

Which of the following is NOT included in the TORCH panel of tests? a. Cytomegalovirus b. Toxoplasmosis c. Trichomoniasis d. Rubella

c. Trichomoniasis

Which of the following is NOT caused by Staphylococcus aureus? a. Toxic shock syndrome b. Impetigo c. Warts d. Scalded skin syndrome

c. Warts

Our patient needs antibiotics to overcome this infection and prevent any further complications. Which of the following would be the best choice? a. macrolide-class antibiotics, such as azithromycin. b. No treatment is recommended; provide patient with educational materials on STIs, and remind her of proper condom usage. c. a combination therapy of cephalosporin-class AND macrolide-class. d. cephalosporin-class antibiotics, such as ceftriaxone.

c. a combination therapy of cephalosporin-class AND macrolide-class.

Microscopic examination of scrapings from a patient's scabies rash will show __________. a. gram-positive cocci b. viruses c. a microscopic arachnid d. a yeast

c. a microscopic arachnid

When the wasps stung Sally, the injection of venom initiated a type I hypersensitivity reaction called anaphylaxis. Which of the following best describes a hypersensitivity reaction? a. an immune response that results in an overproduction of IgG b. a hyperactive immune response generated upon initial exposure to antigen c. a reaction that occurs in a sensitized individual resulting in tissue damage rather than immunity d. an immune response characterized by an overproduction of T cytotoxic cells

c. a reaction that occurs in a sensitized individual resulting in tissue damage rather than immunity

All of the following are potentially predisposing conditions for vaginitis EXCEPT __________. a. estrogen imbalance b. treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics c. a vaginal pH of 4.5 or lower d. increased sugar concentration in the vagina e. decrease in lactobacilli population

c. a vaginal pH of 4.5 or lower

Pneumonic plague is generally transmitted from person to person by __________. a. tick bites b. mosquitoes c. aerosols d. flea bites

c. aerosols

What is the mechanism of the resistance of MRSA to methicillin? a. blocking the entry of the methicillin b. efflux of the methicillin c. alteration of the target molecule d. enzymatic destruction of the methicillin

c. alteration of the target molecule = The main mechanism by which MRSA gained antibiotic resistance to methicillin was modifying the penicillin-binding protein (PBP) on the cell's plasma membrane. Methicillin works by binding with the PBP so that the PBP is then not available for the cross-linking of peptidoglycan. MRSA strains become resistant because they have an additional, mutated PBP. The antibiotics continue to block the normal PBPs, but the modified PBP found in the MRSA strains—although it binds weakly with the antibiotic— still allows synthesis of peptidoglycan that is adequate for survival.

Microscopic examination of scrapings from a patient's scabies rash will show __________. a. viruses b. a yeast c. an animal d. gram-positive cocci

c. an animal

Simultaneous use of penicillin and tetracycline is often less effective than when either drug is used alone. This is called __________. a. synergism b. bioremediation c. antagonism

c. antagonism

A drug that inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis is __________. a. antiprotozoan b. antiviral c. antibacterial d. antifungal

c. antibacterial

R-plasmids are most likely acquired via a. transduction. b. transformation. c. bacterial conjugation. d. translation.

c. bacterial conjugation.

A child with pus-filled vesicles and scabs on his face, throat, and lower back most likely has __________, caused by a herpesvirus infection. a. Small pox b. Measles c. chickenpox d. Shingles

c. chickenpox

Naegleria encephalitis is commonly acquired by __________. a. bats b. eating contaminated beets c. children swimming in warm ponds or streams d. inhalation of bird droppings e. mosquitoes

c. children swimming in warm ponds or streams

The physician performs a pelvic exam, which reveals the presence of an abnormal thin, watery vaginal discharge and inflammation of the cervix. The physician then palpates the abdomen (examines by touch and pressure) and finds that the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries are enlarged and tender. The physician takes a swab sample of the cervix and sends it to the laboratory to determine the causal organism. Light microscopy and simple staining of the sample in the lab reveal an organism with a very unique life cycle. The organism is classified as gram-negative, but it stains very poorly compared to other classic gram-negative STI pathogens. The stain shows both a nonreplicating, extracellular infectious elementary body and a replicating, noninfectious reticulate body inside mucosal cells from the cervical epithelium swab. Based on the symptoms and these new laboratory findings, which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis for the patient? a. syphilis b. leptospirosis c. chlamydia d. gonorrhea

c. chlamydia

Athlete's foot is a type of __________. a. viral infection b. subcutaneous mycosis c. cutaneous mycosis d. candidiasis

c. cutaneous mycosis

The tissue damage that is characteristic of necrotizing fasciitis is due to __________. a. DNAase b. erythrogenic toxin c. exotoxin A d. hyaluronidase

c. exotoxin A

Polyenes, azoles, and allylamines interfere with __________. a. viruses b. cell membranes in gram-positive bacteria c. fungal cell membranes d. cell walls in gram-negative bacteria

c. fungal cell membranes

Ringworm is caused by a(n) __________. a. nematode b. arthropod c. fungus d. helminth e. protozoan

c. fungus

Congenital immunodeficiencies are due to __________. a. immunosuppressive therapy b. cancer c. genetic defects d. viral infections

c. genetic defects

If penicillin G is chosen as the best treatment for a given infection, what microorganisms are most likely the cause? a. viruses b. fungi c. gram-positive bacteria d. gram-negative bacteria

c. gram-positive bacteria

All of the following may lead to candidiasis EXCEPT __________. a. use of oral contraceptives b. pregnancy c. homosexual intercourse d. use of broad-spectrum antibiotics

c. homosexual intercourse

The method of action of nucleoside analogs is __________. a. disruption of plasma membrane b. inhibition of protein synthesis c. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis d. inhibition of cell wall synthesis

c. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis

The one of the most common routes of central nervous system invasion by pathogens is through the __________ system. a. urinary b. digestive c. lymphatic d. integumentary

c. lymphatic

Which disease or microbe is NOT transmitted across the placenta to the unborn fetus? a. neonatal herpes b. toxoplasmosis c. ophthalmia neonatorum d. congenital syphilis

c. ophthalmia neonatorum

The number of T cells drops to below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV infection? a. phase 1 b. phase 2 c. phase 3 d. initial phase e. asymptomatic phase

c. phase 3

An HIV-positive patient with fewer than 200 CD4+ T cells per microliter and Pneumocystis pneumonia would be diagnosed with __________. a. phase 1 HIV infection b. phase 2 HIV infection c. phase 3 HIV infection d. incubation phase

c. phase 3 HIV infection

A patient in South America is hospitalized with fever, chills and headache, followed by nausea, vomiting and jaundice. No bacteria are observed in her blood. Her body is covered in mosquito bites.What is your diagnosis? a. yellow fever b. Lyme disease c. relapsing fever d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

c. relapsing fever

A "clean" urine sample collected directly from the urinary bladder of a healthy individual a. has leukocyte esterase. b. contains fewer than 100 pathogens/ml. c. should be largely devoid of common skin microbiota. d. contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml. e. contains more than 100,000 pathogens/ml.

c. should be largely devoid of common skin microbiota.

Microorganisms that produce the enzyme keratinase can grow on __________. a. deep tissues b. mucous membranes c. skin and hair d. muscle tissue

c. skin and hair

Sporotrichosis is the most common type of __________. a. dermatomycoses b. scabies c. subcutaneous mycoses d. cutaneous mycoses e. candidiasis

c. subcutaneous mycoses

Some drug combinations are __________; therefore, when taken together, they are more effective. a. bioremediation b. inhibitory c. synergistic d. antagonistic

c. synergistic

What part of the United States is endemic for RMSF? a. the Rocky Mountain region, including Montana, Wyoming, and Colorado b. the Northeast region, particularly along the Atlantic Coast c. the Appalachian region (North Carolina, Kentucky) d. the Gulf Coast region (i.e., states that border the Gulf of Mexico)

c. the Appalachian region (North Carolina, Kentucky)

When a patient is treated with antibiotics, __________. a. mutations occur in all of the bacterial cells b. sensitive bacterial cells multiply uncontrollably c. the drug will kill or inhibit the growth of all of the sensitive bacterial cells d. the drug will kill or inhibit the growth of all of the resistant bacterial cells e. mutations will occur in the sensitive bacterial cells, but not in the resistant bacterial cells

c. the drug will kill or inhibit the growth of all of the sensitive bacterial cells

All of the following are causes of immune deficiencies. Which one is NOT a natural cause? a. infection b. inheritance c. transplant drugs d. None of the listed choices is a natural cause of immune deficiencies.

c. transplant drugs

Glomerulonephritis is a condition that occurs as a result of __________. a. type I hypersensitivity b. type II hypersensitivity c. type III hypersensitivity d. cell-mediated autoimmunity

c. type III hypersensitivity

Which of the following types of transplant is least compatible? a. allograft b. isograft c. xenotransplant d. autograft e. All of these types of transplant are equally compatible.

c. xenotransplant

The most common route of central nervous system invasion by pathogens is through the __________ system.

circulatory

The development of which disease is promoted by mosquito-borne malarial infections? a) Hodgkin's disease b) infectious mononucleosis ("mono") c) cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection d) Burkitt's lymphoma

d) Burkitt's lymphoma

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)? a) Sleep is unrefreshing. b) Muscle pain is present. c) Sore throat and tender lymph nodes are present. d) Relief can be obtained through exercise.

d) Relief can be obtained through exercise.

Which statement regarding arboviral encephalitis is FALSE? a) Horses, as well as humans, are frequently affected by arboviruses. b) The incidence of disease increases during summer months. c) Most human cases of West Nile virus (WNV) are subclinical or very mild. d) The most effective preventive measure for arboviral infections is vaccination.

d) The most effective preventive measure for arboviral infections is vaccination.

You have a 200-milligram-per-milliliter antibiotic solution. You prepare serial dilutions (1:2, 1:4, etc.) of the antibiotic. You then inoculate each tube with Salmonella. Bacteria grow in tubes 4, 5, and 6. You subculture bacteria from tubes 1 through 3 to nutrient broth. Growth occurs in tubes 2 through 3. What is the MBC (minimum bactericidal concentration)? a. 12.5 mg/ml b. 25 mg/ml c. 50 mg/ml d. 100 mg/ml

d. 100 mg/ml

Which of the following is a eukaryotic pathogen that infects the eye? a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Sarcoptes scabiei c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Acanthamoeba e. Human herpesvirus I

d. Acanthamoeba

John mentioned that while in the Caribbean, he had been very careful to wear bug spray when outside and to use a mosquito net around the bed at night. Why were these protective measures not enough to keep him from being infected? a. Aedes mosquitoes are small enough to get through the holes in the mosquito net that John put around his bed. b. Aedes mosquitoes prefer to live outdoors and feed at dusk. Bug spray is not effective against them at all. c. Aedes mosquitoes prefer the blood of human beings and only feed at dusk, like most other mosquitoes. d. Aedes mosquitoes prefer to live inside buildings, are more resistant to bug spray, and feed during the day.

d. Aedes mosquitoes prefer to live inside buildings, are more resistant to bug spray, and feed during the day.

Rickettsia rickettsii is a gram-negative, obligate intracellular pathogen. Which of the following statements about the R. rickettsii life cycle is FALSE? a. Like viruses, R. rickettsii requires a eukaryotic host in order to carry out its life cycle. b. During infection, R. rickettsii is able to survive and replicate within eukaryotic cells. c. In order to cause RMSF, R. rickettsii must enter host cells. d. After entering a host, R. rickettsii multiplies to levels high enough to successfully invade cells and establish an infection.

d. After entering a host, R. rickettsii multiplies to levels high enough to successfully invade cells and establish an infection.

Which of the following diseases are autoimmune diseases? a. Graves' disease b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Psoriasis d. All are autoimmune diseases.

d. All are autoimmune diseases.

Which of the following are common targets for bacterial resistance to antibiotics? a. Blocking the drug's entry into the cell b. Inactivation of the drug by enzymes c. Alteration of the drug's target site d. All are common targets for bacterial resistance to antibiotics.

d. All are common targets for bacterial resistance to antibiotics.

Which of the following prenatal infections can be diagnosed by doing TORCH titers on a newborn? a. Cytomegalovirus b. toxoplasmosis c. rubella d. All of these infections can be diagnosed by using TORCH titers.

d. All of these infections can be diagnosed by using TORCH titers.

Why do antibiotics sometimes aggravate septic shock? a. Septic shock is caused by viruses that are not affected by antibiotics. b. The bacteria chemically modify the antibiotics into toxins. c. Antibiotics cannot reach the site of infection. d. Antibiotics may cause the lysis of more bacteria and the release of more endotoxin. e. The bacteria are resistant to the antibiotics.

d. Antibiotics may cause the lysis of more bacteria and the release of more endotoxin.

Antibodies that inhibit translation have side effects: a. Because all cells have proteins. b. Only in the few cells that make proteins. c. Because eukaryotic cells have 80S ribosome. d. At the 70S ribosomes in eukaryotic cells. e. None of the above.

d. At the 70S ribosomes in eukaryotic cells.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which antibiotic resistance spreads horizontally among bacteria? a. Plasmid transfer b. Bacterial conjugation c. Transduction d. Bacterial transcription

d. Bacterial transcription

__________ neurotoxin blocks neurotransmitter release at the neuromuscular junction, causing flaccid paralysis. a. Tetanus b. Listeria c. Staphylococcal d. Botulinum

d. Botulinum

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. Leading cause of blindness - Chlamydia. b. Chickenpox - Shingles. c. HSV-1 - Encephalitis. d. Buruli Ulcer - Stomach Acid. e. None of the above.

d. Buruli Ulcer - Stomach Acid.

A patient presents with vaginitis and thick, yellowish discharge. Microscopic examination of her vaginal discharge reveals large, ovoid cells. What infection does the patient have? a. Gonorrhea b. Bacterial vaginosis c. Trichomoniasis d. Candidiasis

d. Candidiasis

Which of the following is NOT caused by HSV-1? a. Encephalitis b. Herpes whitlow c. Cystic acne d. Canker sores e. Cold sores

d. Canker sores

What is meant by selective toxicity? a. Chemotherapeutic agents should work on certain types of pathogens. b. Chemotherapeutic agents should have only one mode of action. c. Chemotherapeutic agents should work on many different targets on a pathogen. d. Chemotherapeutic agents should act against the pathogen and not the host.

d. Chemotherapeutic agents should act against the pathogen and not the host.

Which of the following is the most common cause of nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)? a. Candida albicans b. Treponema pallidum c. Human herpesvirus-2 d. Chlamydia trachomatis

d. Chlamydia trachomatis

Which method is best for controlling African trypanosomiasis? a. Take prophylactic antibiotics. b. Avoid reservoirs. c. Avoid swimming in contaminated water. d. Control the vector. e. Get a vaccination.

d. Control the vector.

Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus saprophyticus are frequently associated with which type of urinary system infection? a. Glomerulonephritis b. Leptospirosis c. Gonorrhea d. Cystitis

d. Cystitis

Quinolones and fluoroquinolones act against what bacterial target? a. Cell membranes b. Cell walls c. Bacterial ribosomes d. DNA gyrase e. Metabolic pathways unique to bacteria

d. DNA gyrase

Which of these statements is true concerning foodborne botulism in infants? a. Disease results from consuming botulism toxin in improperly preserved foods. b. Disease results from consuming vegetative C. botulinum organisms that invade peripheral neurons. c. Disease results from toxin produced by vegetative C. botulinum organisms when contaminated foods sit at room temperature between preparation and consumption. d. Disease results when ingested C. botulinum spores germinate in the intestine and invade the bloodstream, causing septicemia. e. Disease usually results from consuming C. botulinum spores in improperly canned foods. These spores germinate and produce toxin within the intestine.

d. Disease results when ingested C. botulinum spores germinate in the intestine and invade the bloodstream, causing septicemia.

What is the best way to control West Nile encephalitis? a. Avoid endemic areas. b. Get vaccinated. c. Take prophylactic antibiotics. d. Eliminate the vector. e. Treat the patient.

d. Eliminate the vector.

Which one of these diseases is NOT correctly matched to its reservoir? a. Bartonella; cats b. Tularemia; rabbits c. Toxoplasmosis; cats d. Endemic murine typhus; cows

d. Endemic murine typhus; cows

Which of the following is NOT a type of defensive cell that is associated with the lymph nodes? a. B lymphocyte b. Fixed macrophage c. T lymphocyte d. Eosinophil

d. Eosinophil

Which of the following antibiotics is a common choice to treat streptococcal infections in children? a. Tetracycline b. Trimethoprim c. rifampin d. Erythromycin e. Neomycin

d. Erythromycin

Which of the following antibiotics is frequently used as an alternative for those who are allergic to penicillin? a. Amoxicillin b. Vancomycin c. Streptomycin d. Erythromycin e. Ethambutol

d. Erythromycin

Which microorganism is responsible for approximately 75% of all UTIs and half of the nosocomial infections of the urinary tract? a. Streptococcus faecalis b. Trichomonas vaginalis c. Staphylococcus epidermidis d. Escherichia coli e. Candida albicans

d. Escherichia coli

You microscopically examine scrapings from a case of Acanthamoeba keratitis. You expect to see: a. Nothing b. Viruses c. Gram-positive cocci d. Eukaryotic cells e. Gram-negative cocci

d. Eukaryotic cells

Which of the following is NOT a predisposing condition for yeast infections? a. Use of antibiotics b. Diabetes c. Immunosuppression d. Excessive production of sebum

d. Excessive production of sebum

A clinical microbiologist detects clue cells from a vaginal swab of a patient. These cells are diagnostic of infection associated with __________. a. Trichomonas vaginalis b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Chlamydia trachomatis d. Gardnerella vaginalis e. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

d. Gardnerella vaginalis

Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is characterized by lesions that first disappear and later recur? a. Lymphogranuloma venereum b. Candidiasis c. Gonorrhea d. Genital herpes

d. Genital herpes

All of the following methods are used for diagnosis of syphilis EXCEPT __________. a. VDRL test b. rapid plasmid reagin (RPR) test c. darkfield microscopy d. Gram staining e. fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test

d. Gram staining

Which of the following would you expect to culture from a patient with gas gangrene? a. Gram-positive, aerobic, endospore-forming rods b. Gram-negative, oxidase-negative rods c. Gram-negative, oxidase-positive rods d. Gram-positive, anaerobic, endospore-forming rods

d. Gram-positive, anaerobic, endospore-forming rods

Consider the following three common agents of bacterial meningitis: Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae type B. Which of the following would be most helpful in differentiating these three agents? a. Duration of symptoms b. CSF white blood cell count c. Presence or absence of a capsule d. Gram-stain morphology e. Patient symptoms

d. Gram-stain morphology

Diseases such as multiple sclerosis and rheumatic fever are much more common in individuals with a particular __________ type. a. hypersensitivity b. anaphylactic c. stem cell d. Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA)

d. Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA)

Which of the following statements is NOT true for type I (anaphylactic) hypersensitivity reactions? a. The reactions may be localized or systemic. b. Examples include hay fever, asthma, and bee-sting allergies. c. Mediators of the reactions include histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins. d. IgG and IgM antibodies are involved. e. The reactions occur when IgE antibodies bind to antigen.

d. IgG and IgM antibodies are involved.

Which of the following best describes graft-versus-host disease? a. Immune cells attack transplanted tissue in a privileged site. b. A tissue transplant is rejected because the host's T cytotoxic cells are activated and kill the transplanted tissue. c. The cells of a host reject transplanted bone marrow. d. Immune cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the cells of the host.

d. Immune cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the cells of the host.

Which of the following is not the cause of a natural immunodeficiency? a. A recessive gene resulting in lack of a thymus gland. b. A recessive gene resulting in few B cells. c. HIV infection. d. Immunosuppressant drugs. e. None of the above.

d. Immunosuppressant drugs.

Which antimicrobial works by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic acid? a. Vancomycin b. Chloramphenicol c. Methicillin d. Isoniazid e. Penicillin

d. Isoniazid

What is erysipelas? a. It is a serious infection of the epidermis, which is caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. b. It is a serious infection of the dermis, which is caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. c. It is a superficial infection of the epidermis, which is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. d. It is a serious infection of the dermis, which is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.

d. It is a serious infection of the dermis, which is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.

Which of the following is true of the latent stage of syphilis infection? a. It is characterized by a chancre. b. It may revert to primary syphilis. c. It is characterized by a body-wide rash. d. It may never progress to tertiary syphilis.

d. It may never progress to tertiary syphilis.

A twenty-three-year-old Caucasian female is being examined in the emergency room of a Chicago hospital, and she is complaining of a high fever and severe muscle pain and joint pain. She had returned to Chicago three days ago after spending a week in Africa on a mission trip. She indicated that one of her mission activities was to help clean out a storage facility that had previously been a nesting site for a larger rodent population. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Dengue fever b. Yellow fever c. Marburg virus d. Lassa fever e. Influenza

d. Lassa fever

Which disease may be transmitted by contaminated dairy products? a. Encephalitis b. Botulism c. Tetanus d. Listeriosis e. Poliomyelitis

d. Listeriosis

Which of the following diseases is commonly found in the tropical and near-tropical regions? a. Pelvic inflammatory disease b. Syphilis c. Gonorrhea d. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

d. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

Which of the following statements is NOT true of pelvic inflammatory disease? a. It may involve infection of the uterus, cervix, uterine tubes, or ovaries. b. It may result in infertility. c. Barrier contraceptives and spermicide use may prevent infection. d. Most infections are resolved without treatment. e. The most common causative agents are Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.

d. Most infections are resolved without treatment.

Microscopic examination of vaginal smear shows gram-negative cocci in phagocytes. a. Candida b. Chlamydia c. Gardnerella d. Neisseria e. Trichomonas

d. Neisseria

Vaccination is recommended to prevent epidemic meningitis among college students and military recruits resulting from infection with __________. a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Listeria monocytogenes c. Clostridium tetani d. Neisseria meningitidis e. Haemophilus influenzae

d. Neisseria meningitidis

Which of the following is a broad-spectrum, topical antibacterial compound? a. Bacitracin b. Polymyxin B c. Caspofungin d. Neomycin

d. Neomycin

Which of the following is frequently the cause of infection following animal bites? a. Toxoplasma gondii b. Rickettsia rickettsia c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Pasteurella multocida e. Borrelia burgdorferi

d. Pasteurella multocida

Infestations with lice are called __________. a. Scabies b. Trachoma c. Candidiasis d. Pediculosis

d. Pediculosis

Why would an efflux pump for penicillin located on a bacterial cell membrane not be effective at providing resistance to the drug? a. The efflux pumps would not stop penicillin from blocking metabolic pathways. b. There are fewer efflux pumps on the cell membrane. c. The cell membrane is the target of penicillin. d. Penicillin disrupts the cell wall, which is located outside of the cell membrane.

d. Penicillin disrupts the cell wall, which is located outside of the cell membrane.

Most cases of Burkitt's lymphoma occur in individuals who are infected with EB virus and __________. a. herpes virus b. Trypanosoma species c. schistosomes d. Plasmodium species e. HIV

d. Plasmodium species

Which of the following is treated using immunoglobulin? a. Naegleria meningoencephalitis b. Arboviral encephalitis c. Poliomyelitis d. Rabies

d. Rabies

Which of the following could be predicted for an individual with a mutation in the gene encoding CCR5? a. Inability to be stimulated by interleukin-1 b. Inability to interact with macrophages and dendritic cells during antigen presentation c. Inability to produce cytokines d. Resistance to HIV infection e. Inability to produce antibodies

d. Resistance to HIV infection

Following an organ transplant, therapeutic immunosuppression to prevent organ rejection may be accomplished by any of the following EXCEPT __________. a. blocking IL-2 b. chimeric monoclonal antibodies c. suppression of cell-mediated immunity d. RhoGAM e. cyclosporine

d. RhoGAM

Which of the following etiologic agents and disease signs do NOT match? a. Rickettsia rickettsii; macular rash on the body, including the hands and feet b. Borrelia burgdorferi; bull's eye&#8211;shaped rash c. Yersinia pestis; grossly enlarged lymph nodes in the groin d. Rickettsia prowazekii; undulating fever

d. Rickettsia prowazekii; undulating fever

Ron and Paul went backpacking in the Bitterroot Mountains of Montana in mid-June. The weather was good, and the trip was uneventful, except for the large numbers of ticks the pair noticed, seemingly everywhere. The pair used insect repellant on their clothes, and Paul advised Ron to check himself for ticks when they got back to their homes. Seven days later, Ron begins to develop flulike symptoms, including a fever, muscle aches, and a severe headache. After two days of bed rest, he doesn't feel any better and actually begins to get worse. He becomes nauseated and seems very lethargic and confused to his wife. His wife takes him to their family physician, who agrees that it seems like a bad case of the flu, even though it is not flu season and the doctor has not noticed any rise in influenza infections recently. When asked about his recent activities, Ron mentions that he had gone backpacking a couple of weeks earlier, but he doesn't mention the area where he traveled or the ticks. The doctor has blood drawn for routine testing and sends Ron home with orders for bed rest and fluids. The next day, Ron's wife receives a phone call from the doctor's office, informing her that she should bring Ron into the hospital for more testing. The blood testing performed the day before had revealed leukocytosis (high white blood cell count) and severe thrombocytopenia (relative decrease of platelets). Ron has begun to develop a macropapular rash on his hands and feet and is feeling worse than ever. He is admitted to the hospital, and more testing is ordered. That afternoon, Paul calls Ron to see whether he wants to go hiking the next weekend. Ron's wife answers the phone and lets Paul know that Ron is in the hospital and very sick. After she describes the symptoms, Paul asks whether the doctors have been informed that Ron was likely exposed to a tick bite. She says she doesn't think so, and Paul tells her that she should tell the doctors right away. What disease does Paul suspect Ron might have contracted? a. West Nile virus b. Lyme disease c. Epidemic typhus d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Which of the following viral infections has a high incidence of causing birth defects? a. Chickenpox b. Measles c. Fifth disease d. Rubella

d. Rubella

Which of the following is NOT a possible result of rubeola? a. Pneumonia b. Encephalitis c. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis d. Shingles e. Macular rash

d. Shingles

Microscopic examination of the patient's ulcer reveals 10 micrometer ovoid cells. What are they? a. Pseudomonas b. S. aureus c. Scabies d. Sporothrix e. Virus

d. Sporothrix

Which of the following is NOT an eye infection? a. Inclusion conjunctivitis b. Herpetic keratitis c. Trachoma d. Sty

d. Sty

Which of the following is NOT a reason for the selective toxicity of sulfa drugs? a. Sulfa drugs inhibit a bacterial enzyme. b. Bacteria must synthesize folic acid. c. Humans get folic acid from their diet; they do not synthesize it. d. Sulfa drugs cause production of antimetabolites.

d. Sulfa drugs cause production of antimetabolites.

Which statement regarding the skin is FALSE? a. The outer layer is composed of dead cells. b. Sweat contains an enzyme called lysozyme, which breaks down the cell walls of some bacteria. c. It is waterproof. d. Sweat glands produce sebum, in addition to sweat.

d. Sweat glands produce sebum, in addition to sweat.

A migrant farmworker has been brought into the emergency room showing early symptoms of tetanus. He indicates that he had received a puncture wound in his hand a week before the onset of symptoms. When asked about vaccination or booster, he did not know whether he had ever been vaccinated. Which of the following should be administered to the patient as soon as possible? a. Hyperbaric therapy b. A tetanus titer c. Tetanus toxoid d. Tetanus immune globulin e. Antibiotics

d. Tetanus immune globulin

The IgG molecules that are produced during desensitization function as blocking antibodies. These antibodies are extremely effective in providing protection from a hypersensitivity reaction. Why are blocking IgG antibodies so effective at protecting Sally from another anaphylactic response to wasp venom? a. The IgG molecules bind to mast cells and prevent IgE molecules from binding, thereby preventing degranulation. b. The IgG antibodies bind to the circulating IgE and block their binding to the mast cells. c. The IgG molecules bind to the mast cells; but when wasp venom binds, IgG blocks degranulation. d. The blocking IgG antibodies "outnumber" the IgE antibodies and bind to wasp venom before the IgE antibodies can bind.

d. The blocking IgG antibodies "outnumber" the IgE antibodies and bind to wasp venom before the IgE antibodies can bind.

Schistosomiasis is spread by which of the following methods? a. The disease is transmitted by the bite of female sandflies. b. The virus that causes this disease is injected into the skin by a mosquito, A. aegypt c. The disease is caused by a bacterium that is spread by the bite of a tick. d. The disease is spread by human feces or urine carrying eggs of the schistosome that enter water supplies with which humans come into contact.

d. The disease is spread by human feces or urine carrying eggs of the schistosome that enter water supplies with which humans come into contact.

A patient has conjunctivitis. It you isolated Pseudomonas from the patient's mascara, you would most likely conclude all of the following except that: a. The mascara was the source of the infection. b. Pseudomonas is causing the infection. c. Pseudomonas has been growing in the mascara. d. The mascara was contaminated by the manufacturer. e. All of the above are valid conclusions.

d. The mascara was contaminated by the manufacturer.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning rabies? a. It is a zoonosis. b. It is found in wild animals all over the world, including the United States. c. If treatment is delayed until after the onset of symptoms, the infection is almost always fatal. d. The time period between infection and onset of symptoms is very short.

d. The time period between infection and onset of symptoms is very short.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning Clostridium species? a. They grow only in anaerobic environments. b. They grow well in damaged tissues that are necrotic and have impaired blood flow. c. They can cause gas gangrene and septicemia. d. Their main reservoir is cattle.

d. Their main reservoir is cattle.

You have a 200-milligram-per-milliliter antibiotic solution. You prepare serial dilutions (1:2, 1:4, etc.) of the antibiotic. You then inoculate each tube with Salmonella. Bacteria grow in tubes 4, 5, and 6. What is the MBC (minimum bactericidal concentration)? a. 12.5 mg/ml b. 25 mg/ml c. 50 mg/ml d. There is not enough information to determine the MBC.

d. There is not enough information to determine the MBC.

What do the following four diseases/infections have in common: plague, Lyme disease, toxoplasmosis, anthrax? a. These infections are all common in the United States. b. These infections are all caused by bacteria. c. These infections are transmitted by ticks. d. Theses infections are all zoonotic.

d. Theses infections are all zoonotic.

What do the following diseases have in common? Scalded skin syndrome Toxic shock syndrome Staphylococcal food poisoning a. All of these diseases are caused by beta-hemolytic streptococci. b. All of these diseases are readily treated with penicillin. c. They are all caused by endotoxins produced by Escherichia coli. d. They are all caused by exotoxins produced by strains of Staphylococcus aureus. e. They are all diseases seen in neonates.

d. They are all caused by exotoxins produced by strains of Staphylococcus aureus.

What do yellow fever, dengue fever, chikungunya fever, and malaria have in common? a. Vaccines are available to prevent them. b. They are caused by protozoan parasites. c. They are caused by viruses. d. They are transmitted by mosquitoes.

d. They are transmitted by mosquitoes.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning mucous membranes? a. Epithelial cells are packed very tightly together. b. They have an acidic pH. c. The mucus layer helps to trap particles and microorganisms. d. They produce IgM antibodies.

d. They produce IgM antibodies.

__________ causes congenital infections and birth defects. a. Chagas' Disease b. Leishmaniasis c. Chikungunya Fever d. Toxoplasmosis

d. Toxoplasmosis

Which of the following diseases can be treated effectively with antibiotics? a. Cold sores b. Rubella c. Congenital rubella syndrome d. Trachoma

d. Trachoma

Which of the following sexually transmitted infections can infect the fetus in utero? a. Candida albicans b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Treponema pallidum

d. Treponema pallidum

Which one of the following microorganisms is NOT commonly found in a normal, healthy person? a. Gardnerella vaginalis b. Escherichia coli c. Candida albicans d. Treponema pallidum

d. Treponema pallidum

Salpingitis is an infection of which part of the female reproductive tract? a. Cervix b. Uterus c. Vagina d. Uterine tubes

d. Uterine tubes

A woman just found out that she is pregnant. As a first-time mother-to-be and student in microbiology, she is worried about all the different microbes that could potentially harm her unborn child. What is the term used to describe the transmission of microbes from mother to fetus via the placenta or during delivery? a. Fecal-oral transmission b. Airborne transmission c. Horizontal transmission d. Vertical transmission

d. Vertical transmission

Some types of allergies take several days to manifest on the skin. These are called type IV (delayed) hypersensitivities. They are due to __________. a. production of antibodies against soluble antigens b. production of antibodies against whole-cell antigens c. activation of B cells d. activation of T cells

d. activation of T cells

A disk-diffusion test identifies __________. a. bactericidal agents only b. minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC) c. bacteriostatic agents only d. agents to which a test culture is sensitive, in terms of growth or survival

d. agents to which a test culture is sensitive, in terms of growth or survival

Which of the following does histamine NOT directly cause? a. vasodilation b. increased vascular permeability c. smooth muscle contraction d. anaphylactic shock

d. anaphylactic shock

Which of the following terms does NOT describe syphilis? a. infectious b. fastidious c. spirochete d. attenuated

d. attenuated

Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against a. protozoa. b. fungi. c. viruses. d. bacteria.

d. bacteria.

Drugs used to treat encephalitis must __________. a. enter the lymphatic system b. be specific for gram-positive cocci c. inhibit acetylcholine d. be lipid-soluble

d. be lipid-soluble

Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a(n) a. corneal transplant. b. blood transfusion. c. Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus. d. bone marrow transplant. e. skin graft.

d. bone marrow transplant.

The current first choice of antibiotic for bacterial meningitis is __________. a. ampicillin b. erythromycin c. vancomycin d. cephalosporin e. penicillin

d. cephalosporin

The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to a. antibodies against self. b. cytokines. c. phagocytosis. d. complement activation. e. destruction of the antigen.

d. complement activation.

Immunodeficiencies are a result of all of the following EXCEPT a. Hodgkin's disease. b. HIV infection. c. DiGeorge syndrome. d. corneal transplantation. e. cyclosporine.

d. corneal transplantation.

Place the following infections in order of increasing tissue involvement and severity: septicemia folliculitis cellulitis furuncle a. furuncle, folliculitis, septicemia, cellulitis b. folliculitis, furuncle, septicemia, cellulitis c. folliculitis, cellulitis, furuncle, septicemia d. folliculitis, furuncle, cellulitis, septicemia e. septicemia, folliculitis, cellulitis, furuncle

d. folliculitis, furuncle, cellulitis, septicemia

The mode of action for erythromycin is __________. a. inhibition of cell wall synthesis b. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis c. inhibition of essential metabolite synthesis d. inhibition of protein synthesis

d. inhibition of protein synthesis = Erythromycin inhibits protein synthesis. It is believed to work by blocking the "tunnel" formed by the complete ribosome as shown in Figure 20.4a.

In hemolytic disease of the newborn, fetal red blood cells are targeted for destruction by __________. a. maternal IgE antibodies b. fetal IgE antibodies c. maternal IgM antibodies d. maternal IgG antibodies e. fetal IgG antibodies

d. maternal IgG antibodies

Ethambutol inhibits incorporation of mycolic acid into cell walls; therefore, it is effective against __________. a. fungi b. mycoplasmas c. gram-positive bacteria d. mycobacteria

d. mycobacteria

A mother infected with gonorrhea has transmitted the disease to her infant as he passed through the birth canal. This infection in the infant is called __________. a. gonorrheal arthritis b. gonorrheal endocarditis c. gonorrheal meningitis d. ophthalmia neonatorum e. pharyngeal gonorrhea

d. ophthalmia neonatorum

Warts are generally caused by __________. a. variola virus b. varicella-zoster c. rubella d. papillomavirus e. herpesvirus

d. papillomavirus

HIV can remain latent in the host cell by integrating its reverse-transcriptase-produced DNA into the host chromosome, becoming a(n) __________. a. antivirus b. virion c. prion d. provirus e. prophage

d. provirus

Untreated cases of cystitis may progress to __________. a. urethritis b. ureteritis c. leptospirosis d. pyelonephritis

d. pyelonephritis

Which of the following is NOT a recognized form of anthrax? a. cutaneous b. gastrointestinal c. inhalationial d. septic e. None of the answers are correct; all of these are recognized forms of anthrax.

d. septic

Microbial proliferation in the blood leads to a condition known as __________. a. septic shock b. sepsis c. puerperal fever d. septicemia

d. septicemia

Which of the following is associated with secondary stage syphilis? a. personality changes and seizures b. a chancre c. weakening of the aorta d. skin rashes of varying appearance

d. skin rashes of varying appearance

A disadvantage of using broad-spectrum antibiotics for treating bacterial infections is the potential for __________. a. diseases b. infections c. synergism d. superinfection

d. superinfection

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are a. macrolides. b. aminoglycosides. c. chloramphenicol. d. tetracyclines. e. penicillin G.

d. tetracyclines.

Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because a. the antibiotics cause new mutations to occur in the surviving bacteria, which results in resistance to antibiotics. b. bacteria from other animals replace those killed by the antibiotics. c. the few surviving bacteria that are affected by the antibiotics develop immunity to the antibiotics, which they pass on to their progeny. d. the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal. e. the antibiotics persist in soil and water.

d. the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal.

All of the following regarding "immune privileged sites" are true EXCEPT a. they are rarely rejected. b. they explain how animals tolerate pregnancies without rejecting the fetus. c. they include corneal and brain tissue. d. they include any tissue transplanted from a pig. e. they do not have lymphatic vessels.

d. they include any tissue transplanted from a pig.

The antibiotic actinomycin D binds between adjacent G-C pairs, thus interfering with a. cellular respiration. b. peptide bond formation. c. translation. d. transcription. e. plasma membrane function.

d. transcription.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for papillomas? a. Cryotherapy b. Laser therapy c. Electro-desiccation d. Treatment with certain topical drugs e. Acyclovir treatment

e. Acyclovir treatment

Which of the following will not affect eukaryotic cells? a. Inhalation of the mitotic spindle. b. Binding with sterols. c. Binding to 80S ribosomes. d. Binding to DNA. e. All of the above will affect them.

e. All of the above will affect them.

Which of the following does NOT pertain to vaginitis? a. Usually caused by opportunistic microbes b. Diabetes mellitus and use of contraceptive pills increase risk c. Increased frequency in pregnant patients d. Increased frequency in menopause patients e. Always sexually transmitted

e. Always sexually transmitted

Which antibodies will be found naturally in the serum of a person with blood type A, Rh+? a. Anti A, anti B, anti Rh. b. Anti A, anti Rh. c. Anti A. d. Anti B, anti Rh. e. Anti B.

e. Anti B.

Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched to its vector? a. Trypanosoma cruzi; reduviid bug b. Plasmodium vivax; mosquito c. Yellow fever; mosquito d. Leishmania tropica; sandfly e. Babesia microti; flea

e. Babesia microti; flea

Which of the following statements is NOT true of yellow fever? a. Fever, chills, and jaundice are frequent symptoms. b. Control of mosquito populations can reduce the disease incidence. c. Aedes aegypti is the vector. d. Liver damage may result from infection. e. Burkitt's lymphoma may develop.

e. Burkitt's lymphoma may develop.

Non-gonococcal urethritis is commonly caused by __________. a. Streptococcus faecalis b. Escherichia coli c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus e. Chlamydia trachomatis

e. Chlamydia trachomatis

A Nigerian tourist is hospitalized with a fever and chills that occur in 48-hour cycles. A blood smear reveals circular rings within the erythrocytes. What is the treatment of choice for this patient? a. Penicillin b. Gin c. Tetracycline d. acyclovir e. Chloroquine

e. Chloroquine

Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of malaria? a. Flagyl b. Quinacrine c. Iodoquinol d. Nifurtimox e. Chloroquine

e. Chloroquine

A hyperbaric chamber is sometimes used to treat wounds infected with __________. a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Enterococcus faecium d. Bacillus anthracis e. Clostridium perfringens

e. Clostridium perfringens

Which of the following would be the most appropriate way of testing whether a skin lesion is caused by a dermatophyte? a. Performing a dermatophyte titer b. Swabbing the lesion center and culturing it on blood agar c. Doing a gram stain on a swab from the lesion d. Any of these choices would be equally effective. e. Culture scrapings of the lesion periphery on Sabouraud's agar

e. Culture scrapings of the lesion periphery on Sabouraud's agar

Which of the following is NOT a disease of the reproductive system? a. Gonorrhea b. Syphilis c. Genital herpes d. Candidiasis e. Cystitis

e. Cystitis

Which of the following pairs is NOT a correct match? a. Pyelonephritis; inflammation of kidneys b. Prostatitis; inflammation of prostate c. Dysuria; painful urination d. Glomerulonephritis; inflammation of kidney glomerular capillaries e. Cystitis; inflammation of urethra

e. Cystitis; inflammation of urethra

Which of these statements is true concerning foodborne botulism in older children and adults? a. Disease results when ingested C. botulinum spores germinate in the intestine and invade the bloodstream, causing septicemia. b. Disease results from toxin produced by vegetative C. botulinum organisms when contaminated foods sit at room temperature between preparation and consumption. c. Disease usually results from consuming C. botulinum spores in improperly canned foods. These spores germinate and produce toxin within the intestine. d. Disease results from consuming vegetative C. botulinum organisms that invade peripheral neurons. e. Disease results from consuming botulism toxin in improperly preserved foods.

e. Disease results from consuming botulism toxin in improperly preserved foods.

Which of the following is used to diagnose West Nile encephalitis? a. ELISA test for viral proteins b. Acid-fast stain c. Agglutination test for viruses d. Constant level of IgG antibodies for 1 week e. ELISA test to identify IgM antibodies

e. ELISA test to identify IgM antibodies

membrane transport proteins are required for which mode(s) of antibiotic resistance? a. Modification of a metabolic enzyme b. Beta-lactamases c. Modification of a porins d. Efflux pumps e. Efflux pumps, beta-lactamases, and modification of porins all utilize membrane transport proteins.

e. Efflux pumps, beta-lactamases, and modification of porins all utilize membrane transport proteins.

Which of the following is NOT an example of immunotherapy for cancer treatment or prevention? a. Vaccination against hepatitis B b. Stimulation of dendritic cells with tumor antigens c. The Gardasil vaccine d. Injections of immunotoxins that target tumor cells e. HAART for HIV infection

e. HAART for HIV infection

A patient has an STI characterized by sporadically recurring, painful, fluid-filled blisters in the genital area. A Gram stain and bacterial culture indicate the presence of normal bacterial microbiota. What is the most likely etiologic agent? a. Human papilloma virus (HPV) b. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Treponema pallidum e. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

e. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

A 24-year-old woman in Minnesota complained of a flulike illness accompanied by a high fever and headache a week after being bitten by a tick. During examination of a blood smear, it was noted that some of her monocytes contained clumps of tiny bacteria (morulae). What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Tularemia b. Lyme disease c. Babesiosis d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever e. Human granulocytic anaplasmosis

e. Human granulocytic anaplasmosis

What type of immunoglobulin binds to mast cells during an allergic reaction? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgM d. IgG e. IgE

e. IgE

A 10-month-old infant has become constipated and demonstrates muscular weakness by her inability to sit up or crawl. Her muscle tone is continuing to deteriorate, and she is beginning to have difficulty holding her head up. While questioning her mother to get more information, the doctor noted that the infant's cereal had been sweetened with honey for the last 10 days. What is a likely diagnosis? a. Tetanus b. Viral encephalitis c. Bacterial meningitis d. Viral meningitis e. Infant botulism

e. Infant botulism

Which of the following mechanisms is antifungal? a. Inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis b. Inhibit 70S ribosomes c. Interfere with anaerobic metabolism d. Cause muscle spasms e. Inhibit ergosterol synthesis

e. Inhibit ergosterol synthesis

Which is NOT a mechanism used in anti-HIV drugs? a. Blocking reverse transcriptase b. Blocking viral fusion c. Protease inhibition d. Inhibition of HIV integrase e. Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis

e. Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis

Which of the following is NOT true of acne? a. It is often due to the action of Propionibacterium. b. Drugs that inhibit sebum formation are useful in treating inflammatory acne. c. Antibiotics may be prescribed for moderate cases. d. Mild cases are treated with topical agents. e. It can be treated by eliminating fatty foods from the diet.

e. It can be treated by eliminating fatty foods from the diet.

Which of the following does NOT pertain to leptospirosis? a. It is a zoonotic disease. b. It is transmitted via contact with urine and urine-contaminated water or soil. c. It has an incubation period of 1 to 2 weeks, with sudden onset of headaches, chills, and fever. d. It is caused by a spirochete. e. It is a mild infection that is never fatal.

e. It is a mild infection that is never fatal.

An otherwise healthy 19-year-old college student was admitted to the emergency room with a fever, bad headache, and a stiff neck, symptoms suggestive of meningitis. A spinal tap was done. The CSF was cloudy, and the cell count on the fluid was 500 WBC/ml. The differential WBC count of the CSF showed predominantly neutrophils. The CSF glucose was decreased, and the CSF protein was elevated. The Gram stain showed gram-negative diplococci. The most likely etiologic agent is __________. a. Haemophilus influenza b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. beta-hemolytic group B streptococcus d. Cryptococcus neoformans e. Neisseria meningitidis

e. Neisseria meningitidis

A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency room complaining of low abdominal pain and a fever. As she walks into the examination room, she is slightly stooped over and says that even walking is painful. She indicates that intercourse has been painful for the past week and evidence of purulent vaginal discharge is noted during a pelvic exam. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Pyelonephritis b. Syphilis c. HPV infection d. Bacterial vaginosis e. Pelvic inflammatory disease

e. Pelvic inflammatory disease

Which of the following does NOT pertain to leptospirosis? a. It is a zoonotic disease. b. It is caused by a spirochete. c. It has an incubation period of 1 to 2 weeks, with sudden onset of headaches, chills, and fever. d. It is transmitted via contact with urine and urine-contaminated water or soil. e. Penicillin A is the preferred drug for treatment.

e. Penicillin A is the preferred drug for treatment.

Which of the following is NOT a case of localized anaphylaxis? a. Hay fever b. Asthma c. Hives d. Allergy to dust mites e. Poison ivy rash

e. Poison ivy rash

All of the following cause conjunctivitis EXCEPT __________. a. Haemophilus b. Neisseria c. Chlamydia d. Pseudomonas e. Propionibacterium

e. Propionibacterium

How might efflux pumps increase antibiotic resistance in bacteria? a. Resistant bacteria may have a greater number of efflux pumps on their cell surfaces. b. Some bacteria can decrease the specificity of their efflux pumps, increasing the number of different antibiotics the pumps can eliminate. c. Some bacteria can change the chemical structure of the antibiotic. d. Efflux pumps can never be modified to increase antibiotic resistance. e. Resistant bacteria can have more efflux pumps, and can have less specific efflux pumps.

e. Resistant bacteria can have more efflux pumps, and can have less specific efflux pumps.

Which of the following diseases is a type III autoimmune disease? a. Graves' disease b. Myasthenia gravis c. Hemolytic disease of the newborn d. Poison ivy e. Rheumatoid arthritis

e. Rheumatoid arthritis

Which of these vaccines has actually been implicated in causing the disease it is designed to prevent? a. Salk polio vaccine b. Tetanus vaccine c. Pneumococcus vaccine d. Hib vaccine e. Sabin oral polio vaccine

e. Sabin oral polio vaccine

Which of the following is NOT normal skin microbiota? a. Staphylococcus b. Micrococcus c. Propionibacterium d. Corynebacterium e. Streptococcus

e. Streptococcus

The CDC recommends that pregnant women be tested and offered antibiotic therapy before delivery if they are vaginal carriers of __________. a. Escherichia coli b. Toxoplasma gondii c. Enterococcus faecalis d. Staphylococcus aureus e. Streptococcus agalactiae

e. Streptococcus agalactiae

An otherwise healthy 19-year-old college student was admitted to the emergency room with a fever, bad headache, and a stiff neck, symptoms suggestive of meningitis. A spinal tap was done. The CSF was cloudy, and the cell count on the fluid was 500 WBC/ml. The differential WBC count of the CSF showed predominantly neutrophils. The Gram stain showed gram-positive diplococci. The most likely etiologic agent is __________. a. beta-hemolytic group B streptococcus b. Cryptococcus neoformans c. Neisseria meningitidis d. Listeria monocytogenes e. Streptococcus pneumoniae

e. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Which of the following antibiotics inhibits folic acid synthesis? a. Neomycin b. Ampicillin c. Chloramphenicol d. Tetracycline e. Sulfanilamide

e. Sulfanilamide

Which of the following is NOT associated with Candida albicans? a. Whitish overgrowth of the oral cavity b. Bright red skin with lesions on the borders c. Immunosuppressed individuals d. Susceptibility to nystatin e. Susceptibility to penicillin

e. Susceptibility to penicillin

The following results were obtained from a disk-diffusion test for microbial susceptibility to antibiotics. Staphylococcus aureus was the test organism. Antibiotic/ Zone of Inhibition A/ 3 mm B/ 7 mm C/ 12 mm D/ 10 mm In the table, the most effective antibiotic tested was a. D. b. B. c. A. d. C. e. The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

e. The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

You are reviewing the following results of a disk- diffusion antibiotic susceptibility test on an isolate of Staphylococcus aureus: Antibiotic A: ZI (zone of inhibition) = 0 millimeters Antibiotic B: ZI = 23 millimeters > Antibiotic C: ZI = 16 millimeters Antibiotic D: ZI = 19 millimeters Which antibiotic is bactericidal? a. Antibiotic A b. Antibiotic B c. Antibiotic C d. Antibiotic D e. The correct answer cannot be determined from the information provided.

e. The correct answer cannot be determined from the information provided.

Which of the following statements does NOT pertain to genital warts? a. They are sexually transmitted. b. They are caused by papillomaviruses. c. They are associated with increased risk of cervical carcinoma. d. They can cause irritation and intense itching. e. They are caused by a disease of the tropics that is uncommon in the United States.

e. They are caused by a disease of the tropics that is uncommon in the United States.

Which of the following statements is NOT true of brucellosis? a. Goats and sheep are reservoirs. b. The causative agent grows intracellularly. c. Infected cows excrete bacteria in their milk. d. Treatment requires prolonged antibiotic therapy. e. Transmission occurs via mosquitoes.

e. Transmission occurs via mosquitoes.

Microscopic examination of vaginal smear shows flagellated eukaryotes. a. Candida b. Chlamydia c. Gardnerella d. Neisseria e. Trichomonas

e. Trichomonas

Nothing is seen in microscopic examination of a scraping from the patient's rash. What is it? a. Pseudomonas b. S. aureus c. Scabies d. Sporothrix e. Virus

e. Virus

Which type of graft will most likely cause hyperacute rejection? a. Allograft b. Autograft c. Mesograft d. Isograft e. Xenotransplant

e. Xenotransplant

Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+? a. anti-B b. anti-A, anti-Rh c. anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh d. anti-B, anti-Rh e. anti-A

e. anti-A

The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis requires a sample of __________. a. blood b. sputum c. urine d. lymphatic tissue e. cerebrospinal fluid

e. cerebrospinal fluid

Most naturally occurring anthrax infections are __________. a. gastrointestinal infections from eating undercooked food containing anthrax spores b. pulmonary anthrax from inhaling endospores c. sepsis due to transfusion with contaminated blood d. pneumonic anthrax contracted by contact with human carriers e. cutaneous infections from endospore entry at a skin lesion

e. cutaneous infections from endospore entry at a skin lesion

Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT a. inhibition of viral proteases. b. prohibition of viral integration into host cell DNA. c. termination of viral DNA. d. blockage of viral attachment. e. destruction of viral ribosomes.

e. destruction of viral ribosomes.

The symptoms of schistosomiasis are due primarily to __________. a. larval cercaria entering the skin b. adult worms living in host blood vessels c. an immune reaction to developing worms d. reactions to drugs used for treatment e. eggs deposited by adult worms in host tissue

e. eggs deposited by adult worms in host tissue

Tetracyclines are effective against all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. gram-negative bacteria b. intracellular rickettsias c. intracellular chlamydias d. gram-positive bacteria e. fungi

e. fungi

Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on a. gp120 binding to the CD4+ plasma membrane. b. CXCR4 binding to the CD4+ receptor. c. gp120 combining with the chemokine receptor CCR5. d. gp41 binding to the CD4+ receptor. e. gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor.

e. gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor.

Measles can potentially be eradicated because __________. a. it is not highly contagious b. the virus has mutated to the point that it is no longer infectious c. it is easily controlled by antibiotics d. most people have developed resistance to it e. humans are the only reservoir, and vaccination is effective

e. humans are the only reservoir, and vaccination is effective

Tularemia can be contracted by humans by all of the following methods EXCEPT __________. a. handling diseased carcasses b. eating undercooked meat from diseased animals c. coming into contact with infected rabbits d. being bitten by deerflies e. infection with Epstein-Barr virus

e. infection with Epstein-Barr virus

Treatment for rabies exposure requires __________. a. IV antibiotics and immune globulin b. oral antibiotics and immune globulin c. injections of antirabies vaccine and antibiotics d. injections of rabies antitoxin and chemotherapy e. injections of antirabies vaccine and immune globulin

e. injections of antirabies vaccine and immune globulin

All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT a. it occurs in the presence of an antigen. b. it requires previous exposure to an antigen. c. it is due to an altered immune response. d. it is synonymous with "allergy." e. it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time.

e. it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time.

In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because a. it lacks a cell membrane. b. it plasmolyzes. c. it lacks a cell wall. d. its contents leak out. e. it undergoes lysis.

e. it undergoes lysis.

Swimmer's itch is caused by ___________. a. Plasmodium merozoites b. Babesia c. filovirus d. arbovirus e. larvae of schistosomes

e. larvae of schistosomes

All of the following are antiprotozoan drugs EXCEPT __________. a. chloroquine b. metronidazole c. mefloquine d. quinacrine e. mebendazole

e. mebendazole

Which of the following does NOT affect eukaryotic cells? a. antifungal drugs b. antihelminthic drugs c. nucleotide analogs d. antiprotozoan drugs e. semisynthetic penicillins

e. semisynthetic penicillins

The most important element in the pathogenicity of S. pneumoniae is __________. a. the cell wall b. rapid growth rate c. exotoxins d. endotoxins e. the capsule

e. the capsule

A nucleoside analog used to treat HIV infection is __________. a. amantadine b. acyclovir c. ribavirin d. praziquantel e. zidovudine

e. zidovudine

Reservoirs for rabies include all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. raccoons b. foxes c. bats d. skunks e. dogs f. mosquitoes

f. mosquitoes

A microbe that enters the vagina would likely cause cystitis if left untreated. true or false

false

Acanthamoeba infections are usually transmitted via insects. true or false

false

Alexander Fleming performed the first clinical trials with penicillin, demonstrating its effectiveness as a chemotherapeutic agent. true or false

false

All hypersensitivities involve antibody-antigen reactions. true or false

false

All stem cells are derived from embryonic stem cells. true or false

false

All viral hemorrhagic fever outbreaks have been confined to the Eastern Hemisphere. true or false

false

Autopsy of a stillborn fetus reveals the cause of death to be meningitis. Cultures show the presence of a gram-positive rod. The likely pathogen is Haemophilus influenza. true or false

false

Borrelia burgdorferi is the causative agent of anthrax. true or false

false

CSF contains high levels of complement and circulating antibodies to prevent infection of the brain and spinal cord. true or false

false

Candida is a normal flora found in the majority of women. true or false

false

Coagulase-negative strains of Staphylococcus are never associated with human disease. true or false

false

Cryptococcus neoformans is a gram-negative cocci with a thick capsule. true or false

false

Genital candidiasis is a disease that only affects women. true or false

false

Histamine plays an important role in delayed hypersensitivity reactions. true or false

false

Infection with Pediculus humanus is called scabies. true or false

false

Leprosy is easily transmitted between people. true or false

false

Lifelong immunity is conferred once an individual has had botulism and recovered. true or false

false

Lymph contains red blood cells. true or false

false

Most UTI infections are nosocomial. true or false

false

Neonatal sepsis is most commonly caused by group A streptococci. true or false

false

Only HSV-2 can cause genital herpes. true or false

false

Only microbes produce antimicrobial peptides. true or false

false

PABA serves as the competitive inhibitor in the action of sulfanilamides. true or false

false

Pathogens must be blood-borne in order to initiate sepsis. true or false

false

Penicillin and streptomycin are commonly used in synergism because they display the same mode of action. true or false

false

Phage therapy has been used in the past as an antiviral treatment. true or false

false

Poliomyelitis is caused by a virus and usually leads to paralysis in those affected. true or false

false

Rabies transmission requires a break in the skin. true or false

false

Skin tests are reliable indicators for the diagnosis of food-related allergies. true or false

false

Subacute bacterial endocarditis can lead to the development of rheumatic fever. true or false

false

Tetanus neurotoxin blocks neurotransmitter release at the neuromuscular junction, causing flaccid paralysis. true or false

false

The abbreviation "GAS" refers to pathogenic strains of Staphylococcus. true or false

false

The etiologic agent of fever blisters is rubeola. true or false

false

The majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive. true or false

false

The most common treatments for ringworm (tinea) are penicillin and cephalosporin. true or false

false

The normal flora of the skin is predominantly gram-negative rods. true or false

false

Toxoplasma gondii causes cat-scratch disease. true or false

false

Tularemia is considered to be a potential bioterrorism agent due its high infective dose. true or false

false

Undergrowth of fungi after antibiotic use is commonly referred to as a superinfection. true or false

false

Urinary tract infections are almost always caused by strict (obligate) pathogens. true or false

false

Vaccines against HIV have proven to be very effective in halting the spread of disease. true or false

false

Women and men typically have the same normal microbiota in their reproductive systems. true or false

false

Xenotransplantation is an effective alternative to using isografts. true or false

false

Which of the following conditions could best be treated using an antiviral medication?

herpetic keratitis

A patient enters the emergency room with itchy, swollen hives. This is an example of a ___________ allergic response called __________.

localized; urticaria

Dermatophytes are fungi that can infect the __________ because they can grow on/in __________.

outer skin; keratin

A 9-month old baby with a macular rash is brought to the hospital. Parents report that the rash started on the face, spread to the rest of the body, and was preceded with coldlike symptoms. There are small reddish spots in the baby's mouth. What is the diagnosis?

rubeola (measles)

A hypersensitivity reaction refers to immune responses to antigens beyond what would be normal. true or false

true

A patient has a painless lesion on his penis, followed by a rash on his palms and soles. The most likely diagnosis is syphilis. true or false

true

Aedes mosquitoes transmit viral hemorrhagic fevers, including dengue and chikungunya fevers. true or false

true

All forms of typhus are associated with arthropod vectors. true or false

true

All lymph that returns to the heart must pass through at least one lymph node. true or false

true

An antibiotic that attacks the LPS layer would be expected to have a narrow spectrum of activity. true or false

true

Anatomically, women have more portals of entry in the reproductive system compared to men. true or false

true

Antibiotics are substances that inhibit other microorganisms and are produced by bacteria and fungi. true or false

true

Antiviral drugs target viral processes that occur during viral infection. true or false

true

Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system is unable to discriminate self from nonself. true or false

true

Because antifungal drugs such as amphotericin B target sterols in the plasma membrane, they are ineffective as antibacterial drugs. true or false

true

Blue-green pus is characteristic of Pseudomonas wound infections. true or false

true

Both trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole inhibit reactions along the same metabolic pathway. true or false

true

Botulism and tetanus are caused by bacterial endospores commonly found in the soil. true or false

true

Cancer cells can be killed by the immune system if they are recognized as "nonself." true or false

true

Cancer is similar to an infectious disease in that it is due to a failure of the bodys defenses. true or false

true

Candidiasis often occurs following antibiotic therapy for bacterial infections. true or false

true

Community-acquired MRSA is typically more virulent than health care-associated MRSA. true or false

true

Cytomegalovirus causes congenital infections and birth defects. true or false

true

Diseases such as multiple sclerosis and rheumatic fever are much more common in individuals with a particular Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) type. true or false

true

Due to its target, rifamycins can be effective over a broad spectrum. true or false

true

Epstein-Barr virus and cytomegalovirus are members of the herpes family of viruses. true or false

true

Finding more than 100 bacteria per milliliter indicates a urinary tract infection. true or false

true

German measles infection during the first trimester of pregnancy may result in congenital rubella syndrome. true or false

true

HIV attack of CD4+ T cells causes suppression of both cell-mediated and humoral immune responses. true or false

true

HIV is believed to have arisen by mutation of a virus endemic to wild animals in Africa. true or false

true

Haemophilus influenzae is the most common bacterial cause of pinkeye. true or false

true

If a normal protein typically found on the surface of nervous tissue cells comes into contact with an abnormally folded protein, it can lead to prion-related disease. true or false

true

Impetigo can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, or both. true or false

true

Individuals who do not express CCR5 are highly resistant to infection by HIV. true or false

true

Infant botulism is due mainly to consumption of contaminated honey. true or false

true

Infestations with lice are called pediculosis. true or false

true

Microbial proliferation in the blood leads to a condition known as bacteremia. true or false

true

Most cases of listeriosis are caused by foodborne organisms. true or false

true

Most cases of non-gonococcal urethritis are caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. true or false

true

Netting modified for sandflies should also be useful in preventing malaria. true or false

true

Nitrites are added to sausages and hot dogs to prevent botulism. true or false

true

Pathogens of the skin often enter via hair follicles and ducts of the sweat glands. true or false

true

Some drug combinations are synergistic; therefore, when taken together, they are more effective. true or false

true

Subacute bacterial endocarditis is commonly the result of infections initially focused on the oral cavity. true or false

true

The TORCH panel of tests is used to screen for diseases like syphilis. true or false

true

The drug metronidazole is used for treatment of vaginitis. true or false

true

The male urethra is typically sterile. true or false?????????

true

The most common host of the virus causing eastern equine encephalitis is horses. true or false

true

The most likely primary site of replication during mononucleosis is the B lymphocyte. true or false

true

The number of leprosy cases in the United States is gradually increasing. true or false

true

The varicella-zoster virus is the causative agent of chickenpox and shingles. true or false

true

Trichomoniasis is the only known STI caused by a protozoan. true or false

true

Viral meningitis is much more common than bacterial meningitis and tends to cause a milder form of disease. true or false

true