final

The aortic bodies A) sense the concentration of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood. B) give rise to the pulmonary arteries. C) are innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. D) are in the hilum of the lung

A) sense the concentration of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood.

Describe the histological changes that occur in the walls of bronchial tree, beginning with the trachea proceeding to the alveoli

(1) The supportive cartilaginous rings of the trachea are replaced with irregular plates in the primary bronchi and eliminated altogether in the bronchioles. (2) The respiratory epithelium transitions from pseudostratified ciliated columnar cells to simple cuboidal cells in the bronchioles and simple squamous cells in the alveoli. (3) Goblet cells are present in the bronchi but absent elsewhere. (4) A layer of smooth muscle appears in the walls of the bronchi and is present throughout the tree to the respiratory bronchioles

Describe the structure of a mesentery, and then identify and describe the location of two ventral and two dorsal mesenteries.

A mesentery consists of two serous membranes that sandwich blood vessels and nerves in between. The mesentery extends from the abdominal wall to intraperitoneal organs, supporting the organs and fixing them to the wall. The two ventral mesenteries are the falciform ligament, which attaches the liver to the anterior wall and diaphragm, and the lesser omentum, which attaches the lesser curvature of the stomach to the liver. The dorsal mesenteries include the greater omentum, mesentery proper, transverse mesocolon, and sigmoid mesocolon. The greater omentum attaches the greater curvature of the stomach to the posterior abdominal wall. The mesentery proper connects the jejunum and ileum to the posterior abdominal wall. The two mesocolons attach to the region of the colon for which they are named.

The typical (diploid) cells of the body have 46 chromosomes; how many chromosomes does each gamete have? A) 23 B) 46 C) 46 pairs D) 184

A) 23

What is the function of the hepatopancreatic sphincter? A) It controls the entry of bile and pancreatic juices into the alimentary canal. B) As it contracts, it squeezes pancreatic secretions into the duodenum. C) It inhibits defecation in the upper alimentary canal while the anal sphincters do the same in the lower regions. D) It prevents the movement of bile into the gallbladder

A) It controls the entry of bile and pancreatic juices into the alimentary canal.

Alveolar cells that allow rapid diffusion of respiratory gases. A) Type I B) Type II C) alveolar macrophages D) endothelial cells E) pseudostratiied columnar epithelial cells

A) Type I

Of the three different layers of tissue in the wall of the trachea, the outermost layer is the A) adventitia. B) lamina propria. C) submucosa. D) muscularis.

A) adventitia

In which part of the uterine tube does fertilization usually occur? A) ampulla B) isthmus C) infundibulum D) It doesn't occur in the uterine tubes.

A) ampulla

The vocal ligaments attach between the thyroid cartilage and the A) arytenoid cartilage. B) corniculate cartilage. C) cricoid cartilage. D) cuneiform cartilage

A) arytenoid cartilage.

Which structure develops into the umbilical cord? A) body stalk B) chorionic villi C) decidua capsularis D) placenta

A) body stalk

Most foreign substances in inspired air fail to reach the lungs because of the A) ciliated epithelium and mucus that line the respiratory passages. B) abundant blood supply to the nasal mucosa. C) porous structure of the nasal conchae. D) action of the epiglottis

A) ciliated epithelium and mucus that line the respiratory passages.

The trachealis muscle A) constricts the trachea. B) controls the length and tension of the vocal cords. C) initiates the cough reflex. D) raises the larynx when swallowing

A) constricts the trachea.

Which of the following is a secondarily retroperitoneal organ? A) descending colon B) ileum C) sigmoid colon D) transverse colon

A) descending colon

Which of the following pairs of structures is not derived from the same embryonic tissues? A) ductus deferens, uterine tube B) penis, clitoris C) spongy urethra, labia minora D) testes, ovaries

A) ductus deferens, uterine tube

The duodenum contains these structures whose products neutralize the acidic chyme. A) duodenal glands B) gastric glands C) intestinal glands D) Peyer's patches

A) duodenal glands

The epithelial lining of the mouth derives from A) ectoderm. B) mesoderm. C) endoderm. D) neural crest.

A) ectoderm.

Which pulmonary disease is characterized by a permanent enlargement of the alveoli? A) emphysema B) tuberculosis C) pneumonia D) lung cancer

A) emphysema

A chronic respiratory disease that leads to an expanded "barrel chest" is A) emphysema. B) lung cancer. C) tuberculosis. D) pneumonia.

A) emphysema.

Which of the following is not contained in saliva? A) enzymes that begin the digestion of proteins B) enzymes that initiate the digestion of carbohydrates C) bicarbonate buffer D) bactericidal enzymes

A) enzymes that begin the digestion of proteins

The ovarian cortex consists of A) follicles and connective tissue. B) the largest blood vessels of the ovary. C) the hilus of the ovary. D) the mesovarium.

A) follicles and connective tissue.

The liver and pancreas form as part of the embryonic A) foregut. B) midgut. C) hindgut. D) the hindgut and midgut

A) foregut.

The capillaries within a chorionic villus of the placenta contain blood A) from the fetus. B) from the mother. C) from both the fetus and the mother. D) that doesn't belong to the fetus or the mother

A) from the fetus.

Which of the following structures neither enters nor leaves the porta hepatis? A) hepatic veins B) branches of hepatic portal vein C) branches of hepatic artery D) hepatic ducts

A) hepatic veins

Fissure separating the upper and middle lobes of the right lung. A) horizontal B) oblique C) carina D) superior E) inferior

A) horizontal

Which muscle contracts during forced expiration? A) internal oblique B) serratus anterior C) sternocleidomastoid D) pectoralis major

A) internal oblique

All of the following are located within the spermatic cord except the A) superficial inguinal ring. B) ductus deferens. C) pampiniform plexus. D) testicular artery.

A) superficial inguinal ring.

This multinucleate embryonic structure invades the uterus, digesting cells and maternal blood vessels to make way for development of the placenta. A) syncytiotrophoblast B) morula C) inner cell mass D) decidua basalis E) decidua capsularis

A) syncytiotrophoblast

The usual site of embryo implantation is the A) uterus. B) peritoneal cavity. C) vagina. D) uterine tube.

A) uterus.

Explain the difference in muscles used for active inspiration and expiration

Active inspiration involves the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles. Additionally, the scalenes, sternocleidomastoid, and pectoralis minor may also be involved. Active expiration involves relaxation of the diaphragm and contraction of the internal intercostals, oblique and transverse abdominis muscles, and, in certain circumstances, the latissimus dorsi

How many deciduous teeth are there? A) 18 B) 20 C) 32 D) It varies from person to person.

B) 20

Which of the following correctly describes the function of the greater omentum? A) It is a vestigial structure that has no known function. B) It stores fat. C) It absorbs heat from the digestive process and radiates it to the outside of the body. D) It wraps around most of the large intestine and anchors it to the anterior abdominal wall.

B) It stores fat.

Retroperitoneal organs have a serosa facing the peritoneal cavity and a(n) ________ on the posterior side embedded in the abdominal wall. A) mesothelium B) adventitia C) muscularis externa D) vasa vasorum E) caveolae

B) adventitia

Inguinal hernias A) always reach the scrotum. B) always enter the inguinal canal. C) occur with equal frequency in males and females. D) are signs of old age and almost never congenital.

B) always enter the inguinal canal.

The fluid-filled cavity in a mature ovarian follicle is known as A) zona pellucidum. B) antrum. C) corona radiate. D) theca folliculi. E) granulaosa cells.

B) antrum.

The seminal vesicles A) store sperm. B) are glands that secrete most of the volume of the semen. C) secrete digestive enzymes when cancerous. D) empty into the epididymis.

B) are glands that secrete most of the volume of the semen.

The largest macroscopic region of the uterus is its A) fundus. B) body. C) cervix. D) fornix.

B) body.

Supportive cartilage disappears from the bronchial tree at the level of the A) alveolar duct. B) bronchioles. C) lobar bronchi. D) respiratory bronchiole

B) bronchioles.

Which of the following choices correctly pairs a type of cell in the stomach with its secretion? A) parietal cell; pepsinogen B) chief cell; pepsinogen C) parietal cell; mucus D) enteroendocrine; hydrochloric acid

B) chief cell; pepsinogen

The placenta consists of which two structures? A) chorionic villi and amnion B) chorionic villi and decidua basalis C) cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast D) decidua basalis and decidua capsularis

B) chorionic villi and decidua basalis

Which structure is not derived from the embryonic paramesonephric ducts? A) cervix B) clitoris C) upper vagina D) uterine tube

B) clitoris

Which segment of the nephron has a simple squamous epithelium? A) ascending limb of the nephron loop B) descending limb of the nephron loop C) distal convoluted tubule D) proximal convoluted tubule

B) descending limb of the nephron loop

The ability to vary the pitch of the voice results from varying A) the force of air passing over the vocal folds. B) the tension in the vocal folds. C) the size of the laryngeal cartilages. D) the shape of the cricoid cartilage

B) the tension in the vocal folds.

Which of the following is the primary sex organ in the male? A) the prostate B) the testis C) the epididymis D) the penis

B) the testis

In addition to remaining granulosa cells, which of the following cell types make up the corpus luteum? A) oocyte B) theca cells C) cells of the corona radiata D) interstitial cells

B) theca cells

Which female structure is homologous to the corpus spongiosum of the penis? A) clitoris B) crura C) bulb of the vestibule D) labia minora

C) bulb of the vestibule

The stomach A) stores food for later use in the form of fat. B) absorbs most of the nutrients in food. C) churns food into a paste by mechanical means. D) dehydrates food materials before passing them to the small intestine.

C) churns food into a paste by mechanical means.

Which of the following are the only mucosal folds that do not flatten out at all when the organ stretches? A) longitudinal folds in the esophagus B) rugae in the stomach C) circular folds in the small intestine D) mucosal folds in the gallbladder

C) circular folds in the small intestine

Technically, the theca folliculi is not part of the ovarian follicle, although it is associated with it. Instead, the theca folliculi arises from the A) zona pellucida. B) basal lamina around the follicle. C) connective tissue that fills the area between follicles. D) ovarian medulla.

C) connective tissue that fills the area between follicles.

Involuntary contraction of this smooth muscle layer wrinkles and thickens the walls of the scrotum to prevent heat loss. A) tunica albuginea B) tunica vaginalis C) dartos muscle D) cremaster muscle E) internal spermatic fascia

C) dartos muscle

Tubular organ that is transected during a vasectomy. A) epididymis B) rete testis C) ductus deferens D) spermatic cord E) pampiniform plexus

C) ductus deferens

In most cases, the accessory pancreatic duct drains into the A) common bile duct. B) common hepatic duct. C) duodenum. D) jejunum.

C) duodenum.

The lining epithelium of the developing digestive tract (pharynx through anal canal) comes from A) ectoderm. B) mesoderm. C) endoderm. D) neural crest.

C) endoderm.

Erection is caused by A) a jointed bone in the penis that unfolds. B) the penis filling up with semen that is about to be ejaculated. C) erectile bodies filling with blood. D) impulses from the sympathetic nervous system.

C) erectile bodies filling with blood.

Which of the following processes does not participate in the production of urine in the kidney? A) filtration B) secretion C) evaporation D) resorption

C) evaporation

Attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm. A) greater omentum B) lesser omentum C) falciform ligament D) ligamentum teres E) porta hepatis

C) falciform ligament

The deep inguinal ring is formed by A) extension of the external oblique muscle. B) extension of the internal oblique muscle. C) fascia layer deep to the transversus abdominis muscle. D) cremaster muscle.

C) fascia layer deep to the transversus abdominis muscle.

The opening of the oviduct is surrounded by these structures. A) internal os B) external os C) fimbriae D) isthmus E) cardinal ligaments

C) fimbriae

The cells that secrete estrogens in females are A) oocytes. B) cells in the pituitary gland. C) granulosa cells. D) germinal epithelium of the ovary.

C) granulosa cells.

Junction of the transverse and ascending colon. A) splenic flexure B) cecum C) hepatic flexure D) ileocecal valve E) haustra

C) hepatic flexure

The pancreas contains all of the following regions except a A) head. B) tail. C) hilum. D) body

C) hilum.

If we say the pancreas is shaped like a tadpole, then the tadpole's head lies A) posterior to the fundus of the stomach. B) inside the mesentery proper. C) in the curvature formed by the duodenum. D) against the hilum of the spleen.

C) in the curvature formed by the duodenum.

The parietal cells in the stomach produce A) mucin. B) pepsin. C) intrinsic factor and HCl. D) secretin.

C) intrinsic factor and HCl.

The bare area of the liver A) contains the ligamentum teres. B) is covered with visceral peritoneum. C) is fused with the diaphragm. D) is on the liver's inferior and anterior surface

C) is fused with the diaphragm.

The embryonic urethral folds develop into the female A) bulb of the vestibule. B) labia majora. C) labia minora. D) urethra.

C) labia minora.

Secretions of the parotid gland empty A) anterior to the frenulum of the tongue. B) between the lingual tonsil and epiglottis. C) lateral to the upper molars. D) through 10 ducts on the floor of the oral cavity.

C) lateral to the upper molars.

Embryologically, the nasal cavity develops from A) invagination of the ectoderm of the olfactory placode. B) the nasopharynx. C) a cranial extension of the mouth. D) the early precursor of the paranasal sinuses.

A) invagination of the ectoderm of the olfactory placode.

The acrosomal reaction occurs A) just before fertilization. B) during meiosis of the sperm. C) during spermiogenesis. D) during placentation.

A) just before fertilization.

In breast cancer, the cancer cells usually originate from the A) lactiferous ductules. B) cuboidal acinar cells. C) fat cells in the breast. D) endothelium of the lymph vessels in the breasts.

A) lactiferous ductules.

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) is primarily located within the A) lamina propria. B) muscularis mucosa. C) serosa. D) submucosa.

A) lamina propria.

Of the following, which is the only organ that is not an upper respiratory structure? (Hint: Recall Figure 22.3.) A) larynx B) oropharynx C) vestibule of the nose D) nasal cavity

A) larynx

The splenic, or left colic, flexure of the colon is located within the A) left hypochondriac region. B) left lumbar region. C) right hypochondriac region. D) right lumbar region.

A) left hypochondriac region.

In an adult woman who has never been pregnant, the breasts have poorly developed or no A) lobules of acini/alveoli. B) lactiferous sinuses. C) suspensory ligaments. D) areolar glands

A) lobules of acini/alveoli.

The part of the brain that generates the basic respiratory rhythm is the A) medulla oblongata. B) limbic system. C) hypothalamus. D) cerebrum.

A) medulla oblongata

Which layer of the digestive tract is responsible for the peristaltic waves that propel materials from one portion to another? A) muscularis externa B) serosa C) submucosa D) mucosa

A) muscularis externa

Which of the following is found exclusively in the renal medulla? A) nephron loop of juxtamedullary nephrons B) cortical radiate arteries C) peritubular capillaries D) proximal convoluted tubules

A) nephron loop of juxtamedullary nephrons

Hypospadias A) never occurs in females. B) is characterized by the absence of a urethra. C) cannot be detected through an examination of the outside of a baby's body. D) has no effects until puberty, when males start producing sperm.

A) never occurs in females.

Disease of which structure is the most common cause of tooth loss in adults? A) periodontal ligament B) crown C) enamel D) dentin

A) periodontal ligament

Which of the following is not a function of hepatocytes? A) producing digestive enzymes B) picking up and processing nutrients from the portal blood C) storing some vitamins D) detoxifying poisons

A) producing digestive enzymes

What type of epithelium occurs in the respiratory mucosa? A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium B) simple squamous epithelium C) simple columnar epithelium D) stratified squamous epithelium

A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

When Melinda was asked to identify a "mystery" slide on a histology test, she immediately identified it as renal cortex because of the presence of scattered A) renal corpuscles. B) thin segments. C) renal papillae. D) vasa recta.

A) renal corpuscles.

The descriptive term for the location of the kidneys relative to the abdominal cavity. A) retroperitoneal B) intraperitoneal C) extraabdominal D) supraperitoneal E) subcapsular

A) retroperitoneal

It is easy to see on the outer surface of a smoker's lung hexagons approximately the size of the tip of a little finger and clearly outlined by black lines of carbon. These structures are A) lobes. B) bronchopulmonary segments. C) lobules. D) bronchioles.

C) lobules.

Which of the following layers is present in the mucosa of the stomach and intestines, but not in the mucosa of the mouth and pharynx? A) lining epithelium B) lamina propria C) muscularis mucosae D) lumen

C) muscularis mucosae

Vibrissae are A) specialized cells in the larynx that react to vibrations of air. B) large hairlike projections on epithelial cells that line the trachea. C) nose hairs. D) the sensory organs of the inner ear.

C) nose hairs.

In a runner who is breathing heavily during a race, the rima glottidis is A) half closed. B) half open. C) open as far as possible. D) all the way closed.

C) open as far as possible.

The medial opening between the vocal folds through which air passes. A) glottis B) vestibule C) rima glottidis D) thyrohyoid membrane E) cricothyroid ligament

C) rima glottidis

Which of the following anchors the uterus into an anteverted position in the pelvis? A) broad ligament B) ovarian ligament C) round ligament D) suspensory ligament

C) round ligament

All of the following are functions of the sustentocytes in the seminiferous tubules except A) secretion of androgen-binding protein. B) secretion of testicular fluid. C) secretion of testosterone. D) phagocytosis of excess cytoplasm from spermatids during spermiogenesis.

C) secretion of testosterone.

The milk-producing cells in the breast are A) adipose cells (because milk contains 4% fat). B) columnar epithelial cells in lobules. C) simple cuboidal epithelial cells in alveoli. D) endocrine cells.

C) simple cuboidal epithelial cells in alveoli.

During the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle, these vessels grow and proliferate. A) arcuate arteries B) radial arteries C) spiral arteries D) straight arteries

C) spiral arteries

The lamina propria and submucosa of the stomach both derive from which embryonic layer? A) ectoderm B) intermediate mesoderm C) splanchnic mesoderm D) somatic mesoderm

C) splanchnic mesoderm

The "mostly mucous" extrinsic salivary gland is the ________ gland. A) parotid B) submandibular C) sublingual D) intrinsic

C) sublingual

Fluid that reduces surface tension of the alveolar walls. A) serous fluid B) pleural fluid C) surfactant D) lysozyme E) mucin

C) surfactant

The detergent-like molecule that keeps the alveoli from collapsing between breaths is called A) bile. B) hemoglobin. C) surfactant. D) oxygen.

C) surfactant

In the late stages of pregnancy, the placental barrier of the chorionic villi consists only of which two layers? A) decidua capsularis and decidua basalis B) syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast C) syncytiotrophoblast and capillary endothelium D) cytotrophoblast and extraembryonic mesoderm

C) syncytiotrophoblast and capillary endothelium

Three strips of longitudinal muscles of the muscularis of the colon causing it to pucker into sacs. A) ileocecal junction B) haustra C) teniae coli D) muscularis mucosae E) pyloric sphincter

C) teniae coli

The prepuce of the clitoris is formed by A) the fourchette. B) the hymen of the vagina. C) the labia minora. D) the mons pubis.

C) the labia minora.

At what point during fetal development is the decidua basalis/chorionic villi collectively referred to as the placenta? A) the first month B) the ninth month C) the start of fourth month D) the end of second month

C) the start of fourth month

Describe the mechanisms of propulsion by which sperm are transported from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis and, during ejaculation, from the epididymis out of the body

Sperm are carried to the epididymis on a current of testicular fluid that is continuously produced by sustentocytes. The positive pressure of the fluid production forces the nonmotile sperm forward. Additionally, myoid cells that surround the seminiferous tubules rhythmically contract, helping to squeeze the sperm out of the testes. During ejaculation, smooth muscle cells in the epididymis and ductus deferens propel sperm by strong peristaltic contractions. Finally, the bulbospongiosus muscle covering the bulb of the penis contracts, propelling semen through the spongy urethra.

Although the ovaries and uterine tubes are retroperitoneal, oocytes are ovulated into the peritoneal cavity

T

Breast milk collects in the lactiferous sinus when a woman breastfeeds her infant.

T

Changes in the size of the thoracic cavity bring about inspiration and expiration

T

Chief cells of the gastric glands secrete pepsinogen

T

Cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons can be distinguished by the absence of a vasa recta in the cortical nephrons

T

Cryptorchidism is a congenital condition in which one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum.

T

From the lumen outward, the layers of the gastrointestinal tract are mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa

T

Granulosa cells of a maturing ovarian follicle convert androgens to estrogens that will stimulate proliferation of the endometrium

T

Hepatic portal blood is mixed with blood from the hepatic artery in the liver.

T

In females, the urinary bladder lies anterior to the vagina and uterus.

T

Most of the ascending colon lies between the subcostal and transtubercular planes.

T

Oogenesis takes years to complete

T

Sustentocytes support developing sperm and form a blood-testis barrier.

T

The correct sequence of arterial blood flow is the renal artery to the segmental arteries to the interlobar arteries.

T

A woman's sex cells (germ cells) originate embryologically A) in the innermost part of the gonad. B) from the germinal epithelium of the ovary. C) from the follicular cells of the follicles. D) from yolk sac endoderm.

D) from yolk sac endoderm.

Which of the following is not part of the filtration membrane? A) basement membrane B) capillary endothelium C) filtration slit diaphragm D) granular cells

D) granular cells

The left lung A) has three lobes. B) is supplied entirely by a secondary bronchus. C) receives oxygenated blood from the heart via the left pulmonary artery. D) has a cardiac notch.

D) has a cardiac notch.

The epididymis, ductus deferens, and seminal vesicles are all derived from mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts

T

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the rectum? A) lacks tenia coli B) has longitudinal folds called columns C) is secondarily retroperitoneal D) has transverse folds called rectal valves

D) has transverse folds called rectal valves

The external intercostal muscles are involved in active inspiration.

T

The internal urethral sphincter is composed of smooth muscle and is under involuntary control.

T

The mucosal epithelium transitions from pseudostratified columnar to simple cuboidal along the path to the respiratory bronchioles

T

The number of secondary, or lobar, bronchi is a distinguishing characteristic of the right and left lungs.

T

The pancreas and duodenum are secondarily retroperitoneal organs.

T

The pleural cavities extend two ribs below the inferior border of the lungs

T

The scalene muscles are involved in deep inspiration

T

The small intestines contain bacteria that synthesize some essential vitamins.

T

The vermiform appendix is suspended from the cecum.

T

Urine drains from the kidney in the following sequence: from the collecting duct to the minor calyx to the major calyx to the renal pelvis and then to the ureter

T

Urine flows from the kidney to the bladder by gravity and peristalsis

T

Venous structures of the kidney mirror those of the arterial circuit, except for the absence of segmental veins.

T

All of the following are adaptations for keeping the testes cool except the A) descent of the testes into the scrotum before birth. B) pampiniform plexus of veins. C) cremaster and dartos. D) testicular artery.

D) testicular artery.

Sperm are moved into the epididymis from the testis by A) swimming under their own power. B) gravity. C) suction. D) testicular fluid moved by cilia and smooth muscle cells.

D) testicular fluid moved by cilia and smooth muscle cells.

A difference between a primary follicle and a primordial follicle is that A) one has an antrum and the other does not. B) the oocyte is larger in the primordial follicle. C) the primary follicle is an earlier stage than the primordial follicle. D) the primordial follicle has only a single layer of flat follicular cells, whereas the primary follicle is comprised of cuboidal follicle cells.

D) the primordial follicle has only a single layer of flat follicular cells, whereas the primary follicle is comprised of cuboidal follicle cells.

An important difference between a cuboidal epithelial cell of the proximal versus the distal convoluted tubules is that A) the former only secretes, the latter only filters. B) one lies in the renal cortex, the other in the medulla. C) only one has a folded basolateral membrane containing enzymes for ion transport. D) the proximal tubule cells have long microvilli that are fewer than or absent from the distal tubule cells

D) the proximal tubule cells have long microvilli that are fewer than or absent from the distal tubule cells

Lung cancer occurs slightly more frequently in the right lung than in the left lung (about 53% versus 47% of the time). The most logical explanation for this is that A) the tissue of the right lung is more susceptible to carcinogens. B) the right nostril is closed more often than the left one, so it blocks the exhalation of cigarette smoke and causes smoke to back up into the right lung. C) most people are right-handed, so everything affects the right side of the body more intensely. D) the right primary bronchus is wider than the left one (and the right lung is larger than the left lung), so the right lung receives slightly more carcinogenic cigarette smoke with each puff.

D) the right primary bronchus is wider than the left one (and the right lung is larger than the left lung), so the right lung receives slightly more carcinogenic cigarette smoke with each puff.

In females, the paramesonephric ducts give rise to A) the ovaries. B) the vestibule in the vulva. C) the corpora cavernosa (erectile bodies). D) the uterine tubes and uterus.

D) the uterine tubes and uterus.

The main function of the elaborate venous plexus in the nasal mucosa is A) diapedesis of leukocytes. B) to replace vessels broken in nose bleeds. C) to supply extra blood to the brain and supplement the dural sinuses. D) to warm blood and moisten inhaled air

D) to warm blood and moisten inhaled air

The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is the A) uterus. B) peritoneal cavity. C) vagina. D) uterine tube.

D) uterine tube.

Ladderlike looping blood vessels within the medulla. A) vasa vasorum B) peritubular capillaries C) cortical radiate D) vasa recta E) interlobular

D) vasa recta

Anatomical region of the nasal cavity containing nose hairs. A) nasal septum B) olfactory mucosa C) nasal conchae D) vestibule E) uvula

D) vestibule

Which portion of the nasal cavity is lined with sebaceous and sweat glands and numerous hair follicles? A) hard and soft palate B) nasal conchae C) roof (ceiling) D) vestibule

D) vestibule

________ is a dangerous inflammation of herniations in the colonic wall.

Diverticulitis

Infoldings of the sarcolemma of smooth muscle fibers. A) mesothelium B) adventitia C) muscularis externa D) vasa vasorum E) caveolae

E) caveolae

Attaches the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach. A) haustra B) hepatopancreatic ampulla C) porta hepatis D) greater omentum E) lesser omentum

E) lesser omentum

Specific location within the lungs where gas exchange occurs. A) terminal bronchioles B) carina C) bronchopulmonary segments D) alveoli E) respiratory membrane

E) respiratory membrane

A gallstone lodged in the cystic duct may also cause blockage of the pancreas.

F

A network of peritubular capillaries surrounds the convoluted tubules and nephron loop for the purpose of filtration.

F

Breast milk production and secretion follows the following sequence: lactiferous sinus, alveoli, lactiferous ducts, nipple.

F

Gas exchange occurs across the bronchi and bronchioles

F

Lobules and alveoli of the breast develop during puberty.

F

Primordial follicles develop into primary oocytes within the germinal epithelium of the ovary

F

Seminiferous tubules are the site of sperm storage

F

Smooth muscle fibers differ from skeletal muscle in that they do not contain contractile myofilaments

F

Spermatogonia are located near the lumen of seminiferous tubules.

F

Stretching of the anal sphincter initiates the defecation reflex.

F

The ductus deferens and uterine tube are homologous structures, each deriving from the same embryonic duct.

F

The ejaculatory ducts are formed by the union of the ductus deferens and urethra.

F

The groove through which air passes between nasal conchae is called a choanae

F

The left lung has both a horizontal fissure and oblique fissure.

F

The most superficial layer of the esophagus is the serosa.

F

The only laryngeal cartilage to form a complete ring is the cuneiform.

F

The respiratory zone begins at the large bronchioles.

F

The sinusoids of the liver lobule receive blood from the portal arteriole and deliver blood to the portal venule.

F

The spermatic cord is another name for the ductus deferens.

F

The terms taste bud and papillae are synonymous.

F

The trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles are all located within the lungs

F

The vocal ligaments are attached between the cricoid and arytenoid cartilages

F

Type II alveolar cells produce pleural fluid to keep the walls of the alveoli from collapsing or adhering together

F

Villi are cytoplasmic projections on the surface of intestinal absorptive cells.

F

When the diaphragm contracts, it raises the floor of the thoracic cavity upward

F

________ cells are modified smooth muscle cells of the afferent and efferent arterioles that secrete the hormone renin.

Granular (or Juxtaglomerular)

Explain the relationship between a hiatal hernia and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

In a hiatal hernia, the cardiac region of the stomach pushes superiorly through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm and into the thoracic cavity. Without the reinforcement of the surrounding diaphragmatic muscles, the effectiveness of the cardiac sphincter declines, and digestive juices are able to regurgitate from the stomach into the esophagus. This regurgitation and the associated inflammation and pain are called gastroesophageal reflux disease.

Identify the location and function of the enteric nerve plexus.

The enteric nerve plexus consists of neurons located entirely within the walls of the GI tract. These neurons form reflex arcs that can function independently from the central nervous system. The enteric plexus includes neurons from both the submucosal and myenteric plexuses. The submucosal nerve plexus, located in the submucosa, innervates the secretory glands of the mucosa. It also causes some movements of the mucosa. The myenteric nerve plexus lies in the muscularis layer of the tract. It controls peristalsis and segmentation

Describe the structure, function, and control of the internal and external urethral sphincters in micturition

The internal urethral sphincter is composed of smooth muscle and is under involuntary control. In contrast, the external urethral sphincter is skeletal muscle that can be voluntarily controlled. The internal sphincter prevents leakage of urine between voiding, and the external sphincter prevents urination until consciously desired.

Describe the structure and function of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue.

The intrinsic muscles are confined within the tongue and are not attached to bone. They are responsible for changing the shape of the tongue but not its position in the mouth. This latter function belongs to the extrinsic muscles that are attached to bone. The genioglossus is responsible for protracting, retracting, and lateral movements of the tongue. The intrinsic muscles are arranged in transverse, longitudinal, and vertical layers, allowing the tongue to change shape while chewing and speaking

Glomeruli arise from branches off the ________ arterioles of the cortex.

afferent glomerular

The ________ artery is located between the interlobar and cortical radiate arteries.

arcuate

The ________ cartilages are the posterior anchor of the vocal cords

arytenoid

he ________ region of the stomach is closest to the esophagus.

cardiac

The presence of a(n) ________ in its medial aspect is unique to the left lobe.

cardiac notch

The ________ marks the point where the trachea branches into the two main bronchi

carina

The root of the tooth is held to the periodontal ligament by a calcified connective tissue called ________.

cement

The bulb of the vestibule and the ________ are female erectile bodies

clitoris

The right and left hepatic ducts join to form the ________ duct.

common hepatic

The crura are extensions of the ________, the paired erectile bodies of the penis, and attach the penis to the pubic arch.

corpora cavernosa

Contraction of the ________ in the wall of the spermatic cord raises the testes closer to the body cavity.

cremaster muscle

"Baby" teeth are more properly called ________ teeth.

deciduous

Thin myofilaments of smooth muscle fibers are anchored to intermediate filaments through ________.

dense bodies

The ________ is formed by the union of the ductus deferens and seminal vesicles.

ejaculatory duct

The uterus is composed of three basic layers. The inner layer is the ________.

endometrium

The ________ urethral sphincter is composed of skeletal muscle and under voluntary control.

external

During the menstrual phase of the uterine cycle, the inner ________ of the endometrium is shed.

functional layer

Ovarian follicles contain ________ and thecal cells that, after ovulation, differentiate into the corpus luteum

granulosa cells

The region between your teeth and lips is called the ________.

oral vestibule

The ________ sinuses drain into the nasal cavity

paranasal

Between the fibrous renal capsule and the renal fascia is a cushioning and supportive ________ fat capsule.

perirenal

Most water and solutes are resorbed from the convoluted renal tubules into the ________.

peritubular capillaries

The ________ tonsil, or adenoids, is located on the wall of the nasopharynx.

pharyngeal

The external muscle layer of the pharynx consists of three ________ muscles composed of voluntary skeletal muscle

pharyngeal constrictor

Fusion of the alveolar and capillary membranes creates a(n) ________ membrane, or airblood barrier

respiratory

Longitudinal folds of the stomach mucosa are called ________.

rugae

Five ________ arteries branch from the renal artery and enter the hilus.

segmental

Blood flowing through the liver lobule enters at the portal venule and flows through ________ to the central vein and out of the liver through the hepatic vein.

sinusoids

The transverse colon bends inferiorly at the ________ to become the descending colon.

splenic flexure

Contraction of the fibromuscular ________ of the prostate squeezes prostatic secretions into the urethra during ejaculation.

stroma

The unexpected death of an apparently healthy infant during sleep is called ________.

sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

The function of type II alveolar cells is to produce ________.

surfactant

The parts of the nephron whose epithelial cells contain the most mitochondria are the A) renal corpuscle and distal tubule. B) proximal and distal tubules. C) thin segment and glomerular capsule. D) vasa recta and collecting tubules.

B) proximal and distal tubules.

The part of the nephron whose epithelial cells are most responsible for resorption and secretion is the A) glomerular capsule (podocytes). B) proximal tubule. C) thin segment. D) distal tubule.

B) proximal tubule.

Before it enters the ureter, urine collects in the A) renal sinus. B) renal pelvis. C) renal cortex. D) renal pyramids.

B) renal pelvis.

Which of the following is not found in the renal corpuscle? A) the glomerulus B) the nephron loop C) glomerular capsule D) podocytes

B) the nephron loop

Describe the structure and function of the filtration slit and membrane.

Blood is filtered through filtration slits in the glomerular capillaries. The slits consist of three layers. The fenestrations in the endothelium of the capillaries create large pores through which the blood filtrate passes. A basement membrane superficial to the endothelium provides a second layer of the barrier. It prevents most large proteins from passing. Finally, the pedicles of the podocytes form the third layer of the membrane. These also prevent proteins from passing through the slits.

Why are urinary tract infections more common in females than in males? A) In males the urethra is made up of three regions, whereas in females it is made of only one. B) In females the urethra is attached to the anterior vaginal wall by connective tissue. C) In females the urethra is shorter than in males. D) In males the urethra is shared by the both the reproductive and the urinary systems, whereas in females it is part of the urinary system only.

C) In females the urethra is shorter than in males.

Arteries that branch to form the afferent arterioles to the glomeruli are A) segmental arteries. B) arcuate arteries. C) cortical radiate arteries. D) interlobar arteries.

C) cortical radiate arteries.

Knot of capillaries that directs blood into the efferent arteriole. A) arcuate arteries B) cortical radiate arteries C) glomerulus D) afferent arterioles E) peritubular capillaries

C) glomerulus

Another name for the neck of the bladder is the A) superior surface. B) anterior angle. C) inferior angle. D) trigone.

C) inferior angle.

Which vessels lie within the renal columns? A) arcuate arteries B) cortical radiate arteries C) interlobar arteries D) segmental arteries

C) interlobar arteries

The name of the inferior of the three openings in the trigone of the bladder is the A) ureteric orifice. B) urachus opening. C) internal urethral orifice. D) detrusor.

C) internal urethral orifice.

The left renal vein ________ the right renal vein. A) is shorter than B) is the same length as C) is longer than D) carries less blood than

C) is longer than

Region of the distal tubule that monitors concentration of the filtrate. A) vasa recta B) collecting duct C) macula densa D) mesangial E) extraglomerular

C) macula densa

The only embryonic kidney that survives into adulthood is the A) pronephros. B) mesonephros. C) metanephros. D) paranephros

C) metanephros.

If you looked closely at the tip of a renal papilla with a hand lens, the hundreds of little openings you would see on its surface are A) minor calyces. B) renal sinuses. C) openings of papillary ducts. D) glomeruli.

C) openings of papillary ducts.

How much of the fluid filtered by the kidney actually becomes urine? A) 1% B) 10% C) 50% D) 99%

A) 1%

The medial concave cleft in which vessels, ureters, and nerves enter/leave the kidney. A) cortex B) hilum C) renal corpuscle D) renal capsule E) sinus

B) hilum

From which embryonic tissue layer(s) does the kidney arise? A) ectoderm B) mesoderm C) endoderm D) all three layers

B) mesoderm

Cup-shaped tubes that enclose the papillae of the pyramids. A) major calyx B) minor calyx C) renal sinus D) renal pelvis E) cortical columns

B) minor calyx

Which of the following supportive tissues is most superficial? A) fibrous capsule B) pararenal fat C) perirenal fat D) renal fascia

B) pararenal fat

Which of the following is not usually associated with the formation of renal calculi? A) increased intake of calcium B) polyurea C) dehydration D) bacterial infection

B) polyurea

In the micturition reflex, the detrusor muscle is stimulated to contract by A) sphincter neurons from the brain. B) sympathetic fibers. C) parasympathetic fibers. D) visceral sensory fibers from the vagus.

C) parasympathetic fibers.

The micturition center is located in the A) cerebellum. B) detrusor muscle layer of the bladder wall. C) pons of the brain stem. D) sacral spinal cord.

C) pons of the brain stem.

Which of the following would not inhibit micturition? A) stimulation of the somatic motor neurons to the external urethral sphincter B) activation of the sympathetic pathways C) relaxation of the internal urethal sphincter D) relaxation of the detrusor muscles

C) relaxation of the internal urethal sphincter

Which of the following structures is most numerous within a kidney? A) cortical radiate arteries B) minor calyces C) renal corpuscles D) renal papillae

C) renal corpuscles

Which structure(s) is (are) most important for holding the kidney in place in the abdomen? A) renal vessels B) renal ligaments C) renal fascia D) the diaphragm, through its muscle tone

C) renal fascia

The longest of the three parts of the male urethra is the A) prostatic. B) membranous. C) spongy urethra. D) neck.

C) spongy urethra.

Renin is produced in A) the glomerulus. B) the renal medulla. C) the granular cells. D) glomerular capsules.

C) the granular cells.

Cortical nephrons are different from juxtamedullary nephrons in that A) they are much less abundant. B) they produce urine, whereas juxtamedullary nephrons do not. C) their nephron loop is shorter, with a shorter thin segment. D) they do not have a proximal convoluted tubule.

C) their nephron loop is shorter, with a shorter thin segment.

Which of the following conditions is most often seen in elderly males with prostatic hyperplasia? A) urge incontinence B) overflow incontinence C) urinary retention D) stress incontinence

C) urinary retention

The descending thin limb of the nephron loop consists of a simple squamous epithelium.

T

The glomerular capsule and the glomerular capillaries together make up the renal corpuscle.

T

The location and length of the urethra are two factors that contribute to the high incidence of urinary tract infections in women

T

The function of the collecting duct is to A) contract its muscular walls to expel urine from the cortex. B) determine the final volume and concentration of urine. C) drain blood from the kidney and deliver it to the renal vein. D) transport resorbed water back into the cardiovascular system.

B) determine the final volume and concentration of urine.

Sperm become motile in the A) ductus deferens. B) epididymis. C) seminiferous tubules. D) prostate.

B) epididymis.

The ________ flaps over the glottis when we swallow food. A) uvula B) epiglottis C) palate D) vocal fold

B) epiglottis

The superior and middle nasal conchae are bony projections from the A) vomer. B) ethmoid bone. C) sphenoid bone. D) maxillary bone.

B) ethmoid bone.

By undergoing meiosis, each primary spermatocyte ultimately gives rise to how many sperm cells? A) two B) four C) eight D) billions

B) four

The function of the pampiniform plexus of veins is to A) help prevent hernias. B) help cool blood. C) form the outer wall of the spermatic cord. D) form hydroceles.

B) help cool blood.

Some bacteria from the intestinal microbiota work their way into the intestinal wall and start to spread through the circulation. Many of these bacteria are stopped by MALT, while many more are destroyed by A) hepatocytes. B) hepatic macrophages. C) the walling-off action of the greater omentum. D) megakaryocytes.

B) hepatic macrophages.

An aortic aneurysm that presses on the left recurrent laryngeal nerve could lead to A) paralysis of the diaphragm. B) hoarse speech. C) complete loss of speech. D) inability of the carotid sinus to monitor blood gases

B) hoarse speech.

The terminal portion of the small intestine is the A) duodenum. B) ileum. C) jejunum. D) pyloric sphincter.

B) ileum.

When the diaphragm contracts, the size of the thoracic cavity ________, the pressure inside the thoracic cavity ________, and air flows ________ the lungs. A) decreases; rises; into B) increases; drops; into C) decreases; drops; out of D) increases; drops; out of

B) increases; drops; into

Which muscle is used for both quiet inspiration and forced expiration? A) external intercostals B) internal intercostals C) latissimus dorsi D) scalenes

B) internal intercostals

The zona pellucida A) is the portion of the placenta in which maternal blood contacts fetal tissues. B) is a protective shell around the oocyte that sperm must penetrate for fertilization to occur. C) is the region of the uterine tube where fertilization occurs. D) is the remnant of the vesicular follicle that becomes the corpus luteum.

B) is a protective shell around the oocyte that sperm must penetrate for fertilization to occur.

The female homologue of the male scrotum is the A) ovary. B) labia majora. C) penile urethra. D) bulb of the vestibule.

B) labia majora.

The lesser omentum extends between the A) greater curvature of the stomach and the posterior abdominal wall. B) lesser curvature of the stomach and the porta hepatis of the liver. C) transverse colon and the posterior abdominal wall. D) sigmoid colon and the posterior pelvic wall.

B) lesser curvature of the stomach and the porta hepatis of the liver.

Digestion of which of the following would be affected the most if the bile-secreting liver were severely damaged? A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) nucleic acids

B) lipids

The region of the lung served by secondary, or lobar, bronchi. A) bronchopulmonary segment B) lobe C) lobule D) lingular E) cardiac notch

B) lobe

The ventral respiratory group (VRG) is a group of neurons located within the A) forebrain. B) medulla oblongata. C) midbrain. D) pons.

B) medulla oblongata.

An episiotomy during childbirth is performed to A) save the baby's life. B) minimize tearing of the central tendon and muscles of the pelvic floor. C) prevent the anal canal from being crushed. D) eliminate the pain to the mother.

B) minimize tearing of the central tendon and muscles of the pelvic floor.

All of the following structures have all four tissue layers in their walls except the A) esophagus. B) mouth. C) stomach. D) sigmoid colon

B) mouth.

The correct sequence of layers in the wall of the alimentary canal, from internal to external, is A) mucosa, muscularis, serosa, submucosa. B) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa. C) serosa, muscularis, mucosa, submucosa. D) submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscularis.

B) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa.

Layer of the GI tract responsible for peristalsis and segmentation. A) muscularis mucosae B) muscularis externa C) lamina propria D) submucosa E) serosa

B) muscularis externa

Which testicular cells help deliver sperm to the epididymis by contracting rhythmically? A) interstitial B) myoid C) sustentocytes D) type A spermatocytes

B) myoid

The female uterine cycle begins A) at ovulation. B) on the first day of menstruation. C) at the end of menstruation. D) every six weeks.

B) on the first day of menstruation.

Which structure is not located within the nasopharynx? A) opening of the pharyngotympanic tube B) palatine tonsil C) pharyngeal tonsil D) tubal tonsil

B) palatine tonsil

Which of the following cells produce intrinsic factor? A) chief cells B) parietal cells C) mucous neck cells D) enteroendocrine cells

B) parietal cells

The serous membrane lining of the wall of the thoracic cavity. A) visceral pleura B) parietal pleura C) mucous membrane D) parietal pericardium E) visceral pericardium

B) parietal pleura

Most of the gastrointestinal tract is innervated by the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the nervous system. Which parts are innervated by the somatic nervous system? A) esophagus and stomach B) pharynx and anal canal C) pyloric, ileocecal, and internal anal sphincters D) small and large intestines

B) pharynx and anal canal

Which structure does not enter or exit from the hilum of a lung? A) bronchial vein B) phrenic nerve C) pulmonary artery D) pulmonary plexus

B) phrenic nerve

Tubules that connect testicular lobules with the efferent ductules of the epididymis. A) seminiferous tubules B) rete testis C) pampiniform plexus D) ductus deferens E) straight tubules

B) rete testis

Some bronchi have names such as the "right upper-lobe bronchus," "left lower-lobe bronchus," and "right middle-lobe bronchus." These are ________ bronchi. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) very small (about fifteenth-order)

B) secondary

A factor that propels an oocyte through the uterine tube is A) pressure exerted by ovarian fluid. B) smooth muscle contraction (peristalsis). C) secretions of the nonciliated cells. D) amoeboid motion of the oocyte.

B) smooth muscle contraction (peristalsis).

The epithelium lining the vagina is A) simple columnar. B) stratified squamous. C) pseudostratified columnar. D) simple squamous.

B) stratified squamous.

The layer of the digestive tube that contains abundant elastin plus blood vessels, lymphoid nodules, and deep glands is the A) adventitia. B) submucosa. C) muscularis. D) serosa

B) submucosa.

The vaginal fornix A) is in the superior part of the vestibule. B) surrounds the tip of the cervix. C) is in the middle layer of the vaginal wall. D) surrounds the external vaginal orifice

B) surrounds the tip of the cervix.

Which part of the nose is composed of dense fibrous connective tissue? A) the apex B) the border where the nostril attaches to the maxilla C) the nasal septum D) the surface connecting to the nasal bones

B) the border where the nostril attaches to the maxilla

In lung cancer, the cancer cells usually arise from A) the smooth muscle fibers around the bronchioles. B) the epithelium lining a large bronchus. C) the alveoli. D) lymph nodes in the lung.

B) the epithelium lining a large bronchus.

The lobes of a lung are easy to recognize and distinguish from one another because A) they all have slightly different colors. B) they are separated by fissures. C) each is supplied by a primary bronchus, and the primary bronchi are easy to find. D) carbon from the air accumulates between and outlines the lobes in most people (even if they breathe almost-unpolluted air).

B) they are separated by fissures.

The epithelium lining the urinary bladder that permits distension is A) stratified squamous. B) transitional. C) simple squamous. D) pseudostratified columnar

B) transitional.

The splenic flexure is the boundary between the A) spleen and stomach. B) transverse and descending colon. C) transverse and ascending colon. D) descending colon and sigmoid colon.

B) transverse and descending colon.

Which cells produce surfactant? A) type I cells B) type II cells C) alveolar macrophages D) chondrocytes

B) type II cells

Which of the following changes does not occur as the conducting tubes of the respiratory tree become smaller? A) Cartilage rings are replaced by irregular plates of cartilage. B) The lining epithelium thins. C) Elastin in the walls disappears. D) Cartilage disappears in the bronchioles.

C) Elastin in the walls disappears.

Which of the following is true of the pectinate line of the anal canal? A) It lies just below the level of the rectal valves. B) It is also called the anal columns. C) It divides regions of somatic and visceral innervation. D) All hemorrhoids occur there

C) It divides regions of somatic and visceral innervation.

Which of the following statements about the large intestine is false? A) It has no villi. B) It exhibits external muscular bands called taeniae coli. C) It is longer than the small intestine. D) It has haustra

C) It is longer than the small intestine.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the large intestine? A) It includes the ascending, transverse, and descending colon. B) It contains an abundant bacterial flora. C) It is the main site of nutrient absorption. D) It absorbs much of the water and salts remaining in the wastes.

C) It is the main site of nutrient absorption.

Which of the following is a role of the levator ani muscle in defecation? A) It pushes down on the feces. B) It has no role in defecation, only in inhibiting defecation (it is the external sphincter muscle). C) It lifts the anal canal superiorly around the feces. D) Its stretch and proprioception properties initiate the defecation reflex.

C) It lifts the anal canal superiorly around the feces.

Which of the following is not a function of the nasal conchae? A) They deflect particulates to the mucosa. B) They help warm the air. C) They decrease the turbulence in the flow of air through the nasal cavity. D) They moisten the air.

C) They decrease the turbulence in the flow of air through the nasal cavity.

Which gland sits atop each kidney? A) pancreas B) pituitary C) adrenal D) interlobar gland

C) adrenal

Which structure is both a lower respiratory structure and in the conducting zone? (Hint: Recall Figure 22.3.) A) the laryngopharynx B) a respiratory bronchiole C) any bronchus D) an alveolus

C) any bronchus

In mastication, the relative roles of an incisor versus a molar are A) piercing versus tearing. B) chewing versus holding food in the mouth. C) biting off pieces of food versus grinding. D) only incisors function in mastication

C) biting off pieces of food versus grinding.

Sympathetic stimulation of terminal bronchioles causes A) bronchoconstriction. B) a decrease in blood supply to the bronchioles. C) bronchodilation. D) secretion of less surfactant.

C) bronchodilation.

The structural basis of the blood-testis barrier is A) the basal lamina around the seminiferous tubules. B) the endothelial cells of the continuous (nonfenestrated) capillaries that supply the seminiferous tubules. C) the tight junctions between sustentocytes. D) the thick basal lamina around the capillaries that supply the seminiferous tubules.

C) the tight junctions between sustentocytes.

The lungs are located in the A) mediastinum. B) abdominopelvic cavity. C) thoracic cavity. D) pleura.

C) thoracic cavity.

The portion of the large intestine closest to the liver is the A) cecum. B) rectum. C) transverse colon. D) descending colon.

C) transverse colon.

The layer of podocytes is the same as the A) parietal layer. B) glomerulus. C) visceral layer of glomerular capsule. D) capsular space

C) visceral layer of glomerular capsule.

Another name for serosa is A) parietal peritoneum. B) serous gland. C) visceral peritoneum. D) mucosa

C) visceral peritoneum.

What is the distinction between Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis? A) Although both diseases are caused by inflammation, Crohn's disease occurs only in the small intestine, whereas ulcerative colitis occurs only in the large intestine. B) Crohn's disease is caused by the bacterium H. pylori, whereas ulcerative colitis results from the failure of acid to be neutralized before it reaches the colon. C) Crohn's disease produces deeper erosions of the mucosa and occurs throughout the intestines, whereas ulcerative colitis occurs mostly in the rectum. D) Crohn's disease results in diverticula, caused by insufficient dietary fiber, whereas ulcerative colitis is caused by the bacterium H. pylori.

C. Crohn's disease produces deeper erosions of the mucosa and occurs throughout the intestines, whereas ulcerative colitis occurs mostly in the rectum.

Describe the effects of smoking on (a) alveolar structure, (b) cilia and alveolar macrophages, and (c) the bronchial epithelium

Components of tobacco smoke lead to destruction of alveolar walls. The resulting loss of surface area for gas exchange is a condition known as emphysema. Smoking also slows the activity of cilia and macrophages of the respiratory mucosa. This leads to accumulation of mucus, irritants, and carcinogens. The carcinogens lead to cancer growth in the bronchial epithelium and mucosal glands.

________ is a condition in which inflammation of the intestines causes deep ulcers and fissures.

Crohn's disease

Which of the following applies to the small intestine? A) It is where foodstuffs first encounter protein-splitting enzymes. B) Its walls secrete most of the digestive enzymes that are active in its lumen. C) It is where carbohydrates and fats but not proteins are digested. D) Breakdown products of fats enter its lacteals.

D) Breakdown products of fats enter its lacteals.

In cows, the nipples (teats) are in the groin region, not in the midthorax as in humans. What is the most logical reason for this difference between cows and people? A) Cows' mammary glands have entirely different embryonic origins from human ones. B) Male cows do not produce milk. C) Cows are more likely to develop inguinal hernias, and their mammary glands protect against that. D) Cows' mammary glands arise from a different part of the milk line.

D) Cows' mammary glands arise from a different part of the milk line.

Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is incorrect? A) It can lead to sterility. B) It is usually caused by chlamydia or gonorrhea. C) It includes salpingitis. D) It inhibits ovulation

D) It inhibits ovulation

Which of the following statements about the duodenum is false? A) It receives chyme from the stomach. B) It is the site of action of liver and pancreas secretions. C) It is shorter than either the ileum or jejunum. D) It is more movable than the ileum or jejunum, which are retroperitoneal

D) It is more movable than the ileum or jejunum, which are retroperitoneal

Why are bacteria abundant in the large intestines but not in the stomach? A) Food enters the stomach first and does not spend much time there. B) The intestine is much warmer and moister, encouraging bacterial growth. C) The stomach wall contains so much lymphoid tissue that it destroys all bacteria there. D) Secretions of parietal cells kill bacteria in the stomach.

D) Secretions of parietal cells kill bacteria in the stomach.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of enteroendocrine cells? A) They are scattered throughout the lining epithelium of the stomach and intestines. B) They secrete hormones that help signal the events of digestion. C) They never secrete their product into the lumen of the digestive canal. D) They are scattered throughout the lining of the rectum.

D) They are scattered throughout the lining of the rectum.

Which of the following events occurs when the testes do not descend before birth? A) Male sex hormones will not circulate in the body. B) Sperm will have no route of exit from the body. C) Inadequate blood supply will retard the development of the testes. D) Viable sperm will not be produced.

D) Viable sperm will not be produced.

Of the basic digestive processes, the one in which nutrients enter capillaries is called A) ingestion. B) propulsion. C) mechanical digestion. D) absorption.

D) absorption.

The function of the cremaster muscle is to A) squeeze semen from the urethra during ejaculation. B) maintain erection in both sexes. C) increase intra-abdominal pressure during childbirth. D) alter the position of the testes in the scrotal sac with increases in ambient temperature.

D) alter the position of the testes in the scrotal sac with increases in ambient temperature.

Fertilization of the ovum normally occurs in this region of the oviduct. A) isthmus B) fimbriae C) infundibulum D) ampulla E) intrauterine portion

D) ampulla

In a preserved cadaver, the first rib is likely to form a groove on which surface of the lung? A) basal B) mediastinal C) inferior costal D) apical (apex)

D) apical (apex)

The smallest airway of the bronchial tree that is primarily responsible for creating bronchoconstriction. A) primary bronchi B) bronchiopulmonary segment C) lobe of lung D) bronchiole E) alveoli sac

D) bronchiole

These are peripheral chemoreceptors that monitor changes in respiratory gasses and blood acidity levels. A) ventral respiratory center B) vagus nerve C) reticular activating system D) carotid bodies E) medulla oblongata

D) carotid bodies

Fingerlike placental structures where oxygen and nutrients from the maternal blood supply diffuse into the embryonic blood. A) syncytiotrophoblast B) allantois C) amnion D) chorionic villi E) extraembryonic membrane

D) chorionic villi

The union of the cystic and common hepatic ducts. A) accessory pancreatic duct B) main pancreatic duct C) hepatopancreatic ampulla D) common bile duct E) bile canaliculi

D) common bile duct

Which of the following organs does not contribute secretion(s) during the male sexual response? A) prostate B) seminal vesicles C) bulbourethral glands D) corpus cavernosum

D) corpus cavernosum

In the early fetus, all of the following are parts of the chorionic villi except the A) syncytiotrophoblast. B) cytotrophoblast. C) extraembryonic mesoderm. D) decidua.

D) decidua.

In the stomach, the undifferentiated epithelial stem cells lie near the junction between the gastric pits and gastric glands. In the intestine, the corresponding stem cells occur A) on the tips of the villi. B) where the intestinal crypts meet the villi. C) in the duodenal (Brunner's) glands. D) deep within the intestinal glands (crypts of Lieberkühn).

D) deep within the intestinal glands (crypts of Lieberkühn).

In males, the paramesonephric (Müllerian) ducts A) give rise to the penile urethra. B) give rise to the prostate gland. C) give rise to the vas deferens. D) degenerate and don't form any structures in males.

D) degenerate and don't form any structures in males.

Of the following tubes, which is the only one that lies partly outside the testis? A) tubulus rectus B) seminiferous tubule C) rete testis D) efferent ductule

D) efferent ductule

Alveolar pores A) allow gases to transfer from the alveoli to the blood. B) allow pleural fluid to enter the alveoli and keep their walls from sticking together. C) are the openings between the alveolar duct and the alveolus. D) equalize air pressure throughout the lung

D) equalize air pressure throughout the lung

In the wall of the trachea and bronchi, the cartilage rings lie within which tissue layer? A) inner epithelium B) mucosa C) submucosa D) fibromusculocartilaginous layer

D) fibromusculocartilaginous layer

Bulblike union of the main pancreatic duct and bile duct. A) cystic duct B) hepatic duct C) porta hepatis D) hepatopancreatic ampulla E) accessory pancreatic duct

D) hepatopancreatic ampulla

Smooth muscle constriction between the ileum and cecum. A) splenic flexure B) cecum C) hepatic flexure D) ileocecal valve E) haustra

D) ileocecal valve

Type of cell in the testes that produces testosterone. A) spermatogonium B) primary spermatocyte C) spermatid D) interstitial E) sustentocytes

D) interstitial

A hydrocele A) occurs in females only. B) is a series of varicosities of the pampiniform plexus. C) is a sac filled with intestines that have pushed through the abdominal wall. D) is excess serous fluid in the scrotum.

D) is excess serous fluid in the scrotum.

The digestive organ primarily responsible for the absorption of water is the A) ileum. B) duodenum. C) anus. D) large intestine.

D) large intestine.

To say someone is "tongue-tied" means that the A) lips are exceptionally immobile. B) tongue muscles are weak. C) salivary glands produce little lubricant. D) lingual frenulum is short.

D) lingual frenulum is short.

The mesentery that suspends the small intestine is the A) falciform ligament. B) lesser omentum. C) greater omentum. D) mesentery proper.

D) mesentery proper

Most support of the uterus is provided by the A) mesometrium. B) round ligament. C) cardinal ligament. D) muscles of the pelvic floor.

D) muscles of the pelvic floor.

This layer of the uterus contracts during parturition to expel the baby. A) perimetrium B) stratum functionalis C) stratum basalis D) myometrium E) endometrium

D) myometrium

The largest salivary gland is the A) intrinsic. B) submandibular. C) sublingual. D) parotid.

D) parotid.

The correct definition of bronchopulmonary segments is A) arbitrary subdivisions of a lung, about as large as a fist (0.3 liter). B) parts of the lung that are easy to remove during surgery. C) parts of the lungs that are separated by the oblique and horizontal fissures. D) parts of the lung that are supplied by a single tertiary bronchus (and its branches).

D) parts of the lung that are supplied by a single tertiary bronchus (and its branches).

The passageway between the nasopharynx and the middle ear is the A) oval window. B) internal acoustic meatus. C) mastoid sinus. D) pharyngotympanic tube.

D) pharyngotympanic tube.

The rubbing together of inflamed pleural membranes that produces a stabbing pain in the chest is called A) influenza. B) tuberculosis. C) rhinitis. D) pleurisy.

D) pleurisy.

An infectious illness that results in the accumulation of fluid in the alveoli is A) tuberculosis. B) emphysema. C) bronchitis. D) pneumonia

D) pneumonia

Medial to both midclavicular lines and superior to the subcostal plane lies the A) appendix. B) cecum. C) jejunum. D) pyloric sphincter

D) pyloric sphincter

The space between the right and left vocal folds is called the A) laryngeal inlet. B) cricoid. C) vestibule. D) rima glottidis.

D) rima glottidis.

The correct sequence of sperm-transporting tubules that transport spermatozoa to the epididymis is the A) seminiferous tubule to efferent ductule to straight tubule to rete testis. B) seminiferous tubule to rete testis to straight tubule to efferent ductule. C) seminiferous tubule to rete testis to efferent ductule to straight tubule. D) seminiferous tubule to straight tubule to rete testis to efferent ductule.

D) seminiferous tubule to straight tubule to rete testis to efferent ductule.

Which of the following is not an accessory digestive organ? A) teeth B) salivary gland C) liver D) spleen

D) spleen

What is the function of the gallbladder? A) secretion of bile B) production of cholesterol C) secretion of gastrin D) storage of bile

D) storage of bile

The respiratory mucosa is present throughout each of the following areas except the A) bronchi. B) nasal cavity. C) nasopharynx. D) superior laryngopharynx

D) superior laryngopharynx

A woman has developed a cancerous lump in each breast, and the skin of the breasts is dimpled. What structure(s) is (are) causing the dimpling? A) pectoralis major muscle B) pectoralis minor muscle C) smooth muscle cells around the ducts of the large glands in the breast D) suspensory ligaments of the breast

D) suspensory ligaments of the breast

The pharyngeal tonsil is A) scattered throughout the pharynx. B) in the fauces. C) the largest tonsil. D) synonymous with the adenoids in the roof of the nasopharynx

D) synonymous with the adenoids in the roof of the nasopharynx

Menstruation occurs as a result of the absence (or low level) of a particular hormone. Identify (a) this hormone, (b) the specific arteries of the uterine lining that collapse/fracture, and (c) the specific layer of the uterus that is shed.

Menstruation, or shedding of the endometrium, occurs due to the rapid decline of progesterone. Without progesterone, the spiral arteries of the endometrium (located in the functional layer) spasm, collapse, and degenerate.

Describe the structures involved in the transfer of nutrients and wastes between the fetal and maternal bloodstreams.

Nutrients and wastes cross the placenta, which consists of both embryonic and maternal tissues. Extensions of the embryonic tissue are called chorionic villi. These extensions protrude into lacunae, or cavities in the endometrium, which contain maternal blood. Adjacent to these lacunae are maternal blood vessels located in a region called the decidua basalis. Together, the decidua basalis and chorionic villi, when fully established at the fourth month of fetal development, are called the placenta.

The most effective way to detect cervical cancer in its earliest stage is by a(n) ________.

Papanicolaou (Pap) smear

________ fluid helps keep the lungs expanded against the thoracic walls

Pleural

Explain the relationships and distinguish among the following structures of the small intestine: villi, microvilli, and circular folds.

Plicae circulares or circular folds are large, 1-cm-high transverse folds of the small intestine. The surface of these folds has fingerlike projections called villi. They are approximately 1-mm-tall extensions of the mucosa that contain blood vessels and lacteals. The epithelial layer covering these villi consists of columnar absorptive cells each having mircovilli extensions on their apical surface.

________ are large cells with complex "footlike" processes that wrap around the glomerular capillaries.

Podocytes

Identify the space into which an oocyte is ovulated, and describe the structures and mechanisms involved in transporting it to the uterus.

The oocyte is ovulated into the peritoneal cavity. Currents, created by the motion of the fimbria of the oviduct, draw the oocyte into the infundibulum. Ciliated columnar cells lining the oviduct create currents that move the oocyte through the ampulla, to the isthmus, and into the uterus. The journey of the oocyte is assisted by peristaltic contractions of the smooth muscle in the oviduct walls.

Describe the structure and function of the pleural cavity

The pleural cavity is a fluid-filled space between the parietal and visceral serous membranes of the thoracic cavity. These membranes, the pleurae, create pleural fluid that lubricates the contact between opposing surfaces of the lungs and thoracic cavity wall. This fluid prevents friction during inspiration and expiration. The surface tension of the fluid also keeps the lungs expanded against the thoracic walls, preventing collapse of the lung

Describe the structures involved in the descent of the testes.

The testes descend from the lumbar region of the abdominal cavity to the pelvic region. The vaginal process, an extension of the parietal peritoneum protrudes through an opening in the muscles of the anterior abdominal wall to create the inguinal canal. The testes descend through this canal into the scrotum during the seventh month of fetal development. The mechanism for the descent of the testes is not known, however their movement from the abdominopelvic cavity is guided by a fibrous cord called the gubernaculum. This cord connects from the scrotal floor to the testis. As it shortens, the testes move through the inguinal canal.

Describe all the anatomical changes to the larynx that account for the deeper voice of men compared to women.

The thyroid cartilage of males grows larger than in females, and its laryngeal prominence protrudes further anteriorly. The vocal ligaments, which stretch from the arytenoid cartilage to the thyroid cartilage, are therefore longer in males. Longer cords vibrate more slowly than do shorter cords, resulting in a deeper voice

________ maneuver involves using the vocal folds as a sphincter to increase intra-abdominal pressure

Valsalva's

The porta hepatis contains the hepatic arteries, hepatic ducts, and ________.

hepatic portal veins

The distal sigmoid colon is located within the ________ region of the abdominal pelvic cavity.

hypogastric

An ovulated oocyte swept into the oviduct via fimbriae moves from the ________ of the oviduct to the ampula, then the isthmus, and finally into the uterus.

infundibulum

Testes descend through the ________ into the scrotum

inguinal canal

The ________ intercostal muscles are involved in (forced) expiration

internal

The uterus consists of the fundus, body, cervix, and ________.

isthmus

Blood pressure is regulated by a specialized structure, known as the ________, that contacts both the afferent arteriole and the terminal end of the nephron loop.

juxtaglomerular apparatus

The ________ is connective tissue whose capillaries nourish the epithelium of the mucosa

lamina propria

The subdivisions of the lung from largest to smallest are the lobe, the segment, the ________, the alveolus.

lobule

The secretory phase of the uterine cycle corresponds to the ________ phase of the ovarian cycle.

luteal

The ________ is a groove inferior to the nasal conchae through which air passes

meatus

The first menstruation is called ________.

menarche

Voiding of urine, known as ________, involves sympathetic, parasympathetic, and somatic fibers.

micturition

The ________ layer of the ureters propel urine to the bladder by peristalsis

muscularis

The U-shaped ________ is located between the proximal and distal convoluted tubules

nephron loop

The soft ________ muscle of the trachea allows the esophagus to expand anteriorly during swallowing

trachealis

The ________, a clinical landmark in the urinary bladder, is bounded by the two ureteric openings and the internal urethral orifice

trigone

The calyces and renal pelvis are all flared branches off the ________, which is an organ that transmits urine to the bladder.

ureter

The ________ is the portion of the soft palate that prevents food from entering the nasal cavity.

uvula

The ________ of the female genitalia is a central space surrounded by the labia minora.

vestibule

The urinary bladder, when empty, lies within both the abdominal and pelvic cavities

F

Which of the following statements about the urinary bladder is false? A) In females, the bladder lies posterior to the uterus but anterior to the rectum. B) The ureters attach to the bladder through oblique posterolateral orifices. C) Two ureteral openings and the internal urethral orifice bound the trigone of the bladder. D) When empty, the bladder lies inferior to the abdominal cavity.

A) In females, the bladder lies posterior to the uterus but anterior to the rectum.

The kidneys lie behind the ________ cavity. A) abdominal B) pelvic C) thoracic D) cranial

A) abdominal

Blood vessel that contains granular cells involved in blood pressure regulation. A) afferent arteriole B) efferent arteriole C) segmental artery D) macula densa E) extraglomerular mesangial

A) afferent arteriole

The most superficial layer of the kidney is the A) cortex. B) medulla. C) renal pyramids. D) renal papilla.

A) cortex.

The embryonic urogenital sinus A) derives from the cloaca. B) gives rise to the anus. C) gives rise to the rectum. D) gives rise to the ureters.

A) derives from the cloaca.

Of the following, the only epithelial type that does not line the urethra is A) simple squamous. B) pseudostratified columnar. C) stratified squamous. D) stratified columnar

A) simple squamous.

A large fat-filled space within the kidney that also contains the renal pelvis, blood vessels, and nerves. A) sinus B) convoluted tubules C) renal corpuscle D) renal pyramids E) cortical columns

A) sinus

In the juxtaglomerular apparatus, the macula densa belongs to the A) terminal nephron loop. B) glomerulus. C) efferent arteriole. D) visceral layer of the glomerular capsule (podocytes).

A) terminal nephron loop.

During a dissection, Arnie saw the ureters entering the lateral corners of the bladder but found the internal openings of the ureters in the trigone near the midline of the bladder. His observation necessarily means that A) the ureters run medially for some distance within the posterior bladder wall. B) the ureters and urethra are really the same tube. C) each ureter must have four distinct openings into the bladder. D) this bladder had a congenital defect.

A) the ureters run medially for some distance within the posterior bladder wall.

Based on what you know about the location of the kidneys in the posterior abdominal wall, the hilum of the kidney must be at the level of which vertebra? A) T11 or T12 B) L1 or L2 C) L4 D) T8

B) L1 or L2

Pyelography is A) kinking of the ureter. B) a type of X-ray procedure (radiology). C) a way to cure kidney stones. D) failure of the embryonic kidney to ascend.

B) a type of X-ray procedure (radiology).

An increase in the permeability of collecting tubule cells to water is due to A) a decrease in the production of ADH. B) an increase in the production of ADH. C) a decrease in the concentration of solutes in the blood plasma. D) the presence of a salty urine in the bladder.

B) an increase in the production of ADH.

Contraction of this muscle forces urine from the bladder. A) cremaster B) detrusor C) diaphragm D) vesicular E) dartos

B) detrusor

Which of the following is not normally found in urine? A) urea B) glucose C) uric acid D) creatinine

B) glucose

Which of the following statements about the internal urethral sphincter is false? A) It is a thickening of the detrusor muscle. B) It is located superior to the prostatic urethra in males. C) It is not consciously controlled. D) It is surrounded by the urogential diaphragm.

D) It is surrounded by the urogential diaphragm.

The ureters develop from A) the cloaca. B) the urogenital sinus. C) pronephric nephrons. D) a duct that branches from the mesonephric duct.

D) a duct that branches from the mesonephric duct.

The external urethral sphincter is located A) at the external urethral orifice. B) at the junction of the bladder wall and urethra. C) at the ureteral orifice. D) at the urogenital diaphragm.

D) at the urogenital diaphragm.

Which of the following regions of the nephron is most likely to be found in the renal medulla? A) glomerulus B) proximal convoluted tubule C) distal convoluted tubule D) collecting duct

D) collecting duct

85% of nephrons are described by this term that relates to their location in the kidney. A) sinusoidal B) trabecular C) medullary D) cortical E) extrinsic

D) cortical

Urine passes through the A) kidney hilum to the bladder to the ureter. B) renal pelvis to the ureter to the bladder to the urethra. C) glomerulus to the ureter to the nephron. D) hilus to the urethra to the bladder.

D) hilus to the urethra to the bladder.

Vessels and nerves enter and leave the kidney through the A) fibrous capsule. B) lateral convex surface. C) inferior surface. D) medial hilum.

D) medial hilum.

The condition in which the metanephros has failed to ascend is A) horseshoe kidney. B) polycystic renal disease. C) hydronephrosis. D) pelvic kidney.

D) pelvic kidney.

Infection of the renal pelvic and calyces is known as A) nephritis. B) cystitis. C) hydronephritis. D) pyelitis.

D) pyelitis.

An important difference between the peritubular capillaries and the vasa recta in the kidney is that A) only the vasa recta are supplied by efferent arterioles. B) the vasa recta drain into arterioles, whereas the peritubular capillaries drain into venules. C) the vasa recta are involved in filtration, whereas the peritubular capillaries are involved in resorption. D) the vasa recta are in the medulla, whereas the peritubular capillaries are in the cortex.

D) the vasa recta are in the medulla, whereas the peritubular capillaries are in the cortex.

The mucosal folds in the bladder (rugae) A) act to increase the surface area for absorption. B) thicken the bladder wall so that it does not burst. C) are not present in life, only in cadavers. D) have the same basic function as transitional epithelium—accommodating stretch as the bladder fills.

D)have the same basic function as transitional epithelium—accommodating stretch as the bladder fills.

The epithelial cells of the distal convoluted tubule have an abundance of absorptive microvilli.

F

The kidneys are located just below lumbar vertebrae L2 and L3.

F

The ureters enter the bladder obliquely at the anterolateral corners.

F

Explain the significance of the intimate anatomical relationship between the nephrons and the peritubular capillaries and vasa recta

The vast majority, 99%, of the filtrate that is removed from the blood must be resorbed from the nephrons. If this fluid were not resorbed, the body would quickly dehydrate. All ions, solutes, and water that are resorbed from the nephron pass into the surrounding peritubular capillaries and return to the cortical radiate vein. Sodium and water resorbed from the nephron loop are picked up by the vasa recta and returned to the cortical radiate vein.

Compare and contrast the construction of the bladder and ureter walls.

The walls of both the bladder and ureter consist of three layers: a mucosa of transitional epithelium, a muscularis layer, and an external adventitia. The muscularis of the ureter consists of two layers of smooth muscle, circular and inner longitudinal, for most of its length, then adds a third external longitudinal layer at its distal end. The bladder has all three layers of smooth muscle. The adventitia of the bladder is replaced with parietal peritoneum on its superior surface

Describe how the structure of the proximal convoluted tubule walls reflects its function in filtrate processing.

The walls of the proximal tubule are simple cuboidal epithelium. The luminal surface of the cells is covered by microvilli. These structures increase the surface area of the proximal tubule thereby greatly enhancing the resorption of water, electrolytes, and other solutes from the filtrate.

Adjacent collecting ducts join to form larger ________ that drain into the minor calyx.

papillary ducts