Extras

What constitutes anemia? A low packed cell volume An increased hematocrit A low neutrophil count A low thrombocyte count

A low packed cell volume Anemia is a condition in which the body doesn't have enough healthy red blood cells (erythrocytes). A low packed cell volume (PCV), or hematocrit (HCT), constitutes anemia. The PCV is the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by the red blood cells. Also important to note is that in mammals, the hematocrit is not related to body size. Normal PCV of a dog is between 37-55% and cats 29-50%. Puppies and kittens normally have lower PCV's. A low thrombocyte count would be thrombocytopenia (low platelets). A low neutrophil count would be neutropenia.

Which animal might receive a perineal urethrostomy? A male cat with a urethral obstruction A dog that has a puppy stuck in the birth canal A female dog with a large bladder stone A dog with a pus-filled uterus

A male cat with a urethral obstruction Perineal urethrostomies are performed in male cats with a urethral blockage. The procedure is performed when a cat has had multiple episodes of obstruction or when the obstruction cannot be relieved manually. The procedure entails making a new opening in the urethra in the perineal area and removing the penis.

What is an osteosarcoma? A malignant bone tumor A benign bone tumor A benign tumor of the skull sutures A malignant tumor of the spleen A benign tumor originating from cartilage

A malignant bone tumor An osteosarcoma is a malignant bone tumor. Osteosarcoma is the most common bone tumor in dogs and has a 90% metastatic rate. An osteoma is a benign bone tumor. Tumors of the skull sutures are rare and do not have a specific name; a benign bone tumor of the skull would be a skull osteoma. There are various types of cancerous splenic tumors with hemangiosarcoma (a tumor of blood vessels) being the most common. A benign tumor of cartilage is a chondroma.

What is a pneumocystogram? A radiograph of the bladder taken after having had air injected into it Fluoroscopy of the kidney and bladder taken after intravenous injection of positive contrast that is excreted via the kidneys A radiograph of the bladder taken after intravenous injection of positive contrast that is excreted via the kidneys A radiograph of the bladder taken after direct injection of positive contrast

A radiograph of the bladder taken after having had air injected into it A pneumocystogram is a radiograph of the bladder taken after insertion of a urinary catheter, draining of the urine, and injection of air (negative contrast) into the bladder via the catheter. This procedure allows the bladder wall to be visible and makes certain types of bladder stones more easily viewable. A radiograph of the bladder taken after direct injection of positive contrast is called a cystogram or a positive-contrast cystogram. A radiograph of the bladder taken after intravenous injection of positive contrast that is excreted via the kidneys is called an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) or excretory urogram.

Anemia would likely result from a heavy infection with which parasite? Ancylostoma Cystoisospora Dipylidium Toxocara

Ancylostoma The most significant risk to an animal with hookworms is anemia. Hookworms live in the small intestine and ingest blood. Ancylostoma and Uncinaria are the two hookworms in dogs and cats (hookworm eggs are shown in this photo). Cystoisospora (coccidia) can cause a significant bloody diarrhea in some cases, which could lead to anemia, but this is not as likely as with hookworms. Toxocara (roundworm) and Dipylidium (tapeworm) are not as likely to cause a severe anemia.

Mineralized debris on the tooth surface is known as which of the following? Dentin Plaque Cementum Calculus

Calculus Calculus is mineralization of plaque on the teeth. Plaque is a mixture of bacteria, saliva, and food parts that cover the tooth in a thin film. Plaque can turn into calculus in as early as a week. Dentin is the hard, white portion of the tooth. Cementum is calcified connective tissue.

A blood smear is evaluated and is noted to have a large variation in cell size as well as a decrease in cell color. What is the appropriate terminology to describe this blood smear? Microcytosis and microchromasia Anisocytosis and hypochromasia Anisokaryosis and macrochromasia Macrocytosis and hyperchromasia

Anisocytosis and hypochromasia Anisocytosis is the descriptive term for cell size variation. Red blood cells that have less color than is normally anticipated are said to by hypochromic. Cells with decreased pallor are likely deficient in hemoglobin. Cells with increased color are hyperchromic. Macrocytes are cells that are larger than typical, while microcytes are the opposite. Varying degrees of color among cells is termed polychromasia and is usually an indication of different aged (young and old) red blood cells present. Younger cells will have ribosomes which give them a different color.

What is the proper location for a hog snare? Around the mandible Around the neck, dorsal to the ears Around the hind leg, above the hock Around the maxilla, over the snout

Around the maxilla, over the snout The hog snare is used to control the movement of the pig. By controlling the maxilla and snout you maintain good control of the whole pig. It is similiar to the twitch in the horse in terms of behavioral control.

Estrogen toxicity most commonly causes which side effect? Seizures Bone marrow suppression Hypertension Hypoglycemia

Bone marrow suppression Estrogen containing medications (such as Diethylstilbesterol also known as DES) or natural causes of increased estrogen (like ferrets having prolonged heat cycles) may lead to bone marrow suppression. Although bone marrow suppression is rare with low doses of DES, it is good to monitor complete blood counts in patients taking this medication to monitor for bone marrow suppression.

The main stimulus for ventilation is the partial pressure of which of the following gases? Oxygen Carbon dioxide Nitrogen Carbon monoxide

Carbon dioxide Elevations of carbon dioxide are the main stimulus for respiration. Low levels of oxygen can also stimulate ventilation; however, carbon dioxide is a more potent stimulant.

Which species commonly has laryngospasm when you are trying to place an endotracheal tube during anesthetic induction? Cow Cat Dog Horse

Cat Cats very commonly have laryngospasm, which can make it tricky to get the endotracheal tube placed. A drop of topical anesthetic can help to facilitate easier placement.

A patient is hospitalized with a resistant infection and is getting Amikacin injections and IV fluid therapy. Amikacin can cause kidney damage. What could you do to monitor for early renal side effects? Check the urine specific gravity twice daily Check a daily urine protein Renal ultrasound daily Monitor urine output

Check a daily urine protein Proteinuria can be one of the first things seen if there is damage to the kidneys. Urine output and specific gravity would not be reliable indicators since this patient is on IV fluids. Ultrasound would not be helpful picking up early kidney damage since this occurs at a microscopic level in the renal tubules. Kidney changes can be seen with ultrasound only if gross disease is present in the renal architecture. BUN and creatinine levels can be helpful, however, remember that usually these values do not become elevated until more than 70% of the renal function has been compromised.

Your veterinarian mentions that a rabbit patient in the room next door has "walking dandruff." What does the rabbit have? Fleas Scabies Cheylitiella parasitovorax Demodex

Cheylitiella parasitovorax Cheylitiella is also known as walking dandruff as it looks like flaky skin. It's very common, very infective with a life cycle of 5 weeks , and zoonotic.

Which of the following drugs should not be given to any animal intended for human consumption? Prostaglandin F2-alpha Oxytetracycline Amprolium Chloramphenicol

Chloramphenicol Chloramphenicol should never be given to a food producing animal and is banned for such use due to the potential to cause irreversible aplastic anemia in humans. Oxytetracycline is an antibiotic commonly used in food animals. PGF2-alpha is a drug used in food animals to influence the estrous cycle. Amprolium is an anti-coccidial drug used in food animals.

Tetanus in the horse is caused by the toxin produced by which anaerobic bacterium? Clostridium tetani Clostridium perfringens Tetani equi Tetani tetanus

Clostridium tetani C. tetani is the strain of Clostridium that causes tetanu

Which intestinal parasite is NOT considered zoonotic to humans? Coccidia Ancylostoma Toxocara Giardia

Coccidia Coccidia are host-specific. Cystoisospora (the coccida found in dogs and cats) is not infective to humans. The other parasites listed are zoonotic.

Which of these is the term for the animal that harbors the mature, sexual stage of a parasite? Reservoir host Definitive host Intermediate host Paratenic host

Definitive host The definitive host harbors the adult, sexual stage of a parasite. The intermediate host harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a parasite. A paratenic host (also known as a transport host) indicates a type of intermediate host on which a parasite does not undergo development into the next stage. A reservoir host is another vertebrate host for a parasite that serves as a source of infection for people or domestic animals.

Which of the following would not be an underlying cause for a urine specific gravity of less than 1.020? Hypoadrenocorticism Renal failure Diabetes mellitus Dehydration

Dehydration Dehydration usually results in an elevated urine concentration (USG > 1.050). Overhydration would result in an increased urine output in an effort to return to a normal hydration state. This would result in more dilute urine. Renal failure, hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's), and diabetes mellitus can all be causes of dilute urine and all cause polyuria and polydipsia.

Which of the following is not typically associated with pruritus? Otodectes Cheyletiella Microsporum canis Malassezia Demodex Sarcoptes

Demodex Demodex mites are typically not itchy. It is important to note however that with severe infections of demodex, secondary bacterial infections are common, and those can be itchy. Sarcoptes (scabies mites), Cheyletiella mites, Otodectes (ear mites), Malassezia (yeast), and Microsporum canis (ringworm) all cause pruritus.

A refractometer is commonly used in veterinary practice for which of the following? Concentrating parasite eggs in a fecal sample Determining the packed cell volume or hemoglobin concentration Determining the number of red blood cells or white blood cells per microliter of blood Determining the specific gravity of urine or protein concentration in a body fluid

Determining the specific gravity of urine or protein concentration in a body fluid A refractometer is a device that measures the refractive index of a solution. The refractive index is a function of the concentration of solids in a solution. In a veterinary lab, the device is most frequently used to measure the specific gravity of urine. It can also be used to measure the protein concentration of plasma or other fluids such as cerebrospinal fluid.

As a technician, it will be your responsibility to administer medications in most situations. Which of the following is not a common medication administered to horses post-operatively? Omeprazole Procaine-penicillin G Dexamethasone Banamine

Dexamethasone Dexamethasone is a steroid and is not a commonly used medication post-operatively. When this medication is noted as a treatment after surgery, the technician should double check with the clinician in charge. Inadvertent administration of steroids can result in immunosuppression and secondary infection at the surgical site. Banamine is a very commonly used non-steroidal anti-inflammatory in horses. Procaine-penicillin G is a commonly used antibiotic which may be used by clinicians post-operatively. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that decreases the amount of stomach acid production in horses to help keep them from developing gastric ulcers.

When performing a direct fecal smear to look for "swimmers" or parasitic trophozoites, the feces cannot be older than which of the following? 1 hour 24 hours if not refrigerated 5 minutes 12 hours

1 hour Fresh feces are needed for a direct smear. The smear should be made and read within 1 hour of fecal collection for most accurate results. Also, serial samples are ideal. Sometimes 4 to 5 smears are needed to find an organism. A negative direct smear does not rule out a parasite.

You are asked to take chest radiographs on a cat that has been hit by a car. You are reviewing the radiographs for technique and see that it appears the cat has intestinal contents in the chest cavity. What is this evidence of? Ruptured pericardial sac Diaphragmatic hernia Broken ribs A rotated stomach

Diaphragmatic hernia A diaphragmatic hernia is a hole in the diaphragm. Through this hole, abdominal contents can protrude into the chest cavity. It can be helpful to hold an animal like this in an upright position to allow gravity to keep the abdominal contents out of the chest. The veterinarian should be notified immediately.

You have an intubated 40 kg canine patient on a mechanical ventilator requiring additional analgesia. The doctor has ordered a Fentanyl constant rate infusion (CRI) at 4 mcg/kg/hr. The concentration of Fentanyl is 0.05 mg/mL. How many mL/hr will you be administering the Fentanyl CRI? 3.2 mL/hr 1.6 mL/hr 0.8 mL/hr 6.4 mL/hr

3.2 mL/hr First, let's look at the dose of 4mcg/kg/hr 4mcg per kg per hr OR 4mcg x 40kg x hr = 160mcg/hr Now, let's convert the micrograms to milligrams: 160mcg/1000mcg per mg = 0.16mg Lastly, we must divide our milligrams by the concentration of Fentanyl: 0.16mg/ Fentanyl concentration of 0.05mg/mL = 3.2mL/hr

If the daily fluid maintenance requirement for a 2000lb bull is set at 50mL/kg/24hr, what should his fluid rate per minute be? 73 mL/min 32 mL/min 152 mL/min 758 mL/min

32 mL/min 2000 lb divided by 2.2 lb/kg = 909 kg 909 kg x 50 mL/kg/24hr = 45,450 mL per day 45,450 mL per day/24 hours = 1894 mL per hour 1894 mL per hour divided by 60 minutes/hour = 32 mL per hour

Your clinic has decided to start harvesting blood from volunteer donors to administer to patients. How long can whole blood units be stored in the refrigerator if properly collected? 45 days 1 year 35 days 3 months 21 days 3 months 1 year

35 days Whole blood units may be stored for 35 days if the unit is collected aseptically, stored appropriately and mixed daily.

You are helping admit a patient to the hospital. Rudy is a 5-year old female spayed Yorkie with pancreatitis. The hospital is very busy and all of the fluid pumps are currently being used by other patients. You are asked to start fluids at 24mL/hr for Rudy. Calculate the drip rate for this patient. Her body weight is 8 pounds. The drop size for your administration set is 10 drops/mL. 4 drops/minute 21 drops/minute 12 drops/minute 2 drops/minute

4 drops/minute The body weight given in this question is irrelevant. You already know what rate you need. You would only need the body weight if you were calculating her rate. Formulas for drop sizes per mL are as follows (you may wish to memorize these): 10 drops/mL: (mL/hr) / 6 = drops/minute 15 drops/mL: (mL/hr) / 4 = drops/minute 20 drops/mL: (mL/hr) / 3 = drops/minute 60 drops/mL: (mL/hr)/ 1 = drop/minute So to calculate using these simple formulas: 24/6 = 4 drops per minute Or, If you did not know this formula, or if you forget, just convert it using what you know. First convert hours into minutes: 24 mL per hour divided by 60 minutes in an hour: 0.4 mL per minute You administration set will give 10 drops per 1 mL. So, multiply 0.4mL/min X 10 drops/1mL (the mLs cancel out) = 4 drops/minute Now check your math: 4 drops per minute X 60 minutes in a hour (minutes cancel out)= 240 drops per hour Your set gives 10 drops in 1 mL. 240 drops/10 drops/mL (drops cancel out) = 24 mL per hour (correct)

How long does estrus in the dog typically last? 4-13 days 14-28 days 6 months 1-3 days

4-13 days Estrus typically lasts 4 to 13 days, with an average of 9 days. The entire estrous cycle in the dog is approximately 6 months.

A 120-pound Great Dane has presented with Gastric Dilatation Volvulus. The clinician has asked you to quickly prepare the drug protocol. As a premedication, the dog is to receive 0.08 mg/kg of Hydromorphone. How many milligrams will you administer? 6.4 mg 2.2 mg 4.4mg 9.6 mg

4.4mg To calculate milligrams administered the dog's body weight should be converted to kilograms. As a general rule, the majority of medications are dosed in a milligram-per-kilogram dosing. Therefore all body weights need to be converted to kilograms so that you are working in the same units. 120 lb/2.2 = 54.5 kg (There are 2.2 lbs per kilogram) 54.5 kg x (0.08 mg/kg) = 4.4 mg (Notice the "kg" will cancel out when you do the math) If your answer was 9.6 mg, you did not convert the body weight into kilograms.

You calculate the volume deficit for a patient which is approximately 2 liters. You are instructed to give this volume over the next 5 hours. What should the fluid rate be? 400 mL/hr 310 mL/hr 250 mL/hr 160 mL/hr

400 mL/hr First convert the liters (L) into milliliters (mL): (there are 1000 mL in 1 L) 2 L X 1000mL/L (liters cancel out)= 2000 mL You need to give this over 5 hours: 2000 mL/ 5 hours (mL cancel out)= 400 mL/hr

How many days after fertilization will canine fetal skeletons first appear on a radiograph? 63 days 14 days 50 days 22 days 42 days

42 days At 42 days after fertilization, calcium is absorbed into the fetal skeletons and makes them visible on the radiograph.

What is the maximum amount of oral fluids that a horse should receive at a time? 1-2 Liters 6-8 Liters 10-15 Liters 20-25 Liters

6-8 Liters The average size horse (800 to 1200 pounds) has a stomach capacity of only about 4 gallons. It is best to give smaller quantities of fluids more frequently, and no more than 6 to 8 liters should be given at one time.

A client tells you her horse is 16 hands. How tall is her horse in inches? 64 inches 60 inches 48 inches 56 inches

64 inches A hand is 4 inches. 4 x 16 = 64 inches

How many cervical vertebrae do cows have? 6 13 9 7

7 Cows as well as dogs, sheep, pigs, cats, goats, horses and humans have 7 cervical vertebrae.

A Percheron needs medication. He weighs in at 1760lb and is 16 hands high. His medication is dosed by kg. Calculate the the weight of this horse in kilograms. 107kg 1760kg 800kg 235kg

800kg 1 kg = 2.2 lb 1760lb ÷ 2.2 = 800kg

What is the purpose of a Potter-Bucky diaphragm on an X-ray machine (sometimes called a "Bucky tray")? Eliminate grid lines on the film Prevent patient movement Decrease exposure time that is necessary to produce a diagnostic image Increase contrast of the film

Eliminate grid lines on the film A Potter-Bucky diaphragm is a moving grid. A grid is a series of short strips of lead that is placed over the cassette, absorbing all radiation that does not go between the strips. The strips are geometrically arranged to allow the primary radiation through but to absorb any radiation that is scattered in other directions. This results in increasing the resolution of structures on the film. However, using a grid results in the appearance of grid lines on the film unless a Potter-Bucky diaphragm is used. Using a Potter-Bucky diaphragm requires increased exposure time and/or kilovoltage.

Which of the following delays wound healing? Jagged edges Bed of granulation tissue Infection Increased blood supply

Infection Bacteria and inflammation from infection cause direct cellular damage. This can cause separation of tissues, which leads to infection and delays healing time. Granulation tissue is a normal part of healing unless it becomes exuberant. Other factors which delay healing include corticosteroid administration or immunosuppression, poor blood supply, and hypoproteinemia.

Which of the following correctly defines the term stomatitis? Inflammation of the region housing the tonsils Inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces Inflammation of the tongue Inflammation of the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone

Inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces Stomatitis describes inflammation of the oral mucosal surfaces. It can be subdivided by region, such as buccal stomatitis (inflammation of the cheek mucosa). Inflammation of the tongue is known as glossitis. Inflammation of the glossopalatine folds around the area housing the tonsil is known as faucitis. Inflammation of the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone fall under the category of periodontitis.

When a horse is feeling threatened or is resisting restraint, what is its first instinct to do? Bite Raise up on its back legs Run away Kick with the back legs

Run away Horses typically will try to run away first if possible, but if they are cornered and feeling threatened with no escape, they will also kick, bite, or rear up. When working with a horse that is not used to handling, it is important to have a plan of attack if the horse is not cooperating to avoid injury.

The parotid gland is responsible for making and secreting which of the following? Oxytocin Sebum Saliva Epinephrine Tears

Saliva The parotid is the largest of the salivary glands. Sebum is made by the sebaceous glands. Epinephrine is made by the adrenal glands. Oxytocin is made by the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary gland. Tears are produced by the lacrimal gland.

You are working at the specialty center and are observing an echocardiogram for the first time. The cardiologist prescribes the drug propanolol to a canine patient. What effect will this medication have on the heart? Stops ventricular premature contractions Increases the heart rate Increases contractility Slows the heart rate

Slows the heart rate Propanolol is a Beta-1 and Beta-2 blocker. It blocks the sympathetic nervous system (sympatholytic) which allows for the parasympathetic effects on the heart to dominate. The parasympathetic nervous system slows the heart. Remember- parasympathetic- rest and digest (slower heart rate), and sympathetic- fight or flight (increased heart rate).

Which of the following is considered part of the plantar surface? The top surface of the hindpaw The underside of the hindpaw The top surface of the forepaw The underside of the forepaw

The underside of the hindpaw Plantar is the underside of the hindpaw. Palmar is the underside of the forepaw.

What is the primary toxic principle in chocolate? Sucrose Serotonin Cholinesterase inhibitors Arginine Theobromine

Theobromine Methylxanthines are the primary toxic principles in chocolate. Specifically, these are theobromine and caffeine.

A multi-lumen jugular catheter must be placed in a canine with renal disease for CVP monitoring. To what anatomical landmark should the catheter be inserted to? Third thoracic vertebrae Aorta The heart Thoracic inlet Caudal vena cava

Third thoracic vertebrae Central venous pressure, or CVP, monitoring must be performed according to specific guidelines to reduce the possibility of inappropriate readings. The third thoracic vertebra is the anatomical landmark that the normal values are based on.

You are new on the ICU floor and are taking time to look through the crash cart so you will be prepared when emergency arises. You find a 60 cc syringe attached to a 3-way stopcock and extension set with a 22-gauge needle attached. What might this setup be used for? Jugular catheter placement Thoracocentesis Tracheal drug administration Decreasing intracranial pressure

Thoracocentesis This is commonly used for removing fluid from the pleural space (pleural effusion).

The surgeon asks for the Brown-Adsons. Which type of instrument is this? Thumb forceps Small retractor Small curved clamp Tissue scissors

Thumb forceps Brown Adson forceps are thumb forceps which have fine teeth at the tip. They are used for grasping delicate tissue. Common tissue scissors include the metzenbaum scissors (longer, more narrow scissors with a blunt tip) and the iris scissors (tiny scissors with a sharp point). A small retractor would be a Senn-Rake (a long, skinny, hand held retractor resembling a rake), or a gelpi (self-retaining retractor). There are small and large versions of the gelpi. A small curved clamp would be a mosquito hemostat.

What is the name for the triangular region of the bladder where the ureters and urethra are connected to the bladder? Fundus Trigone Cortex Body Medulla

Trigone The trigone is a smooth triangular part of the internal urinary bladder formed by the two ureteral openings and the internal urethral opening. The fundus is an anatomical term referring to the portion of an organ opposite from its opening (i.e. fundus of the stomach). Medulla generally refers to the middle of an organ (i.e. renal medulla). Cortex generally refers to the outer layer of an organ (i.e. adrenal cortex).

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye) can result from the use of which medication? Prednisone Enrofloxacin Enalapril Cyclosporine Trimethoprim-sulfa (TMS)

Trimethoprim-sulfa (TMS) The sulfa drugs can cause dry eye in some patients and therefore overuse should be avoided. If a patient is started on a sulfa drug, tear production should be monitored.

What is the most common blood type in cats in the United States? Type B Type O Type A Type AB

Type A Cats most commonly have type A blood. Some cats have type B blood, many of which are exotic-type species. Type B cats have strong anti-A alloantibodies, so type A blood given to a type B cat results in life-threatening acute hemolytic transfusion reactions. A cat should always have a blood type test before a transfusion.

Which type of urinary stone is lucent and does not typically show up on a radiograph? Calcium oxalate Urate Magnesium ammonium phosphate Struvite

Urate Urate and Cystine are the two types of stones that do not usually show up on radiographs and require ultrasound or contrast studies to diagnose. Calcium oxalate and struvite stones are radiodense and usually visible on a radiograph. Magnesium ammonium phosphate is another name for a struvite stone.

Micturition is a medical term for which of the following? Vomiting Straining Coughing Urinating

Urinating Micturition is the act of voiding urine, or urinating. Emesis is another term for vomiting. Stranguria is the term for straining to urinate.

The dog's abdominal region may also be referred to as which of the following? Ventral region Proximal region Anterior region Dorsal region

Ventral region Cranial is toward the head; caudal is toward the tail. Ventral is toward the abdomen; dorsal is toward the backbone. Lateral is away from midline and medial is toward midline. Proximal is close to the spine or body while distal is away; these are typically used when describing limbs (ex. fracture of the proximal femur vs. fracture of the distal femur). Palmar is the bottom of the paw of the forelimb; plantar is the bottom of the paw of the hind limb. Anterior is toward the head and posterior is away from the head. In veterinary medicine, anterior and posterior are usually only used to describe distal extremities or areas of the head.

A dark, amber-colored sample of urine is likely to have what specific gravity value? Very high specific gravity Low specific gravity Cannot be determined Average specific gravity

Very high specific gravity In urine samples generally, the darker the color the higher the specific gravity. Conversely, a very clear urine sample will have a very low specific gravity value. In most species, urine color ranges from light-yellow to dark-yellow. The exception to this is if the urine contains blood or bilirubin; these can make the urine appear darker, even if the specific gravity is low.

Which of the following components or settings influence x-ray beam quality? kVp and filtration Collimation and filtration mAs and filtration kVp and collimation mAs and collimation kVp and mAs

kVp and filtration The "quality" of an x-ray beam refers to the energy distribution of the photons that are emitted. mAs and collimation have no effect on the energy of the emitted photons. mAs specifies the quantity of photons emitted; collimation constrains the area where the photons are emitted. The kVp is related to the peak energy of the photons emitted. Applied filtration preferentially absorbs lower-energy photons to affect beam quality.

A 16-pound Welsch Pembroke corgi with refractory hypotension needs to be started on Vasopressin. The order has been set for 1 milliunit/kg/min. The concentration of Vasopressin is 20 units(U)/mL. If we set the 500 mL bag of NaCl fluid rate at 10 mL/hr, how many milliliters of Vasopressin would be needed in this bag? 2.18 mL 1.09 mL 3.27 mL 0.95 mL

1.09 mL To start, convert the body weight into kg: 16 pounds/2.2 pounds per kg = 7.27kg Next, let's look at the prescription order and begin to calculate 1mU/kg/min: 1mU per kilogram per min OR 1mU x 7.27kg x min = 7.27mU/min Now that we know we require 7.27mU every minute, we must convert to hours and figure out how many hours are available within the 500mL 0.9% NaCl bag. 7.27mU x 60min = 436.2mU/hr You will divide the 500mL by the fluid rate, 10mL/hr. The milliliters will cancel out and you will see that you are left with 50 hours. Now that we have our hours, we can finish the previous equation to find out how much Vasopressin is required: 436.2mU/hr can now be written as 436.2mU x 50 hours = 21,810mU. We must now convert this into Units so that we may be able to divide by the Vasopressin concentration (20U/mL) to achieve our answer of Vasopressin in milliliters. 21,810mU/ 1000mU per Unit = 21.81U 21.81U/ Vasopressin concentration of 20U/mL = 1.09 mL

An animal needs to be sedated with Dexmedetomidine. The patient weighs 2200, lbs and the dose that the clinician wishes to administer is 10 micrograms per kilogram. Dexmedetomidine is available as a 1 mg/ml solution. How many milliliters will be administered? 100 ml 0.5 ml 10 ml 1 ml

10 ml To solve this question, it is very important to know that there are 1000 micrograms in 1 milligram. Similarly, there are 1000 milligrams in 1 gram. First, convert body weight to kilograms. 2200 lbs / (2.2 lbs/kg) = 1000kg 1000kg x (10 micrograms/kg) = 10,000 micrograms 10,000 micrograms / (1 milligram/1000 micrograms) = 10 milligrams (Notice the micrograms cancel out.) 10 mg / (1 mg/ml) = 10 ml This question is critical to understand. Not having a good grasp of the difference between a milligram vs. microgram vs. gram can result in misdosing a patient.

A dog has snail bait poisoning (metaldehyde) and presents with seizures. His temperature is 109F, and you begin cooling techniques while the veterinarian treats the seizures. At what temperature should you stop trying to cool him? He should not be cooled 102F 103F 107F 100F

103F When the temperature reaches 103F, it is time to cease the cooling techniques, as the temperature can continue to drop and get dangerously low.

What is the average cloacal temperature of a chicken? 102F 98.8F 104F 107F

107F The deep body temperature of a chicken is around 107 degrees Fahrenheit.

Eclair is a 10-year-old 3kg spayed Havanese that requires Plasmalyte solution. There are no more fluid pumps available, therefore you must calculate a drip rate for the fluids. You must deliver 90 mL/kg/day. Your drip set delivers 10 drops/mL. What is the approximate drip rate per minute? 4 drops/min 6 drops/min 8 drops/min 2 drops/min

2 drops/min The first step is recognizing how many mL/hr we need. If we calculate 90mL/kg/day OR 90mL per 3kg per 24 hours, then: 270mL x 24 hours OR 270mL per 24 hours can be simplified to: 270mL/24 hours = 11.25mL/hr We can take our 11.25mL/hr and multiply by our drip set delivery rate: 11.25mL/hr x 10 drops/mL = 112.5 drops/hr Now, to achieve our drip rate per minute, we shall divide by 60 (there are 60 minutes in an hour). 112.5 drops/hr divided by 60 minutes = 1.8 drops per minute or ≈ 2 drops per minute

Esmarch bandages and tourniquets are occasionally used in equine surgery. What is the maximum time that a tourniquet may be left in place? 2 hours 30 minutes 4 hours 1 hour

2 hours The maximum recommended time is 2 hours. The purpose of the Esmarch bandage is to help push blood out of a limb by wrapping the bandage from distal to proximal and then applying a tourniquet. In this way, the surgeon can minimize the amount of bleeding at the surgical site. However, prolonged use can result in severe ischemia and deleterious effects.

You are placing a 20kg keeshond under total intravenous anesthesia. The doctor has ordered a Propofol CRI at a rate of 4mg/kg/hr. Propofol comes as a 10mg/mL solution. You only have 2 of the 10mL vials in hospital, assuming no additional boluses are required, how many hours' worth or Propofol do you have at the 4mg/kg/hr rate? 2.5 hours 1.5 hours 3 hours 1 hour

2.5 hours First, let's calculate the 4mg/kg/hr dose: 4mg per kg per hr OR 4mg x 20kg x hr = 80mg x hr We now know we require 80milligrams per hour, let's see what that is in milliliters: 80mg/ Propofol concentration of 10mg/mL = 8mL/hr Looking back at the two Propofol vials (10mL each) we know we have a total of 20mL We can now divide the volume we have by the rate we need: 20mL Propofol available/ 8mL per hour rate = 2.5 hours

How many milliliters of 25% dextrose should be added to 1 L of 0.9% saline to make a 5% dextrose solution? 20 ml 100 ml 200 ml 50 ml

200 ml To answer this question, the following formula should be implemented: C(1)V(1) = C(2)V(2) C is the concentration V is the volume C(1) =0.25 V(1) = x C(2) = 0.05 V(2) = 1000 ml 0.25x = 0.05(1000) x = 200 ml 200 ml of 25% dextrose should be added to one liter in order to make a 5% solution.

A patient is slowly being weaned off fluid therapy. Her body weight is 10 kg, and she is currently at a rate of 30 ml/hr. The doctor wishes to decrease her fluid rate by 15%. What is her new rate? 25.5 ml 27 ml 22 ml 4.5 ml

25.5 ml First, we need to determine how much 15% of 30 ml is. 30 ml x 0.15 = 4.5 ml Now we subtract the answer above from the original rate. 30 ml - 4.5 ml = 25.5 ml is the new fluid rate. Notice that the body weight is not necessary to calculate this rate change.

How many chambers does the stomach of a llama have? 6 3 2 1 4

3 The llama has a stomach that functions similar to that of a true ruminant, but it only has 3 compartments (rumen, omasum, and abomasum). True ruminants such as cows, goats, sheep, and deer have 4 compartments including the rumen, omasum, abomasum, and the reticulum.

When conducting a food trial for possible food allergy manifesting as allergic skin disease, how long as a minimum should the trial last? 3 months 48 hours 2 weeks 6 months

3 months For food-related skin allergies, a food trial should last at least 3 months. For possible food allergy manifesting as inflammatory bowel disease, the trial should last at least 3 weeks. A food trial should consist of a novel protein and a novel carbohydrate source such as Rabbit, Duck, Venison, etc. Another option is a diet with hydrolyzed proteins such that the body cannot form an immune response (Z/D is an example of this).

Gas exchange occurs between air and blood by diffusion through which structure? Pleura Trachea Alveoli Bronchi

Alveoli The alveoli are the site of gas exchange. They are tiny air sacs in the lungs that exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen and are located at the last branching of the respiratory tract. They are lined with simple squamous epithelium. The oxygen diffuses through the epithelium and the capillary endothelium in the exchange. The upper airway is lined mostly with pseudostratified columnar epithelium.

Which of the following is NOT part of the small intestine? Ascending colon Ilium Jejunum Duodenum

Ascending colon The small intestine is made up of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The colon is large intestine

Which medication is commonly given to patients with organophosphate toxicity? IV vodka Vitamin K Atropine Morphine

Atropine Atropine is an anticholinergic drug and is an important treatment of organophosphate toxicity. This is because organophosphates are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, and toxicity allows a buildup of acetylcholine. Atropine counteracts these effects.

You are examining a blood agar plate from a submitted bacterial culture and see an area of complete hemolysis, leaving a clear zone around a bacterial colony. What type of hemolysis is this? Alpha hemolysis Beta hemolysis Delta hemolysis Gamma hemolysis

Beta hemolysis Alpha hemolysis is partial hemolysis, creating a band of slimy discoloration around a bacterial colony. Beta hemolysis is complete hemolysis, leaving a clear zone around a bacterial colony. Gamma hemolysis causes no change in the medium's appearance. Delta hemolysis creates a double zone of hemolysis wherein a narrow area around the colony is hemolyzed and surrounded by a larger region with some hemolysis.

The menace test will elicit which response? Which two nerves is this testing? Smell, Cranial nerves I and IV Ear twitch, Cranial nerves V and III Blink, Cranial nerves II and VII Gag reflex, Cranial nerves XII and VIII

Blink, Cranial nerves II and VII The menace is when you wave your hand to the eye to try and elicit a blinking response. This is testing vision via the Optic nerve (Cranial nerve II).

A dog tries to swallow his ball and it gets stuck in the back of his throat. He is breathing very slowly and is not ventilating properly. He is alert but the obstructive breathing is a concern. Which of the following abnormalities would you expect? Hypothermia Pulmonary hypertension Respiratory alkalosis Respiratory acidosis

Respiratory acidosis Respiratory obstruction leads to accumulation of carbon dioxide. Increased PCO2 results in lower blood pH. This is respiratory acidosis.

What is the most rostral structure of the eye? Retina Pupil Cornea Lens

Cornea The cornea is the most rostral structure of the eye and is where light first enters. The retina is at the back of the eye and is the location of the photoreceptors. The lens is responsible for focusing light onto the retina and is located caudal to the pupil and iris.

What is most often seen in a cat with heartworm disease? Petechial hemorrhages Unkempt haircoat Seizuring Syncope Coughing

Coughing Most cats with heartworm are not clinical for the disease. If they do show symptoms, they are typically respiratory in nature (coughing, wheezing). Chronic vomiting can also be a sign. All coughing cats should be tested for heartworm.

When collecting a sample, when should the needle never be re-directed? Fine needle aspiration Cystocentesis Thoracocentesis Jugular blood draw

Cystocentesis Never re-direct the needle to try and collect a urine sample via cystocentesis. There is too great of a risk the bladder could tear, or that other damage could be caused by the needle.

Which of these are used in the major cross-match for blood products to be transfused to a dog? Donor red blood cells, recipient plasma Recipient red blood cells, recipient plasma Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma Donor red blood cells, donor plasma

Donor red blood cells, recipient plasma The correct answer is donor red blood cells, recipient plasma. In a major crossmatch, you are looking to see if the factors in the plasma of the recipient are going to react to the donated red blood cells.

You are scrubbed in as the surgery technician and are assisting with an intestinal foreign body removal. The surgeon wants to clamp the intestine above and below the foreign body. What instrument could be used for this? Brown-Adsons Doyens Gelpis DeBakeys

Doyens Doyen intestinal forceps are a curved non-crushing occluding clamp with longitudinal grooves. They are used for the purpose described, but over-tightening should be avoided because they can still damage the intestinal tissue. The others listed should not be used on the intestines. DeBakey forceps are vascular forceps that are used to hold vascular tissue with minimal damage to the vessels. Brown-Adson forceps are for holding tissue and have grasping teeth. The Gelpi is a self-retaining small retractor.

You accidentally write the wrong name for medication in the chart. What should you do? Scribble over it until it cannot be read Cover it with an exam sticker Draw a single line through it and initial White it out

Draw a single line through it and initial When a mistake is made in a medical record, a single line should be drawn through the mistake and initialed by the person making the mark.

Cyclosporine ophthalmic ointment is most often used in treating which condition? Glaucoma Dry eye Herpes keratitis Corneal ulcers

Dry eye Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye) is often treated with topical cyclosporine (Optimmune) or with topical tacrolimus. These medications act to stimulate tear production; they may also be beneficial in cases of pigmentary keratitis or Pannus.

In a fetus, blood is shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aorta via what structure? Ductus arteriosus Foramen magnum Ductus venosus Foramen ovale

Ductus arteriosus The ductus arteriosus is the shunt connecting the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch. In this way, the blood bypasses the lungs, or pulmonary circulation in utero. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is when this opening persists after birth and arterial blood is re-circulated through the lungs, which is abnormal.The foramen ovale allows blood to enter the left atrium from the right atrium. The ductus venosus shunts some blood flow from the umbilical vein to the vena cava. The foramen magnum is the large opening in the occipital bone at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes.

A patient presents for difficulty swallowing and is found to have a bone lodged at the back of its throat during physical exam. Which of the following is the term for this presenting complaint? Ptyalism Stomatitis Anuria Dysphagia

Dysphagia The term for difficulty swallowing is dysphagia. It may be caused by an oral or esophageal foreign body, esophagitis, neurologic disease (myasthenia gravis), etc. Anuria is the term for absence of urination. Ptyalism is drooling and is sometimes observed in patients with dysphagia. Stomatitis is inflammation of the soft structures in the oral cavity (cheeks, gums, tongue, etc.).

What is cerumen? Oil produced by sebaceous glands A mucoid substance secreted by the stomach The oily part of the tear film Ear wax

Ear wax Cerumen is the proper term for ear wax. It is the yellowish waxy hydrophobic protective substance that is secreted in the ear canal. Sebum is an oily substance that is produced by the sebaceous glands.

Lincosamides (such as lincomycin and clindamycin) are contraindicated for use in which species of animal? Canine Equine Feline Swine

Equine Lincosamides are contraindicated in horses, ruminants, rodents, and rabbits. These drugs can cause severe gastrointestinal effects in these species and can even result in death.

You are assisting with Coggins testing. What does this test for? Equine Infectious Anemia Equine Herpes Virus-2 Streptococcus equi Sarcoidosis

Equine Infectious Anemia The Coggins test checks for Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) antibodies in a horse's blood. Blood samples must be sent to a state-approved laboratory. This test is often needed before taking a horse to a show and whenever a horse is transported across state lines. EIA is a virus transmitted by the horsefly. Streptococcus equi causes Strangles.

Which of these cell types are all typically found in circulation? Lymphoblasts, erythrocytes, leukocytes Rubriblasts, thrombocytes, erythrocytes Leukocytes, thrombocytes, metamyelocytes Erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes

Erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes The cellular makeup of the blood includes erythrocytes (red blood cells), leukocytes (white blood cells), and thrombocytes (platelets)

Flunixin meglumine is sometimes used in horses, cattle, and pigs for which purpose? For constipation For tapeworm infestation For analgesia For acid reflux

For analgesia Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is a non-narcotic, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to provide analgesia and to reduce inflammation. It may also be used as a fever reducer.

A patient presents with rodenticide toxicity and is hemorrhaging. The doctor decides the animal needs a transfusion. What blood product is most likely to help stop the patient's bleeding? Packed red blood cells Stored plasma Fresh frozen plasma Any blood product will do

Fresh frozen plasma Rodenticide toxicity causes hemorrhage by inhibiting vitamin K1 clotting factors. Fresh frozen plasma provides coagulation factors. Fresh whole blood could be used as well because it also contains coagulation factors; however, this was not an option in this question. Packed red blood cells don't have any coagulation factors since the plasma has been removed. Stored plasma has plasma proteins only. Platelets or coagulation factors are no longer present at significant levels.

A conure breeder has been having difficulty with the eggs surviving. Dr. Smith has identified nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism and has asked you to dispense the prescriptions to the owner. What will you tell the owner. Give the prescribed amount of calcium supplement in fresh food as directed and make sunlight available a few hours per day. Give the prescribed amount of Vitamin A supplement in fresh food as directed and make sunlight available a few hours per day. Give the prescribed amount of iodine supplement in fresh food as directed and make sunlight available a few hours per day. Give the prescribed amount of selenium supplement in fresh food as directed and make sunlight available a few hours per day. Give the prescribed amount of Beta-carotene supplement in fresh food as directed and make sunlight available a few hours per day.

Give the prescribed amount of calcium supplement in fresh food as directed and make sunlight available a few hours per day. Acute hypocalcemia occurs in birds with nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism. Natural sunlight helps increase Vitamin D, which improves calcium absorption. Supplementation with calcium in the food provides a direct source of calcium.

Anticholinergics can be used in small mammals as part of a preanesthetic protocol. Of the following, which anticholinergic is the best choice for use in rabbits? Midazolam Glycopyrrolate Atropine Diazepam

Glycopyrrolate Both atropine and glycopyrrolate can be used in small mammals, but glycopyrrolate is preferred for use in rabbits. This is because the effect of atropine is less effective in this species because many animals have high levels of atropinesterase. Both diazepam and midazolam are benzodiazapines, not anticholinergics.

Which food consumed by humans can be highly toxic to dogs and cats? Bananas Carrots Grapes Spinach Tomatoes

Grapes Grapes and raisins can cause severe kidney problems/failure in some cats and dogs. This may be due to the high levels of oxalates they contain. Other toxic foods include macadamia nuts, onions, and chocolate. Coffee, alcohol, yeast dough, nutmeg, and sugarless gum containing xylitol can also cause severe toxicities.

Linear artifacts on a film are usually due to which of the following? Intensifying screen Film Collimator Cassette Processing machine Grid

Grid Linear artifacts can be normal gridlines or may be due to the beam not being appropriately centered on the grid. Alternatively, they may occur if the grid is otherwise out of position, upside-down, or damaged. Processing machine errors may cause streaks on the film which should not be confused with linear artifacts. Errors with the other components listed should not cause linear artifacts.

Which anatomic structure is the passageway for both the respiratory and digestive systems? Tongue Esophagus Bronchi Larynx Pharynx

Pharynx The pharynx leads from the oral and nasal cavities to the larynx and esophagus. It helps to get food to the esophagus and air to the lungs.

The surgeon clamps off a bleeding blood vessel. It could be said that the surgeon achieved which of the following? Hemostasis Fibrinolysis Hemolysis Coagulation

Hemostasis Hemostasis is to stop bleeding or hemorrhage. Coagulation is the complex process by which blood forms clots which has not yet necessarily occurred in this example. Fibrinolysis is the process of breaking down of clot. Hemolysis is the rupturing of erythrocytes.

The coffin bone is a layman's term for part of the anatomy of which species? Dog Sheep Horse Pig

Horse The coffin bone is the third phalanx (or distal phalanx/P3) in horses. It is also known as the "toe bone".

What clinical signs are associated with infection with Clostridium tetani in the horse? Increased anxiousness and sweating as a result of tachycardia and increased circulating epinephrine Generalized muscle paresis characterized by signs of generalized weakness and difficulty breathing Increased gastrointestinal motility characterized by increased passage of loose stool Hypersensitivity to sound and touch characterized by signs such as muscle spasms (stiff gait) and protrusion of the third eyelid

Hypersensitivity to sound and touch characterized by signs such as muscle spasms (stiff gait) and protrusion of the third eyelid Clostridium tetani causes muscle spasms as a result of the organism producing toxins that block normal inhibitory neurons. Classic clinical signs include hypersensitivity to sound and touch resulting in muscle rigidity (lockjaw) and protrusion of the third eyelid.

You have assisted with multiple biopsies on a pet. You are asked to package up the samples for submission. You have taken several samples including GI tract, liver, and skin. What is the best way to package these? In isopropyl alcohol enough to cover over the tissue In 0.9% saline with a 5:1 ration of saline to tissue In formalin with a 10:1 ratio of formalin to tissue In a sterile container with no additives

In formalin with a 10:1 ratio of formalin to tissue Formalin is used to preserve the integrity of the cells for biopsy. A 10:1 ratio of formalin to tissue is recommended.

Which species has ovaries that look like grape clusters? Horses Cows Pigs Sheep

Pigs In the pig the follicles and corpora lutea sit almost on the surface of the ovary giving the appearance of a cluster of grapes. Pigs are also litter-bearing and thus usually have more follicles.

Which of the following statements is true regarding radiography of the vertebrae? Normally, the intervertebral discs are more radiodense that the vertebral bones It is not possible to evaluate intervertebral disc spaces without myelography Intervertebral disc spaces appear narrower toward the center of the film and wider towards the end of the film Intervertebral disc spaces appear wider toward the center of the film and narrower towards the end of the film

Intervertebral disc spaces appear wider toward the center of the film and narrower towards the end of the film Due to divergence of the x-ray beam, intervertebral disc spaces will appear wider toward the center of the film and narrower towards the end of the film. This must be taken into account when evaluating the disc space on a vertebral film. A myelogram is useful for assessing the presence of spinal cord compression but does not improve the evaluation of intervertebral disc spaces. Intervertebral discs are much less dense than the bones unless they are abnormally mineralized.

An anthelmintic is used for treating which of the following? Mange Intestinal parasites Ticks Fleas

Intestinal parasites Anthelmintics are drugs used for expulsion of intestinal worms. Ivermectin, praziquantel, fenbendazole, pyrantel, etc. are a few examples of anthelmintics.

What does polyvalent mean when talking about a vaccine? It provides immunity for greater than 3 years It may be given to multiple species It has no adjuvant added It contains multiple antigens

It contains multiple antigens A polyvalent vaccine contains multiple antigens. The DHPPC-L vaccine is one example of a polyvalent vaccine and, as such, it contains antigens for distemper, hepatitis, parainfluenza, parvo, corona, and leptospirosis.

Why should an NSAID and a corticosteroid never be given together? It causes profound sedation It causes PU/PD It increases risk of serious GI ulceration It prevents absorption of nutrients from the intestine

It increases risk of serious GI ulceration Giving an NSAID and steroid together puts an animal at a very high risk for an ulcer which could perforate. This is when a hole is created in the intestine and intestinal contents leak into the abdomen, causing peritonitis. This is a very severe condition which can lead to death.

At which stage in the heartworm life cycle is the heartworm most susceptible to our routine preventives? Adult L1 L3 L2

L3 L3 larvae are reside within tissues of the dog or cat and are most susceptible to preventives. L1 and L2 larvae reside in the mosquito. Adult heartworms are much less susceptible to preventives and may take years to die with "slow-kill" methods.

Which vessel should be avoided when performing venipuncture in pigs? Tail vein Auricular vein Left jugular vein Right cranial vena cava

Left jugular vein The phrenic nerve is located near the left exterior jugular vein, so the left side of the neck in general should be avoided in pigs. The right anterior vena cava is a commonly used site to draw blood from pigs. The auricular vein can be used to draw up to 5 mLs of blood. The tail vein and the orbital sinus near the medial canthus of the eye are other sites that can be used to draw small quantities of blood in the pig.

A 10-year-old domestic short hair cat presents for facial excoriations. The cat is extremely itchy on its face. Which of the following medications may cause this side effect? Famotidine Methimazole Metoclopramide Metronidazole

Methimazole Methimazole (Tapazole) may cause intense facial pruritus as a side effect. This medication is used to treat hyperthyroidism.

You perform a Wood's lamp examination on a cat that has had hair loss over the bridge of his nose (see image). It causes a green fluorescence to appear. Which organism is likely the cause? Cryptococcus Coccidioides Microsporum canis Aspergillus Trichophyton

Microsporum canis In about 50% of ringworm cases caused by Microsporum canis, a Wood's lamp test will be positive. This is the only organism to cause a positive result.

Which anesthetic is short-acting, white-opaque in color, and can cause transient apnea on induction? Propofol Ketamine Thiopental Etomidate

Propofol Propofol is an opaque-white short-acting anesthetic or sedative for intravenous use and is often used for anesthetic induction or sedation for short procedures. It can cause respiratory depression or transient apnea, especially when given too quickly.

How is West Nile Virus transmitted? Through respiratory secretions Ingested in the environment Mosquito bite Bot fly bite

Mosquito bite The West Nile Virus is transmitted by mosquitoes which bite and infect birds. The virus amplifies in the birds as intermediate hosts. The birds are then bitten again by other mosquitoes that can now take the increased viral load; then they go on to infect other birds and many other animal species.

A dog owner is considering having a scheduled cesarean section for her dog and would like some more information regarding the risks associated with the procedure. Which of the following statements is TRUE? Performing a spay at the time of surgery is not recommended as there is a risk that the female will not display maternal instincts Performing a cesarean delivery will result in the dog being unable to have another pregnancy Performing a cesarean delivery will result in decreased milk production Performing a spay at the time of surgery does not affect milk production

Performing a spay at the time of surgery does not affect milk production It is important to be aware that performing a spay at the time of surgery does not have a detrimental effect on the female. There are no adverse effects on milk production or predictable unwanted behaviors. Similarly, there are no long-term negative effects of performing a cesarean delivery; however, there is a possibility of development of scar tissue at the site of a cesarean which may hinder the ability of a future embryo to attach at that specific location.

Ivermectin is effective against which organisms? Cestodes Trematodes Protozoa Nematodes

Nematodes Nematodes or roundworms are susceptible to ivermectin. Ivermectin has activity against ticks, mites, nematodes, and even lice.

What is the proper name for the "third eyelid"? Tympanic membrane Nictitating membrane Frenulum Ranula

Nictitating membrane The nictitating membrane is the "third eyelid". The tympanic membrane is the "ear drum". A frenulum is a fold of tissue that prevents movement (such as with a persistent frenulum in the bull regarding the penis). Palpebra is the proper term in general for eyelid. A ranula is a mucocele usually found under the tongue region.

While evaluating a post-operative patient, a small amount of serosanguinous fluid is noted oozing from the surgical incision. What is the best course of action? Notify the veterinarian Apply a bandage over the incision Start the patient on antibiotics Clean the incision with hydrogen peroxide

Notify the veterinarian The first thing you should do is notify the veterinarian in charge. It is possible that this is the beginning of an incisional dehiscence, and a veterinarian should be notified of the situation. Depending on the nature of the surgery as well as the health status of the patient, some mild serosanguinous discharge may be expected; however, this determination should be made by the attending veterinarian.

What is OSHA? Occupational Staff and Health Agency Obligatory Safety and Health Association Occupational Safety and Health Administration Occupational Safety and Health Association

Occupational Safety and Health Administration OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) is the main federal agency charged with the enforcement of safety and health legislation. They set standards for safety and practice, and veterinary services falls under their regulation.

Which of the following lymph nodes are not palpated peripherally? Prescapular Popliteal Perihilar Mandibular

Perihilar Above the heart is a triangular depression named the hilum, near which the perihilar lymph nodes are located. They are inside the chest and therefore not palpated peripherally.

In domestic animals, which of the following is true regarding inheritance of a trait that is coded by a recessive gene according to classical rules of inheritance? Offspring may display a recessive trait even if only one parent carries a gene for the trait Offspring may display a recessive trait even if neither parent displays the trait If one parent displays the recessive trait and one does not, up to 75% of the offspring should display the trait If both parents display the recessive trait, some offspring will show the trait but some will not

Offspring may display a recessive trait even if neither parent displays the trait Domestic animals have paired chromosomes and therefore inherit 2 alleles of each gene, one from the mother and one from the father. For classical rules of inheritance, a single gene can be dominant or recessive. If an individual has 2 copies of a recessive gene, it will show the recessive trait. If an individual has 2 copies of a dominant gene, it will show the dominant trait. In the event that an individual has one copy of a dominant gene and one copy of a recessive gene, it will show the dominant trait (the recessive gene is "masked" by the dominant gene). Typically, the dominant gene is indicated by a capital letter and the recessive gene is indicated by a lower-case letter. For this question, let's consider the trait of congenital deafness (h) which is recessive versus normal hearing (H) which is dominant. In order for an individual to show the phenotype of congenital deafness, it must have an hh genotype. An individual that has normal hearing could have either an Hh genotype or an HH genotype. In the correct answer to this question, it states that offspring may display a recessive trait even if neither parent displays the trait. It is possible that both parents could have normal hearing and have a Hh genotype. If both parents contribute the h gene to the offspring, it will display the recessive trait of congenital deafness. In the other choices: Offspring may display a recessive trait even if only one parent carries a gene for the trait - If only one parent carries the h gene, the offspring must receive the H gene from the other parent and will have normal hearing. If both parents display the recessive trait, some offspring will show the trait but some will not - If both parents display the recessive trait, they both must have the hh genotype and will each pass on the h gene to offspring; therefore, all offspring should show the recessive trait. If one parent displays the recessive trait and one does not, up to 75% of the offspring should display the trait - If one parent has the trait (has hh genotype) and one parent does not (has either Hh or HH genotype), the offspring will have a 50% chance of inheriting the trait (if

All of the following pieces of information legally must be present on a radiographic film EXCEPT for which of the following? Patient breed Name of practice Date of radiograph Name of patient and owner

Patient breed A radiograph is part of the legal medical record. As such, it is necessary to identify the patient it was taken from, the date of the exam, and the name of the practice. It is frequently helpful to use a marker to orient the radiograph or to identify which extremity is being examined. For film radiographs, frequently patient information is imprinted by the use of special graphite-impregnated tape where the information can be written and placed on the radiograph cassette or by a light flasher system that exposes printed patient information to the film. For digital radiographs, the patient information must be entered into the computer so that it is saved along with the digital radiograph. Additional patient information such as breed can be helpful but is not required.

Which of the following drugs is commonly given by intravenous injection to humanely euthanize small animals? Pentobarbital Ketamine Phenobarbital Cyanide Digoxin

Pentobarbital A concentrated solution of sodium pentobarbital is the most commonly used euthanasia solution in small animals. It is administered by IV bolus and results in rapid general CNS anesthesia followed by respiratory and cardiac arrest. This is a controlled drug classified as a barbiturate. Phenobarbital is a barbiturate used to control seizures and is given orally or by injection. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used in the treatment of certain types of heart disease due to its ability to improve myocardial contractility and decrease conduction impulses. Cyanide is a lethal toxin but is not a humane form of euthanasia. Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic typically used in combination with other drugs for anesthetic induction or analgesia.

Cats are recently known to have glucosuria intermittently as they age without the presence of diabetes mellitus. Glucosuria may also be seen with which other condition? Renal disease cardiomyopathy Feline Immunodeficiency Virus hemolytic anemia

Renal disease Hyperthyroidism and renal disease are the 2 other diseases that allow glucose leakage into the urine

You are assisting with a bone marrow aspirate on a dog with suspected neoplasia. You are asked to make slides to send to the laboratory with the samples the veterinarian is collecting. Which describes proper technique for this? Place a drop on the slide and place another slide on top in an up-and-down motion to press the cells firmly onto the slide Place a drop on the slide and place 1 drop of 0.9% saline onto the drop to dilute and let dry Place a drop on one end of the slide, tilt slightly and make a pull smear Place a drop on the slide but do not make a pull smear or press the cells, just let air dry as-is

Place a drop on one end of the slide, tilt slightly and make a pull smear Pull smears should be made of bone marrow samples. The pull smear should be in a light fashion as to spread the fluid but not to crush the samples. The sample should be dried immediately to preserve integrity of the cells. A blow dryer can assist by quickening drying time. A stain of one of the slides should be performed to make sure the sample appears adequate before submission.

You are working in the emergency clinic and are assisting with treating a dog that has been hit by a car. You are asked to set up for a blood transfusion, and the doctor would like you to give whole blood. A whole blood transfusion would include which of the following components? White blood cells and red blood cells only Plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets Platelets, plasma, and red blood cells Plasma and red blood cells only

Plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets The correct answer is plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets (everything that is found in whole blood).

Which blood cells play an important role in clotting? Metamyelocytes Leukocytes Platelets Erythrocytes

Platelets When a wound occurs, platelets act with fibrin to form a clot and stop bleeding. A metamyelocyte is a very immature white blood cell (that will eventually become a band) and is typically only seen in the bone marrow.

Which breed does not typically shed its haircoat? Golden retriever Poodle Labrador Pug

Poodle Poodles do not typically shed hair. They may lose hair during chemotherapy treatments or with certain endocrine diseases.

What are the segments of a tapeworm that are sometimes seen in canine feces called? Rostellums Cysticercoids Proglottids Scolex

Proglottids The progottids are the individual segments in a long chain that make up most of the tapeworm. When mature, each proglottid segment contains male and female reproductive organs; reproduction takes place, and eggs develop in each segment.

Which of the following breeds would be considered brachycephalic? Pug Chihuahua Dachshund Golden Retriever Greyhound

Pug A brachycephalic skull is relatively broad and short. Because of their conformation, dogs of this type more susceptible to respiratory problems. "Brachycephalic Airway Syndrome" includes elongated soft palate, everted laryngeal saccules, and stenotic nares (narrow nostrils). These animals are also more prone to ocular problems. The most common (and visually obvious) dogs in this class include the Pug, Shih Tzu, Bull dog, Pekingese, Boston terrier, and Cavalier King Charles spaniel.

Oxygenated blood returning from the lungs travels in which blood vessel? Vena cava Aorta Pulmonary artery Pulmonary vein

Pulmonary vein Vessels that contain blood moving toward the heart are known as veins despite their oxygenation status. The pulmonary vein is responsible for returning oxygenated blood to the heart (via the left atrium) for distribution the rest of the body. The pulmonary artery contains deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle that is moving toward the lungs for oxygenation.

Which species does not have canine teeth? Rabbits Cows Horses Llamas

Rabbits Rabbits have four incisors-two on the top and two on the bottom. Right behind the top incisor teeth are two small peg-like teeth called auxiliary incisors or "peg teeth". Rabbits have cheek teeth that they use to grind their food. These are the 6 upper premolars, the 4 lower premolars, 6 upper molars and 6 lower molars (and no canines). Cows have 2 lower canines. Horses and llamas both have 4 canine teeth (2 upper and 2 lower).

Which bone is adjacent to the ulna? Scapula Radius Tibia Femur

Radius The radius is adjacent to the ulna. The femur and tibia are bones of the hind limb.

You are instructed to give a medication which you are told is an antipyretic. What will this medication do? Prevent vomiting Provide sedation Reduce fever Reduce gastric acid

Reduce fever Anti-pyretics reduce fever. An example of an anti-pyretic medication is ketofen (Ketoprofen) which is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory. The term pyrexia means fever. An example of an acid reducer (antacid) would be famotidine (Pepcid AC). A medication which would prevent vomiting would be an antiemetic. Examples of this include maropitant (Cerenia) or metoclopramide (Reglan). Reglan also has upper GI pro-kinetic properties.

Which of the following represents the source of the most radiation exposure to a veterinary technician who is restraining a cat for a radiograph, taking the exposure, and processing the film? Radiation from standing too close to the cathode Scatter radiation from the collimator housing Radiation from the radiograph processing equipment Scatter from the patient area

Scatter from the patient area If good technique is practiced (i.e. no part of the technician is inside the primary beam), there should be no exposure to the technician from the primary beam. Most of the radiation exposure will actually come from scattered X-rays that interact with the patient's tissue and then go in another direction, potentially towards the technician. There is a much smaller amount of scatter radiation that may come off of the collimator, and no radiation should be emitted from radiograph processing equipment. The 3 important principles to minimize radiation exposure are to maximize distance from the radiation source, decrease the time of exposure to radiation whenever possible, and to use equipment to shield personnel from radiation.

A red blood cell fragment, as might be seen from shearing of the cell by trauma in an animal with disseminated intravascular coagulopathy, is known as what? Echinocyte Keratocyte Spherocyte Schistocyte Acanthocyte

Schistocyte A schistocyte is a red blood cell fragment that is usually formed due to shearing from intravascular trauma; they are seen in cases of DIC or vascular neoplasms such as hemangiosarcoma. An acanthocyte is a red blood cell with surface projections that are seen mainly in animals with altered lipid metabolism or liver disease. An echinocyte is a red blood cell with uniform blunt projections that are usually artifacts from blood drying but may also be seen with some diseases. A keratocyte is a red blood cell that appears to contain a vacuole; they are sometimes called blister cells and may occur from intravascular trauma. A spherocyte is a dark-staining red blood cell with no central pallor that usually occurs from partial phagocytosis of the cell seen with immune-mediated destruction.

If a veterinarian says an animal has pruritus, which of the following clinical signs is the animal likely displaying? Scratching Coughing Diarrhea and vomiting Polyuria and polydipsia Lethargy

Scratching Pruritus is the term indicating that an animal is itchy. Scratching is the most common sign of pruritus. Others might include rubbing or head shaking, depending on the location of the pruritus.

Which of the following arrhythmias is common in horses and can be alleviated by exercise? Ventricular Fibrillation Third degree AV block Atrial Fibrillation Second degree AV block

Second degree AV block Second degree AV block is a very common arrhythmia in adult horses as a result of high vagal tone. This arrhythmia is "regularly irregular" and often alleviates with exercise. It is more common in athletic horses. Atrial fibrillation is an irregular arrhythmia and a more serious condition that occurs when the SA node isn't firing properly. Electrocardiogram is the best way to determine atrial fibrillation by identifying a lack of p waves. It is treated with Quinidine, an antiarrhythmic. Ventricular fibrillation is a severely abnormal heart rhythm that is most often identified in patients that have undergone cardiac arrest. Third degree AV block, or complete heart block, is rare in horses and usually associated with degenerative or inflammatory changes in the heart. Horses with this condition usually have exercise intolerance or syncope.

Of the following list of retractors which one is not self-retaining? Balfour retractor Weitlaner retractor Gelpis retractor Senn Rake retractor

Senn Rake retractor The Senn Rake retractor is not self-retaining and is considered a hand-held retractor. Its main use is for retracting small muscle bellies, ligaments, and tendons. Other examples of hand-held retractors include the Army-Navy, Myerding, and malleable retractors.

Which species is most susceptible to copper toxicity due to accumulation of copper in the liver from the diet? Sheep Horses Pigs Cattle Dogs

Sheep Sheep accumulate copper from their diet in the liver. During times of stress, this copper can be released from the liver and lead to a hemolytic crisis.

The vomeronasal organ is closely associated with which sense? Balance Smell Taste Sight

Smell The vomeronasal organ is associated with olfaction, or smell. The Flehmen response sometimes seen in horses occurs when the horse extends its upper lip, facilitating exposure of this organ to better detect smells or pheromones.

Activated charcoal would be used for which of the following? Thermal skin burns Foreign body ingestion Snail bait ingestion Fluoroscopy

Snail bait ingestion Activated charcoal is a black liquid administered orally to prevent absorption of toxins through the gastrointestinal tract. It is often used after induction of emesis or after gastric lavage is performed.

It is a very busy day at the clinic. Multiple emergencies walk in all at the same time. Choose the order in which the following cases should be seen. Stranguria, status epilepticus, dyspnea, fracture, abscess, cervical pain Dyspnea, fracture, status epilepticus, cervical pain, abscess, stranguria Status epilepticus, dyspnea, fracture, stranguria, cervical pain, abscess Dyspnea, status epilepticus, stranguria, cervical pain, fracture, abscess

Status epilepticus, dyspnea, fracture, stranguria, cervical pain, abscess In a perfect situation both the seizuring pet and the pet with difficulty breathing would be treated immediately. Sometimes this may not be possible and triage is necessary. Status epilepticus is a state of seizuring that is continuous. This is life-threatening, and the seizures must be stopped immediately or permanent brain and organ damage can occur. Dyspnea or difficulty breathing is always a top priority emergency. The dyspneic animal should be assessed and placed on oxygen while the seizuring dog is being treated. Fractures, while painful, are not immediately life-threatening as long as there is no bleeding vessel that needs to be controlled, which is sometimes the case with an open fracture. Straining to urinate is not usually life-threatening unless it is a "blocked cat", or urethral obstruction. If this were a blocked cat, it should be seen before the fracture. Neck pain and abscesses are not life-threatening and should be seen last if the patients are stable.

What is the best way to administer long-term medications to the eye of a horse with a severe corneal ulcer? Sub-conjunctival injection Sedation Manual direct application of the medication Subpalpebral lavage system

Subpalpebral lavage system The horse has very strong palpebrae (eyelids) that tend to spasm and close when they are manually manipulated, especially if the eye is painful from a corneal ulcer. The subpalpebral lavage system is placed under the eyelid (not in contact with the cornea) and a long tube extends to the withers. This allows the frequent administration of medications without touching the eye. This is the best method if long term eye medications are necessary.

The mucin clot test can be used when evaluating which fluid type? Synovial fluid Peritoneal fluid Serum Cerebrospinal fluid

Synovial fluid The mucin clot test is performed on synovial fluid. Mucin is a component of synovial fluid that will form a clot when mixed with acetic acid. The properties of the resulting clot reflect the amount of hyaluronic acid present and thus the quality of the synovial fluid. A large, ropy clot in a clear fluid is a good clot, while a cloudy solution, a friable or soft clot, or absence of a clot reflects a poor quality.

Parrots have the unique ability to mimic sound. What anatomical structure in birds is responsible for producing sound? Cloaca Syrinx Larynx Choana

Syrinx The syrinx is considered to be the voice box of parrots. They don't have a larynx, like mammals. The syrinx is located between the base of the tongue and the trachea. The choana is the slit-like opening in the roof of the bird's mouth that connects to the sinus cavity in the skull. The cloaca is the opening where the feces, urine, and reproductive activity exit the body.

A cat presents in respiratory distress and displays very rapid and shallow breathing. Which of the following is an accurate description of this breathing pattern? Agonal Tachycardic Obstructive Tachypneic

Tachypneic Tachypnea is rapid breathing. Tachycardia is a rapid heart rate. Agonal breathing is characterized by shallow, slow, irregular inspirations followed by irregular pauses. Obstructive breathing is characterized by a slow inspiratory phase followed by a rapid expiratory phase and can sometimes have respiratory noise (i.e. stertor) associated with breathing.

A puppy presents for his caudectomy procedure. What is being performed? Soft palate repair Dewclaw removal Testicle removal Tail removal

Tail removal Caudectomy is the removal of an animal's tail. Tail "docking" and tail amputation are caudectomy procedures

A patient has sustained a burn to the skin corresponding to the area where the electrocautery ground plate had been placed. What is the most likely reason this occurred? The electrocautery unit was inadvertently switched to bipolar mode The power level was too high The surgeon used the cut mode for over 30 seconds The ground plate had poor contact with the patient's skin

The ground plate had poor contact with the patient's skin Poor contact between the ground plate and the skin can result in a burn to the patient. To reduce this risk, conductive gel is spread along the ground plate to help improve the level of contact with the patient's skin. Switching to bipolar mode by accident will result in an inability to use the monopolar hand piece but should not cause a burn. Setting the power level too high may cause excessive tissue trauma to the region where the electrocautery is being used, but this will not affect the interface between the skin and the ground plate. Keeping the cut mode activated for more than the given period of time has no impact on the ground plate-skin interface.

What device or instrument is typically used to help diagnose glaucoma? Schirmer Tear Test Ophthalmoscope Slit lamp Tonometer

Tonometer The tonometer (Tonopen) is used to measure intraocular pressures. Glaucoma is the condition of raised intraocular pressures. Normal eye pressures for dogs is typically between 10-20 and for cats 10-25 but these must be interpreted in light of clinical symptoms. Eye pressures lower than 10 can be caused by uveitis (inflammation in the eye).

Which small animal disease has been implicated as a specific danger to pregnant women? Coccidiosis Clostridium Toxoplasmosis Camylobacter

Toxoplasmosis The Toxoplasmosis tachyzoites can migrate transplacentally and harm the fetus. Transmission can occur by eating undercooked meat or by inadvertently ingesting oocytes from cat feces. Therefore, it is advised that pregnant women not clean litter boxes, or if they must, wear personal protective equipment while doing so.

If a disease is zoonotic, what does this imply? Host-specific Not contagious Transmissible from animals to people Your Answer Transmissible between animals but not to people

Transmissible between animals but not to people A zoonotic disease is an infectious disease in animals that can be transmitted to people.

You are attempting to give an intra-jugular injection to a horse and insert the needle to the hub. Blood is forcefully pulsating and ejecting from the needle. What is the most likely explanation? You are in the carotid artery The horse has hypertension The vein is spasming, and this is normal; it is okay to give the medication This is normal when injecting medication into the jugular of a horse

You are in the carotid artery This is typical of insertion into an artery. If this occurs, the needle should be removed immediately and pressure placed on the site for several minutes to assure hemostasis.

Praziquantel belongs to which of the following classes of drugs? anthelmintic, antibiotic antibiotic, antiparasitic antiparasitic, anthelmintic vermifuge, antibiotic anthelmintic, vermifuge

antiparasitic, anthelmintic Praziquantel (Droncit) is a common anthelmintic/antiparasitic drug used for treatment of a variety of internal parasites such as tapeworm Antiparasitic is a wider type of drug covering several types of parasites. Anthelmintic specifically covers helminths such as roundworms, tapeworms, and flukes. Antibiotics may be used with parasitics if there are indications of bacterial infections but are specific to bacteria. Vermifuge is another name for an anthelmintic.

The veterinarian gently supports a canine patient with hindlimb weakness and turns a rear paw over so that the dorsal aspect is touching the ground. What is the veterinarian testing? withdrawal reflex conscious proprioception patellar reflex deep pain

conscious proprioception Dogs with normal neurological function should quickly flip their paw back over during this test. This test is used to detect spinal cord dysfunction.