Fluid & Electrolytes Prep U Questions

Which of the following is the most common cause of symptomatic hypomagnesemia in the United States? A. Alcoholism B. Intestinal resection C. Loss of gastric acid D. Inflammatory bowel disease

A. Alcoholism Alcoholism is currently the most common cause of symptomatic hypomagnesemia in the United States. Any disruption in small bowel function, as in intestinal resection or inflammatory bowel disease, can lead to hypomagnesemia.

When evaluating arterial blood gases (ABGs), which value is consistent with metabolic alkalosis? A. PaCO 36 B. pH 7.48 C. HCO 21 mEq/L D. O saturation 95%

B. pH 7.48 Metabolic alkalosis is a clinical disturbance characterized by a high pH and high plasma bicarbonate concentration. The HCO value is below normal. The PaCO value and the oxygen saturation level are within a normal range.

A client is diagnosed with hypocalcemia and the nurse is teaching the client about symptoms. What symptom would the nurse include in the teaching? A. hypertension B. flank pain C. tingling sensation in the fingers D. polyuria

C. tingling sensation in the fingers Tingling or numbess in the fingers is a symptom of hypocalcemia. Flank pain, polyuria, and hypertension are symptoms of hypercalcemia.

The nurse knows which is the normal serum value for potassium? A. 8.5-10.5 mg/dL (2.13-2.63 mmol/L). B. 96-106 mEq/L (96-106 mmol/L). C. 135-145 mEq/L (135-145 mmol/L). D. 3.5-5.0 mEq/L (3.5-5.0 mmol/L).

D. 3.5-5.0 mEq/L (3.5-5.0 mmol/L).

The nurse is reviewing client lab work for a critical lab value. Which value is called to the physician for additional orders? A. Magnesium:2 mEq/L B. Sodium: 138 mEq/L C. Calcium: 10 mg/dL D. Potassium: 5.8 mEq/L

D. Potassium: 5.8 mEq/L

A client with severe hypervolemia is prescribed a loop diuretic and the nurse is concerned with the client experiencing significant sodium and potassium losses. What drug was most likely prescribed? A. metolazone B. spironolactone C. hydrochlorothiazide D. furosemide

D. furosemide Furosemide is the only loop diuretic choice. Hydrochlorothiazide and metolazone are thiazide diuretics that block sodium reabsorption. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents sodium absoprtion.

The nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with fluid volume excess (FVE). Which nursing assessments should the nurse include in the ongoing monitoring of the client? Select all that apply. A. Strength testing for muscle wasting B. Nutritional status and diet C. Skin assessment for edema and turgor D. Blood pressure, heart rate, and rhythm E. Intake and output, urine volume, and color

C. Skin assessment for edema and turgor D. Blood pressure, heart rate, and rhythm E. Intake and output, urine volume, and color To assess for FVE the nurse measures blood pressure, heart rate and rhythm, and breath sounds; inspects the skin to look for edema and turgor; and inspects neck veins. Intake and output, daily weight, urine volume and color, dyspnea, and thirst are assessments that will assist the nurse in identifying improvement or worsening of the fluid volume excess. In addition, the nurse will be able to identify potential fluid volume deficit from overtreatment of the fluid volume excess.

What does the nurse understand is the primary method by which fluid volume is regulated? A. Urine excretion B. Breathing C. Bowel elimination D. Perspiration

A. Urine excretion Fluid volume is regulated primarily by the excretion of water in the form of urine and the promotion of thirst. Breathing, bowel elimination, and perspiration are methods the body uses to excrete fluid, but they are not the primary regulatory method for fluid volume.

To confirm an acid-base imbalance, it is necessary to assess which findings from a client's arterial blood gas (ABG) results? Select all that apply. A. pH B. HCO3 C. Glucose D. K+ E. Na+ F. PaCO2

A. pH, B. HCO3, F. PaCO2 Arterial blood gas (ABG) results are the main tool for measuring blood pH, CO2 content (PaCO2), and bicarbonate (HCO3). The two types of acid-base imbalances are acidosis and alkalosis.

Your client has a diagnosis of hypervolemia. What would be an important intervention that you would initiate? A. Give medications that promote fluid retention. B. Teach client behaviors that decrease urination. C. Limit sodium and water intake. D. Assess for dehydration.

C. Limit sodium and water intake. Implement prescribed interventions such as limiting sodium and water intake and administering ordered medications that promote fluid elimination. Assessing for dehydration and teaching to decrease urination would not be appropriate interventions.

A client experiencing a severe anxiety attack and hyperventilating presents to the emergency department. The nurse would expect the client's pH value to be A. 7.30 B. 7.45 C. 7.35 D. 7.50

D. 7.50

When a client's ventilation is impaired, the body retains which substance? A. Nitrous oxide B. Oxygen C. Sodium bicarbonate D. Carbon dioxide

D. Carbon dioxide When ventilation is impaired, the body retains carbon dioxide (CO2) because the carbonic acid level increases in the blood.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury. When reviewing the client's most recent laboratory reports, the nurse notes that the client's magnesium levels are high. The nurse should prioritize assessment for what health problem? A. Tachycardia B. Cool, clammy skin C. Acute flank pain D. Diminished deep tendon reflexes

D. Diminished deep tendon reflexes To gauge a client's magnesium status, the nurse should check deep tendon reflexes. If the reflex is absent, this may indicate high serum magnesium. Tachycardia, flank pain, and cool, clammy skin are not typically associated with hypermagnesemia.

A client recovering from an acute asthma attack experiences respiratory alkalosis. The nurse measures a respiratory rate of 46 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 162/90 mm Hg, and a temperature of 98.6° F (37° C). To help correct respiratory alkalosis, the nurse should: A. insert a nasogastric tube (NG) as ordered. B. administer antibiotics as ordered. C. administer acetaminophen as ordered. D. instruct the client to breathe into a paper bag.

D. instruct the client to breathe into a paper bag. A client recovering from an acute asthma attack who experiences respiratory alkalosis should breathe into a paper bag to increase arterial carbon dioxide tension and ease anxiety (which may exacerbate the alkalosis).

Before seeing a newly assigned client with respiratory alkalosis, a nurse quickly reviews the client's medical history. Which condition is a predisposing factor for respiratory alkalosis? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Extreme anxiety C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus D. Opioid overdose

B. Extreme anxiety Extreme anxiety may lead to respiratory alkalosis by causing hyperventilation, which results in excessive carbon dioxide (CO2) loss.

Which electrolyte is a major cation in body fluid? A. Bicarbonate B. Phosphate C. Chloride D. Potassium

D. Potassium Potassium is a major cation that affects cardiac muscle functioning. Chloride, bicarbonate, and phosphate are anions.

A client has a respiratory rate of 38 breaths/min. What effect does breathing faster have on arterial pH level? A. No effect B. Decreases arterial pH C. Increases arterial pH D. Provides long-term pH regulation

C. Increases arterial pH Respiratory alkalosis is always caused by hyperventilation, which is a decrease in plasma carbonic acid concentration. The pH is elevated above normal as a result of a low PaCO2.

Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, a nurse should assess for hyperkalemia as indicated by: A. diaphoresis. B. tremors. C. constipation. D. muscle weakness.

D. muscle weakness. Muscle weakness, bradycardia, nausea, diarrhea, and paresthesia of the hands, feet, tongue, and face are findings associated with hyperkalemia, which is transient and results from transient hypoaldosteronism when the adenoma is removed. Tremors, diaphoresis, and constipation aren't seen in hyperkalemia.

A client with respiratory acidosis is admitted to the intensive care unit for close observation. What client complication associated with respiratory acidosis would the nurse observe? A. stroke B. hyperglycemia C. seizures D. papilledema

D. papilledema If respiratory acidosis is severe, intracranial pressure may rise, causing papilledema. Stroke and hyperglycemia are not associated with respiratory acidosis. Seizures may complicate respiratory alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis.

A patient complains of tingling in the fingers as well as feeling depressed. The nurse assesses positive Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs. Which decreased laboratory results does the nurse observe when the patient's laboratory work has returned? A. Calcium B. Phosphorus C. Magnesium D. Potassium

A. Calcium Calcium deficit is associated with the following symptoms: numbness and tingling of the fingers, toes, and circumoral region; positive Trousseau's sign and Chvostek's sign; seizures, carpopedal spasms, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, irritability, bronchospasm, anxiety, impaired clotting time, decreased prothrombin, diarrhea, and hypotension. Electrocardiogram findings associated with hypocalcemia include prolonged QT interval and lengthened ST.

A client with hypertension has been prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. What nursing action will best reduce the client's risk for electrolyte disturbances? A. Ensure the client has sufficient potassium intake. B. Encourage fluid intake. C. Maintain a low sodium diet. D. Encourage the use of over-the-counter calcium supplements.

A. Ensure the client has sufficient potassium intake. Diuretics cause potassium loss, and it is important to maintain adequate intake during therapy. Hyponatremia is more of a risk than hypernatremia, so a low-sodium diet does not address the risk for electrolyte disturbances. There is no direct need for extra calcium intake and increased fluid intake does not reduce the client's risk for electrolyte disturbances.

The surgical nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day 1 following a thyroidectomy. The client reports tingling in her lips and fingers. She states that she has an intermittent spasm in her wrist and hand and she exhibits increased muscle tone. What electrolyte imbalance should the nurse first suspect? A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypophosphatemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypermagnesemia

A. Hypocalcemia Tetany is the most characteristic manifestation of hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia. Sensations of tingling may occur in the tips of the fingers, around the mouth, and, less commonly, in the feet. Hypophosphatemia creates central nervous dysfunction, resulting in seizures and coma. Hypermagnesemia creates hypoactive reflexes and somnolence. Signs of hyperkalemia include paresthesias and anxiety.

An elderly client takes 40 mg of furosemide twice a day. Which electrolyte imbalance is the mostserious adverse effect of diuretic use? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypophosphatemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hyperkalemia

A. Hypokalemia Hypokalemia (potassium level below 3.5 mEq/L) usually indicates a defict in total potassium stores. Potassium-losing diuretics, such as furosemide, can induce hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to increased potassium levels. Loop diuretics can bring about lower sodium levels, not hypernatremia. Furosemide does not affect phosphorus levels.

The nurse is working on a burns unit and an acutely ill client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of third spacing. Based on this change in status, the nurse should expect the client to exhibit signs and symptoms of what imbalance? A. Hypovolemia B. Hypermagnesemia C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Hypercalcemia

A. Hypovolemia Third-spacing fluid shift, which occurs when fluid moves out of the intravascular space but not into the intracellular space, can cause hypovolemia. Increased calcium and magnesium levels are not indicators of third-spacing fluid shift. Burns typically cause acidosis, not alkalosis.

While assessing a client's peripheral IV site, the nurse observes edema around the insertion site. How should the nurse document this complication related to IV therapy? A. Infiltration B. Fluid overload C. Phlebitis D. Air emboli

A. Infiltration Infiltration is the administration of nonvesicant solution or medication into the surrounding tissue. This can occur when the IV cannula dislodges or perforates the wall of the vein. Infiltration is characterized by edema around the insertion site, leakage of IV fluid from the insertion site, discomfort and coolness in the area of infiltration, and a significant decrease in the flow rate. Air emboli, phlebitis, and fluid overload are not indications of infiltration.

The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had hypophosphatemia during his time in hospital. The client has a diet prescribed that is high in phosphate. What foods should you teach this client to include in his diet? Select all that apply. A. Milk B. Green vegetables C. Poultry D. Liver E. Beef

A. Milk C. Poultry D. Liver If the client experiences mild hypophosphatemia, foods such as milk and milk products, organ meats, nuts, fish, poultry, and whole grains should be encouraged.

The nurse is assessing a client for local complications of intravenous therapy. Which are local complications? Select all that apply. A. Phlebitis B. Infection C. Hematoma D. Extravasation E. Air embolism

A. Phlebitis C. Hematoma D. Extravasation Local complications of intravenous therapy include infiltration and extravasation, phlebitis, thrombophlebitis, hematoma, and clotting of the needle. Systemic complications occur less frequently but are usually more serious than local complications and include circulatory overload, air embolism, febrile reaction, and infection.

A client with a suspected overdose of an unknown drug is admitted to the emergency department. Arterial blood gas values indicate respiratory acidosis. What should the nurse do first? A. Prepare to assist with ventilation. B. Prepare for gastric lavage. C. Obtain a urine specimen for drug screening. D. Monitor the client's heart rhythm.

A. Prepare to assist with ventilation. Respiratory acidosis is associated with hypoventilation; in this client, hypoventilation suggests intake of a drug that has suppressed the brain's respiratory center. Therefore, the nurse should assume the client has respiratory depression and should prepare to assist with ventilation. After the client's respiratory function has been stabilized, the nurse can safely monitor the heart rhythm, prepare for gastric lavage, and obtain a urine specimen for drug screening.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of hyponatremia. What nursing intervention is appropriate to include in the plan of care for this patient? (Select all that apply.) A. Restricting tap water intake B. Assessing for symptoms of nausea and malaise C. Encouraging the use of salt substitute instead of salt D. Monitoring neurologic status E. Encouraging the intake of low-sodium liquids

A. Restricting tap water intake B. Assessing for symptoms of nausea and malaise D. Monitoring neurologic status For patients at risk, the nurse closely laboratory values (i.e., sodium) and be alert for GI manifestations such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramping. The nurse must be alert for central nervous system changes, such as lethargy, confusion, muscle twitching, and seizures. Neurologic signs are associated with very low sodium levels that have fallen rapidly because of fluid overloading. For a patient with abnormal losses of sodium who can consume a general diet, the nurse encourages foods and fluids with high sodium content to control hyponatremia. For example, broth made with one beef cube contains approximately 900 mg of sodium; 8 oz of tomato juice contains approximately 700 mg of sodium. If the primary problem is water retention, it is safer to restrict fluid intake than to administer sodium.

A newly graduated nurse is admitting a client with a long history of emphysema. The nurse learns that the client's PaCO2 has been between 56 and 64 mm Hg for several months. Why should the nurse be cautious administering oxygen? A. Using oxygen may result in the client developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia. B. The client's calcium will rise dramatically due to pituitary stimulation. C. Oxygen may cause the client to hyperventilate and become acidotic. D. Oxygen will increase the client's intracranial pressure and create confusion.

A. Using oxygen may result in the client developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia. When PaCO2 chronically exceeds 50 mm Hg, it creates insensitivity to CO2 in the respiratory medulla, and the use of oxygen may result in the client developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia. No information indicates the client's calcium will rise dramatically due to pituitary stimulation. No feedback system that oxygen stimulates would create an increase in the client's intracranial pressure and create confusion. Increasing the oxygen would not stimulate the client to hyperventilate and become acidotic; rather, it would cause hypoventilation and acidosis.

The nurse is caring for a client who has a peripheral IV in place for fluid replacement. When caring for the client's IV site, the nurse should: A. ensure that anticoagulants are placed on hold for the duration of IV therapy. B. replace the IV dressing with a new, clean dressing if it is soiled. C. periodically remove hair from 2 cm around the IV site. D. ensure that the tubing is firmly anchored to the client's skin.

A. ensure that the tubing is firmly anchored to the client's skin. Anchoring the IV tubing prevents it from being accidentally dislodged. Anticoagulants are not contraindicated during IV therapy. Soiled dressings should be replaced with a new sterile dressing, not a clean dressing. Hair removal is unnecessary.

A client with mild fluid volume excess is prescribed a diuretic that blocks sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule. Which diuretic does the nurse anticipate administering to this client? A. hydrochlorothiazide B. bumetanide C. torsemide D. furosemide

A. hydrochlorothiazide Loop diuretics, such as furosemide (Lasix), bumetanide (Bumex), or torsemide (Demadex), can cause a greater loss of both sodium and water because they block sodium reabsorption in the ascending limb of Henle's loop, where 20% to 30% of filtered sodium is normally reabsorbed. Generally, thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) or chlorthalidone (Thalitone), are prescribed for mild to moderate hypervolemia and loop diuretics for severe hypervolemia.

A client is experiencing edema in the tissue. What type of intravenous fluid would the nurse expect to be prescribed? A. hypertonic solution B. isotonic fluid D. no intravenous solution D. hypotonic solution

A. hypertonic solution A hypertonic solution is used to pull water back in to circulation, as it has more particles than the body's water. If hypertonics are given too rapidly or in large quantities, they may cause an extracellular volume excess and precipitate circulatory overload and dehydration. As a result, these solutions must be given cautiously and usually only when the serum osmolality has decreased to dangerously low levels. Hypertonic solutions exert an osmotic pressure greater than that of the extracellular fluid. The hospitalized client requires treatment for the tissue edema. An isotonic solution is the same concentration as the body's water and is used as an intravenous volume expander. A hypotonic solution has fewer particles than the body's water, thus shifting water from the vascular space to the tissue.

The nurse is providing care for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). When describing the process of respiration the nurse explains how oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the pulmonary capillaries and the alveoli. The nurse is describing what process? A. Osmosis B. Diffusion C. Active transport D. Filtration

B. Diffusion Diffusion is the natural tendency of a substance to move from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration. It occurs through the random movement of ions and molecules. Examples of diffusion are the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the pulmonary capillaries and alveoli and the tendency of sodium to move from the ECF compartment, where the sodium concentration is high, to the ICF, where its concentration is low.

A client in the emergency department reports that he has been vomiting excessively for the past 2 days. His arterial blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.50, partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) of 43 mm Hg, partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) of 75 mm Hg, and bicarbonate (HCO3-) of 42 mEq/L. Based on these findings, the nurse documents that the client is experiencing which type of acid-base imbalance? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Respiratory acidosis

B. Metabolic alkalosis A pH over 7.45 with a HCO3- level over 26 mEq/L indicates metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is always secondary to an underlying cause and is marked by decreased amounts of acid or increased amounts of base HCO3-. The client isn't experiencing respiratory alkalosis because the PaCO2 is normal. The client isn't experiencing respiratory or metabolic acidosis because the pH is greater than 7.35.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the medical unit 72 hours ago with pyloric stenosis. A nasogastric tube placed upon admission has been on low intermittent suction ever since. Upon review of the morning's blood work, the nurse notices that the client's potassium is below reference range. The nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of what imbalance? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Hypercalcemia D. Metabolic alkalosis

B. Metabolic alkalosis Probably the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis is vomiting or gastric suction with loss of hydrogen and chloride ions. The disorder also occurs in pyloric stenosis in which only gastric fluid is lost. Vomiting, gastric suction, and pyloric stenosis all remove potassium and can cause hypokalemia. This client would not be at risk for hypercalcemia; hyperparathyroidism and cancer account for almost all cases of hypercalcemia. The nasogastric tube is removing stomach acid and will likely raise pH. Respiratory acidosis is unlikely since no change was reported in the client's respiratory status.

A client who is being treated for pneumonia reports sudden shortness of breath. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is drawn. The ABG has the following values: pH 7.21, PaCO2 64 mm Hg, HCO3 = 24 mm Hg. What does the ABG reflect? A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Respiratory acidosis

B. Respiratory acidosis The pH is below 7.40, PaCO2 is greater than 40, and the HCO3 is normal; therefore, it is a respiratory acidosis, and compensation by the kidneys has not begun, which indicates this was probably an acute event. The HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range so it is not metabolic alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates an acidosis, not alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates it is an acidosis but the HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range, ruling out metabolic acidosis.

A nurse reviews the arterial blood gas (ABG) values of a client admitted with pneumonia: pH, 7.51; PaCO2, 28 mm Hg; PaO2, 70 mm Hg; and HCO3--, 24 mEq/L. What do these values indicate? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

B. Respiratory alkalosis A client with pneumonia may hyperventilate in an effort to increase oxygen intake. Hyperventilation leads to excess carbon dioxide (CO2) loss, which causes alkalosis — indicated by this client's elevated pH value. With respiratory alkalosis, the kidneys' bicarbonate (HCO3-) response is delayed, so the client's HCO3- level remains normal. The below-normal value for the partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) indicates CO2 loss and signals a respiratory component. Because the HCO3- level is normal, this imbalance has no metabolic component. Therefore, the client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.

A client is taking spironolactone to control hypertension. The client's serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority during assessment? A. bowel sounds B. electrocardiogram (ECG) results C. neuromuscular function D. respiratory rate

B. electrocardiogram (ECG) results Although changes in all these findings are seen in hyperkalemia, ECG results should take priority because changes can indicate potentially lethal arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation. It wouldn't be appropriate to assess the client's neuromuscular function, bowel sounds, or respiratory rate for effects of hyperkalemia.

A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops respiratory acidosis as a result of reduced alveolar ventilation. Which combination of arterial blood gas (ABG) values confirms respiratory acidosis? A. pH, 7.35; PaCO2 40 mm Hg B. pH, 7.25; PaCO2 50 mm Hg C. pH, 7.5; PaCO2 30 mm Hg D. pH, 7.40; PaCO2 35 mm Hg

B. pH, 7.25; PaCO2 50 mm Hg In respiratory acidosis, ABG analysis reveals an arterial pH below 7.35 and partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) above 45 mm Hg. Therefore, the combination of a pH value of 7.25 and a PaCO2 value of 50 mm Hg confirms respiratory acidosis. A pH value of 7.5 with a PaCO2 value of 30 mm Hg indicates respiratory alkalosis. A ph value of 7.40 with a PaCO2 value of 35 mm Hg and a pH value of 7.35 with a PaCO2 value of 40 mm Hg represent normal ABG values, reflecting normal gas exchange in the lungs.

A client admitted with acute anxiety has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values: pH, 7.55; partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2), 90 mm Hg; partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2), 27 mm Hg; and bicarbonate (HCO3-), 24 mEq/L. Based on these values, the nurse suspects: A. metabolic acidosis. B. respiratory alkalosis. C. metabolic alkalosis. D. respiratory acidosis.

B. respiratory alkalosis. This client's above-normal pH value indicates alkalosis. The below-normal PaCO2 value indicates acid loss via hyperventilation; this type of acid loss occurs only in respiratory alkalosis. These ABG values wouldn't occur in metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.

Which of the following measurable urine output recorded indicates the patient is maintaining adeaquate fluid intake and balance? A. A patient with a minimal urine output of 20 ml/hour B. A patient with a minimal urine output of 30ml/hour C. A patient with a minimal urine output of 50 mL/hour D. A patient with a minimal urine output of 10 mL/hour

C. A patient with a minimal urine output of 50 mL/hour A client with minimal urine output of 50 mL/hour provides the nurse with the information that the patient is maintaining proper fluid balance. Less then 50 ml /hour of urine output indicates dehydration and possible poor kidney function.

To evaluate a client for hypoxia, the physician is most likely to order which laboratory test? A. Total hemoglobin B. Red blood cell count C. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis D. Sputum culture

C. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis Red blood cell count, sputum culture, total hemoglobin, and ABG analysis all help evaluate a client with respiratory problems. However, ABG analysis is the only test that evaluates gas exchange in the lungs, providing information about the client's oxygenation status.

A 64-year-old client is brought in to the clinic with thirsty, dry, sticky mucous membranes, decreased urine output, fever, a rough tongue, and lethargy. Serum sodium level is above 145 mEq/L. Should the nurse start salt tablets when caring for this client? A. No, start with the sodium chloride IV. B. Yes, this will correct the sodium deficit. C. No, sodium intake should be restricted. D. Yes, along with the hypotonic IV.

C. No, sodium intake should be restricted. The symptoms and the high level of serum sodium suggest hypernatremia, (excess of sodium). It is necessary to restrict sodium intake. Salt tablets and sodium chloride IV can only worsen this condition but may be required in hyponatremia (sodium deficit). Hypotonic solution IV may be a part of the treatment but not along with the salt tablets.

A client with pancreatic cancer has the following blood chemistry profile: Glucose, fasting: 204 mg/dl; blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 12 mg/dl; Creatinine: 0.9 mg/dl; Sodium: 136 mEq/L; Potassium: 2.2 mEq/L; Chloride: 99 mEq/L; CO2: 33 mEq/L. Which result should the nurse identify as critical and report immediately? A. Sodium B. Chloride C. Potassium D. CO2

C. Potassium The nurse should identify potassium: 2.2 mEq/L as critical because a normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Severe hypokalemia can cause cardiac and respiratory arrest, possibly leading to death. Hypokalemia also depresses the release of insulin and results in glucose intolerance. The glucose level is above normal (normal is 75 to 110 mg/dl) and the chloride level is a bit low (normal is 100 to 110 mEq/L). Although these levels should be reported, neither is life-threatening. The BUN (normal is 8 to 26 mg/dl) and creatinine (normal is 0.8 to 1.4 mg/dl) are within normal range.

A client with a longstanding diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder presents to the emergency room. The triage nurse notes upon assessment that the client is hyperventilating. The triage nurse is aware that hyperventilation is the most common cause of which acid-base imbalance? A. CNS disturbances B. Respiratory acidosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Increased PaCO2

C. Respiratory alkalosis The most common cause of acute respiratory alkalosis is hyperventilation. Extreme anxiety can lead to hyperventilation. Acute respiratory acidosis occurs in emergency situations, such as pulmonary edema, and is exhibited by hypoventilation and decreased PaCO2. CNS disturbances are found in extreme hyponatremia and fluid overload.

To compensate for decreased fluid volume (hypovolemia), the nurse can anticipate which response by the body? A. Vasodilation B. Increased urine output C. Tachycardia D. Bradycardia

C. Tachycardia Fluid volume deficit, or hypovolemia, occurs when the loss of extracellular fluid exceeds the intake of fluid. Clinical signs include oliguia, rapid heart rate, vasoconstriction, cool and clammy skin, and muscle weakness. The nurse monitors for rapid, weak pulse and orthostatic hypotension.

A client has a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl (1.8 mmol/L). During the physical examination, the nurse expects to assess: A. Homans' sign. B. Hegar's sign. C. Trousseau's sign. D. Goodell's sign.

C. Trousseau's sign. This client's serum calcium level indicates hypocalcemia, an electrolyte imbalance that causes Trousseau's sign (carpopedal spasm induced by inflating the blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure).

A physician orders regular insulin 10 units I.V. along with 50 ml of dextrose 50% for a client with acute renal failure. What electrolyte imbalance is this client most likely experiencing? A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkalemia

D. Hyperkalemia Administering regular insulin I.V. concomitantly with 50 ml of dextrose 50% helps shift potassium from the extracellular fluid into the cell, which normalizes serum potassium levels in the client with hyperkalemia. This combination doesn't help reverse the effects of hypercalcemia, hypernatremia, or hyperglycemia.

A client has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values: pH, 7.12; partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2), 40 mm Hg; and bicarbonate (HCO3-), 15 mEq/L. These ABG values suggest which disorder? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic acidosis

D. Metabolic acidosis This client's pH value is below normal, indicating acidosis. The HCO3- value also is below normal, reflecting an overwhelming accumulation of acids or excessive loss of base, which suggests metabolic acidosis. The PaCO2 value is normal, indicating absence of respiratory compensation. These ABG values eliminate respiratory alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and metabolic alkalosis.

A client with an intravenous infusion is rubbing his arm. The nurse assesses the site and decides to discontinue the current infusion because of concern that the client has developed phlebitis. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse assess with phlebitis? Select all that apply. A. Cool area around the insertion site B. Ecchymosis at the insertion site C. Rapid, shallow respirations D. Tender area around the insertion site E. Reddened area along the path of the vein

D. Tender area around the insertion site E. Reddened area along the path of the vein Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein and is characterized by a reddened, warm area around an insertion site or along the path of a vein. The involved area is also tender and swollen. The nurse assesses infusion sites and determines the proper action to take. If indications lead to suspected phlebitis, the nurse will discontinue the intravenous line and restart with a different vessel.