Final Exam
Muscle spindle cells are sensor fibers in the muscle belly that monitor changes in length A - True B - False
A - True
Poor nutrition is thought to be a perpetuating factor of trigger point formation A - True B - False
A - True
Most of an athlete's time is spent in training and conditioning A - True B - False
A - True
What is a condition that is indicated for cold? A - Pregnancy B - Bursitis C - Cancer D - Ischemia
B - Bursitis
The brachial plexus arises from A - C1-C8 B - C5-T1 C - C5-C8 D - C1 - nuchal ligament
B - C5-T1
When massaging the face, it is ok to do some extractions (pop pimples/blackheads) A - True B - False
B - False
____________ make up hematocrit A - plasma B - Formed Elements
B - Formed Elements
Which landmark, located at the center of the occiput serves as the attachment site for the ligamentum nuchae? A - Superior nuchal line B - Mastoid Process C - External occipital protuberance D - Inferior nuchal line
C - External occipital protuberance
What is the main purpose of a Code of Ethics A - To satisfy Licensure Laws B - To impress clients C - To provide safe and comfortable parameters for a safe and comfortable client/therapist relationship D - To keep the massage board happy
C - To provide safe and comfortable parameters for a safe and comfortable client/therapist relationship
Intoxication is a _______________ contraindication A - Medical B - Local C - Total D - Regional
C - Total
When palpating the client, you are A - Diagnosing the problem B - Moving the joint into full range of motion. C - Touching them in a way that is pleasant to them, while gathering information. D - Repositioning them on the table
C - Touching them in a way that is pleasant for them, while gathering information
The three Dosha types are A - Veda, Prana, Kapha B - Prakriti, Kapha, Vata C - Vata, Pitta, Kapha D - Vita, Prana, Kapha
C - Vata, Pitta, Kapha
What is convection A - When a variable temperature is transferred from one object to another through direct contact. The primary way hydrotherapy is used. B - When energy is transformed from one type to another: for example, electricity in a light bulb is transformed into heat and light. C - When temperatures are transferred via moving liquids or gasses. D - None of these answers
C - When temperatures are transferred via moving liquids or gasses.
You can massage a person with cancer A - 6 months after chemotherapy B - 9 months after surgery C - When the doctor prescribes it, and you have advanced training D - Anytime. Cancer is not contraindicated for massage
C - When the doctor prescribes it, and you have advanced training
Which bone forms the anterior aspect of the cheekbone and serves as an attachment site for the masseter? A - Mandible B - Temporal C - Zygomatic D - Maxilla
C - Zygomatic
Which two bones are considered part of the pelvis, vertebral column and axial skeleton? A - Ilium and ischium B - Ilium and sacrum C - Pubis and ischium D - Sacrum and coccyx
D - Sacrum and coccyx
What is the insertion of the levator scapula A - Lesser tubercle B - Posterior greater tubercle C - Lateral greater tubercle D - Superior angle of scapula
D - Superior angle of the scapula
The pituitary regulates all the following EXCEPT A - adrenal cortex B - adrenal medulla C - ovaries D - thyroid
NOT OVARIES (A&P QUIZ 3 #12)
Fosters faster healing of strained muscles and sprained ligaments, reduces pain and swelling, reduces formation of excessive scar tissue. A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
Physical Benefit
Facilitates local vasodilation/blood flow A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical Benefit
Helps relieve muscle tension and stiffness A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical Benefit
Promotes deeper and easier breathing A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical Benefit
Provides greater joint flexibility and range of motion A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical Benefit
Strengthens the immune system A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical Benefit
Helps relieve stress and aids relaxation A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical Benefits
Enhances athletic performance, treats injuries caused during sports or work A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical benefit
Enhances the health and nourishment of skin A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical benefit
Reduces muscle spasms A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical benefit
Rehabilitation post-operative A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical benefit
_________________ make up 55% of blood A - plasma B - Formed Elements
A - Plasma
Helps relieve mental stress A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
B - Mental/Emotional benefit
The mastoid process and zygomatic arch are both landmarks on which cranial bone? A - Parietal B - Zygomatic C - Temporal D - Frontal
C - Temporal
Oxygen poor blood is returned to the heart by the ____________ A - vena cava B - aorta
A - vena cava
The type of membrane found in joints is called A - cutaneous B - serous C - synovial D - mucous
C - synovial
What is the origination of the levator scapula A - Superior angle B - Superior notch C - C7 - T5 D - C1 - C4
D - C1 - C4
What is the origination of rhomboid minor A - T1 & T2 B - C6 & C7 C - T2 to T5 D - C7 & T1
D - C7 & T1
The meninges include A - pia mater B - dura mater C - spinal dura mater D - all of these
D - all of these
A careful and sensitive combination of our non-verbal and verbal communication can lead to A - rapport B - A comfortable feeling with a client C - The speaker being more clearly understood D - All of these answers
D - all of these answers
Examples of eccentric contractions include A - slowing or braking movements B - increase in joint angle C - controlled lowering or release of weight D - all of these answers
D - all of these answers
What bone articulates with the tibia and fibula A - Femur B - Malleolus C - Talus D - Navicular
NOT A - m/s quiz 4 #33
Semimembranosus is deep to which muscle? A - Vastus medialis B - Biceps femoris C - Adductor magnus D - Semitendinosis
NOT A m/s quiz 4 # 20
Which of the following is NOT a unique property of muscle tissue A - Contractibility B - Fatigability C - Extensibility D - Excitability
B - Fatigability
A ____________ goes deeper than a ____________ A - Sulcus, Fissure B - Fissure, Sulcus
B - Fissure, Sulcus
When considering the pace of a massage and how many strokes you do, "Less is______" A - More B - not the best C - Less is being lazy D - All answers are correct
A- more
The dorsal root ganglia (DRG) are associated with A - Motor B - Sensory
B - Sensory
Which is NOT a level of body organization A - System B - Organ C - Chemical D - Nutritional
D - Nutritional
Trigger point therapy and myo-fascial release approaches have been studied extensively through meta-analytical research, and are absolutely proven by scientific evidence. A - True B - False
B - False
Weakness and fatigue are terms that mean the same thing A - True B - False
B - False
You can speed up the recovery time of a hematoma if you massage directly on it A - True B - False
B - False
What has more sensory nerve receptors? A - Muscles B - Fascia C - Tendons D - Ligaments
B - Fascia
______________ literally means coiling like a snake A - Enlightenment B - Kundalini C - Brahmand D - Slinky-dink
B - Kundalini
What are names of the triceps brachii heads A - Long head, short head, medial head B - Long head, lateral head, medial head C - Long head, short head D - First head, second head, third head
B - Long head, lateral head, medial head
Ribosomes A - are powerhouses B - synthesizes proteins C - are micro canals D - are loose and ordinary E - are layers of compact bone
B - synthesizes proteins
Massage therapy is healthcare A - False B - True
B - true
With your arm and forearm down to your side in anatomical position, the shoulder is indicating which of the following shoulder positions A - Flexion B - Abduction C - Extension D - Supination
C - Extension
The sum of all the costs that are necessary to begin your business and develop it into a profit making entity are called A - Overhead expenses B - Liabilities C - Start-up expenses D - Net equity
C - Start-up expenses
The tendon of which muscle of the forearm does not pass through the carpal tunnel A - Flexor digitorum superficialis B - Flexor digitorum profundus C - Flexor pollicis longus D - Palmar longus
D - Palmaris longus
In anatomical position, you flex the elbow and rotate the palm downward, what is that movement? A - Supination B - Medial Rotation C - Adduction D - Pronation
D - Pronation
Which junction can be found just medial and inferior to the PSIS? A - Pubic symphysis B - Coxofemoral joint C - Lumbosacral joint D - Sacroiliac joint
D - Sacroiliac joint
What is the origin of the omohyoid muscle? A - !st rib B - Inferior aspect of hyoid bone C - Clavicle D - Superior angle of scapula
D - Superior angle of the scapula
`All of the following are muscles of the rotator cuff, except A - Subscapularis B - Supraspinatus C - Infraspinatus D - Teres Major
D - Teres Major
What is the trough like space between the spinous processes and transverse processes of the spine? A - Transverse foramen B - Superior facet C - Vertebral foramen D - Lamina Groove
D - Lamina Groove
What is the name of the body landmark immediately above the lateral condyle of the humerus A - Medial supracondular ridge B - Lateral supracondular ridge C - Medial epicondyle D - Lateral epicondyle
D - Lateral epicondyle
Which of the following muscles is a synergist to teres major A - Teres minor B - Infraspinatus C - Pectoralis minor D - Latissimus dorsi
D - Latissimus dorsi
In the event that you are sued, and found responsible for financial damages, you should have the following A - National Certification B - State Licence C - Prior Medical records from client's physician D - Liability Insurance
D - Liability Insurance
In which facial bones do the upper teeth argticulate? A - Nasal B - Temporal C - Zygomatic D - Maxilla
D - Macilla
Which of the following immune cells help provide an aggressive response to a repeated pathogenic exposure A - Helper T B - Natural Killer C - B lymphocyte D - Memory T
D - Memory T
To locate the insertion of the temporalis, you must ask your partner to perform what action? A - Open mouth fully B - Clench and relax the jaw C - Protract the mandible D - Laterally deviate the mandible
A - Open mouth fully
Which cranial bones join at the sagittal suture? A - Parietal B - Sphenoid C - Temporal D - Frontal
A - Parietal
The __________ lobe is superior to the __________ lobe A - Parietal, Temporal B - Temporal, Parietal
A - Parietal, Temporal
Which of the following muscles is superficial to the pectoralis minor? A - Pectoralis major B - External oblique C - Subscapularis D - External intercostals
A - Pectoralis major
Alleviates discomfort during pregnancy A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical Benefit
Helps relieve tension-related headaches and effects of eye-strain A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical Benefit
Improves posture A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical Benefit
Reduces Blood Pressure A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical Benefit
Rehabilitation after injury A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical Benefit
Treats musculoskeletal problems A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
A - Physical Benefit
What is the position called when a client is face down on the massage table? A - Prone B - Supine C - Side Lying D - Down
A - Prone
The strongest form of research is Meta Analysis which is conducted by an expert or experts and is a culmination of quantitative and qualitative research. A - True B - False
A - True
Using I statements may help diffuse a potential confrontation A - True B - False
A - True
When a person repeatedly violates your boundaries, it is important to work with your supervisor, a trusted colleague, and your mentor to decide whether to terminate your client A - True B - False
A - True
When doing massage on the face, you should first ask the client if they want to have their face addressed, and if so, ask them if they have any cream allergies or preferences, and if they wear contacts. A - True B - False
A - True
When providing passive range of motion, move slowly and with great care to the point of resistance A - True B - False
A - True
While conducting research on the effects of massage on a particular pathology, it is acceptable to read documents from other professions (ie. medical records, physical therapy studies) to get a broader understanding. A - True B - False
A - True
Body language is very important for effective communication skills A - True B - False
A - Trued
An infection caused by bacteria that usually affects the lungs but can invade the other body system is A - Tuberculosis B - Emphysema C - Cystic fibrosis D - Cerebral palsy
A - Tuberculosis
Which of the following is the sole muscle of the lateral thigh? A- Vastus lateralis B - Rectus Femoris C - Semitendinosus D - Gracilis
A - Vastus lateralis
Which of these landmarks of the scapula is farthest away from the armpit A - Vertebral border B - Axillary border C - Lateral border D - Medial edge
A - Vertebral border
Somatization is A - When a psychological conflict or trauma is experienced as a physical symptom or problem in the body B - When a person treats a psychological problem with medications C - An influential massage modality for the treatment of anxiety D - One of Rogerian "necessary and sufficient" conditions
A - When a psychological conflict or trauma is experienced as a physical symptom or problem in the body
Irrigation of body cavities internally is something you can easily integrate into your practice and is within your scope of practice A - True B - False
B - False
It does not matter if you don't like your client, you MUST massage every client regardless of your feelings. A - True B - False
B - False
Most client's don't mind if you get some cream in their hair A - True B - False
B - False
Peer review is only for editing and has no significance in the scientific community A - True B - False
B - False
Reduction of cellulite is an AMTA benefit of massage/ A - True B - False
B - False
Reiki is a form of massage A - True B - False
B - False
Sports massage is an alternative to medical care A - True B - False
B - False
Sports massage is an effective way to remove toxins from the body A - True B - False
B - False
The Alexander Technique, Reiki, Feldenkrais, and Trager are all forms of postural re-education A - True B - False
B - False
The body language of arms folded across the chest is always a sign of defensiveness and anger A - True B - False
B - False
The environment does not impact our ability to listen A - True B - False
B - False
The golgi tendon organ respond to tension and protect by spasm A - True B - False
B - False
What are the actions of gastrocnemius A - Flex the knee, Dorsiflex the ankle B - Flex the knee, plantar flex the ankle C - Extend the knee, plantar flex the ankle D - Extend the knee, dorsiflex the ankle
B - Flex the knee, plantar flex the ankle
What is the name of the joint where the humerus and scapula meet A - Acromioclavicular B - Gelnohumeral C - Ulnarhumeral D - Sternoclavicular
B - Glenohumeral
Effleurage is also known as A - Tapotement strokes B - Gliding strokes C - Friction strokes D - Kneading strokes
B - Gliding strokes
Effleurage is also known as A - Tapotement strokes B - Gliding strokes C - Friction strokes D - Kneading strokes
B - Gliding strokes
How does the therapist provide depth of pressure? A - Muscle strength B - Gravity and proper body mechanics C - Always use the elbow D - None of these answers are correct
B - Gravity and body mechanics
____________ is a type of mind/body medicine that used as a complementary form of treatment where the practitioner is teaching a method of relaxation to the client A - Chakras B - Guided Visualizations C - Rolfing D - Fasting
B - Guided Visualization
Which if the following is NOT in the NCBTMB Code of Ethics A - Accurately inform clients, other health care practitioners, and the public of the scope and limitations of your practice B - Insure yourself with over $1 million dollars in liability insurance C - Provide treatment only where there is reasonable expectation that it will be advantageous to the client D - Conduct your business and professional activities with honesty and integrity and respect the inherent worth of all persons
B - Insure yourself with over $1 million dollars in liability insurance
The most prominent cell type in the epidermis is A - Langerhans cells B - Keratinocytes C - Melanocytes D - Fibrocytes
B - Keratinocytes
Which is the insertion of the quadratus lumbourm A - Transverse processes of the 2nd to 4th rib B - Last rib, transverse processes of the 1st to 4th lumbar vertebrae C - Spinous processes of 1st to 4th lumbar vertebrae D - Last rib, spinous processes of 1st to 4th lumbar vertebrae
B - Last rib, transverse processes of the 1st to 4th lumbar vertebrae
Which is an example of a splinting cycle? A - Muscle cells shrinking due to overuse B - Limiting the movement of your neck after whiplash C - Soreness in the forearms after playing tennis D - Crossing your legs when sitting down
B - Limiting the movement of your neck after whiplash
A fresh tattoo is a ____________ contraindication A - Medical B - Local C - Total D - Regional
B - Local
In general, the origin of the flexor group can be found on or near which body landmark? A - Head of the radius B - Medial epicondyle of the humerus C - Head of the ulna D - Lateral epicondyle of humerus
B - Medial epicondyle of humerus
Promotes a relaxed state of mental alertness A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
B - Mental/Emotional Benefit
Enhances capacity for calm thinking and creativity A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
B - Mental/Emotional benefit
Fosters peace of mind A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
B - Mental/Emotional benefit
Reduces levels of anxiety A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
B - Mental/Emotional benefit
Satisfies needs for caring nurturing touch A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
B - Mental/Emotional benefit
Where in a research study will you find a description of the experiment? A - Introduction B - Methods C - Results D - Discussion
B - Methods
Which type of joint is the tibiofemoral joint? A - Ball and socket B - Modified hinge C - Elipsoid D - Hinge
B - Modified hinge
What is the most common location of muscle injury A - Belly of the muscle B - musculo-tendonous junction C - ostio-tendonous junction D - oteo-ligamentous junction
B - musculo-tendounous junction
Mitochondria are A - synthesizing proteins B - powerhouses of the cell C - loose and ordinary D - layers of compact bone E - micro canals
B - powerhouses of the cell
A practicing massage therapist must comply with which of the following regulations A - State laws only, they supersede local requirements B - Local regulations only, they supersede state requirements C - State and local regulations D - National certifying organizations standards of practice only, they are always more restrictive than state/local regulations
C - State and local regulations
Which of the following joints separates the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton A - Glenohumeral B - Acromioclavicular C - Sternoclavicular D - Ulnarhumeral
C - Sternoclavicular
In anatomical position, you flex your elbow, which of the following positions is indicated A - Medial Rotation B - Abduction C - Supination D - Pronation
C - Supination
Which of the following muscles insert on the vertebral border of the scapula, and will protract the scapula A - Rhomboids B - Levator scapula C - Serratus anterior D - Subscapularis
C - Serratus anterior
Based on the NCBTMB Code of Ethics, which is not a reason for draping A - Comfort B - Safety C - Sincere Commitment D - Privacy
C - Sincere Commitment
Which common action could your partner perform to strongly contract his/her gastrocnemius and soleus A - Stand on the back of his/her heels B - March in place C - Stand on his/her toes D - Invert and evert his/her foot
C - Stand on his/her toes
What is the name of the ankle joint and the bones it consists of? A - Distal tibeofemoral / tibia, fibula B - Distal tibeofibular / tibia, fibula, calcaneus C - Talocrural / tibia, fibula, talus D - Talocrural / talus, calcaneus, tibia
C - Talocrual / tibia, fibula, talus
The broad origin of which muscle originates on the frontal, temporal and parietal bones? A - Occipitofrontalis B - Masseter C - Temporalis D - Platysma
C - Temporalis
The coronoid process serves as an attachment site for which muscle? A - Masseter B - Lateral pterygoid C - Temporalis D - Biceps brachii
C - Temporalis
The causative agent for scabies lesions is A - Easily visible insects that inhabit the scalp B - The same virus that causes genital herpes C - A parasitic worm that burrows under the skin D - Microscopic mites that burrow under the skin
D - Microscopic mites that burrow under the skin
Name the plane that dissects the body in tow equal right and left halves A - Coronal B - Transverse C - Sagittal D - Mid Sagittal
D - Mid Sagittal
Taking a client's history and providing a physical assessment to develop a massage care plan is called A - Brochure and policy statement B - Charting C - Release of Information D - Needs Assessment
D - Needs Assessment
What is the name of the hole in the oz coxae/coxal bone? A - Foramen magnum B - Adductor hiatus C - Acetabulum D 0 Obturator foramen
D - Obturator foreamen
Which of the following descriptions are related to the concepts of dual relationships A - Charging accordingly to financial ability B - Working under multiple licensures C - Use many forms of bodywork on a client D - Overlapping of professional and social roles
D - Overlapping of professional and social roles
What is the name of the fleshy mound that runs from the area of the medial carpals to the base of the digiti minimi A - Palmar aponeurosis B - Flexor retinaculum C - Thenar eminence D - Hypothenar eminence
D - Hypothenar eminence
All of the following muscles attach to the occiput except A - Longissimus B - Splenius capitis C - Trapizus D - Iliocostalis
D - Iliocostalis
Which of the following make-up the oz coxae/coxal bone? A - Pubis, sacrum & coccyx B - Ilium, sacrum & coccyx C - Ilium, pubis & sacrum D - Illium, ischium & pubis
D - Ilium, ischium & pubisq
What connective tissue structure spans between the long bones of the forearm and lower leg to help stabilize the bones? A - Retinaculum B - Intermuscular septum C - Antebrachial fascia D - Interosseous membrane
D - Interosseous membrane
How does continuing education support professional ethics A - It promotes one's business B - It tests one's commitment to massage therapy C - It is required for membership in professional organizations D - It promotes a higher standard in our profession
D - It promotes a higher standard in our profession
Which of the following is NOT a neurotransmitter A - Norepinephrine B - Serotonin C - Acetylcholine D - Keratin
D - Keratin
One of many blood tests is hematocrit. It is the A - Abundance of leukocytes in the blood B - Concentration of sugar in the blood C - Level of circulating antibodies D - Percentage of packed RBC's by volume
D - Percentage of packed RBC's by volume
A massage therapist presses and rolls muscles under her hands. What massage stroke is this? A - Friction B - Vibration C - Effleurage D - Pettrisage
D - Pettrisage
All of the following originate on the femur except A - Vastus Medialis B - Vastus lateralis C - Vastus Intermedius D - Piriformis
D - Piriformis
What is the anatomical term for the area of the body posterior to the knee? A - Cubital B - Patellar C - Sural D - Popliteal
D - Popliteal
Which is the origin of the rectus abdoinis A - Anterior superior iliac spine B - Iliac crest C - Costal cartilage of ribs 5,6, & 7 D - Pubic crest, pubic symphysis
D - Pubic crest, pubic symphysis
What is the longest muscle in the body? A - Rectus femoris B - Biceps femoris C - Extensor digitorum longus D - Sartorius
D - Sartorius
Which is the name of the cranial bone that resembles a butterfly? A - Ethmoid bone B - Nasal bone C - Zygomatic bone D - Sphenoid bone
D - Sphenoid bone
Which is the insertion of the brachioradialis? A - Head of radius B - Coronoid process of ulna C - Neck of radius D - Styloid process of radius
D - Styloid process of radius
Cross Fiber Friction A - is the best technique to use on myofascial adhesions B - is contraindicated for inflammation C - is sometimes referred to as transverse fiction D - all of these answers are true
D - all of these answers are true
Signs and symptoms of thrombophlebitis or deep vein thrombosis include A - Pitting edema or swelling B - Pain C - no symptoms D - any of the above
D - any of the above
Sinusitis is inflammation of the paranasal sinus membranes due to A - Infection B - Allergic reaction C - Mucosal obstruction D - Any of the above
D - any of the above
Canaliculi A - are energy sources B - are loose and ordinary C - are layers of compact bone D - are micro canals E - are packaging centers around the cell
D - are micro canals
Multiple sclerosis is a disease that affects A - peripheral nerves only B - sensory nerves only C - motor nerves only D - both motor nerves and sensory nerves
D - both motor nerves and sensory nerves
The type of tissue that lines body cavities and surfaces A - connective B - muscular C - nervous D - epithelium
D - epithelium
Which landmark is found on the proximal lateral/posterior femur? A - Lesser tubercle B - Linea aspera C - Linea alba D - Gluteal tuberosity
D - gluteal tuberosity
Choose the best example of a hypothesis A - The earth is round B - The action of the brachialis is to flex the elbow C - The sun rises in the east and sets in the west D -The effects of massage on the nervous system are as effective as antidepressants
D -The effects of massage on the nervous system are as effective as antidepressants
What is the purpose of the patella? A - An attachment site for the hamstring group B - Provide attachment for the adductor group C - Attachment for the pes anserinus tendon D - Provide muscle attachment for the quadreceps
NOT C - m/s quiz 4 #42
Which movement will shorten the fibers of the flexor hallucis longus? A - Extension of the first toe B - Plantar flexion C - Dorsiflexion D - Flexion of the second through fifth toes?
NOT C m/s quiz 4 #28
Which connective tissue structure connects bones at a joint (bone to bone) to provide strength and stability? A - Retinaculum B - Aponeurosis C - Tendon D - Ligament
NOT C m/s quiz 4 #37
Intrinsic nervous system control of heart rate is determined by all of these EXCEPT A - atrial fiber group B - baroreceptors C - av node D - purkinje fibers
NOT D - PURKINJE FIBERS (A&P QUIZ 3 #19)
Which movement lengthens the fibers of the peroneous longus? A - Dorsiflexion B - Eversion C - Plantar flexion D - Knee flexion
NOT D - m/s quiz 4 #13
Veda means A - Space B - Earth C - Science and/or knowledge D - Breath
C - Science and/or knowledge
Key diagnostic features of fibromyalgia include A - Trigger points, referred pain, sleep disorders B - Joint inflammation, muscle spasms, bone spurs C - Tender points, poor quality sleep, body-wide muscle pain D - Bull's eye rash, joint inflamation, kidney failure
C - Tender points, poor quality sleep, body-wide muscle pain
The region of the body where the therapist must warm the tissues prior to performing a stretch A - The shoulder B - The wrist C - The neck D - The elbow
C - The neck
Which answer is NOT an example of common postural anomalies involving exaggerated curvature the spine A - Anterior pelvic tilt B - Scoloiosis C - Lordosis D - Kyphosis
A - Anterior pelvic tilt
A modality that is similar to Structural Integration, with the inclusion of mental/emotional support is known as A - Kundalini B - Hellerwork C - Qi Gong D - Zero Balancing
B - Hellerwork
In this genetic disorder, certain clotting factors in the blood are missing or are in short supply A - sickle cell anemia B - Hemophilia C - Hematoma D - Aplastic anemia
B - Hemophilia
After abducting the arm, what movement would bring the arm from being outstretched to the side to being outstretched in front of you A - Adduction B - Horizontal adduction C - Flexion D - Rotation
B - Horizontal adduction
What are three benefits of training and conditioning massage? A - Get a chance for the athlete to relax, vent about their coaches, and remove toxins from their systems. B - Increase blood and lymph circulation, increase removal of metabolic waste and contractures and constricted muscles can be released. C - Diagnose potential injury causing situations, take a killer nap, and increase the removal of metabolic wastes. D - All of the above
B - Increase blood and lymph circulation, increase removal of metabolic waste and contractures and constricted muscles can be released.
Massage for a client with Parkinson's disease is A - Contraindicated B - Indicated with caution, to temporarily relieve muscle tension and postural deviations C - Will reverse the effects of the disease D - Will increase the release of dopamine
B - Indicated with caution, to temporarily relieve muscle tension and postural deviations
What is a condition that is indicated for heat A - Inflammation B - Ischemia C - Cancer D - High Blood Pressure
B - Ischemia
What is the term used to describe lack of blood/oxygen in a localized area creating hypersensitivity? A - Hyperemia B - Ischemia C - Edema D - Hypertonic
B - Ischemia
Which landmark serves as a common origin for the hamstrings and adductor magnus? A - Iliac fossa B - Ischial tuberosity C - Greater trochanter D - Sacroiliac joint
B - Ischial tuberosity
Creates body awareness A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
B - Mental/Emotional Benefit
Fosters a feeling of well being A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
B - Mental/Emotional Benefit
Improves ability to monitor stress signals and respond appropriately. A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
B - Mental/Emotional Benefit
Increases awareness of mind-body connection A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
B - Mental/Emotional Benefit
What movement will lengthen the fibers of brachialis A - Flexion of the elbow B - Flexion of the wrist C - Extension of the elbow D - Extension of the wrist
C - Extension of the elbow
A traveling clot is called a/an A - Embolism B - Thrombus C - Tumor D - Aneurysm
A - Embolism
White blood cells participate in all of the following EXCEPT A - Humoral Immunity B - Enhancing inflammation C - Limit hemorrhaging D - Rapid response to infection
(NOT A - HUMORAL IMMUNITY - A&P #23)
Which of the following is true of lymph nodes A - made of smooth muscle tissue B - the center for proliferation of lymphocytes C - initiate phagocyte migration D - filter chyme for antigens
(NOT A - MADE OF SMOOTH MUSCLE TISSUE - A&P QUIZ 4 #7)
The gastrocnemius extends halfway down the leg before inserting into which band of connective tissue? A - Plantar aponeurosis B - Achilles ligament C - Calcaneal tendon D - Flexor retinaculum
(NOT B) MS quiz 4 #4
Extensor indicia sprouts from the tendons of which muscle? A - Extensor digitorum B - Palmaris longus C - Flexor digitorum profundus D - Flexor carpi radialis
A - Extensor digitorum
According to holistic philosophy and the lineage of the Berkana Institue of Massage Therapy, it is normal and professional for a massage therapist to relentlessly practice self care A - True B - False
A - True
Authentic attentiveness and openness to your speaker help to create effective and healthy communication. A - True B - False
A - True
Boundaries are sometimes physical, emotional, social, or cultural lines or limitations that separate humans from their environment and other humans. A - true B - False
A - True
Dangerously Hot is 120 degrees Fahrenheit or above A - True B - False
A - True
Effective communication involves a transfer of information to a listener A - True F - False
A - True
Ethical massage therapists should work to develop strong positive effective communication skills A - True B - False
A - True
Having the client identify obstacles and do a recap of the accurate communication process that just occurred are important parts of the Assertion Sequence Stage 1 A - True B - False
A - True
The _________________ provides the myelin sheath in the CNS A - Schwann cell B - Oligodendrocyte
B - Oligodendrocyte
Holding patterns in musculature and fascia can be a result of emotional, mental or physiological trauma A - True B - False
A - True
In Swedish massage, strokes are light, fast, and toward the heart. A - True B - False
A - True
Lymph fluid is extra fluid accumulated in the process of exchange of substances between capillaries and tissues A - True B - False
A - True
Lymph fluid travels in the direction of venous return A - True B - False
A - True
In a therapeutic setting, appropriate self-disclosure by the practitioner may be a powerful therapeutic intervention or act of kindness A - True B - False
A - True
It is important when providing Deep Tissue, Trigger Point Therapy and/or Myofascial Release for the massage therapist to do a more in-depth and thorough intake with the client prior to treatment A - True B - False
A - True
Which of the following is an action of the masseter? A - Elevate the mandible B - Deviate the mandible C - Depress the mandible D - Retract the mandible
A - Elevate the mandible
Lymph Organs contain lymphocytes and macrophages and are enclosed in a fibrous capsule A - True B - False
A - True
How many ribs are in the human body? A - 24 B - 12 C - 13 D - 26
A - 24
How many endangerment sites are located on the shoulder/arm region? (bilateral sites count as one, not two) A - 4 B - 2 C - 3 D - 1
A - 4
What is the core body temperature A - 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit B - 96.8 degrees Fahrenheit C - 99.2 degrees Fahrenheit D - 97.6 degrees Fahrenheit
A - 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
To effectively manage ________, it is important to maintain good ________ A - A dual relationship, boundaries B - The fight or flight response, transference C - Interprofessionalism, projection D - Somatization, dissociation
A - A dual relationship, boundaries
What are the actions of the Gluteus minimus? A - Abduct the hip, medially rotate the hip, flex the hip B -Abduct the hip, flex the knee, extend the vertebral column C - Flex the hip, rotate the leg, extend the hip D - Flex the hip, extend the hip, rotate the hip, abduct the hip
A - Abduct the hip, medially rotate the hip, flex the hip
What is a condition that is indicated for R.I.C.E. A - Acute Sprain B - Chronic Sprain C - Arthritis D - Muscle Spasm
A - Acute Sprain
Prime mover are always A - Agonists B - Antagonists C - Synergists D - Neutralizers
A - Agonists
Who developed connective tissue massage called bindewebsmassage? A - Elizabeth Dicke B - Ida Rolf C - Per Henrik Ling D - Milton Tragger
A - Elizabeth Dicke
Bone and blood are types of ___________tissues A - connective B - muscular C - nervous D - epithelium
A - connective
The approach of deep tissue massage A - is slower paced, more focused, works with deeper pressure to address layers of the body and has a problem solving orientation. B - is done quickly, performed with tools, and analgesics are always used to numb the area prior to addressing muscle restrictions. C - always utilizes lubricants D - has an emphasis on pleasure/relaxation as the primay goal.
A - is slower paced, more focused, works with deeper pressure to address layers of the body and has a problem solving orientation.
White blood cells are known as ___________ A - leukocytes B - erythrocytes
A - leukocytes
In the spinal cord, the ventral horns process ________ signals A - motor B - sensory
A - motor
What are the characteristics of an active trigger point? A - Pain and referall without palpation B - Painful when palpated C - No referal D - Refers when palpated
A - pain and referal without palpation
While not specifically a diagnostic term, Spondylosis describes A - pain and spine degeneration B - Redness, heat, pain, and swelling of the low back C - Pain that shoots down the affected extremity when the patient coughs or sneezes D - Painful restricted range of motion, usually more pronounced on one side than the other.
A - pain and spine degeneration
The _____________ lobe is responsible for determining distance, size and shape; contains the sensory cortex which detects sensory impulses from the skin A - parietal B - frontal C - temporal D - occipital
A - parietal
In what cavity of the heart is serous fluid found A - Pericardium B - Right atrium C - Pulmonary trunk D - Left Ventricle
A - pericardium
The _____________ atrium has the coronary sinus opening A - right B - left
A - right
_____________ have a thinner middle layer
A - veins
_______________ have a thicker outer layer A - veins B - arteries
A - veins
Which three muscles insert into the peas anserinus tendon? A Sartorius, semitendinosus & gracilis B - Gracilis, sartorius & adductor magnus C - Semitendinosus, gracilis & adductor magnus D - Adductor longus, sartorius & adductor magnus
A Sartorius, semitendinosus & gracilis
Ankylosing spondylitis is A - A type of autoimmune inflammatory arthritis of the spine B - A bacterial infection that invades the joints C - A condition involving the development of brittle calcium deposits on the bones D - A type of inflammatory arthritis of the ankle
A- A type of autoimmune inflammatory arthritis of the spine
With your arm down to your side, what is the action that would bring the arm out to the side and directly away from the body A - Adduction B - Abduction C - Flexion D - Extension
B - Abduction
When should a pre-event massage be given? A - After the event B - 15 - min - 4 hours before the event C - as close as possible to the start of the event D - 24-48 hours before the event
B - 15 - min - 4 hours before the event
How many joints make up the elbow joint A - 1 B - 3 C - 2 D - 4
B - 3
A 1099 tax form is required when a business is reporting payments equal to or in excess of what amount to an independent contractor A - 300 B - 600 C - 1000 D - any amount. It is always required for record keeping purposes
B - 600
Cellulitis is A - A localized staphylococcus of the hair shaft B - A bacterial infection leading to painful inflammation of the skin C - A slow-growing viral infection of the skin D - A systemic and aggressive viral infection of the skin
B - A bacterial infection leading to painful inflammation of the skin
A universal recipient is a person who has which type of blood A - A+ B - AB+ C - O+ D - O-
B - AB+
What is the abbreviation for Active Range of Motion A - A B - AROM C - ROM D - ARM
B - AROM
The energy required for chemical reactions in the body is from A - APT B - ATP C - PAT D - PTA E - TAP
B - ATP
What is the name of the landmark where the long head of the biceps originates A - Glenoid fossa B - Supraglenoid tubercle C - Infraglenoid tubercle D - Coracoid process
B - Supraglenoid tubercle
What is Conversion? A - When a variable temperature is transferred from one object to another through direct contact. The primary way hydrotherapy is used. B - When energy is transformed from one type to another: for example, electricity in a light bulb is transformed into heat and light. C - When temperatures are transferred via moving liquids or gasses. D - None of these answers
B - When energy is transformed from one type to another: for example, electricity in a light bulb is transformed into heat and light.
What is the color and name for the 3rd Chakra A - Orange and Sacral B - Yellow and Solar Plexus C - Green and Heart D - Blue and Throat
B - Yellow and Solar Plexus
Myositis ossificans is A - A non-metastasizing bone tumor B - A deposit of calcium in the midst of soft tissue C - Inflammation of muscle tissue where a bone was broken D - None of these are correct
B - a deposit of calcium in the midst of soft tissue
Which part of the brain rests on the base of the occipital bone and coordinates voluntary muscles? A - cerebrum B - cerebellum C - brain-stem D - diencephalon
B - cerebellum
A client's information must be kept private unless the client gives permission to disclose it. This is defined as: A - informed consent B - confidentiality C - boundary D - dual relationship
B - confidentiality
Which of the following techniques would NOT be considered specific when doing deep tissue work? A - soft fists B - effleurage C - trigger point work D - ischemic compression
B - effleurage
The _____________ system exhibits longer duration of action A - nervous B - endocrine
B - endocrine
The articulating end of a long bone is called A - metaphysis B - epiphysis C - diaphysis D - medullary
B - epiphysis
The plasma proteins called antibodies are A - fibrinogen B - globulins C - thrombin F - fibrin
B - globulins
The ____________ ventricle has the thickest wall A - right B - left
B - left
Which is the part of the brain that regulates respiration control and is found superior to the medulla oblongata A - cerebellum B - pons C - limbic system D - ventricle
B - pons
What are the bony landmarks located below the waistline & underneath the front pant pockets? A - Ischial tuberosities B - PSIS C - ASIS D - PIIS
C - ASIS
What is the anatomical name for the landmark where the head of the femur articulates? A - Tibiofemoral fossa B - Ischial ramus C - Acetabulum D - Iliac fossa
C - Acetabulum
Wiggling your fingers, as if typing or playing the piano, will create an undulating contraction of which muscle? A - Extensor carpi radialis longus B - Extensor carpi radialis brevis C - Extensor digitorum D - Extensor carpi ulnaris
C - Extensor digitorum
What is the standard measure of time to apply ischemic compression to a trigger point? A - 5 seconds B - 10 seconds C - 30 seconds D - 2-3 minutes
C - 30 seconds
At what angle are the strokes performed in the deep tissue approach? A - 90 degrees B - whatever angle feels good C - 45 degrees D - 10 degrees
C - 45 degrees
How many deep lateral rotators of the hip are there? A - 2 B - 4 C - 6 D - 8
C - 6
The Chakra which governs imigaination is A - 1st B - 4th C - 6th D - 7th
C - 6th
Retention guidelines for tax return documents in the US recommend that they be kept for at least how many years? A - 2 B - 5 C - 7 D - 10
C - 7
When two bones move out of alignment so that a joint is no longer function, the injury is called.... A - A subluxation B - A misalignment C - A dislocation D - A malunion fracture
C - A dislocation
What is the fight or flight response A - A response observed only in wild animals that aids their survival B - A set of behaviors exhibited only by people with severe anxiety disorder C - A normal physiological response that prepares an animal or human being to cope with a challenge D - A normal physiological response that prepares an animal or human being to recover energy, grow heal wounds, and strengthen immunity from disease
C - A normal physiological response that prepares an animal or human being to cope with a challenge
The five basic swedish massage strokes are A - effleurage, hacking, shaking vibration and cupping B - Effleurage, petrissage, squeezing, compression and swedish gymnastics C - effleurage, petrissage, friction, vibration and tapotement D - effleurage, petrissage, friction, compression and tapotement
C - effleurage, petrissage, friction, vibration and tapotement
Matrix is A - a packaging center around the cell B - loose and ordinary C - fibers and ground substance D - a bilipid layer with proteins E - layers of compact bone
C - fibers and ground substance
Areolar CT is A - an energy source B - layers of compact bone C - loose and ordinary D - a powerhouse E - an osteocyte location
C - loose and ordinary
What are the components of the Lymphatic System A - lymph fluid, lymphatic circulation, serosa B - spleen, tonsils, lymphatic fluid C - lymph fluid, lymphatic tissues, lymph circulation vessels D - red bone marrow and lymph glands
C - lymph fluid, lymphatic tissues, lymph circulation vessels
The acidity or alkalinity of a substance is measured in A - pF B - Salinity C - pH D - Ph E - buoyancy
C - pH
__________ is a fish shaped glandular organ, it's head is nuzzled in the C of the __________ A - Liver, Gall Bladder B - Stomach, Spleen C - Pancreas, Duodenum D - Spleen, Jejunum
C - pancreas, duodenum
Synergists are characterized by A - fast-twitch fibers B - both agonists and antagonists C - prime mover assistance D - phasic muscles
C - prime mover assistance
What is the name of the document issued to an individual by a regulatory agency that allows the individual to practice massage therapy? A - business licence B - national certification C - professional licence D - accredication
C - professional licence
Lymph organs are comprised of A - smooth tissue B - epithelial tissue of serous fluid C - reticular connective tissue D - all of these are correct
C - reticular connective tissue
What directional information does the term proximal indicate A - Close to the midline B - Away from the midline C - Further away from the trunk D - Closer to the trunk
D - Closer to the trunk
How many vertebrae are there in the spine, from occiput to sacrum? A - 16 B - 18 C - 22 D - 24
D - 24
On a scale of 1-10, what pressure is recommended to address active trigger points and deep tissue massage? A - 2 B - 10 C - 5 D - 7
D - 7
Transference is A - The medical term describing blood flow from the heart B - A public figure's unresolved feelings and issues that are unconsciously transferred to the client C - A practitioner's unresolved feelings and issues about another person that are unconsciously transferred to the client D - A client's unresolved feelings and issues about another person that are unconsciously transferred to the practitioner
D - A client's unresolved feelings and issues about another person that are unconsciously transferred to the practitioner
Lomi Lomi is A - Practiced for thousands of years throughout Japan. B - "Lazy Mans Yoga" C - A massage technique which is done with the client fully clothed. D - A massage in which the practitioners use love and positive intention as a tool to honor the client
D - A massage in which the practitioners use love and positive intention as a tool to honor the client
Lacunae are A - powerhouses B - fibers and ground substance C - transport vehicles D - calcium ions E - osteocyte locations
E - osteocyte locations
The cell membrane moves substances by A - Osmosis B - Diffusion C - Transporter proteins D - Gated membrane channels E - All of the above
E - All of the above
The effects of touch deprivation may include A - stunted emotional development and physical growth B - weakened immune system C - increased possibility of aggressive behavior in later years D - decreased intellectual abilities E - all of these answers are effects of touch deprivation
E - All of these answers are effects of touch deprivation
Which is true of someone who has major depressive disorder A - She may be sleeping much less than usual (insomnia) B - She may be sleeping much more than usual (hypersomnia) C - She may exhibit psychomotor agitation - moving and speaking more rapidly than normal D - She may exhibit psychomotor retardation - moving and speaking more slowly than usual E - Any and all of these answers are possible
E - Any and all of these answers are possible
The baboons that have been carefully studies by Robert Sapolsky A - Are a good 'model organism' for understanding the stress response in human beings B - Engage in social touch, in the form of grooming, that likely protects them from the negative effects of stress C - Display a unique stress response that has no similarity to the stress response in human beings D - Never engage in positive social touch - they only touch each other to fight E - Both A and B are true
E - Both A and B are true
Stress researchers have discovered that an ongoing, chronic stress response: A - Makes the animal or person stronger and healthier B - Makes an animal or person less healthy over time C - Has nothing to do with social standing or the controllability of stressors D - Is closely connected to social standing and the controllability of stressors. E - Both B and D are true
E - Both B and D are true
What two lateral muscle tendons run posterior to the lateral malleolus? One inserts on the first metatarsal the other on the fifth metatarsal A - Peroneous longus, peroneus brevis B - Tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum brevis C - Extensor hallicus longus, extensor hallicus brevis D - Tibialis anterior, tibialis posterior
NOT B - m/s quiz 4 # 12
What is the bony landmark distal to the patella? A - Adductor tubercle B - Head of the fibula C - Tibial tuberosity D - Femoral condyle
NOT B - m/s quiz 4 #17
Which of the following is an action of the gastrocnemius? A - Extend the knee B - Medially rotate the flexed knee C - Flex the knee D - Dorsiflex the ankle
NOT B - m/s quiz 4 #31
One well designed case study is enough to turn a hypothesis into a theory A - True B - False
B - False
The "small" in small intestine refers to the length, but is much wider than the large intestine A - True B - False
B - False
The function of bile is to A - Chemically degrade fat B - Emulsify fats for lipid digestion C - Activate enzymes in pancreatic juice D - Acidify the solution from the common bile duct
B - Emulsify fats for lipid digestion
The __________ system responds less quickly to stimuli A - nervous B - endocrine
B - Endocrine
In which direction do the fibers of the external oblique muscles run? A - Downward toward the midline B - Upward toward midline C - Transversely across midline D - Straight down and parallel to the linea aspera
A - Downward toward the midline
The energy forms of the three Doshas, are made up of what combination of the elements A - Earth, Water, Air, Fire and Space B - Fire, Earth, Air, Water, Soul C - Water, Chocolate, Fire, Ice, Dirt D - Wind, Water, Fire, Earth, Ki
A - Earth, Water, Air, Fire and Space
Generally speaking, what is the origination of the extensor group in the forearm A - Lateral epicondyle of the humerus B - Medial epicondyle of humerus C - Medial proximal shaft of radius D - Lateral shaft of ulna
A - Lateral epicondyle of humerus
A sum of businesses total assets minus the liabilities equals A - Revenue B - Equity C - Net profit D - Accounts receivable
B - Equity
Which movement of the vertebral column will shorten the fibers of the longissimus on the left side of the body? A - Lateral flexion to the left? B - Rotation to the lefe C - Rotation to the right D - Lateral flexion to the right
A - Lateral flexion to the left
What is the action of the flexor digitorum longus? A - Flex 2nd through 5th metatarsophalangeal & intertarsophalangeal, inversion, B - Flex 1st through 4th metatarsophalangeal & intertarsophalangeal, eversion C - Flex 2nd though 5thmetacarpalphalangeal & intercarpalphalageal, flex the radiocarpal D - Flex 2nd though 5th metacarpalphalangeal & intercarpalphalageal, extend the radiocarpal jt
A - Flex 2nd through 5th metatarsophalangeal & intertarsophalangeal, inversion,
All of the following are located on the scapula, except A - Greater tubercle B - Glenoid cavity C - Inferior angle D - Infraspinatus fossa
A - Greater tubercle
Reflexology focuses technique mainly on which of the following A - Hands and feet B - Head C - Spine D - Back and Stomach
A - Hands and Feet
Which of these describes kyphosis A - Humpback B - Swayback C - "C" curve D - Reverse "C" curve
A - Humpback
What can be palpated by following the superior portion of the ilium from the ASIS to the PSIS? A - Iliac crest B - Iliac fossa C - Anterior inferior iliac spine D - Gluteus maximus
A - Iliac crest
The vastus lateralis is deep to what structure? A - Iliotibial tract B - Patellar ligment C - Inginal ligament D - Sciatic nerve
A - Iliotibial tract
Which bony landmarks are often called the sits bones? A - Ischial tuberosities B - ASIS C - Lesser trochanter D - Pubic crest
A - Ischial tuberosities
When a client discusses personal matters with you, what should you do? A - Just listen and be compassionate B - Offer the client advice C - Tell te client you prefer he didn't talk D - Tune out the client and concentrate on your work
A - Just listen and be compassionate
Qi Gong is A - An ancient system of healing that combines postures, movement, exercises, breathing techniques and meditation to improve and enhance the body. B - Is administered to fully clothed clients on a mat and included light stretching similar to Yoga C - A form of oriental bodywork that includes acupressure and other forms of body manipulation. D - The term used to describe the energy that runs through the Chakras.
A - An ancient system of healing that combines postures, movement, exercises, breathing techniques and meditation to improve and enhance the body.
What is anhedonia A - An inability to experience pleasure, and a symptom of major depressive disorder B - A time-limited form of anxiety C - A rogerian condition necessary for therapeutic personality change D - A negative feeling experienced as part of counter-transference
A - An inability to experience pleasure, and a symptom of major depressive disorder.
A sprain is A - An injured ligament B - An injured joint capsule C - An injured tendon D - An injured muscle-tendon unit
A - An injured ligament
The building up of living tissue is A - Anabolic B - Achromatic C - Catabolic D - Cathartic
A - Anabolic
Which is the insertion of the masseter? A - Angle & ramus of mandible B - Condyle of mandible C - Coronoid process of mandible D - Crest of mandible
A - Angle & ramus of mandible
Which is the origination of the brachialis A - Anterior distal half of humerus B - Tuberosity and coronoid process of ulna C - Head of radius D - Radial tuberosity
A - Anterior distal half of humerus
What is conduction A - When a variable temperature is transferred from one object to another through direct contact. The primary way hydrotherapy is used. B - When energy is transformed from one type to another: for example, electricity in a light bulb is transformed into heat and light. C - When temperatures are transferred via moving liquids or gasses. D - None of these answers
A - When a variable temperature is transferred from one object to another through direct contact. The primary way hydrotherapy is used.
All clients can benefit from deep tissue techniques and Myo-facial release? A - True B - False
B - False
All lymphatic fluid drains into the Thoracic Duct and the left Lymphatic Duct A - True B - False
B - False
Which of the following describes a document that puts your career goals and operational plans in writing? A - Vision Statement B - Business Plan C - Mission Statement D - Resume
B - Business Plan
What is the name of the bone that forms the heel of the foot? A - Talus B - Calcaneus C - Cuboid D - Navicular
B - Calcaneus
Any relative can provide consent for a minor A - True B - False
B - False
__________ is the largest lymph organ and is located in the upper left quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity A - Liver B - Gall Bladder C - Spleen D - Stomach
C - Spleen
Which is the insertion of the rectus abdominis A - Costal cartilage of ribs 9 - 12 B - Manubrium C - Costal cartilage of ribs 5,6 & 7 D - Sternum
C - Costal cartilage of ribs 5,6 & 7
What is the insertion of the flexor digitorum profundus A - Palmar aponeurosis B - Proximal phalanges of digits 2 to 5 C - Distal phalanges of digits 2 - 5 D - Base of the fifth metacarpal
C - Distal phalanges of digits 2 - 5
Which movement of the vertebral column would shorten the fibers of the erector spinae muscles A - Flexion B - Lateral flexion to the opposite side C - Extension D - Rotation
C - Extension
Which of the following are contraindicated for myofascial release? A - Postural holding pattern, Pain-spasm-pain cycles, Movement restrictions B - Spasticity, Neurological dysfunction, Chronic fatigue symptoms C - Acute rheumatoid arthritis, Healing Fracture, Osteomyelitis D - Fibromyalgia, Traumatic and surgical scaring, Acute and chronic pain
C - Acute rheumatoid arthritis, Healing Fracture, Osteomyelitis
A theory is _________, a hypothesis is ______ A - A synopses of the entire paper; a guess or assumption B - Natural law; an idea that has been tested and proven numerous times C - An idea that has been tested and proven numerous times; an educated guess D - A guess or assumption; a synopses of the entire paper
C - An idea that has been tested and proven numerous times; an educated guess
What is the name of the body landmark located at the lateral uppermost point of the scapula A - Manubrium B - Superior Angle C - Spine D - Acromion
D - Acromion
Unilaterally, which of the following muscles will laterally flex the spine in an ipsilateral movement? A - Quadratus lumborum B - Longissimus C - Iliocostalis D - All of the above
D - All of the above
The pituitary gland secretes which of the following A - TSH B - ACTH C - FSH D - All of these
D - All of these
Which of the following help regulate cardiac output A - Hormones B - Chemoreceptors C - Proprioceptors D - All of these
D - All of these
Massage for a client with pneumonia A - is contraindicated until all symptoms are eradicated B - is indicated as soon as possible to speed the healing process C - is indicated, but only for energy work D - is indicated in the subacute phase to help loosen mucus deposits in the lungs with tapotement
D - is indicated in the subacute phase to help loosen mucus deposits in the lungs with tapotement
When is it appropriate to use the muscle approximation technique? A - Static stretching B - Isometric contraction C - muscle weakness D - muscle cramping
D - muscle cramping
One of the most important goals of sports massage are to support the healing of injuries and to assist the athlete in achieving and maintaining A - uncontested physical dominance B - Emotional maintenance C - nutritional balance D - peak performance
D - peak performance
Which connective tissue structure connects the patella to the tibial tuberosity? A - Meniscus B - Patellar ligament C - Collateral ligaments D - Transverse ligament
NOT A - m/s quiz 4 #18
What is the origination of the piriformis? A - Coccyx and sacrum B - Anterior sacrum C - Sacrum and sciatic notch D - Posterior sacrum
NOT A - m/s quiz 4 #24
Fascia Stretches A - True B - False
B - False
Your client starts asking you personal questions about another client that she saw leaving as she walked in. You should A - Answer her questions honestly B - Tell her politely that you cannot talk about your clients, and that you would not talk about her. C - Just change the subject D - Tell her she is out of bounds and that is a rude thing to do
B - Tell her politely that you cannot talk about your clients, and that you would not talk about her
The space between the zygomatic arch and cranium is filled by what? A - Massater B - Temporalis C - Sternocleidomastoid D - Diagastric
B - Temporalis
Which of the following is an example of interprofessional communication A - A massage therapist shares a case study with her fellow massage therapists B - A massage therapist gives her client an informational handout that describes how massage can reduce anxiety C - After obtaining the client's consent, a massage therapist shares progress notes with the client's psychotherapist and psychiatrist D - All of the above are examples of interprofessional communication
C - After obtaining the client's consent, a massage therapist shares progress notes with the client's psychotherapist and psychiatrist
What triangular-shaped muscle is a weak elbow extensor and is known for it's affiliation with racket sport? A - pronator teres B - Extensor carpi radialis brevis C - Anconeus D - Flexor carpi ulnaris
C - Anconeus
What is the name of a muscle that resists the action of the prime mover? A - Synergist B - Secondary muscle C - Antagonist D - Prime obstructer
C - Antagonist
What is the insertion of the subscapularis muscle A - Anterior greater tubercle B - Posterior greater tubercle C - Anterior lesser tubercle D - Lateral greater tubercle
C - Anterior lesser tubercle
In which part of the body does lateral flexion occur A - Shoulder joint B - Scapula C - Axial skeleton D - Feet
C - Axial skeleton
Blood traveling from the subclavian artery to the brachial artery must pass through the A - Aorta B - Common Illiac C - Axillary artery D - Common carotid
C - Axillary artery
Aides in hair restoration A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
Enhances weight loss A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
Fosters sexual awareness A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
Provides relief from amnesia A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
Define Kinesiology A - The study of physical activity and exercise B - The study of Manual Therapy C - The study of Human Movement D - The study of Human Disfunction
C - The study of Human Movement
Which landmark serves as the origin of the rectus femoris? A - Lesser trochanter B - Pubic crest C - ASIS D - AIIS
D - AIIS
The Assertion Sequence Stage 1: Agreement Discussion involves A - What: Let the client know what you expect B - Why: Give reasons for wanting the requested behavior C - Consequenses: Establish consequenses that follow logically from the transgression D - All of these answers
D - All of these answers
It is important for the therapist to practice mindfulness at all times while performing more challenging and deeper techniques because: A - The Client may not be able to articulate their experience, and the feedback we receive from them will be more subtle such as the breath or holding. B - We need to be present to the different textures we feel which will inform us of the condition of the structures we are addressing and help us understand the changes we are creating. C - The client's experience is ever changing and we must be aware of, and responsive to our clients feedback from the work we are performing so that we do not go beyond what is appropriate. D - All of these answers are true.
D - All of these answers are true
Which of the following are considered contraindicated for direct presusre? A - Nerves B - Arteries C - Varicosities D - All of these options
D - All of these options
The fourth chakra governs the heart and is represented by green A - True B - False
A - True
The gallbladder stores the bile manufactured by the liver A - True B - False
A - True
The pancreas is an accessory organ of the digestive system A - True B - False
A - True
Which muscle is located on the lateral side of the leg A - Peroneus longus B - Soleus C - Extensor digitorum longus D - Flexor hallicus longus
(NOT D) Musculo Quiz 4
In most cases, clients with an infection benefit from receiving massage A - True B - False
B - False
This type of muscle would be innervated by somatic motor neurons A - Smooth B - Skeletal
B - Skeletal
What is the origination of the pronator quadratus? A - Distal Ulna B - Distal radius C - Proximal ulna D - Medial condyle of humerus
A - Distal ulna
What is a daily record of all business income and expenses called? A - Ledger sheet B - Cash-flow statement C - Balance sheet D - Income Statement
A - Ledger sheet
Stretching..... A - Lengthens B - Shortens C - Should be performed after lubricant application D - can be performed on every client
A - Lengthens
Boils are.... A - Local bacterial infections of the skin. The causative agent is usually Staphylococcus aureus B - System streptococcus infections that begin at the hair shaft C - Local slow-growing viral infections D - Systemic aggressive viral infections
A - Local bacterial infections of the skin. The causative agent is usually Staphylococcus aureus.
Which of the following is a modality that intends to manipulate the lymph in order to make it flow with greater ease A - Manual Lymph drainage B - Chiroproactic C - Trigger Point Therapy D - Polarity Therapy
A - Manual Lymph drainage
What is an action of the teres major A - Medial rotation B - Lateral rotation C - Abduction D - Flexion
A - Medial rotation
Cancer is a ________ contraindication A - Medical B - Local C - Total D - Regional
A - Medical
The part of the brain of the brain responsible for heart rate, swallowing and the diameter of blood vessels is A - Medulla Oblongata B - Pons C - Cerebellum D - Thalamus
A - Medulla Oblongata
These impulses are carried on efferent fibers A - Motor B - Sensory
A - Motor
What is the only muscle to originate on the posterior sacrum? A - Multifidi B - Pyramidalis C - Quadratus lumborum D - Spinalis
A - Multifidi
Roger's necessary and sufficient conditions for therapeutic personality change A - Are all intended to work together to create a therapeutic relationship that will bring about therapeutic personality change B - State that the therapist must assert his or her expertise at all times, or risk loosing control of the therapeutic process C - Is presented as only being applicable to psychotherapy D - Place great importance of making unconscious conflicts conscious to the client
A - Are all intended to work together to create a therapeutic relationship that will bring about therapeutic personality change
The sacrum is part of what A - Axial skeleton B - Appendicular skeleton C - Lumbar spine D - Thoracic spine
A - Axial skeleton
What other word would be used to describe the armpit A - Axillary B - Brachial C - Thoracic D - Caudal
A - Axillary
This is the transmission part of a simple neuron A - Axon B - Dendrite
A - Axon
Which of the following are NOT related to clotting? A - Billirubin B - Platelets C - Fibringogen D - Vasoconstriction
A - Billirubin
Which of the following is another name for the arm A - Brachium B - Antibrachial C - Suraid D - Cervical
A - Brachium
_________________ is a physiological effect of friction massage A - Break down of abnormal scar tissue B - Decreases circulation C - Speeds up the healing of a hematoma D - Calms the nervous system
A - Break down of abnormal scar tissue
What does prana mean A - Breath and/or life force B - Disease C - Faith D - Fire
A - Breath and/or life force
Which are the top five elements critical to life A - Calcium, Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen B - Calcium, Carbon, Hydrogen, Natrium, Oxygen C - Calcium, Cesium, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen D - Calcium, Carbon, Helium, Nitrogen, Oxygen E - Calorium, Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen
A - Calcium, Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen
When the client is sharing with you regarding their past, either verbally or on a form, they are providing a __________ ____________ A - Client History B - Intake Form C - Client Form D - Health Form
A - Client History
What does the C in the acronym R.I.C.E. stand for? A - Compression B - Cold C - Cast D - Cryogenic
A - Compression
The ____________ plane divides the body into anterior and posterior parts. A - Coronal B - Sagittal C - Transverse D - Axial
A - Coronal
The ulna is ___________ to the humerus A - Distal B - Proximal C - Superior D - Lateral
A - Distal
At a pre-event massage tent, you see a client who informs you that they have a recent knee surgery, and that the PT told them not to run, but they think that they are fine, and a pre-event massage is a great idea to get them through the pain. How do you proceed? A - Refuse treatment - post surgery can be a contraindication for spots massage. B - Get to work - this person obviously appreciates the benefits of spots massage. C - Refuse working with them - the client is obviously mentally challenged. D - Work on them only if it is okay with the team leader.
A - Refuse treatment - post surgery can be a contraindication for spots massage.
The knowledge base and practice parameters of a profession are called A - Scope of practice B - Informed Consent C - Dual Role D - Therapeutic Relationship
A - Scope of Practice
These glands excrete to hair follicles A - Sebaceous B - Sudoriferous
A - Sebaceous
Which is the insertion of the posterior scalene? A - Second rib B - First rib C - Third rib D - Second and third rib
A - Second rib
This type of muscle would be innervated by autonomic motor neurons. A - Smooth B - Skeletal
A - Smooth
What forms the visible row of bumps running down the center of the back? A - Spinous process B - Tranverse processes C - Bodies of the vertebrae D - Lamina groove
A - Spinous processes
All of the following muscles insert on the greater tubercle except A - Subscapularis B - Infraspinatus C - Teres minor D - Supraspinatus
A - Subscapularis
Which of the following muscles is not a shoulder flexor A - Supraspinatus B - Coracobrachialis C - Deltoid D - Biceps Brachii
A - Supraspinatus
The comfort barrier/zone describes A - The area that exists between the client and the therapist where both feel safe and respected B - The area around the massage table C - The end of a stretch D - The way you determine your table height
A - The area that exists between the client and the therapist where both feel safe and respected
What structure(s) is/are shared by the gall bladder and the liver A - The common bile duct B - The cystic duct C - The hepatic duct D - The pancreatic duct
A - The common bine duct
Which of the following is false regarding confidentiality? A - The massage therapist can refer to a client's identity and medical history with a significant other. B - The massage therapist should keep client files private and away from public analysis and scrutiny. C - The massage therapist must reveal the client's identity in cases required by law D - Clients files should be shredded or destroyed when disposed
A - The massage therapist can refer to a client's identity and medical history with a significant other.
The tax structure for a sole-proprietor includes which of the following A - They are responsible for paying the share of taxes that an employer pays on behalf of their employees B - They pay less on their income than an employee does C - Business expenses are not deductible D - They are considered a separate entity form the owners and are taxed as a partnership
A - They are responsible for paying the share of taxes that an employer pays on behalf of their employees
Which muscle lies directly lateral to the tibial shaft? A - Tibialis anterior B - Peroneus longus C - Extensor digitorum longus D - Soleus
A - Tibialis anterior
What is the importance of maintaining SOAP notes for each session A - To monitor the progress of the client B - To stay within legal parameters C - To provide diagnostic information to the client's doctor D - For liability insurance requirements
A - To monitor progress of the client
When massaging a person who has varicose veins you should A - Touch lightly over the vein but do not massage it B - Massage deeply on the vein C - Massage away from the heart on the vein D - Massage normally
A - Touch lightly over the vein but do not massage it
The edge of which muscle is especially useful in locating the suboccipitals A - Trapezius B - Splenius capitis C - Levator scapula D - Semispinalis capitus
A - Trapezius
A language is still "alive" as long as new words are being added to the vocabulary A - True B - False
A - True
A theory can be proven incorrect and a new theory can take it's place A - True B - False
A - True
Manual Lymph Drainage, or Lymph System Massage, is practiced with light, effleurage strokes in the direction of venous return A - True B - False
A - True
Many listeners are easily distracted A - True B - False
A - True
Marmas are conjunction points of consciousness in the body A - True B - False
A - True
Matrix and ground substance are two components of fascia A - True B - False
A - True
Mechanical effects result when using fluids to impact body surfaces A - True B - False
A - True
Much of what we currently know of the traditional methods of massage therapy and bodywork is based in theory and has not been proven by fact. Still, many people have benefited from, and continue to benefit from traditional methods of manipulative therapy A - True F - False
A - True
Red bone marrow is considered a type of lymphatic tissue because it produces Lymphocytes A - True B - False
A - True
Reflective listening is also called active listening A - True B - False
A - True
Self awareness is essential for effective communication with clients A - True B - False
A - True
Sometimes boundaries exist that interfere with the way the listener processes the information we try to send to them A - True B - False
A - True
The acronym SOAP is Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan A - True B - False
A - True
The basic coordination between the muscles is the single greatest contributor to non-growth related power gains A - True B - False
A - True
Grouonding is A - When the therapist takes a moment to inventory their physical situation prior to hands on work B - When a therapist leaves all personal worries at the door C - When a therapist checks on their intent prior to hands on work D - All answers are correct
A - When the therapist takes a moment to inventory their physical situation prior to hands on work
The cell membrane is A - a bilipid layer with proteins B - an osteocyte location C - fibers and ground substance D - a packaging center around the cell E - loose and ordinary
A - a bilipid layer with proteins
When calculating your gross income as a self-employed individual, it is necessary to claim the following revenues A - all check, credit card and cash payments received B - all check and credit card payments, excluding cash payments received C - all check, credit card and cash payments including tips received D - only the payments received that you deposit into your checking account
A - all check, credit card and cash payments received
ATP is A - an energy source B - a packaging center around the cell C - layers of compact bone D - an osteocyte location El - a transport vehicle
A - an energy source
Lamellae A - are layers of compact bone B - are powerhouses C - are packaging centers around the cell D - are loose and ordinary E - are micro canals
A - are layers of compact bone
A nervous impulse starting at the dendrite will next pass through the A - cell body B - axon C - Schwann cell D - none of the options are correct
A - cell body
Which is an example of an isometric contraction A - holding plank B - standing up from a chair C - walking down a mountain D - wiggling your toes
A - holding a plank
Goals for pre-event sports massage A - increase local circulation and flexibility, warms and loosens muscles and increases blood supply to muscles B - make a fiscal profit C - both a and b D - none of the above
A - increase local circulation and flexibility, warms and loosens muscles and increases blood supply to muscles
Strains are... A - injury to muscles and or tendons B - injury to bursa C - injury to ligaments D - injury to joint capsules
A - injury to muscles and or tendons
A client who has been diagnosed with chronic fatigue syndrome A - is a good candidate for massage B - should receive energy work only C - should receive a doctor's permission before receiving massage D - should not receive massage
A - is a good candidate for massage
Which movement would lengthen the fibers of the rectus femoris? A - Extension of the knee B - Extension of the hip C - Lateral rotation of the hip D - Flexion of the hip
B - Extension of the hip
Which of the following is the name of the articular surfaces between vertebrae? A - Cartilage B - Facet C - Meniscus D - Vertebral Disk
B - Facet
A scientific poster is an artist's illustration of the hypothesis or experiment A - True B - False
B - False
According to the NCBTMB you have a right to refuse to continue services to a client for any reason A - True B - False
B - False
Contraindications are always clearly defined A - True B - False
B - False
Emotions have nothing to do with communication A - True B - False
B - False
If you utilize all of the tools of effective communication you will have great communication with everyone you encounter A - True B - False
B - False
How long is the gastrointestinal tract (GI tract) A - About 40 feet long B - About 30 feet long C - About 20 feet long D - About 45 feet long
B - About 30 feet long
In a research paper the first paragraph would be the _______________ A - Limitations of the paper B - Abstract C - A list of the controls & variables D - None of the above
B - Abstract
This is the condition of having insufficient red blood cells, hemoglobin, or both A - Hemophilia B - Anemia C - Hematoma D - Aneurysm
B - Anemia
Compression strokes A - Are moved quickly and only on the surface of the skin B - Are done by placing your hand, fist fingers, forearms or elbows on the client's body and pressing down C - Are best performed with the application of massage cream or oil D - Are opening and closing strokes
B - Are done by placing your hand, fist, fingers, forearms or elbows on the client's body and pressing down
Endangerment sites are A - Areas where endangered species live B - Areas where you may cause danger to the client due to the anatomical structures that are relatively close to the surface C - Areas where you can only work with a doctor's permission D - Areas that require special tenchniques
B - Areas where you may cause danger to the client due to the anatomical structures that are relatively close to the surface
Highest pressure of circulating blood is found in the A - Arteriole B - Artery C - Capillary D - Venule
B - Artery
What is the line which determines the limit that separates one person from another A - Discrimination B - Boundary C - Auric Field D - Integrity
B - Boundary
The coranoid process serves as attachment sites for which muscle? A - Biceps brachii B - Brachialis C - Brachioradialis D - Coracobrachialis
B - Brachialis
Which muscle is a strong elbow flexor located deep to the Biceps brachii A - Brachioradialis B - Brachialis C - Coracobrachialis D - Triceps brachii
B - Brachialis
What do T lymphocytes do A - Process the exchange of substances between capillaries and tissues B - Cell mediated immunity because T cells attack the infected cell C - Humoral immunity because they produce antibodies which enter the blood stream D - Prevents the growth of bacteria
B - Cell mediated immunity because T cells attack the infected cells
When providing a Swedish massage, all effleurage strokes should be applied in which manner? A-Vigorous, cross-fiber movements B-Centripetal or toward the heart C-Centrifugal or away from the heart D-Counterclockwise, circular movements
B - Centripetal or toward the heart
`Cartilage cells are also known as A - Erythrocyte B - Chondrocytes C - Monocyte D - Megakaryocyte
B - Chondrocytes
This is the receptive part of a simple neuron A - Axon B - Dendrite
B - Dendrite
______________ nerve tracts carry motor impulses and ____________ nerve tracts carry sensory impulses A - Ascending, Descending B - Descending, Ascending
B - Descending, Ascending
Which of the following type of insurance covers the lost income due to an on the job injury for a self-employed individual? A - Medical B - Disability C - Liability D - Property
B - Disability
________ is NOT an applications of Hydrotherapy A - Fomentation B - Dry Sauna C - Cold Compress D - Contrast Bath
B - Dry Sauna
The very first stroke you should always use to open and say "Hello" is ___________ A - Pettrisage B - Effleurage C - Tapotement D - Friction
B - Effleurage
The blood vessels that function as pressure reservoirs are A - Muscular arteries B - Elastic arteries C - Anastomoses D - Arterioles
B - Elastic arteries
A psychologist has referred a client to you. In the case notes that the psychologist has shared with you (after acquiring the client's permission, of course), you see that the client exhibits "psychomotor retardation". When your new client arrives, you can expect him to A - Have mental retardation B - Move and/or talk more slowly than normal C - Be jittery and shaky D - Engage in projection
B - Move and/or talk more slowly than normal
Sports massage should not be applied to A - Tense muscles B - Muscles with ruptures or major tears C - Fatigued muscles D - Weak musckes
B - Muscles with ruptures or major tears
During muscle contraction, the _________ draws the _________ towards itself A - Actin, Myosin B - Myosin, Actin
B - Myosin, Actin
The O in SOAP stands for A - Open B - Objective C - Observant D - Observer
B - Objective
Which muscle is responsible for creating opposition of the thumb A - Adductor pollcis B - Opponens pollicis C - Flexor Pollicis brevis D - Abductor pollicis longus
B - Opponens pollicis
Where does piriformis originate and insert? A Originates on the posterior sacrum, Inserts on the lesser trochanter B - Originates on the anterior sacrum, Inserts on the greater trochanter C - Originates on the iliac crest, Inserts on the ASIS D - Originates on the greater trochanter, inserts on the anterior sacrum
B - Originates on the anterior sacrum, Inserts on the greater trochanter
When undraping the client's arm, you should A - Reach under the drape and grab the arm then pull it out B - Place the drape back where the hand or elbow is, sure not to expose the breast, grab the hand or elbow (gently but firmly) and pull the arm out, then gently place it back on the table on top of the drape. C - Undrape the client from the neck to the waist D - Hold the drape down with your hand on the chest and then roll the drape back to expose the arm
B - Place the drape back where the hand or elbow is, sure not to expose the breast, grab the hand or elbow (gently but firmly) and pull the arm out, then gently place it back on the table on top of the drape.
Which movement will shorten the fibers of the soleus A - Knee flexion B - Plantar flexion C - Inversion D - Dorsiflexion
B - Plantar flexion
Balancing negative and positive energies are part of which bodywork modality created by Randolf Stone A - Rolfing B - Polarity C - Reiki D - Swedish
B - Polarity Therapy
What type of insurance protects a massage therapist against claims made by clients that they were injured by the massage therapist? A - General liability B - Professional liability C - Disability D - Worker's compensation
B - Professional liability
How often must a sole-proprietor pay estimated taxes A - Annually B - Quarterly C - Bi-Annually D - Monthly
B - Quarterly
What is the name of the large bump at the proximal radius, below the head of the radius A - Ulnar tuberosity B - Radial tuberosity C - Olecranon D - Coranoid process
B - Radial tuberosity
Which of the quadriceps muscles crosses two joints? A - Vastus Lateralis B - Rectus femoris C - Vastus Intermedius D - Vastus medialis
B - Rectus Femoris
If a client's condition is outside the massage therapists scope of practice, the therapist should A - Schedule extra sessions B - Refer the client to the proper professional C - Take more training D - Read text books
B - Refer the client to the proper professional
Cold is indicated for A - Cancer B - Relief of pain C - Lack of blood flow D - To increase circulation
B - Relief of pain
Adjustments made by the body to manage a permanent or chronic dysfunction is known as A - Overuse atrophy B - Resourceful compensation C - Reciprocal inhibition D - Sensory motor amnesia
B - Resourceful compensation
What does the R in the acronym R.I.C.E. stand for? A- Relax B - Rest C - Run D - Recuperate
B - Rest
Which of the following is a written description of your work experience, educational background, and skills A - Cover Letter B - Resume C - Job application form D - Brochure
B - Resume
What action would bring the scapula closer to the spine A - Protraction/Abduction B - Retraction/Adduction C - Elevation D - Depression
B - Retraction/Adduction
Which of the following muscles will elevate and retract the scapula A - Levator scapula B - Rhomboids C - Pectoralis minor D - Supraspinatus
B - Rhomboids
Manipulation of fascia which was created out of the technique of structural integration is referred to as A - Swedish B - Rolfing C - Shiatsu D - Trager
B - Rolfing
Which of the following is an action of the SCM A - Rotate head & neck to the same side B - Rotate head and neck to opposite side C - Extend head & neck D - Assist in exhalation
B - Rotate head & neck to opposite side
Which of the following is NOT a layer of the digestive tract A - Muscularus B - Rugae C - Mucosa D - Serosa
B - Rugae
The mastoid process serves as the insertion for which muscle? A - Masseter B - SCM C - Temporalis D - Longus coli
B - SCM
Which of the following is not part of the coxal bone? A - Pubus B - Sacrum C - Ilium D - Ischium
B - Sacrum
The ____________ plane divides the body into right and left parts A - Coronal B - Sagittal C - Transverse D - Axial
B - Sagittal
What is the name of the tailor's muscle? A - Gracilis B - Sartorius C - Pectineus D - Adductor longus
B - Sartorius
What is NOT true about the large intestine A - runs from the small intestine to the anus B - Secretes digestive enzymes for the complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats C - Larger in diameter than the small intestine D - Main function is to absorb water and electrolytes
B - Secretes digestive enzymes for the complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
These impulses are carried on afferent fibers A - Motor B - Sensory
B - Sensory
Which of the following is a list of the erector spinae muscles from most medial to most lateral? A - Multifidi, illiocostalis, spinalis B - Spinalis, longissimus, illiocostalis C - Spinalis, illiocostalis, longissimus D - Multifidi, spinalis, longissimus
B - Spinalis, longissimus, illiocostalis
Which of the following muscles do NOT have striations A - Biceps B - Stomach C - Heart D - Tongue
B - Stomach
On the soap notes, what does S stand for? A - Screen B - Subjective C - Scientific D - SOAP
B - Subjective
What muscle group is known for it's bobble head movement? A - Erector spinae B - Suboccipitals C - Abdominals D - None of the above
B - Suboccipitals
These glands are known as the sweat glands and cool the surface of the skin by excreting water, electrolytes and organic waste. A - Sebaceous B - Sudoriferous
B - Sudoriferous
Which of the following scenarios represents a massage therapist going out of the scope of their practice A - Recommending specific stretches for a client to do at home B - Suggesting an herbal remedy for a client's condition instead of a prescription medication that the client is taking C - Suggesting that a client needs strengthening exercises and referring them to a personal trainer for an exercise program D - Having a personal connection with a client that goes beyond the client/practitioner relationship
B - Suggesting an herbal remedy for a client's condition instead of a prescription medication that the client is taking
Which of the following muscles is not an adductor A - Teres minor B - Supraspinatus C - Infraspinatus D - Latissimus dorsi
B - Supraspinatus
A new client comes to your office. On the intake form, you notice they are taking medication and they tell you they had just recently been diagnosed with high blood pressure and their doctor prescribed the medicine to control it. What will you do? A - Give a light massage B - Tell the client you are sorry for the inconvenience, and that you must speak with their doctor before giving them the massage. Ask them if they have the phone number. If not, look it up and attempt the call immediately. If you can't reach the doctor's office, reschedule. C - Give a normal massage. High Blood pressure is not contraindicated. D - Give a normal massage and work in the direction of the venous return.
B - Tell the client you are sorry for the inconvenience, and that you must speak with their doctor before giving them the massage. Ask them if they have the phone number. If not, look it up and attempt the call immediately. If you can't reach the doctor's office, reschedule.
You are going to sneeze in the massage room. You should. A - Try to suppress the sneeze B - Tell your client that you are about to sneeze; grab a tissue and sneeze into it. Then excuse yourself politely to wash your hands (if you have a sink in the room) or use hand sanitizer. C - Tell your client that you are about to sneeze; sneeze at the wall and don't let go of your client. D - Leave your hand to sneeze
B - Tell your client that you are about to sneeze; grab a tissue and sneeze into it. Then excuse yourself politely to wash your hands (if you have a sink in the room) or use hand sanitizer.
Please choose the subjective item below A - The right shoulder is higher than the left B - The client tells you they feel really blue today C - Drink water, do stretches and massage in one week D - Trigger points in the right teres minor refer sharp pain into the right shoulder at the deltoid attachment
B - The client tells you the feel really blue today
What is the amount of self-employment tax based on? A - One-half of the amount of Social Security and Medicare taxes B - The entire amount of Social Security and Medicare taxes C - The equivalent of federal income tax D - The amount of state and federal income taxes combined
B - The entire amount of Social Security and Medicare taxes
______________ determines how I will drape the chest when performing abdominal massage A - My preference when I receive massage B - The laws regulating massage therapy C - How much time I have to complete the work D - The way my client's arms are situated under the drape
B - The laws regulating massage therapy
During an interview with a client, rapport is A - Assessing posture B - The presence of harmony, trust and cooperation in relationship C - When the client tells you who referred them to you. D - Telling the client how you decided to become a massage therapist
B - The presence of harmony, trust and cooperation in relationship.
Psychology is A - The study of the soul B - The science that seeks to understand behavior and mental events C - The art of treating mental disorders D - The science that seeks to understand human abnormality
B - The science that seeks to understand behavior and mental events
Which is true of infants and children who are deprived of touch? A - They almost always become massage therapists B - They may develop psychological abnormalities in the form of reduced intelligence, stunted emotional development, and increased vulnerability for aggressive or anti-social behaviors. C - They actually are likely to develop into very healthy adults, because they learn to be self-reliant D - They almost always develop an eating disorder in old age
B - They may develop psychological abnormalities in the form of reduced intelligence, stunted emotional development, and increased vulnerability for aggressive or anti-social behaviors.
A long term client is suddenly displaying feelings of inappropriate ager towards his massage therapist. The massage therapist has not provoked or initiated such a feeling. The feelings originated from past issues that the client experienced with her father. What may be displayed in this situation? A - Dual Relationship B - Transference C - Counter Transference D - Depression
B - Transference
In which direction do the fibers of the internal oblique muscles run? A - Downward toward midline B - Upward toward midline C - Transversely across midline D - Straight down and parallel to the linea alba
B - Upward toward the midline
The chemical associated with gout is A - Hydrochloric acid B - Uric Acid C - Hyaluronic acid D - Glucosamine sulfate
B - Uric Acid
The longest nerve in the body is the __________ nerve A - Optic B - Vagus C - Trigeminal D - Abducent
B - Vagus
What is the name of the landmark where the long head of the triceps originates A - Glenoid fossa B - Supraglenoid tubercle C - Infraglenoid tubercle D - Coracoid process
C - Infraglenoid tubercle
__________ has antibacterial properties, and contains enzymes to start the process of breaking carbohydrates down into simpler sugars A - Chyme B - Bile C - Saliva D - Hydrochloric Acid
C - Saliva
Reduces bladder incontinence in children A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
Reduces cellulite A - Physical Benefit B - Mental/Emotional Benefit C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
C - Benefit NOT recognized by the AMTA
Which muscle is a synergist to the supinator during forearm supination A - Pronator teres B - Pronator quadratus C - Biceps brachii D - Flexor Carpi radialis
C - Biceps brachii
What fluid filled sacs, cushions the tendons from rubbing directly on the bones? A - Vertebral discs B - Fascia C - Bursa
C - Bursa
Which vertebrae can be located at the base of the neck A - C - 1 B - C - 2 C - C - 7 D - T - 1
C - C - 7
What is the business structure that allows from the business entity to pay income tax and the owner to pay tax on dividends A - S- Corporation B - Sole-proprietorship C - C - Corporation D - Limited partnership
C - C- Corporation
The breaking down of living tissue is A - Anabolic B - Achromatic C - Catabolic D - Cathartic
C - Catabolic
What is bolus A - Entryway for food B - A muscle that controls passage of food from the stomach to the small intestine C - Chewed food mixed with saliva D - An accessory gland of the digestive system
C - Chewed food mixed with saliva
When moving the shoulder joint in a circular patten, what is the name of the movement A - Flexion B - Abduction C - Circumduction D - Adduction
C - Circumduction
Which of the following anterior scapular landmarks is just medial to the acromion process A - Spine B - Axillary border fossa C - Coracoid process D - Superior angle
C - Coracoid process
What is the plane that cuts the body into anterior and posterior halves A - Sagittal B - Midsagittal C - Coronal D - Transverse
C - Coronal
Anxiety disorders and depression are A - Very rare, but serious B - Common, but never serious or dangerous C - Fairly common, and can have serious effects on ones' relationships, employment, quality of life, and physical health D - Not real disorder at all, but just normal human experiences that do not require treatment.
C - Fairly common, and can have serious effects on ones' relationships, employment, quality of life, and physical health
Which is the longest, heaviest and strongest bone in the body? A - Ilium B - Ischium C - Femur D - Sacrum
C - Femur
Which of the following joints is a diarthrosis A - Suture B - Symphysis C - Glenohumeral D - Intervertebral
C - Glenohumeral
Which of the following is not a flexor muscle A - Biceps femorus B - Semimembranosus C - Gluteus maximus D - Rectus femorus
C - Gluteus Maximus
What muscle has origins on the sacrotuberous and sacroiliac ligaments? A - Gluteus minimus B - Gluteus medius C - Gluteus maximus D - Gluteals
C - Gluteus maximus
When you undrape a leg A - Grab the drape at the bottom corner and start to roll up B - Tuck the drape under the waist and opposite leg at the upper thigh C - Grab the drape at the side and bring it toward the center watching and protecting the client's privacy. Tuck the drape under the same side leg and then at the waist. D - Reach under the drape and pull the leg laterally, then lay it on top of the drape.
C - Grab the drape at the side and bring it toward the center watching and protecting the client's privacy. Tuck the drape under the same side leg and then at the waist.
Which structure can be located by sliding your fingers inferiorly four to six inches from the middle of the iliac crest, along the lateral thigh? A - Lesser trochanter B - Ischial tuberosity C - Greater trochanter D - Coxal joint
C - Greater trochanter
The primary diagnostic feature of impetigo is A - Blisters on a red base B - A raised red, scaly rash C - Honey-colored scabs over blister sites D - Flattened warts
C - Honey-colored scabs over blister sites
Which of the following has direct control over the pituitary A - pons B - Cerebral Cortex C - Hypothalamus D - Midbraid
C - Hypothalamus
What does the I in the acronym R.I.C.E. stand for? A- Inject B - Intubate C - Ice D - Incinerate
C - Ice
What is the superficial sheet of fascia on the lateral aspect of the femur A - Ilioaponarosis B - Vastus lateralis C - Iliotibial tract D - Pes anserinus
C - Iliotibial tract
Which statement is true of dissociation? A - It is very rare, and always bad B - It is very common, and always bad C - In mild forms, such as daydreaming or a mild sense of detachment, it is common and not necessarily bad; severe forms, such as strong and persistent disconnection from reality, are more rare and more serious D - It can never happen in the massage therapy setting, because a person can only dissociate when they are alone
C - In mild forms, such as daydreaming or a mild sense of detachment, it is common and not necessarily bad; severe forms, such as strong and persistent disconnection from reality, are more rare and more serious
The negative effects of exercise A - Clothes do not fit anymore, isolation from social circle, better overall health. B - Pain, extreme fatigue, increased appetite C - Inflammation and fibrosis, muscle and connective tissues strains and increases metabolic waste build up. D - All of the above
C - Inflammation and fibrosis, muscle and connective tissues strains and increases metabolic waste build up.
Allopathic medicine A - Aims to deal with the patient as a whole B - Believes that self-care is the cornerstone to optimum health C - Is a term used to describe conventional, western medicine that uses symptoms and medical tests to assess the problem. The term has been found to be separating. D - Evolved from Henrik Ling's "Swedish Movement Treatment" in the late 19th Century
C - Is a term used to describe conventional, western medicine that uses symptoms and medical tests to assess the problem. The term has been found to be separating.
Which is the best description of rheumatoid arthritis A - An autoimmune attach on synovial membranes and other tissues B - The result of long-term wear and tear on weight-bearing joints C - Is it safe if lesions are localized, treated, and covered D - Is safe because fungal infections are rarely communicable
C - Is safe if lesions are localized, treated, and covered
Which of the following is true of a client's sexual arousal in a massage treatment setting A - It always represents sexual feelings and motivation B - The therapist must, in every case, confront the client as soon as it is evident C - It does not always represent sexual feelings or motivation D - None of these answers
C - It does not always represent sexual feelings or motivation
The bicipital or intertubercular groove is located ___________ to the lesser tubercle of the humerus A - Medial B - Superior C - Lateral D - Distal
C - Lateral
What are the large knobs on the distal ends of the tibia and fibula? A - Tarsals B - Malleolar groves C - Lateral and medial malleoli D - Metatarsals
C - Lateral and medial malleoli
In anatomical position, you bend your trunk to the side, what movement did you make A - Flexion B - Extension C - Lateral flexion D - none of the above
C - Lateral flexion
Ayu means A - Health B - Death C - Life D - Water
C - Life
The technique of kneading is performed in which manner? A- Tapping the fingertips on the surface of the skin B - Sliding the hands rapidly over the skin C- Lifting, grasping, rolling and compressing the skin D - Pressing over the muscle tissue lightly but firmly
C - Lifting, grasping, rolling and compressing the skin
This disease is any of a variety of cancers that begin in the lymph nodes with genetic mutations that change the production of white blood cells. This is called... A - Leukemia B - Adenocarcinoma C - Lymphoma D - Lymphedema
C - Lymphoma
In order to practice proper body mechanics A - Ground your stance, bend your knees and lean over. B - Always lean on the massage table. C - Make sure your table is at the right height D - Ground your stance, spread your feet for more stability and use your muscle strength to get the job done
C - Make sure your table is at the right height.
What is the name of the uppermost part of the sternum? A - Xyphoid B - Coranoid C - Manubrium D - Acromion
C - Manubrium
Which muscle is the strongest in the body relative to it's size? A - Levator scapula B - Lateral pterygoid C - Masseter D - Temporalis
C - Masseter
Which type of joint is the tibiofemoral joint? A - Ball and socket B - Ellipsoid C - Modified Hinge D - Hinge
C - Modified Hinge
In Ayurveda, Dharma means A - Practicing random acts of kindness or selfless service to others B - The connection between human life and cosmic life C - Natural Law or Reality and forms the basis for Indian Philosophy D - The practice of balancing the Doshas and the Five Elemental Theory
C - Natural Law or Reality and forms the basis for Indian Philosophy
What is the name of the gap between Schwann cells A - Axon B - Dendrite C - Nodes of Ranvier D - Myelin Sheath
C - Nodes of Ranvier
What muscle is usually most responsible for sciatica? A - Scalenes B - Pec minor C - Piriformis D - Iliopsoas
C - Piriformis
Which muscle can impinge on the sciatic nerve and cause pain down the posterior leg? A - Biceps femoris B - Sartorius C - Piriformis D - Gluteus maximus
C - Piriformis
What would be a common aspect of the eastern or traditional methods A - Utilize therapeutic application of oils B - Primary use in the health care system C - Points on the body used for therapeutic purposes D - Originated in Japan
C - Points on the body used for therapeutic purposes
Which is the origin of the quadratus lumborum? A - Spinous processes of the lumbar vertebrae B - Eleventh rib C - Posterior iliac crest D - Anterior iliac crest
C - Posterior iliac crest
The elbow is ___________ to the wrist A - Lateral B - Medial C - Proximal D - Distal
C - Proximal
What muscle will flex the hip and originates on the bodies of the transverse processes? A - Quadratus lumborum B - Piriformis C - Psoas major D - Rectus femoris
C - Psoas major
What is the name of the joint between the left coxal bone and the right oz coxae bone? A - Acetebulofemoral joint B - Sacroiliac soint (SI) C - Pubic symphysis D - Iliopubic joint
C - Pubic symphysis
Blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the A - Left Atrium B - Ascending aorta C - Pulmonary trunk D - Brachiocephalic artery
C - Pulmonary trunk
Which abdominal muscle creates the washboard look and/or may have reference to a container of a cold beverage? A - External oblique B - Internal oblique C - Rectus abdominis D - Transverse abdominis`
C - Rectus abdominis
What is the name of the large, broad flat tendon? A - Aponeurosis B - Ligament C - Retinaculum D - Achilies
C - Retinaculum
Which of the following is one of the functions of the Lymphatic system A - To supply the body with the requires nutrients for life B - Balances the blood C - Returns excess interstitial fluid from tissues to the circulatory system D - Propogation of the species
C - Returns excess interstitial fluid from tissues to the circulatory system
The extensor digitorum creates movement at which fingers? A - Second and third B - First through fifth C - Second through fifth D - Fourth and fifth
C - Second through fifth
The Esophageal Hiatus is A - Passageway for air and food B - A circular muscle at the base of the esophagus which prevents food and gastric juices from going back up into the esophagus and cause heartburn C - The slit in the diaphragm in which the esophagus passes through D - The muscular tube which carries food from the pharynx to the stomach
C - The slit in the diaphragm in which the esophagus passes through
Anatomically, the term proximal provides what directional information? A - The structure is further away from the trunk or the body's midline B - The structure is closer to the body's surface C - The structure is closer to the trunk D - The structure is closer to the head
C - The structure is closer to the trunk
Your client is a fortune 500 CEO who has come to you for treatment of severe shoulder pain. During the session who has more power in the client/therapist relationship? A - The client B - Depends on how much you charge for the session C - The therapist D - Depends on the stock performance of the CEO's company
C - The therapist
In what area of the body does opposition occur? A - Hip B - Scapula C - Thumb D - Mandible
C - Thumb
What is the superficial bone extending down the front of the leg? A - Femur B - Fibula C - Tibia D - Patella
C - Tibia
Which of the following muscles insert on the olecranon process A - Biceps brachii B - Coracobrachialis C - Triceps brachii D - Brachialis
C - Triceps brachii
Which of the following originates on the inferior half of the posterior humerus A - Biceps brachii B - Coracobrachialis C - Triceps brachii D - Brachialis
C - Triceps brachii
What is comorbitity A - When a client and therapist become entangled in an unhealthy dual relationship B - When two therapists become entangled in an unhealthy dual relationship C - When two disorders, such as an anxiety disorder and major depression, are happening to the same person at the same time. D - When a child is being mistreated by both parents
C - When two disorders, such as an anxiety disorder and major depression, are happening to the same person at the same time.
It is okay for the massage therapist to talk about their personal life with their clients A - Absolutely B - Absolutely not C - Yes, but within limits determined on a case by case basis. D - Only for the first 5 minutes
C - Yes, but within limits determined on a case by case basis.
Which of the following is a factor used by the IRS in determining that you are an independent contractor A - You have a signed independent contractor agreement B - The company where you work trained you in their procedures of providing services C - You determine how and when you will work D - You use company supplies and equipment to do your work
C - You determine how and when you will work
The golgi apparatus is A - layers of compact bone B - an energy source C - a packaging center around the cell D - micro canals E - a transport vehicle
C - a packaging center around the cell
Which of the following is NOT associated with Bell's palsy? A - A flaccid paralysis of one side of the face caused by inflammation of damage to the facial neve. B - damage to brain tissue caused either by a blockage in blood flow or by an internal hemorrhage C - a pathology that can include ear pain, headaches, and hypersensitivity to sound D - Includes a sudden weakness in the muscles of the affected side of the face
C - a pathology that can include ear pain, headaches, and hypersensitivity to sound
Muscular pain is usually described ___ A - as sharp, shooting, numbness B - as burning or throbbing C - as steady, deep, dull and aching D - as itchy, inflamed and stinging
C - as steady, deep, dull and aching
When a client is lying on the table looking at the ceiling and facing up, this is called ________ position A - prone B - upright C - supine D - ready
C - supine
The skin performs all of the following human body functions except A - cutaneous absorption B - sensation C - vitamin storage D - temperature regulation
C - vitamin storage
What is the name of the large bumpy landmark at the proximal end and lateral aspect of the humerus A - Lesser tubercle B - Intertubercular tuberosity C - Large tuberosity D - Greater tubercle
D - Greater tubercle
Which of the following expenses is considered an allowable deduction by the IRS A - Travel expenses to and from your home to your place of business B - Education expenses incurred to start your business C - Money you pay to receive regular maintenance massage D - Continuing education acquired to maintain credentials or expand business potential
D - Continuing education acquired to maintain credentials or expand business potential
The closed body cavity which holds the brain is called A - Caudal B - Thoracic C - Pelvic D - Cranial E - Retroperitoneal
D - Cranial
The elbow is ______________ to the shoulder A - Lateral B - Medial C - Proximal D - Distal
D - Distal
Which movement will lengthen the fibers of the gastrocnemius A - Knee flexion B - Plantar flexion C - Eversion D - Dorsiflexion
D - Dorsiflexion
The main reason for glandular disfunction A - disease B - surgery C - injury D - all of these answers are correct
D - all of these answers are correct
When performing the traditional Trigger Point Treatment Protocol, the last step is to A - Flush area with general strokes (make nice) B - Bring pressure back to initial intensity of trigger point C - Stretch area to restore normal resting length of muscle D - Educate client in self-care stretching/care, maintaining proper postural alignment
D - Educate client in self-care stretching/care, maintaining proper postural alignment
What does the E in the acronym R.I.C.E stand for? A - Extend B - Exercise C - Excise D - Elevate
D - Elevate
The outermost layer of fascia supporting a muscle is A - Endomysium B - Perimysium C - Myomysium D - Epimysium
D - Epimysium
The causative agent for mononucleosis is usually A - Guillain - Barre virus B - Rotavirus C - Staphlococcus aureus D - Epstein - Barre virus
D - Epstein-Barre virus
Which muscle's primary task is extension of digit number 2 of the hand? A - Extensor digitorum B - Extensor carpi ulnaris C - Palmaris longus D - Extensor indicis
D - Extensor indicis
Lymphangitis is A - cancer of the lymph nodes B - An infection of the adenoids C - An infection of the thoracic duct D - An infection of lymph capillaries
D - An infection of lymph capillaries
The causative agent for acute bronchitis is A - Cigarette smoke or other irritants B - Fungi or molds C - Viruses D - Any combination of infectious agents can cause acute bronchitis
D - Any combination of infectious agents can cause acute bronchitis
One exit from the heart is called A - Atrium B - Vena Cava C - Bicuspid valve D - Aortic semilunar valve
D - Aortic semilunar valve
The oldest system of health is called A - Shiatsu B - Yoga C - Qi Gong D - Ayurveda
D - Ayurveda
The only layer of the epidermis to undergo mitosis is Stratum A - Spinosum B - Granulosum C - Corneum D - Basale
D - Basale
Which muscle runs the length of the forearm but does not cross the wrist joint A - Palmaris longus B - Brachialis C - Flexor carpi radialis D - Brachioradialis
D - Brachioradialis
The fluid that circulates around the CNS is called A - Dura Fluid B - Arachnoid Fluid C - Subarachnoid Fluid D - Cerebrospinal Fluid
D - Cerebrospinal Fluid
What is the name of the anterior curve (concave) of the vertebral column of the neck A - Thoracic kyphosis B - Cervical kyphosis C - Thoracic lordosis D - Cervical lordosis
D - Cervical lordosis
One head of the SCM originates on the sternum. Where does the second head originate? A - First rib B - Mastoid process C - Occiput D - Clavicle
D - Clavicle
What is the insertion of the middle scalene muscle? A - Upper cervical vertebrae B - Clavicle C - Second Rib D - First Rib
D - First rib
Which movement of the vertebral column would shorten the fibers of the rectus abdominis? A - Extension B - Rotation to the opposite side C - Lateral flexion to the same side D - Flexion
D - Flexion
Which is NOT a step in the protocol for the MET technique - post-isometric relaxation (PIR) - during a bodywork session A - The therapist uses passive range of motion to asses and stretch the client's muscle into it's most lengthened position B - The therapist offers resistance for the client to isometrically contract the muscle they have lengthened C - The client contracts the muscle they want to stretch for 812 seconds with 10% of their total strength D - The client eccentrically contracts the target muscle using active range of motion
D - The client eccentrically contracts the target muscle using active range of motion
Which of the following is part of the protocol for the Muscle Energy Technique - reciprocal inhibition (RI) - during a bodywork session? A - The client assesses their active range of motion for the muscle they want to stretch B - The therapist offers resistance for the client to isometrically contract the muscle they want to stretch C - The client contracts the muscle they want to stretch for 8-12 seconds with 10% of their total strength D - The client isometrically contracts the antagonist muscle of which the therapist is tying to stretch
D - The client isometrically contracts the antagonist muscle of which the therapist is tying to stretch
Direction of ease is A - Movement of the joint by a client without any type of assistance from the massage practitioner B - Movement of a joint in which both the client and the therapist produce the motion C - Unconscious changes made by the body to limit movement or pain D - The position the body assumes with postural changes and muscle shortening or weakening, depending on how it has balanced against gravity
D - The position the body assumes with postural changes and muscle shortening or weakening, depending on how it has balanced against gravity
In the article entitles "The Necessary and Sufficient Conditions of Therapeutic Personality Change", Rogers states six conditions he believes are necessary for constructive personality change to occur. Which of the following is NOT one of them A - The client is in a state of incongruence B - The therapist is congruent or integrated in the relationship C - The therapist experiences unconditional positive regard for the client D - The therapist maintains an attitude of superiority and expertise that motivates the client to meet the therapist's standards
D - The therapist maintains an attitude of superiority and expertise that motivates the client to meet the therapist's standards
The therapist can leave the massage room and client when A - The phone rings B - They run out of massage lotion C - They hear sounds in the lobby D - They feel very sick
D - They feel very sick
What is the anatomical term for the Adam's apple? A - Hyoid bone B - Thyroid gland C - Cricoid cartilage D - Thyroid cartilage
D - Thyroid cartilage
The muscles of the quadriceps group all insert into the A - Achilies tendon B - ASIS C- PSIS D - Tibial tuberosity via the paatella tendon
D - Tibial tuberosity via the patella tendon
In which plane of movement does rotation occur A - Coronal B - Sagittal C - Frontal D - Transverse
D - Transverse
Which is the plane of movement dividing the body into upper and lower parts? A - Coronal B - Sagittal C - Medial D - Transverse
D - Transverse
Which abdominal muscle plays a major role in forced exhalation? A - Rectus Abdominis B - External oblique C - Internal oblique D - Transverse abdominis
D - Transverse abdominis
Which topographical feature is on the anterior centerline of the body, superior to the level of the ASIS? A - Inguinal ligament B - Pubic crest C - Iliac crest D - Umbilicus
D - Umbilicus
Interprofessionalism is A - When members of a profession onlyl communicate only with each other, and keep clients or patients to themselves, in order to increase the power, prestige, and earnings of their profession B - When members of a profession develop specialized terminology C - When a profession, such as massage therapy, models itself on another existing profession, such a medicine D - When members of a profession work with professionals in other, related professions, to optimally benefit their clients and to increase the value of the related professions
D - When members of a profession work with professionals in other, related professions, to optimally benefit their clients and to increase the value of the related professions
Basketball is an activity A - With Low Maximum Oxygen Utilization and Low Maximum Voluntary Contraction B - With High Maximum Oxygen Utilization and Low Maximum Voluntary Contraction C - With Low Maximum Oxygen Utilization and High Maximum Voluntary Contraction D - With High Maximum Oxygen Utilization and High Maximum Voluntary Contraction
D - With High Maximum Oxygen Utilization and High Maximum Voluntary Contraction
Which is the origin of the masseter A - Mastoid process B - Maxilla C - Styloid process of temporal bone D - Zygomatic arch
D - Zygomatic arch
A body support is A - Used to support a client on the table B - Encourages client comfort C - can be rolled up towel, a yoga mat, a face cradle pillow or bolster D - All answers are correct
D - all answers are correct
Depth of pressure and the client's comfort A - Should be checked on in the first 5 minutes of the session B - Should be checked on throughout the session when more challenging techniques are being performed, and when the client demonstrates any reaction of discomfort. C - is different for every client D - all answers are correct
D - all answers are correct
Draping material is A - The material or fabric that is used to drape the client B - Sheets, towels, sarongs and/or blankets C - Clearly defines the canvas where you will touch the skin, and the area you do not touch the skin D - All answers are correct
D - all answers are correct
If a client presents with a condition that you do not understand or recognize, what will you do? A - Try to call the doctor B - Look at any reference materials that you have. C - Speak with a mentor or colleague D - All answers are correct
D - all answers are correct
What affects posture A - injury B - fatigue C - height and weight D - all of the above
D - all of the above
Protection of the brain is provided by the A - skull bones B - meninges C - cerebrospinal fluid D - all of these
D - all of these
Heat and cold are NOT both contraindicated for A - Cancer B - Infants C - Geriatric D - Pregnancy E - Inflammation
E - Inflammation
The therapist can use the following techniques to help with emotional releases A - active listening B - intuitive awareness C - holding a quiet safe space D - grounding touch on the feet or hands E - all of these techniques can be used to help
E - all of these techniques can be used to help
