EXAM 4
Describe how the eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated.
-Cycle dependent on Cyclin-dependant kinases (Cdk's). regulation of Cdk's can either activate or inhibit cycle progress.
What are the functions of DNA?
-stores an organisms genetic material in the nuclei -replicates itself when dividing -provides code or template for the particular sequencing of amino acids that bond together and make a protein
Know the expected genotypic ratio from a monohybrid cross.
1:2:1
Know the direction of DNA synthesis.
5 to 3
Know the expected genotypic ratio from a dihybrid cross.
9:3:3:1
1. A fruit fly egg has 12 chromosomes. How many sister chromatids would you expect to find in a single nuclear area at the end of meiosis II telophase? a. 0 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24 48
A
1. A germ cell has eight chromosomes. After Anaphase in Mitosis and Anaphase II in Meiosis, how many chromosomes are present in each nuclear area? a. 16; 8 chromosomes b. 8;8 c. 8; 16 d. 4; 8 e. 8; 4
A
1. A rat's gamete has 21 chromosomes after going though meiosis II. How many pairs of homologous chromosomes do the rat's somatic cells have? a. 21 b. 42 c. 84 d. 10 e. 0
A
1. Given the strand AGUCGACAC, name the type of nucleic acid and the matching or opposite strand? a. RNA, UCAGCUGUG b. DNA, TCAGCTGTG c. RNA, TCAGCTGTG d. DNA, TCAGCTCTG e. RNA, TCAGCTCTG
A
1. If there was a problem with a cell's mitochondria and plastids, where is this likely to come from? a. Mother b. Father c. Cell division d. Mitosis
A
1. In meiosis, which phase is a cell stuck in for the longest period of time? a. Prophase I b. Metaphase II c. Prophase II d. Telophase I e. Anaphase I
A
1. Mitosis and Meiosis both have which of the following in common? a. They only take place in eukaryotes b. They only take place in prokaryotes c. Both make exact copies of their cells d. Both only produce 2 copies of a cell e. All of the above
A
1. Red flowers (R) are completely dominant to white flowers (r). What is the probability of a mating between a true-breeding red and true-breeding white flower producing offspring with white flowers? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 67% e. 100%
A
1. What is NOT a reason for apoptosis? a. The cell wants to go to another area of the body b. The cell is no longer needed c. The cell is prone to genetic damage d. There is an infection on the cell site
A
1. What is the difference between a genotype and a phenotype? A. The genotype is the composition of the alleles but the phenotype is the trait that is displayed B. a phenotype is the composition of alleles and a genotype is the trait shown C. They mean the same thing D. The phenotype is the trait of the parents but the genotype is the trait of the offspring
A
1. What subphase of meiosis helps explain Mendel's law of segregation? a. anaphase I b. anaphase II c. telophase I d. telophase II e. metaphase I
A
1. Which of the following are the correct attributes to Mitosis and Meiosis? a. Mitosis- 2 genetically identical diploid cells; Meiosis- 4 genetically different haploid cells b. Mitosis- 4 genetically identical diploid cells; Meiosis- 2 genetically different haploid cells c. Mitosis- 2 genetically identical haploid cells; Meiosis- 4 genetically different diploid cells d. Mitosis- 2 genetically different diploid cells; Meiosis- 4 genetically identical haploid cells e. Both Mitosis and Meiosis are genetically different cells
A
1. Which statement about the structure of DNA is correct? a. DNA is a right-handed helix. b. DNA is double-stranded, and the two strands associate with each other by phosphodiester bonds. c. DNA is a polymer of nucleic acids. d. Thymine pairs with guanine, and guanine pairs with cytosine. e. DNA consists of two strands that are parallel to one another.
A
17. Diploid human cells have 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would you expect to find in a triploid human cell? a. 69 b. 92 c. 46 d. 23 e. 138
A
17. In humans, gametes normally have 23 chromosomes. A human zygote is produced that has 47 chromosomes. Which of the following best describes this zygote? A.Trisomy B.Disomy C. Tetraploid D. Triploid E. Both A and D
A
17. In yeast cells, white color is dominant to red, and at least one dominant allele is required at both the A1 and A2 genes for yeast cells to be white. A haploid yeast strain with genotype A1 A2 is mated to one with genotype A1 a2. What are the chances the resulting diploid strain will be White? a. 100% b. 25% c. 75% d. 50% e. 67%
A
17. Which of the following is true? a. the law of segregation shows that 2 copies of a gene separate when an individual makes gametes b. R and r are both recessive genes c. phenotypes show the genetic make up d. all of the above e. none of the above
A
Codominance
A condition in which neither of two alleles of a gene is dominant or recessive. (cow)
character
An observable trait in an organism whether inherited or acquired.
true-breeding
An organism that always passes down certain phenotypic traits.
Compare and contrast aneuploidy and polyploidy: chromosome content and cause
Aneuploidy is a chromosomal mutation where there are one or more extra chromosomes than needed or one or more fewer chromosomes than needed; caused by error in chromosome separation. Polyploidy is a chromosomal mutation where a cell has an entire extra set of chromosomes; caused by mitotic or meiotic catastrophe such as non disjunction, rare.
somatic cell,
Any cell in the body except egg and sperm cells. Diploid.
Describe the purpose of and process of apoptosis.
Apoptosis is the process of programmed cell death. It is used during early development to eliminate unwanted cells
1. Due to a mutation in the cyclin gene, a cell makes cyclin protein, but the mutant protein cannot bind CDK. Which of the following processes/events will be negatively affected by this mutation? a. There is rapid cell growth b. The cell cannot enter the certain phases such as S and M c. the product cannot be synthesized d. the cell cannot enter meiosis e. There is no negative affect
B
1. Flower color is determined by incomplete dominance. What is the probability of getting a pink flower (Rr) when crossing a red flower (RR) and a pink flower (Rr)? a. 33% b. 50% c. 100% d. 25% e. 75%
B
1. From a dihybrid cross (RrYy x RrYy) where yellow is dominant to green and round is dominant to wrinkled, what is the probability of the offspring being both yellow and wrinkled? A.25% B.3/16 C.5/16 D.67% E.None of the above
B
1. If 30% of the bases in a double-stranded DNA molecule are adenine, what percentage of the bases are cytosine? a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% e. not enough
B
1. If a bird's somatic cell has 20 chromosomes, how many chromosomes does a bird cell have in a single nuclear region after Prophase II? a. 20 b. 10 c. 5 d. 40
B
1. If a diploid cell has 20 chromosomes, how many total chromosomes would be present in mitosis metaphase and meiosis 1 metaphase? A.20 and 40 B.20 and 20 C.40 and 40 D.10 and 10 E.10 and 20
B
1. If a somatic cell has 20 chromosomes, how many homologous pairs are present in prophase 1 of meiosis? a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 40 e. 80
B
1. Question: Which phases of Meiosis differ from those in Mitosis? a. Prophase I b. Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I c. Prophase I, Metaphase II d. Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase II e. Metaphase I, Anaphase I
B
1. Two genetically different sister chromatids are being separated, which process is this? a. Meiosis anaphase I b. Meiosis anaphase II c. Mitosis anaphase d. Meiosis metaphase II e. Mitosis telophase
B
1. Two sister chromatids experienced non-disjunction during anaphase II. If the egg that received both sister chromatids was fertilized by a normal sperm, which of the following best describes the resulting zygote? a. There would be no effect of the nondisjunction on the offspring b. The zygote would have an abnormal chromosome number and mostly likely result in cell death c. The zygote would be super human d. The zygote would experience abnormal growth e. The zygote would delete the extra chromosome once it starts to develop
B
1. What is the difference between Anaphase and Anaphase 1? a. anaphase involves homologs staying together and anaphase 1 the homologs cross over b. anaphase the sister chromatids split and in anaphase 1 the homologs split c. anaphase the homologs split and in anaphase 1 the sister chromatids split d. anaphase creates 2 identical daughter cells and anaphase 1 creates 4 genetically different cells e. there is no difference between anaphase and anaphase 1
B
1. What is the third stage of mitosis? a. anaphase b. metaphase c. prophase d. telophase e. prometaphase
B
1. Which function is aligned properly with the correct stage of meiosis? a. Telophase I - Centromeres of paired chromatids line up across the equatorial line of each cell b. Metaphase I - Homologous chromosomes are paired at the midline of the cell c. Anaphase II - Homologs are aligned by synapsis, condensing chromosomes further d. Telophase II - Homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles of the cell e. Prometaphase I - Chromosomes gather into nuclei, dividing the new cells
B
1. Which of the following about DNA strands is false? a. DNA is a right handed helix b. The strands are parallel c. The nucleotides are held together by phosphodiester bonds d. The strands are held together by hydrogen bonds e. The helix has a uniform diameter
B
1. Which of the following correctly matches the name of a scientist and the contribution they made to understanding the structure of DNA? A.Watson and Crick; discovered DNA from an S strain of bacteria can genetically transform an R strain to an S type B. Rosalind Franklin; used x-ray crystallography to discover DNA is a double helix structure C. Hershey and Chase; discovered there are equal amounts of A and T, and C and G D. Avery, Macleod and McCarthy; used x-ray crystallography to determine the shape of DNA E. Erwin Chargaff; discovered the structure of DNA
B
1. Which scientist(s) performed an experiment with the virus bacteriophage to show DNA is genetic material? a. Avery, Macleod, McCarty b. Hershey and Chase c. Watson and Crick d. Erwin Chargaff e. Rosalind Franklin
B
1. Which statement is correct about meiosis? a. a synapse occurs when sister chromatids line up in the center of the cell during meiosis II. b. no DNA replication occurs between meiosis I and meiosis II. c. 2 diploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis I that are then divided into haploid cells in meiosis II. d. cytokinesis only occurs at the end of meiosis II. e. meiosis results in four haploid nuclei that are genetically identical to each other.
B
17. A cross between a red flower and a white flower yields a pink flower. What is true? A. Each flower had three alleles, so Mendelian genetics does not apply. B. Incomplete dominance meant that neither allele was recessive. C. The red flower was true breeding, but the white flower was a heterozygote. D. Both alleles were dominant. E. Through epistasis, the white gene prevented the red gene from being fully deposited.
B
17. If a heterozygous pea plant is crossed with a homozygous recessive pea plant, what are the possible genotypes of the future offspring? a. 100% Tt b. 50% Tt, 50% tt c. 75%Tt, 25%tt d. 25%TT, 50%Tt, 25%tt e. None of the above
B
17. What is a dihybrid cross? A. A form of asexual reproduction B. Two organisms crossed together who are heterozygous for each of two genes C. One homozygous organism crossed with two heterozygous organisms D. When you breed a short-stemmed pea plant with a long-stemmed pea plant E. The study of the inheritance of one trait
B
1. A dinosaur egg has 30 chromosomes, throughout meiosis, there are 60 sister chromatids present - in which phase of meiosis does the number of sister chromatids become 0? a. Metaphase II b. Anaphase I c. Anaphase II d. Telophase e. cytokinesis
C
1. A diploid cell goes through a process resulting in genetically different haploid cells. During this process the sister chromatids separated. Which phase did the sister chromatids separate in? a. Mitosis b. Prophase I c. Anaphase II d. Metaphase e. Anaphase
C
1. A germ cell has 32 chromosomes. It undergoes two divisions after only replicating its genetic material once. How many chromosomes do the daughter cells have at the end of this process? a. 0 b. 8 c. 16 d. 32 e. 64
C
1. A husband who has sickle-cell anemia, an autosomal recessive disease, and his wife are expecting a child. The wife doesn't have sickle-cell anemia, but her mother does. What is the chance that their offspring will have this disease? a. 25% b. 33% c. 50% d. 66% e. 100%
C
1. A kidney cell has 46 chromosomes. During metaphase of mitosis, there are ________ sister chromatids; during metaphase II, there are ________ sister chromatids. 46; 46 46; 23 92; 46 46; 92 23; 46
C
1. A particular species of frog has 20 chromosomes in a nerve cell. After telophase 2 is complete in meiosis, how many chromosomes are present in the cells, and how many cells are made? a. 10, 2 b. 20, 2 c. 10, 4 d. 20, 4 e. 40, 4
C
1. Assume that coat color in a particular type of dog is determined by one gene, and black is completely dominant to brown. If a homozygous brown lab is bred with a heterozygous black lab, what percentage of dogs in the next generation is expected to have a brown coat? a. 25% b. 33% c. 50% d. 67% e. 100%
C
1. If the DNA strand of 5' ACCTGCA 3' is replicated what will the replicated strand be? a. 5' ACCTGCA 3' b. 5' TGGACGT 3' c. 3' TGGACGT 5' d. 3' TAACCGA 5' e. 3' ACCTGCA 5'
C
1. In peas, the R gene determines pea shape (round is completely dominant to wrinkled), and the Y gene determines pea color (yellow is completely dominant to green). From the cross RRYy X RrYY, what proportion of the progeny are expected to be homozygous dominant for both genes? a. 1/16 b. 1/8 c. 1/4 d. 1/2 e. 1
C
1. Red-green colorblindness (Xn) is a recessive allele to the dominant normal vision (XN) allele, located on the X chromosome. If a female carrier has children with a male who has normal vision, what is the probability that their male offspring will have normal vision? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 100%
C
1. What is the purpose of the R checkpoint in the eukaryotic cell cycle? a. signals the start of mitosis b. shunts the cell into the G0 phase c. Determines if the cell should enter the S phase d. starts a phosphorylation cascade e. signals the start of meiosis
C
1. Which accurately compares the final products between mitosis and meiosis a. 2 genetically identical daughter cells: 4 genetically identical daughter cells b. 4 genetically different gametes: 4 sister chromatids c. 2 genetically identical daughter cells: 4 genetically different daughter cells d. Products are two haploid cells: products are 4 diploid cells e. Mitosis and Meiosis are the same
C
1. Which of the following extensions to Mendelian Genetics do penetrance, expressivity, and heritability associate with? a. Codominance b. Epistasis c. Environmental factors d. Incomplete dominance e. Maternal Inheritance
C
1. Which of the following occurs in both mitosis and meiosis? a. Homologs separate b. Diploid cell produces haploid daughter cells c. Sister chromatids separate d. Four daughter cells are produced e. All of the above
C
1. Which of these occurs in meiosis but not mitosis to ensure genetic diversity? a. one division of genetic material instead of two like in meiosis b. Addition of extra genes c. crossing over of certain genes d. deletion of unnecessary genes e. substitution of desired genes
C
1. Which one of these is the correct definition for each of the phases of meiosis listed? a. Metaphase I, sister chromatids separate b. Prophase II, homologs pair along their entire lengths and cross over c. Anaphase I, homologs separate from one another d. Telophase II, chromosomes condense e. Metaphase II, two nuclei form
C
17. Which of the following is not true about Meiosis 1? a. homologs pair in prophase 1 b. crossing over occurs in prophase 1 c. DNA is replicated in prophase 1 d. paired homologs are moved to the equatorial plate in metaphase 1 e. meiosis 1 is the reductional division
C
17. _______ is activated when it is bound to the protein _______. A. CDK; Integrin B. RB; Cyclin C. CDK; Cyclin D. RB; CDK E. RB; Integrin
C
In peas, the R gene determines pea shape (round is completely dominant to wrinkled), and the Y gene determines pea color (yellow is dominant to green). If there was a cross between two peas with the genotypes RRyy and RrYy, what proportion of progeny are expected to produce Round Green peas? 1 3/4 1/2 1/4 None
C
Understand the role of cyclin and CDKs in regulation of the cell cycle.
Cyclin is Protein that activates kinases and bring about transitions in cell cycle. CDKs are protein kinases whose target proteins are involved in transitions in the cell cycle and is only active when complexed with additional protein subunit called cyclin.
1. An individual with Down Syndrome has trisomy 21. Did this error that causes this occur in meiosis or mitosis? What step did it occur in? a.Mitosis in metaphase b.Mitosis in anaphase c.Meiosis in metaphase 1 d.Meiosis in anaphase 1 e.Meiosis in metaphase II
D
1. An organism has gametes that contain 18 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in each of its somatic cells? a. 9 b. 18 c. 27 d. 36 e. 92
D
1. In which phase during mitosis do homologous pairs crossover (exchange genetic material)? a. prophase b. metaphase c. telophase d. never e. prometaphase
D
1. Meiosis only occurs in ______ organisms that reproduce _____; and mitosis occurs in _______ organisms that reproduce _________. a. Eukaryotic, asexually; Eukaryotic asexually b. Prokaryotic, asexually; Eukaryotic, sexually c. Eukaryotic, sexually; Prokaryotic, asexually d. Eukaryotic, sexually; Eukaryotic asexually e. Prokaryotic, sexually; Prokaryotic, sexually
D
1. One parent (Aa) is affected with an autosomal dominant disease and the other is not affected, what is/are the possible genotype(s) of their offspring? a) aa b) AA or aa c) AA, Aa, aa d) Aa or aa e) AA
D
1. The four cells produced in meiosis will have a: a. 2n number of chromosomes and will differ genetically from each other. b. 2n number of chromosomes and will be genetically identical to each other. c. n number of chromosomes and will be genetically identical to each other. d. n number of chromosomes and will differ genetically from each other. e. none of the above
D
1. What is the difference in the function of the kinetochore microtubules in anaphase of mitosis vs anaphase II of meiosis? a. In anaphase of mitosis, kinetochore microtubules attach to and separate homologs from each other. b. In anaphase II of meiosis, kinetochore microtubules attach to and separate homologs from each other. c. In anaphase of mitosis, kinetochore microtubules separate sister chromatids and create two haploid cells. d. In anaphase II of meiosis, kinetochore microtubules separate sister chromatids and create two haploid cells. e. There is no difference in the function of these microtubules between these stages.
D
1. What is the end result of Meiosis I? a. Four haploid daughter cells b. Two diploid daughter cells c. Four diploid daughter cells d. Two haploid daughter cells e. none of the above
D
1. Which of the following is the incorrect match? a. Thymine - a pyrimidine b. Primase - forms an RNA strand c. Bond between strands - hydrogen bond d. Leading strand - has Okazaki fragments e. Helicase - unwinds DNA
D
17. During Meiosis 1 a. DNA is translated b. homologs move to the midline in prophase 1 c. homologs separate in metaphase 1 d. 2 nuclei form in telophase 1 e. None of the above
D
17. Which of the following is false regarding autosomal dominant inheritance patterns? a. Every affected person has an affected parent b. The defective allele is dominant to the normal allele c. Huntington's disease is an example of autosomal dominant inheritance d. This gene is located on all 23 pairs of chromosomes e. An autosomal dominant disease can be seen in multiple generations
D
17. Which of the following is not observed with recessive inheritance? a. Two parents who are unaffected can produce a child that is affected. b. Heterozygotes are unaffected. c. Two parents who are unaffected can have an unaffected child. d. Heterozygotes can be affected. e. A trait has skipped a generation.
D
Understand why DNA polymerase requires a primer.
DNA polymerases add nucleotides to the 3′ end of a polynucleotide chain. ... To initiate this reaction, DNA polymerases require a primer with a free 3′-hydroxyl group already base-paired to the template..
2. Describe Thomas Hunt Morgan's contribution to our understanding of inheritance.
Discovered certain traits were linked to the X chromosome, same with the Y chromosome. Created the first white eyed female drosophila.
1. Describe Gregor Mendel's contribution to our understanding of inheritance.
Discovered the fundamental laws of inheritance through pea plants. He found that genes come in pairs and are inherited one from each parent. Found dominant or recessive traits.
1. A man with AB blood type and a woman with O blood type have a son. What is the probability that his blood type is O? a. 100% b. 75% c. 50% d. 25% e. 0%
E
1. If there is an error in anaphase II of meiosis in an organism with (n=10), Which of the following are possible numbers of chromosomes in the daughter gametes? a. 20 b. 11 c. 10 (could change this to 21 to be a good distractor) d. 9 e. B & D
E
1. There are ____ hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine bases and ____ phosphodiester bonds between cytosine and glycine. a. 2, 3 b. 3, 2 c. 0, 3 d. 2, 1 e. 2, 0
E
1. What could happen if apoptosis did not occur? Too many cells would die even though they are needed There could be an accumulation of damaged DNA Phagocytosis would still occur, so it is okay if apoptosis does not occur. It could lead to cancer B and D
E
1. What is the function of the molecular motor proteins kinesin and dynein in regards to chromosomes? a. They move the chromosomes along the microtubules to draw them further away from the poles. b. They replicate the chromosomes during interphase. c. They are not present in the nucleus of the cell. d. They replicate the chromosomes during anaphase. e. They move the chromosomes along the microtubules to draw them closer to the poles.
E
1. What is the probability of getting a heterozygous offspring when crossing a truebred dominant and a truebred recessive? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 100%
E
1. Which are the correct pair of words that correspond with each other? a. Mitosis and crossing over b. Mitosis and genetically identical c. Meiosis and 4 haploid cells d. Meiosis and one nuclear division e. Both B and C
E
17. If a father has type B blood (genotype IBi) and a mother has type A (genotype IAi), what are the possible blood types of a child that they could produce? a. Type A blood only b. Type B blood only c. Type AB blood only d. Type O blood only e. All the above could be produced by these parents
E
A dalmatian has a white coat that is spotted with black dots. The Dalmatian's mother has a white coat and the father that has a black coat. Which statement is accurate? a. This is an example of codominance b. This is an example of epistasis c. This is an example of incomplete dominance d. Both of the parents' alleles are expressed e. Both a and d
E
Define epistasis, and recognize when a trait is determined by epistasis.
Epistasis (Gene-Gene Interaction) refers to the behavioral effect of interaction among gene alleles at multiple locations.Epistasisis observable when phenotypic differences among individuals with the same genotype at one locus depend on their genotypes at another locus.
Watson and Crick
Figured out structure of DNA was a double helix Watson saw the double-diamond X-ray that Dr. Franklin and immediately recognized that it was solid evidence that DNA MUST be a helix, probably a double helix.
Avery, McCarty, and Macleod
Identified DNA as the transforming principle
Describe how a testcross is useful for determining if an individual with the dominant phenotype is homozygous dominant or heterozygous.
If all offspring from the test cross display the dominant phenotype, the individual in question is homozygous dominant; if half the offspring display dominant phenotypes and half display recessive phenotypes, then the individual is heterozygous.
Describe circumstantial evidence that suggested DNA is the genetic material.
In their experiments, Hershey and Chase showed that when bacteriophages, which are composed of DNA and protein, infect bacteria, their DNA enters the host bacterial cell, but most of their protein does not. Hershey and Chase and subsequent discoveries all served to prove that DNA is the hereditary material.
Describe the process of DNA replication, and compare/contrast the synthesis of the leading and lagging strands.
On the leading strand, DNA synthesis occurs continuously. On the lagging strand, DNA synthesis restarts many times as the helix unwinds, resulting in many short fragments called "Okazaki fragments." DNA ligase joins the Okazaki fragments together into a single DNA molecule.
Describe how prokaryotes exchange genetic material.
Prokaryotes reproduce asexually by binary fission
Explain the events occuring in each phase of Meiosis I
Prophase I -Centrioles move to opposite ends. Spindle fibers form, and chromosomes condense Metaphase I- Chromosomes attach to the spindle fibers and line up at the equator of the cell Anaphase I - Chromosomes are spereated by spindle fiber and chromatids go to the poles Telophase I- Chromatides decondense back into chromatin and 2 new nuclear envelopes form.
Explain the events occuring in each phase of Meiosis II
Prophase II - Spindle fibers reform, and centrioles move to opposite ends. Metaphase II- Spindle fibers attach and move to equator in a single file line Anaphase II - Spindle Fibers shorten and seperate, chromosomes into seperate chromitides and go to poles Telophase II- Four new nuclei form and cytokinesis follows
qualitative vs quantitative trait
Qualitative traits are frequently controlled by one or just a few genes meaning they are simply-inherited traits. Conversely, quantitive traits are traits with phenotypes that can be measured numerically
Know why garden peas and Drosophila are useful organisms for genetic analyses.
Simple to work with, relatively short life cycle of 12 days and its small siΩe allows it to be produced in large numbers.
What are purines?
The purines in DNA are adenine and guanine, the same as in RNA DOUBLE RING STRUCTURE
What are pyrimidines?
The pyrimidines in DNA are cytosine and thymine; in RNA, they are cytosine and uracil
Franklin and Wilkins
Used X ray diffraction to take pictures of DNA structure; discovered two forms of DNA
Know how a translocation occurs.
When chromosomes become broken during meiosis and the resulting fragment becomes jointed to another chromosome.
complete dominance
a relationship in which one allele is completely dominant over another
1. Chromosomes 2 and 16 line up together in the formation of an egg cell of a human during meiosis I and exchange genetic information. What is the most likely result for this egg if it were to become fertilized? a. Faster rate of development b. growth c. termination d. slower development e. none of the above
c
incomplete dominance
does not completely mask the effects of a recessive allele (flower)
Describe Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment.
genes do not influence each other with regard to the sorting of alleles into gametes; every possible combination of alleles for every gene is equally likely to occur.