FRCNW board part 1
Define alternating current
- a current which changes direction continuously
Define direct current
- a current which flows in one direction only
State the temperature and expansion rate of LOX.
-297 degrees expansion 862/1
State the two major tube joints used in hydraulic tube assemblies.
-Flared fittings=single and double flared joint. -Flareless fittings
Describe the neutralizing agents required for batteries
-Lead-acid: 6oz sodium bicarbonate dissolved in 1 gallon portable water -Nicad-1 quart distilled white vinegar in 1 gallon deionized or distilled water
Describe the requirements used in airframe construction and repair on any material
-one time flight repair-to safely fly to a depot or prime contractor for repair. -temp. restore static strength to original config. but life cycle repair needed at 1st opportunity -permanent->equal or greater than original strength
Discuss the primary objective of I-level corrosion control and cleaning.
-reduce maintenance time spent repairing corrosion damage -improve reliability, durability, and service life -make military community aware of extent or problem -report deficiencies with materials and processes associated with corrosion control
Five levels of MOPP
0 - issue IPE accessible in 5 mins. 1 - afloat- JS list, mask, gloves ashore - don PPE, M9 tape 2 - afloat - mask carried, decon supplies stage ashore - additional to level 1 is don protective over- boots. 3 - afloat- GQ, install filters, don over-boots ashore - fill canteens, activate decon status 4 - afloat- don mask, hood, gloves, circle william, countermeasure washdown. ashore - gloves with liners, untie bow in retention cord, loop between legs and secure to web belt.
what is the aeronautical equipment Welding manual number.
01-1a-34
Who was the first naval aviator in space?
05 May 1961 Alan Shepard
What are the significant differences between hangar bays 1, 2, and 3?
1 and 2. Aircraft elevators on the starboard side and hangar bay. 3. aircraft elevators mounted on both the port and starboard side for moving aircraft, large sup. equip., and essential supplies to the flight deck.
Discuss safety precautions and procedures associated with applying and removing external power
1)Circuit breakers and switches are in correct positions 2)Inspect power cables and assembly plugs for damage 3)Power is secured 4)If a mobile power unit is used power UN 14.15 chocked and facing away from aircraft
How much oxygen time is in a HEEDS bottle?
1-3 mins emergency breathing
What are the 4 principles of ORM?
1. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost 2. Accept no unnecessary risk 3. Anticipate and manage risk by planning 4. Make risk decisions at the right level
What are 3 levels of ORM?
1. In depth 2. Deliberate 3. Time Critical
Firefighters primary and secondary duty
1. saving lives 2. extinguishing fires
Explain the procedures for broken/missing tools.
1. stop work alert supervisor 2. notify PC 3. Conduct Search 4. initiate missing tool report/broken tool report
How much oxygen is in the SKU-10?(green apple)
10 mins of oxygen
why is it necessary to static ground the windshield?
100,000 volts may build up during flight and shock you
State the designed capacity of LRU-31A/A and LRU-33 life rafts.
12 and 20 men
Define RADAR mile.
12.36 microsecs to travel one mile from antenna-target-antenna
What date is the Navy's Birthday?
13 October 1775
When was the battle of Guadalcanal?
13-15 November 1942
When was the NAMP established?
1959
when was the NATOPS manual created ?
1961
When and why was the Sailor's Creed developed?
1993 to bring unity across enlisted and Officer
visual identification marking for CNATRA
1st character A-G, no 2nd character
Visual identification marking for COMNAVAIRLANT
1st character A-M, 2nd character A-Z
visual identification marking for COMNAVAIRPAC
1st character N-Z, 2nd Character A-Z
Explain the 3 degrees of burns?
1st degree burn red skin, mild pain 2nd degree burn red skin, blisters, severe pain 3rd degree burn charred skin, nerve damage
What happened in 1948?
1st helo squadron, HV-1. First Carrier landing, navy jet FJ-1 lands on USS Boxer
Define type Work order (NALCOMIS)
2 character code that describe the type of maintenance
What is mode 1 of IFF?
2 digit octal mission code, military only
Define and discuss: TPI
2 person integrity
What is the timeline for a rapid action or interim rapid action change.
2 working days
CPR Qualification
2 years
What is a gun salute?
21 for the POTUS and for rulers of foreign nations recognized by the US. On President's Day, Memorial Day, and Independence Day, a standard 21 gun salute is fired at 1 minute intervals, commencing at 1200. (To honor individuals nations, and holidays)
Describe and define the term British thermal Unit (BTU)
252 calories Amount of heat required to raise temp. of 1 pound of water 10 Fahrenheit
What is a 3rd degree engine repair?
2nd degree excluding high maintenance hours and are of low incidence rate. also includes major engine inspections
When was the battle of Midway?
3-5 June 1942
What is mode 3a of IFF?
4 dig. octal ID code (military and civilian)
Describe the use of standard subject identification codes (SSIC) and state all the primary series.
4 or 5 digit # that stands for the subject of a doc.
What division is Power plants (engines)?
400
024
400 pc
what is moderate weather tie down?
46-60 knots 14 chains are required
State the Meter card form number and its purpose
4790/58.0 used for inducting TMDE for cal or repair
What happened at the battle of Guadalcanal 13-15 November 1942?
5 Sullivan brothers killed, Navy policy concerning family member separations was reinstated.
When towing an aircraft, what speed should you not exceed?
5 mph
What division is Air frames?
500 division
025
500 pc
Describe the composition of 7x7 cable
6 or 7 strands wires each laid around a center strand or 7 wires
how many people does it take to move an aircraft?
6-10
what division is avionics?
600 division
026
600pc
when was the battle of the coral sea?
7-8 May 1942
What division deals with Armament weapons?
700 division
027
700 pc
what are the 3 components of MILSTRIP data? (7001BBSMS)
700I Julian date BB Status SMS location
Birthday of naval aviation
8 May 1911
What division has the aviation life support systems?
800 division
028
800 pc
What happened in 2001?
9/11 Attacks, 2 757 Jets hijacked and crashed into twin towers, operation enduring freedom commences, Taliban regime collapses.
What division deals with support equipment?
900 division
029
900pc
What is Halon 1211?
A colorless, sweet smelling, electrically nonconductive gas that leaves no residue.
Define need to know
A determination made that a recipient needs to gain access to classified information.
Explain the purpose of a fuse
A protective device inspected in-line with a circuit it contains a metal that will melt/break when current is increased beyond a specific value
Define compromise
A security violation of classified information or material to an unauthorized person.
Explain the technical manual identification numbering system (TMINS)
A single numbering system for tech manuals and related tech documents. Procured by naval system commands.
970
A/C
Who is the CNO?
ADM Gilday
What type of fire suppression system does shipboard hangars have?
AFFF fire protection installed in the overhead like shore commands.
Who is responsible to ensure all AIRSPEED/CPI projects and supporting documentation is recorded In CPIMS?
AIRSPEED officer
Define AWIS
ALF weapons information system
05a
AMSU
What Rates work in 74C?
AT/AE
What rates make up avionics division? (600)
AT/AE
what is m2?
AWM SE/Hangar
What is M7?
AWT flight/operation
What is the daily production reports? (BMT)
Abbreviated active Detailed active TRR Detailed TD
Explain the purpose of a transfer/acceptance inspection.
Accept: performed at the time a custodian access, an item of SE on a permanent basic and vice versa.
Discuss the precautions observed when handling flammables
Accumulation of vapors, sources of ignition, open flames, electrical equip. cause sparks, use plastic or metal containers, use bottle carriers for transporting glass containers, equip with spark free, avoid equip. with series wounds, and heating flammable liquids with open fire
Describe the use of a suffix JCN in an I-level.
Added to basic JCN to identify sub-assembly or sub-assy repair action (Job Control Number)
Basic purpose of the aviation life support flotation equipment work center.
Adequate space for inspection, test/check and repair of ALSS flotation equipment and associated ALSS components.
Define ATFLIR
Advanced Targeting forward looking infrared
Describe the AESR and state its purpose.
Aeronautical equipment service record. Follows piece of equipment and becomes part of aircraft log when installed/equipped.
State the periodicity with which fresh water wash downs shall be performed and documented on the test facilities and surrounding area
Afloat=Once a week Ashore=Once a month or more if conditions dictate.
413
After burner
Explain the inflation process of aircraft tire and wheel assemblies
After the buildup of the new tire at an FRC or IMA, it should be placed in the safety cage for inflation and valve core removed. Inflate to maximum tire pressure, deflated, valve core installed, then re-inflated and left in care for ten minutes to detect pressure loss.
What are the different types of hydraulic decontamination.
Air bleeding, recirculation cleaning, purifying, flushin and purging
What is ASPA?
Aircraft Service Period Adjustment
Define AAS.
Aircraft armament systems
What is the largest shipboard hangar? How Many aircraft can it hold?
Aircraft carrier bays, 100 feet wide and 68.5 ' long with 25' of overhead clearance. it can also fit more than 60 aircraft.
Which aircraft has the LPU-36/P installed?
Aircraft with ejection seats
What happened 05 May 1961?
Alan B Shepard, 1st american in space
Describe DMAIC and state its purpose.
Another prime method for green belts. used when root cause of problem is unknown and a broader range or LSS tools are needed.
How are heat lamps utilized during composite repairs.
Applies heat using heat blankets ovens heat lamps
What is FPCON Delta?
Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent.
What is FPCON Charlie?
Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely.
What is FPCON Alpha?
Applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable.
What safety precautions must be used when servicing aircraft tires?
Approach tires from fore and aft when inflating stand off to the side. Deflate when removing from the aircraft.
How long does it take to close a hangar bay door to prevent the spread of fire?
Approximately 18 seconds (doubt)
what is AFFF?
Aqueous Film Forming Foam
2 Preferred methods of cleaning wheel bearing assemblies?
Aqueous parts washer or solvent based cleaning.
Describe the general characteristics of an NB-8 parachute assembly.
Back-type parachute 28 feet diameter,flat, multicolored, nylon canopy with 28 gores.
62c/d
Battery
what happened in the Coral Sea 7-8 May 1942?
Battle where ships never saw each other. Only AIR TO AIR battle. US Ships Lexington and Yorktown
what is the purpose of the TACAN system?
Bearing determining system to determine aircraft position and distance from a TACAN station
What is bcm7?
Beyond authorized repair
Describe potential Hazards while working with AAS.
Biological, chemical, cryogenic, fire, explosion, radiation, and poison
What happened 8 May 1911?
Birthday of Naval Aviation, because first two planes were purchased for USN by Capt Chambers for $5500 each; A-1 Triad
The pillars of the AIR ENCON program are...
A. Developing energy awareness throughout the naval aviation community B. building a culture of innovation and sharing of best practices C. eliminating energy-consuming in efficiencies throughout the organization
Why does a fuse blow?
Breaks if current exceeds rating at which it can handle
What is M1?
Assemble/manufacture
What is the 6th position of a SMR code?
Assigned to support items for specific info to logistics/operating forces.
Define AD (work order)
Assist discrepetancy
Military Sealift Command (MSC)
Atlantic, Pacific, Europe, middle/far East Norfolk Virgina
Where is FRC Westpac?
Atsugi
Explain the objective of the personnel security program
Authorize initial and continued access to classified info and initial and continued assignment to sensitive duties
What is an AUL? Explain
Authorized users list. What hazmat a W/C is allowed to have inside their locker.
412
Aux power
Who wears purple jerseys?
Aviation fuel crew
Describe BMT and state the purpose of BMT reports.
Buffer management tool. A workload tracking and analysis tool.
Define engine FOD?
Damage caused by ingestion of objects not organic to the engine
Define Confidential
Damage to national security, color code is blue
Define the acronym DECKPLATE.
Decision knowledge programming for logistics analysis and technical evalutation.
Demonstrate use of the NAT to look for improvement opportunities.
Deckplate
Describe engine system: turbo shaft
Delivers power through a shaft to drive something other than a propeller
Define Restricted area
Designated to spaces that restrict access
CNO (Chief of Naval operations)
Designee of the secretary of the navy. Admiral michael m. Gilday.
State what level command determines the requirement for an AESR?
Determined by T/M/S aircraft PMIC decks and COMNAVAIR-SYSCOM.
Explain DEFCON scale
Determines the posture of the military to prepare for the likelihood of war.
Define voltage
Difference in potential energy between 2 points
Define Navigation systems
Direct, Pilot, and control the course or position of aircraft
What is a bulletin? (TD)
Directs inspection to determine if condition exists.
What do you in the event of a HAZMAT spill?
Discovery notification initiation of action Evaluation containment damage control dispersion of gases/vapors clean up and decontamination disposal cert. for reentry follow up reports
Define DM (work order)
Discrepancy maintenance
Define Airspeed Indicator
Displays Speed
What is the 5th position of a SMR code?
Disposition
Describe the handling of cables
Do not kink cables. Properly unreel and uncoil
State the purposes and information contained in the MSDS.
Documents that contain or potential Health effect on exposure to chemicals for other potentially dangerous substances, and on safe working procedures when handling chemical products
Describe CPIMS and state its purpose.
Don management information system is used to efficiently manage CPI projects
DAPA
Drug and Alcohol Programs Advisor
What is the equipment environment for composite repair assemblies.
Dust collection booth or down draft table with hepa. Filter and proper ventalation
State the periodicity of and requirements for 2M recertification
E5 and above with nec 9503 Meet se-004-PQ5-000 requirements be A 2M CDI
Discuss the instructions used in governing physical security procedures.
EKMS 1B EKMS 1E Secnavinst 5510.30B Secnavinst 5510.36A
Describe actions to be taken if unauthorized destruction occurs
EKMS-IE, CK.9 Pg 9-15(10)
Explain the difference between man-Hours and elapsed maintenance time (EMT)
EMT is actual clock time in hours and 10th's that maintenance was being performed on a job. man hours is time expended by personnel assigned to complete the work.
62a
Electric
Describe the emergency procedures for an electrical shock scenario
Electric shock drill procedures Secure power remove victim from source contact EMS administrate 1st aid/CPR
Define corrosion and discuss the different types
Electrochemical deterioration of a material or its properties due to its chemical reaction with surrounding environment. Tendency for metals to return to their natural state
Define IFF/SIF
Electronic system to auto identity itself as friend or foe
Describe what ESD is and what measures must be followed to prevent damage to ESDS items.
Electrostatic discharge use ESD strap. Keep components in anti-static bag.
Define Growth
Elongation of blade
What is hybrid SMART?
Employing 3 wet (ARS plus 2 external fuel tanks) tankers for mission tanking and an ARS-only tanker for recovery tanking if needed
Explain the naval Ordnance management policy (NOMP)
Encompasses maintenance manufacture, testing, assessment, and inventory of all naval ordinance
Name three requirements of a basic electrical circuit
Energy source Conductor load Controller
radiation
Energy that is radiated or transmitted in the form of rays or waves or particles.
How are engine FOD investigations reported?
Engine FOD incident reported by Naval message 5 working days
What does I level do
Enhance/sustain combat readiness
Fleet master Chief
Enlisted advisor to the fleet commander in chief. James Honea
What happened 20 June 1913?
Ensign Billingsley, flying B-2 near Annapolis MD became first fatality of Naval Aviation; passenger Lt Towers was injured
Explain the objective of the gas turbine engine maintenance program.
Ensure all gas turbine engine test equip. and fuel are properly maintained and scheduled maintenance performed.
What is the role of the command Light amplification by stimulation of emission of radiation Safety officer. (LSO)
Ensure command laser program complies with all applicable reference. Proper training being conducted with LASER operators and maintainers, and oversee the MED surveillance associated with LASER operations.
What is the purpose of the NOMP. (naval ordinance management policy)
Ensures optimum use of resources and the application of a systematically planned management process.
What is the hangar designed to provide?
Environmental protected area to perform maintenance and protection for aircraft.
Define the objective of the AMMRL and the information it provides.
Established by COMNAVAIR system communication to provide managers with necessary info to manage their support equipment.
What are the associated codes for operating target budget? (OPTAR)
Estimated $$$ requirements by operating ship, operating target, staff, squadron... To perform task/assigned functions. OFC-01 flight ops fund OFC.50 Aviation fleet maintenance
what happened 14 November 1910
Eugene Ely performed the first take-off from a ship; Curtiss plane from USS BIRMINGHAM (CL 2)
Define top secret
Exceptionally grave damage, Orange
What is the estimated cost for a false activation of the fire suppression system? due to?
Excess of 80,000. Damage to aircraft, cost to recharge system, AFFF removal, run off retention, associated manpower expenses
Define Management
Executive direction and control of work
Define EXREP
Expeditious Repair
What are the three hazards associated with Jet fuel?
Explosion, vapor inhalation, and toxic contact with skin, eyes, or swallowing.
What is the hazards of HERO? (hazards of electromagnetic ordinance)
Explosions
What is EHF radio frequency spectrum band?
Extremely high 300 giga hertz -3 kilo hertz 1 milimeter-0.1 milimeter
What is ELF radio frequency spectrum band?
Extremely low 3-30 Hertz 105-104 km
Describe the periodicity of using solvents during composite repair evolution's.
F-18 Titanium foil patch repair requires solvent wiping to prepare the bonding surface.
What aircraft uses the fuel JP-8?
F-34 flame spread 100 ft/min flash point is 100 degrees Fahrenheit
What aircraft uses the fuel JP-4?
F-40 flame spread rate 700-800 degrees Fahrenheit
What was the first jet powered naval aircraft?
FH-1 Phantom 21 July 1946
Define FO (work order)
Facilitate other maintenance
Discuss the firing cycle of the M61A1 Gun System
Feeding Chambering Locking firing unlocking extracting ejecting
Name the two classes into which metal is divided.
Ferrous and non-ferrous
What is DD form 200?
Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss
Describe the Theory of Constraints (TOC) methodology.
Finding a weak point in a process
State the elements that make up a date time group. (DTG)
First part is 6 digits second part is single letter zone suffix/month/year
Define VR
Fixed wing; Transport
Define VAQ
Fixed wing; exploit enemy electronics
What are the 6 categories of HAZMAT?
Flammable or combustible materials Aerosol containers Toxic materials Corrosive materials Oxidizing materials Compressed gases
What is RAMEC?
Fleets self help. allows minor engineering changes/processed expep/incorporated promptly
Explain the purpose of ailerons and to what component they are attached
Flight control. surfaces
PPE required to be on the flight deck.
Flight deck boots, cranial, eye googles, and leather gloves.
The required flight deck PPE?
Flight deck steel boots, protective jerseys, cranial, protective eye googles, leather gloves
Discuss special considerations pertaining to IMA tire and wheel work spaces.
Floors/workbenches in buildup/breakdown are as covered in half an inch rubber matting, 3m cushion matting, or equivelent
what is Newton's Third Law?
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
Define FOUO
For official use only
What is the purpose of the ALSS Rotatable Pool?
For spare ALSS assemblies
Define Thrust (flight)
Force developed by the engine, and it acts in the forward direction. Thrust is greater than effects of drag in order for flight to begin or sustain.
List the types of technical directives.
Form change intern change bulletin Ramac
State the qualification requirements to be a non-Destructive Inspection (NDI)
Formal training OJT Certification requirements physical requirements special task cert and recurring training
What are the 6 core capabilities?
Forward Presence, Deterrence, Sea Control, Power Projection, Maritime Security, Humanitarian Assistance/Disaster Relief
Define FLIR
Forward looking infrared
what does the flight operations fund do? (OFC-1)
Fuel, office supplies, publications, etc.
What is d1?
Full depot
Define maintenance rehearsal
Function of retaining material in or restoring it to a serviceable condition
What does FCF stand for?
Functional Check Flight
What is DEFCON 2?
Further increase in force readiness, but less than maximum
6th fleet and AOR
Gaeta Italy. Mediterranean sea, Black sea.
What are the different types of cranes?
Gantry Boom portal tower container floating hammerhead stiff leg crawler
What does GPS stand for?
Global Positioning System
Describe safety hazards while working on parachute assemblies.
HANDLING, SHIPPING, AND STORING OF CARTRIDGE ACTUATED DEVICES
What are the courtesies rendered during colors?
Hand salute facing the music/Nearest Ensign
Explain the duties of the material control officer? (MCO)
Handles finances, material requisition etc.
Define Hazmat
Hazardous Materials. Any material that, because of its quantity, contraction, physical or chemical, characteristics may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment
Define HAZWASTE
Hazardous waste- discarded hazmat
Define HT
Helicopter Training
define HSC
Helicopter sea combat
Which aircraft carries the LPU-32/P life preserver assembly?
Helicopters and transport type aircraft.
What is HF radio frequency spectrum band?
High 3-30 Mega hertz 100-10 meters
Describe when a flexible hose is used in place of a hard line.
High movement areas
What is the purpose of Composite repair assemblies.
Higher extension stiffness of the fibers
Describe 2G flat plate welding
Horizontal welding postion
52a
Hydraulic
State the types of tube benders used in hydraulics work centers and the differences between them.
Hydraulic tube bendea (a/e27m-9, A/w27m-1) V22 hydraulic tube bender (able to bend titanium lines)
Describe the importance of the NDI eddy current inspection and what components of the tire and wheel assembly are eddy current inspected.
ID's cracks in bead seat area, packing grovets as well as lightening, inflation valve, bolt and screw holes without paint removed.
Define Work Center (NALCOMIS)
ID's the Work center responsible
what are the elements of a successful FOD program?
ID's, corrects, and eliminates casual factors.
Discuss icing and its effects on the performance of naval aircraft
Ice on facraft (down) lift and (up) weight, drag, and stalling speed
Define IFF.
Identification friend or foe. Identification system designates for command and control.
Describe the criteria for a corrosion inspection of control cables
If corroded, relieve tension and carefully force cable open by reverse twisting and inspect interior, interior corrosion means replace cable. If none, remove loose external rust and corrosion with course rag or wire brush. Apply grade y cpc sparingly
What is Urgent action? (TD)
Immediate action, Ground aircraft, Do not launch
What are the technical directive categories?
Immediate actions Urgent action routine action record purpose
What is C2 BA impact ratings?
Impact on repair capability
Why was NATOPS established? Explain
Improve combat readiness and prevent naval mishaps.
what is IW?
In work
Define Pitot-Static
Includes instruments that operate the principles of the baro-meter
What is DEFCON 3?
Increase in force readiness above normal readiness
Describe Bernoulli's principle as it applies to engines
Increase in speed of fluid occurs simultaneously with a decrease in pressure or a decrease in the fluids potential energy.
What is FPCON Bravo?
Increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists
IPE
Individual Protective Equipment
Describe the actions required for oil spills outside the US contiguous zones?
Initiate immediate action to mitigate effects of spill, notify the predesignated fleet navy on scene coordinator, NOSC, by naval message. The fleet NOSC shall implement the applicable fleet NOSC oil and hazardous substance spill response plan.
Identify the five major parts of an engine.
Inlet, compressor, combustor, turbine, and exhaust
What are the responsibilities of the FRC facilities according to engine FOD investigation?
Inspect for FOD, submit intial engine FOD incident reports or supplement reports.
What happened 22 October 1917
Inspector School beginnings, eventually becoming modern QARs. QA was born
What is BCM2?
Lack of equip
What is x2?
Lack of equip
What is X6?
Lack of tech data
What is X3?
Lack of tech skills
what is a type 3 Hangar?
Land based patrol and large transport aircraft. 165' deep and 165' wide
List the three categories and characteristics of batteries used in naval aviation
Lead-acid, Nickel-cadium, secondary lithium
What are the 3 primary AIRSPEED CPI methods?
Lean Six sigma Theory of constranints
What does Block 1 do on a CASS bench?
Legacy screen
Where is FRCW?
Lemoore
What is level 2 preservation?
Level 1 and some systems drained with pres fluid, statistically dehumidified
What is level 3 preservation?
Level 2 static or dynamic, dification to entire aircraft. (indefinite time)
Explain LED lighting
Light Emitting Diodes, replacements for incandescent and fluorescent lighting fixtures
Define Longitude axis. "roll"
Line running down center of aircraft nose to tail.
Define lateral axis "pitch"
Line running parallel to the wings
Define Ombudsman
Link between command and families
How is the Navy changing its energy culture?
Linking energy consumption to behavior through awareness and accountability at the individual, command, and functional levels
What is buffer status red (BSR) and what conditions must exist for a component to populate on a BSR report?
Lists all inventory record with buffer status red
what happened 25 November 2001?
Longest amphibious aerial assaults in history, marines airlifted from Arabian sea to Kandahar Afghanistan.
What are the axis of the aircraft?
Longitude axis "roll", lateral axis "pitch", and vertical "yaw"
Who is in charge of the NAMP?
CNO
Who signed the Energy Vision Act?
CNO
Responsibilities of the NATOPS advisory group?
CNO, COMNAVAIR FOR, commandant of the marine corps etc.
State who is responsible for the command ordnance qualification certification program.
CO
State by whom the METCAL program manager is designated.
CO OIC MO
Describe who has signature authority for logbooks and records and state their responsibilities.
CO and I level MO (OIC) or if they're designated in writing by CO or MO
Discuss COMSEC and the role of the CMS custodian
CO's primary advisor and COMSEC manager communications security
rule of 9's
Calculations for assessing percentage of body surface burned. head 9% chest 9% abdomen 9% crotch 1% ARMS 4.5 % each legs 9% each
State those qualification which are required to perform basic Physical or Mechanical calibration functions.
Calibration schools NEC 6673 or OJT
PACOM
Camp Smith, Hawaii protect/defend the us and interests
Who is the Vice Commander?
Captain Rodriguez
Who is the chief of staff?
Captain Sanders
What are the 7 base metal groups that a welder can be certified to weld.
Carbon steels stainless steel nickel and nickel base alloys aluminum and aluminum base alloys magnesium base alloys Titanium and titanium base alloys Cobalt base alloys
Discuss general safety procedures when dealing with aircraft tire and wheel assemblies.
Check pressure during daily checks under inflation most frequent tire problem in navy never check/adjust tire pressure while parked on hot catapult tracks. verify tire completely deflated before disassembling tire/wheel assembly
Where is FRC East?
Cherry Point
What are the classes of LASERS. (light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation)
Class 1, 2, 3, 3b, and 4
What does CDI stand for?
Collateral Duty Inspector
What does CDQAR stand for?
Collateral Duty Quality Assurance Representative
NORTHCOM
Colorado Springs, Colorado Homeland, civil support ops.
61a/b
Com/nav
Define Communication Systems
Communication with vehicles
Explain in detail the mail-in re certification procedure of aeronautical welders.
Complete naval welding training school. successful training of initial and torch brazing training Return to shop for OJT documented in welders log.
What is revision?
Complete re issuance with updated info
Describe the use of a plain language address (PLA/PLAD)
Component used to denote the command short title and sometimes geographic location.
What is the equipment and location for composite repair assemblies.
Composite repair kits/Double vacuum debulk/c-clamps/heat lamps
Discuss paint removal methods on aircraft materials (metal, composite, etc.)
Composite-hand sanding or orbital sander metal-medium grade abrasive mats plastic media blast- quick/environmental preferred to chemical paint removers
What is a first degree engine repair?
Compressor rotor replacement/repairs that exceed 2nd, but not to extent of depot
What is the SF 153 Form?
Comsec material accounting report
What is bcm9?
Condemned
Describe the requirements and procedures for conducting page-checks
Conducted to ensure completeness. must be recorded on record of page checks page or on front cover for material with no ROPs page. Page check unsealed Comsec keying material upon receipt, transfer, all account inventories, and prior to destruction
Define Flap
Creates extra lift by lengthening the top section of the wing
61d
Crypto
Define Ohm's law
Current is directly proportional to voltage
What are the hangar protection requirements for the protection of aircraft?
Low level AFFF system with low profile nozzles, closed head water only overhead sprinkler system designed to protect building and cool aircraft, optical detection system to activate AFFF, appropriate drainage systems to limit spill size/ AFFF, draft curtains, to prevent cooling of the sprinkler heads, allows early detection of heat.
Describe the different types of hoses and tubes manufactured at an IMA.
Low pressure synthetic rubber hose Medium pressure PTFE hose
What is the 3rd position of a SMR code?
Lowest level to Remove and replace
What is the 4th position of an SMR code?
Lowest level to perform complete repair
Describe Material control's process for receipt and delivery of parts and material.
MATCON receives material and DD1348 from ASDMDU. Signs DD1348 copy as receipt Enter Date/time material is delivered on DD1348 Determine if ASR/EWR
Who is the MCPON?
MCPON Russel Smith
state the MIL-SPEC of hydraulic fluid used in naval aircraft
MIL-PRF-83202
Describe Material control's process for ordering phase maintenance kits.
MMCO determines maintenance kit requirements MATT CON. advises ASD on kit requirements and quantities
State who is authorized to release aircraft safe for flight.
MO, MMO, MCO
What is the cost analysis report? (BMT)
Mafs that exceeded 50% of repair/BCM factor
Describe the operating and emergency procedures related to open facility radiography.
Maintain safety and emergency operating procedures copy shall be with radiation producing equipment A suitable exit, so someone can leave without decay opening will automatically shut off exposure Have an emergency shut off switch.
Explain the basic functions of the aircraft armament division.
Maintains guns, bombs, torpedoes, rockets and missles
what is MOPP
Management tool that is used to coordinate the use of systems and equipment in chemical or biological environment. (IPE)
Who is the Command master chief? FRCNW
Master chief Krumpton
050
Matcon
Discuss the proper marking of HM containers.
Material name, manufacturer's name and address, nature of the hazard presented by the HM including the target organ potentially affected by the material.
What is Level 1 preservation?
Max 90 days
What is DEFCON 1?
Maximum force readiness (Nuclear war is imminent)
Define warning
May result in Injury/death
4th fleet and AOR
Mayport Florida, operates in Carribean, Cent/South america.
What is MF radio frequency spectrum band?
Medium 300 kilo Hertz - 3 MHZ 1 kilo meters -100 meters
When do we Dip the Ensign?
Merchants bring flag half mast, Navy half to full, merchant raises flag
Explain the basic processes of welding utilized at an IMA.
Metal joining process where metals are heated to suitable temps. with or without use of filler metal.
SOUTHCOM
Miami, Florida conduct ops, promote sec cooperation to achieve US strategy obj.
Role of VP
Mike Pence second in command
MCS is what ship
Mine counter measures
414
Mod Repair
What are some of the responsibilities of maintenance/production control?
Monitor current aircraft/equip status, maintain cognizance JF incomplete maintenance, set W/C priorities, ensure aircrew/pilots initiates a Work Order for each discrepancy, work order/MAF intiation
What is the MMP?
Monthly Maintenance Plan
Define slats
Movable control surfaces attached to the leading edge of the wing. when open or extended forward, a slot is created between the slat and the wing leading edge. At low speed, this improves the lateral control handling characteristics. Allowing control to speeds below normal landing speed.
What are the taxiways? (flight deck)
Moving area for aircraft between parking aprons, runways and airfield services.
Define Linear flight
Moving in a line
Who is the deputy commander?
Mr. Ahmad
Explain the proper destruction procedures for classified material
Must be completely destroyed methods. Burning, crosscut shredding, wet pulping, mutilation
Explain the special precautions taken with oxygen tube assemblies after fabrication and testing.
Must be sterile Protection at end of fittings
State in which publication the maintenance stands can be found.
NA 19-1-553
Explain the basic purpose of the airspeed program?
NAE process to ope-rationalize cost. SE readiness. An integrated culture of CPI with the goal of accomplishing NAE mission with at reduced resource cost.
What is the criteria that must be met to determine if formal operator training and licensing for SE is required.
NAMP 10.16.2.2
60a
NCI
530
NDI (non destructive inspection)
Describe the types of air frame technical directives and how they relate to NDI.
NDI work packages shall only be utilized for inspection if directed by an aircraft. Or component specific TD. Many PUBS will give exact NDI methods to be performed at intermediate or depot level facilities
Describe NAT and state the purpose of NAT reports.
NIIN analysis tool. Provides maintenance managers with enterprise view of all NIINS processed at IMA's. Various reports to compare RFI, BCM, ICRL with other IMA's.
What does OOMA track?
NMCS/PMCS status, Flyable discrepancies, Non-aircraft related discrepancies, ALSS status, SE status, Mission Mounted Equipment (MME) status
State which DECKPLATE technical directive report provides a listing of technical directives showing support equipment type equipment code (TEC) applicability.
Nat 02
State which DECKPLATE technical directive report provides a listing of technical directives with respect to their applicability to aircraft/engine type/model/series.
Navair 00-500c
Who can provide training for new types of models of SE?
Navair and Natec engineers
What is NATOPS?
Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization
What does NALCOMIS stand for?
Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System
What does NAMP stand for?
Naval Aviation Maintenance Program
List some resources to assist you in being the next Aviation Energy Warrior
Naval energy, energy road map, energy vision, airencon website, green fleet web
List the medical requirements involved in obtaining the NDI qualification and the re qualifier medical requirement's periodicity.
Near vision requirements color perception requirements
What happened 20-21 July 1969?
Neil Armstrong, 1st on moon
Describe when not to use solvents to remove sanding residue
Never, solvent evaporates before surface can be wiped
Where is FRC mid-Atlantic?
Oceana
What month is national energy action month?
October
When and why was the Navy core values developed?
October 13 1775 Early days of naval service they are our bedrock principles on which the navy was built on.
Describe the purpose of composite materials.
Offer improved performance exceptional strength at reduced weight durability and design flexibility
Define navy flag
Official flag of the USN
Define oily waste
Oil is mixed with water or other fludis to the point where its no longer useful. Treatment must be done. oil reclamation.
Define waste oil
Oil that can no longer be used and is now meant to be disposed of
Define OBOGS
Onboard O2 generating system.
What were the conditions that led to the formation of the USN?
Only trade with England, More and more taxation without representation, 2nd continental congress approved a formation of the continental navy.
Discuss the minimum personnel required to conduct a weight handling evolution?
Operator Director
What is OOMA?
Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity
State the sources and effects of hydraulic contamination.
Organic, metallic solids, non metallic (inorganic) solids, foreeign fluids, air, water. Can be contaminated by maintenance malpractices
What are the 3 levels of Maintenance?
Organizational, intermediate, and depot
Discuss the dual chain of command (Administrative/Operational) for operating forces
Organized in permanent fashion in admin chain of command. task oriented can be structured in anyway to meet operational requirements.
Describe 4G flat plate welding
Overhead welding position
020?
PC
950
PM
Describe the elements of a parachute loft.
Packing tables 36 inches high by 36inch wide and long enough for longest parachute. Equipped to perform maintenance on parachutes
What are the peculiar items needed for shore based hangars?
Painted red fire lane adjacent bulkhead always clear, CO2 fire extinguishers bulkhead above deck, electrical system with cords for providing power to aircraft, operating hangar door for securing access/elements, Grounds that provide a 100 hm or less point to ground and discharge stray voltage are located on a pattern or grid through hangar deck.
what does the AFM fund used for?
Paints, imrl repair, oil, replacements for components.
Describe AFM (avaition fleet maintenance) Funds and the transactions for which they are used.
Paints, rags, etc. /consumables/PEB/allowance list items/SE fuels/test bench consumables/ consumable hand tools/ safety flight/deck shoes/clothing/aircraft decals/IMRL repair
What are the three major components of an A/P22P-20 Emergency egress backpack assembly?
Parachute assembly survival kit assembly emergency oxygen system assembly
What are threshold markings in regards to the flight deck?
Parallel stripes on the ends of runways; 12 ft wide by 150 ft long, designate the landing area
What is C3?
Partial
Define crack
Partial fracture
What is Level 4 preservation?
Partial pres of aircraft undergoing depot repair.
State the different methods of contamination analysis in regards to hose and tube assemblies
Patch test Portable oil diagnostic system
Describe the direction of current flow
Path or least resistance from negative to positive
Explain the primary purposes of an I-level power plants division (400).
Perform 1st, 2nd, and 3rd degree maintenance on gas, turbine engines 10500-19000 LBF and related dynamic components
Explain the basic purpose of the test cell regardless of type engine to be tested.
Perform operational test or functional checks on reworked repaired or overhauled gas turbine engines.
What is PMI?
Periodic Maintenance Interval
What physical qualifications shall be met before working with weight handling equipment? (WHE)
Physical exam required within 6 months of application. Vision 20/30 and 20/50 at minimum not color blind adequate hearing
Who wear brown jerseys?
Plane captains
Describe the only way to remove paint from composite laminate/structures?
Plastic media blasting
Define PODS
Portable oil diagnostic systems
what is the hazard of hot brakes?
Possible wheel explosion
Describe Huntron and state its purpose.
Power off circuit board test uses analog signature. analysis to detect and isolate faulty components.
Preferred method of bead breaking on SE tire and wheel assemblies?
Power operated Demounter/Mounter (NA 17-1-129 WP 02)
Define and discuss: PDS
Practices dangerous to security, have potential to jeopardize security of comsec
What are the maintenance requirements for single hoist ordinance loading system? (SHOLS)
Pre-operations periodic unscheduled preventative
Discuss the safety parameters utilized during the inflation of an aircraft tire.
Pre-ops attach supply line from pressure source to inlet of inflator and adjust inlet pressure to to 150% Desired PSI or 600 PSI Max. Leave Slack in hose If leakage or erractic pressure equipment malfunction stop
Describe the various methods and tools that are used to secure material for riveting
Prepare sheets to be joined, secure sheets, in position with temp. Skin fasteners. Upset shank against bucking bar. Drive. Rivets with handgun, rivets squeezer, or pneumatic rivet gun
What is rapid action change?
Prepared and issued in response to safety, unsafe to fly aircraft. Grounding, degrade mission capability significant damage.
SAPR
Prevent and respond to sexual assault
What are the three objectives of first aid?
Prevent further injury, infection, and loss of life
Goal of hearing conservation program and when personnel are required to be enrolled.
Prevent occupational hearing loss. 1. noise measure analysis 2. engineering control - reduction of noise 3. hearing protective devices - ppe 4. audiometer- medical 5. education
Discuss the Fuel Surveillance Program
Prevents contaminated fuel from entering the aircraft. QA controls and monitors it.
What is a Form Change? (TD)
Primary NAVAIR doc to implement config change.
What is a type 1 hangar?
Primary designed for carrier aircraft, also meets requirements for rotary wings and smaller aircraft. O1 and O2 level spaces in this type of hangar are for a typical strike fisher squadron, two carrier airborne early warning squadron, or a helo anti submarine squadron. hangar is 235' wide and 35' deep
Purpose of a SKU-10/A.
Primary structure that serves a seat for aircrew Man.
discuss the different types of coatings used on Naval Aircraft and special qualifications, medical requirements, and PPE to apply them.
Primer/Top coat combo Respirator qualified Medically Qualed Respirator
ID the precautions that must be observed when handling graphite or carbon/epoxy composite materials
Principal health hazard is irritation of the skin caused by fiber particles
Force master chief
Principle enlisted advisor to force Groups. Kaleth Wright
explain the safety guidelines for the airfield/flight line and the flight deck.
Prior training, FOD free, qualifications, paying attention to rotor arcs/propellers, and jet blasts
List the two types of mine countermeasures.
Proactive (offensive) Enabling (defensive)
define shall
Procedure is mandatory
define may
Procedure is optional
define should
Procedure is recommended
Define processor.
Processing by a computer of data involving electronic communication.
What is BA?
Processing for release
Describe engine system: turbojet
Projects a column of air to the rear at extreme velocity which propels in opposite direction.
430
Prop
What is a intern change? (TD)
Proposed changes and immediate dissemination after change.
Define authentication
Protect against false transmissions
Explain the purpose of a circuit breaker
Protective device that opens a circuit when the current exceeds a predetermined value
Describe the duties of maintenance administration?
Provide administrative services for maintenance department
Basic purpose of liquid oxygen converter assemblies?
Provide aircrew with diluted or 100 % oxygen for breathing. stores and converts liquid oxygen to gas oxygen at safe temp. and pressure
Responsibility of material control.
Provide material support.
what is a level 2 hangar?
Provided for US marine core aviation. designed to accommodate ch-53 Helo's, V-22, and H-53 aircraft. 119 ft deep 325' wide
what is mode 2 of IFF?
Provides 4 digit unit code, military only. Set on ground for fighters, can be changed in flight by transport aircraft
Purpose of Advanced Targeting forward looking infrared? (ATFLIR)
Provides real-time, passive, thermal and visible imagery during day and night ops.
What does NALCOMIS do?
Provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes by allowing users to enter information
How do you activate the Emergency oxygen system?
Pull handle quick disconnect lanyard
What is FAQ in reference to BMT?
Pull reports from NALCOMIS and a supply to create reports that provide focus on what work has priority for repair or replenishment.
what is Mode 4 of IFF?
Pulse reply, delay based on Encrypted challenge (military only)
What is PKP
Purple K powder / Potassium Bicarbonate Breaks combustion chain
040
QA
State which division maintains the central technical publications library.
QA
what is J?
QTY being changed to reflect you
duties of the QAO
Quality Assurance Officer
Who is the fleet readiness center Patuxent river, MD commander?
RADML Zarkowski
Discuss storage and shipping for aircraft tires.
RFI shipped 50% inflated fod free store inside cool room and stacked horizontally single high.
Define RADAR
Radio Detection and Ranging
Define RADAR
Radio Device to detect objects at distances you can see
Describe RIE and state its purpose.
Rapid improvement event. Primary method a green belt will drive and execute actual change in an organization
Define Rate-of-climb
Rate of Climbing or Descending
discuss contents of SORM
Reassure regulations and guidance governing the conduct of us navy members and interesting operations
Define receiver
Receives radio waves and converts information into a usable form.
Define Union Jack
Rectangular blue portion of the U.S. national flag containing the stars. This portion is also called the Union Jack.
What is a four line release Lanyard? (parachutes)
Reduces oscillation during descent, provides method to maneuver parachute to less hazardous landing site.
Describe the Six Sigma methodology
Reducing variation (statistics)
Describe the process of troubleshooting and repairing an avionics component on a CASS bench.
Refer to MPTSI (Master program test set index) for all required SE. Connect corresponding ID to the CASS station, connect component to ID. load test program form OTPS disk and run program Install UUT run OTPS Follow prompts faults: remove and replace components Retest UUT until you have 2 clean runs.
What is RCM?
Reliability Centered Maintenance
Identify the components of a tire inflator kit assembly.
Remote control roller 2 gauging element Hose assembly Case
What is a 2nd degree engine repair?
Remove and replace of turbine rotors and combustion replacement of components gearboxes or accessories also minor repairs to compressor section.
Discuss preventive maintenance and cleaning.
Remove electrolyte and apply protective coating
State the purpose of a survey and the applicable form. (DD200)
Remove from records certain material that was lost, damaged, or destroyed
What is mine warfare?
The use of mines and mine countermeasures to control or deny the use of sea or harbor areas through the laying of minefields and countering enemy mine warfare through the destruction or neutralization of hostile minefields.
what is the safety hazards of the propellers?
They'll cut you
Discuss applicable support equipment and special tools required for the overhaul of tire and wheel assemblies.
Tire inflation assembly kit/remote inflation assembly/ dual check stem gauge/aircraft tire, inflator monitor.
Objective of the NAMP
To achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards
purpose of NDI
To detect flaws, measure geometric characteristics, determine material structured composition of it may characterize physical, electrical, or thermal properties without causing any changes
What is the purpose of an engine FOD investigation?
To determine changes to aircraft/equipment configure or maintenance procedures are required
State the purpose of a change entry certification record (CECR)
To ensure updates to manuals have been incorporated
State the system administrator/analyst responsibilities.
To monitor, and apply the maintenance data system (MDS) of configure management within activity. Provide management with data to make qualitative decisions with aircraft.
What is the concept of QA?
To prevent the occurrence of defects
What is the purpose the MMP
To provide scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload
state the purpose of the PEB.
To shorten issue and accounting procedure for recurring issues of maintenance related materials.
Purpose of a deflated tire tag?
To show tire is deflated and valve core is removed.
Basic purposes of CASS
To use test program sets (TP's) To auto test weapon systems WRA's and SRA's assigned to CASS
Define Vertical axis "yaw"
Top to bottom
What does the E-CASS do on a CASS bench?
Touch screen interface Dual CPU additional diagnostic screen Communication High power digital test set
901
Training license
Functions of the URT-140 survival radio?
Transmits distress info. at 3 internationally recognized SAR frequencies. Transmits distress signals at 121.5 and 243 mega hertz. Helps find lost pilots.
How does an electronic counter measure works? (ECM)
Tricks/Deceives RADAR sonar or other detection systems or other detection systems like laser or infrared. Deny target, info to an enemy
Name the types of engines that FRCs repair.
Turbo prop, turbo jet, turbo shaft, and turbo fan
Define and explain the relevance of TPI
Two Person Integrity-Keeps all accountable, each person has a backup to make sure information is accounted for
What are the 3 types of Hangars?
Type 1, type 2, and type 3
What is the oldest US navy commissioned vessel?
USS Constitution "Old Ironsides"
what happened in 1994?
USS Eisenhower 1st combat ship W/ permanently assigned women.
What is the name of the first aircraft carrier?
USS Langley (20 March 1922)
What is UHF radio frequency spectrum band?
Ultra High 300 Mega hertz -3 giga Hertz 1 meter-10 centimetres
Describe the ultrasonic particle NDI method.
Ultrasonic equipment performs functions of generating, receiving, and displaying pulses of electrical energy, which have been converted to and from pulses of ultrasonic energy by a transducer attached to an instrument.
What is the form SF 710?
Unclassified label
Describe how and why blueprints are used
Universal language. convey all necessary info to persons whos making or assembling object. schematics, pictorial drawings, block diagram, orthographic drawings
Explain the responsibilities of a logbook clerk.
Update databases with changes and transfer custody to receiving command repair cycle. Ensure TD kits is ordered.
What does the Block 3 on a CASS bench do?
Upgraded CPU's from block 2
What does the Block 2 on a CASS bench do?
Upgraded screens, CPU
State the purpose and procedures for use of the align-a-drill.
Used to reduce exit side splintering of composite laminates when drilling blind holes. Also controls feed rate.
Describe the X-ray NDI method.
Used to show internal/external structural details used on structures inaccessible or unsuitable for other NDI technique
What is routine action? (TD)
Used when conditions exist which embody risk calculated to be accepted.
State the purpose of a standard Naval letter.
Used when writing to a higher authority on a personal matter affecting the command
Describe the use of a letterhead memorandum.
Used within activity/provides more
Explain the procedures for identifying/reporting differences between reportable and nonreportable practices dangerous to security
Reportable: Nonreportable: Documented at unit level and reported to CO level but not outside of command
What does the QA Naval aviation maintenance reporting program do?
Reporting substandard work/improper procedures, and deficiencies in pubs.
What is the purpose of Production Control?
Requisitioning procedures are standardized and properly used.. Positive control of all accountable material Max use of personnel and materials Supply response to material demands is optimum.
what does forward looking infrared do? (Forward looking infrared)
Uses thermal imaging to deliver precision guided ordinance and gather intel to maintain battle superiority.
What is Pure SMART?
Using only a single centerline aerial refueling store (ARS)
What is the PPE used for composite repair.
Respiratory protection leather gloves goggles Long sleeves, loose fitting coveralls taped closed at wrist.
Define the role of the command radiation safety Officer (RSO).
Responsible for initiation, supervision, and execution of the installation radiation protection program. Performs annual comprehensive assessment of radiation safety program and operational procedures. Provides "as low as reasonably achievable (Alara) training.
Role of the secretary of the navy
Responsible for organization, admin, operation efficiency. Kenneth BraithWaite
Explain the duties of the maintenance/Material control officer? (MMCO)
Responsible for overall production and material support of the department, preparing and publishing MMP. Moniters department workload. Maintains Liaison with supporting activities and the supply department to ensures workload and requirements are met.
The 2 types of maintenance described in the NAMP?
Rework, and upkeep
The cyclic stick controls what axis?
Roll/pitch- tilts the angle of the rotor blades forward aft, or sideways giving the helicopter its directional motion by changing the direction of the lift.
What is hybrid SMART plus?
Utilizing A S wet mission tanker and an ARS only or 3 wet recovery tanker
Who is the naval air systems commander? (NAVAIR)
VADM Grosklags
Who is the Commander of naval air forces? (CNAF)
VADM Shoemaker
What does VOR stand for?
VHF Omnidirectional Radio Range
Where do you find specific info pertaining to a HAZMAT?
SDS
Describe TD code 63.
SE bulletin
Describe TD code 62
SE change
Describe support equipment history records and where they are maintained.
SE custody and maintenance history card.
What is the purpose of a Broad arrow?
SE is down or IMA lost apability
Purpose of the OPNAV 4790/52.
SE pre-op record
Purpose of the OPNAV 4790/64
SE transcation report used to record transfer, reciept and SE reported to the AMMRL program
69B/C/H
SOLDER, cables, huntron
Who wears white jerseys?
Safety department, Air Transport Officer, Landing Signal Officer, Squadron Plane Inspectors (troubleshooters), and medical
3rd Fleet and AOR (Area of Responsibility)
San Diego Operates in eastern Pacific
Where is FRCSW?
San diego
TRANSCOM
Scott AFB, Illinois National Security
How do you paint a composite repair assemble?
Scuff sand Remove dry residue with clean damp cheese cloth then wipe down again with inner solvent primer coat top coat
What is OPNAV 4790/51 form?
Se custody and maintenance record
List the materials used in repacking hydraulic components.
Seals , packing gasket, backup o-ring
What is the form SF 702?
Security Container Checksheet
What is the SF 700 form?
Security Container Information
Describe how Radio Detection and Ranging works. (RADAR)
Sends out pulses of high frequency electromagnetic waves that are reflected off the object back to the source.
explain the duties of the maintenance master chief petty officers.
Senior enlisted advisor for the maintenance department reports to the MO and advises the CO in all matters affecting OPS, aircraft maint. , and department personnel. Directs maintenance and personnel.
Duties of the MCPON?
Senior enlisted rep of the Navy, Advisor to the CNO
explain the THREATON scale
Series of measures designed to increase the level of a units defense against terrorist attacks. defense for US homeland and assets.
Describe the due in from maintenance (DIFM) report and state its purpose.
Validate components in repair cycle, monitor in job status explore cann and transpose options, monitor supply status. For AWP requirements, monitor repair and return assets, both income and outgoing.
Describe VSA and state its purpose?
Value stream analysis. Provides overview of processes and is used to flush out improvement opportunities
Describe the process for receiving non-RFI parts and material from material control.
Verify EHR/SCR or applicable cards/records Check for Logsets
What happened 20 March 1922?
The Jupiter, former collier, re-commissioned as Navy's first carrier, USS LANGLEY
State the mission of Naval Logistics
The ability to move and sustain forces long distances from US is critical to military strategy.
Define the unique flight term: AOA
The angle at which the airfoil or fuse lag meets flow or air.
What does optimized IMA provide?
The capability to manage maintenance any supply functions and processes at the I-Level by allowing systems users to enter, collect, process, store, review, and report information required by maintenance activity.
What is radiological warfare?
The deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce widespread injury and death of all life.
Define classification
The determination that official information requires, in the interest of national security, a specific degree of protection against unauthorized disclosure, coupled with a designation signifying that such a determination has been made
State the program which establishes procedures for training and designating engine test facility operators and qualifiers
The gas turbine engine engine test system (GTETS) and global test facility (GTF) operator training and certification program
Define Ensign
The national flag; the lowest grade of commissionedThe civil ensign is the national flag flown by civil ships (merchant ships and others)officers
Define frequency
The number of complete waves that pass a given point in a certain amount of time
Define and discuss: Access
The opportunity and capability to obtain knowledge of Comsec material, or to use, copy, remove, or tamper with
Define resistance
The opposition of current flow.
Define velocity
The quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction
Define speed
The rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time
Describe 3G flat plate welding
Vertical welding postion
What is VLF radio frequency spectrum band?
Very low 3-30 kilo Hertz 100-10kM
Discuss inspection, cleaning, and lubrication of bearing assemblies.
Visual inspection replace all excessively worn, dented, scored, pitted, and heat discolored bearing cups. Some will have a light surface corrosion deposit which can be removed by light polish After polishing clean bearing cup and wheel bore. reinspect.
What does a Multimeter measure?
Voltage, current, resistance, or continuity
Who is responsible for the utilization of the 5S checklist?
W/C supervisor
Define WRA
Weapons replacement assembly
51c
Welding
Describe 1G. Flat plate welding
Welding Test position designation for linear groove weld applied to joint in which weld is made in flat welding position.
explain the procedures outlines in NATOPS for engine start, operation, and shutdown.
Wheels checked, brake set, intake/surrounding area checked for FOD.
What is Bernoulli's principle?
When a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the constriction is increased and its pressure decreased.
What is the purpose of a Broad arrow addendum?
When additional problems directly related to original failure are detected. (When new parts are needed)
When is Tm code (type maintenance) 1 used?
When compressor rotor replacement or disassembly to a degree that the compressor rotor assembly is removed.
explain how the 20MM aircraft rounds are actuated.
When power is applied to the firing contact assembly and the gun drive simultaneously contact cam in firing contact assembly depresses firing pin cam in breech bolt. firing pin contacts primer. Contact cam contacts firing cam sends firing voltage
Define auto rotation
When the helicopter reaches a certain altitude it converts inertial energy to lift
Where is FRCNW?
Whidbey
Describe the purpose of the meter card pink, white, and buff copies.
White- Forward to MARCC Buffer- retain in lab. pink- work center receipt
Define the screening and induction time limits for non-RFI engines.
Within 10 working days of receipt
What is a WUC?
Work Unit Code
Define WUC (NALCOMIS)
Work Unit Code,A # or alpha-numeric code that ID's the system or sub-system of the Malfunction
What is a format 350 report?
Work center
What info can you find on the issue and receipt VIDS board? (Visual information display)
Work center and equipment SE quantity local repair cycle asset Priority AWM In work completed
Define Work Hours (NALCOMIS)
Workers name, tools, and QA/CDI that inspected
the tail rotor controls what axis
Yaw, vertical- counteracts torque of the main rotor by increasing or decreasing the amount of horizontal thrust the tail rotor procedures this movement around the vertical axis
7th fleet and AOR
Yokosuka, Japan. western Pacific, Indian ocean.
Define Magnetic (standby) compass
a direct reading magnetic compass
What are the goals of the energy vision act?
a) Value energy as a strategic resource b) Understand how energy security is vital c) Remain resilient to any future energy challenge
52b
brake
Purpose of an oxygen converter assembly?
breathable O2
Describe the preferred method of bucking solid rivets
bucking bars, rivets drainsets, rivet sets
What is Physical buffer reports? (BMT)
buffer red detailed, so retrograde TRR
Describe the two classifications of rivet head shapes
button head and counter sunk
Explain the concept of a modular engine.
allows I-level to replace Major components with basic hand tools. Increase aircraft availability, decreases downtime
64f
alq-99
740
amcm
List the four major causes of avionics corrosion
anode has tendency to corrode dissimilar conductive material (cathode) Electrolyte connecting anode and cathode Electrical contact between anode and cathode
Define what qualifies a consumable for inclusion in the PEB.
approved items under 150 dollars or CO approved 150 dollars plus
What is Mode C of IFF?
are used to help air traffic controllers to identify the aircraft and to maintain separation.
71a
arm pool
71c
arm repairs
what does the move director do when moving an aircraft?
assembles move crew
what does the QA audit program do?
assessment of program effectiveness
What is record purpose? (TD)
assigned to formally TD's is sued to document Config changes that have been incorporated before TD is incorporated.
Duties of a CACO when the status of a service member is "deceased" are?
assist families, ensure they get their full benefits
Explain the duties of the assistant maintenance officer? (AMO)
assistant to MO, coordinates TAD, inspects spaces, acting administrative officer, liaisons to OPS department, manages the SE training and licensing program
what does the QA program maintenance department division safety do?
assistin coordination of total safety effort
460
aux fuel system
Define AVDLR
aviation depot level repairable program
Define ALSS
aviation life support systems
Define AMSU
aviation maintenance screening unit
What is M3?
awaiting backlog
What is M4?
awaiting offshift
What is M1?
awm depot
what is m6?
awt AMID
What is M5?
awt other
what are the different types of calibration labels?
calibrated special calibration rejected no cal required inactive
what is the safety hazard of the intakes?
can suck in debris
What is CANCL?
canceled
Define CM (work order)
cannabilized maintenance
415
canning
What are the five major parts of a standard parachute.
canopy assembly container assembly harness assembly riser/lift web assembly suspension lines
CV/CVN is what ship?
carrier. air power projection (planes)
63d/e
cass
65b/c
cass
What are all the programs by QA.
central technical publications, maintenance department/division safety, audit program, misuse/abuse, aircraft confined space program, and naval aviation maintenance reporting program.
What is motion?
change in position or place
how do you extinguish each type of fire
class A water Class B AFFF, Halon, purple K, CO2 Class C CO2, PKP, Halon Class D jettison/H20
four classes of fire
class A wood, cloth, paper etc. class B flammable liquid class C electrical fire Class D combustible metals
Define general flight
combo of both linear and angular
Describe the use of a naval message
communication tool throughout various naval commands using MTF editor.
Explain the basic purposes of an IMA pertaining to aircraft composite repair
composite materials offer numerous benefits, repairs to damaged composite components are substantially more complex/time consuming/ more expensive than traditional metals.
51f
compostite
940
computer repair
Define CF (work order)
conditional fix phase
Define CL (work order)
conditional look phase
what is a turnaround maintenance inspection? (upkeep)
conducted between flights to make sure aircraft is good to go for 24 hours if no flights happen.
Describe engine system: turbofan
converts majority gas power into mechanical power to drive an enclosed axial flown fan
What is CT?
cure time
what is the safety hazard of the rotor blades
cutting hazard
930
electric repair
Define ECM (RADAR)
electronic counter measure
Describe an auto log-set.
electronic record of a piece of gear or component located within NALCOMIS database
What is single hoist ordinance loading systems. (SHOLS)
eliminates excessive man power when utilizing manual loading and downloading method. requires no less than 5 personell.
what are the mandatory hand signals regardless of aircraft type?
emergency stop
define note
emphasized procedure
411
engine repair
duties of the CMC?
enlisted advisor for policies morale enlisted. Master chief Krumpton
MCPON
enlisted advisor to CNO. Master Chief Smith
What does safety do when moving an aircraft?
ensures aircraft is ready to be towed and ensures there is clearance
Explain the Reliability centered maintenance when regarding rework maintenance. (RCU)
ensures assets continue to do what their users require
Safety responsibility of the division officer
ensures division complies with safety
What does the QA Misuse/abuse program do?
ensures proper operations/equipment is used correctly.
What does the tractor driver do when moving an aircraft?
ensures safe and slow movement of the aircraft
Define VX/VXE
evaluate new aircraft
State the purpose of a NATOPS evaluation?
evaluation of individual pilot or crew member.
What is interim rapid action change?
expedite tech info related to safety damage
Describe hazards of working with oxygen.
explosions/pressure explosion freezing fire
What aircraft uses the fuel JP-5?
f-44 flame spread 100 ft/min flash point 190 degrees Fahrenheit navy's primary jet fuel.
What is Bcm5?
fails test and check
Define VFA
fixed wing fighter
define VP
fixed wing land based; anti sub; anti surface; reccon, mining
Define VC
fixed wing utility; sim/target towing
Define VAW
fixed wing; early warning for weather, missiles, shipping and aircraft
Define VQ
fixed wing; electronic warfare support, search, interception, recording, ananlysis
Define VT
fixed wing; training to student naval aviators
Define VRC
fixed wing; transport to carrier
what are the parking apron? (flight deck)
flight line, used for parking, servicing, and loading aircraft. connected by taxiways.
Define Weight (flight)
force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything on the aircraft.
Define Drag (flight)
force that hold the air craft back drag is caused by the disruption of the air above the wings, main body of the aircraft, and body of all protruding objects on the aircraft.
Define clearance
formal determination that a person meets the personnel security eligibility standards
What is c1?
full capability
what is a daily maintenance inspection? (upkeep)
futher in depth inspection, good for 72 hours. aircraft can be flown for 24 hours, as long as it doesnt exceed 72 hours
910
gas engine
62e
generator
71b
gun
Explain HERO
hazards of electromagnetic ordinance
explain the duties of the Quality assurance officer. (QAO)
head of QA, ensures personnel assigned to QA do their jobs correctly and are trained.
Explain the duties of the Maintenance officer? (MO)
head of maintenance air wing training plan for billets, Personal information (PI), and assignments are satisfied
Define HSM
helicopter maritime strike
what is the safety hazard of the exhaust? (jet blast)
high temps. and high velocity
Define speed brakes
hinged or movable control surfaces used for reducing speed of aircraft
Define accumulated job status history (NALCOMIS)
history of Work Order from start to finish
What is the procedure for grounding an aircraft? (static electricity)
hook grounding strap to static ground then to aircraft
What is a helicopter airfoil?
how lift is achieved. helicopter uses rotor blades
what is a fixed wing airfoil?
how lift is achieved: a fixed wing uses a fixed airfoil (wings)
explain the basic aircraft hydraulic system:
hydraulic reservoir, pump, tubing, selector valve, and the activating unit to convert fluid preserve into work.
10 fleet `
in conjuction with 2nd - 7th fleet
What are side boys?
individuals who stand on either side of the gangway to salute on coming high ranking officials.
ready-shelter
inside weather envelope. min shielding, crew close to battle stations.
Explain the Pre-Operation Check procedures when using an ESD mat.
inspect wrist straps inspect mat for corrosion and cleanliness OSE multimeter to check resistance between ground and wrist strap. 0.8 ohms - 1.2 mega ohms required
what does the brake rider do when moving an aircraft?
inspection of brake system and aircraft
what does a CDI do?
inspects work done by their workers in work centers.
List the danger areas for aviation?
intakes, exhaust, flight controls, compressed gases, cryogenics, explosives, hazardous materials, eye, hearing, and other environment industrial dangers.
Explain SMART.
intended to offset typical operational inefficiencies that arise from the use of super hornet aircraft as aerial tankers.
What is a format 310 report?
inventory
What are the Potential hazards of working on composite materials?
irritation of skin by fiber particles
What is BCM4?
lack of partss
What is BCM3?
lack of tech. skills
Define the unique flight term: Collective
lift is created by rotating blades and in creasing pitch of rotor blades
Define LASER
light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
What are the three types of motion?
linear, angular, general
What is the detailed trr research report? BMT
list maf based on user selection data detailed maintenance and supply interdependence shown.
What is LF radio frequency spectrum band?
low 30-300 kilo hertz 10-1 kilo meters
deep-shelter
low in the ship and near centerline max shielding.
State the purpose of engine oil and part number
lubricates cools cleans MIL-PRF-23699F MIL-PRF-7808
51D
machine
what modules does OOMA consist of?
maintenance subsystem, material subsystem, Flight subsystem, platform software interface, and CM/LOGS and records subsystem
What does depot level do
manufacturing parts, modifying, testing, inspecting, sampling, and reclamation
define caution
may cause damage to equipment
What is the 2nd postion of a SMR code?
means of acquiring support
Define the unique flight term: auto rotation
method of allowing a helicopter to land safely without using engine power
What are pathogens?
microorganisms that cause disease
What is the difference between mini and micro repair? (2M)
mini does not include repair on multi layer circuit card assemblies Mini has larger components
what is the purpose of the emergency shore based recovery equipment?
minimize accidents/injury
Discuss why corrosion detection and preventon are critical elements of aircraft maintenece
minimize costs, avoid serious damage to aviation equipment
What does an EHR card do? (equipment history record)
monitors maintenance data on component/equipment that doesn't qualify for SRC card
Define MPLR
multi place life raft.
State the priorities for carrying out emergency destruction
naustaoruainst 2280 4B
define will with regarding NATOPS
never indicates any degree of requirement, for application of procedure.
what is a acceptance upkeep maintenance inspection?
newly assigned aircraft
What is C1 BA impact ratings?
no impact
blackout
no power
What is BF?
no rec. or requisition
What is BCM1?
not authorized
what is DD form 1577/2? SE
not serviceable repairable label
what is the runway numbering system? (flight deck)
numbered in relation to magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10 degree i.e. runway heading of 250 is runway 25.
470
oil lab
AO/AOE is what ship?
oiler/Ammunition support ship, also carries food
What does work center 910 do?
operate, maintain, repair, and test automotive electrical systems in ground equipment.
Define OPTAR
operating target budget
The USN AIR ENCON program is designed to:
optimize fuel consumption by naval aviation units without adversely safety or mission execution, to ensure the right amount of fuel is available for sustained mission readiness
What is a format 802 report?
overdue or coming due
Define OW
owned Asset
81c
oxygen
Explain the fire tetrahedron
oxygen, fuel, heat and chain reaction.
key elements of a fire.
oxygen, fuel, heat.
51b
paint
81a
parachutes
What is D3?
partial depot
Responsibilities of the NATOPS Program manager?
perform admin responsibilities
Purpose of a joint pre-op inspection.
perform pre op along with 2nd personnel where you checkout equip from
what is a special/scheduled upkeep maintenance inspection?
performed when 7 day, 28 days pass. when 50, 100, 200 hours accumulate on aircraft. 5000 rounds are fired and combined air frame and engine special inspections.
what is a transfer upkeep maintenance inspection?
performed when transferring aircraft or support equipment (SE)
Explain Safe for Flight
permitted to be launched
Elevators control what axis?
pitch, laterals
Define maintenance management
planning, organizing, staffing, directing, and controlling organic industrial resources required for physically performing equipment maintenance
64d/e
pods
What is a toxin?
poison released within living cells or organisms
Define type maintenance (NALCOMIS)
prefilled based on the type of Work order selected
what is upkeep maintenance?
preventive, restorative or additive work performed in aircraft, equipment, and SE by operating unit.
safety responsibility of the aviation safety officer
principle advisor to CO. Maintain safety records, and mishap statistics.
431
props
discuss the primary objective of aircraft preservation and painting
protect against corrosion and other forms of deterioration, also provide max tactical advantage
what is chemical/biological IPE?
protective gear to fight against chem/bio warfare
How much oxygen time is in a Emergency walk around bottle?
provides air to air crewman associated to pressurized aircraft
what is the purpose of the ILS?
provides path for exact alignments and descent of an aircraft on final approach to runway
what is the wind indicator do?
provides wind directions and velocities to pilots
who provides management, coordination and leadership for security and force protection?
public safety, force protection program offices.
What does QAR mean?
quality assurance representative
71d
racks
640
radar
What is the purpose of the VOR?
radio facility that eliminates many of the difficulties previously encountered in air navigation.
Primary objective of the tool control program?
rapidly account for all tools.
Define acceleration
rate of change of velocity and speed with time
What does a MSR card do? (Module service record)
record maintenance data for modules and their limited assemblies and components
What does a SRC card do? (scheduled removal card)
record of maintenance history/usage/installations
what does the chock walker do when moving an aircraft?
removes, carries, and installs wheel chocks
What is R1?
repair and return to site #
Responsibilities of the CNO NATOPS corrdinator?
represents NATOPS policy
Requirements which must be met to be considered phase 2 training for WHE?
required reading 3 OJT Practical and written test
What is rework maintenance?
restorative or additive work performed on aircraft, equipment and SE at FRC's or other established designated by TYCOM
Ailerons control what axis?
roll, longitude
What are the safety concerns while working on the flight deck?
rotor arcs, propellers, and jet blasts. DEATH
440
rotors
What is the safety procedures and PPE used for an O2 converter assembly?
rubber coated apron, explosive handlers coveralls, face shield,, lox boots, lox gloves and goggles.
what does the QA aircraft confined space program?
safe work environment is maintained
81b
safety equip.
What do you do when you board a ship?
salute the ensign
What are the duties of a CDQAR?
same thing as a QAR but with collateral duty.
what is a phase upkeep maintenance inspection?
scheduled maintenance required in smaller packages. done sequentially and at specific intervals.
What does the aviation maintenance screening unit do? AMSU
screens and accepts parts/issues parts
Define transmitter
sends out electromagnetic waves with information.
what is the purpose of the tower visual communications?
sequence of lights and switches between radar control and control tower
Define secret
serious damage, red
Most dangerous SE tire?
servicing demountable flange rim.
explain the basic responsibilities of maintenance/production control?
set priority for work load.
What are the components of the landing gear?
shock strut assembly, tires, wheel brake assembly, reacting/extending mech, and side struts/supports
980
shooter
Define SRA
shop replacement assembly
Define dent
small smoothly rounded hallow
Define blend
smooth repair of ragged edge or surface into contour of surrounding area
What is the importance of planning to naval operations?
so we can act effectively in a wartime situation
Define SC (work order)
special inspection control
Define SX (work order)
special inspection onto work center
What is the configuration of an oxygen converter assembly?
sphere assembly with a capacitance type probe assembly
What is a format 311 report?
standard inventory
what is the MA-1 series overrun barrier? (flight deck)
stops landing gear for aircraft without tail hooks. always in standby status.
Proper storage technique of SE tires?
stored in rank vertically Stored at 50% PSI
920
structure hydro
What is an automatic parachute ripcord release? (APRR)
sub-assy containing aneroid for sensing atmospheric pressure. If aircrew fails to manually actuate parachute, the APRR will initiate operation at a present altitude.
What is the purpose of a Broad arrow SEIS?
submitted when SE is operational and no additional assitance is needed
What is H?
substitute being supplied
What is SHF radio frequency spectrum band?
super high 3-30 giga hertz 10 centimetres - 1 centimeters
What is SLF radio frequency spectrum band?
super low 30-300 Hertz 104-103 Km
Define SO
supply officer assest
Common types of Corrosion found on SE?
surface galvanic pitting intergrainular erosion stress fatigue fretting crevase
Define TACAN
tactical air navigation Provides bearing and distance to ground or ship borne station
what are runways in regards to the flight deck?
take off/landing
04a
tech lib
450
test cell
451
test cell 2
What SE (support equipment) is used in aircraft handling?
test/troubleshoot aircraft systems
Define Force
the cause of motion, a change in motion, or a stoppage in motion
Define current
the flow of electrons
Describe strength-to-weight ratio
the relationships between the strength of a material and its weight per cubic inch, expressed as a ratio
What is TRR in reference to BMT?
time to reliably replenish
Safety hazards of working on SE tires?
tire explodes toxic/flammable solvent abrasive blasting high air pressure
51e
tires
Responsibilities of the NATOPS evaluator?
to evaluate individual and unit compliance by observing and grading adherence to NATOPS procedures.
State the objective of hydraulic tube bending
to obtain a smooth bend without flattening
Discuss the responsibilities of a test cell operator.
to perform operational test or functional check in GTETS or GTF on gas turbine engines
State the responsibilities, functions, and processes of material control.
to provide material support and coordinate indirect material requirements to ensure material is correct and delivered to work centers
What does an ASR card do? (assembly service record)
tracks data on assemblies
What is the purpose of the GPS?
tracks your exact coordinates
What is Logistics support in a warfare area?
transport of troops, personnel, and cargo
Define TS (work order)
troubleshooting
What are the types of upkeep maintenance inspections?
turnaround, daily, special/scheduled, conditional, phase, acceptance, and transfer
What is a cognizance (COG) code?
two position code ID's types of funds used to purchase item and activity that is the inventory manager
Responsibilities of the NATOPS model manager?
unit commander
What is immediate action? (TD)
unsafe condition exists maybe fatal/extensive damage.
What is a conditional upkeep maintenance inspection?
unscheduled events due to specific over limit conditions/administrative requirement.
what is initial tie down?
up to 45 knots 6 chains are required
what is normal weather tie down?
up to 45 knots 9 chains are required
what is chemical warfare?
use of chemical agents TO KILL
define spoiler
use to decrease of spoil wing lift by destroying the smooth flow of air over the wing surfaces.
State the mirco-threshold for the government purchase card.
used for small purchases under 5000
how does naval aviation support Reconnaissance/surveillance?
used in support of military ops/tasks
what is the airfield rotating beacon?
used to identify airports location during light and dark hours
What is an antisubmarine?
used to locate and destroy submarines
990
vans
Rudder controls what axis?
vertical, Yaw
What is VHF radio frequency spectrum band?
very high 30-300 Mega hertz 10-1 meters
Define VIDS
visual information display
how often is HAZMAT stowage locations inspected? What do you look for?
weekly and quarterly. Quantity, and UID.
480
welding
identify PPE used while welding
welding goggles shielded metal arc welding and flux cored arc welding hood. Welding hood with suitable filter glass
what is the airfield rotating beacon? (flight deck)
when airport is having bad weather.
what is the compass calibration pad? (Flight deck)
where aircraft are positioned during calibration
Define inertia
willingness of an object to remain at rest or continue its motion.
What is the timeline for a formal change or routine revision/notice.
within 5 working days
What are the duties of a QAR?
work is inspected by them, completed correctly and IAW instuctions.
Security manager
An individual who manages the security measures used to protect electronic data. advises the CO/XO about security
AD is what ship?
Destroyer tender, mobile repair, supply, Ammo
state the three methods of controlling bleeding
Direct Pressure, Pressure Point, Tourniquet
Role of the president
Donald Trump head of armed forces, can initiate military action
emp
Electromagnetic Pulse - a short burst of electromagnetic energy.
Sec of def
Forms general defense policy. Mark Esper
STRATCOM
Offutt Nebraska, Peter attacks in space/cyberspace, nuclear info, surveillance air force base
what is ORM?
Operational Risk Management. Systematic, decision making process used to ID and manage hazards. used to make informed decisions.
Safety responsibility of the ground safety officer
Principle advisor to CO on all ground safety matters.
Duties of the Maintenance officer
Program manager
CMC of FRCNW and his role
advisor to the CO Master chief Krumpton
LHA is what ship
amphibious assault ship
LCC is what ship
amphibious command ship
LPD is what ship
amphibious transport dock
LHD is what ship
amphibious warfare ship
What is atropine/2-PAM- chloride?
an auto-injector for nerve agents.
Functions of the safety council/enlisted safety committee
set goals, manage, review safety related recommendations.
Define SORM
ships organization regulations manuel
blast
shock wave and heat
Who wears the yellow jerseys?
aircraft handling officer
01E?
airspeed
Describe the basic materials required for a 2M repair.
Soldering station, solder, flux, alcohol.
List the 3 types of SE/AWSE tire and wheel assemblies.
Solio rims one piece Split rims Demountable flange
Define 5S and list the associated steps.
Sort, simplify, shine, standardize, and sustain.
What is the 1st position of a SMR code?
Source code one these 5 letters: P, K, M, A, and X
What is an SM&R code?
Source, Maintenance, and recover-ability code
What are the major components of a converter assembly.
Spherical assembly consisting of inner and outer shells separated by an annular space. valves tubing and fittings
what is the Emergency shore based recovery equipment? (flight deck)
Stops aircraft not equiped with tail hooks, or there is an aborted takeoff or and emergency landing. To minimize the chance of an accident that coulde cause injury to the pilot and crew or damage to the aircraft.
Define Mine Warfare.
Tactical use of sea mines and their countermeasures.
What is an amphibious assault?
Taking of area where land and sea meet
CENTCOM
Tampa bay Florida cooperation w/ other nations, responsible to crisis deters aggression
SOCOM
Tampa, Florida spec ops.
Discuss the levels of the ordnance qualification Certification Program.
Team member performs, work only under a team leader. Level 1: same as Team member (TM) but can work alone needs QA oversight Level Team leader (TL): same as TM and level 1, BUT DIRECTS OTHERS
Define TD (work order)
Technical directive
Describe for what an oscilloscope is utilized for.
Used to observe change of an electrical signal overtime.
Explain the purpose of hermetically sealing an instrument
airtight to keep clean and avoid contamination or corrosion
DEFCON is a subsystem of ...
alert conditions (LERTCONS) along with EMERGCONS, WATCHCONS, and FPCONS.
Describe JDI and state why they are performed.
"Just do it." A fast CpI event that improves the current state quickly and easily, usually within days
who wears the red jerseys?
(AO'S) Crash and Salvage, Explosive Ordnance Disposal, and Ordnance handling personnel
Who wears green jerseys?
(AT's) Catapult and Arresting Gear personnel, Squadron Aircraft Maintenance personnel, Helicopter Landing Signal Enlisted-man and Photographers
Define lift (Flight)
A force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air. Counteracts the effect of weight. Lift 2 weight to flight to be sustained.
What is FPCON normal?
A general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture.
Responsibilities of the NATOPS instructor?
A highly qualified air crewmember whose primary or secondary duty within an operational fleet squadron, training command squadron, or air test & evaluation squadron is administering the NATOPS evaluation program by conducting positional upgrade and/or annual periodic check rides of flight crew
Define airfoil
An aircraft wing, tail, or propeller blade. That produces lift and drag through the air.
What is Newton's first law?
An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
Newton's Second Law
An object moving with uniform speed is acted by an fraternal force, the change of motion, or acceleration, will be directional, proportional to the mass of the object being moved.
What is M9?
Awaiting funding
What is M8?
Awaiting other shops
What is WP?
Awaiting parts
Define Angular flight
Axis or rotation
Define CRIPL
Consolidated remain in place list
Define CRIPL and the criteria which must be met for eligibility.
Consolidated remain in place list when its not feasible or advisable to remove a repairable component until replacement is in hand
What are some ways used to dispose of HAZWASTE?
Containers, double plastic bagged, and drums
Contents of a flight packet?
Contains instructions to assist pilots involved in extended flight, to obtain material or services which may be necessary for the continuation of a flight.
Purpose of the NAVAIR 17-1-125?
Contains instructions, procedures, and info on cleaning, presentation and corrosion control of SE
Explain the purpose of the NAVAIR 00-35-QH-2 ALSS allowance list.
Contains items/quantities of ALSS necessary in order to maintain continual condition of operational readiness. Authorizes the maintenance of ALSS
Explain the term controlled environment work center as applied to hydraulics repair
Controls amount of contaminants a component can impart to the aircraft hydraulic systems.
Define encryption
Conversion of electronic data into another form
Describe engine system: turbo prop
Converts majority gas power into mechanical power to drive propeller
What does ILS stand for?
Instrument Landing System
Discuss inspection and inventory requirements for SF-700s
Inventory document used to inspect SF-700s and SF-700 updated. Include deptidivision responsible, container number, location, date combo changed, signature of person inventoring/inspecting
What type of fuel is used for SE?
JP-5 Df-2
Where is FRCSE?
Jacksonville
Discuss the safety hazards associated with test cell operations
Jet blast, hot exhaust, gas, noise, shock hazard
410
Jet engine
Define JCN (NALCOMIS)
Job Control Number; alphanumeric code is basis for data collection
What is JC?
Job complete
What does the QA program central technical publications library do?
Keeps up to date info for all personnel to use
What is C4 Ba impact ratings?
No capability
What is a AWP reconciliation reports? (BMT)
Nonp-AWP with docs, detailed awp. with no docs, awp active FGC
What is DEFCON 5?
Normal peacetime readiness
What is DEFCON 4?
Normal, increased intelligence and strengthened security measures
What does NC mean when referring to switches?
Normally closed
What does NO mean when referring to switches?
Normally open
What is X1?
Not authorized
Define NOFORN
Not releasable to foreign Nations
Explain the difference between O level and I level pertaining to SE tire and wheels.
O level: inspect, service, and replace tires. I level: replace components of tires.
State who the system administrator/analyst is responsible to?
OIC/MMCO
What form is used for SE licenses?
OPNAV 44790/102
SE misuse and abuse form?
OPNAV 4790/100
What is the 52 day form number?
OPNAV 4790/52
Describe the difference between shelf life and service life in regards to hose and tube assemblies.
Shelf life: from delivery to date of use. Service life: from installation to removal
What does OPTAR stand for?
Ships operating target
What does SMART stand for?
Short cycle mission and recovery tanking
Define Tum and Bank indicator
Show the correct execution of a turn and bank
Define Attitude indicator
Show the pilot the relative position of the aircraft compared to the earths horizon
Define Altimeters
Shows altitude or height, above sea level
Explain the purpose of the individual component repair list (ICRL)?
Shows capability of repair.
what is C3 BA impact ratings?
Significant impact
Define Thermal Runaway and what to look for?
Significant rise in temp at end of charge. Gradual rise in charging current during constant potential charging. Bulging where battery is
Define and discuss: SKL
Simple key loader. Next gen data transfer device accountable in CMCS as a controlled cryptographic item. (CCI)
Define SHOLS.
Single hoist ordinance loading system
Explain how the 20MM M61A1 Gun system is operated and controlled.
Six barrel rotary action, automatic gun hydraulically driven, electronically controlled fires M50 and DGU series 4000-6000 rounds per min.
51a
Structure
52c
Strut
Name the 3 elements that make up the ID symbols on a standard Naval Letter.
Subject ID code Originators code Date
What is the procedure required when turning in a valid SE license for update or renewal?
Submit SE operator training requests Phase 1 and 2 training and testing Photo copy of license sign and date
What happened at the battle of Midway 3-5 June 1942?
Surprise attack, US sank 4 Japanese carriers, TURNING POINT IN THE PACIFIC WAR, Yorktown was sunk.
Why does a circuit breaker pop?
Switches open when excessive current is detected.
Define national flag
Symbolizes country
Identify the support equipment used on hydraulic components
TIO bench Hydraulic pump bench Hose assembly tube benders PHI bender flow bench damper proof pressure bench
what does TACAN stand for?
Tactical Air Navigation System
Describe the environmental control requirements of the parachute packing loft.
Temperature and humidity levels maintained within limits. Ideal 75 degrees of 60% humidity utilizing an AC unit.
What is FPCON based on?
Terrorist threat, capability to penetrate existing physical security systems, risk of terrorist attack to which personnel and assets are exposed, assets ability to execute its mission even if attacked, and criticality of mission
What is A1?
Test and check
Discuss the basic components that make up a test cell
Test cab; control console, engine connector panel, instrumentation, thrust bed and restraint. equip, fuel, and electrical system
Explain the purpose of the aircraft engine component test stand (AECTS).
Test generators for E2/C2+H53
Define TMDE
Test measurement and diagnostic equipment
Explain the emergency Shut down Procedures for the battery locker.
Test sets automatically shutdown when batteries reach a certain temp. if test set fails to shut down, manual shutdown by turning off power to workstations by emergency power stop.
Describe the maintenance requirements of AAS.
Test, check, fault, isolation, adjustment, range, and replace components iaw MIMS. Perform inspections apply TD's, wiring and cable repair, remove and replace weapon replacement assemblies and shop replacement assemblies for corrosion treatment.
Describe the process of proof pressure testing hydraulic tube assemblies
Tested to twice the pressure if operating pressure is greater than 50 PSI. If less than 52 PSI tested to minimum of 100 PSI
State the function of the Rockwell Hardness test.
Tests the hardness of a material by applying 2 loads to obtain controlled penetration and indicate results on a gradulated dial
Describe the use and importance of NDI standards with regard to Eddy current inspections.
Used to locate various forms of damage that may affect structural integrity of a part. Service induced
Describe the purpose of the parachute loft packing area.
Used for inspection, rigging and packing of parachutes and related items
Describe the type time when necessary and purpose of the NDI method used on composite materials.
Used inspect ACM and evaluate damage. Used to inspect without removing paint.
State the purpose of NDI process controls.
Used to check effectiveness of process and materials used.
Describe the Eddy current NDI mehod.
Used to detect faulty parts that are current induced in a conductor by an alternating magnetic field
Describe the magnetic particle NDI method.
Used to detect surface or near surface defects in ferromagnetic parts
Describe the fluorescent penetrant NDI method.
Used to detect surface-breaking discontinuities (cracks, pits, etc.) in nonporous material
what happened 7 October 2001?
aircraft from USS Enterprise lauched 1st strike of the war.
What are the two types of aircraft armament systems. (AAS)
aircraft gun systems and aircraft crew served weapons laser aiming devices
Who wear blue jerseys?
aircraft handling crew
what is heavy weather tie down?
above 60 knots 20 chains
Purpose of the molecular sieve bed.
absorbs nitrogen and allows the O2 enriched air to pass through the sieve bed to the check assembly.
Define and discuss: Clearance
accessed to classified or sensitive info, confidential, secret, top secret
030
admin
What is bcm8?
administrative
What is BD?
being delayed, item being inventoried
Define bow
bent blade
What is BB?
backordering against due in stock
Define metal hardness using the rockwell hardness scale
based on degree of penetration of specifically designed indentor into a material under a given static load. typically diamond or hardened steel ball
What is the aircraft logbook?
detailed service record maintained for each individual aircraft.
Explain the basic purpose and process of aircraft tire and wheel assembly maintenance at an IMA.
determine wheel overhaul requirements and perform authorized maintenance
DT-60 dosimeter
determines gamma radiation
What is advanced targeting forward looking infrared used for? (ATFLIR)
during day and night ops detects, classify, track, and designate both air to air and air to surface target
What is the purpose of the FCF.
determines whether an aircraft airframe, engine or engines, accessories, or equipment is functioning according to established standards while the aircraft operates in its intended environment.
Define antenna
device that converts electrical power into waves and vise-versa.
Define gouge
displacement of material from a surface
what does carbon dioxide do?
displaces oxygen
What is the summary report on the BMT?
division trr summary, division detailed analysis
What is BM?
doc forwarded to xcty
LSD is what ship
dock landing ship
What does O level do
day to day basis in support of its own operations
what is the overrun area in regards to the flight deck?
deceleration area
64c
decm
LPH is what ship
Amphibious Assault Ship transports 1800 troops
Duties of the CO?
responsible for those under his command. W.A. Palmer
What are the 3 classes of mishaps?
1. Class A 2 mil or more injury, fatal, disability 2. class B 500,000-2 million partial disability 3. class C 50,000-500,000 injury that cause 5 or more loss work days
5 steps of ORM
1. Identify hazards 2. Assess hazards 3. Make risk decisions 4. Implement controls 5. Supervise
explain the 5 types of nuke explosion
1. high altitude air burst ionosphere disruptions 2. air burst - fireball does not reach surface. creates vacuum radiation fallout. 3. shallow underwater - small fire ball, causes large waves/ water contamination. 4. deep underwater - has greater water contamination. 5. surface burst- worst fallout.
state the four types of chemical agents
1.nerve agent- disrupt nerve impulses. 2. blood agents- attack enzymes that carries oxygen 3. blister agents- destruction of tissue. 4. chocking agents- fills lungs with fluid
Financial specialist
Advise crew members in budgeting, savings, and basic money management
AE is what ship?
Ammunition ship carrys ammo
what are the 11 basic wounds ?
Fractures, open/closed, sulking chest wound, abdominal evisceration, massive hemorrhage, laceration, electrical shock, smoke inhalation, burns, hypothermia, heat stress, and puncture wound.
Who is the Secretary of the navy?
Kenneth Braithwaite
Describe the symptoms and first aid treatment for a joint dislocation.
Loosen clothing, put in comfortable position, support injury, treat for shock, get medical assitance
5th fleet and AOR
Manama Bahrain. Arabian gulf, indian ocean, persian gulf,
Who is the Secretary of Defense?
Mark Esper
safety responsibility of the CO
Requires people are drilled and instructed in safety, precautions and procedures.
EUCOM
Stuttgart, Germany Conduct ops, build partnership with transatlantic security
AFRICOM
Stuttgart, Germany Security engagement in Africa
AS is what ship?
Submarine tender providing fuel, food, potable water, spare parts, and some repair of submarine equipment and minor hull components.
what is biological warfare?
The use of agents to cause disease, sickness, or death
Explain the 5 steps of CPR
check for responsiveness, check for breathing, perform CPR (Remove chest clothing, interlock hands/ place heal of bottom hand on sternum, 30 compressions, 100 rpm, 2 breaths, cont. for 5 cycles, reassess breathing, swap out with another person) if breathing, place on side, check for other injuries.
AFS is what ship?
combat storage ships, replenishes ships food
CCC
command career counselor
Safety responsibility of the department head (MO)
coordinates department safety IAW safety officer
DD/DDG is what ship
destroyer guided missle destroyer
Explain M9 chemical agent detector paper?
detects liquid chemical agents by turning red.
Describe the basic treatment for a suicide gesture or attempt?
do not leave patient alone, treat wounds, report, take to hospital.
Safety responsibility of everyone
familiarizes with safety regulations
explain when why and what to use on a sprain
first 24/48 hours, to reduce swelling, hot/cold pack
CG is what ship?
guided missle crusier
FFG is what ship
guided missle frigates, patrol
Flash burns/blindness
high radiation and bad burns
Purpose of the HAZREP.
intended to be submitted when the elimination and control of a given hazard has community-wide implication in reducing mishaps.
Duties of the department Head?
representative of the CO
Duties of the division officer
responsible for duties of the divisions
Duties of the XO?
responsible for organization, performance, discipline of the command Commander Jose Riefkohl (Reefcoal)