Exam 4

Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A. Lemon yellow B. Red-orange C. Golden D. Blue-green E. Pale orange

D. Blue-green

Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of: A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens. C. Clostridium difficile. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. Clostridium tetani.

Which of the following is an agent of the sexually transmitted disease chancroid? A. Haemophilus aegyptius B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Haemophilus parainfluenzae D. Haemophilus ducreyi E. Haemophilus aphrophilus

D. Haemophilus ducreyi

The vaccine for immunity to Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is A. DtaP. B. Pneumovax. C. MMR. D. Hib. E. None of the choices are correct.

D. Hib.

Which chemical produced by S. aureus is also known as "spreading factor"? A. Coagulase B. Penicillinase C. Hemolysin D. Hyaluronidase E. Toxic shock syndrome toxin

D. Hyaluronidase

Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication? A. Food becomes contaminated by a human carrier. B. Common associated foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, processed meats. C. After contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours. D. Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining. E. Symptoms come on quickly, and include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.

D. Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining.

The instillation of antibiotics in newborn's eyes will prevent ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns. This disease is caused by: A. Neisseria meningitidis. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Streptococcus pyogenes. D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.

D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Which of the following species was once considered so benign that microbiologists used it to trace movements of air currents in hospitals and over cities? A. Morganella B. Providenci C. Citrobacter D. Serratia E. Legionella

D. Serratia

Scarlet fever is caused by strains of: A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Staphylococcus epidermidis. C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. E. Streptococcus agalactiae.

D. Streptococcus pyogenes.

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Actinomyces israelii? A. Important for compost production B. Found in soil C. Rods with colonies displaying hyphael growth D. Strict aerobe E. Non-endospore former

D. Strict aerobe

What is incorrect about pertussis? A. A virulence factor of B. pertussis is toxins that destroy cilia cells is produced. B. The source of infection is direct contact with inhaled droplets. C. The paroxysmal stage is characterized by persistent coughing. D. The number of cases is steadily decreasing since 1976. E. It can cause severe, life-threatening complications in babies.

D. The number of cases is steadily decreasing since 1976.

People at greatest risk for pneumococcal infections include all the following, except: A. elderly. B. those with underlying lung disease and viral infections. C. patients without a spleen. D. adolescents and young adults. E. young infants.

D. adolescents and young adults.

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent A. tularemia. B. pertussis. C. Legionellosis. D. brucellosis. E. shigellosis

D. brucellosis.

Which is not correct about Bacillus cereus? A. present in soil B. produce enterotoxins C. causes foodborne intoxication D. causes a zoonosis E. associated with cooked rice, potato, and meat dishes that are stored at room temperature

D. causes a zoonosis

Botulism will always be a threat for people who: A. are meat eaters. B. are vegetarians. C. have a weakened immune system. D. consume home-preserved foods. E. eat often in restaurants.

D. consume home-preserved foods.

The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is: A. enterotoxin. B. hemolysin. C. toxic shock syndrome toxin. D. exfoliative toxin. E. erythrogenic toxin.

D. exfoliative toxin.

Characteristics of all the members of the family Enterobacteriaceae include A. ferment lactose. B. are normal flora of human intestines. C. produce enterotoxins. D. ferment glucose. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. ferment glucose.

Shigella species have the following characteristics, except: A. not motile B. release endotoxin C. belong to Enterobacteriaceae D. infect the small intestine E. produce enterotoxin

D. infect the small intestine

Streptococcal pharyngitis involves all the following, except: A. a purulent exudate over the tonsils. B. can lead to scarlet fever if it is an erythrogenic toxin-producing strain. C. can lead to serious sequelae. D. is usually caused by the viridans streptococci. E. causes redness, difficulty in swallowing, and fever.

D. is usually caused by the viridans streptococci.

Yersinia pestis A. was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent. B. has humans as an endemic reservoir. C. does not respond to antimicrobic drugs. D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector

Which of the following pertains to diphtheria? A. it results in meningitis. B. symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea. C. it can be transmitted from mother's birth canal to neonate. D. it is prevented by the DTaP immunization. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. it is prevented by the DTaP immunization.

For which of the following diseases does the "feather test" provide evidence of early infection? A. tuberculosis B. botulism C. tetanus D. leprosy E. anthrax

D. leprosy

What is the usual cause of pseudomembranous colitis? A. improperly home-preserved foods containing botulin toxin B. eating unpasteurized dairy containing Listeria monocytogenes C. handling infected animals contaminated with E. rhusiopathiae D. therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics leading to superinfection by C. difficile E. living in close contact with someone infected with C. perfringens

D. therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics leading to superinfection by C. difficile

Long-term sequelae of Group A streptococcal infections include all the following, except: A. risk decreased with prompt treatment of skin infections and pharyngitis. B. development of rheumatic fever. C. appearance of sequelae within a few weeks after an initial infection. D. transmission of sequelae via respiratory secretions from a patient with streptococcal sore throat. E. development of acute glomerulonephritis.

D. transmission of sequelae via respiratory secretions from a patient with streptococcal sore throat.

Mild, uncomplicated cases of pseudomembranous colitis may be treated by: A. debridement. B. wound cleansing. C. vancomycin for several weeks. D. withdrawal of antibiotics and replacement of lost fluids and electrolytes. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. withdrawal of antibiotics and replacement of lost fluids and electrolytes.

Which is the most common type of virulence gene transferred between fecal bacteria? A. toxin production B. capsules C. fimbriae D. hemolysins E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene? A. debridement of the wound B. hyperbaric chamber C. amputation of affected limb D. rigorous cleansing of deep wounds E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves: A. chest X-ray. B. acid fast stain of sputum. C. sputum culture. D. tuberculin skin test. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Anthrax is: A. a zoonosis. B. transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion. C. a disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia. D. only seen sporadically in the United States. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Brucellosis is A. a zoonosis. B. seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain, and weakness. C. associated with pathogen in the blood. D. an occupational illness of people that work with animals. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Characteristics of chancroid include: A. sexually transmitted B. occurs mostly in the tropics and subtropics C. lesion develops at portal of entry D. bubo like swelling of the lymph nodes E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include: A. otitis media. B. meningitis. C. lobar pneumonia. D. bronchial pneumonia. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Escherichia coli infections A. are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food. B. include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains. C. involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea. D. can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Legionella pneumophila A. requires special lab growth media. B. often lives in close associations with amoebas. C. causes fever, cough, and diarrhea. D. causes a severe pneumonia. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is: A. the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum. B. the cause of gonorrhea. C. called the gonococcus. D. virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Plague includes: A. septicemic form - called Black Death. B. bubonic form - buboes develop. C. pneumonic form - sputum highly contagious. D. disease control - control of rodent population. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is A. found in soil and water. B. an opportunist that produces many diverse enzymes C. highly chemical resistant. D. motile. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Salmonella typhi A. multiplies within phagocytes. B. is not a coliform. C. can be treated with antimicrobics. D. causes invasive infection of the small intestine. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Salmonelloses are A. not caused by Salmonella typhi. B. associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces. C. gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea. D. enteric fevers that often include septicemia. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Scarlet fever involves: A. high fever. B. bright red rash on face, trunk, inner arms and legs, and tongue. C. eventual desquamation of epidermis. D. septicemia as a complication. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

The viridans streptococci are: A. not entirely groupable by Lancefield serology. B. the most numerous residents of the oral cavity. C. opportunists that can cause subacute endocarditis. D. introduced to deeper body tissues by dental or surgical procedures. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Treatment and control of anthrax includes: A. use of antimicrobics, such as ciprofloxacin for active cases. B. vaccination of livestock. C. toxoid for military and those with occupational exposure. D. proper disposal of animals that have died from anthrax. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Tuberculin skin testing: A. injects PPD intradermally. B. uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C. will be positive if person has had previous exposure. D. will be positive in active TB. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following are symptoms of septic shock? A. Tachycardia B. Reduced blood flow to vital organs C. Respiratory failure D. Weak pulse E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

A patient has a suspicious skin infection and a culture is taken. Which media would be appropriate to select for staphylococci? A. Nutrient agar B. Blood agar C. Chocolate agar D. MacConkey agar E. Mannitol salt agar

E. Mannitol salt agar

Swimming pool granuloma is caused by: A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC). B. Mycobacterium kansasii. C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum. D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex. E. Mycobacterium marinum.

E. Mycobacterium marinum.

Which pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae

E. Streptococcus agalactiae

A positive Quellung reaction, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for: A. Neisseria meningitidis. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Streptococcus pyogenes. D. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. E. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

E. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

All of the following pertain to tuberculosis, except: A. live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life. B. symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. C. lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB. D. the BCG vaccine is used in other countries. E. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.

E. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.

All of the following are true about diphtheria toxin, except: A. it inhibits cellular protein synthesis. B. it must be neutralized with antitoxin. C. it primarily targets the heart and nerves. D. it is an exotoxin. E. antitoxin (DAT) comes from immunized human plasma donors.

E. antitoxin (DAT) comes from immunized human plasma donors.

All of the following pertain to Enterococcus faecalis, except: A. normal flora of the human large intestine. B. increasingly resistant to many antimicrobics. C. cause nosocomial wound infections, urinary tract infections, and septicemias. D. can cause endocarditis. E. belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci.

E. belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci.

All of the following pertain to listeriosis, except: A. it causes symptoms of fever, diarrhea, and sore throat. B. it causes a serious septicemia and meningitis in the elderly, immunocompromised, and infants. C. intrauterine infection usually results in fetal death. D. adequate pasteurization and thorough cooking of food can improve prevention. E. enterotoxin of the organism causes symptoms.

E. enterotoxin of the organism causes symptoms.

The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to: A. enterotoxins. B. hemolysins. C. toxic shock syndrome toxin. D. exfoliative toxin. E. erythrogenic toxin.

E. erythrogenic toxin.

Which is not associated with tularemia? A. listed as a pathogen of concern on the lists of bioterrorism agents B. transmitted by arthropod vector C. reservoir can be rabbits and squirrels D. symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia E. in animals, infects the placenta and fetus

E. in animals, infects the placenta and fetus

Lepromatous leprosy: A. can cause lepromas. B. is the most disfiguring. C. pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas, such as nose, ears, testes. D. complications include secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure. E. includes all of these choices.

E. includes all of these choices.

All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis, except: A. virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease. B. it causes serious meningitis. C. the reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers. D. it is more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks. E. it is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia.

E. it is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia

Which is incorrect about Yersinia pestis? A. exhibit bipolar staining B. gram-negative rod C. produces coagulase D. has a capsule E. produces enterotoxin

E. produces enterotoxin

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following, except: A. necrotizing fasciitis. B. erysipelas. C. impetigo. D. scarlet fever. E. scalded skin syndrome.

E. scalded skin syndrome.

All of the following are correct about salmonelloses except A. non-typhoidal strains of salmonella are zoonotic in origin B. foods contaminated by rodent feces may cause outbreaks. C. outbreaks have been caused by eggs. D. drug resistance of salmonella is on the rise. E. strains are normal flora in dogs and cats.

E. strains are normal flora in dogs and cats.

All the following pertain to Staphylococcus epidermidis infections, except: A. they often from an endogenous source. B. they typically occur after insertion of shunts and prosthetic devices. C. catheterization can introduce the organism and lead to urinary tract infection. D. the organism is coagulase negative. E. the organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins.

E. the organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins.

Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and foodborne botulism? A. it occurs when spore-contaminated soil enters deep wounds B. it is caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen C. exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release D. nausea and diarrhea are symptoms E. treatment involves antitoxin therapy

E. treatment involves antitoxin therapy

Botulin, the toxin of botulism is: A. not as virulent as tetanospasmin. B. detected and diagnosed by analyzing a patient's blood. C. the cause of rigid paralysis. D. only produced under anaerobic conditions. E. produced when spores germinate in the intestines of adults after ingesting contaminated food.

. only produced under anaerobic conditions.

What is the causative agent of Farmer's Lung and Bagossis? A. Actinomyces israelii B. Nocardia C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Bacillus anthracis E. Clostridium perfringens

A. Actinomyces israelii

Although Burkholderia cepacia could be very useful in bioremediation programs, it is not feasible to use it. Why? A. Because it can cause opportunistic infections in the respiratory tract. B. Because it cannot be cultured in the lab to necessary numbers. C. Because it is too expensive at this time to grow it. D. It encourages the overgrowth of fungus in the environment, which is not desirable. E. It produces a foul odor making it a poor choice for most situations.

A. Because it can cause opportunistic infections in the respiratory tract.

Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of: A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens. C. Clostridium difficile. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. Clostridium botulinum.

Which is mismatched? A. H antigen - fimbriae B. K antigen - capsule C. O antigen - cell wall, somatic D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. H antigen - fimbriae

A cause of epiglottitis in children and young adults is A. Haemophilus influenzae. B. Haemophilus ducreyi. C. Haemophilus aegyptius. D. Haemophilus parainfluenzae. E. Haemophilus aphrophilus.

A. Haemophilus influenzae.

Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters? A. Legionellosis B. Pertussis C. Brucellosis D. Plague E. Traveler's diarrhea

A. Legionellosis

The common soil mycobacteria that frequently cause systemic infection and death in AIDS patients is: A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC). B. Mycobacterium kansasii. C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum. D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex. E. Mycobacterium marinum.

A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC).

Which pathogen has drug resistant strains called MRSA? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophytic-us D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae

A. Staphylococcus aureus

A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of: A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Staphylococcus epidermidis. C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. E. Streptococcus agalactiae.

A. Staphylococcus aureus.

The majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection with: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae. B. Streptococcus pyogenes. C. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. D. Streptococcus agalactiae. E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

All of the following pertain to gonorrhea, except: A. a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry. B. it is a reportable infectious disease. C. pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and infertility are complications. D. females can have asymptomatic infection. E. symptoms include painful urination and discharge.

A. a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry.

Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species? A. all species are human pathogens B. cell walls have waxy lipids C. acid fast D. usually have a slow growth rate E. long, slender rods

A. all species are human pathogens

Tuberculoid leprosy: A. causes asymmetrical, shallow skin lesions with loss of pain sensation. B. is the most disfiguring. C. pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas such as nose, ears, testes. D. complications include secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure. E. includes all of these choices.

A. causes asymmetrical, shallow skin lesions with loss of pain sensation.

Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of differences in their: A. cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test. B. patterns of hemolysis on blood agar. C. ability to produce catalase. D. gram stain appearance. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test.

Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in: A. diphtheria. B. listeriosis. C. tuberculosis. D. erysipeloid. E. botulism.

A. diphtheria.

The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is: A. erysipelas. B. impetigo C. necrotizing fasciitis. D. scarlet fever. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. erysipelas.

Which of the following is not true about diphtheria? A. it is a zoonosis B. humans can be healthy carriers C. it is prevented with the DTaP vaccine D. it is an upper respiratory infection E. it can be transmitted via contaminated milk

A. it is a zoonosis

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection, except: A. it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies. B. it is a colitis that is a superinfection. C. it often has an endogenous source. D. it may be on the rise due to increased use of gastric acid inhibitors. E. it is major cause of diarrhea in hospitals

A. it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.

Typhoid fever has the following characteristics, except A. it is spread by ingestion of food contaminated with animal feces. B. it is transmitted by ingesting fecal contaminated food and water. C. it can cause chronic carriers to have pathogens in their gallbladder. D. it can infect the small intestine with fever, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. E. it can become a septicemia, spread to lymph nodes and spleen, and cause liver abscesses.

A. it is spread by ingestion of food contaminated with animal feces.

All of the following are associated with bubonic plague, except A. it is transmitted by human feces. B. it is caused by Yersinia pestis. C. the patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. D. the patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness. E. it can progress to a septicemia.

A. it is transmitted by human feces.

E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following, except: A. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals. B. it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger. C. it causes a bloody diarrhea. D. it is reservoir is cattle intestines. E. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure.

A. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.

All species of Staphylococcus: A. lack spores. B. are motile. C. are motile. D. produce coagulase. E. All of the choices are correct.

A. lack spores.

This type of anthrax is called "wool-sorter's disease": A. pulmonary. B. gastrointestinal. C. cutaneous. D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct.

A. pulmonary.

Nationwide, over 100,000 patients a year die from septic shock. This is due to A. the presence of lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane. B. lipoteichoic acid in the cell wall. C. a cytotoxin similar to the diphtheria toxin. D. coagulase. E. a neurotoxin similar to botulin.

A. the presence of lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane.

Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of A. tularemia. B. pertussis. C. Legionellosis. D. brucellosis. E. shigellosis.

A. tularemia.

This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes, and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis: A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium difficile D. Clostridium tetani E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Clostridium perfringens

Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of: A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium difficile. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Clostridium perfringens.

A pregnant woman is told she has a positive CAMP test and should be treated with a course of antibiotics and globulin. This test is indicative of A. Group A streptococci. B. Group B streptococci. C. S. saprophyticus. D. S. epidermidis. E. S. aureus.

B. Group B streptococci.

Which fastidious genus requires hemin (X factor) and NAD (X factor) in its growth medium? A. Legionella B. Haemophilus C. Brucella D. Shigella E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Haemophilus

Which of the following is normal oral and nasopharyngeal flora but is involved in infective endocarditis in adults who have underlying congenital or rheumatic heart disease? A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Haemophilus aphrophilus C. Haemophilus aegyptius D. Haemophilus ducreyi E. All of the choices are correct.

B. Haemophilus aphrophilus

Which of the following antibiotics specifically disrupt protein synthesis of streptococci? A. Beta-lactams B. Macrolides C. Cephalosporins D. Ansamycin E. Aminoglycosides

B. Macrolides

Causes a non-communicable pulmonary infection that resembles tuberculosis: A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) B. Mycobacterium kansasii C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex E. Mycobacterium marinum.

B. Mycobacterium kansasii

Sue brought her daughter Amy to the pediatrician complaining of a sore throat. The physician examines Amy and observes that her throat is bright red and there are white pus-filled nodules on her tonsils. Which of the following conclusions should be made? A. She has a strep throat and should begin antibiotics. B. She should have a rapid strep test performed before a diagnosis is made. C. She should go home and rest because most sore throats are viral in origin. D. She should go home and come back in two days for a strep test since it may take that long to show up. E. She has a staphylococcal sore throat and should begin antibiotics immediately.

B. She should have a rapid strep test performed before a diagnosis is made.

Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following, except: A. capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors. B. anaerobic. C. reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil. D. gram positive bacillus. E. spore former

B. anaerobic.

Symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome include all the following, except: A. fever and muscle pain. B. appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscle. C. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea. D. sunburn-like rash. E. kidney and liver failure.

B. appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscle.

Meningococcemia is: A. common during gonorrhea. B. associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae. C. frequently seen in elderly. D. caused by a gram positive diplococcus. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae.

Pertussis has the following characteristics, except: A. pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia. B. catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops". C. early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing. D. DTaP immunization will prevent it. E. transmission is by respiratory droplets.

B. catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops".

The enzyme that coagulates plasma is: A. catalase. B. coagulase. C. hyaluronidase. D. staphylokinase. E. Dnase.

B. coagulase.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis: A. produces several virulence factor enzymes and an exotoxin. B. has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages. C. is a spore former. D. has a capsule. E. lives in the soil.

B. has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages.

Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae? A. bacterial meningitis B. influenza (flu) C. otitis media D. bronchitis E. epiglottitis

B. influenza (flu)

All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis, except: A. it occurs in patients that have prior heart damage. B. it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue. C. oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood. D. bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation. E. signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli.

B. it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.

Salmonella are A. coliforms. B. motile. C. gram positive rods. D. lactose fermenters. E. All of the choices are correct.

B. motile.

All of the following pertain to infant botulism, except: A. symptoms include "floppy baby" appearance. B. neurotoxin is not involved in the disease process. C. ingested spores can germinate in the immature intestines of the neonate. D. symptoms include flaccid paralysis and respiratory complications. E. it is the most common type of botulism in the United States.

B. neurotoxin is not involved in the disease process.

All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes, except: A. gram positive B. sporeformer C. contaminant of dairy products, meats, poultry D. causes foodborne listeriosis E. bacterial cells multiply within the cytoplasm of a host cell

B. sporeformer

All of the following are correct about Staphylococcus aureus, except: A. it is the coagulase-positive species. B. the body's most powerful defense against it lies in the T-cell response. C. carriers may be treated with antibiotics to clear them of the bacteria. D. most strains are resistant to penicillin and ampicillin. E. it causes furuncles, carbuncles, and abscesses.

B. the body's most powerful defense against it lies in the T-cell response.

Which of the following is not true about leprosy? A. it is caused by Hansen's bacillus in honor of its discoverer B. the leprosy bacillus is highly virulent C. armadillos harbor a genetically identical M. leprae D. early signs appear as small, spotty lesions colored differently than the surrounding skin E. the number of new cases in the U.S. each year is about 100 to 200

B. the leprosy bacillus is highly virulent

If left untreated, an infection with ___ can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility. A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. N. meningitidis C. N. gonorrhoeae D. Streptotoccus pyogenes E. Staphylococcus aureus

C. N. gonorrhoeae

The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat bites or scratches is A. Salmonella typhimurium. B. Yersinia enterocolitica. C. Pasteurella multocida. D. Brucella suis. E. Francisella tularensis.

C. Pasteurella multocida.

All of the following are coliforms that cause opportunistic and nosocomial infections, except: A. Enterobacter. B. Citrobacter. C. Shigella. D. Klebsiella. E. Serratia

C. Shigella.

Which organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae

C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Which chemical, produced by S. aureus, digests blood clots? A. Coagulase B. Penicillinase C. Staphylokinase D. Hyaluronidase E. Toxic shock syndrome toxin

C. Staphylokinase

Streptococcus pneumoniae is: A. called the meningococcus. B. in the viridans group. C. a gram positive diplococcus with a capsule. D. a pathogen with endotoxin. E. All of the choices are correct.

C. a gram positive diplococcus with a capsule.

Erysipeloid is transmitted by: A. inhalation of spores from hides and wool of animals. B. ingestion of improperly cooked hot dogs. C. an abrasion on skin coming in contact with infected swine or other animals. D. contaminated soil entering deep puncture wounds. E. respiratory secretions.

C. an abrasion on skin coming in contact with infected swine or other animals.

The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is: A. all over the skin. B. under the fingernails. C. anterior nares (nostrils). D. mouth. E. intestines.

C. anterior nares (nostrils).

Actinomyces israelii: A. can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. B. can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. C. are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue. D. lives in the soil. E. causes most cases in the immunocompromised.

C. are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.

Necrotizing fasciitis is: A. also called impetigo. B. possibly caused by antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body tissues. C. associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins. D. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis. E. not treatable with antimicrobic drugs.

C. associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins.

Generally, what must healthy adults consume in order to contract botulism? A. spores of C. botulinum B. vegetative cells of C. botulinum C. botulin toxin on contaminated food D. botulin toxoid on contaminated food E. botulin antitoxin on contaminated food

C. botulin toxin on contaminated food

The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is: A. gastrointestinal anthrax. B. Bacillus cereus intoxication. C. botulism. D. Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis. E. All of the choices are correct.

C. botulism.

Staphylococci can be differentiated from streptococci by the: A. Gram stain. B. coagulase test. C. catalase test. D. fermentation of mannitol. E. None of the choices are correct.

C. catalase test.

Leprosy is a disease: A. of lung tissue. B. that has been eradicated around the world. C. caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab. D. can be diagnosed by the Mantoux test. E. caused by a sporeforming, gram-positive bacillus.

C. caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab.

Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin? A. pulmonary B. gastrointestinal C. cutaneous D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct.

C. cutaneous

Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following, except A. severe nosocomial infection in burn patients. B. skin rashes from contaminated hot tubs and bath sponges. C. diarrheal illness. D. external ear infection. E. serious infection in lung tissue of cystic fibrosis patients.

C. diarrheal illness.

The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is: A. capsule. B. metachromatic granules. C. exotoxin. D. endospores. E. endotoxin.

C. exotoxin.

Which is incorrect about shigellosis? A. outbreaks have occurred in day care centers B. it is watery diarrhea with bloody, mucoid stools, and abdominal cramps C. it frequently involves septicemia D. human carriers cause fecal transmission E. it is also called bacillary dysentery

C. it frequently involves septicemia

All of the following are correct about Streptococcus pyogenes, except: A. humans are the only significant reservoir. B. some of the streptococcal toxins act as superantigens. C. most strains do not have a capsule. D. it can cause impetigo and erysipelas. E. infection is generally through direct contact.

C. most strains do not have a capsule.

The M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes: A. is the basis for the organism belonging to Lancefield group A. B. gives rise to a zone of b hemolysis on blood agar. C. protects against phagocytosis and enhances adherence. D. is also called streptokinase. E. protects against lysozyme damage.

C. protects against phagocytosis and enhances adherence.

Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following, except: A. folliculitis. B. furuncles and carbuncles. C. sore throat. D. osteomyelitis. E. pneumonia.

C. sore throat.

Which is not a characteristic of Nocardia? A. it can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. B. it can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. C. they are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue. D. it lives in the soil. E. it causes most cases in the immunocompromised.

C. they are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.

The buildup of mucus and blockage of airways in pertussis is due to A. endotoxin B. lipopolysaccharide. C. toxins that destroy the ciliated cells of the respiratory tract. D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. E. the presence of a capsule.

C. toxins that destroy the ciliated cells of the respiratory tract.