FT questions part 2

2. Vehicles and their safety features are constantly changing. Depending on the year, make and model, you could expect to find any combination of things. One thing we can count on is this: "In all 2018 and newer automobiles regardless of manufacturer, they are required to have laminated safety glass installed throughout the vehicle, not just the windshield." (Cross Ref: TB Tools 39, 2.3) A. True B. False

A

2. While conducting BISP at a building under construction you notice multiple standpipes being used by construction personnel to supply water and air for various construction activities. During discussions with the construction foreman, he tells you the building has a total of five standpipes, one of which is maintained for firefighting purposes only. The most correct action for you to take can be found in choice? (AUC 5 - Ch2 Add2 - Pg2) A. This is legal and requires no action by FDNY B. This is illegal and serve an immediate criminal summons. C. Fill out a High Priority DOB Referral D. Because you are unsure, call a BC to the scene to determine the proper action

A

3. You are conducting BISP at a one-story commercial occupancy. The building owner informs you that the sprinkler system is out of service on the first floor but still operational in the cellar. You correctly had one of your members place what color disc on the fire department connection. (Eng 8 - 3.7.3) A. Blue B. Do not place a disc, discs are for high rise buildings only C. White D. Yellow

A

5. An officer conducting drill on safety concerns at buildings under construction was incorrect to state? (1.1, 3.1, 3.2, 4.7) A. Concrete has strong compressive strength and strong tensile strength B. A Thermal Imaging Camera may be a critical tool at a collapse of a building under construction C. If a building under construction collapses, debris and victims will be coated the same color as the concrete D. During size-up, the presence of a concrete boom truck is a positive indication of recently poured concrete.

A Concrete has strong compressive strength and VERY WEAK OR NO tensile strength

1. First alarm units are operating at the scene of a tanker truck fire carrying LP gas. As these situations can be extremely dangerous, officers must ensure members are operating effectively and safely. Of the following four points, which is incorrect? (HM 1--2.2.5, 2.3.3, 2.4.7, Figure 17 on pg. 10) A. A frost line on the tank indicates the liquid level in the tank and will always be present. When tank failure occurs, it will usually occur in the liquid area of the tank. B. The first arriving Engine Officer had members approach the tank from the sides. Civilians and members not engaged in operations were kept 2000 feet from the front and rear of the tank. C. The involved tank had a DOT placard with the numbers "1075", this indicates propane which may have a BLEVE. Members must be aware that a satisfactory performance of a relief valve cannot prevent a BLEVE. D. The on-scene BC kept members upwind of the leak. LP gases will travel along the ground as they are 1.5 to 2 times heavier than air.

A A frost line on the tank indicates the liquid level in the tank and will SOMETIMES be present. When tank failure occurs, it will usually occur in the VAPOR area of the tank Note B: At least 1000' [diseases] from the ends and at least 500' [laces] from the sides

1. When it comes to a vehicle's airbag system, the variables can be endless. Airbags can be located anywhere (ie. Dashboard, doors, roof rails etc.). A newly promoted Lt was discussing the dangers of airbags with a Bronx ladder company and made the following 4 statements. Which one is incorrect? (Disentanglement Sec. 2.6, 2.7) A. Airbag systems are equipped with an energy storage feature that enables them to deploy even when the battery has been damaged in an accident, but not if the battery has been destroyed. B. Always treat the area around airbags (deployed or not) as a danger zone. A good rule of thumb is at least 5" from side airbags, 10" from driver airbags and 20" from passenger airbags. C. Dual Stage inflators found in a newer vehicle mean that after an airbag has deployed, it can deploy a second time. D. Mechanically activated seat belt pre-tensioners will remain live after the battery has been disconnected. Remove seatbelts as soon as practical.

A A. Airbag systems are equipped with an energy storage feature that enables them to deploy even when the battery has been damaged in an accident, EVEN IF the battery has been destroyed.

6. It is Tuesday April 1st, and you are the Lieutenant working the 9x6 tour in a Manhattan Ladder Company. Your unit receives a ticket for a possible explosion inside a Con Edison generating plant. Upon arrival you are met by a Con Ed employee who states "We had a high energy line break and two of our workers are missing inside" As the first arriving Officer, which one of the following actions is incorrect? (Steam Sec 4.1) A. You updated the dispatcher for relay to incoming units and entered the generating plant for search and rescue of missing plant personnel alone with only your inside team. B. Your company remained outside the plant at the designated mustering site. C. After consultation with the Con Ed White Hat, he informed you that his workers would mitigate the emergency. D. While performing search and rescue, you remained close to the provided escort, aware that verbal communication could be difficult during a high-pressure steam leak.

A A. You updated the dispatcher for relay to incoming units and entered the generating plant for search and rescue of missing plant personnel ONLY WITH AN ESCORT. CANT ENTER WITHOUT AN ESCORT.

8. While investigating a natural gas leak, members of Ladder 100 and Engine 200 took the following actions. Which one is incorrect? (Sec 6.5 page 20) A. As Ladder 100 enters the building; the Natural Gas Detector (Sensit) activates so the members of the inside team proceeded directly to the basement/cellar to evaluate conditions. B. The outside team of Ladder 100 proceed to the natural gas utility meter location. This could be inside or outside of the building. C. If Engine 200 arrived prior to Ladder 100, the Engine Officer should proceed to the reported location/caller with the Natural Gas Meter (Altair). D. The members of Engine 200 remained outside the potential blast zone and prepared to stretch a hoseline if needed.

A As Ladder 100 enters the building; the Natural Gas METER (ALTAIR) activates so the members of the inside team proceeded directly to the basement/cellar to evaluate conditions.

20. When performing decontamination, the rapid physical removal of the material from the patient is the single most important action. Which method listed removes the greatest amount of contamination? (Haz 7, 1.1, 2.3) A. The rapid removal of the patient's outer clothing. B. A straight stream from a 1 ¾ line with an operating pressure of 85 psi. C. A fog stream from a 2 ½ line at with an operating pressure of 40 psi D. Having the victim walk through a decontamination trailer.

A B,C,D are all made up.

17. National Grid has requested the FDNY's help in removing several manhole covers at the scene of a gas leak. As a sharp fire tech student, you would know this action should only be carried out as indicated in which choice? (Sec. 9.2.4) A. The sewer manhole cover is round or rectangular, and it is approved by an on-scene BC. B. National Grid has checked the rectangular electric manhole cover for stray voltage, and it is approved by an on-scene BC. C. The BC tells your engine company to retrieve the manhole hooks from any of the on-scene ladder companies. Do not pull any electric manhole covers if there is a manhole fire in the area. D. If smoking or arcing is observed in an electric manhole, FD units should not pull any electric manhole covers in the area. If smoking or arcing is observed in a transformer vault, removal is acceptable if the cover is checked for stray voltage.

A B. National Grid has checked the ROUND electric manhole cover for stray voltage, and it is approved by an on-scene BC. C. The BC tells your engine company to retrieve the manhole hooks from the BATTALION VEHICLE. Do not pull any electric manhole covers if there is a manhole fire in the area. D. If smoking or arcing is observed in an electric manhole, FD units should not pull any electric manhole covers in the area. If smoking or arcing is observed in a transformer vault, removal is NOT acceptable. WE DO NOT PULL TRANSFORMER COVERS

14. While operating at the scene of a Major Gas Emergency inside a structure, the decision to shut power should not be taken lightly. It must be well thought out and coordinated with units operating inside and outside of the potential blast zone. Of the following four points which is incorrect? (Sec. 8.3, 9.2.2) A. If you are unsure where the leak is coming from, but levels can be kept at less then 80% LEL, power removal is permissible. B. If at any point gas levels reach 80% LEL or higher, treat the affected area as a "potential blast zone". The opportunity to remove power has expired. C. You suspect gas has been leaking for a considerable amount of time and is likely trapped in numerous void spaces, treat the area as a "potential blast zone" and begin rapid evacuation. D. Power removal always causes an arc at the point/location that power is removed.

A If you are unsure where the leak is coming from, DO NOT SHUT POWER. Note: The 80% comes into play when you know where the leak is coming from.

10. Two CO Meters have been issued to all Battalions, Ladders and Engines. A logical assignment for a Ladder Companies second meter would be the Outside Vent position. Where shall an Engine Company keep their second meter? (HazMat 4--Sec. 2.6) A. With the CFR equipment, attached to the Oxygen bag. B. Attached to the Nozzle FF's radio above the remote mic. C. According to CFR Protocols, it shall be carried by the FF assigned to the Defib/Documenter position. D. Kept in the cab of the apparatus and given out by the Engine Officer at his/her discretion.

A Note: Primary CO meter is worn by company officer on the radio strap above the remote mic.

25. All the following are considered safe atmospheric conditions except? (Confined Space Sec. 4.1) A. Oxygen Concentration between 19.5% and 24.5% B. Flammable Range not over 10% of the Lower Explosive Limit C. Toxicity not over 35 PPM of Carbon Monoxide D. Toxicity not over 10 PPM of Hydrogen Sulfide

A Oxygen Concentration between 19.5% and 23.5% [topple-animal] B. 10 [days] C. 35 [mule] D. 10 [days]

14. It is 0900 roll call in Ladder 100, you are the SA officer for the 9x6 tour. One of the junior members informs you the Drager Pac 6500 CO Meter is not working properly. To obtain a new meter, you must do which of the following? (HM4 Add 2--1.3, 3.6) A. Contact the Haz-Mat Operations Meter Room for a replacement B. Send the meter through the bag with an RT2 attached C. Notify the Battalion via email D. Contact the Division who will issue a spare via the messenger van immediately

A Pac 6500 [jail houses] vs the Gas alert extreme co meter. Pac is the new one.

4. Today is July 24th and you are the Lt in a stellar Staten Island Ladder company. The 9x6 tour has completely gone awry, as you find your company operating at a 3rd alarm commercial fire when you notice Conduit that is color coded Orange. You would be most correct to think this indicates? (AUC 5, Ch2, Add3, Pg5) A. Low voltage wiring B. High Voltage wiring C. Photovoltaic system D. Lithium Ion batteries

A RED = HIGH VOLTAGE ORANGE = LOW VOLTAGE YELLOW = NATURAL GAS YELLOW W/BLACK STRIPES = FUEL OIL YELLOW W/ LABEL = ANY OTHER COMPRESSED GAS

3. (Agree or Disagree) with the following statement: Head of Service Valves are always located before the meter and can be found either on the outside (exterior gas riser valve) or inside (Building Service Valve) of the building. (Sec. 4.4.1 Page 23) A. Agree or D. Disagree

A Recent change in AUG 2021

23. Unless there are extreme circumstances, which trained members may attempt a complex entry into a Confined Space? (Confined Space Section 2.2) 1. Members in Rescue Companies 2. Members in Squad companies 3. Members in SOC Support Ladders 4. Members of Ladder companies A. 1, 2 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 1, 3 D. 1, 2, 3, 4

A SOC does not do complex entry, only line of sight.

6. Engine 100 responds first due to a 10-76 in Manhattan. Fire is located on the 51st floor and they are going to stretch 3 lengths of light weight 2 ½'' hose from the outlet on the floor below the fire. How much pressure should the ECC of Engine 100 supply the FDC with initially? (Eng 8 - 3.9.11 Note) A. 400 B. 350 C. 360 D. 500

A This is a HIRISE OFFICE: old chart (Round up x 5) + 100 A 10-77 then use new chart.

9. While drilling on Engine Company Operations the following four statements were made, all are correct except? (Eng 8 - 7.6.17 D, 7.6.20 F, 7.7.3, 8.3) A. When bleeding the hose line, elevator shafts, stairways or compactor chutes may be used. This will help prevent excess water build up in the hallway. B. If a hose line is needed on the floor above, connecting a 3rd hose line to the outlet on the original fire floor is permissible with the approval of the IC or Fire Sector Supervisor. C. A critical task of the second engine officer is to ensure the position at the fire occupancy door is covered to insure a smooth advance into the fire area. D. Remove kinks in a hoseline manually, never by supplying more pressure.

A When bleeding the hose line stairways or compactor chutes may be used. This will help prevent excess water build up in the hallway. NOT ELEVATORSHAFTS.

16. You've jumped on the overtime in the Rockaway's, so you brought some sunscreen and board shorts hoping to catch some sweet rays. Unfortunately, this will not be the case; after roll call you receive a ticket to respond to Surf Rescue Training. The following four remarks were made during drill, one of which is incorrect. (Water Rescue 4, Pg.5 A&B , Pg.6 G , 4.1 , 4.7) A. If conditions warrant, the primary rescuer may enter the water with the torpedo or the surfboard. Larger waves and rough water would be ideal for the surfboard as it will aide in reaching the victim. B. While responding to a water/surf rescue the IC (BC or Company Officer) shall consider asking the dispatcher for an ETA from the Marine Unit as well as the direction of the tide. C. On arrival if NYPD is on scene and has members in the water, all members shall be made aware of this fact and the borough dispatcher notified for relay to responding units. D. Once a victim has been positioned properly on the surfboard, members will steadily pull the tether line while timing the waves. The officer and tether positions will monitor operations in case the victim falls off the surfboard.

A. If conditions warrant, the primary rescuer may enter the water with the TORPEDO. Larger waves and rough water would NOT be ideal for the surfboard. Surfboard is for the secondary rescuer.

10. Ladder 100 has just removed a victim from cold water. The Lieutenant from Ladder 100 instructs his members to take each of the following actions but was incorrect in which choice? (Water Rescue 1, Sec. 3.4.1, 3.5.2) A. Immediately remove wet clothing and wrap the person in warm blankets, the loss of body heat occurs 10 times faster in wet clothing than in air. B. The members of Ladder 100 did not massage or rub the victim as this could cause cardiac arrest. C. Removing the victim to a warm shelter to prevent further body cooling would be sound practice. D. Early signs of hypothermia begin at approximately 95 degrees. Severe hypothermia sets in if the body drops below 82 degrees.

A. Immediately remove wet clothing and wrap the person in warm blankets, the loss of body heat occurs 25 [nail] times faster in wet clothing than in air. D. 95 [blue] 82 [heaven]

11. One of the most important jobs an Officer is tasked with is keeping the members safe at operations. High Pressure Pumping can be routine for some companies but foreign to others; regardless safety is a paramount concern. Members would be in compliance with FDNY procedure in all of the following except? (Eng 8 Add 1 - 2.1.3, 2.1.7, 2.3, 3) A. Members established a safety zone of 75 feet in all directions around operating pumpers and hose after the FDC was supplied with the proper pressure. B. Each ECC operating an engine supplying high pressure must be assisted by another ECC from a non-pumping engine. One ECC will operate the pump while the other monitors radio communications. C. When only one FDC is available, the second supply line shall be stretched to the first-floor outlet. Never connect two high pressure supply lines to a single FDC. D. Third stage engines are the preferred choice when pumping operations exceed 500 psi. When discharge pressures exceed 600psi third stage engines are mandatory.

A. Members established a safety zone of 75 feet [it's AT LEAST 50] in all directions around operating pumpers and hose BEFORE the FDC was supplied with the proper pressure.

2. E100 and L200 respond to a passenger car fire. After scene size up, the officer of E100 has determined the vehicle is powered by propane and fire has involved the tank area. The two officers have a brief conversation about safety at this operation. The officer of L200 was incorrect in which comment made? (HM 1--3.6.4) A. Members should stay clear of the relief valve in case it discharges; the discharge point of the relief valve will be located within 90 degrees of the vertical. B. A fog stream should be directed onto the tank's outer surface to keep it cool. C. On passenger cars, the relief valve could be located on top of the trunk, in the rear quarter panel or possibly off the rear bumper. D. E100 was unable to locate the discharge point of the relief valve. The officer ordered one member under the cover of a fog stream to open the trunk in an attempt to shut the supply valve.

A. Members should stay clear of the relief valve in case it discharges; the discharge point of the relief valve will be located within 45 [roll] degrees of the vertical. C. Acro:ROT Rear quarter panel, Off the rear bumper, Top of the trunck

3. Your ladder company is drilling on auto accidents and the junior member made four statements, one of which is incorrect. (Disentanglement Sec 4, page 5. Sec 11, page 20) A. The Engine Officer and two CFR members equipped with a trauma bag and cervical collars should proceed to the accident, the remaining members shall stretch a dry precautionary line. B. The Ladder Officer and inside team will chock the vehicle and gain access to the patient. Make sure seatbelts are removed prior to shutting down the ignition. C. When disconnecting a vehicle's battery, remove the negative terminal first. D. We should protect victims prior to any glass removal by covering them. A good choice would be salvage plastic or yellow exposure blankets. Fabric blankets are not a good choice for this.

A. The Engine Officer and two CFR members equipped with a trauma bag and cervical collars should proceed to the accident, the remaining members shall stretch and CHARGE a precautionary line.

7. While operating at a 10-77 in the great borough of Manhattan, the 1st due Control FF notices a high flow alarm on the digital pressure gauge. Of the following four choices which would be an incorrect thought / action? (Eng 8 - 5.5, 5.7) A. The Hi-Flow alarm on the digital gauge activates when flow exceeds 220 gpm B. The Control FF radioed their officer to ensure proper pressure was being supplied C. The High Flow Alarm activation does not always indicate a problem D. Pressure to the nozzle should be set with water flowing and the nozzle FF must bleed the line. The long bleed is essential to ensure proper pressure.

A. The Hi-Flow alarm on the digital gauge activates when flow exceeds 250 gpm

10. A super sharp Lieutenant would know which point to be incorrect concerning the Sensit TKX Gas Detector? (ADD 5) A. The Sensit will detect Carbon Monoxide as low as 20 ppm. B. An increase in the ticking sound and flashing of the red LED indicates that you are approaching the leak. C. When placing this tool out-of-service, the on-duty officer will call Haz-Mat Ops for a replacement. Meters shall not be sent through the bag. D. If recharging does not produce a solid green LED after 5 hours, notify Haz-Mat Ops.

A. The Sensit will detect a gas source of METHANE as low as 20 ppm. It will not detect carbon monoxide

6. While responding to a first due phone alarm your ECC hits a speed hump at a high rate of speed sending you flying into the ceiling of the cab. Upon return to quarters, after taking Advil for your headache you decide to drill with your ECC on speed humps. All the following are correct except? (SB 2—Chapter 5) A. When encountering speed humps with missing signs, send a DOT referral report. B. The advised speed for a 4'' reducer (speed hump) will typically be 15 mph and for a 3'' reducer it will typically be 20 mph. C. Speed Bumps are no longer legal on City streets. D. An asphalt reducer (speed hump) will be stripped according to the "chevron" design and will span the width of the street.

A. When encountering speed humps with missing signs, send a report to CITY PLANNING. B. 4 [hero] 15 [dull], 3 [ham] 20 [noisy]

17. It is 1030 hours on a beautiful hot summer day, your Engine Company is out getting the meal when a civilian approaches the rig in a panic claiming she just saw a man jump from a nearby pier into the water and disappear. Realizing this could be a possible dive operation, you had your company take the following actions. All are correct, except? (Water Rescue 5, 2.2, 2.3, 3.4, 3.5, 3.7) A. You had the witness show you where she last saw the victim prior to submerging. Once you visually identified this point, you had the witness report over to NYPD to give a statement. B. Your Engine Company should prepare to assist Rescue Divers; a logical assignment would be to stretch a charged hose line for cooling back-up divers or decontamination. C. The members of your company removed CFR equipment and staged near the exit point. D. You instructed your ECC to grab the binoculars out of the cab and keep a look out for maritime traffic and maintain visual contact with members in the water.

A. You had the witness show you where she last saw the victim prior to submerging. Once you visually identified this point, you had the witness keep their reference point throughout the operation.

18. The IC orders you to place "DANGER DO NOT ENTER" tape in order to define the boundaries of the potential blast zone. Where would you find this tape? (AUC 360) A. Any on scene unit, it has been issued to all field units. B. Battalion and Division vehicles only C. Rescue and Squad Only D. Battalion vehicles only

B

3. At the scene of a 10-77 in a building under construction the IC tells you and your ladder company to shut down the sprinkler system. You would be most correct to follow the piping colored _____ and shut the valve handles colored _______? (AUC 5 Ch2,Add2, - Pg3) A. Red, Red B. Red, Yellow C. Green, Green D. Yellow, Green

B

4. Which one of the following tools should be considered a last resort when removing a windshield? (Disentanglement Sec 11.3 page 20) A. Beluga Auto Glass Knife B. Axe C. Sawzall D. Windshield Saw

B

12. How many of the following choices are indicative of a Major Gas Emergency? (Sec. 7.1) 1) Serious damage to a minor component of the gas infrastructure 2) 10% LEL or greater inside, 5% LEL or greater outside 3) 20% LEL or greater in an unvented, subsurface structure (manhole, sewer) 4) Gas present in two or more subsurface structures (manhole, sewer) 5) Indications of gas migrating into a building from an outside source 6) Gas leaking inside of a structure and the controlling valve cannot be located or is inoperable 7) Gas leaking or present inside a wall or void in a structure A. 6 B. 5 C. None D. All

B 1) Serious damage to a MAJOR component of the gas infrastructure 2) 10% LEL or greater inside or outside (Recent Change)

14. Units are drilling on the inflatable water rescue hose at multi-unit drill. How many of the following points are correct? (Water Rescue 2, Add 1) 1) The hose should not be filled directly from the cylinder; Supply air from a SCBA or FAST Pak using the Schrader connection. 2) All connections shall be spanner tight after filling with air. 3) Both the apparatus air outlet and a 45 min cylinder will fill five lengths of hose in 1 minute. 4) Each length of hose when used in a straight line can support 10 people. 5) When deploying air filled hose for rescue purposes it shall be attached to a LSR. 6) Every company, including Battalions, carry the blue water rescue fittings. A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

B 1) The hose should not be filled directly from the cylinder; Supply air from a SCBA or FAST Pak using the HANSEN FITTING. (Schrader Connection is for SOC units only) 2) All connections shall be spanner tight BEFORE filling with air. 3) Correct as written 4) Each length of hose when used in a LOOP can support 10 people. 5) When deploying air filled hose for rescue purposes it shall be attached to a UTILITY ROPE. 6) Every company, including Battalions, carry the YELLOW water rescue fittings

16. Manhattan units are operating at the scene of a building with dangerous levels of Carbon Monoxide. While searching the cellar of a 4-story brownstone, the Lieutenant glances at his CO meter which reads as follows: "rrr". A knowledgeable officer would know this means what? (HM4 Add 2--Note pg.4) A. This is an error code, and the meter will not function properly. B. CO levels above 2000 PPM, as the concentration to be measured is too high. C. CO levels above 999 PPM, and meter shut down is imminent. D. The concentration of CO has exceeded the meters capabilities, return to fresh air and turn the meter off then back on to reset.

B 2000 [knees houses] rrr A,C,D are completely made up.

9. A series of three large "+" symbols under the O2 icon on the Altair Gas Meter indicate which situation? (Add2 5.3) A. Oxygen levels above 23.5% B. Oxygen levels above 30% C. Normal Oxygen levels, safe to operate D. The Meter has entered a locked alarm state

B 30% [mass]

29. Queens dispatchers are receiving multiple calls for a large volume of smoke in the area; they transmit the box for three engines, two trucks and a BC. E100, E200, E300, L400, L500, and BC600 all arrive to find a fully involved Lithium-Ion storage container. L400's initial report is as follows: "L400 to Command: We have a total of 5 outdoor containers, one of which is fully involved exposing a second container. The FDC and ESTOP are approximately 25 feet from the container that is on fire." Based on this report from L400, the only correct action can be found in which choice? (HM 19--Page 6) A. Lt. Lemon immediately ordered E100 to stretch and charge a hose line to the FDC. B. BC Bongino gave his approval for L500 to shut down the ESTOP. C. L400 under the command of Capt. Toobin, had his OV and Roof FF's attempt to open the container door so E100 could extinguish the fire using the reach of the stream. D. Lt. Acosta of E200 directed his members to cool adjacent and surrounding containers using a 2 ½ handline equipped with an Aquastream Fog Nozzle.

B A. Only the IC can do this. Chief on scene and FDC closer than 25 feet. C. This is just completely wrong. Only open container cabinets after the fire has been extinguished AND we have consulted with the subject matter expert. D. Lt. Acosta of E200 directed his members to cool adjacent and surrounding containers using a 2 ½ handline WITH NARROW FOG OR STRAIGHT STREAM.

6. You are driving home from work in your car listening to Fire Tech recordings because that's what a prudent student would do. Glancing out the window you see a tanker truck with a red diamond shaped placard. Within this placard is a picture of a flame and the numbers "1075" and the number "2". What does the number "2" denote? (HM--2, 2.1) A. Explosives B. Compressed Gases C. Flammable Gases D. Poisons

B ACRO: Every Good Lt SOP Requires Coordinated Members

22. All members entering any confined space must be breathing air from their SCBA or an APR at all times until the atmosphere is verified safe. The only way to detect an oxygen deficient atmosphere is using SOC's specialized meters. In most cases there will be obvious signs of the lack of oxygen such as a visible cloud or oxidation on inner walls. True or False? (Confined Space Sec. 2.1) A. True or B. False

B All members entering any confined space must be breathing air from their SCBA (we don't use APR in confined spaces) at all times until the atmosphere is verified safe. The only way to detect an oxygen deficient atmosphere is using O2 meter (Altair) In most cases there will be NOT obvious signs of the lack of oxygen

3. Members notice a vehicle parked in front of quarters with a placard "1971". A sharp member studying for the upcoming Lt's exam explains the vehicle in question is powered by compressed natural gas (CNG). This sharp student made four comments about CNG powered vehicles but was incorrect in which choice? (HM 1--4.2.1) A. CNG cylinders are subject to failure like any other cylinder, but they will not BLEVE (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion) because CNG is not stored as a liquid. B. All vehicles throughout the country are required to have at least one placard if they are powered by CNG. C. CNG powered vehicles registered with the NYC Fire Department must have placards on the front and rear bumper for easy identification. D. CNG powered vehicles registered in the State of New York outside the five boroughs are likely to have a single placard on the rear bumper only.

B All vehicles registered outside of NYS will follow their local laws. Some states may have no requirements.

8. On July 18th, 2007, Manhattan fire companies operated at the scene of a major High Energy Line Break. These types of emergencies, although rare can cause severe property damage and loss of life. Members must be familiar with procedures at these types of events. When dealing with High Energy Line Breaks in the street, which choice is incorrect? (Steam Sec 4.2 pg.3,4) A. Steam main breaks must be treated as Haz-Mat incidents. B. Asbestos has been removed from both Con Ed steam manholes and underground piping. C. Prevent fleeing occupants from entering directly into the Exclusion Zone. D. HELB's create a considerable amount of noise. Radio and verbal communication in the immediate vicinity of the release may be ineffective.

B Asbestos has been removed from both Con Ed steam manholes BUT REMAINS IN SOME UNDERGROUND PIPING

17. Of the following four points concerning CPC units, which is incorrect? (HM 5--1.1, 4.2) A. Their main purpose is to assist Haz Mat trained companies. They will perform search, rescue and victim removal. B. Under extreme circumstances CPC units may perform mitigation only if a higher trained unit is on scene to supervise them. C. CPC units are trained and certified to operate in Level A and Level B protective clothing. They may also perform decontamination if necessary. D. There is no minimum staffing requirements for CPC units. The dispatcher shall call enough units to the scene so at least one CPC trained Officer and five CPC trained firefighters are responding.

B CPC units never do mitigation.

23. A sharp engine company chauffeur should be familiar with setting the rig up for an effective decon operation. Placing two pumpers parallel to each other greatly increases our decon capabilities. While discussing this with members at drill, the ECC made the following four statements. Choose the incorrect statement. (HM 7—2.4.4) A. Two pumpers should be approximately 25 feet apart with control panels facing the outside. B. Engine Chauffeurs should monitor pressure to ensure it is not too forceful. Operating pressure should be 60 - 100 psi with 60 - 80 psi being optimal. C. Place an Aquastream fog nozzle on each pumpers discharge gate. Additional discharges and nozzles can be used. D. Adding a Tower Ladder with a Turbomaster fog nozzle will produce a water spray shower area approximately 20 feet wide and 30 feet long.

B Engine Chauffeurs should monitor pressure to ensure it is not too forceful. Operating pressure should be 50-80 psi [laws-face]

21. Performing decontamination on one of our own members can be a daunting task. It must be done with the utmost care and detail, while also monitoring on-air time. From the choices below, which is the last piece of PPE that should be removed? (HM 7--2.3) A. SCBA harness B. Facepiece C. Gloves D. Pants/Boots

B Facepiece always comes off last.

9. Ladder 100 is operating at the scene of a High Energy Line Break inside a building. The members of Ladder 100 know these incidents can range from a leaking radiator to a life-threatening high-pressure steam riser rupture. Ladder 100 operated correctly in each choice except which one? (Steam Sec. 4.4) A. Operating in live steam is a debilitating operation. The departments SCBA policy should be followed as superheated steam in a confined area will render the atmosphere oxygen deficient. B. Inside the steam control room will be numerous pipes and valves. Do not shut valves in this room. In an emergency, members may close the building shut off valve located outside. C. The Officer of Ladder 100 made certain the affected area and adjoining areas were searched due to the possibility of steam infiltrating these areas. D. In an emergency, members may shut the Inside Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed. If possible, wait for Con Ed steam personnel.

B Inside the steam control room will be numerous pipes and valves. Do not RANDONLY shut valves in this room. In an emergency, members may close the building shut off valve located INSIDE. We do not shut valves located outside

4. Ladder 100 responds first due to an outside odor of gas in front of a large H-Type Multiple Dwelling. While investigating the reported leak, Ladder 100 takes the following actions. They were correct in all except which choice? (Sec. 4.4.2, 6.4) A. Ladder 100's Officer turned on the gas meter (Altair) and gas detector (Sensit) in a clean environment as both must be used in order to properly investigate all gas emergencies. B. Ladder 100 OV reports a slight odor of gas emanating from the peck vent on the exposure 2 side of the building. Since this is normal, no further action is needed. C. Upon hearing the report of a peck vent from Ladder 100 OV, Ladder 100's Officer knew this building must be supplied by either medium or high pressure. D. After conferring with the on-scene gas utility representative and determining their services were no longer required, Ladder 100 transmitted a 10-18 for a 10-40 code 1

B Ladder 100 OV reports a slight odor of gas emanating from the peck vent on the exposure 2 side of the building. There must be no odor of gas from a peck vent. If there is you must determine the source.

5. Although uncommon in New York City, methanol fueled vehicles may still enter the city from other jurisdictions. It is important members have a general idea of how to operate at a methanol emergency should one occur. Choose the incorrect statement concerning methanol. (HM 1--5.2, 5.4.2) A. Methanol is a highly volatile flammable liquid with a flash point of 54 degrees Fahrenheit. B. Methanol's vapors are very similar to Natural Gas as they are lighter than air. Should an emergency occur, do not use water. Let the methanol dissipate naturally into the atmosphere. C. When ignited, methanol burns cleanly and will produce a pale blue flame that may be difficult to see in bright sunlight. D. Purple K is very effective on methanol fires; an alternative would be to dilute the methanol below 20% using large amounts of water. Be sure to have an adequate water supply.

B Methanol's vapors are NOT similar to Natural Gas as they are HEAVIER than air. Should an emergency occur, YOU CAN use water TO DISSIPATE VAPORS. A. 54 [lawyer] D. 20% [noisy]

13. E100 and L200 are responding to an alarm ringing on the 3rd floor of a 6-story multiple dwelling. L200 reaches the third floor, and the officer's Drager PAC CO meter starts to alarm. CO readings are 55PPM in the hallway and the alarm is coming from apartment 3B. The officer of L200 orders the door forced to 3B, and after a thorough search L200 finds an unconscious victim in a rear bedroom. EMS arrives and informs E100 the patient is a red tag and will be transported to the hospital. In this situation, The Officer of E100, who is the IC must now make a notification through the Borough Dispatcher to the? (HazMat 4, Sec 5.1.2) A. Bureau of Fire Prevention B. Fire Marshalls C. Department of Buildings D. PTSU

B NEW: For fatality or serious injury associated with CO, the IC must notify BFI through the Brough dispatcher. Fire Marshals is BFI.

12. E100 and L200 respond to a CO detector activation in apt 6L. After an investigation, L200 determines the cause of the activation to be a low battery. L200 instructs the occupant that the detector will need to be replaced as batteries of the replaceable type are no longer legal for use in NYC. In this situation, E100 should transmit a 10-18 for a? (Comm 8 — Pg 12) A. 10-38 No Code B. 10-38 Code 1 C. 10-35 No Code D. 10-35 Code 1

B NOTE: Choice A doesn't even exist

2. Lieutenant Size-Up returned to the firehouse from the scene of a Major Gas Emergency and wants to go over several points with her members. She made the following four statements but was incorrect in which one? (Sec. 4.3, 4.4) A. Con Edison main valves have ID numbers on tags inside of the valve cover. B. National Grid main valve covers have an ID number stamped on the North side of the collar, underneath the cover. These numbers will be clearly visible as they are marked with reflective paint. C. Curb valves are usually found on the sidewalk side of the curb and these valves shut the gas supply to the entire building. They are usually recessed in from the curb and are covered with a 4" X 4" square or round cover. D. "EFV" stamped on a tag near the service meter indicates an "excess flow valve". This should limit or stop the excess flow down pressure from it.

B National Grid main valve covers have an ID number stamped on the North side of the collar, underneath the cover. These numbers MAY BE DIFFICULT TO SEE.

11. You are working your first tour as a new Lieutenant in a water rescue company. Members are discussing riding positions at roll call. The senior member informs you that her company assigns the OV position as the Primary Water Rescuer. Do you agree with this company policy? (Water Rescue 2, Sec 2.1) A. Agree B. Disagree

B Not recommended that primary water rescuer be assigned according to position. Pick someone at roll call, perferably a former life guard/rescue swimmer. Remember to look closely whether they are asking about a Water rescue unit vs a water safety unit.

17. You are the Lt, working a Saturday 9x6 tour and you decide to visit a local building under construction that was the scene of a recent 10-75 for multi-unit drill. The members start discussing the actions taken by the engine regarding the air pressurized standpipe. Indicate the only incorrect action below. (Eng 8 Add 4 - 2.5, 2.6, 2.7, 2.8) A. Signs are required indicating the standpipe is pressurized and the location of the manual air release valves. B. Upon arrival the ECC noticed signs indicating the standpipe was pressurized. She then loosened the cap on the FDC and heard air escaping under pressure. She immediately stopped cap removal and notified the IC. C. The Control FF after reaching the floor outlet removed the cap and opened the standpipe outlet to expedite air removal from the system. Once water was flowing, they closed the outlet. The system is now functioning as a standard manual wet standpipe. D. If breakaway caps or any other non-screw in type caps are noticed on the FDC, this would be indicative of a standpipe not pressurized with air.

B She saw the sign. Locate the manual air relief valve and open it. Then attempt to loosen a cap. Some air escaping is normal.

5. As a newly promoted Lt, you would know when encountering unusual building characteristics, it is permissible to stretch the initial hose line from an outlet located on the same floor as the fire only if the on-scene IC grants approval. (Eng 8 - 4.4, 4.5) A. True or B. False

B Should be in CIDS and Approved by the division commander

4. Engine 100 is operating at a 10-77 in a 65-story Class 1 Multiple Dwelling with a gravity tank supplying the standpipe system. Fire is confirmed to be on the 26th floor and your ECC is having trouble connecting the initial supply line to the FDC. Which of the following points is incorrect? (Eng 8 - 3.9.4, 3.9.7, 3.9.9, 3.9.10) A. The ECC supplied the system with 230 psi B. The Control FF knew there may be insufficient head pressure available at the 25th floor outlet from the gravity tank until the ECC supplies the system at the correct pressure. C. When supplying the standpipe system, the ECC should switch the pumps from Volume to Pressure. D. The ECC should generally supply the system with a pressure of 105 psi, plus an additional 5 psi per floor elevation. This is measured to the floor where the fire is located, not the outlet to be used.

B The Control FF knew there may be insufficient head pressure available at the 46th floor outlet from the gravity tank until the ECC supplies the system at the correct pressure. Note: Book says gravity tank may not supply enough pressure at the upper 20 floors of the building.

1. You are a Lieutenant working the 6x9 in a busy Brooklyn engine company when one of the members notifies you of an emergency in quarters that requires the safe and orderly evacuation of the firehouse. When instituting the FDNY's Emergency Action Plan, you would be correct in each of the following except? (SB 4—Chapter 1) A. Once alerted, all members reported to the apparatus floor. B. You notified the dispatcher of the emergency via telephone, voice alarm or street box. C. The apparatus was moved to a safe location outside the firehouse, only if safety permits. D. All personnel were accounted for, and you ensured they were in a safe location outside the firehouse.

B The HOUSEWATCH FF the dispatcher of the emergency via telephone, voice alarm or street box.

4. E111 & L222 respond to a report of a vehicle fire at 1300 hours. On arrival L222 determines the vehicle on fire is a UPS truck fueled by compressed natural gas (CNG). E111 & L222 should read the new Haz-Mat updates as they were only correct in which one choice below? (4.5.2) A. Locating the emergency shut off is straight forward. Each vehicle will have a sign "Emergency Shut OFF" located on the inside of the passenger door denoting the location of the valve. B. A safe perimeter of 100-ft was established around the vehicle. Since units were unable to stop the flow of CNG, the gas was allowed to burn, and units knew this could take up to a half hour depending on the size of the tanks. C. Because the flow of gas could not be stopped, E100 cooled the exposed CNG cylinders with a 2 ½" hose line to prevent catastrophic cylinder failure (high pressure gas rupture). D. When PRD's (Pressure Relief Device) have activated they will open and close as the pressure within the cylinder fluctuates. The resulting fire may go out and reignite several times.

B 100 [tissues] A. Locating the emergency shut off is straight forward. Each vehicle will have a sign "Emergency Shut OFF" located on the OUTSIDE of the VEHICLE denoting the location of the valve. C. Because the flow of gas could not be stopped, E100 ALLOWED THE FIRE TO BURN. Do not apply water to CNG cylinders as this may prevent the relief valve from activating. D. When PRD's (Pressure Relief Device) have activated they will NOT RESET AND CLOSE. The resulting fire may go out and reignite several times. THIS IS A NEW SECTION. RECOMMENDED READING.

19. How many of the following tools are intrinsically safe? (Sec. 9.1.2) 1) Motorola APX8000 Radios 2) FD Issued Flashlights 3) Altair Gas Meter 4) Sensit Gas Detector 5) Thermal Imagining Cameras 6) Pak Tracker 7) Megaphones 8) Glow Sticks A. None B. 4 C. 5 D. 7

C 1) Motorola APX8000 Radios 2) FD Issued Flashlights (MUST BE FD ISSUED) 3) Altair Gas Meter 4) Sensit Gas Detector 8) Glow Sticks

16. How many of the following points concerning Air Pressurized Standpipe are correct? (Eng 8 Add 4 - 1.2, 1.3, 2.2, 2.4, 2.5) 1. If air pressure drops below 25 psi an alarm will sound 2. Air pressure above 45 psi will sound an alarm & transmit an alarm to the central station 3. When the alarm sounds all construction must cease except concrete and torch operations (hot work) in progress 4. The number of air release valves required shall release all air in the system in under 5 minutes 5. Once the standpipe is supplied with water, an available ECC shall locate the air compressor on-site and deactivate it. 6. All Fire Dept Connections (Standpipe, Sprinkler & Combination) shall be marked with a sign and a green light at night. A. 1 B. 3 C. None D. 5

C 1. If air pressure drops below A PREDETERMINED NUMBER AN ALARM WILL SOUND. 2. Air pressure above 25 psi will sound an alarm AT THE SITE ONLY. 3. When the alarm sounds all construction must cease except concrete POURING in progress 4. The number of air release valves required shall release all air in the system in under 3 minutes [ham] 5. Once the standpipe is supplied with water. Air compressor on-site SHUTS OFF AUTOMATICALLY 6. All Fire Dept Connections (Standpipe, Sprinkler & Combination) shall be marked with a sign and a RED light at night.

5. While discussing the characteristics of steam at drill, it would be prudent to review this bulletin as your members made only one correct statement. Indicate the correct statement. (Steam Page 1, 2.1, 2.2, 3.1) A. Cast Iron slabs typically cover steam vaults with access manholes placed in pairs. B. Steam is invisible, the pale blue mist is the condensate that forms when steam cools. C. Water slugs form in high pressure steam pipes when water meets the outside of the pipes. These water slugs can travel at speeds of up to 200 mph and cause severe damage rupturing the supply piping. D. Steam pressures in supplied buildings can be as high as 170 psi and reach temperatures as high as 2,000 degrees F.

C 200 [noses] A. CONCRETE slabs typically cover steam vaults with access manholes placed in pairs. B. Steam is invisible, the pale WHITE mist is the condensate that forms when steam cools. D. Steam pressures in supplied buildings can be as high as 170 [taxi] psi and reach temperatures as high as 350 [meals] degrees F.

10. How many statements below are correct? (Eng 8 Add 1 - 1.1, 1.2, 1.3.1, 1.4, 2.1.2, 2.1.6) 1. High Pressure Engines have two-stage pumps, one high pressure discharge elbow and can pump at pressures up to 600 psi 2. 3rd Stage Engines have two high pressure discharge elbows, and can pump at pressures up to 700psi 3. High Pressure Supply Hose is painted red, and the fittings are painted white. 4. High Pressure Pumping is operating at discharge pressures over 250psi. 5. No more than two connected lengths of High-Pressure supply hose should be stretched to the FDC. 6. All unused gates and outlets must be closed and capped. A. None B. All C. 5 D. 3

C 4. High Pressure Pumping is operating at discharge pressures over 300psi.

1. It is a busy day in a Brooklyn engine when you receive a ticket for a fire in a new building under construction. Fire is reported on the 25th floor, and after consultation with on-site personnel you determine the working deck to be the 28th floor. A knowledgeable Lt would inform their members the standpipe outlet should reach at least the _____ floor? (AUC5 Chapter 2, Add2) A. 17th B. 18th C. 24th D. 25th

C 40 feet or 4 floors below the working deck

3. Safety Concerns at Buildings Under Construction was just recently released, and is full of good information for any test writer. Of the following four points, correct information can be found in which choice? (SB7, Chapter 5, 1.2,1.3,1.6,2.9,2.15,) A. Precast concrete construction presents serious fire and collapse hazards that members may encounter due to the potential for lightning fire spread that can occur in the formwork system. B. When encountering small fires involving wood forms and shoring of newly poured forms, units can operate hose lines from the safety of stairwells. This presents no risk to members operating. C. It is possible that units may observe reshoring on the floor below the most recently poured floor, even hours after new concrete was poured. D. Whether a minor fire or a significant one, the removal of supporting timbers of formwork during overhaul can only be approved by the on-scene Deputy Chief.

C A. CAST IN PLACE construction presents serious fire and collapse hazards that members may encounter due to the potential for lightning fire spread that can occur in the formwork system. B. When encountering small fires involving wood forms and shoring of newly poured forms, units can operate hose lines from the safety of stairwells. This MAY PRESENT AN UNACCEPTABLE RISK. D. FDNY Members should not remove the supporting timbers of formwork after extinguishing a small fire.

8. You receive the following CIDS info while responding to an alarm: MD 16STY 100x200 CL2 STAIR A ENCLOSED WITH STDP STAIR B OPEN LOBBY TO ROOF FDC ON 2&4 SIDE E100 E200 E300 arrive in this order to a fire showing from the 3rd floor windows. The most correct answer can be found in choice? (Eng 8 - 7.1, 7.2, 7.3, 7.4.5A) A. E100 decides to hand stretch from the apparatus using 2 ½ '' hose up the A stairway B. E100's officer notified E300 that they stretched from the apparatus. E300 now knows the second hose line must also be a hand stretch from the apparatus. C. E200 assisted E100 stretching the first hose line from the apparatus, in doing so they decided to leave their standpipe equipment on the rig. D. If E300 decides to stretch a second hose line to the floor above it must be from the standpipe. For a fire on the 4th floor or above the standpipe shall be used.

C A. E100 decides to hand stretch from the apparatus using 2 ½ '' hose up the B stairway. (leave enclosed for evacuation, only two here. one open, one enclosed) B. E100's officer notified E200 that they stretched from the apparatus. E300 now knows the second hose line CAN STRETCH FROM THE STANDPIPE OR RIG. D. Completely made up.

21. Which point below concerning Suspended Scaffold Emergencies is most correct? (Scaffold 5.1, 5.4, 7.1, Figure 11 Pg14) A. If a hoist motor is overheated from an overloaded scaffold, allow it to cool for 5 minutes B. Handie-talkies shall never be lowered to stranded workers as they will not know how to use them C. A common feature found in new High-Rise construction is Multiple Building Maintenance Units at different levels. D. Glass cutting shall only be performed by SOC Support Ladders, Rescues or Squads.

C A. If a hoist motor is overheated from an overloaded scaffold, allow it to cool for 15 minutes B. Handie-talkies CAN be lowered to stranded workers. D. Glass cutting shall only be performed by Rescues or Squads.

8. You are attending Haz-Mat refresher at the rock when the instructor makes four statements. Having studied Haz Mat for hours on end in anticipation of this class you know only one statement to be correct. (HM 2--7) A. If a truck is carrying 1000 pounds of a particular material it must have a placard on the outside. B. If the product in question is fuming, immediately apply large quantities of water using master streams from a safe distance. C. If the incident involves the derailment of railroad tank cars, Haz-Mat Co.1 must be called in all situations regardless of damage. D. Containers full of product are always more dangerous than empty ones.

C A. If a truck is carrying OVER 1000 [diseases] pounds of a particular material it must have a placard on the outside. B. If the product in question is fuming, DO NOT USE WATER TILL A PROPER ASSESTMENT CAN BE MADE. D. EMPTY CONTAINERS MAY BE MORE DANGEROUS DUE TO THE BUILD UP OF FUMES

25. Which of the following chemicals would you expect to have a fish or garlic odor? (HM 11--Pg 4 Chart) A. Phosgene B. Hydrogen Sulfide C. Phosphine D. Carbon Monoxide

C A. Musky hay B. Rotten eggs D. has no ordor

20. During scaffold emergencies the Roof FF is key to a safe and successful operation. You should drill more with your Roof Firefighter because they only made one correct decision, which can be found in choice? (Scaffold Sec. 3.2, 4.2, 5.2, 5.3, 5.4) A. The Roof FF should report to the roof in all situations as anchor points will always be found on the roof. B. Be sure to inspect the worker's safety lines making sure they are properly tied off. If any roof rigging is suspect, secure it with Life Saving Rope. C. When the Roof FF realized the scaffold had stalled because the breaker had tripped, he did not restore power until instructed to do so from units operating below. D. After determining the wire rope hoist line was jammed within the unit, the Roof FF advised the Lieutenant to let the motor cool for at least 15 minutes then have the worker push the reset button on the hoist.

C A. The Roof FF should make their way to the anchor points. It may not be on the roof, it may be on set back or building maintenance units. B. Be sure to inspect the worker's safety lines making sure they are properly tied off. If any roof rigging is suspect, secure it with UTILITY ROPE. (Utility rope for tools; LSR for People) D. After determining the wire rope hoist line was jammed within the unit, DO NOT USE THE HOIST. NOTE: IF the wire hoist is simply OVER HEATED then let it cool at least 15 [dull] minutes and then have the worker push the reset button on the hoist.

7. While out getting the meal, the junior member notices steam emanating from a tall vent stack in the street. This particular stack has a blue stripe on the top of it. The member inquires about what she is looking at and you correctly answered her by stating? (Steam Sec 4.3) A. The steam seen rising from the stack is usually the result of a HELB and should not be approached. B. Con Edison places vent stacks over leaking pipes, the blue stripe indicates this was a major steam leak. C. The blue stripe indicates that the steam is the result of a water leak, not a leaking steam main. D. Blue or Orange stripes can be found on Con Ed vent stacks, this will indicate recent work in the street, usually within the past 24 hours.

C A. The steam seen rising from the stack is NORMAL. B. Con Edison places vent stacks over leaking pipes. D. This statement was completely made up.

26. E300 responds to a medical emergency for an unknown condition. After contacting the caller in Apartment 2F, she states her boyfriend (a 22-year-old) is passed out in the back bedroom. During patient assessment your members observe pinpoint pupils, low blood pressure and hypoventilation. You now suspect an overdose of fentanyl; which action listed below is incorrect? (HM 18--3, 4, 4e, 5.1) A. Members removed the patient from the bedroom to the living room, as the bedroom is the area members believe the drug use took place. The Lieutenant ensured any remaining product was removed from the patient's skin and clothing. B. Because the patient had a respiratory rate of 8/minute, E300 administered Naloxone via the Mucosal Atomizer, providing 1mg/ml in each nostril for a total of 2mg/ml. C. After 5 minutes the patients respiratory rate had only risen to 12/minute, so E300 repeated a second dose of naloxone via the Mucosal Atomizer Device (MAD). D. E300 notified the dispatcher that they will be out of service for decontamination, and members showered back at quarters due to the potential exposure to fentanyl.

C After 5 minutes the patients respiratory rate had only risen to 12/minute, so E300 DID NOT GIVE a second dose of naloxone via the Mucosal Atomizer Device (MAD). RESPIRATORY RATE IS GOOD ENOUGH. 10 OR BELOW AND THEN YOU GIVE THAT SECOND DOSE. FIRST DOSE IF 9 OR LESS. SECOND DOSE AT 10 OR BELOW.

11. Fire Department units are on scene of a possible major gas emergency. First alarm units have attempted to shut the appliance valve and the interior gas riser valve but have had no success. Their next course of action in order of priority should be to? (Sec. 6.7.3) A. Locate the Head of Service Valve for the gas utility company; never shut this valve without approval of the on-scene BC. B. Shut the Main Valve in the street C. Shut the Master Meter Valve D. Continue to meter the affected area, ventilate and evacuate if necessary. FD units shall not shut valves located beyond interior gas riser valves.

C Appliance valve>Interior Gas Riser>individual meter valve>>Master meter valve>>head of service valve>>curb valve>>Main valve FDNY can not shut off main valve Acro: An Interesting Individual Must Have Charisma Mainly

24. E100 receives an EMS run for an unconscious male in a car at 0300 hours. After transmitting a 10-84, members approach the vehicle and observe warning signs of a possible chemical suicide. The Officer has the ECC transmit a 10-80 Code 1 and ensures the response of NYPD. Which action taken by E100 would be contradictory to department policy? (HM 11- 4.1) A. Keep the exposure time of operating members to a minimum, while ensuring full PPE and SCBA is used. B. The Lieutenant had members stretch a charged 2 ½ hose line to be used primarily for decontamination. This line may also be used for vapor dispersal and fire suppression. C. During patient assessment members notice a small bucket on the passenger seat that is off gassing. The Lieutenant ordered his members to remove the bucket from the vehicle reducing exposure to the patient and members operating. D. Prior to entry and patient care, members used the reach of a six-foot hook to ventilate the vehicles rear windshield.

C During patient assessment members notice a small bucket on the passenger seat that is off gassing. The Lieutenant ordered his members NOT TO TOUCH THE BUCKET.

2. Which of the following four colors is incorrect? (Eng 8 - 3.7.2) A. Red = Standpipe System B. Yellow = Combination System (sprinkler/standpipe) C. Green = Non-Automatic Sprinkler System D. Aluminum = Perforated Pipe

C Green = Automatic Sprinkler System

15. Ladder 100 a Water Rescue Unit responds first due to a reported child who fell through the ice on a cold winter day. Ladder 100 arrives to find a 10-year-old boy holding on to the ice. The Lieutenant of Ladder 100 notifies the dispatcher of a confirmed victim and requests additional resources. Ladder 100 performs this rescue flawlessly in each choice except which one? (Water Rescue 3, 3.3, 3.3.4, 4.3.5 (F)) A. When attempting the reach method, Ladder 100 used a NYC Parks Department Ladder that was already on scene. When this did not work, they tried with the inflatable water rescue hose used in a straight line. B. Ladder 100's Roof FF attempted the throw method using the 75' throw rope. When attempting this, the member's dominant hand will throw the rope over and past the victim. C. Ladder 100's Primary Rescuer wearing a Cold-Water Suit and PFD approached the victim from the front. This will ensure proper communication between rescuer and victim; as well as aid in determining the mental status of the victim. D. Ladder 100's Officer realized the victim was beyond the reach of the 200-foot tether rope, so he instructed the Primary Tether to attach Ladder 100's search rope, extending their reach an additional 200 feet.

C Ladder 100's Primary Rescuer wearing a Cold-Water Suit and PFD approached the victim from the SIDE.

24. Engine 99 receives a ticket for an EMS run that states "Major Injury". After transmitting 10-84 via the MDT, members realize a Con-Ed worker has suffered a broken leg and is trapped at the bottom of a manhole. Engine 99 was incorrect in which action? (Confined Space Sec. 4, 4.1, 4.2, 4.3) A. Engine 99 gave full particulars to the dispatcher and requested additional resources. They also established communication with the victim without making entry. B. The Officer of Engine 99 used the Altair Digital Gas Meter to monitor the atmosphere inside the manhole. The Oxygen concentration was 21.5% which is a safe condition. C. Once Engine 99 verified the atmosphere was safe for entry, one member of Engine 99 entered the manhole attached to a Life Saving Rope to administer first aid. D. The members of Engine 99 ensured the area was clear for the positioning of a Tower Ladder Basket over the Manhole. The Tower Ladder is preferred over the Aerial Ladder due to its greater weight-supporting capacity, at least 1,000 lbs.

C Not life threatening, they should await personnel. Only enter for an extreme emergency.

18. Ladder 100 responds as the first due CPC Company to a report of white smoke emanating from a brief case in the subway. People exiting the subway system are complaining of symptoms. As the officer of Ladder 100 you quickly review some tactics with your members. Which one of the following tactics should be corrected? (HM 5--5.1, 6.1) A. As the first arriving CPC officer you will recommend an initial entry point into the Exclusion Zone to the IC. Then you will establish the CPC Unit Assembly Area adjacent to the entry point. B. You felt the situation entailed a complex entry, so you donned a chemical protective suit in order to properly supervise the unit's operation. C. The back-up team will be ready to assist at a moments notice. If the entry team reports multiple victims (three or more) the back-up team may enter the hot zone to assist with the victim removals. D. While searching for victims one of the entry team members collapse's and goes unconscious. The second entry team member immediately retreated to ensure notification was made to the back-up team of the need of an immediate rescue.

C The back-up team will be ready to assist at a moments notice. If the entry team reports multiple victims (three or more) the back-up team may NOT enter the hot zone to assist with the victim removals. BACK UP TEAM IS FOR MEMBERS ONLY.

15. Your unit has just received two new Drager Pac 6500 CO meters replacing the GasAlert Extreme CO meter. Members are in the kitchen discussing the many similarities and differences between the two. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? (HM4 Add 2--2.1, 2.4, 2.6,) A. When the concentration of CO in the atmosphere rises above 34 PPM the meter will signal a slow modulating tone every 1 second. B. A CO concentration above 99 PPM will signal a fast vibration every ½ second. C. When the CO concentration falls below 100 PPM the alarm will automatically turn off. D. The CO meter will always remain on, the on/off function has been disabled.

C When the CO concentration falls below 100 PPM the alarm will RETURN TO ALARM THRESHOLD.

28. E100, L200, and Battalion 300 respond to an alarm for an energy storage system. L200 locates signage at the Fire Dept Connection (FDC) and determines this is an alarm for an outdoor Lithium-Ion Storage Container. Battalion 300 confirms there is no fire or smoke showing but orders E100 and L200 to establish a Danger Zone. Which of the following actions taken at this alarm should be corrected? (HM 19--5) A. B300 ordered all members maintain a 50-foot radius from all container(s)/cabinet(s). B. E100 secured a positive water source, stretched a precautionary handline and stretched supply lines to the FDC. C. While conducting a scene size up L200 maintained a minimum distance of 100 feet from the containers exhaust fan opening which is usually located on the same side as the FDC. D. A 10-80 Code 1 radio signal was transmitted for a Haz-Mat response.

C While conducting a scene size up L200 maintained a minimum distance of 100 [tissues] feet from the containers exhaust fan opening which is usually located on the OPPOSITE side as the FDC. A. 50 [laws] NOTE: Always a 10-80-1 even if you have nothing showing. We use narrow fog or straight stream here. We do not enter cabinets or containers. No over hauling.

18. You are working a cold windy night tour in Ladder 16 in the great borough of Manhattan. The members are gathered around the rig talking about a recent scaffold emergency. Having never worked a scaffold emergency, you listen in but quickly realize Ladder 16 made one mistake which can be found in choice? (Scaffold Sec. 3.1, 5.2) A. One of the first things Ladder 16 did was cordon off the area below the scaffold to vehicular and pedestrian traffic. This must be done in all instances, no exceptions. B. At this box, the building had a side entrance that was out of the danger area. This was the entrance used by responding units. C. Engine 39 was first to arrive at this box, the Lieutenant quickly located building personnel to gather critical information. This information should be relayed to the first arriving Ladder (Ladder 16) as soon as possible. D. The Officer of Ladder 16 sent his OV and Roof FF's to the Anchor Points. They inspected the scaffold rigging/anchoring systems ensuring it was secure.

C. Engine 39 was first to arrive at this box, the Lieutenant quickly located building personnel to gather critical information. This information should be relayed to the first arriving IC, SQUAD, OR RESCUE as soon as possible.

5. The first priority at natural gas emergencies is to ensure there is not a Major Gas Emergency. Of the following points, which is not indicative of a Major Gas Emergency? (Sec. 5) A. 3% gas detected inside the walls of a 1sty 100 X 100 taxpayer. B. 10% LEL or greater inside or outside C. Gas present in one or more subsurface structures (manhole, sewer, etc.) D. Gas leaking from a manhole in the street, migrating into the basement of a private dwelling.

C. Gas present in TWO or more subsurface structures (manhole, sewer, etc.) A. Any amount in the wall B. 10% is a recent change D. Amount doesn't matter, it is that it is migrating from outside to inside

16. As Engine 100 is in route to a major gas emergency, Lieutenant Whitestone is going over tactics in his head. He was incorrect in which thought? (Sec. 9.2.1 , 9.2.4) A. Fog streams should not be used to dissipate natural gas that is venting outside of a structure. B. Units ordered to take a defensive position should stretch 2 ½'' hose or use large caliber streams. C. SOC companies have special training and tools in order to "plug" or "squeeze" a pipe with gas under pressure when a working valve is not available. When required a charged hose line may be used to protect SOC members placing the plug or operating the clamp. D. No area shall ever be considered "too rich to burn" as these areas, at some portion of the affected space, are in the explosive range.

C. UTILITY companies have special training and tools in order to "plug" or "squeeze" a pipe with gas under pressure when a working valve is not available. When required a charged hose line may be used to protect UTILITY COMPANY WORKERS placing the plug or operating the clamp.

13. Enroute to a 10-77 you notice the suffix "N" after your unit number "E100N". Engine 100 is the high-rise nozzle company assigned to this fire. E100 does not carry the HRN on their rig. Based on these facts E100 should be ________ and contact ________ to retrieve the HRN? (Eng 8 Add 3 - 2.2,) A. 4th due, dispatch B. 5th due, 1st BC C. 4th due, 1st BC D. 5th due, dispatch

D

13. You are the boss in the first arriving unit on scene of what you believe to be a Major Gas Emergency. As the first arriving officer, you are the Incident Commander. You correctly transmitted what signal to the dispatcher? (Sec. 7.3) A. 10-60 and 10-80 code 2 B. 10-76 specifying a Major Gas Emergency C. 10-60 and 10-80 no code D. 10-75 and 10-80 code 1

D

7. When it comes to Haz-Mat incidents, one of the highest priorities should be identifying the product involved. In order to verify shipping papers, we must first know who carries them as it pertains to the different modes of transport and the proper terminology. If the emergency involves a derailed train car, who would be carrying this paperwork? (HM 2--4.4) A. The "Bill of Lading" is kept in the cab within reach of the driver. B. The "Air Bill" is kept by the pilot C. The "Cargo Manifest" is kept by the master D. The "Waybill" is carried by the conductor in the engine

D

12. For a fire on the 82nd floor of a HRFPMD, your ECC would be correct to supply the standpipe with how much pressure? (Eng 8 Add 2 - Supply Chart) A. 300 psi B. 400 psi C. 460 psi D. 510 psi

D 105+ (5 x 81) remember your already at ground level 105 + (5 x number of floors going up). THIS IS NOT FOR OFFICE.

14. Members are in the kitchen discussing a recent fire where the high-rise nozzle was put into operation. Although not used frequently it is a tool that all members must know how to use. The most correct fact concerning this tool can be found in choice? (Eng 8 - 4.3) A. It can be supplied using 1 ¾'' or 2 ½'' hose. B. The design of the OST's enables the stream to reach in excess of 60 feet. C. The HRN may be used to extinguish fire vertically inside a building (Vertical Shaft) or on the outside of a building (EFIS Fire). D. With water flowing, 50psi at the tip will produce a flow of 225 gpm.

D 50 [laws] 225 [knowingly] ABC are for the COCKLOFT NOZZLE

22. Your engine company (E200) is special called to the scene of a Haz-Mat incident. The IC orders you to have your members operate a handline opposite E100 to create a large emergency mass decon shower area. You were correct to instruct your members perform which tactic below? (HM 7--2.4.3) A. Stretch a 1 ¾ handline equipped with an Aquastream fog nozzle at 60 - 100 psi. These two hose lines should be approximately 25 to 30 feet apart. B. Stretch a 2 ½ handline equipped with an Aquastream fog nozzle at 50 - 80 psi. These two hose lines should be exactly 35 feet apart. C. Stretch a 1 ¾ handline equipped with an Aquastream fog nozzle at 60 - 100 psi. These two hose lines should be exactly 35 feet apart. D. Stretch a 2 ½ handline equipped with an Aquastream fog nozzle at 50 - 80 psi. These two hose lines should be approximately 25 to 30 feet apart.

D 50-80 [laws-face], 25-30 [nail-mass] NOTE when transferring to anki remember you have photos in books.

4. First alarm units arrive at a reported fire in a new building under construction. The first to arrive Ladder Company can see smoke and flame issuing from the upper portion of this newly constructed building. The most recently poured floor is the 18th floor. The Officer of this unit has the following four thoughts as they prepare to operate at this fire; indicate the only correct thought. (SB7—Chapter 5) A. As the first ladder ascends to the upper floors, the officer notices 4''x 4''shoring timbers approximately eight feet apart. This indicates these floors are in the advanced curing stage, however if a responsible person is not on scene to verify exactly when the concrete was poured, treat these floors as a collapse hazard. B. Upon reaching the 16th floor, the officer instructed members to go no further. The floor below the most recently poured floor is not structurally sound. C. Shoring timbers placed four feet apart will be found on the 17th and 16th floors. D. A heavy fire load would most likely be found on the 16th floor, this is the floor typically used as the temporary storage floor. A fire on this floor will generate high heat, be fast moving and travel up through vertical openings.

D A. As the first ladder ascends to the upper floors, the officer notices 4''x 4''shoring timbers approximately eight feet apart. This indicates these floors are in the advanced curing stage. B. Upon reaching the 16th floor, the officer instructed members to go no further. The floor below the most recently poured floor is STRUCTURALLY SOUND. C. Shoring timbers placed four feet apart will be found on the 17th.

9. Which one of the following characteristics of Carbon Monoxide is correct? (HazMat 4--Sec. 2.1, 2.4, 2.5, 3.9) A. CO is a colorless, odorless, tasteless and non-toxic gas. B. CO has an auto ignition temperature of 1128 degrees, a lower explosive limit of 10% and an upper explosive limit of 74%. C. CO has a greater affinity for hemoglobin then O2. CO is about 270 times more attracted to hemoglobin than O2. D. The vapor density of CO is .968, making it slightly lighter than air. CO will rise with warm air and once cooled will disperse evenly throughout the room.

D A. CO is a colorless, odorless, tasteless and TOXIC gas. B. CO has an auto ignition temperature of 1128 [death knife] degrees, a lower explosive limit of 12.5% [downhill] and an upper explosive limit of 74%. [korea] C. CO has a greater affinity for hemoglobin then O2. CO is about 210 [hands] times more attracted to hemoglobin than O2.

27. After taking up from Brooklyn All Hands Box 1636, units have been informed there were large quantities of synthetic opioids being stored in the house. Members must now be properly decontaminated at the scene. Having just read Haz-Mat 18 you would know members operated properly in choice? (HM 18--5.2, 5.3.3, 5.3.4, 5.3.6) A. Contaminated PPE should be rinsed with copious amounts of water, removed and stored in double clear plastic bags. B. Any suspected skin contact with synthetic opioids should be lightly wetted and washed with a hypochlorite bleach solution. C. Contaminated PPE shall never be transported on the apparatus, leave all bagged items at the scene for pickup by the decon support unit. D. It is not necessary to properly identify the substance, all double sealed clear plastic bags shall be marked with the members name, assigned unit and nature of the contamination.

D A. Contaminated PPE should be LIGHTLY WETTED W/water, removed and stored in double clear plastic bags. B. Any suspected skin contact with synthetic opioids should be WASHED WITH COPIOUS WATER. THEN WASH WITH SOAP AND WATER. AVOID USING HAND DISINFECTANS AND BLEACH SOLUTIONS. C. Contaminated PPE shall BE DOUBLE BAGGED AND TRANSPORTED BACK TO QUARTERS.

13. It is 11:00 hours on Saturday morning and your Ladder Company is drilling on hand signals at water/ice rescues. Members would know the only correct hand signal to be used when the rescuer is ready to be pulled to shore can be found in choice? (Water Rescue 2, Sec. 6.1) A. One arm waving in the air B. One hand placed on top of the victim's head C. Both arms waving in the air D. One hand placed on top of the rescuer's head

D A. Indicates stop pulling

6. Knowing your tools is an important aspect of the fire department. While listening in on a drill you overheard the proby make four statements about tools used at gas emergencies. Choose the only correct comment made. (Sec. 6.4, Add 2 4.2) A. The Natural Gas Detector is the superior tool for locating leaks in appliances or supply piping. In a hallway with multiple locked doors, pass the detector around the doorframe starting as low as possible. B. The Natural Gas Meter is used to determine the amount of gas present in an area. It is the superior tool for identifying areas in which it is no longer safe to operate. This meter should be used in close proximity to the leak. C. While using the Natural Gas Meter, take readings at chest height in the room adjacent to the suspected leak. This is the % LEL to be reported to the IC. D. When the atmosphere is above 100% LEL, the Natural Gas Meter will display "XXX" under the COMB/EX icon and enter a locked alarm state. The Meter will shut down the LEL Sensor and no longer read natural gas levels. To reset, move to fresh air, turn off and then back on.

D A. The Natural Gas Detector is the superior tool for locating leaks in appliances or supply piping. In a hallway with multiple locked doors, pass the detector around the UPPER PORTION OF THE doorframe starting as HIGH as possible. B. The Natural Gas Meter is used to determine the amount of gas present in an area. It is the superior tool for identifying areas in which it is no longer safe to operate. This meter should NOT be used in close proximity to the leak. C. While using the Natural Gas Meter, take readings HIGH in the room of the suspected leak. This is the % LEL to be reported to the IC.

1. Which one of the following four points is correct concerning the properties of natural gas? (Sec. 3) A. The explosive range is always 5% - 15% B. It is comprised mainly of propane but also contains methane, ethane and nitrogen C. Natural Gas has a vapor density of (.968) making it slightly lighter than air. D. It is colorless and odorless; however, to aid in detection, mercaptan is added to natural gas as an odorant, giving it a "rotting" smell.

D A. The explosive range is 5% - 15% depending on the mixture B. It is comprised mainly of METHANE but also contains propane, ethane and nitrogen C. SIGNIFICANTLY lighter than air. Also that's the vapor density of CO.

11. In how many of the following situations would the IC request a utility company response to the scene of a CO alarm activation? (HazMat 4--Sec. 4.1.5) 1) CO levels under 35 PPM but greater than 9 PPM recorded by a meter. 2) Units shut down a gas boiler that is causing low levels of CO in a private dwelling. 3) No CO levels detected but an occupant is complaining of a headache. 4) Units have not detected any CO readings, but the IC feels a utility company response is warranted. A. None B. Two C. Three D. All

D All of these. Levels over 9ppm, Shut off gas appliance, someone is symptomatic or IC feels a response is required

1. Agree or Disagree with the following statement: "Standpipe systems will always be supplied with 3 ½'' hose and the first supply line shall be stretched to feed the standpipe or sprinkler system depending on the 1st due engine officers' orders." (Eng 8 - 3.1, 3.3) A. Agree or D. Disagree

D First line ALWAYS goes to the standpipe system

19. In how many of the following situations would a company be required to lower a lifesaving rope to a stranded worker? (Scaffold Sec. 3.2B, 5.3, 6.2) 1) One worker with a safety line present, stranded on a stalled level scaffold. 2) Two workers with safety lines present, stranded on an off level/hanging suspended scaffold. 3) One worker with no safety line present, stranded on a stalled level scaffold. 4) One worker with a suspect safety line, stranded on a stalled level scaffold. 5) Two workers on a stalled level scaffold that must disconnect from their safety lines in order to be hauled in through a window. A. None B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

D NEED BOTH SAFETY LINE AND LEVEL SCAFFOLD for us not to have to send the LSR. Also when you pulling him in through a window and you have to remove his safety line remember that you have to attach your own so he is not without a safety line. These require you to lower a LSR: 2) Two workers with safety lines present, stranded on an off level/hanging suspended scaffold. 3) One worker with no safety line present, stranded on a stalled level scaffold. 4) One worker with a suspect safety line, stranded on a stalled level scaffold. 5) Two workers on a stalled level scaffold that must disconnect from their safety lines in order to be hauled in through a window.

15. Engine 100 is in the process of deploying the High-Rise Nozzle at a 10-77. In which of the following choices did E100 operate incorrectly? (Eng 8 Add 3 - 5.8, 5.9, 5.12) A. The nozzle FF removed child gates but left the window intact as it is usually unnecessary to remove a window to properly operate the HRN. B. The back-up FF placed a shut off one length back from the nozzle, this will alleviate shutting down the line from the standpipe. C. The door FF ensured the supply line was attached to the nozzle before it was slid out the window. D. Once in position, the officer of E100 ordered the operation of the nozzle into the floor above; they then contacted the spotter ensuring the stream was knocking down fire and informed the IC of their progress.

D Officer can not order water flowing from a HRN. IC orders it.

19. Two members of a CPC unit are staffing the decontamination station at a Haz-Mat incident. These two members are discussing the actions carried out at this operation. Which of these points discussed was incorrect? (HM 5--6.2.2, 7.2, 8.1, 9.2) A. The standby position shall mean having both legs in the suit, outer boots & surgical gloves on. SCBA donned with the regulator disengaged from the facepiece and the left arm out of the suit. B. Noxious Stimulus Triage is used when encountering multiple unconscious victims, members shall nudge the victim to determine the level of responsiveness. C. CPC entry teams operating at large scale incidents with multiple victims focused their initial efforts on ambulatory victims prior to performing NST on non-ambulatory victims. Any victim with no response to NST shall be black tagged. D. The CPC unit officer ensured a decontamination station was established prior to any entry of his members into the hot or warm zones. This decontamination station's sole purpose will be the immediate and adequate decontamination of entry team members and under no circumstances shall they be used for civilians.

D The CPC unit officer ensured a decontamination station was established prior to any entry of his members into the hot or warm zones. This decontamination station's sole purpose will be the immediate and adequate decontamination of entry team members and THEY MAY PERFORM DECON ON CIVILIANS AS A SECONDARY TASK.

2. A newly promoted Lieutenant and the Company Commander were discussing the administrative duties as it pertains to the FDNY's Emergency Action Plan. In which choice below was the Lieutenant incorrect? (SB 4—Chapter 1) A. The on-duty Officer reviewed the plan with personnel during the first week of January, April, July and October of each year. B. When the company was assigned a new probie, the Officer ensured they reviewed the plan. C. Each time the plan was reviewed, the Officer made an entry in the company journal. D. The Company Commander made certain a copy of this directive was available for inspection by FDNY OSHA Unit inspectors.

D The Company Commander made certain a copy of this directive was available for inspection by NY State PESH Inspectors.

7. (Agree or Disagree) with the following statement. Engine 100 & Ladder 200 respond first due to an odor of gas in the basement of a private dwelling. Upon entering the house on the first floor, Ladder 100 smell's what they believe to be a slight odor of gas. When Ladder 100 reaches the basement, the Natural Gas Meter and Natural Gas Detector activate. Ladder 100 ventilates the area and is unable to locate the source of the leak. The odor dissipates after a few minutes, so a 10-18 for a 10-40 code 1 is transmitted and both companies go 10-8. (Sec 6.5, Bul 2 - P 19)

D When you have BOTH detector and meter readings you can not leave without mitigation or consultation with the utility company

15. Units performing rapid evacuation inside the potential blast zone would be incorrect in all choices except? (Sec. 9.1.3) A. Ladder 100 forced entry into Apartment 3A for a suspected life hazard. B. Conventional forcible entry using an Axe and Halligan should only be used for a known life hazard. C. Elevators inside the potential blast zone are not to be used by civilians. Only FDNY personnel may use these elevators when deemed necessary. D. Entry into an apartment should be conducted by use of the adz end of the Halligan or the use of the Hydra Ram.

D A. Ladder 100 forced entry into Apartment 3A for a KNOWN life hazard. B. Conventional forcible entry using an Axe and Halligan should never be used inside a potential blast zone. C. Elevators inside the potential blast zone are not to be used by civilians or FDNY personnel

12. Your 4 FF Engine Company (Water Safety Unit) is first to arrive at a confirmed person in the water. All other units will be delayed, and action must be taken to prevent the loss of life. Which action below is the only correct one? (Water Rescue 2, Sec.3.7.1, 3.7.2, 3.8.1, 3.8.5 Note) A. Upon receipt of alarm, members donned PFD's at quarters prior to boarding the apparatus. While wearing PFD's on the rig, seatbelts may be dispensed with. B. If a second victim appears, the secondary rescue team shall not enter the water. Their primary objective is to ensure the safety of the primary rescue team. C. At this operation the Lieutenant assumed the spotter position, as this is a key role in water rescue operations. The spotter's job is to keep sight of the primary rescuer and the spotter's tools include a HT, flashlight and binoculars. D. The primary rescuer of this unit left their bunker boots on while entering the water. Members may have no idea of the depth of water or debris present.

D A. Upon receipt of alarm, members donned PFD's at quarters prior to boarding the apparatus. While wearing PFD's on the rig, MEMBERS MUST STILL WEAR SEATBELTS. B. If a second victim appears, the secondary rescue team CAN enter the water to rescue a victim. Their primary objective is to ensure the safety of the primary rescue team. C. At this operation the Lieutenant assumed the spotter position, as this is a key role in water rescue operations. The spotter's job is to keep sight of the VICTIM and the spotter's tools include a HT, flashlight and binoculars.