GI PrepU - Ch46 - 29 Ch47 - 11 Ch50 - 3 Ch44 after 43

A client who had a Roux-en-Y bypass procedure for morbid obesity ate a chocolate chip cookie after a meal. After ingestion of the cookie, the client reported cramping pains, dizziness, and palpitation. After having a bowel movement, the symptoms resolved. What should the nurse educate the client about regarding this event? Gastric outlet obstruction Dumping syndrome Bile reflux Celiac disease

Dumping syndrome Explanation: Dumping syndrome is an unpleasant set of vasomotor and GI symptoms that occur in up to 76% of patients who have had bariatric surgery. Early symptoms include a sensation of fullness, weakness, faintness, dizziness, palpitations, diaphoresis, cramping pains, and diarrhea. These symptoms resolve once the intestine has been evacuated (i.e., with defecation). Reference:

A client is prescribed tetracycline to treat peptic ulcer disease. Which instruction would the nurse give the client? "Take the medication with milk." "Be sure to wear sunscreen while taking this medicine." "Expect a metallic taste when taking this medicine, which is normal." "Do not drive when taking this medication."

"Be sure to wear sunscreen while taking this medicine." Explanation: Tetracycline may cause a photosensitivity reaction in clients. The nurse should caution the client to use sunscreen when taking this drug. Dairy products can reduce the effectiveness of tetracycline, so the nurse should not advise him or her to take the medication with milk. A metallic taste accompanies administration of metronidazole (Flagyl). Administration of tetracycline does not necessitate driving restrictions.

Which is one of the primary symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)? Diarrhea Pain Bloating Abdominal distention

Diarrhea Explanation: The primary symptoms of IBS include constipation, diarrhea, or a combination of both. Pain, bloating, and abdominal distention often accompany changes in bowel pattern.

A patient is scheduled for a Billroth I procedure for ulcer management. What does the nurse understand will occur when this procedure is performed? A partial gastrectomy is performed with anastomosis of the stomach segment to the duodenum. A sectioned portion of the stomach is joined to the jejunum. The antral portion of the stomach is removed and a vagotomy is performed. The vagus nerve is cut and gastric drainage is established.

A partial gastrectomy is performed with anastomosis of the stomach segment to the duodenum. Explanation: A Billroth I procedure involves removal of the lower portion of the antrum of the stomach (which contains the cells that secrete gastrin) as well as a small portion of the duodenum and pylorus. The remaining segment is anastomosed to the duodenum.

A patient is scheduled for removal of the lower portion of the antrum of the stomach and a small portion of the duodenum and pylorus. What is the name of this surgical procedure for peptic ulcer disease? Vagotomy Pyloroplasty Billroth I Billroth II

Billroth I Explanation: A Billroth I is a gastroduodenostomy. Refer to Table 23-4 in the text for a comparison of the four types of peptic ulcer surgery.

A client is recovering from gastric surgery. Toward what goal should the nurse progress the client's enteral intake? Three meals and 120 ml fluid daily Three meals and three snacks and 120 mL fluid daily Six small meals and 120 mL fluid daily Six small meals daily with 120 mL fluid between meals

Correct response: Six small meals daily with 120 mL fluid between meals Explanation: After the return of bowel sounds and removal of the nasogastric tube, the nurse may give fluids, followed by food in small portions. Foods are gradually added until the client can eat six small meals a day and drink 120 mL of fluid between meals.

Which of the following is the most common complication associated with peptic ulcer? Hemorrhage Vomiting Elevated temperature Abdominal pain

Hemorrhage Explanation: Hemorrhage, the most common complication, occurs in 28% to 59% of patients with peptic ulcers. Vomiting, elevated temperature, and abdominal pain are not the most common complications of a peptic ulcer.

The client has been taking famotidine (Pepcid) at home. The nurse prepares a teaching plan for the client indicating that the medication acts primarily to achieve which of the following? Inhibit gastric acid secretions. Neutralize acid in the stomach. Shorten the time required for digestion in the stomach. Improve the mixing of foods and gastric secretions.

Inhibit gastric acid secretions. Explanation: Famotidine is useful for treating and preventing ulcers and managing gastroesophageal reflux disease. It functions by inhibiting the action of histamine at the H-2 receptor site located in the gastric parietal cells, thus inhibiting gastric acid secretion.

Which is a true statement regarding gastric cancer? Most clients are asymptomatic during the early stage of the disease. Women have a higher incidence of gastric cancer. The prognosis for gastric cancer is good. Most cases are discovered before metastasis.

Most clients are asymptomatic during the early stage of the disease. Explanation: Most clients are asymptomatic during the early stage of the disease. Men have a higher incidence of gastric cancer. The prognosis is poor because the diagnosis is usually made late because most clients are asymptomatic during the early stage. Most cases of gastric cancer are discovered only after local invasion has advanced or metastases are present.

A client is in the hospital for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease. The client reports vomiting and a sudden severe pain in the abdomen. The nurse then assesses a board-like abdomen. What does the nurse suspect these symptoms indicate? Ineffective treatment for the peptic ulcer A reaction to the medication given for the ulcer Gastric penetration Perforation of the peptic ulcer

Perforation of the peptic ulcer Explanation: Signs and symptoms of perforation include the following: Sudden, severe upper abdominal pain (persisting and increasing in intensity), which may be referred to the shoulders, especially the right shoulder, because of irritation of the phrenic nerve in the diaphragm; vomiting; collapse (fainting); extremely tender and rigid (boardlike) abdomen; and hypotension and tachycardia, indicating shock.

A client is treated for gastrointestinal problems related to chronic cholecystitis. What pathophysiological process related to cholecystitis does the nurse understand is the reason behind the client's GI problems? Contractile spasms of the gallbladder decreases appetite and leads to malnutrition. Inflammation of the gallbladder causes pain and impacts gastric motility. Reduced or absent bile as a result of obstruction impacts digestion. Increased bile as a result of inflammation leads to indigestion.

Reduced or absent bile as a result of obstruction impacts digestion. Explanation: Digestion is impacted by cholecystitis because an obstruction of the gallbladder results in reduced or absent bile. Contractile spasms and inflammation of the gallbladder leads to pain, not problems with digestion.

Which of the following will the nurse observe as symptoms of perforation in a patient with intestinal obstruction? Sudden, sustained abdominal pain Decreased urine output Decreased blood pressure Purulent drainage from the gluteal fold

Sudden, sustained abdominal pain Explanation: Sudden, sustained pain, abdominal distention, and fever are symptoms of perforation in a client with intestinal obstruction. A decrease in blood pressure and decrease in urine output are symptoms of shock. Purulent drainage from the gluteal fold is not a symptom of perforation; it only indicates that the client has developed a condition of anorectal abscess.

Which statement correctly identifies a difference between duodenal and gastric ulcers? Malignancy is associated with duodenal ulcer. Weight gain may occur with a gastric ulcer. A gastric ulcer is caused by hypersecretion of stomach acid. Vomiting is uncommon in clients with duodenal ulcers.

Vomiting is uncommon in clients with duodenal ulcers. Explanation: Vomiting is uncommon in clients diagnosed with duodenal ulcer. Malignancy is associated with a gastric ulcer. Weight gain may occur with a duodenal ulcer. Duodenal ulcers cause hypersecretion of stomach acid.

The nurse is conducting a community education program on peptic ulcer disease prevention. The nurse includes that the most common cause of peptic ulcers is: stress and anxiety. gram-negative bacteria. alcohol and tobacco. ibuprofen and aspirin.

gram-negative bacteria. Explanation: The nurse should include that the most common cause of peptic ulcers is gram-negative bacteria (Helicobacter pylori).

After teaching a group of students about intestinal obstruction, the instructor determines that the teaching was effective when the students identify which of the following as a cause of a functional obstruction? Volvulus Intussusception Tumor Abdominal surgery

Abdominal surgery Explanation: In functional obstruction, the intestine can become adynamic from an absence of normal nerve stimulation to intestinal muscle fibers. For example, abdominal surgery can lead to paralytic ileus. Mechanical obstructions result from a narrowing of the bowel lumen with or without a space-occupying mass. A mass may include a tumor, adhesions (fibrous bands that constrict tissue), incarcerated or strangulated hernias, volvulus (kinking of a portion of intestine), intussusception (telescoping of one part of the intestine into an adjacent part), or impacted feces or barium.

The nurse is evaluating a client's ulcer symptoms to differentiate ulcer as duodenal or gastric. Which symptom should the nurse at attribute to a duodenal ulcer? Vomiting Hemorrhage Awakening in pain Weight loss

Awakening in pain Explanation: The client with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1 to 2 AM with pain, and ingestion of food brings relief. Vomiting is uncommon in clients with duodenal ulcer. Hemorrhage is less likely in clients with duodenal ulcer than those with gastric ulcer. The client with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a local community group of older adults about colon cancer. What would the nurse include as the primary characteristic associated with this disorder? Abdominal distention Frank blood in the stool A change in bowel habits Abdominal pain

Correct response: A change in bowel habits Explanation: Although abdominal distention and blood in the stool (frank or occult) may be present, the chief characteristic of cancer of the colon is a change in bowel habits, such as alternating constipation and diarrhea. Abdominal pain is a late sign.

The nursing student approaches his instructor to discuss the plan of care for his client diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. The student asks what is the most common site for peptic ulcer formation? The instructor would state which one of the following? Duodenum Esophagus Pylorus Stomach

Duodenum Explanation: Peptic ulcers occur mainly in the gastroduodenal mucosa because this tissue cannot withstand the digestive action of gastric acid (HCl) and pepsin.

What information should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client being treated for diverticulosis? Avoid unprocessed bran in the diet Avoid daily exercise; indulge only in mild activity Drink at least 8 to 10 large glasses of fluid every day Use laxatives or enemas at least once a week

Drink at least 8 to 10 large glasses of fluid every day Explanation: The nurse should instruct a client with diverticulosis to drink at least 8 to 10 large glasses of fluid every day. The client should include unprocessed bran in the diet because it adds bulk, and should avoid the use of laxatives or enemas except when recommended by the physician. In addition, regular exercise should be encouraged if the client's current lifestyle is somewhat inactive.

A nurse is providing preoperative teaching to a client undergoing a cholecystectomy. Which topic should the nurse include in her teaching plan? Increase respiratory effectiveness. Eliminate the need for nasogastric intubation. Improve nutritional status during recovery. Decrease the amount of postoperative analgesia needed.

Increase respiratory effectiveness. Explanation: The nurse must teach the client about using an incentive spirometer to promote lung expansion. The high abdominal incision used in a cholecystectomy interferes with respirations postoperatively, increasing the risk of atelectasis. The client will need to use incentive spirometry to promote lung expansion, increase alveolar inflation, and strengthen respiratory muscles. Most clients don't have a nasogastric tube in place after a cholecystectomy. It isn't appropriate to teach improved nutritional status before surgery. It isn't important for the client to be aware of how to decrease the amount of postoperative analgesia, because this is the responsibility of the health care team.

Which of the following is considered an early symptom of gastric cancer? Pain relieved by antacids Weight loss Bloating after meals Dyspepsia

Pain relieved by antacids Explanation: Symptoms of early disease, such as pain relieved by antacids, resemble those of benign ulcers and are seldom definitive. Symptoms of progressive disease include weight loss, bloating after meals, and dyspepsia.

A nurse is teaching a group of middle-aged men about peptic ulcers. When discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should mention: a sedentary lifestyle and smoking. a history of hemorrhoids and smoking. alcohol abuse and a history of acute renal failure. alcohol abuse and smoking.

The nurse should mention that risk factors for peptic (gastric and duodenal) ulcers include alcohol abuse, smoking, and stress. A sedentary lifestyle and a history of hemorrhoids aren't risk factors for peptic ulcers. Chronic renal failure, not acute renal failure, is associated with duodenal ulcers.

Which of the following is the most successful treatment for gastric cancer? Removal of the tumor Chemotherapy Radiation Palliation

There is no successful treatment for gastric carcinoma except removal of the tumor. If the tumor can be removed while it is still localized to the stomach, the patient may be cured. If the tumor has spread beyond the area that can be excised, cure is less likely.

The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old client for signs and symptoms of gastric cancer. The nurse differentiates which as a sign/symptom of gastric cancer in the geriatric client, but not in a client under the age of 75? Abdominal mass Agitation Hepatomegalia Ascites

Agitation Explanation: The nurse understands that agitation, along with confusion and restlessness, may be the only signs/symptoms seen of gastric cancer in the older client. Abdominal mass, hepatomegaly, and ascites may all be signs/symptoms of advanced gastric cancer.

A client with gastric cancer is scheduled to undergo a Billroth II procedure. The client's spouse asks how much of the client's stomach will be removed. What would be the most accurate response from the nurse? Approximately 25% Approximately 50% Approximately 75% The amount will depend on the client's weight.

Approximately 75% Explanation: The Billroth II is a wide resection that involves removing approximately 75% of the stomach and decreases the possibility of lymph node spread or metastatic recurrence.

The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests which condition? Small-bowel disease Ulcerative colitis Disorders of the colon Intestinal malabsorption

Ulcerative colitis Explanation: The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests ulcerative colitis. Watery stools are characteristic of small-bowel disease. Loose, semisolid stools are associated more often with disorders of the colon. Voluminous, greasy stools suggest intestinal malabsorption.

After a client received a diagnosis of gastric cancer, the surgical team decides that a Billroth II would be the best approach to treatment. How would the nurse explain this procedure to the family? Limited resection in the distal portion of the stomach and removal of about 25% of the stomach Wide resection of the middle and distal portions of the stomach with removal of about 75% of the stomach Proximal subtotal gastrectomy Total gastrectomy and esophagogastrectomy

Wide resection of the middle and distal portions of the stomach with removal of about 75% of the stomach Explanation: The Billroth I involves a limited resection and offers a lower cure rate than the Billroth II. The Billroth II procedure is a wider resection that involves removing approximately 75% of the stomach and decreases the possibility of lymph node spread or metastatic recurrence. A proximal subtotal gastrectomy may be performed for a resectable tumor located in the proximal portion of the stomach or cardia. A total gastrectomy or an esophagogastrectomy is usually performed in place of this procedure to achieve a more extensive resection.

A nurse is caring for a client who is undergoing a diagnostic workup for a suspected gastrointestinal problem. The client reports gnawing epigastric pain following meals and heartburn. What would the nurse suspect this client has? peptic ulcer disease ulcerative colitis appendicitis diverticulitis

peptic ulcer disease Explanation: Peptic ulcer disease is characterized by dull, gnawing pain in the midepigastrium or the back that worsens with eating. Ulcerative colitis is characterized by exacerbations and remissions of severe bloody diarrhea. Appendicitis is characterized by epigastric or umbilical pain along with nausea, vomiting, and low-grade fever. Pain caused by diverticulitis is in the left lower quadrant and has a moderate onset. It's accompanied by nausea, vomiting, fever, and chills.

A nurse is providing care for a client recovering from gastric bypass surgery. During assessment, the client exhibits pallor, perspiration, palpitations, headache, and feelings of warmth, dizziness, and drowsiness. The client reports eating 90 minutes ago. What will the nurse suspect? Vasomotor symptoms associated with dumping syndrome Dehiscence of the surgical wound Peritonitis A normal reaction to surgery

Vasomotor symptoms associated with dumping syndrome Explanation: Early manifestations of dumping syndrome occur 15 to 30 minutes after eating. Signs and symptoms include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, diarrhea, nausea, and the desire to lie down. Dehiscence of the surgical wound is characterized by pain and a pulling or popping feeling at the surgical site. Peritonitis presents with a rigid, boardlike abdomen, tenderness, and fever. The client's signs and symptoms aren't a normal reaction to surgery.

The nurse knows that the client with cholelithiasis can have a nutritional deficiency. The obstruction of bile flow due to cholelitiasis can interfere with the absorption of Vitamin A Vitamin B6 Vitamin B12 Vitamin C

Vitamin A Explanation: Obstruction of bile flow interferes with absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K. Clients may exhibit deficiencies of these vitamins if biliary obstruction has been prolonged. Vitamins B6, B12, and C are not fat soluable.

Which statement provides accurate information regarding cancer of the colon and rectum? Colorectal cancer is the third most common site of cancer in the United States. Rectal cancer affects more than twice as many people as colon cancer. The incidence of colon and rectal cancer decreases with age. Colon cancer has no hereditary component.

Colorectal cancer is the third most common site of cancer in the United States. Explanation: Cancer of the colon and rectum is the third most common site of new cancer cases in the United States. Colon cancer affects more than twice as many people as does rectal cancer (94,700 for colon, 34,700 for rectum). The incidence increases with age (the incidence is highest in people older than 85). Colon cancer occurrence is higher in people with a family history of colon cancer.

A health care provider plans to send a client home with supplies to complete a hemoccult test on all stools for 3 days. During the client education, the nurse informs the client to avoid which medication while collecting stool for the test? ibuprofen acetaminophen docusate sodium ciprofloxacin

Correct response: ibuprofen Explanation: Fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) is one of the most commonly performed stool tests. FOBT can be done at the bedside, in the physician's office, or at home. The client is taught to avoid aspirin, red meats, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents, and horseradish for 72 hours prior to the examination. Ibuprofen (Advil) is an anti-inflammatory drug and should be avoided with FOBT.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient with peptic ulcer disease. What nursing interventions should be included in the care plan? Select all that apply. Making neurovascular checks every 4 hours Frequently monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels Observing stools and vomitus for color, consistency, and volume Checking the blood pressure and pulse rate every 15 to 20 minutes Inserting an indwelling catheter for incontinence

Frequently monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels Observing stools and vomitus for color, consistency, and volume Checking the blood pressure and pulse rate every 15 to 20 minutes Explanation: The nurse assesses the patient for faintness or dizziness and nausea, which may precede or accompany bleeding. The nurse must monitor vital signs frequently and evaluate the patient for tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea. Other nursing interventions include monitoring the hemoglobin and hematocrit, testing the stool for gross or occult blood, and recording hourly urinary output to detect anuria or oliguria (absence of or decreased urine production).

During assessment of a patient with gastritis, the nurse practitioner attempts to distinguish acute from chronic pathology. One criteria, characteristic of gastritis would be the: Immediacy of the occurrence. Presence of vomiting. Frequency of abdominal discomfort. Incidence of anorexia.

Immediacy of the occurrence. Explanation: Acute gastritis usually develops quickly, whereas chronic gastritis results from prolonged inflammation of the stomach.

Rebleeding may occur from a peptic ulcer and often warrants surgical interventions. Signs of bleeding include which of the following? Mental confusion Bradycardia Bradypnea Hypertension

Mental confusion Explanation: Signs of bleeding include tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, mental confusion, thirst, and oliguria.

A client reports to the clinic, stating that she rapidly developed headache, abdominal pain, nausea, hiccuping, and fatigue about 2 hours ago. For dinner, she ate buffalo chicken wings and beer. Which of the following medical conditions is most consistent with the client's presenting problems? Acute gastritis Duodenal ulcer Gastric cancer Gastric ulcer

Acute gastritis Explanation: The client with acute gastritis may have a rapid onset of symptoms, including abdominal discomfort, headache, lassitude, nausea, anorexia, vomiting, and hiccuping, which can last from a few hours to a few days. Acute gastritis is often caused by dietary indiscretion—a person eats food that is irritating, too highly seasoned, or contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms.

A client informs the nurse that he has been having abdominal pain that is relieved when having a bowel movement. The client states that the physician told him he has irritable bowel syndrome. What does the nurse recognize as characteristic of this disorder? Weight loss due to malabsorption Blood and mucus in the stool Chronic constipation with sporadic bouts of diarrhea Client is awakened from sleep due to abdominal pain.

Chronic constipation with sporadic bouts of diarrhea Explanation: Most clients with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) describe having chronic constipation with sporadic bouts of diarrhea. Some report the opposite pattern, although less commonly. Most clients experience various degrees of abdominal pain that defecation may relieve. Weight usually remains stable, indicating that when diarrhea occurs, malabsorption of nutrients does not accompany it. Stools may have mucus, but blood is not usually found because the bowel is not locally inflamed. The sleep is not disturbed from abdominal pain.

A client with a diagnosis of acute appendicitis is awaiting surgical intervention. The nurse listens to bowel sounds and hears none and observes that the abdomen is rigid and boardlike. What complication does the nurse determine may be occurring at this time? Constipation Paralytic ileus Peritonitis Accumulation of gas

Peritonitis Explanation: Lack of bowel motility typically accompanies peritonitis. The abdomen feels rigid and boardlike as it distends with gas and intestinal contents. Bowel sounds typically are absent. The diagnosis of acute appendicitis correlates with the symptoms of rupture of the appendix and peritonitis. A paralytic ileus and gas alone do not produce these symptoms.

A nurse is providing follow-up teaching at a clinic visit for a client recovering from gastric resection. The client reports sweating, diarrhea, nausea, palpitations, and the desire to lie down 15 to 30 minutes after meals. Based on the client's assessment, what will the nurse suspect? Dumping syndrome Dehiscence of the surgical wound Peritonitis A normal reaction to surgery

Correct response: Dumping syndrome Explanation: Early manifestations of dumping syndrome occur 15 to 30 minutes after eating. Signs and symptoms include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, diarrhea, nausea, and the desire to lie down. Dehiscence of the surgical wound is characterized by pain and a pulling or popping feeling at the surgical site. Peritonitis presents with a rigid, boardlike abdomen, tenderness, and fever. The client's signs and symptoms aren't a normal reaction to surgery.

When preparing a client for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis? Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix. The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client. Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage.

Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix. Explanation: A client with appendicitis is at Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage. The pressure continues to rise with venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion. Inflammation and bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture. Elderly, not middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture.

Which of the following interventions are appropriate for clients with gastritis? Select all that apply. Use a calm approach to reduce anxiety. Give the client food and fluids every 4 hours. Discourage cigarette smoking. Notify the physician of inidicators of hemorrhagic gastritis. Provide general education about how to prevent recurrences.

Use a calm approach to reduce anxiety. Discourage cigarette smoking. Notify the physician of inidicators of hemorrhagic gastritis. Explanation: The nurse should use a calm approach when answering questions and providing teaching. He or she should discuss smoking cessation and monitor for any indicators of hemorrhagic gastritis. The client will take nothing by mouth for up to a few days until symptoms subside. The nurse needs to develop an individualized teaching plan for the client that includes information about stress management, diet, and medications.

A client who can't tolerate oral feedings begins receiving intermittent enteral feedings. When monitoring for evidence of intolerance to these feedings, what must the nurse remain alert for? diaphoresis, vomiting, and diarrhea. manifestations of electrolyte disturbances. manifestations of hypoglycemia. constipation, dehydration, and hypercapnia.

diaphoresis, vomiting, and diarrhea. Explanation: The nurse must monitor for diaphoresis, vomiting, and diarrhea because these signs suggest an intolerance to the ordered enteral feeding solution. Other signs and symptoms of feeding intolerance include abdominal cramps, nausea, aspiration, and glycosuria. Electrolyte disturbances, constipation, dehydration, and hypercapnia are complications of enteral feedings, not signs of intolerance. Hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia, is a potential complication of enteral feedings.