fixed 2 questions

Q: Dental solders require a similar strength and color as the parent alloy. As the gold content increases, the strength of the solder decreases. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C: The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

A: Both statements are true.

Q: Modified ridge lap is used in areas that are visible because it has good esthetics. It is also cleansable because it is not concave. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C: The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

A: Both statements are true.

Q: Protemp Plus is a bis-acryl provisional material. What are some of its disadvantages? A: Expensive B: Poor wear resistance C: High polymerization shrinkage D: Low exothermic setting E: All of the above

A: Expensive

Q: The custom indirect technique provides greater protection to the pulp because of which of the following reasons? A: Material sets outside of the mouth B: Trimming is performed outside of the mouth. C: The prep cast used provides better visibility. D: The provisional wall is thicker. E: Because the vacuum formed matrix adds protection.

A: Material sets outside of the mouth

Q: Which type of pontic design is used when there is a very high esthetic requirement? A: Ovate B: Modified Ridge Lap C: Sanitary D: Conical E: Saddle Ridge Lap

A: Ovate

What serves as the "third point of reference" when making a facebow transfer using the Whip Mix facebow? A. The bitefork B. The nasion relator C. The plastic eat-pieces D. The toggle assembly E. None of the above

B

",W4ichend of the incisal guide pin should be used with the metal incisaI guide block? A. the flat end B. The round end

A

A Class III fracture would present as an incomplete vertical fracture involving the attachment apparatus and is generally considered to be the most difficult classification to treat. A. The preceding statement is true. B. The preceding statement is false.

A

A molar with fused roots is generally a poorer abutment than one with divergent roots. A. True B. False

A

According to Dr. Schmitt, which of the following is the most common way of finishing the flares of the ~C preparation? A. A chisel B. A fine grit round ended tapered diamond C. A 170L bur D. A 557 bur

A

All teeth have a slight degree of physiologic mobility due to the PDL around the tooth. A. The preceding statement is true. B. The preceding statcment is fal se

A

At a clinical exam, stained margins are detected around a class V composite resin restoration. The patient presented excellent oral hygiene, with no biofilm accumulation in the area. No marginal gaps were detected. The caries risk status of the patient was determined to be low. Due to esthetic reasons, a replacement was planned for the restoration. After removal of the restorative material, softened dentin was found at the gpttom of the cavity. What is the most correct diagnostic for this lesion? A. Residual caries B. Active recurrent caries C. Arrested secondary caries D. Active primary caries

A

Cost and the brittleness ofthe material are both major disadvantages for using Protemp 3 Garant during the fabrication ofa provisional restoration. A. The preceding statement is true. B. The preceding statement is false.

A

Diagnostic models are always mounted in maximum intercuspation and with the used of an Exabite type of record A. True B. False

A

Every modification to an existing Prosthodontic Treatment Plan Form requires an approval signature. A. True B. False

A

For optimum impression accuracy when fabricating a custom tray utilizing Triad Tray material, tissue-stops are created on the non-functional cusps of at least three different teeth that will not be prepared in order to maintain an even thickness of 2 to 3 mm of impression material. A. The preceding statement is true. B. The preceding statement is false.

A

How valuable is the radiographic exam for the detection of secondary caries? A. Valuable in proximal surfaces, although amalgam restorations may hide the secondary carious lesion. B. Extremely valuable, independent of the type of restorative material used. C. Extremely valuable for detection of secondary caries on buccal and lingual surfaces. D. Of no value, therefore it should not be considered as a detection tool for secondary caries lesions.

A

If parallelism has been lost due to excessive taper of the axial walls or if after occlusal reduction the axial walls are short, retention and resistance to displacement can be improved by placing a groove or box in one the axial walls. A. True B. False

A

One purpose ofa custom impression tray is that it allows you to capture surfaces which would be difficult to capture with a stock tray, such as the distal surface of the last tooth in the dental arch. A. The preceding statement is true. B. The preceding statement is false.

A

Outline form in access refers to: A. recommended shape of the access opening for a normal tooth with a viable chamber and canal. B:-modification ofthe access to facilitate instrument placement. C. prevention ofmaterials from entering chamber and canals. D. developing an aseptic environment before entering the chamber. E. assessment of restorability after caries removal.

A

Problems such as filling in a large diastema or correcting the misalignment of an abutment tooth cannot be ected via the utilization of a resin bonded fixed partial denture. A The preceding statement is true. B. The preceding statement is false.

A

Q: A 30 year old dentate patient presents for a 3 unit FPD from #29 to #31. With regards to the opposing maxillary cast, which of the following would cause problems when fabricating the final restoration? *A: Anterior teeth not fully captured B: Small voids present in the vestibule C: Only part of the palate captured in impression D: Positive bubble present on the buccal of #3 E: Answers B and C only

A

Q: A patient presents with a RCT tooth #12. A PA radiograph of the tooth shows an adequate endodontic fill with no apical pathology. During the clinical evaluation, you find 2 adjacent walls are missing, a narrow root canal space and a short pulp chamber space. The tooth has adequate ferrule effect. What is the best, recommended treatment? A: Cast post and core with a metal ceramic crown B: Prefabricated post and core with a metal ceramic crown C: Restore the access opening with resin D: Tooth extraction

A

Q: All of the following are considered a contraindication for selecting CAD/CAM all ceramic crowns EXCEPT one. Which one is that EXCEPTION? A: Preparations with supragingival lingual finish lines B: Preparations with short axial wall height C: Posterior preparations with maximum occlusal clearance of 1.0mm D: Maximum shoulder finish line width of 0.7mm E: All of the above are contraindications for CAD/CAM all ceramic crowns.

A

Q: All of the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A: Due to its ability to bond to tooth structure, glass ionomer is ideally suited to be used as a core build-up material. B: Endodontically treated teeth with a post length equal to or greater than that of the clinical crown had a success rate of 97.5%. C: Eliminating the ring liner will decrease the setting expansion of the investment. D: All the above are true statements. E: All the above are false statements.

A

Q: At a clinical exam, stained margins are detected around a class V composite resin restoration. The patient presented excellent oral hygiene, with no biofilm accumulation in the area. No marginal gaps were detected. The caries risk status of the patient was determined to be low. Due to esthetic reasons, a replacement was planned for the restoration. After removal of the restorative material, softened dentin was found at the bottom of the cavity. What is the most correct diagnostic for this lesion? A: Residual caries B: Active secondary caries C: Arrested secondary caries D: Active primary caries

A

Q: Final length of a post is limited by two factors: root morphology and maintaining an apical seal. Ideally, a post should extend 4mm or more beyond the level of the alveolar bone. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

A

Q: Radiographic examination for the detection of secondary caries is: A: valuable in proximal surfaces, although amalgam restorations may hide the secondary carious lesion. B: extremely valuable, independent of the type of restorative material used. C: extremely valuable for detection of secondary caries on buccal and lingual surfaces. D: of no value, therefore it should not be considered as a detection tool for secondary caries lesions.

A

Q: Some considerations in treatment planning a fixed partial denture include: 1. root length. 2. root form. 3. patient gender. A: 1 and 2 B:1 and 3 C:2 and 3 D: All of the above E: None of the above

A

Q: Statement 1: The goal of treatment for cracked tooth syndrome is to stop crack propagation by splinting and stabilizing the tooth sections that are separated by the crack. Statement 2: Cracked tooth syndrome often occurs in sound teeth with no restorations. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

A

Q: The flexion of a fixed partial denture will increase eight fold if the: 1. span length is doubled. 2. occlusal-gingival height of the connectors are decreased by 1⁄2. 3. the buccal-lingual width of the connectors are decreased by 1⁄2. A: 1 and 2 B:1 and 3 C:2 and 3 D: All of the above E: None of the above

A

Q: Which of the following articulating disclosing media is least likely to be accurate due to its thickness? A: Articulating paper B: Articulating film C: Indicator impression D: Shim stock

A

Q: Which of the following clinical tests is least diagnostic for cracked tooth syndrome? A: Periapical radiograph B: Bite test C: Transillumination D: Staining with dye

A

Q: Which of the following is correct with regards to the draw of the 6-8 prep? A: Both preps should converge incisally. B: Both preps should be prepped slightly mesial to the long axis, so that the resulting restoration draws to the mesial. C: The mesial aspects of both preps should have taper. The distal wall should not have taper. D: The distal aspect of both preps should have taper. The mesial walls should not have taper.

A

The ADA issued guidelines to improve the relationship and overall communication between the dentist and the dental laboratories.When these guidelines are followed, the outcome should help increase the efficiency and quality of patient care. A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.

A

The dental laboratory is responsible for matching the coloration and characterization described in the written instructions on the lab authorization form.The dental laboratory must inform the dentist of any subcontracting of a laboratory case. A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.

A

The interproximal embrasure is commonly the first site for gingivitis and the most frequently involved with periodontitis. A. the preceding statement is true B . The preceding statement is false.

A

What is the correct order for trying-in and adjusting a cast restoration? A. Verify proximal contacts; verify marginal integrity/adaptation; verify occlusion B. Verify marginal integrity/adaptation; verify proximal contacts; verify occlusion C. Verify marginal integrity/adaptation; verify occlusion; verify proximal contacts D. Verify occlusion; verify marginal integrity/adaptation; verify proximal contacts E. The order of adjustment is irrelevant when trying-in a cast restoration

A

When tightening the toggles on the Whip Mix facebow, the horizontal toggle should be tightened first. A. T h e preceding statement is true. B. The preceding statement is false.

A

Which of the factors below are relevant determining the quality and longevity of the restorative care provided to patients? 1. Operator skills. 2. Knowledge of restorative materials. 3. Implementation of the Repeat Restoration cycle A. 1 and 2 are correct. B. 1 and 3 are correct. C. 2 and 3 are correct. D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

A

Which of the following are the correct guidelines for preparing tooth #19 for a full metal crown preparation? A. 1.0 mm occlusal reduction on non-functional lingual cusp, 1.5mm occlusal reduction on functional buccal cusp and a 0.3 to 0.5 mm chamfer. B. 1.0 mm occlusal reduction on non-functional buccal cusp, 1.5 mm occlusal reduction on functional lingual cusp and a 0.3 to 0.5 mm chamfer C.1.5 mm occlusal reduction on non-functional buccal cusp, 1.0 mm occlusal reduction on functional lingual cusp and a 0.3 to 0.5 mm chamfer D. 1.5 mm occlusal reduction on non-functional lingual cusp, 1.0 mm occlusal reduction on functional buccal cusp and a 0.3 to 0.5 mm chamfer

A

Which of the following articulating disclosing media is least likely to be accurate due to its thickness? A. Articulating paper B. Articulating film C. Indicator impression D. Shim stock

A

Which of the following is NOT a criteria of the PVC preparation flares? A. They should be lingual to the facio-proximal line angle. B. They should be 1.0 mm from the adjacent tooth. C. They should be buccal to the proximal contacts. D. They should be 90° to the axial surface.

A

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a requirement of dental solder, according to Shillingburg? A. Dental solder should react properly with antiflux and be reasonably affordable. B. Dental solder should be strong and possess a lower fusion temperature than the alloy being soldered. C. Dental solder should be free-flowing and the same color as the alloy being soldered. D. Dental solder should be non-pitting and corrosion resistant. E. A, B, C and D are all requirements ofdental solder.

A

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a requirement of dental solder, according to Shillingburg? A. vental solder should react properly with flux and be reasonably affordable. B. Dental solder should be strong and possess a lower fusion temperature than the alloy being soldered. C. Dental solder should be free-flowing and the same color as the alloy being soldered. D. Dental solder should be non-pitting and corrosion resistant. E. A, B, C and D are all requirements of dental solder.

A

Which of the followmg statements regarding partial veneer restorations is FALSE? A. A partial veneer crown is about 2.5 times as likely to have a pulpal problem as one with a full veneer crown. B. To achieve maximum effectiveness grooves in partial veneer preparations must have definite lingual walls C. With some margins visible, complete seating of a partial veneer crown is more easily verified. D. Reluctance to use a three- quarter crown because it has more margin than a full crown is unfounded, the additional margin is vertical, which fits better than a horizontal margin E. All are TRUE statements

A

Your patient has an extremely high smile line and is very concerned about esthetics. Your treatment plan calls for metal ceramic crowns on teeth # 8 and #9, what margin design would you select to use for the labial half of these crowns for this patient? A. Ashoulder B. A shoulder with a bevel C. A light chamfer D. A heavy chamfer E. A knife-edge

A

Your patient has an extremely high smile line and is very concerned about esthetics. Your treatment plan calls for metal ceramic crowns on teeth # 8 and #9. What margin design would you select to use on the labial half of these crowns for this patient? A. A shoulder B. A shoulder with a bevel C. A light chamfer D. A heavy chamfer E. A knife-edge

A

when prepping a resin bonded prosthesis, the proximal slice needs to be a flat guide plane of 2 to 3mm long A. True B. False

A

A fixed partial denture, also known as a bridge, is a prosthetic appliance which is cemented to the remaining teeth and replaces one or more teeth.The extracoronal restoration that is cemented to the prepared abutment tooth is called a retainer. A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.

A. Both statements are true.

Dental solders require a similar strength and color as the parent alloy. As the gold content increases, the strength of the solder decreases. A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.

A. Both statements are true.

IUSD students are required to provide mounted diagnostic casts when presenting partially edentulous prosthodontic treatment plans to prosthodontic faculty. The Prosthodontic Treatment Plan Form must be filled out by the student and approved by the prosthodontic faculty member prior to beginning the treatment. A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.

A. Both statements are true.

The modified ridge lap pontic is used in areas that are visible because it has good esthetics. It is also cleansable because it is not concave. A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.

A. Both statements are true.

A 45 year old patient presents for a prosthodontic treatment plan to replace his missing tooth #5. The patient's dental condition consists of no mobility of abutment teeth, moderate ridge resorption and abutment teeth with large existing restorations.Based on the above dental conditions, which dental prosthesis is the most ideal for the replacement of missing teeth? A. Conventional Fixed Partial Denture B. Removable Partial Denture C. Resin Bonded Fixed Partial Denture D. Answers A and C E. Answers A, B and C

A. Conventional Fixed Partial Denture

Protemp Plus is a bis-acryl provisional material. What is/ are some of its disadvantages? A. Expensive B. Poor wear resistance C. High polymerization shrinkage D. Endothermic setting reaction E. All of the above

A. Expensive

The custom indirect technique provides greater protection to the pulp because of which of the following reasons? A. Material sets outside of the mouth B. Trimming is performed outside of the mouth. C. The prep cast used provides better visibility. D. The provisional wall is thicker. E. Because the vacuum formed matrix adds protection.

A. Material sets outside of the mouth

Which type of pontic design was suggested for use when there is the highest esthetic requirement? A. Ovate B. Modified Ridge Lap C. Sanitary D. Conical E. Saddle Ridge Lap

A. Ovate

Several factors must be considered prior to selecting a dental prosthesis for a partially edentulous patient. Which of the following factors considers the number of teeth being replaced? A. Span Length B. Span Configuration C. Abutment Condition D. Abutment Alignment E. None of the above

A. Span Length

Q: A 35 year old patient presents to your office with a missing tooth #14. Tooth #15 has a slight mesial inclination (10°). Tooth #13's lingual axial wall height measures 4.5 mm from the gingival margin. To prevent violating the biological width, the finish line must be prepped at the gingival margin. The patient is concerned with the esthetics only while she is smiling. Which of the following is the best treatment option for the patient? A: Path of insertion favoring #13;; metal occlusion covering the functional cusp of #13 B: Path of insertion favoring #13;; porcelain occlusion covering the functional cusp of #13 C: Path of insertion favoring #13;; metal occlusion covering the non-functional cusp of #13 D: Path of insertion favoring #15;; porcelain occlusion covering the functional cusp of #13

A: Path of insertion favoring #13;; metal occlusion covering the functional cusp of #13

Q: A 65 year old patient presents to your office for a metal ceramic crown prep of #29. You determine the patient has a centric contact point 0.5mm buccal to the central groove. Based on this information, which of the following methods is more likely to cause the porcelain to fracture? A: Placing the mesial wing 1.0mm buccal to the central groove B: Placing the distal wing 1.0mm lingual to the central groove C: Placing the metal-ceramic junction 0.5mm lingual to the central groove D: Answers A and C only E: Answers A, B and C

A: Placing the mesial wing 1.0mm buccal to the central groove

The primary purpose of a cast post is to retain the core that can be used to then retain the definitive prosthesis. Posts reinforce endodontically treated teeth. A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.

B

A 30 year old dentate patient presents for a 3 unit FPD from #29 to #31. After submitting the laboratory case, the laboratory technician reviews the case and discovers insufficient occlusal reduction on #31 for a full gold FPD retainer. Which of the following is the best option for resolving this situation while respecting the responsibilities of the dental team members? A. The dental laboratory fabricates the FPD and advises the dentist to reduce on the opposing dentition to create the appropriate occlusal clearance. B. The dental laboratory informs the dentist about the problem and the dentist reviews the lab case to determine the appropriate treatment strategy. C. The dental laboratory informs the patient about the problem and advises the patient to make another appointment with the dentist to reduce the preparation and take a new master impression. D. All of the above are acceptable options.

B

All of the following line angles need to be rounded when finishing the PVC preparation EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Occlusal B. Lingual of boxes C. Occlusal of boxes D. None of the above, all line angles should be rounded

B

All restorative treatment should be completed before a prosthodontic treatment plan is presented to the patient. A. True B. False

B

Any restorative faculty can approve a Prosthodontic Treatment Plan Form. A. True B. False

B

For a preceramic solder, the melting point of the soldering allow needs to be _____ than the melting point of the FPD allow and --- than the melting point of the FPD porcelain A. higher; lower B. lower; higher C. lower; lower D. higher; higher

B

For optimum impression accuracy when fabricating a custom tray utilizing Triad Tray material, tissue- stops are created on the functional cusps of three different teeth that will not be prepared in order to maintain an even thickness of 2 to 3 mm of impression material. A. The preceding statement is true. B. The preceding statement is false.

B

In regards to the creation of a post space, which of the following statements is false? A. Posts should not extend more than 7 mm apical to the pulp chamber' s canal orifice in both maxillary and mandibular molars due to increased risk of perforation B. Distal roots of mandibular molars should be avoided since they are common sites for perforations to occur. C. The root should have at least 1.0 mm of tooth structure remaining around the post in all directions in order to resist fracture or perforation. D. Requesting that the endodontist provide a post space or removing gutta percha with a hot instrument are both acceptable methods of achieving a post space. E. The post & core should have a positive occlusal seat (horizontal stop) to avoid the wedge-like action of the post

B

In regards to the creation ofa post space, which ofthe following statements is FALSE? A. Posts should not extend more than 7 mm apical to the pulp chamber's canal orifice in both maxillary and mandibular molars due to increased risk ofperforation. B. Distal roots ofmandibular molars should be avoided since they are common sites for perforations to occur. C. The root should have at least 1.0 mm of tooth structure remaining around the post in all directions in order to resist fracture or perforation. D. Requesting that the endodontist provide a post space or removing gutta percha with a hot instrument are both acceptable methods of achieving a post space. E. The post and core should have a positive occlusal seat (horizontal stop) to avoid the wedge-like action of the post.

B

In regards to the fabrication of a vacuum-formed template, what guidelines should be followed when trimming the template? A. The template should be trimmed to within 15 mm of the marginal gingiva. B. The template should be trimmed so that it extends at least one tooth beyond the tooth or teeth which are 'to be prepared. C. The template should be trimmed so that it just covers the tooth or teeth which are to be prepared, D. Answers A and B E. Answers A and C

B

Q: A cast post and core needs to be slightly undersized compared to the canal to achieve optimal internal seating. After cementation of the cast post and core, immediate adjustments should be made to eliminate any undercuts in the preparation. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

B

Q: A post & core should have a positive occlusal seat to avoid the wedge-like action of the post. Within the post space, the vertical wall will provide a positive seat or stop for the cast post and core. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

B

Q: All of the following statements with regards to requirements for dies and working casts for cast restorations are true EXCEPT one. Which one is that EXCEPTION? A: They need to be accurate and must be a true representation of the prepared surfaces. B: They must be poured using Type II dental stone. C: You must be able to clearly visualize all margins. D: They should be poured using a dental stone that has been vacuum mixed.E: A, B, C and D are all true statements.

B

Q: Statement 1: Resin bonded fixed partial dentures are contraindicated for patients with abutment teeth with short clinical crown length (incisal- gingival). Statement 2: Resin bonded fixed partial dentures are indicated for patients with deep vertical overbites. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

B

Q: Statement 1: When designing an anterior E4D crown, the material thickness should be 2mm at the incisal edge of the restoration. Statement 2: The proper placement for the sprue for an anterior E4D crown should be at the most gingival position on the facial surface. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

B

Q: The correct diagnostic of secondary caries is a fundamental part of the management of dental caries and has many implications. Which of the following IS NOT relevant? A: Avoid incorrect treatment plan that may end up feeding the Repeat Restoration Cycle. B: Depending on the activity of the secondary caries lesion, different restorative alternatives (direct or indirect) may be adopted. C: The incorrect diagnostic may result in billions of dollars spent in restorative treatment worldwide. D: The activity of the secondary caries lesion will determine the need for preventive and therapeutic measures.

B

Q: The development of secondary caries is modulated by different factors. Which factors from the list below increase the risk for secondary caries development? 1. Poor marginal adaptation of restoration. 2. Presence of amalgam restorations. 3. Improper surface polishing of restorations. A:1 and 2 B: 1 and 3 C:2 and 3 D: 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

B

Q: The purpose of the bite registration is to help orient the prep cast to the opposing cast for mounting. It is best to not trim the registration because bulk of material provides a more accurate registration. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C: The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

B

Q: When pouring dies for a 3 unit FPD, one pre-measured stone packet (70 grams) is a sufficient amount of stone for each die. When trimming dies for a fixed partial denture, the #2 die contains all abutment teeth with the edentulous areas carved away for proper margination. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C: The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

B

Q: When selecting the restorative material for a patient with high caries risk and active secondary caries lesions, how important is the fluoride-releasing property? A: Very important;; there is strong clinical evidence showing that they can prevent secondary caries. B: Important;; according to laboratorial studies. However, there is no clear evidence that it may prevent secondary caries clinically. C: Irrelevant;; it has been proved that all fluoride-containing restorative materials cannot release fluoride in the ionic form, therefore, it cannot prevent secondary caries.D: None of the above

B

Q: When submitting a patient case to a dental laboratory, proper articulation of the opposing casts (providing an accurate mounting of casts and/or an accurate bite registration) is one of the responsibilities of the dentist. Proper infection control is only the dental laboratories' responsibility. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C: The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

B

Q: Which is the most correct sequence of steps for surface preparation when using a resin luting agent with a feldspathic porcelain all-ceramic restoration? A: Etch with phosphoric acid, place silane, place the resin B: Etch with hydrofluoric acid, place silane, place the resin C: Etch with phosphoric acid, place a metal primer, place the resin D: Etch with hydrofluoric acid, place a metal primer, place the resin

B

Q: Which of the following can potentially cause the marginal discrepancy identified as flash? A: Overpolishing B: Improper margination C: Undercontoured wax patterns D: All of the above

B

Q: Which of the following can potentially cause the marginal discrepancy identified as overhang? A: Overpolishing B: Inaccurate die trimming C: Undercontoured wax patterns D: All of the above E: None of the above

B

Q: Which of the following statements regarding modified ridge lap is true? A: The lingual half of the tissue side is slightly concave. B: Only the facial half of the tissue side is in contact with the ridge. C: The gingivofacial line angle should lap the ridge completely like a saddle instead of curving lingually towards the crest of the ridge. D: Only A and C are correct.E: Only B and C are correct.

B

Q: You have diagnosed tooth #18 with cracked tooth syndrome. The tooth has an existing conservative MOD amalgam restoration. The dental pulp tests vital and healthy. Select all of the restorations that could be considered appropriate for this case. 1. Resin-bonded MOD amalgam 2. MODBL cuspal coverage amalgam 3. MOD resin composite 4. MOD ceramic inlay 5. PFM Crown 6. MOD gold inlay 7. MODBL gold onlay 8. Full gold crown A: 1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8 B: 2, 5, 7, 8 C:1, 3, 4 D:5, 7, 8 E: All are acceptable restorations for this tooth.

B

The Prosthodontic Treatment Plan Form can be filled out in Axium. A. True B. False

B

The amount and location ofbacterial plaque in a paticnt's mouth sb..ould not inHuencc planning for this patient in regards to fixed prosthodontic restorations. A. The preceding statement is true. B. The preceding statement is false.

B

The correct way to evaluate the path of insertion is to use both eyes, thus avoiding the possibility of not seeing an undercut. A. True B. False

B

When porcelain bonding, silane enhances both the surface reactivity of feldspathic porcelain and the bond strength to resin. There is a direct correlation between the amount of silane used and the resulting bond strength (i.e. the more silane used, the higher the resulting bond strength). A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.

B

When preparing two or more teeth for a fixed partial denture, the larger abutment} tooth determines the path placement. One disadvantage to using a metal-ceramic restoration is that due to esthetic and retention concerns, the facial margins must sometimes be placed subgingival. A. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. B. The first statement is false and the second statement is true. C. Both statements are true. D. Both statements are false.

B

When preparing two or more teeth for a fixed partial denture, which tooth determines the path of placement? A. The largest abutment tooth B. The smallest abutment tooth C. The abutment tooth with the most supra-gingival margins D. Answers B and C E. Answers A and C

B

When selecting the restorative material for a patient with high caries risk and active secondary caries lesions, how important is the fluoride-releasing property? A. Very important, there is strong clinical evidence showing that they can prevent secondary caries. B. Important, according to laboratorial studies. However, there is no clear evidence that it may prevent secondary caries clinically. C. Irrelevant, it has been proved that all fluoride-containing restorative materials cannot release fluoride in the ionic form, therefore, it cannot prevent secondary caries. D. None of the above

B

Which end ofthe incisal guide pin should be used with the plastic incisal guide block? A. The flat end B. The round end

B

Which of the following statements describes best how tight the proximal contacts should be in a new fixed prosthesis? A. Unwaxed floss should snap through relatively easily. B. They should be similar to contacts of the adjacent teeth. C. Unwaxed floss should slide through relatively easily. D. They should be tighter than contacts of the adjacent teeth.

B

Which of the following statements in regards to treatment sequencing is FALSE? A. Definitive periodontal therapy (i.e. surgery) should be accomplished after the placement of operative restorations. B. All hopeless teeth and any required pre-prosthetic surgery should be accomplished as the last step in the treatment process. C. The patient should be placed on a scheduled routine follow-up (prophy with exam) upon completion of the treatment plan D. .The "diagnostic wax-up" should be completed prior to definitive prosthodontic treatment. E. A, B, C and D all are true statements.

B

Which of the following statements in regards 10 trauma from occlusion is FALSE? A. Trauma from occlusion occurs when occlusal forces exceed the adaptive capacity of the tissues resulting in tissue injury and the occlusion that produces such an injury is called traumatic occlusion. B. Trauma from occlusion refers to the occlusal force and not the tissue injury. C. Radiographic signs of trauma from occlusion include increased width o f the PDL space, root resorption, root fracture and vertical bone loss. D. With primary occlusal trauma an excessive force is exerted on a normal healthy periodontium. while with secondary occlusal trauma a weakened periodontium cannot withstand even normal occlusal forces. E. A. B, C and D are all TRUE statements.

B

Which of the following statements regarding periodontal- reslorative considerations is FALSE? A. There are numerous factors to consider when treatment planning a tooth for crown lengthening; two such factors which one would consider are the health of the dentogingival unit and the root anatomy of the tooth. B. A tooth that clinically presents as being depressible in its socket would receive a Miller Mobility Classification of I. C. Fremitus is a measurement of the vibratory patterns of the teeth during contacting positions and movemcnts and is an indicator of occlusal prematurities. D. Ante's Law states that the abutment teeth for a fixed partial denture should have a combined pericemental area equal to or greater than that of the tooth or teeth, which the fixed partial denture is replacing. E. A, B, C and D are all TRUE statements.

B

Which ofthe following statements in regards to biomechanical considerations for fixed partial dentures is FALSE? A. The dislodging forces on a fixed partial denture retainer tend to act in a mesiodistal direction, as opposed to the more common buccolingual direction of forces on a single restoration. B. Grooves placed on the mesial or distal surfaces of the abutment teeth for a fixed partial denture are best for counteracting the torque resulting from masticatory forces applied to the pontic. C. If the length of the edentulous span is tripled, then the deflection will be increased twenty-seven times. D. A pontic with a given occlusogingival dimension will bend eight times as much if the thickness of that pontic is cut in half. E. A, B, C and D are all true statements.

B

You decide to replace a Class V glass ionomer restoration, which has a discolored gingival margin. You find hard discolored dentin in the dentinal wall. The most correct diagnosis for this lesion is: A. resIdual actIve canes. B. arrested caries. C. active secondary caries. D. primary caries.

B

It is important to open embrasure spaces of the pontic area of a provisional in order to allow for effective hygiene and to protect the papilla.If the papilla blanches and remains blanched for several minutes upon placement of the provisional, no further adjustment is required because the papilla will remodel on its own. A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.

B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

Q: A 45 year old patient presents for a prosthodontic treatment plan to replace his missing teeth. The patient's dental condition consists of widely divergent alignment of the abutment teeth, short clinical crowns and gross tissue loss in the residual ridge location. Based on the above dental conditions, which dental prosthesis is the most ideal for the replacement of missing teeth? A: Conventional fixed partial denture B: Removable partial denture C: Resin bonded fixed partial denture D: Implant supported fixed partial denture E: None of the above

B: Removable partial denture

Q: It is important to open embrasure spaces of the pontic area of a provisional in order to allow for effective hygiene and to protect the papilla. If the papilla blanches and remains for several minutes upon placement of the provisional, no further adjustment is required because the papilla will remodel on its own. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C: The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

B: The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

A dental laboratory work authorization is written instructions from the dental laboratory to the dentist providing detailing information required by law.The laboratory work authorization should include material specifications regarding the type of alloy to be utilized for a fixed partial denture. A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.

C

A patient presents to your dental office and you determine that the level of cli!1ical knowledge required to treat this patient is far outside of your abilities. What would be the best course of action on your part, keeping both moral and ethical considerations in your thought and decision making process? A. Proceed with treatment that you feel is best for the patient and collect dramatically reduced fees. B. Proceed with treatment that you feel is best for the patient and collect your normal fees. C. Refer the patient to a specialist you know that has had the required training and experience needed to treat such a patient

C

According to Cameron and Williams, Cracked Tooth Syndrome (CTS) occurs most often on: A. mandibular first premolars. B. mandibular second premolars. C. mandibular second molars. D. maxillary second premolars. E. maxillary first molars.

C

For a postceramic solder, the melting point of the soldering allow needs to be _____ than the melting point of the FPD allow and --- than the melting point of the FPD porcelain A. higher; lower B. lower; higher C. lower; lower D. higher; higher

C

Q: A new 28 year old patient calls your office to schedule an emergency appointment today. The patient's chief complaint is that her lower left 1st molar is hurting her and she has been in severe pain for 2 days. Your office assistant places the patient on hold and asks you how to proceed with the patient since the office will be closing in 15 minutes. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment decision for this scenario? A: Refer the patient to an endodontist for RCT. B: Refer the patient to an oral surgeon for an extraction. C: Keep the office open until you can evaluate the tooth to determine the overall prognosis. D: A or C are appropriate treatment decisions. E: A, B and C are all appropriate treatment decisions.

C

Q: A new 55 year old patient presents to your office for a comprehensive exam. After reviewing the patient's radiographs, you note that teeth #9 and #30 are endodontically treated. The clinical evaluation reveals that #9 and #30 are intact with small access openings restored with composite resins. What is the best, recommended treatment? A: Place full coverage restorations on #9 and #30. B: Place a full coverage restoration on #9 only. C: Place a full coverage restoration on #30 only. D: No further treatment necessary for #9 or #30.

C

Q: Acceptable treatment plans considered for replacing a missing #30 include a(n): 1. 2-unit FPD cantilevering pontic #30 from abutment #29. 2. 3-unit FPD with pontic #30 and abutments #29 and 31. 3. an implant-supported crown #30. A:1 and 2 B:1 and 3 C: 2 and 3 D: All of the above E: None of the above

C

Q: For a RCT #9, the core portion for a cast post & core should be convex from the incisal edge to the lingual cingulum. The core portion of cast post & core must have similar height as the ideal preparation to improve the retention and resistance form of the definitive restoration. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

C

Q: It is recommended to remove all undercuts within the post space preparation prior to placing a prefabricated post and core. The coronal length of a parapost should be adequate for the adaptation of the core build up without interfering with the opposing dentition. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

C

Q: Secondary caries has been defined as primary caries adjacent to restoration. Therefore, both present the same etiology. Which of the following is NOT an essential factor for the development of a secondary caries lesion? A: Susceptible host (tooth) B: Dental plaque with cariogenic potential C: Saliva D: Suitable substrate (dietary carbohydrates)

C

Q: Which of the following best describes the most susceptible areas for dental plaque stagnation? A: Cusp tips, cervical area near gingival margins, and pits and fissures B: Proximal surfaces, lingual surfaces, and cusp tips C: Pits and fissures, cervical area near gingival margins, and proximal surfaces D: Cervical area near gingival margins, lingual surfaces, and proximal surfaces

C

Q: Which of the following is NOT a property of a metallic post and composite resin core? A: Passive B: Active C: Carbon fiber reinforced D: Answers B and C E: Answers A, B and C are all properties of a metallic post and composite resin core.

C

Q: Which of the following is a disadvantage of a resin bonded fixed partial denture? A: Increased risk of pulpal involvement B: Increased risk of gingival hemorrhaging while preparing the finish line C: Preparations can be difficult to evaluate clinically. D: Due to the large amount of dentin exposed, patients will experience increased temperature sensitivity.E: All of the above are disadvantages of resin bond fixed partial dentures.

C

Q: Which of the following is an example of indirect diagnosis for cracked tooth syndrome? A: Removing an existing restoration to see if the tooth has a crack. B: Taking multiple radiographs at different angulations to visualize the crack. C: Place an orthodontic band or temporary crown on the tooth and waiting to see if symptoms subside. D: Asking the patient to return to the clinic for follow-up. In the interim, they should try to pay attention to their symptoms in order to identify the offending tooth.

C

Secondary caries has been defined as primary caries adjacent to restoration. Therefore, both present the same etiology. Which of the following IS NOT an essential factor for the development of a secondary caries lesion? A. Susceptible host (tooth) B. Dental plaque with cariogenic potential C. Saliva D. Suitable substrate (dietary carbohydrates)

C

What is/are the purpose(s) for proximal boxes/grooves when preparing a tooth for a partial veneer case restoration? A. Provides bulk of material. B. Defines the extent or tile preparation. C. Prevents lingual displacement of the restoration. D. Answers A and C E. All of the above

C

When preparing two or more teeth for a fixed partial denture, the smaller abutment tooth determines the path placement. One disadvantage to using a metal-ceramic restoration is that due to esthetic and retention concerns, the facial margins must sometimes be placed subgingival. A. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. . B. The first statement is false and the second statement is true. C. Both statements are true. D. Both statements are false.

C

When trimming dies for a fixed partial denture, the #1 die contains all abutment teeth with the edentulous areas carved away for developing the wax coping. When trimming the bite registration material, the registration should only cover the cusps tips of the abutment teeth and opposing teeth. A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.

C

Which of the following are contraindications to using the PVC preparation? A. Anterior teeth B. Posterior teeth C.Retainer for long span prosthesis D. Proximal caries

C

Which of the following statements is false? A. Gingival inflammation and bone loss are two possible adverse effects caused by the use of a nickel containing alloy crown in an individual who has a nickel allergy. B. With Panavia, the phosphate group of 10-methacryloloxydecl dihydrogen phosphate is active and reacts with the metal. C. Oxygen inhibits the free radical polymerization in composite resin luting agents. D. If a patient states that they are unable to wear cheap jewelry, the dentist should not utilize any nickel containing alloys in their mouth. E. All of the above are true statements.

C

Who is allowed to sign for approval of a prosthodontic treatment plan? A. Any full-time operative faculty member B. Any part-time prosthodontic faculty member C. Any full-time prosthodontic faculty member D. Answers A and B E. Answers A, Band C

C

You are preparing teeth #6 and #8 so that they will serve as abutments for a resin bonded fixed partial denture. From the list below please select the most appropriate margin design for your lingual margin on both ofthese teeth? A. A heavy chamfer that is 0.6 mm wide along lingual most aspect and then gradually fades into a knife- edge as the proximal area is approached B. rounded shoulder that is 0.6 mm wide along lingual most aspect and then gradually fades into a knife-edge as the proximal area is approached . C. A light chamfer that is 0.2 mm wide along lingual most aspect and then gradually fades into a knife- edge as the proximal area is approached D. A knife-edge along the entire lingual aspect the proposed abutment teeth

C

You are preparing tooth #21 for a metal-ceramic crown. What is the correct amount of occlusal reduction required for the functional cusp when planning for occlusal contacts to be in porcelain?A.0.5mm B. 1.0mm C. 2.0mm D.2.5mm

C

Abutment teeth and their supporting tissues must be evaluated to determine the overall prognosis of the proposed treatment plan. Which of the following is preferred when selecting ideal FPD abutments? A. Root canal treated teeth re-enforced by post and cores B. #30 is preferred over #15 based on root configuration C. 2:3 crown to root ratio D. Answers B and C only E. Answers A, B and C

C. 2:3 crown to root ratio

At IUSD, in addition to Protemp Plus, Snap is commonly used. What type of acrylic is Snap? A. Methyl methacrylate B. Bis-acrylic C. Ethyl-methacrylate D. Bis GMA E. Urethane dimethacrylate resins

C. Ethyl-methacrylate

Which of the following is not an ideal property of a provisional? A. Biocompatible B. Resistant to fracture C. Exothermic D. Good marginal adaptability E. Dimensionally stable

C. Exothermic

Q: Abutment teeth and their supporting tissues must be evaluated to determine the overall prognosis of the proposed treatment plan. Which of the following is preferred when selecting ideal FPD abutments? A: Root canal treated teeth re-enforced by post and cores B: #30 is preferred over #15 based on root configuration C: 2:3 crown to root ratio D: Answers B and C only E: Answer A, B, and C

C: 2:3 crown to root ratio

Q: At IUSD, in addition to Protemp Plus, Snap is commonly used. What type of acrylic is Snap? A: Methyl methacrylate B: Bis-acrylic C: Ethyl-methacrylate D: Bis GMA E: Urethane Dimethacrylate resins

C: Ethyl-methacrylate

Q: Which of the following is not an ideal property of a provisional? A: Biocompatible and non-irritating B: Resistant to fracture C: Exothermic D: Good marginal adaptability E: Dimensionally stable

C: Exothermic

Q: IUSD students are required to provide unmounted diagnostic casts when presenting partially edentulous prosthodontic treatment plans to prosthodontic faculty. The Prosthodontic Treatment Plan Form must be filled out by the student and approved by the prosthodontic faculty member prior to beginning the treatment. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C: The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

C: The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

All of the following statements regarding composite luting agents are true EXCEPT for one. Which one is that EXCEPTION? A: Composite luting agents exhibit water sorption in the oral cavity. B: Composite luting agents are filled 50% to 70% by weight with glass or silica to improve marginal wear resistance. C: Composite luting agents generally exhibit higher compressive strengths than other traditional cements. D: A light-activated composite luting agent should be utilized for metal bonding. E: A, B, C and D are all true statements.

D

Ditching and staining around amalgam fillings and staining around tooth-colored restorations are good predictors of active secondary caries. A. The statement is correct. B. The statement is correct, but only for the amalgam restorations. C. The statement is correct, but only for the tooth-colored restorations. D. The statement is false.

D

If the tooth being prepared for a pye is in cross bite, which step will have to be modified? A. The path of placement B. The axial reduction C. The placement of the boxes D. The contrabevel

D

In regards to composite luting agents, which of the following statements is false? A. Composite luting agents are virtually insoluble in the oral cavity. B. Composite luting agents are filled 50% to 70% by weight with glass or silica to improve marginal wear resistance . C. Composite luting agents generally exhibit higher compressive strengths than other traditional cements. D. A light-activated composite luting agent should be utilized for metal bonding. E. All of the above are true statements.

D

In regards to the fabrication of a vacuum-fonned template, what guidelines should be followed when trimming the template? A. The template should be trimmed to within 5 mm of the marginal gingiva. B. The template should be trimmed so that it extends at least one tooth beyond the tooth or teeth which are to be prepared. C. The template should be trimmed so that it just covers the tooth or teeth which are to be prepared. D. Answers A and B E. Answers A and C

D

Q: A 35 year old patient presents to your office for a comprehensive examination. From the radiographs and clinical evaluation, you determine that tooth #11 has a large carious lesion on the distal-lingual wall which extends into the pulp chamber and 3mm of the incisal edge is fractured. What is the proper treatment sequence for this scenario? 1. Prepare the post space 2. Perform RCT 3. Remove the caries to determine prognosis and restorability 4. Prepare the coronal tooth structure for MCC 5. Place a temporary post and crown A: 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 B: 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 C: 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 D: 3, 4, 2, 1, 5 E: 3, 1, 2, 4, 5

D

Q: All of the following statements regarding tin plating noble metal alloys are true EXCEPT one. Which one is that EXCEPTION? A: Tin plating can provide a 3-fold increase in bond strength. B: A tin plated surface has enhanced wettability. C: A tin plated surface has enhanced micromechanical retention. D: A tin plated surface provides free radicals that are available for chemical interaction. E: A, B, C and D are all true statements.

D

Q: Ditching and staining around amalgam fillings and staining around tooth- colored restorations are good predictors of active secondary caries. A: The statement is correct. B: The statement is correct, but only for the amalgam restorations. C: The statement is correct, but only for the tooth-colored restorations. D: The statement is false.

D

Q: For a modified ridge lap pontic, where should the pontic contact the ridge? A: Gingivofacial line angle B: Lingual to crest of the ridge C: Only at the crest of the ridge D: Facial to the crest of the ridge E: Only A and B are correct.

D

Q: For a prefabricated post and core, which dental material below should be utilized during the placement of the core portion? A: Nexius Dual Cure Resin Cement B: CoreRestore 2 C: Optibond Solo Plus D: Answers B and C only E: Answers A, B and C

D

Q: Statement 1: A tooth with enamel craze lines should be restored as soon as possible with a cuspal coverage restoration to prevent further cracking of the tooth. Statement 2: Cracked tooth syndrome occurs more often in women than in men. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

D

Q: Statement 1: The modified ridge lap pontic is slightly wider mesiodistally at the lingual aspect and narrower at the facial aspect. Statement 2: The contact with the crest of the ridge should be broad versus compact. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C: The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

D

Q: Studies have shown that there is significant difference in leakage within the apical seal area when gutta-percha is removed with either rotary instruments or hot instruments. Since an IRM provisional restoration seals so well, there is no need to quickly place the definitive post & core and final restoration. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

D

Q: The maximum divergence of the long axis of abutment teeth being used for fixed partial denture abutments is 45 ̊. When required, periodontal surgery should be completed after fixed partial denture fabrication. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false. C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

D

Q: Which of the following explain the greater risk for the development of secondary caries on the cervical margins of proximal restorations? A: There is no increased risk for the development of secondary caries on the cervical margins of proximal restorations. B: Difficulties on the restorative procedure (improper moisture control, no direct visual access). C: Cervical margins may be on root dentin, which is more susceptible to demineralization than enamel. D: Answers B and C are correct. E: None of the above

D

Q: Which of the following is the proper sequence when assessing and adjusting a patient's FPD prior to cementation? 1. Occlusion 2. Proximal contacts 3. Margins 4. Internal adaptation 5. Pontic contacts A: 5, 4, 2, 3, 1 B: 2, 3, 5, 1, 4 C: 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 D: 2, 5, 4, 3, 1 E: 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

D

Q: Which of the following items should be included on a dentist's laboratory authorization form that is sent to the dental laboratory when requesting fabrication of a fixed partial denture? A: The type of metal alloy you have chosen. B: The type of pontic you have chosen. C: The patient's name and complete medical history. D: Answers A and B only E: Answers A, B and C should be included on the lab authorization form.

D

Q: Which of the following may occur if a restoration's proximal contacts are too loose or open? A: Food impaction B: Alveolar bone loss C: Incomplete seating of the restoration D: Answers A and B only E: Answers A, B and C

D

Q: You are consistently having trouble trapping bubbles when you pour your master impression, so you review the basics described in class and your textbook. Of the following, which suggestion would not be a correct means of handling the dental stone used to pour up a final impression for a cast restoration? A: Mechanically mix the dental stone under vacuum. B: Use the manufacturer's suggested water/powder ratios. C: Spray the impression with a surface tension reducer or debubblizer prior to pouring. D: Add approximately 2 ml more water to allow for a smoother mix which decreases the chances of trapping air bubbles in strategic places. E: Answers A, B, C and D are all correct means for handling the dental stone used to pour a final impression for a cast restoration.

D

What is the best course of action for the treatment of secondary caries? A. Detect lesions, determine caries risk, repair the affected restoration. B. Detect lesions, replace the affected restoration, evaluate. C. Restorative treatment, determine caries risk, prescribe fluorides, evaluate. D. Detect lesions, diagnose activity, identify etiologic factors, determine caries risk, define and implement a caries management plan (including restorative treatment), evaluate.

D

What is/are the purpose(s) for the facial flare of the proximal boxes when preparing a tooth for a partial veneer cast restoration? A. Removes unsupported enamel. B. Protects the buccal cusp. C. Breaks proximal contact, so the margin can be evaluated. D. Answers A and C

D

What purpose does the "wing: serve in a metal-ceramic crown preparation? A. Retention and resistance B. Preservation of tooth structure C. Structural durability D. A and B E. B and C

D

Which of the following are important factors increasing the risk for the development of secondary caries? A. Poor marginal adaptation of restoration. B. Restorations with the presence of overhangs. C. Improper surface polishing of restorations . D. All of the above

D

Which of the following explain the greater risk for the development of secondary caries on the cervical margins of proximal restorations? A. Difficulties on the restorative procedure (improper moisture control, no direct visual access) B. Cervical margins may be on root dentin, which is more susceptible to demineralization than enamel C. Answers B and C are correct. ' D. None of the above

D

Which of the following explain the greater risk for the development of secondary caries on the cervical margins of proximal restorations? A. There is no increased risk for the development of secondary caries on the cervical margins of proximal restorations. B. Difficulties on the restorative procedure (improper moisture control, no direct visual access). C. Cervical margins may be on root dentin, which is more susceptible to demineralization than enamel. D. Answers B and C are correct. E. None of the above

D

Which of the following is NOT an advantage for using a custom cast post & core? A. Fracture resistant one-piece design B. High strength C. Built-in anti-rotational feature D. Conservation of tooth structure

D

Which of the following is NOT an indication for using a metal-ceramic crown? A. When there has been extensive tooth destruction and the tooth requires complete coverage B. When the tooth will serve as an abutment for a fixed partial denture C. When the tooth will serve as an abutment for a removable partial denture D. All of the above are indications for using a metal-ceramic crown. E. None of the above are indications for using a metal-ceramic crown.

D

Which of the following is the most accurate means of verifying the absence or presence of an interproximal contact? A. Utilizing waxed dental flo ss B. Utilizing unwaxed dental floss C.Utilizing unwaxed dental tape D. Utilizing shim stock E. None ofthe abov

D

Which of the following items should be included on a dental laboratory authorization form when requesting the fabrication of an all ceramic crown restoration for tooth #12? A. The type of alloy to be used. B. The type of pontic to be used. C. The type of connector to be used. D. The shade to be used. E. All of the above should all be included on the laboratory authorization form.

D

Which of the following occlusal contacts should be eliminated in an attempt to achieve anterior guidance? A. Blue marks on maxillary canines B. Red marks on mandibular canines C. Blue marks on maxillary premolars D. Red marks on mandibular premolars

D

Which of the following statements is FALSE in regards to requirements for dies and working casts for FPD high noble cast restorations? A. The #1 dies must be dense, free of voids or marks along finish lines B. The dies and working cast should be poured from the same impression. C. The dies and working cast should be fabricated using a vacuum-mixed dental stone. D. The dies and working cast should be poured using Type V dental stone. E. All of the above true statements.

D

Which of the following statements is FALSE in regards to requirements for dies and working casts for cast restorations? A. They need to be accurate and must be a true representation of the prepared surfaces. B. They must be poured using a Type IV or Type V Dental Stone C. You must be able to clearly visualize all margins. D. They should be poured using a dental stone that has been hand mixed only. E. A, B, C and D are all true statements.

D

Which of the following statements is false? AThe post & core in combination with the subsequent definitive crown provides for what one author has termed coronoradicular stabilization B. Endodontically treated anterior do not automatically require crowns. C. One advantage of fabricating the post & core separate from the subsequent crown is that this allows for replacement of the crown without disturbing the underlying post & core. D. Numerous studies have demonstrated that glass ionomer is an acceptable restorative material for use as a core build-up around a prefabricated post. E. A common post endodontic restorative failure is where a preformed post was used in a tooth that did not have dentinal walls that were sufficient to support the core.

D

Which ofthe following statements in regards to root configuration and support for fixed partial dentures is FALSE? A....According to Shillingburg, the maximum number ofposterior teeth that can be safely replaced with a fixed partial denture is three, and this should be attempted only under ideal conditions. B. Roots that are broader labiolingually than they are mesiodistally are preferable to roots that round in cross-section. C. A molar with divergent roots will be a better abutment tooth than a molar whose roots are fused. D. According to Shillingburg, a tooth with conical rOots can be used as an abutment for a long-span fixed 'V partial denture if all other factors are optimal. E. A, B, C and D are all true statements.

D

Which ofthe following statements is FALSE? A. The post & core in combination with the subsequent definitive crown provides for what one author has termed coronoradicular stabilization. B. Endodontically treated anterior teeth do not automatically require crowns. C. O n e advantage of fabricating the post and core separate from the subsequent crown is that this allows for replacement of the crown without disturbing the underlying post and core. D. Numerous studies have demonstrated that glass ionomer is an acceptable restorative material for use as a . core build-up around a prefabricated post. E. A common post endodontic restorative failure is where a preformed post was used in a tooth that did not have dentinal walls sufficient enough to support the core.

D

A 72 yr old male with severe arthritis needs an FPD from 19-21. Which two pontic designs would be good considerations for his case? 1. Sanitary 2. Saddle-Ridge Lap 3. Conical 4. Modified Ridge Lap 5. Ovate A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 4 D. 3 and 4 E. 1 and 3

E. 1 and 3

Which statement below best describes what has been discussed all year as the "basic unit of retentio A. 0 ) \Va s that demonstrate a laper to a-I occlusal of convergence) of between 2 to 6 egrees alld are at least 2 to 3 mm in heightIL...OppGSiHg-Hxial wullSthat demonstrate d lapel (totat-occJusai ofconvergence) ofbetwcen 2 to 6 degrees and are at least 3 to 4 111m in heightC. Opposingaxialwallsthatciemonstrateataper(totalocclusalofconvergence)ofbctwcen10toI D degrees and are at least 2 to 3 mm in height® Opposing axial walls that demonstrate a laper (total occlusal ofconvergence) ofbc!wecn 10 to I, degrees and are at least 3 to 4 mm ill height

D

Which statement below best describes what has been discussed all year as the "basic unit of retention"? A. Opposing axial walls that demonstrate a taper (total convergence) of between 2 to 6 degrees and are at least 1 to 2 mm in height B. Opposing axial walls that demonstrate a taper (total convergence) of between 2 to 6 degrees and are at least 3 to 4 mm in height C. Opposing axial walls that demonstrate a taper (total convergence) of between 6 to 10 degrees and are at least 1 to 2 mm in height D. Opposing axial walls that demonstrate a taper (total convergence) of between 6 to 10 degrees and are at least 3 to 4 mm in height

D

You are consistently having trouble trapping bubbles when you pour your master impression, so you review the basics described in class and your textbook. Of the following, which suggestion would NOT be a correct means ofhandling the dental stone used to pour up a final impression for a cast restoration? A. Mechanically mix the dental stone under vacuum. B. Use the manufacturer's suggested water/powder ratios. C .Spray the impression with a surface tension reducer or debubblizer prior to pouring. D. Add approximately 2 ml more water to allow for a smoother mix which decreases the chances o f trapping air bubbles in strategic places. E. A, B, C and D are all correct means for handling the dental stone used to pour a final impression for a cast restoration.

D

You are consistently having trouble trapping bubbles when you pour your master impression, so you review the basics described in class and your textbook. Of the following. which suggestion would NOT be a correct means of handling the dental stone used to pour up a final impression for a cast restoration? A. Mechanically mix the dental stone under vacuum. B. Use the manufacturer's suggested water/powder ratios. C. Spray the impression with a surface tension reducer or debubblizer prior to pouring. D. Add approximately 2 ml more water to allow for a smoother mix, which decreases the chances of trapping air bubbles in strategic places. E. A, B, C and D are all correct means for handling the dental stone used to pour a final impression for a cast restoration

D

You are evaluating the final impression you have just made for a full gold crown on tooth #31 . Which of the following would cause you to reject the impression? ' A. You notice a large void along the mesial finish line. B. You realize that you used alginate tray adhesive instead of VPS tray adhesive. C. You notice that only 0.25 mm of unprepared tooth is visible cervical to your finish line. D. A and B would both be reasons to reject the impression. E. A, Band C would all be reasons to reject the impression.

D

You are evaluating the final impression you have just made for a full gold crown on tooth #31. Which of the following would cause you to reject the impression? A. You notice a large void along the mesial finish line. B. You realize that you used alginate tray adhesive instead of VPS tray adhesive. C. You notice that only 0.25 mm of unprepared tooth is visible cervical to your finish line. D. Answers A and B would both be reasons to reject the impression. E. Answers A, Band C would all be reasons to reject the impression.

D

You are preparing tooth #21 for a metal-ceramic crown. What is the correct amount ofocclusal reduction required for the functional cusp when plaruling for occlusal contacts to be in porcelain? A. 0.5 mm B. 1.0 mm C. 1.5 mm D. 2.0 mm E. 2.5 mm

D

In regards to electrochemical etching, which of the following statements is false? A. The purpose o.f the .electrochemical etch I .to create voids and crevices in the metal into which a composite resin luting agent can flow. B. The appropriate choice of a one-step electrochemical etching technique or a two-step electrochemical etching technique is alloy dependent. C. Most dental laboratories do not like using electrochemical etching due to increased occupational risks associated with this technique . D. Electrochemical etching is a highly effective means of increasing the bond strengths when utilizing unreactive gold-based alloys . E. All of the above are true statements.

D, in another question it has E

Q: A 72 yr old male with severe arthritis needs an FPD from 19-21. Which two pontic designs would be good considerations for his case? 1. Sanitary 2. Saddle-ridge lap 3. Conical 4. Modified ridge lap 5. Ovate A:1 and 2 B:2 and 3 C:1 and 5 D:3 and 4 E: 1 and 3

E: 1 and 3

A 65 year old patient of record presents for replacement of her failing FPD from 6-11. She has elected to replace the failing FPD with an identical FPD because it served her well (25 years). You have decided that since it is such a long FPD, it is best to fabricate the provisional in advance using the indirect method. Please place the fabrication steps in order.1. Fabricate a prep cast.2. Fabricate a diagnostic cast of existing FPD.3. Make a matrix of the diagnostic cast.4. Remarginate direct in the mouth.5. Take an alginate of the prepared teeth.6. Use the matrix to fabricate provisional on the prep cast.7. Trim and initial polish. A. 5, 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 4 B. 1, 5, 2, 3, 7, 6, 4 C. 5, 2, 1, 3, 6, 7, 4 D. 2, 5, 1, 3, 6, 7, 4

D. 2, 5, 1, 3, 6, 7, 4

The size, shape and position of connectors all influence the success of the fixed partial denture. Which of the following problems may occur if the connectors are too small? A. Distortion of the prosthesis during occlusal loading B. Food impaction C. Inadequate access for oral hygiene aids D. Answers A and B only E. Answers A, B and C

D. Answers A and B only

Which of the following connectors is considered rigid? A. Cast B. Pre-ceramic soldered C. Precision attachment D. Answers A and B only E. Answers A, B and C

D. Answers A and B only

Which of the following is considered a disadvantage when selecting a metal ceramic crown? A. Requires significant tooth reduction compared to a full gold crown .B. Inferior esthetics when compared to an all ceramic crown C. Custom characterization is not possible D. Answers A and B only E. Answers A, B and C

D. Answers A and B only

The loss of a permanent mandibular first molar to caries early in life is relatively common. In the above scenario, which of the following may be a consequence if the tooth is not replaced? A. Necessitates a more complex future prosthodontic treatment to replace the missing tooth and correct the plane of occlusion. B. Remaining teeth fracture due to the decreased workload. C. In cases of a severely supraerupted opposing tooth, the opposing tooth is extracted and replaced to restore the mouth to complete function, free of interferences. D. Answers A and C only E. Answers A, B and C

D. Answers A and C only

Which of the following is/are advantage(s) for using the custom indirect technique to fabricate a provisional? A. More accurate B. Shade matching is improved C. Provides greater protection to the pulp D. Answers A and C only E. Answers A, B and C

D. Answers A and C only

A 65 year old patient presents to your office for a metal ceramic crown prep of #29. You determine the patient has a centric contact point 0.5mm buccal to the central groove. Based on this information, which of the following methods is more likely to cause the porcelain to fracture? A. Placing the distal wing 1.0mm lingual to the central groove B. Placing the metal-ceramic junction in the central groove C. Placing the mesial wing 1.0mm buccal to the central groove D. Answers B and C only E. Answers A, B and C

D. Answers B and C only

A manufacturer's crown form for a provisional restoration is an example of a custom provisional. You must use an indirect technique to fabricate a provisional restoration with this method. A. Both statements are true B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.

D. Both statements are false.

Post-ceramic soldering is preformed to prevent damaging the ceramic. The ideal melting point for a post-ceramic solder is around 1,130°C. A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.

D. Both statements are false.

Which of the following treatment options exceeds Ante's Law? A. FPD from #18-#21 B. FPD from #13-#15 C. FPD from #6-#9 D. FPD from #31-#27 E. None of the above

D. FPD from #31-#27

A 35 year old patient presents to your office with a missing tooth #14. Tooth #15 has a slight mesial inclination (10°). Tooth #13's lingual axial wall height measures 4.5 mm from the gingival margin. To prevent violating the biological width, the finish line must be prepped at the gingival margin. The patient is concerned with the esthetics only while she is smiling. Which of the following is the best treatment option for the patient? A. Path of insertion favoring #13; porcelain occlusion covering the functional cusp of #13 B. Path of insertion favoring #13; metal occlusion covering the non-functional cusp of #13 C. Path of insertion favoring #15; porcelain occlusion covering the functional cusp of #13 D. Path of insertion favoring #13; metal occlusion covering the functional cusp of #13

D. Path of insertion favoring #13; metal occlusion covering the functional cusp of #13

Q: A 65 year old patient of record presents for replacement of her failing FPD from 6-11. She has elected to replace the failing FPD with an identical FPD because it served her well (25 years). You have decided that since it is such a long FPD, it is best to fabricate the provisional in advance using the indirect method. Please place the fabrication steps in order: 1. Fabricate a prep cast. 2. Fabricate a diagnostic cast of existing FPD. 3. Make a matrix of the diagnostic cast. 4. Remarginate direct in the mouth. 5. Take an alginate of the prepared teeth. 6. Use the matrix to fabricate provisional on the prep cast. 7. Trim and rough polish. A: 5, 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 4 B: 1, 5, 2, 3, 7, 6, 4 C: 5, 2, 1, 3, 6, 7, 4 D: 2, 5, 1, 3, 6, 7, 4

D: 2, 5, 1, 3, 6, 7, 4

Q: The size, shape and position of connectors all influence the success of the fixed partial denture. Which of the following problems may occur if the connectors are too small? A: Distortion of the prosthesis during occlusal loading B: Food impaction C: Inadequate access for oral hygiene aids D: Answers A and B only E: Answers Answers A, B and C

D: Answers A and B only

Q: Which of the following is considered a disadvantage when selecting a metal ceramic crown? A: Requires significant tooth reduction compared to a full gold crown B: Inferior esthetics when compared to an all ceramic crown C: Custom characterization is not possible D: Answers A and B only E: Answers A, B, and C

D: Answers A and B only

Q: Which of the following are advantages for using the custom indirect technique to fabricate a provisional? A: More accurate B: Requires more chair time than the direct technique C: Provides greater protection to the pulp D: Answers A and C only E: Answers A, B and C

D: Answers A and C only

Q: A fixed partial denture, also known as a partial, is a prosthetic appliance which is cemented to the remaining teeth and replaces one or more teeth. The extracoronal restoration that is cemented to the prepared abutment tooth is called a pontic. A: Both statements are true B: The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C: The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

D: Both statements are false.

Q: Post-ceramic soldering is preformed to prevent damaging the ceramic. The ideal melting point for a post-ceramic solder is around 1,130°C. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C: The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

D: Both statements are false.

Q: Using a preformed methacrylate composite provisional to temporize is an example of a custom provisional. It is important to use the indirect technique with this method. A: Both statements are true. B: The first statement is true. The second statement is false. C: The first statement is false. The second statement is true. D: Both statements are false.

D: Both statements are false.

Q: Several factors must be considered prior to selecting a dental prosthesis for a partially edentulous patient. Which of the following factors involve good alveolar bone support, no mobility, and rigid stabilization for a conventional fixed partial denture? A: Span length B: Span configuration C: Abutment condition D: Periodontal condition E: None of the above

D: Periodontal condition

7. Which of the following statements regarding soldering is FALSE? A. Soldering fluxes are used to dissolve surface impurities and to protect the surface from oxidation, thus increasing the ability of the solder to "flow." B. Dental solder should possess a fusion temperature that is about 100 to 150°F higher than that of the metal being soldered. C. When adding a proximal contact with solder, the reason for outlining the area to be soldered with an anitflux (such as a soft graphite pencil) is to restrict the flow of the solder. D. When fabricating a post-ceramic soldering index, the porcelain is covered with wax prior to pouring in the soldering investment in order to prevent contamination of the ceramic veneer by the investment material. E. A, B, C and D are all true statements.

E

Besides providing for a bulk of metal for rigidity. what is/are the other purpose(s) lor the axial reduction and chamfer when preparing a tooth for a pal1iai veneer cast restoration? A. Removes unsupported enamel. B. Defines the extent of the preparation. C. Defines the path of placement of the restoration. D. Answers A and C E. Answers B and C

E

In regards to tin plating noble metal alloys, which of the following statements is false? A. Tin plating can provide a 3-fold increase in bond strength .B. A tin plated surface has enhanced wettability. C. A tin plated surface has enhanced micromechanical retention. D. A tin plated surface provides free radicals that are available for chemical interaction. E. All of the above are true statements.

E

Q: If the facial aspect of a MCC prep is not prepped in 2 planes, what may result? A: The opaque may show through. B: The pulp may be violated. C: The restoration may be overbulked. D: Only B and C are correct. E: A, B and C are correct.

E

Q: Which of the following could serve as an anti-rotational feature for a cast post and core? A: A vertical wall in the preparation. B: A groove placed within the thickest wall of the post/core space C: A root canal space with a ribbon (figure 8) or oblong shape D: Answers A and C only E: Answers A, B and C

E

Q: Which of the following improves resistance to dynamic occlusal loading, helps maintain the cement seal of the crown and reduces the potential for stress concentration at the junction of the core and the post? A: Anti-rotational feature B: Large post diameter C: Positive horizontal stop D: Adequate apical seal E: Ferrule effect

E

Q: Which of the following statements is false with regards to a prefabricated post & core build up? A: Tooth fractures may occur due to the two-piece design. B: The post should fit the entire canal space length passively. C: A tooth may be prepped immediately following the placement of a prefabricated post and core build up. D: A prefabricated post and core build up can be placed in an abutment tooth for a fixed partial denture. E: All the above are true statements.

E

The dental arch is in a state of dynamic equilibrium with the teeth supporting each other. The stability of an individual tooth is dependent on a balance of forces exelted on that tooth by the adjacent and opposing teeth and supporting tissues and by the soft tissues ofthe cheeks, lips and tongue. When a single tooth is not replaced, this balance is upset. What are the typical consequences that are brought about due to the loss of a posterior tooth? A. Loss of proximal contacts B. Tilting or drifting of the adjacent teeth C. Supra-eruption of the opposing tooth or teeth D. OnlyBandC E. A, B, C

E

What purpose does the "wing" serve in a metal-ceramic crown preparation? A. Structural durability B. Retention and resistance C. Preservation of tooth structure D. Answers A and B E. Answers B and C

E

What steps/items should a dental student have ready before presenting a prosthodontic treatment? A. Medical and dental histories should be gathered and reviewed. B. Appropriate radiographs and consultations should be obtained and reviewed. C. Operative treatment and periodontal therapy should be treatment plarmed.v/ D. Front portion of treatment planning form should be completed and diagnostic casts should be mounted and surveyed ifRPD is planned. E. All of the above.

E

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the dentist when submitting laboratory patient cases? A. Accurate impressions B. Properly trimmed bite registrations C. Identifying the posterior palatal extension for a removable prosthesis D. Selecting prosthetic teeth for a removable prosthesis E. All of the above are responsibilities of the dentist.

E

Which of the following is not an ideal physical property for a post? A: Adequate retention within the root B: Maximum retention of the core C: Maximum protection of the crown margin cement seal D: Radiopaque E: All the above are ideal properties for a post.

E

Which of the following is/are disadvantage(s) for the use of porcelain to cover the entire occlusal surface of a posterior metal-ceramic restoration? A. A greater amount of tooth structure must be removed. B. The laboratory fee is so high that the profit margin is adversely affected. C. The structural integrity of the opposing occlusal surfaces could be threatened. D. Answers B and C E. Answers A and C

E

Which of the following items should be included on a dentist's work authorization form that is sent to the dental laboratory when requesting fabrication of a fixed partial denture? A. The type of metal alloy you want to be used B. The type of pontic You want to be used C. The type of occlusal scheme you desire D. Dentist's signature and dental license number E. All of the above should all be included.

E

Which of the following items should be included on a dentist's work authorization form that is sent to the dental laboratory when requesting fabrication of a fixed partial denture? A. The type ofmetal alloy the dentist wants to be used. B. The type ofpontic the dentist wants to be used. C. The type ofocclusal scheme the dentist desires. D. The dentist's signature and dental license number. E. All of the above should all be included.

E

Which of the following statements is false? A: Gingival inflammation and bone loss are two possible adverse effects caused by the use of a nickel containing alloy crown in an individual who has a nickel allergy. B: With some cements, the phosphate group of 10-methacryloloxydecl dihydrogen phosphate (MDP) is active and reacts with the metal. C: Oxygen inhibits the free radical polymerization in composite resin luting agents. D: If a patient states that they are unable to wear cheap jewelry, the dentist should not utilize any nickel containing alloys in their mouth. E: A, B, C and D are all true statements.

E

Which ofthe following statements is FALSE in regards to requirements for dies and working casts for cast restorations? A. They need to be accurate and must be a true representation of the prepared surfaces. B. They must be poured using a Type IV or Type V Dental Stone. C. You must be able to clearly visualize all margins. D. They should be poured using a dental stone that has been vacuum mixed. E. All of the above are TRUE statements.

E

Which ofthe following statements regarding soldering is FALSE? A. Soldering fluxes are used to dissolve surface impurities and to protect the surface from oxidation, thus increasing the ability ofthe solder to "flow." B. Dental solder should possess a fusion temperature that is about 100 to 150°F lower than that of the metal being soldered. C. When adding a proximal contact with solder, the reason for outlining the area to be soldered with a flux (such as a soft graphite pencil) is to restrict the flow of the solder. D. When fabricating a post-ceramic soldering index, the porcelain is covered with wax prior to pouring in the soldering investment in order to prevent contamination of the ceramic veneer by the investment material. E. A, B, C and D are all TRUE statements.

E

The loss of a permanent mandibular first molar to caries early in life is relatively common. In the above scenario, which of the following is a consequence if the tooth is not replaced? A: The missing tooth decreases the patient's ability to masticate food effectively. B: The adjacent and opposing teeth drifting into the edentulous space causing periodontal and occlusion problems. C: The missing tooth decreases the patient's self esteem. D: Answers B and C only E: Answers A, B and C

E: Answers A, B and C

Q: Which of the following treatment options exceeds Ante's Law? A: FPD from #18-#21, replacing missing teeth #19 and #20 B: FPD from #13-#15, replacing missing tooth #14 C: FPD from #6-#9, replacing missing teeth #7 and #8 D: Answers A and C only E: None of the above

E: None of the above

T/F Q: A 43 year old female patient complains of pain when biting on tooth #30. The tooth has an existing large MOD amalgam (placed 10 years ago) that appears to be intact. There is no reported pain to hot or cold and cold testing elicits no response from the tooth. The tooth is very painful to biting pressure and percussion. Periodontal probing depths are 3mms or less. Slight bleeding is observed during probing. Radiographically, the tooth and periodontium appear to be within normal limits, though the amalgam restoration appears deep. Cracked tooth syndrome is the likely diagnosis for this tooth.

False