Exam 3 Simple Nursing STI / STD

Chlamydia s/s

Most clients are ASYMPTOMATIC or may have MINOR SYMPTOMS. DUE TO THIS IT USUALLY GOES UNTREATED AND CAN CAUSE INFERTILITY ISSUES. - dysuria: painful or difficult urination. - spotting after sex - abnormal vaginal discharge

The most common STD effecting patient's of all ages is ____________ ?

Chlamydia ( Most common in young women and those with multiple sex partners )

If a pregnant patient with syphilis refuses treatment you must do what ?

Educate about the potential death or harm to the fetus. ( Yes, client's can refuse but you must always educate on the risk and potential harm or death to the fetus )

Type 1 Herpes simplex virus.... Which instructions about the treatment does the nurse expect the health care provider to give ?

The infection will clear up by itself in 10-14 days

The only treatment for syphilis during pregnancy is ?

Penicillin NOT DOXY or TETRA which can be harmful during pregnancy

How many days after exposure to genital herpes would an outbreak generally occur?

14 days

Anti-Viral

"-Cyclovir" Acyclovir ; Valacyclovir herpes ( 1. cold sores & 2. Genital ) herpes zoster (shingles) KEY POINTS: -Taken daily -No cure ! ( Only slows the virus ) -AVOID sex while lesions are present -Drink extra fluids -Effective: Less frequent eruption of lesions

A client, newly diagnosed with gonorrhea questions the nurse about when she and her male partner should have sex. What is the nurse's best response to the client? 1. "Avoid having sex with your partner until the completion of treatment." 2. " You may continue having sex but use a diaphragm for birth control." 3. "You can only have oral or anal sex, but not vaginal sex." 4. "Gonorrhea is not transferred sexually so you and your partner can continue having sex."

1. "Avoid having sex with your partner until the completion of treatment." 1. This answer is correct because the client should avoid having sex with her partner until the completion of treatment. This includes oral and anal sex as well.

Herpes type 2 Genital Herpes treatment

1. Active lesions are actively contagious and spread by contact. 2. Do NOT touch lesions & DO wash hands regularly. 3. AVOID sex when lesions are present. - Condoms will NOT work ! 4. AVOID scented soaps. 5. Lesions: Should be kept clean and dry. ( unscented soap and warm water and you can blow dry area on cool setting )

Herpes type 2 Genital Herpes Treatment

1. Acyclovir (antiviral drug) - Should be started immediately ; First prenatal, Third trimester & delivery ( especially for pregnant clients close to their delivery date ). 2. Active lesions & birth: - NO vaginal delivery - C-Section "cesarean birth" ( reduces transmission as the newborn avoids contact with the vagina )

Chlamydia Education and Treatment

1. Antibiotics: Azithromycin & doxcycline. - NO sex for & days after starting meds - Sex partner also needs to get treatment too - Still can spread the infection while Asymptomatic (no s/s) 2.Infertility & PID : Untreated chlamydia & gonorrhea infections 3. Screenings: -Yearly ( annually ) - Sex partners checked too ( especially true for females over 25 or individuals with multi sex partners )

If a pregnant patient with syphilis is allergic to penicillin what should you do ?

1. Assess : which type of allergic reaction 2. Intervention : Penicillin desensitization ( giving a medication in a slow gradual manner which allows the patient to slowly tolerate it )

You are taking care of a 77-year-old client in an assisted living facility. The client appears to be losing her sight and use of her lower extremities. Which of these symptoms are seen in the latent stage of syphilis? Select all that apply. 1. Deafness 2. Blindness 3. COPD 4. Bone cancer 5. Paralysis 6. Headache

1. Deafness 2. Blindness 5. Paralysis 6. Headache 1. This answer is correct because deafness can be a neurological symptom caused from untreated syphilis and show up in the latent stage of syphilis. If syphilis is left untreated, the disease may lay dormant and cause irreversible damage to multiple organs. The latent phase can cause deafness, blindness, paralysis, headache, dementia, and sensory deficits. 2. This answer is correct because blindness could indicate ocular syphilis which would show up in the latent stage of untreated syphilis. If syphilis is left untreated, the disease may lay dormant and cause irreversible damage to multiple organs. The latent phase can cause deafness, blindness, paralysis, headache, dementia, and sensory deficits. 5. This answer is correct because paralysis can be a neurological result from the infection of syphilis which is variable as it can cause partial paralysis or weakness depending on the nerve endings that the syphilis bacteria has attacked. If syphilis is left untreated, the disease may lay dormant and cause irreversible damage to multiple organs. The latent phase can cause deafness, blindness, paralysis, headache, dementia, and sensory deficits. 6. This answer is correct because headaches are one of the symptoms exhibited in latent syphilis. If syphilis is left untreated, the disease may lay dormant and cause irreversible damage to multiple organs. The latent phase can cause deafness, blindness, paralysis, headache, dementia, and sensory deficits.

If you have syphilis or suspect it and become pregnant when should you get screened for it ?

1. First prenatal visit 2. Third trimester 3. Delivery ( If high risk)

Herpes Simplex virus 2 / Herpes type 2 : Genital Herpes s/s

1. Genital lesions "Active lesions" painful, burning, stinging. ( spread by contact with the active lesion ) 2. Priority to report to HCP during pregnancy. ( This virus can be very deadly to fetus causing permanent neurological damage. If present at the onset of labor a priority would be a c-section to avoid infection to the infant during a vaginal birth)

If a pregnant client has gonorrhea and is left untreated, which of these complications of gonorrhea may be seen? Select all that apply. 1. Infertility 2. Ectopic pregnancy 3. Genital warts 4. No complications 5. Herpetic lesions

1. Infertility 2. Ectopic pregnancy 1. This answer is correct because infertility is a result of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which is a symptom of untreated gonorrhea. 2. This answer is correct because ectopic pregnancy is a result of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which is a symptom of untreated gonorrhea. Ectopic pregnancies are abnormal implantation of the fetus in a site other than the normal intrauterine location. The most common site for ectopic pregnancies is the fallopian tubes.

Gonorrhea

1. Infertility & PID : Untreated Chlamydia & Gonorrhea infections. ( which are usually asymptomatic ) 2. Annual Screening especially those sexually active

What complications may occur in the fetus if the mother is diagnosed with gonorrhea in the first trimester? Select all that apply. 1. Pneumonia 2. Blindness 3. Sepsis 4. Conjunctivitis 5. Low birth weight

1. Pneumonia 2. Blindness 3. Sepsis 5. Low birth weight 1. This answer is correct because pneumonia is a complication of an expecting mother with gonorrhea. Other complications include blindness, low birth weight, and sepsis. Screening must be done on the first prenatal visit and the third trimester in high-risk cases to avoid these complications. 2. This answer is correct because blindness is a complication of an expecting mother with gonorrhea. Other complications include pneumonia, low birth weight, and sepsis. Screening must be done on the first prenatal visit and the third trimester in high-risk cases to avoid these complications. 3. This answer is correct because sepsis is a complication of an expecting mother with gonorrhea. Other complications include pneumonia, low birth weight, and blindness. Screening must be done on the first prenatal visit and the third trimester in high-risk cases to avoid these complications. 5. This answer is correct because low birth weight is a complication of fetal gonorrhea. Complications of fetal gonorrhea include pneumonia, blindness, and sepsis.

Gonoerhea Education

1. Sex partner should be EVALUATED & TREATED! 2. AVOID SEX until treatment is COMPLETED. (ANY AND ALL SEX)

A client comes to the health department with suspected gonorrhea. What clinical method of monitoring for gonorrhea is recommended? 1. Vaginal culture 2. Papanicolaou test 3. Serum blood test 4. Urinalysis

1. Vaginal culture 1. This answer is correct because a vaginal culture is done during the initial examination to determine that the client has gonorrhea infection in both males and females. A culture determines the proper method of treatment once the infection is identified.

A 25-year-old pregnant G1P1 woman comes to the emergency department complaining of creamy discharge from her vagina, urinary frequency, and lower abdominal pain. Which of these diagnoses are suspected? 1. Human papillomavirus 2. Gonorrhea 3. Trichomoniasis 4. Vaginal candidiasis

2. Gonorrhea 2. This answer is correct because gonorrhea produces symptoms specific to creamy vaginal discharge, urinary frequency, and lower abdominal pain. This client is experiencing these symptoms.

A 25-year-old client who completed her antibiotic treatment for chlamydia comes back to the clinic one month later complaining of pelvic discomfort and vaginal spotting since her last menstrual cycle. What other statements made by the client indicate a concern of chlamydia recurrence? Select all that apply. A. "I have two new sexual partners who I see a few times a week." B. "My previous partner, who I am still seeing sexually, uses a condom." C. "I completed my antibiotic treatment for chlamydia that was prescribed." D. "I have developed redness and inflammation in my eyes lately." E. "I have noticed a yellowish smelly discharge from my vagina."

A. "I have two new sexual partners who I see a few times a week." D. "I have developed redness and inflammation in my eyes lately." E. "I have noticed a yellowish smelly discharge from my vagina." A. This answer is correct because the client stated that she had two new sexual partners who she sees a few times a week. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection/disease caused by the bacteria Chlamydia trachomatis. It is more prominent in young women 25 years or less who have multiple sex partners. D. This answer is correct because the client stated that she had developed eye redness and inflammation lately. The same bacteria causes eye infections that result in eyelid swelling, irritation, redness, and inflammation. Treatment may include oral antibiotic drops. E. This answer is correct because the client stated she had noticed a yellowish, smelly vaginal discharge. This is definitely a symptom of chlamydia and requires treatment. Symptoms of chlamydia include painful urination, bleeding after sex and between periods, testicular pain, and vaginal or penile discharge.

Which of these clinical syndromes are associated with herpes simplex virus, type 1? Select all that apply. A. Gingivostomatitis B. Eczema herpeticum C. Keratoconjunctivitis D. Meningoencephalitis E. Genital lesions

A. Gingivostomatitis B. Eczema herpeticum C. Keratoconjunctivitis D. Meningoencephalitis A. This answer is correct because gingivostomatitis (cold sores) is a clinical syndrome associated with HSV-1, that occurs on the lips of infected clients. These cold sores are painful, recurring blister-like lesions that are not necessarily related to STDs/STIs. This type of HSV-1 clears up on its own within 10 to 14 days. B. This answer is correct because eczema herpeticum is a clinical syndrome associated with HSV-1. Eczema herpeticum occurs in children with eczema or atopic dermatitis, most commonly occuring on the fingers. C. This answer is correct because keratoconjunctivitis is a clinical syndrome associated with HSV-1. Keratoconjunctivitis are dendritic ulcers in or on the lids of clients causing the lids to swell. If left untreated, keratoconjunctivitis can lead to blindness. D. This answer is correct because meningoencephalitis is a clinical syndrome associated with HSV-1. Meningoencephalitis is the most common cause of viral encephalitis, with a high mortality rate if left untreated. Symptoms of meningoencephalitis include fever, headache, and confusion.

A 40-year-old woman comes to the women's clinic with pain and bleeding from her vagina after sexual intercourse. A Papanicolaou (Pap) smear shows abnormal cells related to cervical carcinoma. Which of these infections is associated with this disorder? A. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection B. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection C. Syphilis infection D. Chlamydia infection

A. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection A. This answer is correct because the human papillomavirus (HPV) is associated with cervical cancer. Diagnosis of cervical cancer due to HPV is done by the papanicolaou (pap) test. Pap smears in HPV clients with cervical cancer show koilocytic cells or koilocytes. These are halo cells with an irregular shape, size, and color that develops after developing the HPV infection.

Which of these methods should the nurse include in her education on the prevention of the human papillomavirus infection? Select all that apply. A. Human papillomavirus vaccine. B. Annual papanicolaou (Pap) test. C. Condom use. D. Abstinence from sex. E. Oral contraception.

A. Human papillomavirus vaccine. B. Annual papanicolaou (Pap) test. D. Abstinence from sex. A. This answer is correct because educating clients on the HPV vaccine is highly recommended for sexually active clients between the ages of 9 to 26-years-old. The vaccine prevents the spread of the HPV virus 90% of the time. The HPV vaccine is not a cure for the human papillomavirus. Continuous use of condoms do help protect clients from contracting the HPV infection. HPV is spread by skin-to-skin contact. Educate to avoid direct contact with the genital warts. Abstinence from sex is recommended to prevent all sexually transmitted infections. B. This answer is correct because educating clients about annual pap smears in sexually active females is a great preventative method for HPV. Annual pap smears monitor for signs and symptoms of cervical cancer. HPV is spread by skin-to-skin contact. Educate to avoid direct contact with the genital warts. Abstinence from sex is recommended to prevent all sexually transmitted infections. D. This answer is correct because abstinence of sex or "sexual risk avoidance" prevents the spread of all sexually transmitted infections. Condoms are not 100% guaranteed to prevent the spread of the HPV infection due to the virus being spread from skin-to-skin contact. Educating clients on the HPV vaccine is highly recommended for sexually active clients between the ages of 9 to 26-years-old. The vaccine prevents the spread of the HPV 90% of the time. The vaccine is not a cure for the HPV infection.

A 19-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester comes to the nurse with active lesions on her genitals. She had no prenatal care throughout her pregnancy. What risk factors will the suspected infection have on her unborn fetus, if left untreated? A. Permanent neurological damage. B. Lesions on the newborn's genitals. C. Hearing loss. D. No risk factors since herpes virus cannot pass from mother to fetus.

A. Permanent neurological damage. This answer is correct because HSV-2 in expecting mothers causes permanent neurological damage in the fetus, which is a deadly risk factor if the infection is left untreated. Antiviral medication should immediately be prescribed and instructed to be taken daily.

Which of these instructions for treatment should the nurse educate a client with type 2 herpes simplex infection? Select all that apply. A. Take prescribed acyclovir medication daily. B. Avoid sexual intercourse when lesions are active and present. C. Use condoms when lesions are active and present . D. Drink at least 2 liters of fluid per day. E. Genital herpes cannot be spread when lesions are not present.

A. Take prescribed acyclovir medication daily. B. Avoid sexual intercourse when lesions are active and present. D. Drink at least 2 liters of fluid per day. A. This answer is correct because acyclovir is the drug of choice for herpes simplex virus, type 2 (HSV-1). The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication daily to slow the spread and prevent frequent outbreaks of the infection, but not the cure of the virus. B. This answer is correct because active lesions are highly contagious when present. Clients should avoid sexual intercourse when lesions are present. D. This answer is correct because hydration or drinking extra fluids is an effective way to cause less frequent outbreaks and eruption of lesions. Educate the client on this effective method for the management of HSV 2 infection.

A 21-year-old male comes to you complaining of a fever, muscle pain, and lesions on his penis. Diagnostic tests confirm the diagnosis of herpes simplex virus, type 2. Which of these statements made by the client does not warrant further education on the client's recent diagnosis? A. "Medication will be prescribed to cure my herpes virus infection." B. "Prescribed medication will slow my herpes virus infection, but will not cure it." C. "Condoms can be used during sex when lesions are active." D. "The lesions will heal on their own, with no recurrence, after 14 days."

B. "Prescribed medication will slow my herpes virus infection, but will not cure it." B. This answer is correct because, after the diagnosis of HSV-2 is confirmed, antiviral medication is prescribed to slow the infection, but not cure it. There is no cure for HSV-2.

A concerned mother comes to the nurse with her sexually active 15-year-old daughter. She worries that her daughter has a high risk of developing cervical cancer, since her maternal aunt recently died from cervical cancer due to the human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. Which of these prevention methods should the nurse recommend? A. Advise the mother that she should emphasize condom use. B. Educate the mother about the HPV vaccine and annual papanicolaou (pap) smears. C. Recommend oral contraceptive pills (OCPs). D. Advise the client to stop having sex and wait until she is 18-years-old.

B. Educate the mother about the HPV vaccine and annual papanicolaou (pap) smears. B.This answer is correct because the HPV vaccine is recommended for ages 9-26-year-old males and females. Annual pap smears are recommended for sexually active females to screen for cervical cancer. Education is the number one method for preventing the spread of sexually transmitted diseases and infections.

The nursing instructor is presenting a powerpoint to a class of nursing students. The instructor is teaching the key areas of concern regarding chlamydia. Which of these key areas should be included in the powerpoint on chlamydia? Select all that apply. A. Chlamydia can be transferred by kissing a person positive for chlamydia. B. If infected with chlamydia, reproductive organs may be damaged. C. Treatment for chlamydia includes azithromycin and doxycycline. D. Condoms should be used to protect sexual partners from chlamydia. E. Chlamydia is the least common sexually transmitted infection.

B. If infected with chlamydia, reproductive organs may be damaged. C. Treatment for chlamydia includes azithromycin and doxycycline. D. Condoms should be used to protect sexual partners from chlamydia. B. This answer is correct because if infected with chlamydia, a woman's reproductive system may be permanently damaged. The woman may not be able to conceive a child. Chlamydia may cause infertility and fatal ectopic pregnancy to occur. C. This answer is correct because treatment choice for chlamydia includes antibiotics azithromycin and doxycycline. The medication should be taken the full seven days to completion. All sexual partners should be treated as well. It is also recommended to abstain from sex during treatment. D. This answer is correct because condoms should be used to protect sexual partners from chlamydia. Condoms should be used with vaginal, anal, or oral sex. Remember that condoms are not always 100% effective. Abstinence is the only way to prevent sexually transmitted diseases. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that affects women and men.

A mother with chlamydia delivered her newborn vaginally. What precautions must be taken to care for the newborn? Select all that apply. A. Monitor the newborn's blood for an increased bilirubin level. B. Monitor the newborn's eyes for redness, swelling, and discharge. C. Assess the newborn's lungs for rapid breathing and a cough. D. Administer liquid oral antibiotic drops prophylactically for infection. E. Observe the newborn for skin lesions during the initial assessment.

B. Monitor the newborn's eyes for redness, swelling, and discharge. C. Assess the newborn's lungs for rapid breathing and a cough. B. This answer is correct because the infant is at risk for conjunctivitis due to the vaginal delivery with a positive mother with chlamydia. Symptoms may include redness, swelling, and discharge of the newborn's eyes. Oral antibiotic drops may be indicated for treatment. Topical antibiotic eye drops are ineffective. C. This answer is correct because the newborn's lungs should be assessed for rapid breathing and a cough, which are signs of pneumonia, which is commonly seen in positive mothers with chlamydia and vaginal delivery. Pneumonia may occur within the first three weeks after delivery.

An 18-year-old female client presents to the clinic and reports she has had unprotected sex with a male who was just diagnosed with syphilis. The nurse completed a head to toe assessment. Which of these findings was noted on the client's body? Select all that apply. A. Acne on client's neck. B. Painless small ulcer with drainage on clients inside upper lip. C. Generalized light rash noted on clients' bodies. D. Crusting noted behind clients' ears. E. Wart on the client's index finger of the left hand.

B. Painless small ulcer with drainage on clients inside upper lip. C. Generalized light rash noted on clients' bodies. B. This answer is correct because it may indicate the first stage of syphilis, primary syphilis as it presents as a "painless" ulcer. A painless ulcer is also called a chancre. C. This answer is correct because the client may display a generalized light rash on the body. This symptom may be seen in the secondary stage of syphilis which can occur at the same time as the primary stage of syphilis.

Which of these medications are used for the treatment of syphilis during pregnancy? A. Doxycycline B. Penicillin C. Tetracycline D. Rocephin

B. Penicillin This answer is correct because penicillin is safe to be given during pregnancy. Penicillin has no evidence of any adverse effects on the baby.

A client is being treated for chlamydia. What instructions should be given to the client? Select all that apply. A. Since treatment has begun, clients are free to continue having sexual intercourse. B. Sex partner(s) will need antibiotic treatment concurrently with the client. C. The chance of developing pelvic inflammatory disease increases if left untreated. D. The client should be tested for chlamydia every 3-6 months after treatment. E. Chlamydia is sexually spread only if the client is symptomatic.

B. Sex partner(s) will need antibiotic treatment concurrently with the client. C. The chance of developing pelvic inflammatory disease increases if left untreated. Explanation : B. This answer is correct because sexual partners will need antibiotic treatment concurrently with the client. All sexual partners must be treated with antibiotics to cure chlamydia. New sexual partners should not be sexually engaged with the client being treated for chlamydia. No sex is recommended for 7 days after starting treatment for the infection. C. This answer is correct because the chance of developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is increased without treatment of chlamydia. A major complication of chlamydia is PID and results from microorganisms ascending from the client's cervix/vagina into a woman's upper genitals.

A client comes to the health department and wants to speak with a nurse. When a nurse arrives, the client asks the nurse about the signs and symptoms she or her husband may have if either have the chlamydia infection. What is the nurse's best response? Select all that apply. A. A generalized body rash. B. Very painful urination. C. Ulcers on the penis. D. Vaginal discharge. E. Penile discharge.

B. Very painful urination. D. Vaginal discharge. E. Penile discharge. B. This answer is correct because very painful urination is a symptom of chlamydia. Other symptoms may include bleeding after sex and between periods, testicular pain, and vaginal or penile discharge. Most clients are asymptomatic and can spread the infection while experiencing no symptoms to other sexual partners. D. This answer is correct because a vaginal discharge is a symptom of chlamydia. The discharge may be malodorous and yellow. Vaginal swelling may also occur causing painful sex during sexual intercourse. Other symptoms of chlamydia include painful urination, bleeding after sex and between periods, testicular pain, and penile discharge. E. This answer is correct because penile discharge is a symptom of chlamydia. Males have a foul-smelling yellow or brown discharge that may be thick or cloudy. Many men experience oozing of the discharge from the tip of the penis head. Other symptoms of chlamydia in men may include testicular pain and urethra burning and itching.

A 25-year-old pregnant woman, previously diagnosed with human papilloma (HPV) infection, goes into labor. The nurse assesses that the client has obstructing genital warts in the vaginal area. Which method of delivery should be indicated? A. Vaginal delivery B. Administer drugs to keep the mother from delivering until the warts are removed C. Cesarean delivery D. Hydrotherapy for labor

C. Cesarean delivery C. This answer is correct because cesarean (c-section) delivery is the ideal form of delivery in mothers with HPV. C-sections protect the mother from excessive vaginal bleeding when obstructive genital warts are present. Most newborns should clear the HPV virus without fetal complications after delivery. Rarely, the baby may develop warts on the vocal cords or larynx. The newborn may have surgery to remove the warts successfully.

What is the priority intervention for a pregnant client with a penicillin allergy who tested positive for syphilis? A. Tell your client that she will not be able to be treated since she has an allergy to penicillin. B. Inform your client that her health care provider (HCP) will be able to order her doxycycline for treatment due to her penicillin allergy. C. Educate your client that clients with penicillin allergies will be treated with much smaller doses of penicillin needed to treat the syphilis. D. Your client understands the need for penicillin but refuses treatment. You advise your client to be treated after her pregnancy with amoxicillin.

C. Educate your client that clients with penicillin allergies will be treated with much smaller doses of penicillin needed to treat the syphilis. C. This answer is correct because this is the priority intervention for the client with an allergy to penicillin with syphilis. The priority intervention for this client would be to educate the client about penicillin desensitization for the treatment of her syphilis.

What is the most common sexually transmitted disease (STD) associated with cervical cancer and genital warts? A. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) B. Chlamydia C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) D. Cytomegalovirus

C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) C. This answer is correct because human papillomavirus (HPV) is associated with cervical cancer. Papanicolaou tests are recommended annually for sexually active females. After developing HPV, it can take years for cervical cancer to appear. The first sign of cervical cancer may include vaginal bleeding between periods or past menopause; pain with intercourse; and vaginal odor and discharge.

A client was recently diagnosed with herpes simplex virus, type 2. Which of the following medications must immediately be started for the treatment of this infection? A. Metronidazole B. Penicillin C. Vancomycin D. Acyclovir

D. Acyclovir This answer is correct because acyclovir is an antiviral therapy used in clinical cases of HSV. Acyclovir is used for both herpes simplex virus, types 1 and 2 to mucocutaneous lesions and genital lesions.

The client is 7 weeks pregnant and was told that she would be tested for syphilis during pregnancy. When is the best time to test a pregnant client for syphilis? A. Once during the first trimester, once during the second trimester, and once during the third trimester. B. On the first prenatal visit during the third trimester. C. Once during the second trimester and at the time of delivery. D. The first prenatal visit, once during the third trimester, and at the time of delivery (if high risk).

D. The first prenatal visit, once during the third trimester, and at the time of delivery (if high risk). D. This answer is correct because clients should be tested on the first prenatal visit, once during the third trimester, and if high risk, at the time of delivery. Testing is completed for the client's and the infant's safety so proper treatment can be started immediately to protect the unborn fetus.

Most common STD associated with Cancer & STD's

HPV -Human Papillomavirus Cervical Cancer

Which statement indicates a need for further education about gonorrhea ?

If my partner has gonorrhea I should avoid vaginal sex but oral sex if safe ? ( NO! All SEX should be avoided )

HPV -Human Papillomavirus Education

Prevention is KEY 1. Vaccination: age 9-26 for both boys and girls ; highly recommended before sexual activity begins after 18. 2. Annual Pap test ( papanicolaou test ) -to monitor for s/s cervical cancer. 3. Spread: -Skin To Skin contact (Oral sex & others) -Condoms do NOT protect 100% (only reduces the risk but doesn't guarantee anything ) -Transmits even when asymptomatic ( no signs or symptoms )

Which statement regarding type 2 Herpes Simplex indicates a need for further education?

With medication, I will be able to cure my herpes virus infection. (no cure)