Exam 4 Study Guide Multiple Choice Questions
In a direct ELISA, which of the following does the patient provide? (pg. 516) A) Antigen B) Antibodies C) Substrate D) Enzymes
A
Test used to visualize rabies virus in the brain of a dog. A) direct fluorescent antibody B) rabies immune globulin C) indirect fluorescent antibody D) killed rabies virus E) none of the above
A
HIV is able to evade immune defenses by (pg. 547) A) Undergoing rapid antigenic changes B) Producing a lot of antibody C) Killing the host cells D) Becoming latent
A (technically it is both A & D but the biggest factor is most likely A)
Treatment given to a person bitten by a rabid bat. A) direct fluorescent antibody B) rabies immune globulin C) indirect fluorescent antibody D) killed rabies virus E) none of the above
B
What does "pluripotent" mean? A) Ability of a single cell to develop into an embryonic or adult stem cell B) Ability of a stem cell to develop into many different cell types C) A cell without MHC I and MHC II antigens D) Ability of a single stem cell to heal different types of diseases E) Ability of an adult cell to become a stem cell
B
What type of hypersensitivity is due to a reaction to an incompatible blood transfusion. A) type I hypersensitivity B) type II hypersensitivity C) type III hypersensitivity D) type IV hypersensitivity E) all of the above
B
When does a person manifest a hypersensitive reaction? (see Chp. 19 notes- under Type I hypersensitivity) A) On primary exposure B) On a second or subsequent exposure C) During immunosuppression D) During an autoimmune disease
B
Antibodies that are bound to mast cells and involved in allergic reactions (pg. 480) A) IgA B) IdD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM
C
Which of the following can result from systemic anaphylaxis? (pg. 526 also see Chp. 19 notes) A) Contact dermatitis B) Hives C) Shock D) Asthma
C
Which of the following refers to the visible effects of a viral infection? (pg. 436) A) Lysogenic conversion B) Lysogenic effects C) Cytopathic effects D) Cytopathic conversion
C
Which test is used to diagnose an infection of Treponema pallidum? (pg. 515 or Chp. 18 notes) A) Indirect ELISA test B) Direct fluorescent-antibody test C) Indirect fluorescent-antibody test
C
Antibodies that protect the fetus and newborn (pg. 480) A) IgA B) IdD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM
D
The ELISA procedures are very popular (as compared to molecular tests) because they (pg. 516) A) Are inexpensive B) Are easy to do C) Require little interpretive skill to read D) All of the above
D
What is the causative agent of elephantiasis? (pg. 439) A) A virus B) an algae C) a bacterium D) a helminth E) a protozoan
D
What type of immunity is conveyed when exposed individuals are given antibodies by injection? (pg. 494) A) Naturally acquired active immunity B) Naturally acquired passive immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity D) Artificially acquired passive immunity
D
Which antibodies are associated with autoimmunity? (googled answer) A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG and IgM
D (pretty sure)
The first antibodies secreted by plasma cells; especially effective against microorganisms (pg. 480) A) IgA B) IdD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM
E
Which of the following could potentially produce both endotoxins and exotoxins? A) Clostridium tetani B) Escherichia coli C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Streptococcus mutans E) Clostridium botulinum
???
A person who has had measles will develop (pg. 494) A) Naturally acquired active immunity B) Naturally acquired passive immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity D) Artificially acquired passive immunity
A
A typical antibody monomer has two_________ light chains and two ________ heavy chains (pg. 479) A) identical identical B) different different C) identical different D) different identical
A
An antigen-antibody reaction in which the harmful effects of a bacterial exotoxin or a virus are blocked by specific antibodies is a(n) (pg. 512) A) Neutralization reaction B) Precipitation reaction C) Direct agglutination reaction D) Indirect agglutination reaction
A
An encapsulated bacterium can be virulent because the capsule (pg. 428) A) resists phagocytosis B) is an endotoxin C) destroys host tissues D) interferes with physiological processes E) has no effect; because many pathogens do not have capsules, capsules do not contribute to virulence
A
Graves disease is due to production of antibodies that bind receptors for Thyroid stimulating hormone? This is an example of (pg. 537) A) Autoimmune disease B) Hypersensitivity C) Immunosuppression D) Transplantation
A
In what group is autoimmune disease most common? (pg. 536) A) Men B) Women C) Neither group
A
One disease that can be transmitted by the parenteral route is (see Table 15.1 on pg. 425) A) Tetanus B) Trachoma C) Influenza D) Tuberculosis
A
Plasma cells are formed after the proliferation of which type of cell? (see Chp. 17 notes- humoral immunity) A) B cell B) T cell C) Memory cell D) Monocyte
A
The earliest smallpox vaccines were infected tissue rubbed into the skin of a healthy person. The recipient of such a vaccine usually developed a mild case of smallpox, recovered, and was immune thereafter. What is the most likely reason this vaccine did not kill more people? A) Skin is the wrong portal of entry for smallpox B) The vaccine consisted of a mild form of the virus C) The virus mutated D) Smallpox is a virus E) Smallpox is normally transmitted by skin-to-skin contact
A
The type of protection resulting from recovery from an infection. A) Naturally acquired active immunity B) Naturally acquired passive immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity D) Artificially acquired passive immunity
A
What is the mediator of an allergic reaction stored in granules of Mast cells? (pg. 525) A) Histamine B) Prostaglandins C) Leukotrienes D) Acetylcholine
A
What type of hypersensitivity is due to localized anaphylaxis (pg. 527) A) type I hypersensitivity B) type II hypersensitivity C) type III hypersensitivity D) type IV hypersensitivity E) all of the above
A
What type of response do the immunocompetent cells in transplanted bone marrow mount against the tissue into which they have been transplanted? (pg. 541) A) Cell-mediated immune response B) Humoral immune response C) Hyperacute response D) Hypersensitive response
A
Which item is from the patient in an indirect ELISA test for Brucella? A) anti-Brucella Ab B) Brucella C) substrate for the enzyme
A
Which of the following DOES NOT contribute to fungal disease? (pg. 438; from quizlet) A) Cell walls B) Toxins C) Capsules D) Allergic response of the host
A
Which of the following increases a person's susceptibility to certain cancers? A) Immunosuppression B) Immunologic surveillance C) Immunologic enhancement D) Cytotoxic destruction
A
Which vaccines more closely mimic an actual infection? (pg. 501) A) Attenuated whole-agent vaccines B) Inactivated whole-agent vaccines C) Subunit vaccines
A
Which vaccines potentially present the greatest potential hazard? (pg. 501) A) Attenuated whole-agent vaccines B) Inactivated whole-agent vaccines C) Subunit vaccines
A
Xenotransplanation products are tissues or organs transplanted from (see Chp. 19 notes) A) Animals B) An identical twin C) Yourself D) Another human
A
Which vaccines will generally provide the strongest immunity (pg. 501) A) Attenuated whole-agent vaccines B) Inactivated whole-agent vaccines C) Subunit vaccines
A (i think?)
A newborn's immunity to yellow fever. A) Naturally acquired active immunity B) Naturally acquired passive immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity D) Artificially acquired passive immunity
B
Clostridium tetani causes the disease tetanus because it produces (see Table 15.2 on pg. 434) A) An endotoxin B) An exotoxin C) A capsule D) An enzyme
B
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) attach to the target cell and release (pg. 489) A) Lysozymes B) Perforin & Granzymes C) Interferon D) Complement E) Antibody
B
Desensitization to prevent an allergic response can be accomplished by injecting small, repeated doses of A) IgE antibodies B) the antigen (allergen) C) histamine D) IgG antibodies E) antihistamine
B
In an immunodiffusion test, a strip of filter paper containing diphtheria antitoxin is placed on a solid culture medium. Then bacteria are streaked perpendicular to the filter paper. If the bacteria are toxigenic, A) the filter paper will turn red B) a line of antigen-antibody precipitate will form C) the cells will lyse D) the cells will fluoresce E) none of the above
B
The examples in the questions about influenza/sheep RBC's/anti- sheep Ab & the Chlamydia/guinea pig complement/ sheep RBC's etc... are examples of what type of tests? A) direct tests (detection of pathogen) B) indirect tests (detection of Ab to a pathogen)
B
Which antibodies will be found naturally in the serum of a person with blood type A, Rh+? A) anti A, anti Rh B) anti B C) anti B, anti Rh D) anti A E) anti A, anti B, anti Rh
B
Which of the following allows viruses to gain access to target cells? pg. 426; but i got this from a quizlet) A) Fimbriae B) Attachment sites C) Capsids D) Inclusion bodies
B
Which of these toxins is an alkaloid that can cause hallucinations resembling those produced by LSD? (pg. 438) A) Aflatoxin B) Ergot C) Phalloidin D) Amanitin
B
Which portal of entry is most often used by microorganisms? (pg. 424) A) Parenteral route B) Mucous membranes of the respiratory route C) Skin D) Mucous membranes of the conjunctiva
B
_____ presents _____Ag to CD4+ T cells while _____ presents _____ to CD8+ T cells (see Chp. 17 notes- types of MHC) A) Class I, extracellular, Class II, intracellular B) Class II, extracellular, Class I, intracellular C) Class I, intracellular, Class II, extracellular D) Class II, intracellular, Class I, extracellular
B
To prevent the disease botulism, which is caused by ingesting an exotoxin, it is necessary to (found on diff quizlet) A) Avoid canned food B) Boil food prior to consumption C) Prevent fecal contamination of food D) Administer antibiotics to patients
B The heat denatures the protein
To prevent autoimmunity, in the thymus T cells that _____ to self Ag's are retained (pg. 486 or Chp. 17 notes- T cell selection in Thymus) A) bind tightly B) bind weakly C) do not bind
B (pretty sure)
A kidney-transplant patient experienced a cytotoxic rejection of his new kidney. Place the following in order for that rejection: (pg. 489) NEED TO REVIEW THIS (1) apoptosis occurs (2) CD8+ T cell becomes CTL (3) granzymes released (4) MHC class I activates CD8+ T cell (5) perforin released. A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 C) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1 D) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 E) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
C
Arthropods provide a portal of exit for microbes in (pg. 441) A) Skin B) Respiratory tract C) Blood D) Genitourinary tract
C
Bacteriophages can contribute to bacterial virulence because they can (pg. 436; got answer from quizlet) A) Carry plasmids B) Produce toxins C) Give new gene sequences to the host bacteria D) Kill the bacteria causing release of endotoxins
C
In eighteenth-century England, the practice of variolation conveyed (see pg. 494 or Chp. 17 notes) A) Naturally acquired active immunity B) Naturally acquired passive immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity D) Artificially acquired passive immunity
C
Patient's serum, Chlamydia, guinea pig complement are mixed Then sheep red blood cells, and anti-sheep red Ab blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against Chlamydia? A) hemolysis B) hemagglutination C) no hemolysis D) hemagglutination-inhibition E) precipitin ring forms
C
Test used to detect the presence of anti-rabies antibodies in a patient's serum. A) direct fluorescent antibody B) rabies immune globulin C) indirect fluorescent antibody D) killed rabies virus E) none of the above
C
The ID50 for Campylobacter sp. is 500 cells; the ID50 for Cryptosporidium sp. is 100 cells. Which of the following statements is false? A) Both microbes are pathogens B) It requires fewer Cryptosporidium sp. than Campylobacter sp to induce infection C) Cryptosporidium is more virulent than Campylobacter. D) The severity of infections caused by Campylobacter and Cryptosporidium cannot be determined by the information provided
C
The part of the antibody that binds Ag is the (pg. 479) A) Constant region B) Transmembrane region C) Variable region D) Active region
C
The type of protection provided by the injection of diphtheria toxoid. A) Naturally acquired active immunity B) Naturally acquired passive immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity D) Artificially acquired passive immunity
C
Vacca is latin for cow. The term vaccination was coined to honor the work of (pg. 500) A) Alexander Fleming B) Louis Pasteur C) Edward Jenner D) Robert Koch E) Cows
C
What tests are commonly used for the rapid detection of serum antibodies against many bacterial and viral diseases? (pg. 512) A) Direct agglutination tests B) Immunodiffusion tests C) Latex bead (indirect) agglutination tests D) Viral hemagglutination inhibition tests
C
What type of hypersensitivity is due to immune complexes. A) type I hypersensitivity B) type II hypersensitivity C) type III hypersensitivity D) type IV hypersensitivity E) all of the above
C
How many classes of antibodies are there? (pg. 480) A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6
D
Hypersensitivity refers to an (pg. 525) A) Allergen B) Antibody C) Immunity D) Antigenic responses to non pathogenic non self antigens
D
IgG antibodies inactivate microbes by blocking their attachment to host cells in a process known as (pg. 485) A) Agglutination B) Opsonization C) Lysis D) Neutralization
D
In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up: Tube 1 contained a 1:2 dilution Tube 2: a 1:4 and so on. If tube 5 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer? A) 1:2 B) 1:5 C) 1:10 D) 1:32
D
Patient's serum, influenza virus, sheep red blood cells, and anti-sheep red blood Ab cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza? A) hemolysis B) hemagglutination C) no hemolysis D) hemagglutination-inhibition E) precipitin ring forms
D
Patients with Chédiak-Higashi syndrome suffer from various types of cancer. Assume these tumor cells lack MHC class I. These patients are most likely lacking which of the following: (pg. 492 or Chp. 17 notes) A) CD8+ T cells B) CD4+ cells C) B cells D) NK cells E) Monocytes
D
Put the following in the correct sequence to elicit an antibody response: (pg. 482-483) (1) TH releases cytokines (2) APC (B cell) binds Ag with IgD or IgM (3) Ag bound to MHC & presented on APC (B cell) surface; (4) TH cell recognizes Ag/MHC complex on B cell (5) B cell to proliferates. A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 C) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 D) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 E) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2
D
The primary mode of transmission of HIV worldwide is (see Chp. 19 notes) A) Respiratory B) Homosexual transmission C) Blood D) Heterosexual transmission
D
The type of protection provided by the injection of anti-rabies serum. A) Naturally acquired active immunity B) Naturally acquired passive immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity D) Artificially acquired passive immunity
D
What has to be matched between donor and recipient for a successful tissue transplantation (pg. 538) A) T cells B) B cells C) Macrophages D) Human Leukocyte Antigen
D
What type of hypersensitivity is due to allergic contact dermatitis. A) type I hypersensitivity B) type II hypersensitivity C) type III hypersensitivity D) type IV hypersensitivity E) all of the above
D
When most of the population is immune, the population is said to possess (pg. 500) A) Population immunity B) Innate immunity C) Natural immunity D) Herd immunity E) Herds of Wildebeests
D
Which class of antibodies accounts for about 80% of all antibodies in serum? (pg. 480) A) IgA B) IdD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM
D
Which of the following does NOT represent the same mechanism for avoiding adaptive host defenses as the others? A) Rabies virus attaches to the receptor for the neurotransmitter acetylcholine B) Salmonella attaches to the receptor for epidermal growth factor C) Epstein-Barr (EB) virus binds to the host receptor for complement D) Surface protein genes in Neisseria gonorrhoeae mutate frequently E) none of the above
D
Which of the following is not a portal of entry for pathogens? (pg. 424) A) mucous membranes of the respiratory tract B) mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract C) skin D) blood E) parenteral route
D
Which of the following statements is true? A) The primary goal of a pathogen is to kill its host B) A successful pathogen never kills its host C) Evolution selects for the most virulent pathogens D) A successful pathogen doesn't kill its host before it is transmitted
D
Which organism produces an exotoxin? (see Table 15.2 on pg. 434) A) Proteus spp B) Neisseria meningitidis C) Salmonella typhi D) Staphylococcus
D
Which of the following is not the cause of a natural immunodeficiency? A) a recessive gene resulting in lack of a thymus gland B) a recessive gene resulting in few B cells C) a recessive gene that prevents T cell formation D) immunosuppressant drugs E) none of the above
D (b/c that's not a natural cause)
B cell responses against HIV are ineffective for all of the following reasons except (pg. 546) A) persistence of virus particles in vacuoles B) transmission by cell-cell fusion C) antigenic changes D) latency E) the fact that antibodies aren't made against HIV
E (i think?)
What is the LD50 for a bacterial toxin? (pg. 426)
How the level of potency of a toxin is expressed;Lethal dose for 50% of a population So if you conducted an experiment starting with 100 people and systematically administered different dilutions of a toxin (starting from small levels of toxin and slowly going up) Once you reach a dilution that kills 50 of you test subjects, thats the dilution of LD50. Thats the dose that when things begin getting really dangerous
