HDS Module 2
Below is a low power photomicrograph of a cross-section through the kidney. Identify the regions of the kidney (1 and 2) and identify this artery (3)
ASK ABOUT THIS! cortex, medulla, arcuate artery; arcuate bc in between renal pyramid :)
does the epiglottis have an abrupt change or transition between epithelium?
Abrupt!
Portasystemic shunts
Advanced portal hypertension can be relieved by surgically creating another route for portal vein blood to return to the IVC - a portasystemic shunt. There are multiple ways to accomplish this. something about encephalitis
Advantages of CT
Advantages - Optimal soft tissue differentiation - Excellent osseous detail - Submillimeter imaging with potential for multiplanar reconstruction - 3‐dimensional imaging - Fast scanning techniques
Serosa: Mesothelium • Covers ALL organs EXCEPT portions of
Adventitia: Fibrous CT • Esophagus • Appendix • Gall Bladder • Anal Canal
BINGO! what's the diff b/w arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis?
Arteriosclerosis is the stiffening or hardening of the artery walls. Atherosclerosis is the narrowing of the artery because of plaque build-up. Atherosclerosis is a specific type of arteriosclerosis.
flow of bile
Bile leaves the liver through right & left hepatic ducts > fuse to form common hepatic duct which unites with cystic duct > to form the common bile duct here's the order we have to know though: Bile canaliculi Cholangiole/Canal of Hering Bile ductules Rt./Lt. Hepatic ducts Common Hepatic duct Cystic duct Common Bile duct Hepatopancreatic ampulla Hepatopancreatic sphincter
just know this
Blood from the GI tract must pass through the liver before draining into the IVC. Blood drains to the liver via the (Hepatic) Portal Vein - Formed by the junction of the Splenic Vein and the Superior Mesenteric Vein - Inferior Mesenteric Vein may drain into the Splenic Vein (40%), the superior mesenteric vein (27%) or into the junction of the splenic nein and superior mesenteric vein (33%) - Named veins, matching the branches of the celiac trunk, SMA and IMA (i.e., venae comitantes) drain the structures of the foregut, midgut and hindgut
Which of the following is NOT true about aortic aneurysms? A. Usually due to weakening of aortic wall B. Observable on radiographs as enlarged aorta C. Asymptomatic, and patients do not complain of pain D. Localized dilation of aorta
C. Asymptomatic, and patients do not complain of pain *patients complain of pain that radiates to back
A midline laceration to the root of the penis is least likely to damage the: A. Dorsal vein of the penis B. Deep dorsal vein of the penis C. Deep artery of the penis D. Corpus spongiosum E. Spongy urethra
C. Deep artery of the penis (also known as central artery).
What is located in the subscapular sinus?
Dendritic cells... APCs (antigen presenting cells). APCs recognize MHC II
Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Damage/Injury
Due to their location, both sides of the RLN are vulnerable to injury/damage or the effects of pathology within the mediastinum (e.g., bronchogenic or esophageal carcinoma, enlargement of mediastinal lymph nodes, aortic aneurysm). Such effect will alter the voice as the recurrent laryngeal nerves supply intrinsic muscles of larynx, as well as swallowing safety
CC: Pernicious Anemia
Causes: Too few erythrocytes, Fail to synthesize enough intrinsic factor, Vitamin B12 deficiency, autoimmune reaction against parietal cells and intrinsic factor Symptoms: -tingling, burning on skin -tongue shiny, red, sore -numbness -weak, tired -trouble breathing -spasms in limbs -trouble with balance at night -leaking urine (incontinence) Treatments: -large doses of vitamin B12 (injection everyday for 1 week for 4 weeks) followed by monthly shots for the rest of life -pills (swallowed, or sublingual), nasal spray -folic acid
***BLOOD FLOW THROUGH LIVER***
Celiac trunk;Common Hepatic artery; Proper hepatic artery; Rt./Lt. Hepatic aa.; arterioles; Portal triad; Sinusoid; Central vein/venule IMV-->splenic v. + SMV=hepatic portal vein--> portal triad-->sinusoid-->central vein/venule
Liver encased in thin fibrous connective tissue sheath called ______
Glisson's capsule
Prader‐Willi Syndrome *RED STAR*
Gene Imprinting = Gene "Silencing" = DNA methylation of maternal sequence on Chromosome 15 q‐arm AND deletion of same region from paternal #15 imprinting genes are approx. 1% of genes in genome total gene silencing. so what does that mean? no protein being produced there on chromosome 15, there is a set of imprinted alleles. we have 2 diff syndromes bc we have 2 diff sets of imprinted genes close together producing 2 diff kinds of proteins. metabolic abnormalities; constantly hungry and overeating; no satieation; atherosclerosis by puberty. at a particular point, say, on chromosome 5, there is an imprinted allele that only has the appropriate promotor inducing region on the maternal chromosome. Even though you have the maternity DNA donated by the paternal allele on #5, it will NEVER be turned into a protein.
During laparoscopic repair of an indirect inguinal hernia at the deep inguinal ring, the surgeon must be careful not to damage which of the following nerves: A. Genitofemoral nerve B. Iliohypogastric nerve C. Pudendal nerve D. Ilioinguinal nerve E. Pelvic splanchnic nerve
Genitofemoral nerve Genital branch of the genitofemoral n. to innervate the cremaster *• Ilioinguinal n. travels through the superficial inguinal ring but stays external to the spermatic cord
CC: Barrett Esophagus
Pre‐condition for esophageal cancer CAUSE: frequent exposure of esophageal tissues to gastric secretions of lower 1/3 of esophagus SYMPTOMS: (similar to gastric reflux) -heartburn -regurgitation, acid taste -increased saliva production -SSqNK epith. replaced by metaplastic columnar epith. with intestinal goblet cells Treatments -dietary, behavioral changes -proton pump inhibitors, antacids -pro-motility agents
These two organs of the male reproductive system share two important histological characteristics. From the list below, identify these shared features.
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with villi (remember vas deferens has 3 layers of muscle) Stereocilia
Pump Handle **ON EXAM
Pump Handle (A-P) Inhalation (forced) • Increases the dimensions of the thoracic cavity • Primarily involves the and the • Higher intercostal muscles produce the movement, aided by surrounding neck and back musculature *basically, as you breathe in forcefully, it will pull the sternum outwards like a lever, increasing volume.
Jaundice from rapid destruction of ____ in the spleen if something causes an excessive production/destruction of RBCs, you will have a buildup of _________
RBCs unconjugated bilirubin bilverdin--> bilirubin via bilverdin reductase
Internal Intercostal Muscles
Internal Intercostal Muscles a. Fibers course inferolaterally b. Most active during expiration (i.e., depress ribs) c. Become internal intercostal membranes posteriorly (medial to angles of ribs)
internodal
Internodal cells are histologically similar to Purkinje fibers - smaller in diameter--> conduction velocity is slower Internodal cells = 1m/sec Bundle fibers/Purkinje fibers = 4m/sec (1/250 the speed of conduction in large nerves)
As part of an vitro fertilization procedure, oocytes are harvested from a woman's ovary by puncturing a vaginal fornix. Into which space will the instrument be inserted?
Rectouterine pouch **ON EXAM AND PRACTICAL
_____ main bronchus is wider, shorter, and more vertical than left (Foreign objects become trapped more easily)
Right
Autonomic innervation of the bladder stimulates contraction of its wall during urination. At which level(s) do the preganglionic fibers leave the skull or spinal cord?
S1-3
Nerve fibers that contribute to the pudendal nerve leave the spinal cord as:
S2-4; ventral rami
midgut forms at beginning of duodenum
SMA
circular folds
SMALL INTESTINE semilunar folds= large intestine
________ is catabolic
SNS
what stabilizes the surfactant coat in alveolar space?
SP-B,C
what is the largest lymphatic organ in the body?
SPLEEN blood reservoir, storing RBCs and platelets that can be delivered as needed - For instance, delivers oxygen to the body as part of the mammalian dive reflex mammalian drive reflex: your brain thinks you're about to go underwater so the spleen releases O2 to prep for that (whenever your face/nose gets wet)
Parietal Cells
Main Secretions -HCl- (gastric acid) -present in all vertebrates -Facilitate digestion of proteins and absorption of calcium, iron, and vitamin B12 -Suppresses growth of bacteria -prevents GI tract infections and bacterial overgrowth in the small intestine -intrinsic factor to lumen -bicarbonate to blood plasma Regulation - overlapping pathways 1) Gastrin -major path for stimulation -endocrine regulator 2) Histamine (and somatostatin) -paracrine regulator 3) Acetylcholine -neural regulator "His Aching Gas" (histamine, Ach, gastrin)
LAP 2-Beta
Maintains the structural organization of the nuclear envelope, and transcriptional repression of P53.
Supernumery Renal Artery
One of the fetal arteries supplying the kidney does not reduce, resulting in an anomalous artery. There will be not anastomoses between the sections of the kidney perfused by different arteries. Supernumery renal arteries are common (in 25% of people).
Both PCT and DCT: ‐contain abundant basally‐located ________ -Na+ enters cells ______, and pumped out _________via Na+/K+ pumps
PCT and DCT -mitochondria -apically -basally
PCT vs DCT
PCT: ‐apical domain abundant brush border/microvilli (lumen obscured) ‐abundant vesicles/lysosomes within cells -absorption!!! bc of all the microvilli DCT: ‐apical domain sparse microvilli (lumen open/vacant) ‐few vesicles/lysosomes within cells
what are the cardiogenic tubes made up of?
PHF but as the heart tube develops, it incorporates cells from the SHF cardiogenic tubes (one from each side on the embryo) will fuse in the midline
Take note of the proximity of these circled cells to the capillary AND the support matrix that they have produced. Other function(s) of these cells include:
Phagocytosis of "unwanted" intraglomerular proteins Contractile properties to regulate capillary flow/capillary pressure
Uretic bud forms
Ureter Renal pelvis Renal pyramid Major and minor calyces
nuclear medicine
Uses radioactive materials either to image a patient's body or to destroy diseased cells Advantages - Functional assessment - Adjunct to structural assessment by other modalities • Disadvantages - Anatomic detail is relatively limited - Exposure to ionizing radiation - Cost
what disease is a result of mixing ventricular blood?
VSDs
(1) Hepatic acini
describe the flow of oxygenated blood from the liver's periphery to the center. Oxygenated blood flows from the hepatic artery, into the portal triads, through the liver sinusoids (mixing with venous blood), and dumps into the central vein. As the oxygenated blood travels towards the center, it becomes further and further devoid of nutrients and oxygen and is divided into three zones indicating the level of oxygenation. Therefore, the peripheral cells are more involved with tasks requiring oxygen whereas the more central cells perform less oxygen-demanding activities.
GBM is a fusion between: ***ON EXAM
a fusion between the basal lamina of endothelial cells and basal lamina of podocytes
cisterna chyli
a large saclike structure that receives the aggregated lymph of the abdomen and lower limb bulge from thoracic duct
Pepsinogen
a proenzyme requiring activation Location: ‐stored in zymogen granules of chief cells Activation: ‐Autoactivation at low pH, found in gastric juices ‐Pepsinogen activated to pepsin in lumen of stomach Function: ‐Pepsin functions a proteolytic enzyme that digests proteins
5 alpha reductase deficiency *ask about this; do they form viable gametes?
a rare condition in which a child is born with ambiguous genitalia but develops male secondary sex characteristics at puberty
Where does the abdominal aorta bifurcate?
bi-4-cate at L4 bifurcates into r and l common iliac arteries and then those split into internal/external arteries
liver vascularization stuff
bile and pancreatic juices enter the duodenum via the major duodenal papilla (tagged inside duodenum) if they ask what muscle... it's sphincter of oddi
MHC stuff
all cells have MHC1 MHC II cells have molecular fragments called epitopes
Unique to the vas deferens is
an additional third layer of smooth muscle to facilitate these contractions: inner longitudinal layer - middle circular layer - outer longitudinal layer
what happens without endocardial cushions?
an incomplete septum can be formed by tissue that fails to grow -tissue is incomplete because it leaves a narrow opening
Germinal centers are sites where activated B-lymphocytes (plasma cells) are producing ________
antibody molecules
Which of the cell types embedded in the pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium of the respiratory system display blunt microvilli?
brush cells
Periarteriole Lymphatic Sheath (PALS)
are a portion of the white pulp of the spleen. They are populated largely by T cells
what will the PHF give rise to?
atria left ventricle part of right ventricle *if something goes wrong during formation of PHF, baby is unviable!!! :(
Most lymph channels superior to the umbilicus drain to the _____________
axillary lymph nodes
Most of the lymph from the breast (75%) typically drains to the
axillary lymph nodes Sentinel node biopsy: a radio-opaque dye is injected into the cancer site and tracked to the first lymph node of drainage, using radiography. That node, and any nodes nearby are biopsied or removed.
Midgut structures receive preganglionic innveration from spinal segments _____ (i.e., mostly lesser splanchnic nerve with some overlap from greater and least splanchnic nerves)
T9-12
Principal cells
Tall cuboidal/collumnar epithelial cells with a primary cilium that functions as a mechanosensor responsive to hydrostatic pressure/fluid dynamics and urine composition. Principal cells have receptors for *both* ADH and aldosterone.
Liver acinus theory
The cells in zone 1 (cells that are closest to microscopic portal triad) are receiving the most O2 rich blood (BUT, at the same time, recruiting the most blood born pathogens/toxins). So, they have the most potential for damage but also the most potential for cell/ATP repair. Zone 3 is opposite, and Zone 2= transition zone
The genital tubercle occurs at the cranial end of the cloacal membrane. Two pairs of crests develop on either side of the cloacal membrane, the cloacal fold medially and the genital swelling laterally.
The cloacal membrane divides into UG membrane and anal membrane. The cloacal fold divides into a cranial part: the urethral fold; and a caudal part, the anal fold The genital tubercle forms phallus and erectile bodies. After that, the sexes diverge morphologically.
ABRUPT TRANSITION ZONE
cervical canal is lined by simple columnar epithelium which changes abruptly into stratified squamous epithelium just inside the external os of the cervix
The myometrium forms most of the wall of the ________. It consists of interweaving bundles of smooth muscle fibers situated in an extensive, continuous network of fibrous connective tissue.
cervix
clara cell or goblet cell? Secretions - Surface-active agent - CC16 and CC10 - Mucins MUC5AC, MUC5B - anti-microbial peptides - Surfactants
clara
parts of the liver
coronary ligament (on top horizontally) bare area- not covered by visceral peritoneum falciform ligament: connects liver to anterior abdominal wall (carries the ROUND ligament of the liver in its inferior border) Hepatic veins drain into inferior vena cava which passes posterior to liver
3 paired muscles in males (superficial pouch)
Three paired muscles Bulbospongiosus: perineal body covers bulb laterally Ischiocavernosus: ramus of pubis, covers crus. Superficial Transverse Perinei: ramus of pubis to perineal body
Conducting Portion
Transmission of air A) Nasal Cavity B) Larynx (epiglottis, vocal cords) C) Trachea D) Bronchi E) Terminal bronchioles no air sacs (alveoli) warms, moistens, and filters air before it reaches the respiratory epithelium
Lesser omentum: connects
lesser curvature of the stomach and proximal duodenum to the liver -Hepatogastric ligament - Hepatoduodenal ligament
Diapedesis =
leukocytes pass in and out of blood stream
below pectinate line
ectoderm derived stratified squamous squamous cell carcinoma external hemorrhoids PAINFUL
what do platelets look like under EM?
elliptical shape, lack of nuclei, and granules in their cytoplasm smaller in comparison to RBC/WBC
epicardium is thicker than
endocardium
in uterus: proliferative phase is homologous to: secretory phase is homologous to:
follicular phase in ovary luteal phase in ovary
Kidneys (metanephros) form in the pelvis, gonads (ovaries and testes) in the posterior abdominal wall. This is the reverse from their position in the adult. In the fetal period, the kidney ascends into the posterior abdominal wall (and comes to lie retroperitoneally), and the gonads descend, the ovaries come to lie intraperitoneally, and the testes leave the pelvis altogether, passing through the inguinal canal.
kidney initially forms in pelvis, but it has to migrate up towards abdominal wall
This cell has unique granules in its cytoplasm that help it to do which of the following?
kill parasites This is an eosinophil as indicated by specific granules with a stripe, called the internum which contains major basic protein. This protein is effective at killing parasites, among other things.
___________+______________=floor of superficial inguinal ring
lacunar ligament+ reflected ligament
Which layer outlined in the red box would have nephrin molecules and hemidesmosomes present?
lamina rara externa ***ON EXAM
bronchiole histology
side note about bronchioles: terminal bronchiole is nice and continuous respiratory bronchiole has breaks which allow for gas exchange clara cells are domed shaped
what does the infracolic ligament contain
small intestine and ascending and descending colon
sinusoids: oxygen rich blood and nutrient rich blood are mixed in these sinusoids. By the time you reach the central vein, you are going to get O2 and nutrient DEPLETED blood (blue blood)
spaces defined by adjacent hepatocytes. liver is producing bile and draining it in bile cannaliculi, and then eventually bile duct
white pulp and red pulp are found in which organ?
spleen! red pulp more abundant than white pulp White pulp is material which is part of the immune system (lymphatic tissue) mainly made up of white blood cells. Red pulp is made up of blood-filled cavities (venous sinuses) and splenic cords.
Penile Urethra: courses through Corpus ______
spongiosum
corpus ___ forms the glans of the penis
spongiosum
what 2 types of epithelium make up the larynx?
stratified squamous (bc true vocal cords vibrate back and forth and subject to lots of stress and sprains) -protective epithelium 1) lingual surface of epiglottis 2) true vocal cords Respiratory Epithelium -the rest of the larynx
teniae coli
three bands of longitudinal smooth muscle in muscularis allows for peristalsis
what is another term for respiratory diverticulum?
lung bud
Bicarbonate Buffer System
lungs=respiratory=fast decreasing acid by increasing respiration kidneys=metabolic=slow decreasing acid by peeing it out H+ and secreting HCO3-into the bloodstream
CCK originates in intestine
major regulator! regulates digestion of meal Origin:‐Neuroendocrine cells of duodenum, present in all intestines Function: Key regulator in meal digestion Stimulates: ‐gallbladder contraction ‐relaxation of Sphincter of Oddi ‐Pancreatic enzyme secretion ‐Pancreatic bicarbonate ion secretion ‐Pancreatic growth Inhibits: ‐gastric emptying
The photomicrograph below depicts a tissue biopsy from the ovarian cortex of a female with normal and age-appropriate reproductive function. What age group was this female in when the biopsy was done?
menopausal bc you see only 1 follicle
After endocardial cushions fuse, each AV orifice is surrounded by_____
mesenchymal tissue
A peritoneal ligament connects organs to other organs, or connects organs to the body wall (but does not transmit vasculature, like a __________
mesentery
mesosalpinx
mesentery that supports uterine tubes
Chorion is derived from
mesoderm
Connective tissues (e.g., Glisson's capsule) and Kupffer cells develop from ________
mesoderm
what gives rise to the pleura?
mesoderm!
region closest to uterus=
mesometrium
region closest to ovary called
mesoovarium
Cardiac stomach
mucus secreting epithelium
REALLY GOOD Q: Which of the following cell types is part of the respiratory epithelium? Clara cell Type I pneumocyte Type II pneumocyte Neuroendocrine cell Fibroblast
neuroendocrine cell *memorize this: Respiratory epithelium = pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells Goblet cells Ciliated columnar cells Basal cells Neuroendocrine cells Brush cells
Identify ALL of the statements below that are true regarding the juxtaglomerular cells (JG cells). 1. They have an important role to play in phagocytizing proteins trapped at the filtration slits of the filtration membrane. 2. They respond to abnormally low blood volume/blood pressures by secreting ADH. 3. They are localized to the macula densa where they detect dropping concentrations of Na+ ions. 4. They are localized to the urinary pole of the renal corpuscle.
none of these
non-duodenal intestinal atresia or stenosis
not from failure of recanalization but bc of ischemic injury (SMA)
what does the left sinus horn give rise to?
oblique vein of left atrium and coronary sinus
What is the vestibule?
opening of the nasal cavity
peritubular capillaries
outside of seminiferous tubules contractile fibrocartilage induces squeezing of seminiferous fluid to move along the loop of the tube, forcing it to the mediastinum region side note: all of the cells in the basal compartment are genetically identical. you are a product of MITOSIS, therefore, genetically identical to the stem cell that produced you. ad-luminal cells are NOT genetically identical
atrial vs. ventricular cardiomyocytes
p= purkinge like cells *more nucei present in atria aaaaaaaaaanf granules in aaaaaaaaatrium
sinoatrial node
pacemaker of the heart CONDUCTING not contractile, cells
2=
palatine 4= thymus 3= surface of tongue 1= respiratory
Clinical Correlate: Testicular Varicocele • Testicular varicocele is large dilation of the veins in the ______________, resulting from the veins in the plexus becoming varicose
pampinifrom plexus • Varicocele occurs in a approximately 15% of male adolescents and is present on only the left side 90% of the time
Non-self molecules: PAMPs and PRRs
pamps are conserved among many species
Is orgasm sympathetic or parasympathetic?
parasympathetic
what cell releases individual H+ and Cl- ions?
parietal cells! can be in a resting or active state parietal cells are important bc they have 3 diff levels of regulation
Postganglionic nerve fibers travel to the organ being innervated by travelling in ___________surrounding the supplying arteries
periarterial plexuses they just wrap around BV to help them get from point A to pitn B.
no ______ through rectum
perineal membrane
type a spermatogonium type b spermatogonium
periphery center
The suspension of the gut in the abdominal cavity is by means of two layers of this tissue, here called ___________
peritoneum
1)GOAL: PCT and DCT work to maintain the BLOOD pH between 7.35‐7.45 2) PCT, DCT, and intercalated cells of collecting duct use carbonic anhydrase 3) HCO3‐ and H+ released by the nephron and collecting duct will be taken up by the bloodstream (_____ capillaries, black arrows, top right; vasculature in medulla)
peritubular
RBC formation
pluripotent stem cell myeloid stem cell and then erythropoiesis (below): progenitor cell proerythroblast basophilic erythroblast polychromatophilic erythroblast orthochromatophilic erythroblast reticulocyte erythrocyte
TEFs can also result in polyhydramnios, or _____
pneumonia following birth
What are "recesses?"
potential spaces created by uninflated lungs not filling the entirety of the pulmonary cavities
neuroendocrine cells **** HAVE BOTH PARACRINE AND ENDOCRINE EFFECTS****
produce peptide hormones Presence causes GI segment to be called the "largest endocrine organ in body" • Uptake amino acids, release polypeptide hormones to lamina propria, then blood capillaries 4. Neuroendocrine 56 1. Lipid‐soluble amino acids enter the neuroendocrine cells ‐modified to produce amines Amines - part of the polypeptide hormones that can stimulate or inhibit target cell function 2. Polypeptide hormone released into lamina propria, reaches capillaries 3. Hormones bind to targets and stimulate or inhibit a cellular function.
inguinal canal is a result of
product of gubernaculum's retraction during development Oblique course ensures that increased abdominal pressure closes the canal, mitigating the likelihood of herniation • Two inguinal rings at the extremities: - Deep inguinal ring in transversalis fascia is the proximal entrance to the canal - Superficial inguinal ring in EAO aponeurosis is the distal exit from the canal • Pass spermatic cord contents in males and round ligament in females
Chordae tendinae with endothelium on outer surface, dense ______CT at core - no blood supply
regular
Respiratory or Conducting Portion? WHERE GAS EXCHANGE OCCURS! -respiratory bronchioles -alveolar ducts -alveolar sacs -alveoli (1st site of gas exchange!)
respiratory
The nasal cavity is continuous with the nasopharynx which is also lined with ___________ epithelium.
respiratory
The cells that start Meiosis II/Prophase II, because of their unique chromosomal number are now referred to as _______________
secondary spermatocytes shortest of all phases, lasting only minutes - so it is very rare to find secondary spermatocytes in histological preparations of the seminiferous tubules. At the completion of Telophase II, the nuclear material is again divided - resulting in each of the 4 "daughter" cells produced having a haploid number of chromosomes. These cells are now referred to as spermatids.
Tough fibrous coating of the of the testes is the light colored=
tunica albuginea
KNOW THIS LIKE THE BACK OF YOUR HAND
tunica albuginea= DICT (highly vascularized) primordial follicles= in cortex; simple squamous primary follicles= in cortex; simple cuboidal ovarian ligament= attaches to wall of uterus corpus luteum= steroidal hormone factory; estradiol AND progestrins. CL will remain in place until implantation occurs; "lutein"=yellow bc of all the cholesterol; albicans=white bc of all the collagen fibroblasts LH allows cells to go through prophase II; polar body is ovulated with the egg cell.
Below is a microscopic image of the aorta (4X); Identify the correct numbered layer (1)
tunica externa/adventitia
what promotes free movement of the testes within the spermatic cord and scrotum?
tunica vaginalis
Because the portal system is ________, blood can flow back through tributaries to drain into the IVC via four __________
valveless portacaval anastomoses 1) Left gastic vein (P) -> esophageal branches of the Azygos and Hemiaygous veins (C): presents as esophageal varices (dilated veins) 2) Superior rectal vein (P) -> Inferior rectal vein (C): presents as rectal varices, also known as internal hemorrhoids (WILL REVIEW IN PELVIS LECTURES) 3) Para-umbilical vein traveling with the ligamentum teres (P) -> Subcutaneous epigastric veins alongside the umbilicus (C): presents as "caput medusae" around the umbilicus 4) Colic branches of the IMV (P) -> retroperitoneal veins on the posterior abdominal wall (C): no clinical presentation (asymptomatic)
The tail of the epididymis is continuous with the __________ - a component of the spermatic cord.
vas deferens
Formation of NEW blood vessels: a) angiogenesis b) vasculogenesis *BOTH require VEGF
vasculogenesis
Contents of the umbilical cord: 1. Allantois 2. Vitelline duct (only in distal part) 3. Loop of gut (only in proximal part) 4. Umbilical vein (unpaired) 5. Umbilical arteries (paired) 6. Cover of amnion **ON EXAM
vein that carries most oxygenated blood in body= umbilical vein (despite the fact it's a vein)
purkinje cells
ventricles
Because the gut herniated through the umbilical cord, _______________ and ______________ will cover the herniated organs. Occurrence: 1:6000 births.
visceral peritoneum amnion
Number 1 on the photomicrograph indicates the ____ membrane which is comprised of podocytes. Number 2 indicates the ______ membrane which is comprised of simple squamous epithelial cells and a basement membrane
visceral; parietal Visceral membrane = podoctyes Parietal membrane = Bowman's capsule
CC: Vitelline Cysts and Fistula
vitelline cysts (syn. Umbilico‐vitelline cysts) may occur in a fibrous cord connecting Meckel's diverticulum and umbilicus. Similarly, the connection to the umbilicus may remain patent (umbilico‐ileal or vitelline fistula).
Meckel's diverticulum is a ______ abnormality ***ONNNNN EXAMMMM
vitelline duct Remnant of the proximal portion of the vitelline duct (also called yolk stalk). symptoms mimic appendicitis painless rectal bleeding Meckel's diverticulum is an outpouching or bulge in the lower part of the small intestine. The bulge is congenital (present at birth) and is a leftover of the umbilical cord. Meckel's diverticulum is the most common congenital defect of the gastrointestinal tract. more common in males
larynx
voice box; passageway for air moving from pharynx to trachea; contains vocal cords 1.) Close the trachea during swallowing 2.) Produce sounds
insulin synthesis
we can much more easily test for peptide C in urine than insulin. Has a much longer half-life! in golgi, enzymatic activity will clip out C-chain, which is now known as C-peptide. It's packaged with insulin.
Small intestine photos
what other cell type can be found next to paneth cells and crypts? stem cells!
mechanisms that prevent autodigestion of the pancreas
‐ Digestive enzymes are packaged in vesicles. ‐ Digestive enzymes are inactivated by the low pH in vesicles. ‐ Many digestive enzymes are stored as proenzymes. ‐ Inhibitory molecules such as trypsin inhibitor keep digestive enzymes inactive in the pancreas.
CEPHALIC PHASE
‐ excitatory ‐brain responds to the sight, smell, taste and even the thought of food ‐Release of gastrin (Neuroendocrine cells of stomach) Parietal cells activation chief cells activated
hemorrhoids
‐Swollen vessels of the rectum or anal canal, stretched thin, irritated by passing bowel ‐Internal hemorrhoids - bleeding, no feeling they are there (unless large enough to protrude out of body) ‐External hemorrhoids - bleeding, painful, can cause clots
paneth cells
‐base of crypts ‐eosinophilic (red) granules store/secrete lysozyme and other antibacterial agents, like defensins ‐provide innate immunity (don't have to be exposed to antigen)
filtration slits
‐contain meshwork of overlapping nephrin molecules that are anchored to actin filaments within pedicels
secondary heart field gives rise to
• Trabeculated part of the right ventricle • The conus cordia • The truncus arteriosus
Variations in Great Arteries
- Approximately 65% of people show the "normal" pattern of three branches off the aortic arch. Numerous variations exist. For example, in approximately 27% of people, the left common carotid artery may originate from the brachiocephalic trunk.
Clara cells
- Bronchioles!!!!!! -MUC5AC, MUC5B
Ilioinguinal nerve
- Collateral branch - In 30% of people, will end after piercing IAO - In most people, exits the superficial inguinal ring (see below...) to innervate the skin near genitalia and inner thigh
Angelman's syndrome "Happy Puppet"
Gene Imprinting = Gene "Silencing" = DNA methylation of paternal sequence on Chromosome 15 q‐arm
what are antagonists of PGI2 and NO?
-PGH2 and Thromboxane A2 -stimulate Ca2+ release of smc via MLCK pathway
There are ___ valves in the heart
4! -Atrialventricular valves (mitral, tricuspid); controls blood flow from atria--> ventricles -Ventricular semilunar valves (pulmonary, aortic); control blood flow out of the ventricles to enter the pulmonary trunk/aorta
Identify the correct structure below (1); and identify the tissue that comprises it (2)
Chordae tendinae; Dense Regular CT
Folliculogenesis:
Corpus hemorrhagica Corpus luteum If implantation does not occur Corpus albicans
M-cells schematic
Dendritic cell interacts with T‐cells ‐activate immune responses ‐dendritic cells also leave to local lymph nodes to initiate adaptive immune responses
Secondarily Retroperitoneal
Under the pressure of surrounding organs, an organ loses its dorsal mesentery and becomes fixed to the posterior abdominal wall
Muscles of the Posterior Abdominal Wall: Psoas Major
Unites with iliacus to form iliopsoas -PA: centra and ventral transverse processes of last thoracic and all lumbar vertebrae -DA: lesser trochanter of the femur (as iliopsoas) -Action: primary & strongest thigh flexor (as iliopsoas) -Innervation: lumbar ventral rami
PS (Vagus)
cardiac reflexes (yawning) and change in pressure +oxygen
what is the foregut supplied by
celiac trunk
blood supply for foregut
celiac trunk (T12)
Initially, the hindgut shares, at its caudal extremity, a common cavity with the urogenital system: this cavity is called the ________
cloaca
The respiratory system has 2 functional divisions:
conducting portion and respiratory portion
Gubernaculum: cord made up of _______________ and _________ that runs from the site of future scrotum or future labium majorum to the embryonic gonad
connective tissue and smooth muscle
ductus arteriosis
connects pulmonary artery to aorta bypasses lungs
foramen ovale
connects the two atria in the fetal heart
Nodal cells have a relatively _____ refractory period compared to contractile muscle cells in atria and ventricles
long
pelvic diaphragm muscles
pubococcygeus iliococcygeus coccygeus
one of the functions of the sertoli cells is to phagocytize ____
residual body cells
middle colic artery
supplies the transverse colon
Is ejaculation sympathetic or parasympathetic?
sympathetic
DNA polymerase III
synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction prokaryotic
Genital tubercle
Penis (except ventral) Clitoris Erectile Bodies (both sexes)
Knowledge of potential variation in the branching pattern of the cystic artery can be important for ___________ (removal of the gall bladder)
cholecystectomy
The muscular tissue in these cords degenerates, creating the
chordae tendineae
nonspecific response is earlier/later
earlier
Femoral:
exits through the femoral ring inferolateral to the inguinal ligament, travelling through fascia lata until the saphenous opening where it presents subcutaneously
Below is a TEM demonstrating the details of an intercalated disk connecting 2 adjacent cardiac myocytes. Identify the structure below indicated by the number (1) and arrow
gap junctions
urethral fold becomes labia minora
genital swelling becomes labia majora
why is the SHF important?
gives rise to rest of right ventricle and the outflow tract, and a little bit of the atria *what is the outflow tract? conus cordis and truncus arteriosus
jejunum has BV but no ____
glands
T/F: there is no gas exchange in terminal bronchiole
true!
hydrocele of testis
excess fluid in the tunica *vaginalis*
_________ are also derived from the myeloid precursor, however they lack visible granules in their cytoplasm.
monocytes
ventricular folds
false vocal folds also known as "vestibular" vocal folds ***
Angiotensin I --> Angiotensin II
ACE AngII is most potent vasoconstrictor in human body
What is known as the "stick in your pockets muscle?"
External intercostal
Obturator nerve
L2-L4
mesenchymal cells are derived from the epiblast T/F
True
what 2 cell types are found in the alveolar epithelium?
Type 1 pneumocytes Type 2 pneumocytes
Urethral fold forms
Ventral side of Penis (m) Labium minus (f)
summary slide
What is projecting from the submucosa? a) nothing - oropharynx, esophagus, stomach, appendix, colon, rectum/anus b) villi - small intestine
Thorax=part of the body between neck and ____
abdomen
interlobular duct
is larger than inTRAlobular
circumflex branch
runs to the left and circles posteriorly where it anastomoses with the right coronary artery **know this
trachea
smooth muscle
endocrine functions of kidneys include
EPO (glycoprotein) Renin Hydroxylates inactive steroid hormone vitamin D into the active form of 1,25‐dihydroxyvitamin D 3 or calcitrol
what are swell bodies?
VENOUS sinusoids olfactory epithelium
coronary sinus
empties into *right atrium*
goblet cell or clara cell? Locations - Nasal Cavity - Larynx - Trachea - Bronchi - Terminal Bronchioles (Very Few)
goblet cell
Yolk Sac is derived from ____
hypoblast
norepinephrine is primary treatment for ______
hypotension
you wanna be in the ____ because there are more arcades and shorter lines
ileum
drumstick appendage
in females, the inactive X chromosome appears as a drumstick appendage (NEUTROPHILS) "I'm neutral about drumsticks" :)
What is another word for coarctation?
indentation
3 different types of inguinal hernias:
indirect (congenital) direct (acquired) femoral
The location(s) of respiratory epithelium include
inferior and middle nasal conchae.
Hindgut is supplied by
inferior mesenteric artery
hindgut blood supply
inferior mesenteric artery (L3)
segmentation=
inner circular layer
All intercostal muscles maintain tension of thoracic wall during _____
inspiration
MRI=
intensity
The cell bodies lie in the __________(IML) of the spinal cord (lateral horn- between dorsal and ventral horns)
interiomediolateral column
Is the spleen retroperitoneal or intraperitoneal?
intraperitoneal (covered by hilum) EXCEPT at the hilum
crista terminalis
landmark used to locate veins entering right atrium
respiratory area of nasal cavity
largest portion of nasal cavity respiratory epithelium is PSCC
Thrombopoietin is produced mainly by ___
liver hepatocytes enhances differentiation and maturation of megakaryoblasts--> megakaryocytes
what is the largest gland in the body?
liver! *It's the second largest organ in the body (makes up 2.5% of body mass)
Red Bone Marrow development prenatally
liver-->spleen-->bone marrow "You Love Smart Boys" yolk sac, liver, spleen, bone marrow
Venous Drainage
microscopic--> macroscopic capillaries--> venules-->veins--> vena cava
Terminal digestion via enzymes in _________
microvilli
what is the innermost of the 4 basic layers?
mucosa! divided into three sub layers: a) Epithelium - lines lumen; can be modified for protection, secretion or absorption b) Lamina propria - layer of loose CT that houses glands, blood vessels, immune cells c) Muscularis mucosa - smooth muscle involved in the contraction of the mucosa
endometrium
mucosal lining of the uterine cavity has significant lamina propria
*development of the sinus venosus* at approx. day 24, the sinus venosus receives blood from right and left sinus horns. the area between the atria and sinus venosus begins to _____
narrow
demarcation channels
narrow invaginations in plasmolemma
There are several multi-lobed cell types found in RBM. What are they?
neutrophils and megakaryocytes
Elastase, produced by __1__ is involved with the pathological pulmonary condition __2__ depicted by which photomicrograph?
neutrophils, B A - asthma, goblet cell metaplasia and mucus plug B - emphysema, overwhelming release of elastase by neutrophils causes destruction of lung parenchyma
Functionally, the PCT is the site where most of the water, electrolytes and nutrients in the filtrate are returned to the blood in the Peritubular capillaries. The DCT is the site of secretion of acids and toxins. Additional reabsorption of water, electrolytes and nutrients can occur here - under the influence of ADH, aldosterone and parathyroid hormone.
nice to know!
Would a blastocyst be able to successfully implant in this uterine tissue? Be able to defend your answer.
no bc this pic is in the proliferative phase of uterus
A-fib
no p-wave
are villi present in pyloric stomach?
no! only in duodenum! there are crypts of lieburkuhn and villi
ultrasound imaging and pregnancy
non pregnant girl
Type 2 Diabetes
non-insulin dependent adult onset body develops insulin resistance coupled with a deficiency in insulin production 90% of diabetics *hispanic women and men> african americans
Olfactory receptor cells are sometimes referred to as "olfactory hair cells" because they possess __1__. These cells are __2__ neurons
nonnnnnnn-motile cilia, bipolar
biochem red star slide
nonpolar compounds processed by SER right box: O2 free radicals, ultimately leading to necrosis; PM integrity decreases and immune system sets active enlarged bulbous fluid accumulation of space of disse wherer lymph fluid accumulates left box: this process produces free floating H+ which lowers pH and leads to necrosis
highly cellular lamina propria is rich in blood vessels Bowman's glands large cross-sections of unmyelinated axons within the connective tissue (olfactory fila)
olfactory epithelium
superior nasal concha
olfactory epithelium
which epithelium is thicker? olfactory or respiratory?
olfactory epithelium *the dark area in red rectangle is bone
Which of the following cells have cilia on their apical surface? Basal cells Olfactory receptor cells Supporting cells Goblet cells Brush cells
olfactory receptor cells!
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells (respiratory epithelium) is located where?
on the caudal (lower) region of the posterior (laryngeal) surface. Many of the cilia are absent on this autopsy specimen. Taste buds, mucous glands and serous glands might be visible in the epithelium of the posterior surface.
efferent ductules
only ciliated thing in male repro tract scalloped shape
suspensory ligament=
ovarian artery and vein
Right ventricle
papillary muscles: irregular muscle bundles on the ventricular wall (except at infundibulum). Connect the ventricular wall to the atrioventricular valve. ant, pos, septal muscles chordae tendinae: slender, fibrous threads that arise from apices of the papillary muscles. Insert into the free edges and ventricular surfaces of the valve cusps.
Separating the cortex region from the medulla is the __________
paracortex *this is lymph info
It's all about location, location, location!
paracortex= T-helper cells S Sinus= dendritic cells, APCs medullary cords= macrophages, helper and killer T-cells, plasma cells
A few near the midline drain to the _____________
parasternal or anterior or diaphragmatic lymph nodes
Thorax=
part of body between neck and abdomen
_________ of lamins leads to disassembly of nuclear envelope
phosphorylation The importance of lamins to nuclear structure can be seen during mitosis. In prometaphase, Cyclin‐Cdks enter nucleus and phosphorylate lamins and proteins that link lamins to membrane. This disrupts the lamin network leading to breakdown of nuclear membrane.
sucrose and lactose are hydrolyzed by oligosaccharidases in the _________________
plasma membrane of microvilli
anal triangle
posterior half of the perineum
ADH is released from
posterior pituitary acts on collecting ducts
Lymphoid nodules that do not have germinal centers are _______ nodules. _______ lymphoid nodules will always have an activated germinal center. **ON EXAM
primary secondary
principal cells (p-p) "principal cells have primary cilium"
primary cilium -membrane-associated proteins: -polycystin-1 cell-cell & cell-ECM adhesive -polycystin-2 Ca2+ permeable channel -cilium acts as a mechanoreceptor for fluid flow (levels of filtrate volume/pressure)
Typa A dark spermatogonia
primordial germ cell grouping granddaddies of all spermatozoa at end of MITOSIS, you have 1A pale and 1A dark
what are the 2 main cell types in the collecting duct?
principal cells intercalated cells
Type 2 pneumocyte
produces surfactant -cuboidal with microvilli -bulge into alveolus -lamellar bodies -stem cells; if Type I's damaged, Type II's proliferate, differentiate into Type I's
you can use collagen to help support a *RED STAR
prolapsed uterus
prostatic peripheral zone is where ____
prostate carcinoma originates
Glans of littre
protective coat to protect from acidity of URINE
What part of the stomach has simple, tubular, branching glands?
pyloric stomach
DNA gyrase
relaxes supercoiling ahead of the replication fork
Urine is formed in _________ where it drains to the ___________
renal pyramid renal papilla (apex)
After leaving the bronchi, NO airways will be lined with a ________
respiratory epithelium
Molecular signaling involving Gut Tube development 1. A gradient of ________ develops, increasing from cranial to caudal 2. This leads to the expression of different transcription factors along different parts of the gut. 3. Endodermal epithelium then secretes sonic hedgehog (SHH) that induces parts of the gut to specialize, making stomach, duodenum, etc. 4. For instance, SHH induces the hind gut to express Hox 9‐13, in a nested pattern
retinoic acid
rectum
retroperitoneal
what are the 2 valves in right ventricle?
right AV right semilunar (pulmonary) infow to the right ventricle is the tricuspid valve outflow= pulmonary valve
The trachea bifurcates into the _________
right and left bronchi
Name the 4 lobes of the liver:
right, left, quadrate, and caudate lobes quadrate lobe by gallbladder (GQ)
Waldeyer's ring
ring of lymphoid tissue surrounding the entrance to the pharynx Pharyngeal tonsil/Adenoid -Nasopharynx Palatine tonsils (paired) - Oropharynx Tubal tonsils (paired) - Oropharynx Lingual tonsils - Tongue
carb digestion in mouth carb digestion in duodenum
salivary amylase pancreatic amylase
descending colon
secondarily peritoneal
Sensitization phase= initial exposure to pathogen Effector phase= subsequent exposure to pathogen effector phase accompanied by anaphylaxis (nausea, difficulty breathing)
sensitization= proliferation of cells effector=macrophages and actual destruction?
cisterna chyli
serves as a storage area for purified lymph before this lymph returns to the bloodstream
corpus albecans
shriveled up and degenerated corpus luteum
kupfer cells are inside ___
sinusoids *there are pores in the sinusoids so the kupffer cells leak out and patrol the space of disse and activate lymph
what is the principal site for *terminal digestion* of food and *absorption* of the products of digestion
small intestine
Molecules produced by endothelial cells target____
smooth muscle cells
If you're a new, young RBC, you are flexible enough to squeeze through the capillary and make your way back through circulation. However, if you're an old RBC and are not that flexible, you can't go back into circulation. So, who then takes care of me? Macrophages.
something about stave cells
what types of granules do granulocytes have?
specific AND azurophilic granules Specific granules have specific functions whereas azurophilic granules are specialized lysosomes that stain poorly
Spermiogenesis: • Golgi phase • Cap Phase • Acrosomal Phase • Maturation Phase
spermatid--> spermatozoa not a red star slide flagellum of spermatozoa has 9+2 microtubule arrangement mitochondria aggregate in midpiece spermiogenesis is the last stage of spermatogenesis
Corticomedullary boundary
squamous epithelial cells with occluding junctions that partition the cortex from the medulla.
In alveolar space, SP-B,C _________ the coat of surfactant molecules **ON EXAM
stabilize
Cytoreticulum
star-shaped (stellate) epithelial cells with rigid cytoskeletal projections that form a structural scaffold that provides for attachment of developing lymphoblasts. Thymic epithelial cells are unique, as they are capable of functioning as antigen presenting cells. They can display both MHC I and MHC II proteins
The vagal trunks then follow the esophagus down into the abdomen (i.e., through the esophageal hiatus at T10) to participate in the __________
subdiaphragmatic plexus
All lymph channels inferior to the umbilicus drain to the ___________
superficial inguinal lymph nodes
midgut is supplied by
superior mesenteric artery
midgut blood supply *most of the GI tract is midgut (so the SMA is huge!)
superior mesenteric artery (L1)
Abdomen ends arbitrarily at the ____________ the beginning of the true pelvis
superior pelvic inlet
SAD PUCKER (retroperitoneal organs)
suprarenal glands, aorta, duodenum, pancreas, ureters, colon, kidneys, esophagus, rectum
type 2 pneumocytes produce
surfactant *lamellar bodies lamellar has 2 l's so it's type 2 pneumocytes
disjunction at diplotene
synapsis at zygotene crossing over pachytene disjunction diplotene
what is the functional unit of pulmonary acinus Site of oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange Composed of an alveolar epithelium
the alveolus
BMPs 2 and 4 are secreted by
the endoderm and lateral plate mesoderm *important for heart development
multiple cell types in islets of langerhans: ALPHA = glucagon (periphery) BETA = insulin (central) DELTA = somatostatin EPSILON = ghrelin F = pancreatic polypeptide (PP) *where is the greatest abundance of islets located?
the first 3 are also found in stomach relative abundance of hormones: B>A>D>F>E *Tail of pancreas! **ON EXAM
rugae
the folds in the mucosa lining the stomach can stretch and extend to allow us to eat giant dinners when you're really hungry, you're rugae are contracting
What cells are not found in the respiratory epithelium? a. goblet cells b. ciliated columnar cells c. basal cells d.neuroendocrine cells e. brush cells
they are all found there!
olfactory epithelium rests on a ________ basement membrane
thinner
The abdominal diaphragm is a large dome shaped sheet of muscle b/w the abdominal and ______cavities. the abdominal diaphragm is innervated by the (C3-5)
thoracic
• Lumbar lymphatic trunks combine with the intestinal lymph trunks to form the ______ • A dilated, thin-walled sac may be present at the formation of the thoracic duct, known as the ______
thoracic duct cisterna chyli
At day 22+/- 1: the heart is now in position in the _____ the heart is now (mostly) a _____ tube
thorax single tube (split though towards the caudal end) next step= formation of cardiac loop
Hassall's corpuscles
thymus medulla
All of the organs of the immune system are derived from the mesoderm primary germ layer EXCEPT: red bone marrow. tonsils. lamina propria. spleen. thymus gland.
thymus! it's derived from the endoderm
Bile Cannaliculi - flanked by _____
tight juctions (zonula occludens)
lymphatic vessels have valves T/F
true!
round ligament of liver is remnant of
umbilical vein
absorption of small proteins=
uptake by enterocytes shuttled to liver for processing
absorption of *small* chain lipids
uptake by enterocytes, sent to liver for processing
Intercostal nerve= spinal nerve
ventral ramus
CC: Hypospadias
‐ failure of the urethral folds to fuse in the male, leading to leakage of urine during urination (1:300). The external urethral office will be on the ventral side of the penis.
macula densa cells
‐specialized epithelial cells that act as filtrate sensor ([salt], pressure, volume) ‐vascular pole of the renal corpuscle ‐cells narrower, taller, and closely packed ‐apically located nuclei, Golgi in basal domain
Serosa
‐thin layer of loose CT ‐covered by a simple squamous epithelium (mesothelium) ‐continuous with mesenteries in abdominal cavity and with peritoneum
ascending limb
‐water impermeable, no water leaves ‐filtrate concentrates are dumped from LOH into Vasa Recta and into extracellular fluid of medulla ‐RESULT: filtrate in LOH becomes diluted
descending limb
‐water permeable ‐water leaves LOH into Vasa Recta for reabsorption ‐RESULT: filtrate in LOH becomes highly concentrated
CT
• Gamma cameras detect (gamma) radiation emanating from the patient. • Emitted radiation produces light through the use of scintillation crystals. • Light is detected/localized, thereby creating an image
Peyer's Patches in the distal Jejunum/Ileum:
• Has a serosa • Villi
Muscles of the Posterior Abdominal Wall: Quadratus Lumborum
• Quadratus lumborum: Most posterior of the longitudinal muscles of the posterior wall - PA: last rib and transverse processes lumbar vertebrae - DA: Iliac crest (deep to lat. dorsi) - Action: lateral trunk flexion - Innervation: Ventral rami of T12- L4
leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, diakinesis
"let's zip pants david dear"
grey blob *RED STAR SLIDE*
*know this order
Hounsfield units measure absorption coefficient of differing tissues
-= gas (grey) 0= water += bone, white
what 2 cells in the respiratory epithelium are not visible in light microscopy? **ON EXAM
-APUD cells (Kulchitcky cells) -brush cells
Esophagus
-CONDUCTING ‐stratified squamous NK epithelium ‐esophageal card. glands in LP ‐esophageal glands in S‐mucosa ‐M. externa has mixed muscle types
***ON EXAM
1 = Interlobular artery; 2 = Afferent arteriole; 3 = Efferent arteriole; 4 = Peritubular capillary
In contrast to the seminal vesicles, the prostate gland contributes __1__ volume to the seminal fluid with secretions comprised of __2___.
1 = less; 2 = semen anti-coagulating factors
What are the two layers that make up mucous?
1) Periciliary layer (mostly watery area so less viscous than mucous layer) 2) Mucous gel layer (top) -MUC5AC, MUC5B
type 1 and 2 pneumocytes
1- thin, simple squamous where gas exchange occurs 2- cube shaped secretory cells that produce surfactant
Below is a photomicrograph of both a distal (DCT) and a proximal (PCT) convoluted tubule. Which of the following is correct?
1-DCT, 2-PCT due to the more pronounced brush border in 2 1-DCT, 2-PCT due to the larger lumen in 1
what is the portal triad made up of?
1. portal arteriole 2. portal venule 3. bile duct
2 cell types in collecting duct
1. principal cells 2. intercalated cells
Lymph node structure
1.Cortex 2.Paracortex 3.Medulla 4.Dense irregular connective tissue - capsule 5.Sub-capsular sinus 6.Lymph nodule = Primary follicle 7.Trabecula with Trabecular sinus 8.Medullary cord 9.Medullary sinus
midgut loop until week
11
The time required to mature a unilaminar/primary follicle to a multilaminar/secondary follicle is approx. ____ days.
120
how long is the small intestine?
18 ft long!
ampulla of vas deferens =
2
At approximately day 27, ____ AV endocardial cushions appear
4
adult human has over ____ miles of capillaries!
50,000!
know this
A = eosinophil B = neutrophil with a multi-lobed nucleus C = basophil D = lymphocyte E = cross-section through a platelet
CC: Pelvic Kidney
A kidney that fails to ascend during the fetal stage will remain in the pelvis and is called a pelvic kidney.
Dehydrated:
ADH is abundant ‐water reabsorbed collecting ducts -->blood ‐ hypertonic (concentrated) urine
Hydrated:
ADH is normal ‐hypotonic urine (dilute, clear‐ish)
Pneumothorax
Air inside the pleural cavity so lung can't be expanded; results in collapsed lung; ex: bullet punctures
APDKD
Autosomal Polycystic Kidney Disease Cause: ‐mutations in either of two genes: PKD‐1, PKD‐2 (encode for polysystin‐1 and polycystin‐2 proteins) of principal cells of collecting ducts Results: ‐defects in mechanosensing in cilia of principal cells within collecting ducts ‐massive cysts caused by dilation of collecting ducts, segments of the nephron Symptoms: flank pain, blood hypertension, large kidneys (palpable abdominal masses extending into pelvis) progressive renal failure after 30‐40 years of age, destruction of kidney parenchyma Treatment (worsens with age, ultimately fatal): extend life of patients via renal dialysis or transplantation
A fracture through the body of the sternum and adjacent costal cartilages has the potential to damage all of the following tissues EXCEPT: A. Internal intercostal muscle B. Parietal pleura C. External intercostal muscle D. Transversus thoracis E. Endothoracic fascia ***ON EXAM
C. External Interocostal *this is more lateral, the other choices are more medial
Occlusion of which of the following arteries would NOT compromise the blood supply to a suprarenal gland? A. Inferior phrenic artery B. Middle suprarenal artery C. First lumbar artery D. Renal artery
C. First lumbar artery
Huntington's Disease (HD) is a rare genetic disease inherited as an autosomal dominant mutation on the short arm of chromosome 4. What is the molecular aberration that causes this disease?
C. Trinucleotide expansion (CAG) repeated 36 or more times.
Clinical Correlate: Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (Triple A)
Considered pathological if aortic diameter is ≥ 3 cm and in need of repair if ≥ 5 cm, as there is an increased risk of rupture. • Mostly commonly seen in males ≥ 60 yrs of age with a family history of the disease. Risk is exacerbated by smoking. • Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain is the most common presenting symptom - Clinical triad of abdominal/lower back pain, pulsatile abdominal mass, and hypotension suggests need for immediate repair
Cystography
Cystography: contrast examination of the urinary bladder - Utilizes a catheter to instill contrast media into the urinary bladder in retrograde fashion • Imaging of the urinary bladder is performed during filling/after voiding (with imaging also possible during the act of urination/voiding, if indicated clinically) • Useful for assessment of hematuria (i.e. blood in the urine), trauma Pts, neoplastic surveillance
Adventitia
DICT lacks a mesothelium
Arteries
EphrinB2 thicker walls more elastin "ar-2-ries" "B2"
Veins
EphrinB4 thinner walls less elastin
What blood cell transport process does this image illustrate?
Hemostasis
Within a hepatic acinus, the most oxygenated blood is located closest to which of the following structures?
Hepatic arteriole
CC: ischioanal abscesses
Ischioanal abscesses (perianal abscesses) may spread from a small lesion in the mucosa of the anal canal (caused by hardened fecal material, for instance), causing discomfort in the buttocks that results in symptoms similar to those of hemorrhoids. Draining these can put the branches of the pudendal nerve and the nerve to obturator internus at risk.
What event(s) have occurred for the oocyte in the illustration on the left to transform to the oocyte on the right?
LH surge
macula densa= nice flow chart!
LOCAL REGULATION OF *FILTRATE*
The bronchi no matter what their size/diameter or where they are located within the lung tissue - all have similar histological features:
Lined with pseudo-stratified ciliated columnar epithelium with mucous producing cells Epithelium rests on a basement membrane, which separates the epithelium from the lamina propria/submucosa Embedded in the submucosa are: 1. Blood vessels 2. Lymphatics 3. Bundles of smooth muscle 4. Cartilaginous plates of hyaline cartilage 5. Sero-mucous glandssecretions move to bronchial lumen by ducts
What regulates the rate at which bolus of food enters the stomach?
Lower esophageal sphincter! Thickening of the inner circular layer of the muscularis externa Usually closed: prevents reflux of gastric contents into esophagus
The basic architecture of the gut wall is from innermost to outermost layer:
Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, adventitia/serosa Epithelium, loose/dense CT, smooth muscle, mesothelium
cremaster muscle
Muscle that pulls the scrotum closer to the body in cold temperatures and relaxes to let the testicles be farther away from the body in warmer weather
Superficial pouch
Muscles: Three paired muscles are located in the superficial pouch of both sexes. Gland: In the female, the superficial pouch houses the Greater Vestibular Gland (Bartholin's gland)
What cells have 2 important receptors that mediates their activation/function?
NK cells
small intestine
No glands above m. mucosa, indicating this image was not taken from the stomach. Epithelium not enriched with goblet cells, suggesting it isn't taken from the colon. Bright pink cells near the Muscularis mucosa indicates paneth cells, which indicates this section is from the small intestine.
Does this tissue layer contribute to the taeniae coli?
No, this is the innermost layer of smooth muscle.
Intercalated cells
Not as numerous along the length of the collecting duct as Principal cells, Intercalated cells are darker staining with apical microvilli - but no primary cilium. These cells function to secrete either H+ ions or HCO3 ions to maintain a normal pH range for the blood plasma.
Hepatic Lobule (classic):
O2 and nutrient rich blood flowing into central vein. We also think about flow in the OPPOSITE direction of the bile. Bile flows outwards towards periphery, O2/Nutrient rich blood flow inwards towards center "bile flows towards beriphery"
CC: Persistent AV Canal
Occurs when AV cushions fail to fuse, and a defect occurs in the cardiac septum
The TEM below was harvested from an organ of the female reproductive tract. Which organ(s) could this tissue sample have been harvested from?
Ovaries Uterine tubes Uterus Cervix Vagina Bulb of the Vestibule All of the above *None of these is correct* male!
A physician believes that a patient's spleen is enlarged because of an abundance of T-lymphocytes. In a histological preparation of his/her spleen biopsy, T-lymohocytes would MOST LIKELY be found in the:
PALS (white-pulp)
The central artery/central arteriole of the splenic white pulp is ensheathed by:
PALS and Mostly T-cells
Below is another image below of a renal corpuscle. Identify the structure labeled (1) and identify the cell type labeled (2)
PCT Macula Densa
Fibers of the diaphragm arising from the lateral arcuate ligament occasionally fail to be deficient of actual muscle tissue, increasing the likelihood of a herniation through this site. Such a herniation could result in compression of which of the following nerves?
Subcostal nerve *Subcostal n. (T12): emerges from underneath the lateral arcuate lig. (on top of quadruatus lumborum)
POSTERIOR FORNIX
The posterior fornix is clothed by peritoneum; this thin wall is easily pierced by an instrument and may introduce infections of the abdominal cavity. It may also be used for deliberate access to the rectouterine pouch. For instance for egg retrieval in IVF
nuclear pore complex
ask about this
what's responsible for the sneeze reflex?
blunt microvilli!!! **ON EXAM**
alveolar sac=
c
The ______ is *Partially (secondarily) retroperitoneal - most of duodenum is fixed to posterior abdominal wall by the peritoneum
duodenum
what are the 2 layers that make up the parietal pericardium?
fibrous layer and serous layer
Primary Heart Field
found in the splanchnic layer of the lateral plate mesoderm looks like a "horseshoe" cranially
Which of these cells is NOT found in the small intestine? 1) goblet cells 2) enterocytes 3) paneth cells 4) neuroendocrine cells 5) stem cells 6) M-cells
*they are ALL found there 1) Enterocytes ‐digestive and absorptive cells 2) Goblet cells ‐secrete mucous 3) Paneth cells ‐bactericidal 4) Neuroendocrine cells ‐see Upper GI lecture 5) Stem cells ‐see Upper GI lecture 6) M (Microfold) cells ‐part of Peyer's Patches
Inferior to arcuate line:
- Anterior wall of sheath: EAO + IAO + TA - Posterior wall of sheath: Missing (hence the arcuate line...)
Superior to the umbilicus:
- Anterior wall of sheath: EAO + anterior lamina of IAO - Posterior wall of sheath: posterior lamina of IAO + TA
Submucosal glands
-Trachea -Bronchi -MUC5B
approximately 250 lobules/testis; 1-4 seminiferous tubule per lobule
-embedded in the mediastinum is the rete testis -tunica albuginea is what invaginates inward and creates the septa that forms the lobules of the right and left testis. Embedded in the lobules are the seminiferous tubules
PCT
-first site of reabsorption -sends water, nutrients, electrolytes to peritubular capillaries ‐help maintain acid‐base balance of blood by reabsorbing HCO3‐
stave cells
-forms a longitudinal slotted filter -restricts the travel of old RBC
CC: Dextrocardia
-heart lies on right side of thorax instead of left -may be induced during gastrulation or during looping -occurs when heart loops to the **left** instead of right during formation of cardiac loop -sometime presents with other congenital heart defects, or with syndromes such as primary ciliary dyskinesia - occurs with situs inversus or may occur with heterotaxy
what 2 things are responsible for loss of smell with age?
-loss of olfactory epithelium surface area -loss of number of cell bodies and neurons in olfactory bulb
CC: Aortic Dissection
-may result from a tear in the tunica intima or from the rupture of blood vessels within the tunica media. Blood collects between the intima and the muscular tunica media and is trapped. Hypertension is the major risk factor for aortic dissection. Aggressive anti‐hypertension therapies may prevent blood vessel rupture.
describe the crypts of the large intestine
-much deeper than small intestine -filled with mucus
fenestrated capillaries
-not found in brain -have pores in vessel wall; found in kidneys, intestines, and endocrine glands -found in kidneys bc filtration means we have a lot of things that need to pass; also small intestine -********MOLECULAR SIEVE***** -pores *within* the phospholipid bilayer -sidenote: the external lamina is still continuous with the meshwork!!! **ON EXAM
Granulocytes have ____ nuclei lobes Agranulocytes _________
-polymorphic (meaning they have 2+ lobes) -do not have lobulated nuclei
Babies without surfactant
-premature births -Diabetic mothers (high levels of insulin) -antagonize effects of corticosteroids Symptoms: rapid breathing, nasal flaring, audible grunting, cyanosis (turning blue)
Most of the white blood cells (and their cellular products) localized in a lymph node do NOT circulate, however there are several exceptions. Antibodies produced by activated B-lymphocytes would enter the lymph system via the _____(1)________. Ultimately these antibody molecules would enter the blood system at the junction between the _______(2)_______ and the _____(3)_________.
1 = efferent lymphatic vessel; 2 = subclavian vein; 3 = internal jugular vein
There are three different types, three different anatomical locations for lymphoid aggregates known as tonsils. Aggregates that have multiple, deeply invaginated crypts would be found __1__, while aggregates that have virtually no crypts would be located __2__.
1 = embedded in the walls of the oropharynx; 2 = covered by respiratory epithelium in the nasopharynx
Compared to the previous photomicrograph, these uterine tube cells suggest that the ovaries are in the early __1__ phase of the menstrual cycle when __2__ levels are low.
1 = follicular; 2 = estradiol
The first capillary network in the renal portal system is the __1__ and the second capillary network is the __2__.
1 = glomerulus; 2 = peritubular capillaries
The blood vessels that branch from the deep/central artery of the penis are the __1__ . During an erection the molecule that induces these arteries to vasodilate is __2__.
1 = helicine arteries; 2 = nitric oxide **ask about this
The germinal epithelium that covers the surface of each ovary is comprised of __1__ epithelium with the tunica albuginea located __2__to this epithelial layer.
1 = simple squamous or cuboidal; 2 = deep
The female urethra is unique histologically because the muscularis layer has/is __1__ which is significant anatomically because females lack a true __2__ sphincter. **THIS WAS ON EXAM
1 = skeletal muscle; 2 = internal urethral Inner circular layer is smooth muscle Outer layer of CIRCULARLY ARRANGED SKELETAL MUSCLE (skeletal muscle) Females have a short urethra and lack a true internal urethral sphincter
The mucous-producing glands that are activated during sexual arousal and facilitate penile insertion are located deep to the skin of the __1__ and are known as the __2__ glands.
1 = vaginal orifice perimeter; 2 = Bartholin's
Identify these two organs of the male reproductive system.
1 = vas deferens; 2 = epididymis
This is a photomicrograph (low magnification) of a cross-sectioned spermatic cord. Identify the numbered structures.
1 = vas deferens; 2 = pampiniform plexus; 3 = cremaster muscle
female urethra = #1
1 is the female urethra - the venous plexus in the lamina propria is clearly visible *ask about this
Lipid absorption in intestines
1) Bile acids emulsify fats (make into droplets to increase surface area). 2) Lipases breakdown fat droplets into glycerol, fatty acids, and monoglycerides. 3) All three molecules pass cell membrane 4) SER resynthesizes triglycerides. 5) RER synthesizes a protein coat for triglycerides 6) Golgi places coating on newly formed triglycerides (creating the chylomicron) and fuse to lateral cell membrane of enterocyte. 7) Chylomicrons pass to extracellular space (arrows) ‐uptake by lymphatic capillaries (lacteals) in lamina propria. 8) To thoracic duct (lymphatic system), to venous blood, to heart, pumped down to abdominal cavity, and liver for processing.
what are the 3 specializations of filtration in the glomerulus? ***ON EXAM
1) fenestrated epithelium 2) glomerular basement membrane (GBM)-fused basal lamina of capillary endothelium and podocytes (300-370 nm, visible in light microscopy (yellow arrows, right) 3)podocytes (extend foot processes, called pedicels, around capillaries)
Large intestine
1. Absorption of electrolytes, fluids (re‐absorb water) 2. Houses bacteria allows for vitamin B12 and vitamin K production 3. Produces mucus to help eliminate waste 4. Compact feces dead bacteria and indigestible remnants of ingested material
In the fetal period
1. The wall separating left and right paramesonephric duct disappears, making a uterus with a single lumen. 2. The paramesonephic tubercle develops a lumen (the future vagina). 3. Lumina of uterus and paramesonephric tubercle connect. 4. The hymen remains as a wall between vagina and urogenital sinus
The following male reproductive organs move to/from the scrotal sac to/from the pelvic cavity in the *spermatic cord* via the inguinal ligament:
1. Vas deferens 2. Testicular artery 3. Pampiniform plexus 4. Genital branch of the Genitofemoral nerve "TV-PG"
What are the 3 subpopulations of thymic epithelial cells?
1. Blood-thymus barrier 2. cytoreticulum 3. corticomedullary boundary
4 organs of the digestive system
1. Esophagus - tubular passage of food to stomach 2. Stomach - digestion of nutrients 3. Small Intestine-terminal digestion, absorption of nutrients 4. Large Intestine absorb water, compact feces
The cells responsible for the synthesis and secretion of estradiols is/are indicated by the number(s) on this photomicrograph, while the cells responsible for the synthesis and secretions of progestins is/are indicated by the number(s) on this photomicrograph.
2, 1 and 2 2= theca 1 =grnaulosa *ask about this
metanephros forms
Bowman's capsule Loop of Henle Convoluted tubules
Which of these illustrations represents the most appropriate choice of hepatic conceptual models when considering pathological disruptions in bile secretion?
C. Only the image on the right refers to bile secretion. Bile flows from the central veins to bile duct.
what organ of the body has no submucosa or muscularis mucosa?
GALL BLADDER the mucosa= simple columnar epithelium why do we need elastic fibers in muscularis externa? the gall bladder needs to be able to extend and reach back to its original shape * those 3 circles in the middle= highly folded simple columnar epithelium indicative of pre-gallstone like conditions
All afferent information is carried by specialized
(pseudo)unipolar neurons
seminal vesicle fluid
*Fructose *Prostaglandins *Semen coagulating proteins *citrate bubble things= vacuoles
inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
*this is the one spot where we get an anastamose b/w the celiac and SMA anterior and posterior branches; supply 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum
Immunocyte Dyscrasia
- Abnormal B‐Lymphocyte proliferation and/or activation. Results in excessive production of Ig light chains ->Bence Jones proteins. With time can lead to renal, splenic and lymph node pathologies
Between umbilicus and arcuate line:
- Anterior wall of sheath: EAO + IAO - Posterior wall of sheath: TA
Indirect (congenital): due to a fully or semi-patent processus vaginalis
- Hernia enters deep inguinal ring and protrudes through superficial inguinal into spermatic cord itself, potentially reaching all the way to the testis - Exits abdominal cavity lateral to the inferior epigastric a. (i.e., in lateral inguinal triangle)
Visceral sensation results from 4 possible stimuli:
- Ischemia - Inflammation - Distension - Cramping (tonic smooth muscle contraction) - NOT from cutting, burning, or squeezing
Cough reflex
- can be elicited when a foreign body makes contact with the carina, which is covered by a mucous membrane and is very sensitive to tactile stimulation. Main Bronchi: which one is more vertical?"Inhale a bite, it goes down the right"Inhaled objects are more likely to lodge into the right main bronchus, since it is the one that is more vertical.
The significance of red pulp in the spleen is:
-an open circulatory system exists -blood-borne pathogens are easily recognized/phagocytized by macrophages -long-lived erythrocytes are easily recognized/phagocytized by macrophages
PDGF
-platelet derived growth factor -released by platelets stimulates repair of blood vessel
**RED STAR** In the list below identify ALL of the cells that we have discussed in this course that possess carbonic anhydrase. 1. osteoclasts 2. erythrocytes 3. parietal cells of the stomach 4. chief cells of the stomach 5. neutrophils
1,2,3
what 3 cells are responsible for airway mucous production?
1. Goblet cells of the PSCC 2. Submucosal glands 3. Clara cells
RDS
1. Insufficient surfactant 2. Increased alveolar tension 3. Hypoventilation and CO2 retention 4. Decreased blood flow to lung 5. Endothelial damage 6. Fibrin and dead Type I pneumocytes create hyaline membranes that further cause CO2 retention Prevention: Administer corticosteroids to mother expected to deliver 25-34 weeks gestation Treatment -Artificial surfactant to infant's lungs -Deliver warm, moist oxygen -Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) can keep airways open -Breathing machine
Name the 3 layers of the glomerular basement membrane?
1. LAMINA RARA EXTERNA 2. LAMINA DENSA 3. LAMINA RARA INTERNA filtration slits= LRE
Name 3 urinary filtration barriers:
1. Pedicels of Podocytes 2. Fused Glomerular Basement Membrane 3. Fenestrated Endothelial Cell
what are the 4 layers of the alimentary tract?
1‐Mucosa 2‐Submucosa 3‐Muscularis (inner circular, outer longitudinal) 4‐adventitia/serosa
Histone Octamer
2 molecules each: H2A H2B H3 H4
Inferior Thoracic Aperture
Anterior border: Xiphysternal joint and costal margins - Posterior border: T12 - Lateral borders: 12th ribs - Contents: Diaphragm, esophagus, aorta, inferior vena cava
white pulp is mostly
B-cells
Which of these cartoons represents the morphology of the cardiac, gastric and pyloric glands of the stomach. Answer responses should be listed in this order!
C,B,A
Red Star Slide
CCK is the inducer for the release of the pancreatic enzymes, also the vagus nerve. Secretion is targeting central acinar cells and intercalated duct cells to release HCO3-
Cells that are "next‐door neighbors" - can physically interact with each other via ligand/receptor interactions... _______
CELL ACTIVATION
HCO3 ‐ within blood acts as a carrier for 1) HCO3 ‐ filtered through ___ web at nephrin slits, becomes part of filtrate in nephron 2) Don't want to lose HCO3‐ via urine. Need it as CO2 as a transporter in blood stream. 3) Convoluted tubules of nephron (DCT, PCT) and intercalated cells of collecting ducts help manage HCO3‐ via _______
CO2 nephrin carbonic anhydrase
WNT proteins are blocked by
CRESCENT * when WNT gets blocked by CRESCENT, this leads to expression of NKX2.5, the master gene for heart development , in the splanchnic layer of the lateral plate mesoderm
chronic bronchitis
Chronic exposure to pollutants, pathogens, and other toxins creating inflammation and narrowing of airway passages
Spermatogonia B
Dense clumps of chromatin, large nucleolus Spermatagonia B pass through the S phase of interphase, followed by G2 and rapidly proceed to MEIOSIS Because the nuclear material has been replicated in the S-phase of Interphase, these cells have double the nuclear material of either subset of Sp-A cells. Because of their unique chromosomal numbers, as these cells begin the first phase of meiosis, they are now referred to as primary spermatocytes. Upon completion of the first meiotic division, the nuclear material has now been recombined/re-assorted through crossing-over between homologous chromosomes in the Pachytene phase of Prophase I ****cytoplasmic material is not divided at this time.
CC: Thoracoepigastric Vein
Develops between the superficial epigastric v. (drains to femoral v.) and the lateral thoracic vein (drains to axillary) Provides a channel for venous blood to return to the heart in the event that that the IVC or SVC are occluded Presents symptomatically as a grossly dilated vein on the superficial trunk **on exam I think
Clinical Correlate (CC): Primary Amyloidosis-Immunocyte Dyscrasias- AL type
Dyscrasia - From ancient Greek /Galen: eucrasia = health; dyscrasia = disease. Today, generically refers to abnormal component of blood. • Amyloidosis - abnormal extracellular deposits - originally thought to be poylsaccharides/starch. Now known to be protein deposits = misfolded proteins form fibrillar aggregates. Difficult to degrade and/or phagocytize accumulate causing tissue/organ loss of architecture/loss of function.
Neuroendocrine cells are only visible in ____
EM
Superficial pouch contains erectile bodies
Erectile Bodies: In both sexes, the superficial pouch contains paired Erectile Bodies. These are balloons of tough connective tissue, filled with spongy tissue that can be inflated. (penis and clitoris)
External Intercostal Muscles
External Intercostal Muscles a. Fibers course inferomedially b. Most active during inspiration (i.e., elevate ribs) c. Become external intercostal membranes anteriorly
True or False: there is parasympathetic distribution to the body wall
FALSE! Let's say you're scared, so your hair sticks up. It's not like the PSNS tells the arrector pilli muscles "yo calm down!" It's just that the SNS innervation goes away, and everything calms down :)
The space behind the anal triangle is the ischioanal fossa, it is mostly filled with ____. The fat is semiliquid at body temperature, allowing the anal canal to change shape during defecation. The roof of the ischioanal fossa is the pelvic diaphragm.
FAT
spermatids= haploid gamete cells (has no tail OR head) spermatozoa= spermatids that have further differentiated. Has neck, tail, and head testis are highly highly vascularized -testosterone=steroid=cholesterol, which means we need a good blood supply to transport cholesterol to these cells
FINALLLL maturation= when inserted into acidic environment of vagina (capacitation) interstitial cells of Leydig= producers of testosterone; can be converted to DHT MINIMALLY. (most testosterone-->DHT conversion happens in the prostate gland!) sertoli cells= nurse cells; big nuclei; protein production; growth promoting; induction and maintenance of spermatogenesis most primitive stem cells are out in periphery. as meiosis occurs, those cells get pushed to the lumen of the seminiferous tubules
Multilaminar follicles develop under the influence of ____
FSH
True or False: AA and monosaccharides enter lymphatic system.
False! AA and monosaccharides do NOT enter lymphatic system... they travel directly in blood.
Which type of capillaries has pores but intact external lamina?
Fenestrated capillaries
Pancreas Parts
Five parts: A)Uncinate process (dives deep to SMA and SMV) B)Head (nestled in descending duodenum) C)Neck (overlies the SMA and SMV) D) Body E) Tail (passes with splenic vessels to hilum of spleen) splenic artery lies right on top of the pancreas
Sonography
General principal - Utilizes ultrasonic sound waves (introduced into the body) to analyze size, shape, and composition of organs • Transducer - A device, housing high‐quality crystals, which functions as an acoustic sensor • Transmitter: converts AC to ultrasound • Receiver: converts ultrasound to electrical signals • Transceiver: function as transmitter/receiver
This TEM clearly represents one of the epithelial cell types found in the uterine tube. These cells function to:
Generate fluid movement that directs the ovulated oocyte towards the uterus.
what is the largest category of human birth defects?
Heart and vascular abnormalities • Present in 1% of live born infants • Present in 10% of stillborn babies • 33% of babies with a chromosomal abnormality have a heart defect • 30% of heart defects occur in infants with other major malformations
Thymopoietin
Hormone secreted by the thymus, thought to stimulate the production of T-cells. initiate gene transcription and gene sequence rearrangements that results in each lymphoblast generating a unique T-cell receptor (TCR) and 2 co-receptors, CD4 and CD8.
hindgut
IMA
Because the IVC is deviated to the right side of the posterior abdominal wall, drainage for the gonadal & the suprarenal veins is asymmetric: -Right gonadal and suprarenal vein drain to _____ -Left gonadal and suprarenal veins drain to _______
IVC left renal vein
Pampiniform venous plexus: network of 8-12 veins that coalesce to form the testicular vein, which then drains into the _____ or _______
IVC (right) left renal vein (left)
______ can bind to surface of mast cells and basophils. It's produced in response to allergens not pathogens. If enough of these ABs are bound to the mast cell/basophil, they become close enough in proximity to the phospholipid bilayer that they dimerize and dimerization= degradation. **ON EXAM
IgE
What is the most prevalent antibody?
IgG; it's the only isotype that can cross placenta
What is the first category of cell formed? Ig..
IgM. Why? Because it has 10 binding sites!
Examples of atresia not caused by vascular perfusion:
Imperforate anus: the gut tube initially ends blindly in the caudal area of the fetus, separated from the amniotic cavity by the anal membrane. Failure of the anal membrane to break down leads to atresia of the anus. This may be the result of misexpression of HOX genes in the hind gut.
CC: Cryptorchism
In 3% of male births, one testis fails to descend into the scrotum. This may lead to sterility of the non‐descended testis (due to the fact that the body temperature in the abdominal cavity is higher than that of the scrotum).
Ovary Descent
In the female, a ligament similar to the gubernaculums also connects caudal pole of ovary to labium majus. This ligament remains in life, and bears the names ovarian ligament (from ovary to lateral uterus) and round ligament of the uterus (from lateral uterus, through inguinal canal). Very rarely, in females, the ovary descends further, and is found in the inguinal canal.
spermiogenesis
In this process - no further changes occur in the nuclear material, however extensive remodeling of the cytoplasm occurs to produce the developed spermatozoa with a recognizable, head, mid-piece and tail region.
collecting duct
In times of water deprivation, Antidiuretic Hormone causes cells to shed water into medulla where it is taken up by the vasculature for reabsorption.
hydrocele of cord
Indicated by a cystic structure in the spermatic cord
Appendicitis
Inflammation of the appendix resulting from occlusion Rupture can result in the spread of bacteria throughout the peritoneal cavity, causing peritonitis and eventually death T10 dermatome Pain should be particularly intense at McBurney's Point, an imaginary point 1/3 of the distance between the ASIS and the umbilicus, representing the location of the base of the appendix Rebound pain associated with pressing the releasing the abdominal wall over McBurney's Point is known as McBurney's Sign, and is indicative of appendicitis
what are the 2 cell types of the afferent arterioles?
JG cells Typical smooth muscle cells- ‐contract, decrease lumen size, less blood flow to glomerulus and filtration apparatus, decreases glomerular pressure, and INCREASE TIME FOR FILTRATE PROCESSING
Lumbar Splanchnic Nerves: arise from L1-L4
L4 no cell bodies
endothelial cells synthesize:
LOCAL/TRANSIENT MEDIATORS OF BLOOD FLOW OF BLOOD CLOTTING TRANSPORTER PROTEINS (Tissue factor and Von Willebrand's factor) P and E SELECTINS-->WBC DIAPEDESIS DURING INFLAMMATION
This photomicrograph depicts a skin biopsy taken from a patient diagnosed with Paget disease of the vulva. This presents as scaly, red patches on the external genitalia. It is often undiagnosed, may persist for years but once these cells metastasize - prognosis is poor. Where and what cells are affected in this patient?
Labia minora; stratum basale http://www.embryology.ch/anglais/dbefruchtung/planmodbefru.html http://www.glowm.com/section_view/item/289/recordset/23365/value/
What are megakaryocytes?
Large cells that break up to form platelets.
Besides the integument, ______ are some of the most extensive, pervasive tissues in the human body
MALT mucosa associated lymphoid tissues O-MALT, organized mucosa associated lymphoid tissues D-MALT, which are diffuse mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues.
What gets compressed by the heart?
Middle lobe of right lung
what 3 cycles does mitosis require?
Mitosis requires: 1. Cytoplasmic cycle = Activation/Degradation of Regulatory Proteins: Cyclins and Cyclin‐dependent kinases 2. Centrosome cycle = Centrosome pair replication/Formation of Mitotic spindle 3. Nuclear Cycle = DNA replication
ectopic pregnancy
Most common ectopic pregnancies implant in the wall of the uterine tube, which does not have the stretching ability of the uterus. The growing embryo will eventually rupture the tube and often also the blood vessels that parallel it. These have rich anastomoses. This is an extremely dangerous situation for the mother (who will bleed to death, internally), and these patients usually receive surgery immediately where pregnancy and (part of) uterine tube and ovary are removed.
________ is a significant and destructive event. It has to be repaired with scar tissue. The older the woman, the more scar tissue she has. **ON EXAM
Ovulation
Serratus posterior superior/inferior were formerly thought to function during breathing, now thought to be entirely _____ organs
PROPRIOCEPTIVE
The pale staining structure in the center is an exocrine portion of the _______ that secretes the hormone ________.
Pancreas, insulin
The pericardial sac has a complex histological structure...which of the following cartoons best represents the organization of the parietal pericardium?
Parietal pericardium has an outermost fibrous layer that is comprised of dense irregular CT plus an areolar CT and simple squamous epithelium that rests on a basement membrane.
Cri du chat syndrome:
Partial deletion Chromosome 5 Physical: Characteristic "cat-like" cry Orbital hypertelorism Malformed larynx Difficulties swallowing/sucking Microcephaly Cognitive, speech, motor delays Behavioral: Hyperactivity Aggression Repetitive movements
developmental stage of oogenesis
Primordial follicle Unilaminar follicle Multilaminar follicle Antral follicle Graafian follicle
prostate gland
Prostate Gland: ‐ Mucosa less folded ‐ SCE ‐ Over time calcium deposits/concretions accumulate in lumen of glands ‐ 3 zones: ‐ Central zone ‐ Transition zone ‐ Peripheral zone
inguinal hernias
Protrusions of visceral tissue or organs into the inguinal canal; Relatively common in males
Identify the cell type indicated by the arrows and identify which layer of the heart these cells are located at
Purkinje Fibers; Subendocardium
what do blood islands make?
RBCs and microscopic BV
The large cell in the middle of the image differs from a neutrophil in which of the following ways?
The cell is a monocyte with a kidney-bean shaped nucleus. It is capable of multiple phagocytic events.
Uterine prolapse is often associated with bladder infections. Why?
The prolapsing uterus deforms the bladder so it cannot fully drain.
3 paired muscles in females (superficial pouch)
Three paired muscles Bulbospongiosus: perineal body, covers bulb laterally Ischiocavernosus: ramus of pubis, covers crus. Superficial transverse perinei: ramus of pubis to perineal body. (super small but longest name) all 3 of these form a triangle
Which of the following best describes the placental components of dizygotic twins?
Two placentas, two amniotic sacs, two chorions Dizygotic twins and 35% of monozygotic twins have two placentas, two amniotic sacs, and two chorions (i.e., 222).
Paramesonephric duct (Muller) forms
Uterine tube (f) Infundibulum (f) Uterus (f) Vagina, superior part (f)
CC: Uterus Didelphys *these women have trouble with implantation
Uterus didelphys results from the failure of left and right paramesonephric ducts to fuse. This leads to the development of two uteri (which is the normal condition in the possum Didelphis). In less severe cases, a septum subdivides the uterine cavity (bicornuate uterus).
VASODILATION ______ TISSUE INJURY
after PROSTACYCLIN = PKA PATHWAY NITRIC OXIDE = PKG PATHWAY
death in ovary=
apoptosis
The thymus gland begins to be populated with T-lymphoblasts during the seventh month of fetal development, however as we age this gland begins to _______.
atrophy
nephrin
attaches to adjacent pedicels
Who lives in the medullary cords?
both non-specific and specific cells. why? to survey it one last time before that debris leaves that particular lymph node. Macrophages, Helper & Killer T‐cells, Plasma cells
Artery+Bronchus= ______ right superior lobar (eparterial bronchus)
bronchiopulmonary segment
A virus is an intracellular pathogen. The bacterial species that causes tuberculosis, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is similar to a virus, after it gains access to the deep lung tissue surrounding microscopic alveolar sacs, it is ingested by peripheral tissue macrophages - but is not "digested." Instead it can replicate within these cells and/or go into a dormant state. Based on your understanding of immune system cells, which of these cells would respond to M. tuberculosis in this stage of infection? a. Dendritic cells b. Basophils and Mast cells c. Killer/Cytotoxic T‐cells and NK cells d. Plasma cells e. Neutrophils
c. killer/cytotoxic T-cells and NK cells
Parietal layer of Bowman's capsule= visceral layer=
capsule made of SSqE podocytes
both the centroacinar cells and the intercalated duct cells have _____
carbonic anhydrase *helps produce HCO3-, which keeps pH high, so the digestive enzymes are NOT gonna be activated until they reach the lumen of the duodenum
parietal cell has this enzyme
carbonic anhydrase helps increase plasma pH during digestion
what muscle cells store glycogen?
cardiac AND skeletal
cytoplasmic cycle GREAT PIC! <3
cdk1+ cyclin B complex enter mitosis nuclear membrane disintegrates via lamin phosphorylation DEAAB1 (doesn't everyone always ask to be #1?) phosphorylated Rb protein in G1 causes E2F transcription factors Unphosphorylated Rb protein prevents progression of the cell past G1 phosphorylated Rb protein: by the action of cyclin D-Cdk4 complex facilitates the passage through the restriction point. Phosphorylated RB is *inactive* ask
CC: gallstones composed predominantly of: Result from processes that allow cholesterol to precipitate from solution in: Gallstones can block ___ flow. May lead to ______ (inflammation of gall bladder) and/or obstruction of bile ducts (which can result in ________).
cholesterol bile bile cholecystitis jaundice
Note: __________not part of nephron
collecting duct!
Brush cells
columnar cells with blunt microvilli contain small mucous granules
cloaca
common opening for digestive, urinary, and reproductive tracts not open at week 4 of development
5-alpha-reductase
converts testosterone to DHT lots of this found in stromal cells of prostate
pampiniform venous plexus
cools arterial blood to keep the testes below core temperature
ASK ABOUT THIS
copora amylacea
when does the heart tube create the cardiac loop?
day 23-28
amniotic cavity is derived from
ectoderm
perimetrium
endometrium contains stratum functionalis and stratum basalis
the lesser sac communicates with the greater sac via the _________
epiploic foramen
The problem with jaundice is that bilirubin has trouble getting with the transporter protein to the liver. T or F
false! no problem getting bilirubin with the transporter protein to the liver. our problem is with the LIVER and *conjugating* that bilirubin and secreting it into the bile and getting it out to the body itself
In the absence of sry,
female genitalia will develop
balloon cells cause distention
fffffffffull bladder=fffffffffflat balloon
GI Tract
from oral cavity to anus Adult abdominal organs are derivatives of the embryonic foregut, midgut, and hindgut
What are 2 important branches of L1?
iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves
The lining of the celom is formed from _____________
lateral plate medoderm ceLoM= Lateral Mesoderm
Hassel's corpuscles
medulla
Type B spermatogonium
moves to ad-luminal compartment
what allows pepsinogen--> pepsin?
pH
what is this?
polychromatophilic erythrocyte/reticulocyte side note: NEVER LET MONKEYS EAT BANANAS neutrophil lymphocyte monocyte eosinophil basophil
pharyngeal tonsil
posterior wall of nasopharynx no crypts covered by respiratory epithelium
excretory duct
simple columnar
what does the right sinus horn give rise to?
smooth-walled posterior portion of right atrium
CCK
stimulates gall bladder to secrete bile
Brunners glands are found in
submucosa of DUODENUM
mesangial cells
supports the capillary AND is contractile; also phagocytic contracts in response to AngII
ileocolic artery
terminal branch of the superior mesenteric artery; supplies the terminal ileum, cecum, appendix and proximal ascending colon
The enteric nervous system is in isolation of input from
the CNS
CD4+ T-lymphocytes are localized to
the paracortex and outermost zone of the primary nodules
Pulmonary veins carry blood _____ the heart
towards
Ribs 1-7 are _____ also known as vertebrocostal; articulate with sternum
true ribs
canalicular system of platelets
white spaces are canalicular system of platelets
Primordial follicles are the follicles that a female has in her ovaries at birth. 99% of these follicles will degenerate through atresia during the course of her lifetime.
Found at the peripheral margin/cortex of the ovary, just deep to the Tunica albuginea Usually found in clusters known as egg nests Oocyte is in Prophase I - Diplotene Follicular cells are SSqE
Pepsinogen stored in Zymogen granules
**ON EXAM
CT scan
- In males, prostate gland and seminal vesicles are imaged - In females, uterus/vagina and adnexa are imaged
Iliohypogastric nerve
- Main branch - Pierces IAO to enter plane between IAO and EAO - At the midline, just superior to the pubic symphysis, pierces the EAO aponeurosis to innervate the surrounding skin
What are the branches of the internal thoracic artery?
- Musculophrenic a.: descends inferolaterally along costal margin - Superior epigastric a.: descends inferiorly within the rectus sheath
Branches of femoral artery:
- Superficial epigastric a.: courses in the superficial fascia parallel to the inferior epigastric a. - Superficial circumflex iliac a.: courses in the superficial tissue, paralleling the deep circumflex a
General Somatic Afferent fibers carry
- exteroceptive sensations from the skin (e.g., pain, pressure, temp...) - subconscious proprioceptive information from skeletal muscle
Clara Function:
-Stem cell, participate in mucociliary clearance
Why is the primary heart field important?
-cells will form the cardiogenic region -cells will eventually give rise to atria, left ventricle, and part of right ventricle *18days
what are tracheoesophageal ridges?
-longitudinal ridges that separate the lung bud from the foregut -The ridges then fuse to form the tracheoesophageal septum
Identify the numbered regions of this photomicrograph of the testis/scrotal cavity.
1 = epididymis; 2 = seminiferous tubules; 3 = efferent ductules
extensive ___ like surface on basolateral side
2nd pic
*RED STAR* development of class1-class6 follicle=
340ish days oocyte= "locked" into prophase I primordial follicle (simple sq. epithelium) 150 days later and you have a ... unilaminar primary follicle (simple cuboidal epithelium) multilaminar primary follicle (st. cuboidal epithelium)
Primitive red blood cells begin to be produced beginning week ___ within the embryo in splanchnic mesoderm blood islands near to developing organs. These Cells _____ HAVE A NUCLEUS.
5 *WILL NOT*
nuclear synthesis=
5'-->3' template strand= 3'-->5'
up to _____ modification events per cell per day
500,000
False ribs are ribs ____ Also known as vertebrochondral
8-10
from start to finish to produce a viable spermatozoa=
90 days! something about 74 days?
aortic aneurysm
Aortic Aneurysm - A localized dilation of the aorta due to a weakening of the aortic wall. Usually observed as an enlarged aorta on radiographs or other images of thorax. Patients usually complain of chest pain that radiates to back.
Layers of spermatic cord
As the scrotum and labia majora form in males and females respectively, the gubernaculum aids in the descent of the gonads (both testes and ovaries). The testes descend to a greater degree than the ovaries and ultimately pass through the inguinal canal.
Menses
At approx day 21, if there is no implantation, progestrin levels decrease, blood levels in endometrial lining constrict, no more blood, O2 , nutrients, which leads to necrosis and therefore your period.
Which of the following is not a voluntary muscle? A. External anal sphincter B. Detrusor urethrae C. Puborectalis D. Ischiocavernosus E. Deep transverse perinei
B. Detrusor urethrae
Identify the regions labeled A and E
B= nucelus of endothelial cells C= capillary (sinusoid) D= ask about this E= erythrocytes mv=microvilli D= hepatocyte with all that mitochondria, h tother thing is bile cannalciuli
tunica albuginea membrane
Because it has minimal expansion properties, as the erectile columns engorge with blood, blood is trapped within the columns. The swollen columns compress nearby veins, preventing outflow of blood from the erectile tissue - prolonging an erection.
CC: Thymus
Because the thymus in children is larger, there is a chance it can compress on the trachea
urogenital sinus
Bladder (except trigone) Urethra Prostate, paraurethral glands (m) Greater Vestibular glands (f) Vagina, inferior part (f)
Penis vasculature
Both Dorsal and Deep Artery of the Penis are branches of the internal pudendal artery. Dorsal vein of the penis drains to the groin (external pudendal vein to great saphenous to femoral). Deep dorsal vein of the penis drains to the pelvis (prostatic venous plexus).
Odorant binding proteins produced at __1__ carry odorant molecules to receptors found on ciliated endings of __2__.
Bowman's cells; bipolar neurons
proteins and blood cells are too large to enter the _____
Bowman's space, so they stay in the blood
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Atrial and Ventricular Myocytes? A. Atrial Myocytes have more developed RER and Golgi B. Atrial Myocytes contain cytoplasmic granules of atrial naturietic factor C. Ventricular Myocytes are smaller in both length and diameter compared to Atrial Myocytes D. A and B E. All of the Above F. None of the Above
C.
CC: Atrioventricular Valve Stenosis and Aging
Calcification of a valve cusp can reduce blood flow by as much as 70 - 80%. Onset begins at age 70 - 80 years old. *bicuspid? ask about this bc it's more heavily damaged due to pumping left ventricle blood.
A 36-year old woman presents in an outpatient clinic with yellowed pigmentation of the skin and sclerae. Which of the following could be the cause of her obstructive jaundice (i.e.,lack of bile in the GI system)?
Cancer of the head of the pancreas *Head (nestled in descending duodenum)
Non small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) is the most common group among patients diagnosed with lung cancer. One of the more common areas in which NSCLCs originate is within the bronchioalveolar duct junction. Which cell types do you think would be found in this region?
Clara cells! not goblet cells because no goblet cells in bronchioles
A patient presents with hepatic cancer localized to the area surrounding the porta hepatis. The tumor could potentially compress all the following structures EXCEPT: A. Proper hepatic artery B. Common hepatic duct C. Common hepatic artery D. Hepatic portal vein
Common hepatic artery
what structures are found in umbilical cord? she's gonna ask this!
Connecting stalk Umbilical vessels Yolk sac Vitelline vessels Allantois
Capillary Types and Locations
Continuous: -fat -muscle -nervous system Fenestrated: -intestinal villi -endocrine glands -kidney glomeruli Discontinuous: -liver -bone marrow -spleen
Red Star Slide
CpG islands are targets for methylation you need the CpG islands to be unmethylated, and you need histone proteins to be acetylated in order for transcription to proceed. epigenetic tags are cleared by demethylation
Which of these descriptions best defines the movements associated with chorea?
D. Brief, abrupt, unpredictable, jerky movements
Disadvantages of CT
Disdvantages - Exposure to ionizing radiation - Cost
What is the most common treatment option for controlling the abnormal motor movements?
Dopamine receptor blocking or depleting agents.
unilaminar follicles develop under the influence of _____
FSH
Follicular cells under hormonal stimulation by _____, become metabolically active - accumulate cytoplasmic mass--> Cells are now _______ and are referred to as granulosa cells
FSH simple cuboidal epithelial granulosa cells
Gastrin is secreted by ___ cells in this region of the stomach
G-cells (endocrine cells) pyloric region ‐secreted in response to a meal or high gastric pH Function: Major hormone regulator of gastric acid secretion ‐stimulates production of HCl‐ by parietal cells ‐activates CCK to stimulate gallbladder contraction ‐stimulates insulin secretion of pancreas ‐stimulates gastric motility and growth of stomach mucosal cells Regulation: ‐gastrin‐releasing peptide (stimulatory) ‐somatostatin (inhibitory) *Regulates HCl‐ secretion of parietal cells
Which of the following is a characteristic of the mucosal epithelium of the large intestine (colon)?
It is highly enriched in goblet cells and cells that absorb water, minerals and vitamins.
What happens to the nuclear material that is "jettisoned" from a maturing orthochromatic erythroblast
It is phagocytized by RBM macrophages
Therefore the most unique and distinguishing characteristic of atrial myocytes is the presence of cytoplasmic granules of atrial naturietic factor/peptide (ANF).
It is released into the bloodstream when blood volume/blood pressure is abnormally elevated. ANF targets cells in the kidney, which form the collecting ducts localized to the kidney medulla. ANF binds to receptors on these target cells inducing a second-messenger system which results in the active transport of Na+ ions into the urine, osmotically drawing molecules of 13 water with them.
prenatal circulation
Prenatal Structures: a. Umbilical vein b. Ductus venosus c. Foramen ovale d. Ductus arteriosus e. Umbilical arteries Where Oxy & Deoxy Blood Mix I. liver II. IVC III. rt atrium IV. left atrium V. ductus arteriosus Adult Remnants of Fetal Structures: a. Lig. teres (hepatis) b. Lig. venosum c. Fossa ovale d. Lig. arteriosus e. Medial umbilical lig.
Differences between Secretory Phase and Proliferative Phase
Proliferative Phase on the left and the Secretory Phase on the right. 1. The uterine glands are much more developed by the secretory phase. The glands have extended from the stratum basale to the uterine cavity. They are highly-coiled in the secretory phase, and the diameter has increased. 2. The stratum functionalis is now almost 3 - 4 times thicker than it is in the Proliferative Phase. 3. The arterial blood vessels of the stratum functionalis (spiral arteries) have also increased in length and diameter. Blood begins to pool in lacunae within the stroma of the stratum functionalis.
Features of Epidydimis
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with sterovilli (does not move - functions in fluid reabsorption). Columnar cell height decreases from the head to the tail region. o Principal cells - columnar cells o Basal cells - precursor cells divide mitotically to produce Principal cells o Intraepithelial lymphocytes - immunological surveillance Smooth muscle wall thickens from head to tail to include: inner circular/outer longitudinal layer
PRIMARY ORGANS:
RED BONE MARROW, THYMUS (IMMUNE CELLS ARE PRODUCED)
Jaundice caused by unconjugated bilirubin can be a result of:
Rapid, massive destruction of red blood cells by splenic macrophages Hemolytic disease of the newborn, hemolytic anemia
This cartoon represents a section through an entire lymph node. If this lymph node can from a patient diagnosed with a condition where the thymus failed to develop normally - which region of this lymph node would demonstrate the greatest reduction in cell numbers?
Regions proximal to the lymphatic follicles T-lymphocytes are most densely concentrated in the area of the lymph node - known as the paracortex - which surrounds each lymphatic nodule
3 functions of thorax
Respiration (pleura containing lungs) Circulation (mediastinum containing heart and vessels) Nutrition (esophagus passes through here)
Genital swelling forms
Scrotum (m) Labium majus (f)
What therapeutic option was provided to the patients in the control group?
Sham surgery
Phrenic Nerve Injury/Block
Since the Phrenic Nerve provides motor innervation to the diaphragm, injury or blocking (for a lung operation) of the Phrenic Nerve results in paralysis of the diaphragm.
Neuroendocrine Cell Table
Somatostatin decreases production of HCl in stomach
cremaster reflex
Stroke inner thigh will cause the scrotum to move the testes closer to the body test L1/L2 in males; testes should go up
Testosterone Conversion to DHT in Prostate
Stromal cells - DHT has autocrine effect Epithelial cells - DHT has a paracrine effect
appendix
T10
Gonad forms
Testis and Ovary Seminal Tubules Rete Testis (m)
____cells directly activate killer T-cells
Th1
What are the 2 subtypes for helper T-cells?
Th1 and Th2
_________ cells activate B-lymphocytes who when activated, undergo clonal expansion and AB production. "2" half circles on letter "B"
Th2
Below is a TEM of the renal cortex. Pictured are 2 adjacent cuboidal epithelial cells of a PCT. Why are these numerous organelles located at the baso-lateral surface of these cells?
To provide ATP for the Na+/K+/ATPase pumps.
Mesonephric Duct (Wolff) forms
Trigon of bladder (m and f) Ureteric bud Ejaculatory duct (m) Seminal vesicles (m) Ductus deferens (m) Epididymus (m) "SEED"
microvilli has a digestive role T or F ***ON EXAM
True! Digestive enzymes in plasma membrane of microvilli ‐enterokinases (activates trypsinogen) ‐oligosaccharidases (breaks down sugars, starches) Advantage: *********end‐products of digestion closer to site of absorption***********
T or F: Fatty liver is reversible
True! reversible if alcohol consumption decreases
Identify the tissue sample indicated by the black arrow.
Tunica albuginea - corpus spongiosum
The layer indicated by #1 is the _____ which is derived from the parietal peritoneum of the pelvic cavity, which means this membrane is comprised of______.
Tunica vaginalis; mesothelium
Below is a TEM of transitional epithelial cells from the urinary bladder. What molecules are sequestered in the vesicles proximal to the luminal surface?
Uroplakin It helps protect the urothelium and make it impermeable to urine
renal sinus
a fat-filled cavity that cushions and supports the membranous calyces.
The submucosa has
a) Meissner's nerve plexus present along tract (green x) b) Glands in esophagus (Esophageal submucosal gland) and duodenum (Brunner's glands)
Sphincters relaxed: capillary bed ___ a) well-perfused b) blood bypasses capillary bed
a) well-perfused
KNOW THIS AND DON'T GET THIS CONFUSED: ovarian artery and vein comes from: uterine artery and vein comes from:
abdominal aorta internal iliac artery
Gap junctions exist between ___________AND between oocyte and follicular cells
adjacent follicular cells
band neutrophil
an intermediary step prior to the complete maturation of segmented neutrophils
This condition forms when Vitamin B12 doesn't get absorbed properly in the ileum...
anemia Intrinsic Factor ‐glycoprotein ‐forms a complex with vitamin B12 in STOMACH and DUODENUM ‐binding intrinsic factor necessary for absorption of the vitamin in the ILEUM
B-type lamins
are important in neuronal migration and brain development. Duplication causes neurodegeneration
septum formation in the common ..
atrium
falciform ligament
attaches liver to anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm separates right and left lobe of liver
General visceral efferent is also known as
autonomic
The hallmark of the __________ is that all signals from the CNS must synapse at a peripheral ganglion prior to reaching the target structure
autonomic (GVE) nervous system *you can't go straight from spinal cord-> stomach. Must have a presynaptic and a postsynaptic neuron
IgE molecules bound to the surface of mast cells by the Fc region of these molecules will bind a specific allergen (based on their unique ABS), leading to dimerization of these molecules, signal transduction and ultimately, degranulation of primarily ‐ histamine. This phase of an allergic reaction is best described as: a. Initial exposure to allergen b. Subsequent exposure to allergen c. This is not a description of an immune response to allergens
b. subsequent exposure
APUD cells have a diagnostic feature of _______ ***ON EXAM
basal secretory granules APUD= enteroendocrine cells
prostatic transition zone is where____
benign prostatic hyperplasia originates
The lumen of vein is___
bigger because the cell walls are thinner!
gastric epithelium
black holes= gastric pits; underneath it is where HCl glands are white dots=remnants of mucous
Sphincters contracted:
blood bypasses capillary bed; goes straight from metaarteriole to throughfare channel When would you have this scenario so the blood would get shunted away from certain organs into another? During the sympathetic (flight or fight) system. When you're flighting/fighting it shuts blood away from the digestive system to divert resources to the skeletal muscles.
Type 1 Diabetes
body does not produce enough insulin because beta cells are destroyed by an autoimmune disorder patients must take daily insulin injections to live manifests itself in kids and young adults (10%)
principle cells have receptors for A) ADH b) Aldosterone
both!
________ cells have blunt microvilli and are involved in the sneeze reflex
brush cells
corpora amylacea
calcifications commonly seen in the inner gland of the prostate
Hemangioblasts are made up of:
central cells and angioblasts central cells are the hematopoieitic stem cells angioblast cells: Peripheral cells will become endothelial cells-->blood vessel/capillaries
Gutters:
channels created by fusion of the GI tract to the posterior abdominal wall 1) right lateral (paracolic) 2) left lateral (paracolic) 3) right of the mesentery (infracolic) 4) left of the mesentery (infracolic)
in females, the phallus becomes
clitoris
Transversus Abdominus
compresses abdominal contents deepest layer thoracoabdominal nerves increases intraabdominal pressure
Gestational Varicose Veins
compression of iliac veins and inferior vena cava
goblet cells are mainly located in the conducting portion/ respiratory portion
conducting portion
is the trachea part of the respiratory portion or conducting portion?
conducting portion
what are the 3 different types of capillaries?
continuous, fenestrated, incomplete capillaries/sinusoids
CABG
coronary artery bypass graft Graft vessels are commonly harvested from: • Medial lower extremity - Great saphenous vein • Internal chest wall - Internal thoracic a. - "mammary artery"
genitofemoral nerve innervates:
cremaster muscle
A two-year old male presents with pain in his groin, caused by a degenerative malformation of the transversalis fascia. What other structure may also be defective?
deep inguinal ring
septum secundum
defines upper and lower boundaries of foramen ovale The septum secundum appears when the right atrium expands • It expands when the sinus horn is incorporated
The ___________ of megakaryocytes are cytoplasmic projections that function to _____________.
demarcation channels, create platelets
CT scan=
density • Increased density: white/bright • Decreased density: black/dark - Black‐to‐white • Air>fat>fluid>soft tissue>bone>contrast>metal
granuosa lutein theca lutein
derivative of granulosa cells derivative of theca interna
Portal lobules
describe the flow of bile from the liver's center to the periphery. Bile is formed by hepatocytes, transported via bile canaliculi to bile ducts in portal triads, and finally dumped into hepatic ducts leaving the liver.
Hindgut
distal 1/3 transverse colon, descending and sigmoid colon, rectum - Supplied by inferior mesenteric artery
how do clara cells look like?
dome-shaped apices, lack cilia LACK CILIA!
This photomicrograph depicts a tissue sample collected from what region of the GI tract?
duodenum!
secondarily retroperitoneal
duodenum, pancreas, ascending colon, descending colon
what type of cartilage is the epiglottis?
elastic
The AV valves derive from
endocardial cushion fibroblasts
The endometrium is further characterized by two relatively indistinct layers. The deeper layer is the stratum basale. Epithelial stem cells in this layer re-populate the more superficial layer - the stratum functionalis, which is discarded each month as menstrual tissue.
endometrium= s. basale+ s. functionalis
Draining deoxygenated blood back to the heart (in the lymph node known as __________ Most venules have an innermost lining of simple squamous--> simple cuboidal epithelium High endothelial venules get their name because they have simple columnar epithelial cells as their lining
endothelial venules
Contribute to digestion and are the site of nutrient absorption
enterocytes ‐columnar cell ‐microvilli with glycocalyx ‐terminal digestion of carbs and proteins ‐enzymes in microvilli (e.g. enterokinase) ‐absorbs lipids, carbs, proteins, and vitamins
Villi are lined by ___________ (absorptive cells). The apical surface of enterocytes is covered by __________(brush border)
enterocytes microvilli
visceral pericardium=
epicardium
exocrine pancreas
exocrine pancreas produces digestive enzymes and has a structure similar to salivary glands. the exocrine unit contains "acini" (secretory unit) and a series of ducts that transports the secretions
Sperm transport in the female reproductive tract beginning in the vaginal canal would proceed in the following sequence:
external os of cervix, cervical canal, internal os, uterine lumen, intramural region of uterine tube, isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum
Turner syndrome (Gonadal dysgenesis):
female is born with only 1 X chromosome affects 60K females in the US. In 75-80% of cases, the single X chromosome comes from mom's egg; the father's sperm that fertilizes the egg is missing its sex chromosome •Gonadal dysfunction •Amenorrhea •Reduced estrogen production •Hypothyroidism •Cognitive deficits
Below is a TEM of a specific type of capillary. Identify the correct type of capillary and determine where you might see this capillary present (HINT: Pay close attention to the Arrows)
fenestrated; glomerulus of kidney
The glycocalyx covering the structure shown here is the reaction surface where _____________ is converted to ______________.
fibrinogen, fibrin
what are the 2 resident cells in the epicardium?
fibroblasts adipocytes
Alveolar macrophages have ________ and secondary lysosomes. They can release chemotactic factors to induce leukocyte migration to fight invaders.
filopodia
At approximately 28 days, the respiratory diverticulum (lung bud) appears as an outgrowth of the____
foregut
the cranial end of the embryo, the primitive gut is called the
foregut supplied by celiac artery (celiac trunk in adult)
Galls stones (cholelithiasis):
formed chiefly of **cholesterol** crystals. May be asymptomatic until the stones are large enough to cause biliary blockage Diagnosed via Murphy's sign - have patient exhale and then inhale while applying pressure at site of the gallbladder
demarcation channels
found in megakaryoblast. they allow platelets to be shed. It helps MAKE the platelet
discoidal vesicles
function of balloon cells: a) Uroplakins in the vesicles protect the cytoplasm from the hyperosmotic effects of urine b) Ease cellular distention via their vesicular secretions
what layer gets sloughed off during period? know all these arteries
functional layer
Prostate gland - Contributions to Seminal Fluid: • 30% of fluid volume • Semen Anti‐coagulants • Fibrinolysis • PSA (Prostate Specific Antigen) • PAP (Prostate Acid Phosphatase)
glycoproteins? calcium?
goblet cell or clara cell? Secretions - Mucins MUC5AC, MUC5B - Anti-microbial peptides and lysozymes
goblet cell
Peg cells are analogous to ________ = unicellular exocrine glands Secretion: Viscous, glycogen‐rich fluid
goblet cells
*IMPORTANT* Foregut structures receive preganglionic innervation from the
greater splanchnic nerve (T5-T9)
"Blue Baby"
having shunts exist after birth is bad because that means you have deoxygenated blood circulating through the body
_______ is the entry of blood into the lungs
hemothorax
above pectinate line
hindgut endoderm derived simple columnar epithelium adenocarcinoma internal hemorrhoids
blood flow cycle
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BEWjOCVEN7M&vl=en
watch this video about liver blood flow
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=P5_BxsbmXcA
what happens if processus vaginalis doesn't obliterate?
hydrocele will form (accumulation of fluid)
emphysema
if there is an imbalance between elastase and alpha-1 antitrypsin, you don't get elastic recoil and the parenchyma gets damaged. when there is inflammation, you have a massive increase in neutrophils, which causes a massive release of elastase, which makes the proportion of alpha-1 antitrypsin smaller.
Relative concentrations after onset of chest pain *RED STAR SLIDE*
if you exercise strenuously, you're gonna have elevated levels of CK
Histological Regions of Small Intestine
ileum get sloppy because there are peyers patches that can disrupt the muscularis mucosa large villi in jejunum
Meissner's Plexus (DICT!!!!)
in the submucosa, regulates blood flow, secretions and absorption ‐Receives information from nerve endings near the epithelial layer (chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors) ‐Controls secretion in the mucosa and submucosa ‐Sends information to Auerbach's plexus
pericaditis
inflammation of the pericardium
Preganglionic cell bodies lie in the ________column of the spinal cord
intermediolateral (IML)
sympathetic preganglionic CELL BODIES located in
intermediolateral column (L2)
arteries and stuff for anal triangle
internal pudendal A is a branch of internal iliac artery
identify the muscularis mucosa here
it's the middle light pink band
what has "long, finger-like projections?"
jejunum
Apple peel atresia is an atresia of the proximal ________. The shriveled remnant of the jejunum looks like a dried‐up apple peel and is wrapped around its mesentery.
jejunum "apple juice": apple peel atresia= jejunum
Blood-thymus barrier
keeps immature T lymphocytes isolated from any antigens to prevent premature activation simple squamous epithelial cells with occluding junctions and desmosomes (macula adherens) between adjacent cells.
Identify this cell and it's function.
kupffer cells within sinusoid phagocytize cholesterol
The __________connects the respiratory and pharynx/digestive systems
laryngeal orifice
What are the 3 "umbilical folds"? **ON EXAM
lateral umbilical fold (formed by inferior epigastric arteries) medial umbilical fold (formed by obliterated umbilical artery) median umbilical fold (formed by the obliterated urachus...allantois, which is a channel in which you empty your bladder as a fetus
what are the 2 big muscles attached to the thoracolumbar fascia?
latissiumus dorsi gluteus maximus
hindgut structures
left 1/3 of the transverse colon descending colon sigmoid colon rectum
branches of celiac trunk
left gastric artery, splenic artery, common hepatic artery
which of these is the child's thymus?
left one!
H1
linker histone bound to the wrapped DNA around the histone octamer core
paneth cells
little hot pink dots! innate immunity
Our ______ produces mannose-binding lectin lectin binds to the mannose of bacterial cell walls *as soon as the mannose binds, it recruits C4, and then the whole story from there is identical.
liver
Bile: ‐ Produced in _____ ‐ Stored in __________ ‐ Released into __________
liver gall bladder duodenum
_______ have thin "halo" of cytoplasm around nucleus
lymphocytes
In response to an intracellular pathogen - like a virus, the most likely sequence of events for immune-responding cells would be:
macrophage-->Th1--> Tc.
The cells indicated by the yellow arrows:
macula densa cells of the DCT
what's the most common type of hernia for male?
male= indirect
Embryonic structures and their adult derivatives: Allantois forms Urachus, which forms
median umbilical ligament
where does negative selection occur? **ON EXAM (med students are negative... medulla=neg selection)
medulla of thymus here negative selection will check how capable these new T-cells are able to bind to self MHC peptide if the reaction is too strong, cell must undergo apoptosis bc of autoimmune diseases once it passes this checkpoint, the T-cell gets expelled from thymus into the lymph node where it now becomes a mature T-cell
maturation occurs in cortex/medulla
medulla! bc that's where all the BV are!
Trabecular sinuses drain into a large ________ that is traversed by a loose connective tissue stroma arranged in medullary cords
medullary sinus
Internal Abdominal Oblique
middle layer - O: thoracolumbar fascia and iliac crest (medial - lateral) - I: Inferior borders of lower ribs, linea alba, pecten pubis via conjoint tendon with transversus abdominus - Innervation: thoracoabdominal nn. (T6-T12) and iliohypogastric/ilioinguinal nn. (L1) - Action: works as a digastric (two-belly) muscle with the contralateral EAO to flex and rotate the trunk (as in twist crunches); increases intra-abdominal pressure
lingula of left lung is remnant of
middle lobe of right lung
Appendix
more lymphocytes infiltrating the lamina propria side note: has more lymphocytes and has an ADVENTITIA ‐Absorptive cells, goblet cells ‐No villi or teniae coli ‐lymphoid nodules obscure boundary between lamina propria and submucosa ‐Free surface surrounded by serosa ‐Mesoappendix connection via adventitia ‐A reservoir for good gut bacteria
primordial--> primary= 150 days primary--> secondary= 120 days class6-8 takes 14 days each menstrual cycle
most atresia (77%) occurs b/w class 6+8 350 days to go from a primordial--> ovulatory follicle so technically you should take prenatals 1year in advance!
Where is Auerbach's (myenteric) plexus located?
muscularis externa! controls churning of inner circular (IC) layer, and peristalsis of outer longitudinal (OL) layer -Part of enteric nervous system -Receive information from epithelial layer and muscularis regarding content (chemoreception) and degree of wall expansion (mechanoreception) -Responsible for contraction of Muscularis Externa
no ___ and ____ associated with pancreatic acinar cells
myoepthelial cells striated ducts
vas deferens
narrow lumen 3 layers
The lumen in the arteries is ___
narrow! why? bc the walls are thicker, in comparison to veins
General visceral afferent ex: ____... sensing something is wrong
nausea
which cells are visible only with a EM?
neuroendocrine cells (APUD cells) brush cells
palatine tonsil
pair in oropharynx "my pal pam" (multiple crypts) covered by SSqNKE
The Bony Pelvis consists of:
paired Os Coxae, also called innominate (and consisting of paired ilium, ischium, and pubis). unpaired Sacrum (5 vertebrae). unpaired Coccyx (2‐4 vertebrae, usually 3).
The cells that are capable of regenerating damaged blood vessels and/or growing new blood vessels are:
pericytes Pericytes are more terminally differentiated than are mesenchymal cells which can become any of the connective tissues and all types of muscle cells. Therefore, the BEST answer is pericytes - because it is the most specific answer.
_______ are capillary associated cells that contribute to formation of basement membrane
pericytes Pericytes may contribute to the: • Embryonic development of vasculature • Neovascularization -After menstruation -During pregnancy • Angiogenesis • Regulation of Blood Flow • Tumor vasculature
Below is a SEM image of a capillary. Identify the cell type indicated by the number (1) surrounding the capillary. Are these cells capable of undergoing mitosis?
pericytes; yes!
What does prostacyclin/prostaglandin I2 do? Inhibits
platelet activation + Increases vasodilation = NON‐THROMBOGENIC SURFACE endothelial cell function Prostacyclin (PGI2) generated by the vascular wall is a potent vasodilator, and the most potent endogenous inhibitor of platelet aggregation so far discovered. Prostacyclin inhibits platelet aggregation by increasing cyclic AMP levels.
Thrombopoiesis
pluripotent stem cell myeloid stem cell thrombopoietin: promegakaryocyte thrombopoietin: megakaryocyte thrombopoietin: platelets
WBC Formation
pluripotent stem cell myeloid stem cell (GM-CSF) progenitor cell myeloblast eosinophil, basophil, neutrophil
Semilunar valves
prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles 3 cusps
After enzymatic modification, two major hormonal categories are synthesized by follicular cells: ________ and ______
progestrins and estrogens
Vagus Nerve (CN X)
r recurrent laryngeal wraps around brachiocephalic trunk l recurrent laryngeal wraps around aorta vagus nerve is more posterior phrenic nerve more anterior and on top of heart
Fibrillar center ***ON EXAM
rRNA coding regions of chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21, 22 and RNA Polymerase I. contains DNA that is not being transcribed
ligamentum teres
remnant of umbilical vein round ligament
Type A pale spermatogonia
s-phase?
What muscles are removed in the case of thoracic outlet syndrome? **ON EXAM
scalene muscles and 1st rib
what holds testes in place?
scrotal ligament
presence of acid in duodenum causes release of ________ presence of fats in duodenum causes release of________
secretin CCK
Where are Sertoli cells located?
seminiferous tubules o Synthesize a glycogen-rich fluid, which is secreted into the seminiferous tubule lumen, providing a transport medium for mature spermatozoa. o Zonula occludes and zonula adherens at the basal surface of adjacent Sertoli cells establishes the blood-testis barrier. o Produce androgen-binding protein (ABP) which sequesters testosterone in the testes. o Produce inhibin which circulates to the hypothalamus to modulate/inhibit the release of GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone) - ultimately regulating the amount of circulating FSH (follicle stimulating hormone). o Phagocytize excess cytoplasmic material from maturing spermatozoa (residual bodies) during spermiogenesis.
endocervix= ectocervix=
simple columnar stratified squamous
intercalated duct
simple cuboidal
Villi present throughout all of the _________
small intestines
vasa vasorum
small vessels that supply blood to outer part of the larger vessels on adventitia
Spermatogenesis
spermatogonia (stem cells) primary spermatocyte (meiosis I prophase) secondary spermatocyte (meiosis II) spermatids (end up with 4 haploid gamete cells)
Thoracic wall= rib cage and
sternum
All of these cell types are found in the _______ 1. mucous cells 2. chief cells 3. parietal cells 4. neuroendocrine cells 5. stem cells
stomach fundus/body
what does the supracolic ligament contain
stomach, liver, spleen
*******ABRUPT EPITHELIAL TRANSITION********* Esophageal-Cardiac Junction
stomach= big bag that holds HCl so, it has pits to allow it to secrete mucus to protect epithelium
Lithopedion
stone baby
veins are usually more ____ to arteries
superficial (low pressure, low resistance) *arteries are usually found deeper to veins
Rectus sheath is comprised of:
the aponeuroses of the 3 flat muscles of the abdominal wall (EAO, IAO & TA)
-Macrophages and follicular dendritic cells are localized
to the outermost and innermost regions of the lymph node: attached to reticular fibers in the subcapsular sinus and attached to the medullary cords
Left Ventricle Structures
trabeculae carneae: finer and more numerous than right ventricle papillary muscles: two large muscles, anterior and posterior,connected to the two cusps of the mitral valve. chordae tendinae: thicker but less numerous than in the right ventricle. Two valves: l AV (bicuspid) l semilunar (aortic)
Blood circulation of spleen
trabecular artery, central arteriole (CA), penicillar arteriole, sheathed capillary, sinusoids, pulp vein, and trabecular vein (TV)
No digestive enzymes are secreted in oropharynx and esophagus: true or false
true!
cholangiole
tube formed from adjacent hepatocyte they are similar to blood capillaries. just bile!!
Thin cytoplasmic extensions of these cells facilitate gas exchange between the alveoli and blood:
type 1 pneumocytes
Flk-1
vasculogenesis--> hemangioblasts
Oocyte under FSH stimulation begins to synthesize the _________
zona pellucida
Spreading Calipers (inhalation forced)
•Side effect of bucket handle movement acting on false ribs (11‐12) • Elevation via contraction of the lower intercostals causes the anterior ends of the ribs to spread apart laterally, like the arms of a pair of calipers
Increased blood flow through the intercostal arteries causes dilation of the arteries, pressing on the ribs and causing ______ of the inferior borders
"notching"
General Visceral Afferent fibers carry...
- interoceptive visceral sensations from internal organs - subconscious reflex sensations for the automatic control of glandular tissue, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle within organs
intercalated cells *CARBONIC ANHYDRASE!
- microvilli (no primary cilium) - abundant mitochondria - secrete H+ or HCO3-; depending on whether kidney needs to excrete acid or bases -helps regulate acid-base balance of blood
Centroacinar cells and cells of the intercalated ducts
-Synthesize HCO3‐...use carbonic anhydrase. ‐Alkaline secretion neutralizes chyme when introduced to the Duodenum AND ‐Minimizes possibility of activation of zymogen enzymes
Precapillary sphincter open=
-blood circulates through entire plexus -HIGH metabolic demand
carbonic anhydrase is found:
-cytoplasm of erythrocytes -luminal & intracellular surfaces of PCT & DCT cells and intercalated cells of collecting ducts
microviili
-on apical surface of enterocytes ‐evaginations on cell surface ‐core of actin microfilaments ‐covered with a glycocalyx
Ostium secundum
-second hole - an opening that occurs in the upper portion of the septum -***this allows blood to move from right primitive atrium to left primitive atrium
The inflammatory cytokines IL-1 and TNF-α induce the up-regulation of this RBM cytokine __1__ which results in rapid proliferation and release of cells known as __2__.
1 = G-CSF; 2 = band form neutrophils G-CSF = granulocyte-colony stimulating factor -glycoprotein that stimulates bone marrow to produce granulocytes and stem cells and release them into the bloodstream -principle cytokine that controls neutrophil development and function -induced by inflammatory cytokines TNF-a, IL-1 and IL-6 GM-CSF = granulocyte/macrophage colony stimulating factor Band-neutrophil = primary and secondary granules that are small and less dense -nucleus with rounded ends, band-shaped
Between the dashed lines superimposed on this TEM is the Zona pellucida. Identify the cells/structures labeled #1 and #2.
1 = Granulosa cells; 2 = Oocyte 1 = Cumulus oophorous; 2 = Oocyte *both these anwers
Identify the region indicated by the arrows (1). What structure(s) are present here?
1 = Medullary ray; LOH and Collecting ducts
The cells within the red circles are __1__. Cells in this layer are separated from all other cells of the seminiferous tubule by __2__.
1 = Spermatagonia A-dark; 2 = blood-testis barrier
The indicated structure directs __1__ to __2__.
1 = blood; 2 = hepatic veins Central veins coalesce into hepatic veins that take blood to the heart.
This structure which is known as a/an__1__ forms in the human ovary during the __2__ phase of the uterine cycle.
1 = corpus ablicans; 2 = menstrual
Blood moving through these vessels would have just left __1__ and would NEXT move into __2__.
1 = efferent arteriole; 2 = interlobular vein Peritubular capillaries and the vasa recta drain into venules, and then onto interlobular veins.
The blood vessels that constrict in the endometrial lining of the uterus just prior to menstruation are located in the __1__. The blood vessels that undergo monthly angiogenesis after menses has ceased are located in the __2__.
1 = stratum functionale; 2 = stratum basale
Which hepatic model is most appropriate when considering pathology associated with portal hypertension? *Red Star
1 and 2 1. Path of oxygen as blood flows from the hepatic artery to the central vein (hepatic acinus) 2. Classic hepatic lobule - drains blood from portal triad to central vein 3. Draining of bile from central veins to bile duct. Only 1 & 2 refer to blood, and hypertension will effect them both equally.
Identification of Purkinje Fibers
1. Location - Sub‐endocardium 2. Relatively large diameter 3. Lighter staining - glycogen granules 4. Lack of organized myofibrils
The following male reproductive organs are housed in the pelvic cavity:
1. Seminal vesicles 2. Ejaculatory duct 3. Prostate gland/prostatic urethra 4. Membranous urethra 5. Bulbourethral glands
In the list below, identify ALL the histological features that accurately describe the duodenum.
1. Simple columnar epithelium with an extensive brush border and glycocalyx 3. Mucous-producing glands in the sub-mucosa known as Brunner's glands 4. Two layers of smooth muscle in the muscularis externa; an inner circular layer and an outer longitudinal layer
Urination Step by Step
1. The kidneys produce a constant trickle of urine which is transported to the bladder by the ureters. This fills the bladder. As the bladder reaches filling capacity: 2. Stretch receptors in the bladder wall cause a parasympathetic reflex. 3. Backflow into the ureters is prevented by the oblique course of the ureters through the bladder wall. 4. Smooth muscles in the bladder wall (detrusor urethrae) contract, and they keep contracting 5. This pushes on the voluntary sphincters (levator ani and sphincter urethrae: one becomes aware of the need to void). 6. When levator ani and sphincter urethrae are allowed to relax, smooth muscles will open the neck of the bladder and urethra, and voiding is assisted by the abdominal musculature.
Lymph fluid
1. lymph fluid is a transport medium that moves WBC's and immune‐signaling molecules between the blood-->peripheral tissues --> immune system organs. 2. Lymph fluid is also responsible for the initial circulation of digested/absorbed lipids from the GI tract to the heart. 3. Foremost to normal function of the lymphatic‐ immune system is the recognition, degradation and removal of foreign/"non‐self" proteins = antigens*.
What are some attributes of all endothelial cells?
1. microvilli 2. pinocytic vesicles ("Sampling" the local lumen contents) 3. Weibel‐Palade bodies - Storage for Von Willebrand clotting factor (binds to Factor VIII prevents degradation)... Factor VIII activates factor X-->Prothrombin--> Thrombin-->Fibrinogen-->Fibrin
Layers of vessels:
1. tunica intima: simple squamous epithelium/basement membrane with a thin areolar layer just below surface lining 2. tunica media: middlemost layer of smooth muscle 3. tunica externa (adventitia): outermost layer of fibrous CT *side note: in general, veins have fewer layers
Unique macroscopic features of the colon include the taeniae coli and the epiploic appendages. At the microscopic level, the taeniae coli are __1__ and the epiploic appendages are __2__.
1= three longitudinal bands of smooth muscle 2= aggregate of adipocytes encased by the serosa Histo lab: cross section of colon vs appendix: colon has 3 tenia colia at edges; appendix has both serosa and adventita; also appendix has the germinal center lymphocytes
In this cross section through the center of a villus, identify 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
1=enterocyte brush border; 2=lacteal; 3=goblet cells; 4=lymphocytes; 5=lamina propria.
Th2 cells activate B-lymphocytes who when activated, undergo clonal expansion and _________ "2" half circles on letter "B"
AB production.
posterior abdominal wall
Essentially the retroperitoneal space
what is the cardiogenic region?
an endothelial-lined tube surrounded by myoblasts
1 = PSCE; 2 = Lamina propria with elastic fibers
ask about this vas deferens?
What is the space that forms between adjacent hepatocytes?
bile cannaliculi
The large intestine receives _______ from small intestine via ___________
chyme ileocecal valve
what are the grey blobs?
erythrocytes
This ____________ gives rise to the AV valves
mesenchymal tissue
Prostatic Urethra: lined by______
urothelium
The midgut is connected to the part of the yolk sac external to the embryo by means of the _________. It too, runs through the umbilical cord.
vitelline duct
central zone transition zone periphery zone
zones of prostate
superficial pouch
The superficial pouch differs greatly between males and females. It is larger in females, because the inferior rami of the pubis make a wider angle. Structures in the pouch are much larger in males.
Cells of the vaginal epithelium accumulate glycogen especially at midcycle which is converted by local flora into lactic acid which keeps the pH low for prevention of infections.
These stores of glycogen are present at the site of sperm deposition.
Edwards Syndrome
Trisomy 18 *something also about ear defects: 4 cranial nerves responsible? *something about gut rotation in embryo • Microcephaly - small skull/brain • Micrognathia - smaller mandible • Ocular hypertelorism - inc. distance between eyes • Rocker-bottom Feet • Prominent Occiput • Kidney Malformations • Omphalocele • Cognitive Disorders
super important!!!!! The cloacal membrane divides into ___ membrane and __ membrane.
UG anal
Uterine Prolapse
Uterine prolapse (the inferior dislocation of the uterus) is common in women after multiple childbirths. Uterine prolapse is likely after stretching of pelvic diaphragm and uterine ligaments during childbirth. The sliding uterus often also pulls the bladder down, deforming it (this is called cystocele) pelvic discomfort, bleeding of the cervix (due to it rubbing against other tissue or clothing), edema, and bladder infections (due to inability to void the bladder completely.) Hysterectomy is often performed to remedy it. Girls that are born without a pelvic diaphragm experience uterine prolapse in childhood.
Female Urethra
Variable epithelium: Lined by urothelium near bladder; pseudostratified columnar with patches of stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium more distally Fibro-elastic lamina propria assists in firm closure of the urethra Plexus of veins in lamina propria that aid in closure of the urethra Unlike men, exclusively a passageway for urine.
Wnt4
Wnt4 is an ovary determining gene, and estrogens play an important role in sexual differentiation of female genital organs. The fetus responds to estrogens produced by the placenta, as well as those produced by the mother's body. Estrogens stimulate formation of: ‐paramesonephric duct derived organs (uterine tube, uterus, part of vagina) ‐Labia minora and majora ‐clitoris ‐vagina
Can in utero genetic testing be done when the parent(s) do not know and do not want to know their genetic status at the time of the pregnancy?
Yes, the parents can ask that only a non-HD affected embryo be chosen for implantation but also ask not to be informed if any of the embryo's carry the HD mutation.
plicae
folds in the small intestine don't stretch ‐folds on inner surface of intestine ‐composed of mucosa and part of submucosa ‐don't completely flatten ‐covered with villi (#2)
the synthesis of steroidal hormones occurs in specialized structures, known as ________ found in the ________ of the ovaries.
follicles stroma follicle= "a shell of cells"
Red Bone Marrow
found in cancellous bone; site of hematopoiesis
glands of littre
found in corpus SPONGIOSUM
In the 4th and 5th weeks of development, the dorsal aortae are paired in the area of the thorax, but ________
fuse to form a *single* vessel more caudally
At the terminal end of the sympathetic trunk, the left and right coccygeal ganglia fuse, producing a
ganglion impar
what neuroendocrine cells affect the stomach?
gastrin secretin CCK *Coordinate to regulate secretions/activities in the stomach, intestine, gall bladder, and pancreas
Secondary lymphatic nodules have a greatly enlarged center of activated B-cells, which is known as the ____
germinal center
‐mucus secreting ‐80% carbohydrates ‐20% proteins ‐hydrates on surface of epithelium ‐apical domain ‐goblet‐shaped ‐large mucus granules ‐basal domain ‐RER where mucin proteins are produced
goblet cells ‐two mucus layers ‐outer mucus layer ‐microorganisms ‐inner mucus layer ‐resistant microorganism penetration ‐antimicrobial proteins ‐Paneth cells ‐enterocytes ‐goblet cells
polar body gets trapped in zona pellucida
greatest atresia occurs for class 6-7 follicles
Granular component (looks lighter)
initial site of ribosomal assembly.
The enteric nervous system is an interconnected system of afferent neurons, efferent neurons, and interneurons within the wall of the bowel that permits reflex control over digestive tract motility in isolation of ___________
input of CNS
peritoneum
a **serous** membrane lining the abdominopelvic cavity and enclosing the viscera
Peritoneal cavity:
a fluid‐filled potential space between the parietal and visceral layers of peritoneum
Emphysema
a stimulus, for example smoking, increases the number of macrophages which secretes chemoattractants for neutrophils. Neutrophils accumulate in the alveolar lumen and interstitium. 1) neutrophils release elastase in the alveolar lumen 2) serum alpha-1 antitrypsin neutralizes elastase and prevents its destructive effect on the alveolar wall 3) a persistent stimulus continues to increase the number of neutrophils and macrophages in alveolar lumen 4) neutrophils release elastase into the alveolar lumen and interalveolar space 5) serum alpha-1 antityrpsin levels decrease and elastase starts the destruction of elastic fibers leading to the development of emphysema. *damaged elastic fibers cannot recoil when stretched*
Which of these is NOT a normal function of cortical Thymic epithelial cells (TEC's)? Produce and secrete lymphopoietin. Produce and secrete thymopoietin. Form aggregates known as Hassall's corpuscles. Form the cytoreticulum. a and c. b and d. three of the above.
a+c Lymphopoietin is produced by TEC's that comprise Hassall's corpuscles (medulla). Functions as a growth promoter/maturation cytokine for T-lymphocytes. Thymopoietin is produced by TEC's in the cortex - also functions as a growth-promoting/maturation cytokine. Cytoreticulum is the stroma of TEC's and the reticular fibers they produce that allows for the tethering/anchoring of lymphoblsts in the cortex. TEC are liek support cells. thymus blood barrier. They wrap around thymocytes and present antigen to them and decide to be postiivve selected or not
What are the 3 major openings to provide passage of structures from the thorax to the abdomen?
a.Caval hiatus (at T8) for inferior vena cava b. Esophageal hiatus (at T10) for esophagus c. Aortic hiatus (at T12) for descending aorta
foregut structures
abdominal esophagus stomach liver gallbladder pancreas spleen proximal half of duodenum
acetylaldehyde------> acetic acid
acetylaldehyde dehydrogenase
Uroplakins protect the underlying epithelial cells from the _____ of urine.
acidity
Macrophage recognition/phagocytosis of extracellular pathogen/bacteria:
activation of macrophage (clonal expansion of cellular population) activation of Th2 lymphocyte (clonal expansion of cellular population) activation of B lymphocyte (clonal expansion of cellular population) synthesis of specific antibody molecules circulation of *antibody molecules to infected tissue* bind to surface of extracellular pathogen enhanced phagocytosis/removal of pathogen
RED STAR SLIDE
acute-phase proteins= heat shock proteins= proinflammatory cytokines fatty liver is reversible if you stop alcohol both your hepatocytes and kupfer cells in tandem w/ acute shock proteins is gonna induce those cells and kupfer cells to release TGF-B. Now, the kupffer cells make the transition from M1--M2, except the M2 ain't that happy. We have lots of cell death now, and we are just gonna fill up those spaces where there was tissue cells M1s are angry macrohpases so they are inducers of inflammation. M2 macrophages do all the repair work .
Postductal
adult=after the ductus arteriosus= no PDA (PDA is occluded) you have more blood going through the upper half of the body and less blood going through the lower half of the body. hypertension in upper extremity and hypotension in lower extremity
Great Summary Slide
adventitia=esophagus
blood sensor filtrate sensor
afferent arteriole (JG) DCT (macula densa)
Ito cells
aka hepatic stellate cells aka lipocytes found in the liver; lipid droplets containing Vit A in their cytoplasm; produce collagen leading to fibrosis seen in hepatic cirrhosis type 1+3
Pathological Anomalies Fibrotic/Cirrhotic liver-->lack of albumin synthesis-->loss of osmotic balance-->blood flow impeded-->ascites
albumin helps maintain balance cirrhotic liver from alcohol
The smallest and most abundant protein in plasma is __________ and its synthesized in the _____________.
albumin, liver
ADH is inhibited by ___
alcohol ‐as alcohol consumption increases, ADH release decreases ‐without ADH, body releases lots of dilute urine (greater amount than intake) ‐dehydration, decreases in blood volume/ pressure, alcoholic blackouts
ethanol-----> acetylaldehyde
alcohol deydrogenase
From the list below identify ALL of the functions of the cells found within the red circle. 1. Synthesize and secrete testosterone. 2. Synthesize and secrete dihydroxytestosterone. 3. Promote/maintain integrity of the musculoskeletal system. 4. Initiate spermiogenesis and spermiation. 5. Influence the synthesis and secretion of prolactin.
all of them
Which of these functions are attributed to the liver? 1. Amino acid metabolism->ammonia-> urea 2. Glucose->glycogen->glucose 3. Synthesis of bile 4. Synthesis of blood transport proteins: albumin, alpha- globulins, beta-globulins 5. Vitamin A storage
all of these
In the list below, identify all of the internal heart structures that are covered with simple squamous epithelium/endocardium. 1. atrial/ventricular surface of the AV valves 2. ventricular/arterial surface of the semilunar valves 3. trabeculae carnae 4. chordae tendinae 5. papillary muscles/moderator band
all of these!
The epithelial transition zones associated with the GI tract include: 1. esophago-gastric junction 2. pyloro-duodenal junction 3. ileocecal junction 4. ano-rectal junction
all the above 1.Abrupt transition from SSqNK epithelium to simple columnar. 2.Pits to villi/plicae 3.Villi/plicae to simple columnar with no glands, villi, or plicae. 4.Abrupt transition from simple columnar with goblet cells to SSq - low keratinized epithelium.
Carbonic anhydrase is found in all of the following cells except: a) RBC b) stomach c) pancreas d) PCT/DCT e) B+C f) all of the above
all the above! -used in RBC's to transport CO2 along with lungs -used in stomach parietal cells to produce HCl -used in pancreas to produce HCO3 to buffer acidic chyme from stomach -used by cells of the PCT/DCT, intercalated cells to replenish HCO3 - for body acid-base balance, recycle nutrients from filtrate into bloodstream
IgE can bind to surface of mast cells and basophils. It's produced in response to ______ not pathogens. If enough of these ABs are bound to the mast cell/basophil, they become close enough in proximity to the phospholipid bilayer that they dimerize and dimerization= degradation.
allergens
portacaval anastomoses
alternate route for blood to drain from GI tract arounddddd the liver "gut, butt, and caput"
LH and FSH in both males and females is produced in
anterior pituitary
Developing T‐cells in the cortex - must be isolated from ALL SELF PROTEINS*** EXCEPT MHC I AND II. These they must recognize with exquisite accuracy. Developing T‐cells that cannot "lock" their TCR with MHC molecules on the thymic epithelial cells are eliminated by _____
apoptosis
Veins have valves!
as you move down the body you're gonna have +mmHg because you're moving against gravity
Tunica intima - simple squamous epithelium (referred to as endothelium) o Basement membrane o Subendothelium Tunica media - smooth muscle Tunica externa/Tunica adventita - relatively thick areolar CT; embedded in this layer in larger arteries and veins are: o Vasa vasorum - blood supply to muscular layer o Nervi vascularis - autonomic nerve supply to muscular layer
both arteries and veins have these!
Undifferentiated populations of ______ cells have a potential to turn cancerous (adenocarcinoma), even in non-smokers
clara
nuclear lamins
class V intermediate filaments fibrous proteins providing structural function and transcriptional regulation. Nuclear lamins interact with membrane-associated proteins to form the nuclear lamina on the interior of the nuclear envelope.
What does CT stand for
computerized tomography
the #1 function of the gallbladder is to _____ **ON EXAM
concentrate the bile
Right ventricle contents
conus arteriosus (infundibulum): sup ‐ ant end of right ventricle tapers into this smooth‐walled, cone‐shaped structure that gives rise to the pulmonary trunk. trabeculae carneae (don't confuse this with pectinate muscle): muscle ridges and bulges lining the right ventricle (trabs=wooden, carneus=fleshy). septomarginal trabeculae (moderator band): an elevated trabeculae carneae, a free band, crossing the cavity of the ventricle from the interventricular septum to the base of the anterior papillary muscle. It carries the right band of the AV bundle (part of conducting system).
LARGE INTESTINE ‐Enterocytes (absorptive cells) ‐reabsorb water, electrolytes ‐Goblet cells ‐mucus, lubricates bowel ‐more numerous than in small intestine ‐Stem cells ‐at bottom of gland ‐Extensive GALT ‐lymphatic nodules ‐microorganisms, noxious end‐products of metabolism Smooth surface: no villi no plicae circulares (only small intestine) no paneth cells lots of goblet cells lots of crypts
crypts no glands above musc. mucosa semilunaris is for COLON
Embedded in the cortex are primary lymphatic nodules containing clusters of______
"resting/quiescent B-cells."
Peritubular myoid/fibroblast cells
- located superficial to the basement membrane of the seminiferous tubules, these cells have moderate contractile capabilities. Contraction of these cells moves the non-motile spermatozoa into the sperm transport ductule system.
prostacyclins are formed from ______
-arachidonic acid -prevents adhesion of platelets to endothelium and avoids blood clot formation -vasodilator **ON EXAM
Neuroendocrine cells
-granules in *basal* part of cytoplasm -synthesize polypeptide hormones and serotonin (local effects, paracrine regulation), hormones can also enter bloodstream and have long range effects (endocrine regulation) -function not well understood -also called APUD, entochromaffin cells, specialty names (e.g., Kulchisky)
CC: omphalocele
-herniation at the umbilicus -The herniated organs may include everything from a small loop of gut, to most of the gut, including its glands (such as the liver). Severe cases are usually fatal.
random facts about this photo
-spermatozoa formed in seminiferous tubules -sperm gain motility in TAIL of epididymis (moTAILity) -tunica albuginea has greater # collagen type 1 -STRAIGHT tubules lead into the rete testis. -leading AWAY from the rete testis are the efferent ductules -in pre-adolescent males, the seminiferous tubules DON'T have a lumen; their lumen is closed -the composition of fluid in seminiferous tubules is diff than composition of fluid in epididymis
Urethra
-stratified columnar in some areas, and pseudostratified elsewhere -stratified squamous at distal end of urethra
Ostium primum
-the first hole - the opening between the lower end of the septum primum and the endocardial cushions in the AV canal
more villi facts
-the very tippy part of the 2nd pic has enterocytes -carries lymphatic vessels -both crypts and villi are lined with same ---epithelium consisted of enterocytes and goblet cells
where is carbonic anhydrase found in the body? **ON EXAM
-used in RBC's to transport CO2 along with lungs ‐used in stomach parietal cells to produce HCl ‐used in pancreas to produce HCO3‐ to buffer acidic chyme from stomach ‐used by cells of the PCT/DCT, intercalated cells to replenish HCO3‐ for body acid‐base balance, recycle nutrients from filtrate into bloodstream
Liver processes and stores nutrients absorbed from digestive tract. Interface between ________ and ________
digestive system and blood
midgut structures
distal half of duodenum jejunum ileum cecum appendix ascending colon right 2/3 of transverse colon
common hepatic artery
divides into the proper hepatic and gastroduodenal artery -forms the left side of the portal triad - Right gastric artery: anastomoses with left gastric artery - Right and left hepatic arteries - Cystic artery: usually from right hepatic (75.5% of time; next slide...)
Caudally, this leads to the gut being suspended by a mesentery from the ________side of the embryo. Cranially, there is a ________ and also a ________ mesentery.
dorsal dorsal mesentery and ventral mesentery
Fish have paired __________ (like humans)
dorsal aortae
While the heart tube is being formed, two other small tubes are moving into position, dorsal to the heart tube. These two tubes are the _____________
dorsal aortae
The hindgut does not undergo a rotation. Just like the midgut, it has a ___________in the embryo, but not a ventral mesentery. The dorsal mesentery fuses to the posterior abdominal wall (except in the sigmoid colon), making most of the hindgut ______
dorsal mesentery retroperitoneal
meiosis I anaphase errors? meiosis II?
double check this EXCELLENT PHOTO
Midgut
duodenum distal to the opening of the (common) bile duct, jejunum, ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending colon, proximal 2/3 transverse colon - Supplied by superior mesenteric artery
VASOCONSTRICTION ______ TISSUE INJURY TO FACILITATE HEMOSTASIS/INCREASE VASCULAR RESISTANCE WITH HYPOVOLEMIA
during
The lamina propria of the olfactory epithelium contains: a) clusters of veins (swell bodies) b) unmyelinated nerves c) Bowman's glands d) A + B e) all the above
e) all the above!
_______ have gap junctions: a) skeletal muscle b) smooth muscle c) cardiac muscle d) a+b e)b+c
e) smooth and cardiac muscle
The epithelial transition zone of the female reproductive tract is found at the junction between the:
ectocervix and the endocervix
Notice both in the diagram and SEM below, these are sympathetic neurons that have multiple bulbous enlargements along the length of their axons where neurotransmitters are stored and released. This type of neuronal impulse conduction seen in the heart, gut and blood vessel walls is known as
en passant
en passant
enteric nervous system. enlarged varicostities with enlarged axons. along the length of the axon you can deploy nt in heart tissue so you can get synchronization
hamburger granules= there are 2 buns (lobes) for a hamburger. 2 corresponds to eosinophils :D
eosinophil This TEM image shows a developing eosinophil stained for its specific granules containing the enzyme peroxidase and major basic protein. Note that the specific granule is electron dense, but the stripe of the specific granule that contains major basic protein is unstained. This staining varies from the TEM image seen in the connective tissue lab, but the granules still retain their characteristic "hamburger" appearance. The nucleus is in the process of becoming bi-lobed.
erotic stimuli/no erotic stimuli
erotic stimuli looks interwebbed
erythropoiesis produces________ leukopoiesis produces_______, and thrombopoiesis produces________
erythrocytes leukocytes platelets
___________ have bilobed nuclei
esoinophils
Foregut
esophagus, stomach, duodenum up through the opening of the (common) bile duct - Includes the liver, gall bladder, and pancreas - Supplied by celiac trunk
What hormone(s) is/are responsible for inducing the changes in the cervical canal and cervical mucous pictured below?
estradiol
Steroidal hormones are *produced* in the ovary, but have effects on other organs of female repro system
example: uterus
What immune events occur in these lymph nodes? *red star slide*
ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY - THIS IS WHERE SPECIFIC CELLS AND/OR MOLECULES BECOME ACTIVATED AND MOBILIZED AGAINST A SINGLE PATHOGEN
Below is another microscopic image of the aorta (40X); Notice the tunica intima (1) has very few elastic/collagen fibers compared to the tunica media (2). During aging collagen/elastic fibers will accumulate in the tunica intima leading to what pathological condition?
ARTERIOsclerosis
RED STAR
BPH= benign prostatic hyperplasia happens in central zone/transitional zone as men age. If you have lots of cells there, that could occlude your urethra (peeing in middle of the night)
During the repair of a hiatal hernia, a surgeon mistakenly transects fibers of the posterior vagal trunk. Parasympathetic innervation could be compromised to all of the following organs EXCEPT: A. Appendix B. Ascending colon C. Pancreas D. Descending colon E. Ileum F. Spleen G. Liver
D. descending colon *ask about this anything beyond splenic flexure= pelvic splanchnic
Histology of the Fibrous Skeleton of the Heart:
Dense Irregular CT with SSqE covering superficial surfaces
Type 1 pneumocytes
extremely thin alveolar cells that are adapted to carry out gas exchange -stretchy -squamous epithelial cells with long cytoplasmic extensions -40% of epithelial population -90% of alveolar surface (huge surface area)
ventral mesentery is ***ON EXAM
falciform ligament lesser omentum "fentral mesentary= falciform ligament"
A 17-year old patient is injured in a knife fight. A penetrating stab would has severed the white ramus communicans of the T4 spinal nerve. This injury could result in degeneration of the nerve cell bodies whose axons comprise this structure. Where would those cell bodies be found?
Dorsal root ganglia and the intermediolateral column of the spinal cord grey ramus communicans= postganglionic (also sympathetic)
2 erectile bodies in male (superficial pouch)
Erectile bodies, Male 1. Corpus spongiosum, unpaired, forming a tube around the urethra and forms: a. Bulb of penis, posteriorly b. Glans of penis, anteriorly 2. Corpus cavernosum, the posterior part of which is the (paired) crus, and the anterior part of which forms most of the penis.
leydig cells have receptors for
LH production of testosterone: hypothalmo-hypophyseal-testes axis
Describe the correct general order of movement of urine from the nephron to the ureter.
Nephron Collecting duct Area Cribrosa Minor Calyx Major Calyx Renal Pelvis Ureter
type 2
SP-A,B
abrupt change in epithelial type from ______ to _________ seen in the vocal folds.
SSqNKE to pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Which of the following renal organs are lined by the tissue shown below?
Some regions of the Urethra Bladder Ureters Kidney - calyces
pectinate line
Structure that separates internal and external hemorrhoids The pectinate line is at the end of the greater intestine, at the boundary between rectum and anal canal. At this point, the lining of the gut contacts and is continuous with the skin. The areas just above (interior) and below (exterior) the pectinate line differ on every level, embryology, histology, arterial supply, lymphatic drainage, innervation, but the venous drainage is continuous.
Epithelial Injury in lung
Subset of Clara cells activated to self-renew and act as progenitors for: ciliated cells, Type I and II pneumocytes, and all the cells of the bronchiolar epithelium
rib anatomy
Superior articulate facet (T3) and inferior articulate facet (T4) ; head articulates with vertebral body
Bariatric surgery requires an internal surgeon to ligate all of the arteries feeding the stomach. Branches of which artery would be spared? A. Gastroduodenal a. B. Splenic a. C. Proper hepatic a. D. Left gastric a. E. Supraduodenal artery
Supraduodenal artery *the rest of these supply the stomach
Cells bodies of all preganglionic sympathetic fibers are in spinal levels ________ of the spinal cord - Hence the sympathetic system is also known as the division of the ANS
T1-L2/(L3)
Esophagus passes through esophageal hiatus of diaphragm to enter abdominal cavity at level _______
T10 *the abdominal part is only 1.25 cm long before emptying into stomach
Aortic hiatus is at
T12
Hindgut structures receive preganglionic innvervation from spinal segments ______ (i.e., least splanchnic nerve with some overlap from lumbar splanchnic nerves)
T12-L2/3
Trachea divides into the right and left bronchus at ___ at the sternal angle The carina (keel‐like ridge): A cartilaginous projection of the last tracheal ridge associated with the cough
T4
Transverse Thoracic Plane
T4-5
All paravertebral ganglia above the ___ spinal segment contribute to sympathetic organ nerves
T6
SECONDARY ORGANS:
TONSILS, LYMPH NODES, SPLEEN (IMMUNE CELLS ACTIVATED)
True or False: not every nodule has a germinal center and a mantle zone
TRUE! only nodules that are activated will have a germinal center and a mantle zone
sigmoid colon
intraperitoneal with long mesentery
Stores glycogen and secretes bile
liver!
Nuclear Transort
mediated by karyopherins: importin and exportin Importins bind to NLC (+ charged Lys, Arg) Exportins bind to NES (hydrophobic)
The oocyte found within the follicle pictured in this photomicrograph would be in __1__ stage of meiosis and would have __2__ number of DNA molecules.
meiosis I; 92 unkesss it ia a graffian follicle, it is still in meiosis 1
___________ have multilobed nuclei
neutrophils
Which layer of an artery has striated muscle fibers?
none of them
what type of cartilage do bronchioles have?
none! bronchioles don't have any cartilage or goblet cells
nuclei of support cells are motile/nonmotile cilia
nonmotile
Portal Triads Question
oxygen rich blood is brought to hepatocytes. you bring nutrient rich blood (portal vein). then you drain away from the hepatocytes the bile. deoxygenated blood is moving towards the liver towards the heart
S (Vagus)
pain sensations from heart
what is the outermost layer of the uterus?
perimetrium! has adventitia and broad ligament
Efferent arteriole can lead to one of these capillaries:
peritubular capillaries vasa recta
Dr. Thewissen's Heart Tube
pink stuff= cranial
All sympathetic organ nerves are ________
postganglionic
Preductal
preductal =pediatric=prior to the ductus=PDA with eissenmengher syndrome, blood that is deoxygenated will go through the aorta and the lower half of the body will suffer from cyanosis.
Rectum becomes anal canal at
puborectalis muscle
Oropharynx
region between the oral cavity and esophagus lined by SSqNKE Identifying characteristic is the *elastic limiting layer* which supplants the muscularis mucosa in this region
What does secretin do?
regulates pH of duodenum
ligamentum venosum
remnant of ductus venosus
During diapedesis, the large cells shown bind to selectins secreted by endothelial cells and ________ before slowing down enough to squeeze between endothelial cells and enter into the adjacent connective tissue.
roll
splenic artery
supplies the spleen really curly and thick Left gastro-omental artery: to greater curvature; also called gastroepiploic
left gastric artery
supplies the stomach -ascends retroperitoneally to the esophageal hiatus then courses along the lesser curvature of the stomach -anastomoses with right gastric artery - Esophageal branches: supply blood to abdominal esophagus
esophageal varices
swollen, varicose veins at the lower end of the esophagus hematamesis
why is the blood-air barrier thin?
the basal lamina of the endothelial cell will fuse with the basal lamina of type 1 pneumocyte (also thin). this fusion forms the blood-air barrier. it has to be thin in order to allow for CO2 and O2 exchange. ***ON EXAM
The ascending colon is comprised of which 2 things:
the cecum (intraperitoneal) the vermiform appendix the ascending colon is secondarily retroperitoneal
what happens at the end of looping? ~30 days
the primary interventricular foramen separates the two ventricles: (blue) ventricle= left ventricle (green) bulbos cordis= right ventricle the formerly smooth walls of the tube start to form trabeculae in the ventricles
C- shaped hyaline cartilage is characteristic of
trachea! side note: trachealis muscles tighten when we cough
In lamellar bodies SP-A,B _______ the DPPC into a mature surfactant molecule. **ON EXAM
transform
Vestibule
transition from skin to non-keratinized epithelium to respiratory epithelium contains vibrissae (thick, short hairs) and seromucous glands
The calyces and renal pelvis are comprised of fibrous connective tissue lined with
transitional epithelium
OB's look at these 2 to see if a woman can have her baby:
transverse diameter obstetrical conjugate
enterokinase converts
trypsinogen--> trypsin In stomach, pepsin begins protein digestion, but is ineffective in pH of duodenum. Activation of Trypsin allows for protein digestion to continue in duodenum.
testicular torsion
twisting of the spermatic cord causing decreased blood flow to the testis a bigger deal than hydrocele • Medical emergency that requires immediate treatment, due to possibility of testicular necrosis • Once untwisted, the affected testis and the unaffected one are both fixed to the scrotal septum, to prevent future occurrences
Which of the following is NOT directly involved in the alveolar blood-air barrier? Type I pneumocytes Capillary enothelial cell A fused basal lamina RBC plasma membranes Type II pneumocytes
type II pneumocytes Type II pneumocytes secrete surfactant and act as stem cells. They are not part of the blood-air barrier
Muscles of the Posterior Abdominal Wall: Iliacus
unites with psoas major to form iliopsoas -PA: Iliac fossa & sacral alae (wings) -DA: lesser trochanter of femur (as iliopsoas) -Action: primary & strongest thigh flexor (as iliopsoas) -Innervation: femoral nerve (L2-L4)
when is folding completed?
week 5
Lysozyme
‐proteolytic enzyme that causes bacteria to swell, rupture
what are the 2 sources of respiratory tissue?
• Endoderm -Gives rise to the epithelium lining the larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs • Splanchnic mesoderm -Gives rise to the cartilaginous, muscular, and connective tissue parts of the trachea and lungs
Examples of Regional Variation in Mucosa
• Esophagus - Folded Mucosa (and submucosa) • Stomach - Mucosa invaginates into open pits with gastric glands • Small Intestine - Mucosa displays evaginations (villi) of specific shape, length • Large Intestine - Mucosa invaginates into crypts with tubular glands
CC: Double Aortic Arch
• If the right dorsal aorta persists, then this can lead to a large right aortic arch and a small left aortic arch • These arches surround the trachea and the esophagus, resulting in difficulties in breathing and swallowing -coarseness of voice
Transitional Epithelium:
• Minor calyces • Major calyces • Renal pelvis • Ureter • Urinary bladder
what are ANF granules?
• PEPTIDE HORMONE • PRODUCED, STORED, SECRETED BY ATRIAL CARDIOMYOCYTES • BARORECEPTORS/STRETCH RECEPTORS EMBEDDED IN ATRIAL WALL • SIGNAL RELEASE OF ANF-->TARGET CELLS - KIDNEY COLLECTING DUCTS • SHIFT Na+ CONC. BLOOD-->URINE • INC. URINE PROD./OUTPUT • DECREASE IN BLOOD VOL./BLOOD PRESSURE • ANTAGONISTIC HORMONE TO ADH & ALDOSTERONE
what is the largest gland in the body? what is the largest organ in the body (after skin)?
LIVER LIVER *has extensive RER to produce the proteins needed; also has extensive SER because of bile
A young insulin-dependent diabetic woman in her first pregnancy is concerned that her daily injection of insulin will cause a congenital malformation in her baby. What should the physician tell her?
Insulin does not cross the placental membrane Insulin, like all protein hormones, does not cross the placental membrane in significant amounts.
The bony pelvis
The area above the pelvic brim is called the greater pelvis, the area below it is called the lesser pelvis. The doorway between greater and lesser pelvis is the pelvic inlet, the lower doorway of the lesser pelvis is the pelvic outlet. Inlet and outlet are phrases that reflect the passage of the child that is being born.
Red Star Slide
bile cannaliculi on opposite surface of sinusoid you need to collect bile from multiple cells while at the same time moving towards the periphery the green square thing is the limiting plate. the bile cannaliculi are gonna have to penetrate the limiting plate in order to join with the bile ducule
(1) Classic lobules
describe the flow of venous blood from the liver's periphery to the center. Venous blood mainly from the digestive system flows via the hepatic portal vein, to the portal triad, through liver sinusoids, and finally into the central vein.
pyloric sphincter of stomach-duodenal junction:
Regulates flow of partially digested food from stomach into duodenum Prevents regurgitation from duodenum into stomach
FLOW OF LYMPH IS __________ • DRAINS AWAY FROM PERIPHERAL TISSUE • DRAINS TOWRDS LYMPH NODES • THEN TOWARD HEART • RETURNED TO BLOOD AT BRACHIOCEPHALIC VEINS SSqE are for both blood capillaries and lymphatic capillaries. For lymphatic capillaries, SSqE stack up on top of each other like shingles on a roof. Therefore, as fluid builds up in surrounding tissue, it forces the shingles apart and allows for the unidirectional movement of fluid into that vessel. capillaries--> lymphatic vesicles--> ducts. Right lymphatic duct (right) Thoracic duct (left)
"UNIDIRECTIONAL"
During the later stages of pregnancy, maternal blood is separated from fetal blood by
syncytiotrophoblast and fetal endothelium During the later stages of pregnancy, the placental membrane becomes very thin and consists of two layers, the syncytiotrophoblast and fetal endothelium.
"abs"
tendinous intersection
Esophageal submucosal glands
‐in submucosa; ‐acidic mucus rich in lysozyme (antimicrobial, destroys cell walls of bacteria), ‐also lubricates the esophageal CARDIAC glands are neutral the esophageal SUBMUCOSAL glands are acidic
Chief cells of stomach
‐lower 1/3 of gastric gland ‐predominantly in fundus/body of stomach Morphology: ‐basal portion: lots of RER (basophilic cytoplasm) ‐apical portion: granules containing pepsinogen (inactive proenzyme) Regulation: ‐Acetylocholine stimulates secretion of pepsinogen!!!
Crypts of Lieberkuhn
‐opening between base of villi ‐invaginations of mucosa ‐location of Paneth cells
Blood Flow of Spleen:
• Abdominal Aorta • Celiac Trunk • Splenic artery • Trabecular arteries/Surrounded by PALS • Central artery/Surrounded by WBC follicle • Penicillar arterioles AND Radial arterioles • Capillary network/Surrounded by macrophages • Splenic sinusoids/Stave cells • Trabecular veins • Splenic vein
Nuclear medicine imaging advantages/disadvantages
• Advantages - Dynamic/functional assessment - High sensitivity to underlying pathology • Disadvantages - Radioactivity is administered to the patient - Specificity is often somewhat low
Advantages/Disadvantages of CT
• Advantages - Improved soft tissue contrast - Dedicated imaging of solid and hollow viscera • Dynamic hepatic imaging (i.e. hemangioma) • Virtual colonoscopy (VC) • Disadvantages - Exposure to ionizing radiation - Contrast administration (i.e. iodine allergy) - Cost
Portion of Urethra (transitional)
• All of female urethra • Males • Prostatic portion=transitional • Membranous portion = stratified/pseudostratified columnar
signs of pericarditis
• Cardiac output is reduced--> Oxygenation to peripheral tissues is reduced • Increased heart rate to compensate--> Increased blood pressure • Increased respiration rate to compensate • Edema/swelling in ankles, lower legs or abdomen • Fever Symptoms: • Difficulty breathing when reclining • Lightheadedness, Dizziness, Fatigue • Sharp stabbing pain and tightness in chest cavity may radiate to left arm and/or neck
FLOW OF LYMPH IS "UNIDIRECTIONAL"
• DRAINS AWAY FROM PERIPHERAL TISSUE • DRAINS TOWRDS LYMPH NODES • THEN TOWARD HEART • RETURNED TO BLOOD AT • BRACHIOCEPHALIC VEINS
Thoracocentesis (pleural tap) ***DEFINITELY ON EXAM :D
• Needle is inserted at the mid‐axillary line in the 9th intercostal space (low enough to avoid hitting lung tissue) - Recommended location varies according to source (some say 8th, or as high as 6th) - USE ULTRASOUND • Needle must be inserted a little superior subjacent rib to avoid the intercostal neurovasculature and its collateral branches *always insert needle above the next lower rib; you don't wanna punch a hole through the artery*
Capacitation is what one calls the changes that lead to hyperactivity of the spermatozoon and which later allow the spermatozoon to go through the acrosome reaction.
occurs in female repro tract allows acrosomal rxn thing to occur
epiploic foramen
opening to the lesser sac *you don't want an infection here!
Thoracic inlet to anatomists; thoracic ___ to clinicians Thoracic Outlet Syndrome: major obstruction of vessels/nerves emerging from the superior thoracic aperture (usually at the root of the neck)
outlet
apoptosis occurs in = necrosis occurs in =
ovaries uterus
Pancreas Histology
pancreas is divided into 2 parts: 1. exocrine pancreas (acini) 2. endocrine pancreas (islets of langherans)
-CD8+ lymphocytes are found in the
paracortex and attached to medullary cords
Visceral sensation from pelvic organs travel back to the spinal cord via the
parasympathetic pelvic splanchnic nerves (S3-S4)
Vagus Nerve (motor)
parasympathetic slows the heartbeat and constricts arteries sympathetic increases speed and intensity of heartbeat and dilates vessels
In the MALE: The phallus elongates and forms most of the ___(erectile bodies), but not the ventral part which is formed by the: The urethral folds, which close over the urethral groove thus forming the ______ The genital swelling becomes the ______swelling. Left and right swelling become the scrotum by fusing ventrally over the penis.
penis penal urethra scrotal
carcinomas happen more towards
periphery
Hysterosalpingogram (HSG)
- Contrast outlines the uterine cavity and lumen of the fallopian tubes • Uterine anomalies may be investigated • Useful as part of infertility workup • May disclose evidence of prior pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
Cardiac tamponade
- Excessive accumulation of pericardial fluid with Pericarditis. Expansion of the heart is restricted. Fluid is usually drained via needle aspiration.
*formation of the cardiac septa* Endocardial cushions
- actively growing tissue masses, made up of extracellular matrix covered in endocardial cells, that protrude into lumen -endocardial cushion= basically a lump that forms in the lumen -if something goes wrong here, that's bad! You're gonna have blood shunting in diff directions!
diffuse malt
1. Microglia - Central nervous system 2. Kupfer cells - Liver/ GI system 3. Cells of Ito - Liver/GI system (??? - see what you can find out about these cells!) 4. Langerhans cells Epidermis/Integumentary system
know this:
1. Mucous cells (protective mucous blanket, bicarbonate (HCO3‐)) 2. Chief cells (release pepsinogen) 3. Parietal cells (release HCl‐ and intrinsic factor to lumen, bicarbonate HCO3‐ to blood plasma creating alkaline tide) 4. Neuroendocrine cells (regulate digestion and absorption, many cells) - D, G cells 5. Stem cells (repopulate epithelium)
CC: Umbilical Hernia
-"outie bellybutton" -more common in females -herniation usually grows after birth (as gut keeps protruding) and increases in size when intraabdominal pressure increases (coughing, crying). It may be as large as a grapefruit. Umbilical hernias can occur at any age. Because the herniation pushes through the abdominal wall, it is covered by the tissues that make up this wall (subcutaneous tissue, skin, and parietal peritoneum. This distinguishes it from omphalocele. Occurrence: 1:10 births, more common in females, usually will disappear in year 1 without treatment.
sinusoidal capillaries
-CELLULAR SIEVE (not molecular sieve; that's fenestrated) -large molecules can move in and out of the sinusoid -found in the bone marrow, liver and spleen because you want to have a lot of free flow. The liver is for detox. Bone marrow is for the blood cells. The spleen has cleaning up duties (viruses, bacteria, toxins, old blood cells, etc). sssssssssinusoidal= "ssssssssssellular sieve"
Ureters
-Lined by urothelium. -Thick muscularis (inner longitudinal-outer circular) that moves urine by regular waves of peristalsis. Distal 1/3 has additional longitudinal layer. (IL-MC-OL) -Histologically the muscularis is much thicker than the mucosa -Adventitia present.
CC: Chron's Disease
-chronic inflammation in TERMINAL ILEUM ‐cytokines secreted by inflammatory cells (neutrophils, lymphocytes, macrophages) damage mucosa, submucosa, m. externa ‐form granulomas (lots of lymphocytes), fibrosis, fistulas (passage between a hollow or tubular organ and the body surface, or between two hollow or tubular organs), intestinal perforations ‐no known cause, maybe disrupted gut flora ‐Clinical characterizations: diarrhea, pain, loss of appetite, fatigue
Gastroduodenal artery
-passes behind 1st section of duodenum - Supraduodenal artery - Right gastro-omental (gastroepiploic) - Anterior/posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal: supply 1st and 2nd parts of the duodenum and head of the pancreas
-Resting B-lymphocytes are found in -Activated B-lymphocytes are found **ON EXAM
-primary lymphatic nodules -within germinal centers and attached to medullary cords.
random facts about this
-seminal glands produce seminal fluid, but also the prostate gland. 70% of semen is produced in seminal vesicles. -bulbo-urethral glands (Cowper's glands): also known as "pre-ejaculate"; something about acidic urine?; alkaline mucus;
CC: Coarctation of the Aorta
-the aortic lumen below the origin of the left subclavian artery is significantly narrowed
The prostate gland is more hormonally responsive to __1__ while the seminal vesicles have a maximal hormonal response to __2__. Both of these hormones are __3__ hormones.
1 = DHT; 2 = testosterone; 3 = steroidal
The prostate gland is more hormonally responsive to __1__ while the seminal vesicles have a maximal hormonal response to __2__. Both of these hormones are __3__ hormones.
1 = FSH; 2 = LH; 3 = protein
The hormone responsible for follicle maturation is __1__, however under the stimulation of LH, these same cells that responded to FSH previously now begin to synthesize __2__.
1 = FSH; estradiol and progestins
There are 2 diff kinds of capillary systems found in pancreas
1) one is the typical capillary system surrounding each acinus. Blood coming in from arteriole side and leaves through the venous side (O2 poor, CO2 rich). 2) is the connecting portal system b/w the islets and the acini. what is a portal system? there are 2 capillary networks: the first one is a transport system to move molecule from A-->B. the 2nd one whatever that molecule of interest was, it's now diffusing outwards towards target cells where gas and nutrient exchange occurs.
The characteristic transitional epithelium associated with the urinary system lines which of these organs/structures? 1. urinary bladder 2. ureter 3. renal sinus 4. minor calyx 5. collecting duct
1,2,4 The calyces and renal pelvis are lined by a transitional epithelium. Renal sinus is a fat-filled cavity that surrounds the calyces and renal pelvis.
Identify which of these structures/organs has a layer(s) of smooth muscle?
1,3 2 is bile ductule bs can't stain center Larger veins can have some smooth muscle within their walls. Arterioles have smooth muscles within their walls.
Along the length of the small intestines (duodenum, jejunum and ileum) which of these histological features would be present? 1. Crypts of Lieberkuhn/Paneth cells 2. Peyer's patches 3. Plicae circulares with villi 4. Goblet cells interspersed between simple columnar epithelium 5. Lacteals are present with individual villi
1,3,4,5
Below is a microscopic image of an arteriole (40X). Indicate the cell type associated with the numbered arrows (1 and 2)
1- Simple Squamous, 2-Smooth Muscle
Ischioanal Fossa
1. The rectal ampulla fills, but it is kept closed by the internal anal sphincter (an involuntary muscle). 2. When the weight of the feces increases, the internal anal sphincter gives out. At that point, one becomes aware of the need to defecate. However, the two voluntary muscles, external anal sphincter and puborectalis, keep the anal canal closed. 3. During defecation, the two voluntary muscles relax, and abdominal wall muscles force feces out of the rectum and anal canal.
2 erectile bodies in females (superficial pouch)
1. Bulb of vestibule (paired, in wall of vagina). 2. Clitoris, consisting of a. Crus (paired, against pubic ramus; plural: crura). b. Glans (unpaired, projects from skin.
The primary components of bile include: ***ON EXAM
1. Conjugated bilirubin 2. Phospholipids 3. Cholesterol 4. Bile acids
3 Major Types of Capillary Networks (red star slide)
1. Continuous 2. Fenestrated 3. Sinusoids
Only X % of all lymphoblasts survive both selection processes
2%
Sequence these photographs of the external os of three different patients - placing them in this order: nulliparous (never given birth); multiparous (given birth multiple times); menopausal female.
2,1,3 look at the holes! small circle=nulliparous horizontal shaped= multiparous
The cells indicated in this photomicrograph synthesize:
3. androgen-binding protein, inhibin, activin 4. serous secretion that lubricates seminiferous tubule
Klinefelter's Syndrome: • 47; XXY
A genetic condition in which a male is born with an extra copy of the X chromosome • Reduced testosterone production • Hypogonadism • Microorchidism • Gynecomastia • Weaker bones/muscles
What are "hands in pockets" muscles? what innervates this muscle?
external abdominal oblique (superficial layer) O: External surfaces of lower ribs I: Linea alba, pubic tubercle, iliac crest innervation: thoracoabdominal n (T7-11) Action: works as a digastric (two-belly) muscle with the contralateral IAO to flex and rotate the trunk (as in twist crunches); increases intra-abdominal pressure
Pathological Anomalies Congestive Heart Failure-->Central venous pressure-->Liver engorges with blood--> Blood flow impeded
(necrosis)
lumbosacral plexus
L2-S3
Mucins
(MUC5AC, MUC5B) -cross-linking glycoprotein monomers -bind fluid -low viscosity, elastic mucous -antimicrobial molecules, lysozymes, immunoglobulins
Visceral sensation from pelvic organs travel back to the spinal cord via the parasympathetic pelvic splanchnic nerves
(S3-S4)
insulin synthesis *RED STAR SLIDE*
*Preproinsulin* (synthesized in RER) --> cleavage of "presignal" --> *proinsulin* (stored in secretory granules) --> cleavage of proinsulin --> exocytosis of *insulin* and *C-peptide* equally
what are the 3 general trends of RBC formation?
(1) cells progress from large to small. (2) The nuclei progress from being large and diffuse, to small and compact, and finally the nucleus is ejected from the cell. (3) The cytoplasmic staining goes from basophilic to acidophilic
There are two main interlobular ducts that lay between the lobes of the pancreas, supported by dense connective tissue:
(1) the main pancreatic duct (duct of Wursung) and (2) the accessory pancreatic duct (duct of Santorini).
The image below is of a renal corpuscle. Identify the correct structure indicated by the number __(1)__. Notice there are several dark staining circular structures stained by toluidine blue. What cell type are these(2)?
(1)-Bowman's Capsule - Parietal membrane, (2)-Erythrocytes
Below is a photomicrograph of a collecting duct. (1) Identify the cell type that lines the lumen of the collecting duct. (HINT: These cells DO NOT have a primary cilium). (2) These cells are primarily responsible for the secretion of which molecules/ions?
(1)-Intercalated cells, (2) bicarbonate and H+ ions
Identify the region labeled number (1). What is the name of the region at the apical tip of each renal pyramid known as (2)?
(1)-Papilla, (2)-Area Cribrosa
Below is a photomicrograph of a ureter (4X). The epithelium that lines the ureter lumen is __(1)__. Which layer corresponds to (2)?
(1)-Transitional Epithelium, (2)-Muscularis Externa
The atrioventricular valves contain three fibrous layers. Identify the correct order of these layers starting from the atrial side to the ventricular side
(1)Spongiosa (2)Fibrosa (3)Ventricularis
aortic aneurysm
*balloon‐like bulge* in the wall of a blood vessel -due to a weakness within the wall, which may be congenital, atherosclerotic, syphilitic. True aneurysms involve all three tunics. is this aneurysm or dissection? ask!
nice table
***ON EXAM
kidneys are a pair of primarily retroperitoneal organs
***ON EXAM :)
Characteristic Features of an Antral Follicle (Class 2 - Class 4): There are now 2 well-defined layers to the theca: o Theca externa - comprised of fibroblasts and myoid cells o Theca interna - highly vascularized layer, closest to basement membrane. Cells in the theca interna accumulate cholesterol molecules. Only theca interna cells possess the enzyme to convert cholesterol to androstenedione (17, 20 lyase). LH and LH receptors are required for the acquisition of cholesterol from the bloodstream.
***ON EXAM! CHOLESTEROL CLUSTERS IN THECA *INTERNA*
GOLDEN SLIDE
**ON EXAM
Sp-A have an ovoid-shaped nucleus. The nucleolus will be peripherally-located and attached to the nuclear membrane. Sp-B have a round nucleus with punctate heterochromatin and a centrally-located nucleolus.
**ON EXAM
visceral+parietal layer= tunica vaginalis
**ON EXAM! :D
Vacuolated Columnar epithelium - Secretory products of Seminal Vesicles: • Contributes 70% of seminal fluid volume • Fructose • Prostaglandins • ***Semen coagulating proteins***
**THIS WAS ON EXAM
Which of these cells store zymogen granules?
*2 and 3* 1 = parietal cells - no zymogens 2 = chief cells - pepsinogen 3 = acinar cells = inactive pancreatic enzymes/zymogens 4 = centroacinar cell Centroacinar cells are spindle-shaped cells in the exocrine pancreas. Centroacinar cells are an extension of the intercalated duct cells into each pancreatic acinus. The intercalated ducts take the bicarbonate to intralobular ducts which become lobular ducts.
Branches of external iliac artery:
- Inferior epigastric a.: ascends superomedially through extraperitoneal space towards arcuate line, dives beneath arcuate line into rectus sheath to anastomose with superior epigastric artery • Forms the lateral umbilical fold (see below...) • Gives off a pubic branch that is danger of being cut during hernial repair ("arterial crown of death")(can bleed to death) and can become an aberrent obturator a. - Deep circumflex iliac a.: runs on the deep internal surface of the anterior abdominal wall (deep to transversalis fascia), parallel to the inguinal ligament
Hiatal Hernia
- Protrusion of part of the stomach into the mediastinum through the esophageal hiatus of diaphragm. Most often in people after middle age due to weakening of diaphragm and widening of esophageal hiatus.
identify this!!!!!!!!!!
1. Internal urethral sphincter 2. Rectum 3. Prostatic urethra 4. Prostate gland 5. Seminal colliculus 6. Membranous urethra 7. Penile/Spongy urethra 8. Bulbospongiosus muscle 9. Vas deferens 10. Scrotum/Scrotal raphe 11. Testis 12. Body of Epididymis 13. Corpus cavernosum (singular) Corpora cavernosa (both) 14. Dorsal surface of penis 15. Corpus spongiosum with penile urethra 16. Pubis symphysis 17. Urinary bladder 18. Rectus abdominis
Name some functions of the respiratory system
1. Main site of gas exchange 2. Participate in acid-base balance of the body 3. Main site of phonation 4. Pulmonary defense 5. Metabolism
The following male reproductive organs are embedded in the shaft of the penis:
1. Penile urethra/corpus spongiosum 2. Corpora cavernosa 3. Glands of Littre 4. Neurovasculature of the Penis: Dorsal vein/ Deep dorsal veins of the penis Dorsal artery/ Deep artery of the penis/Helicine arteries
What are the 4 modifications in small intestine to increase surface area for absorption?
1. Plicae (folds) (largest) 2. Villi (covers plicae) 3. Crypts of Lieberkuhn (between villi) 4. Microvilli (On surface of enterocytes. Enterocytes cover villi and crypts) (smallest)
CC: Atresias and Stenoses
Atresia: congenital absence of an opening of lumen. Stenosis (plural: stenoses): narrowing of an opening or lumen. Most atresias and stenoses may be the result of temporary reduction of blood flow to the affected part, which would lead to necrosis.
DNA methylation and age (fun facts)
Breast tissue/mammary glands in healthy women calculated to be 3 years older than other tissues in body faster rate/greater degree of methylation. Mammary gland tissue from women diagnosed with breast cancer calculated to be 12 years older than other tissues in the body. Cancerous tissue from 20 different types of cancer - on average appeared to be 36 years older than other tissues in these same individuals. Faster rate/greater degree of methylation in cells with dysregulated cell cycle. Our only biological clock NOW is the calendar and a birthdate...this is the beginning of a new way to "age" normal and abnormal tissues!
Who lives in the lymphatic nodules?
B‐Lymphocytes • Resting B‐cells = Primary Follicle • Activated/Dividing B‐cells = Germinal Center of Secondary Follicle • Plasma Cells - Antibody producing B‐cells Medullary cords
from superficial to deep: order important for formation of the _________
Camper's fascia: fatty layer of subcutaneous fascia Scarpa's fascia: tough, membranous layer of subcutaneous fascia (tougher in lateral abdomen). Continuous with Colle's fascia in the perineum, tunica dartos in the scrotum and the superficial fascia of the penis. Transversalis fascia: deepest layer of the anterior abdominal wall, equivalent to the internal deep fascia of the transverus abdominus muscle spermatic cord
CC: Colon Cancer
Cancer of the large intestine (colon cancer) is one of the most common cancers. Its spread in the anal canal follows the lymph. A tumor above the pectinate line will metastasize to the internal iliac nodes, which are hard to reach and operating on them will put the autonomic plexus at risk. Evidence for a tumor below the pectinate line can be found in the easily palpated superficial inguinal nodes, which are easily removed.
Which TEM represents cardiac muscle?
Cardiac muscle cells with the dyad at the Z-line is highlighted on the EM for "A".
what defects often occur with other birth defects?
Esophageal Atresia and Tracheoesophageal Fistulas
The ova is transported toward the uterus via ciliated movements of specialized epithelial cells found along the length of the _________
Fallopian tubes from distal to uterus--> proximal: Fimbria/Infundibulum-->Ampulla-->Isthmus -->Intramural portion (portion that pierces the uterine wall). **ON EXAM
sertoli red star slide FSH acts on sertoli cells; -feedback via inhibin
Functions of Sertoli Cells: 1. Formation of blood‐testis barrier 2. Nutritive support for developing spermatocytes 3. Production of ABP (Androgen Binding Protein) 4. Production of Activin and inhibin 5. Production of tubular fluid - transport medium 6. Phagocytosis of residual bodies *ABP binds both testosterone and DHT
functions of sertoli cells!!!!!!!!!!!!
Functions of Sertoli cells: 1. Formation of Blood‐testis barrier: basal tight junctions between adjacent Sertoli cells • Basal Compartment ‐ Spermatagonia • Adluminal Compartment - Developing spermatocytes that have completed Diplotene/Prophase I • Genetic recombination has occurred! If spermatocytes escape the blood‐testis barrier induce an immune response • Anti‐sperm antibodies are produced ‐ >agglutination of sperm, disrupts forward motility male infertility
Megakaryocyte
Multilobed nucleus. Produced by endomitosis. Nucleus is 8n-->64n. ONLY seen in RBM/marrow smear. Platelets ONLY seen in blood smear
Muscles of the Posterior Abdominal Wall: Diaphragm
Origin: Inner aspects of xiphoid process, lower costal cartilages and ribs, upper lumbar vertebrae, fascia overlying psoas major and quadratus lumborum • Central tendon (of insertion): clover-leaf shaped aponeurotic sheet that is firmly adhered to the pericardial sac superiorly Three hiatuses: caval (T8), esophageal (T10), aortic (T12) • Two crura: left and right; tendinous bands that wrap around the front of the aorta (singular crus)
Centrosome cycle
Process by which the centrosome duplicates (during interphase) and the two new centrosomes separate (at the beginning of mitosis) to form the poles of the mitotic spindle. During G1, a cell has 1 centrosome consisting of 2 centrioles: mother and daughter. Activated CyclinE/Cdk‐2 phosphorylates substrates that initiate centriole replication. During the G1-S transition, centrosomes duplicate. Daughter centrioles arise from each centriole End of G2, centrosomes complete duplication ?? you have to duplicate both the mature and immature centriole??
These modified epithelial cells are found along the length of the uterine tube, from fimbriae to intramural portion. The function of these cells indicated by the arrows is to:
Produce and secrete a glycogen-rich fluid that nourishes introduced spermatozoa. Produce and secrete a fluid that finalizes the capacitance of spermatozoa
Expiration (quiet)
Relaxation of the diaphragm allows the lungs, thoracic wall, and abdominal viscera to return to their resting position through elastic recoil after expansion
Respiratory bronchiole
Respiratory bronchiole - similar to Terminal bronchioles, but with alveoli interrupting continuity of wall of bronchiole. Discontinuous replacement of cuboidal cells and clara cells with Type I alveolar (Type I pneumocytes) epithelial cells. Cartilage: absent Glands: clara cells
Sp AP
Sp Ap also are only capable of mitosis, the daughter cells produced are Spermatagonia B.
A significant functional difference between Sp Ap and Spermatagonia B (Sp B) is:
Sp Ap are only capable of mitosis; Sp B once produced - rapidly proceed to meiosis Sp Ap are diploid in number; Sp B are double diploid in number
A significant functional difference between spermatagonia A-dark (Sp Ad) and spermatgonia A-pale (Sp Ap) is:
Sp Ap are transient amplifying cells that rapidly undergo multiple mitotic events
What is the thoracic wall musculature? Subcostales and transversus thoracis
Subcostales and transversus thoracis
Spermatagonia Ad have dark-staining ovoid nuclei. They occupy the stem cell niche, AND they are only capable of mitosis to re-populate the stem cell niche.
The daughter cell produced when Sp Ad undergo mitosis is a Spermatagonia A-pale
Approx. 2 days later, cells within the follicular structure have re-organized into 2 new and significant layers: Granulosa cells hypertrophy Granulosa lutein production of estradiols continues Theca interna cells Theca lutein conversion of androstenedione to progestins
The entire structure is now referred to as the corpus luteum (lutea in Latin means yellow - which is apparent at the macroscopic level due to the uptake of cholesterol for steroidogenesis).
Which of these statements is/are correct about conducting myocytes
They are muscles cells that allow for rapid diffusion of depolarizing ions; they have fewer myofibrils; they are smaller in size compared to contractile myocytes
M-cells (wierd shaped cells)
What cell transports IgA, is secreted by plasma cells, and is in Peyer's patches to the gastrointestinal lumen? Pinocytose proteins from lumen to monitor for antigens, sample lumen, transport antigens to lymphocytes
Hemosederin
When blood leaves a ruptured blood vessel, the red blood cell dies, and the hemoglobin of the cell is released into the extracellular space. White blood cells called macrophages engulf (phagocytose) the hemoglobin to degrade it, producing hemosiderin and then biliverdin. Hemosiderin is causes the purple color of 2-day old bruises. Biliverdin is the pigment responsible for the greenish color of 5-day old bruises. Biliverdin breaks down into bilirubin, causing the bruise to turn yellow in 7-10 days.
What are key inflammatory cells responsible for the damage seen in this photomicrograph?
eosinophils Asthma -goblet cell metaplasia, mucus plugs -eosinophilia
Which of these WBC's is up-regulated in numbers in an individual infected with malaria?
eosinophils=4 parasites eosinophils= "ewww parasites"
During erythropoiesis, erythropoietin facilitates the proliferation and differentiation of cells in which lineage of cells?
erythroid
There are 2 types of glands in esophagus:
esophageal cardiac glands-neutral mucus esophageal submucosal glands-acidic
herniation=
is the abnormal protrusion of tissues beyond the walls of the space the usually contains it
Direct (acquired): due to weakness of abdominal wall, bowel
with peritoneal covering pushes through transveralis fascia to exit superficial inguinal ring - Exits the superficial ring medial to the inferior epigastric a. (i.e., in medial inguinal triangle, a.k.a., "Hesselbach's triangle")
Examples of D-MALT include tissues of the following organs or organ systems:
GALT - Gut-associated lymphoid tissue BALT - Bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue NALT - Nose-associated lymphoid tissue CALT- Conjunctival-associated lymphoid tissue VALT - Vulvo-vaginal associated lymphoid tissue
Macrophage recognition/phagocytosis of intracellular pathogen/virus:
activation of macrophage (clonal expansion of cellular population) activation of Th1 lymphocyte (clonal expansion of cellular population) activation of Tc lymphocyte (clonal expansion of cellular population) circulation of *Tc to infected tissue* release degradative enzymes onto cell with intracellular pathogen
The eight paravertebral ganglia in the cervical region fuse into three cervical sympathetic ganglia (superior, middle and inferior) - The inferior cervical ganglion often fuses with T1, making a ________ganglion
"stellate"
Aortic coarctation is a congenital narrowing of the aorta typically at the location of the ductus arteriosus ______ Results in decrease in blood flow to the descending aorta
(ligamentum arteriosum)
she said to know this photo: muscularis externa
*very rare to see glands in submucosa *submucosal glands here are tubuloacinar glands
The three leading causes of death in the US* are:
- #1 - Heart disease - #2 - Malignant Neoplasms - #3 - Infectious disease
Aspiration of Foreign Bodies
- Foreign bodies or food tend to enter the **r** bronchus (or branch) because the right bronchus is wider, shorter and courses more vertically than the left bronchus
Coarctation of Aorta
- an abnormal narrowing (stenosis) of the aorta, typically near the site of the *ligamentum arteriosum*. Collateral vessels may become enlarged and pulsate in intercostal spaces.
Bronchogenic carcinoma
- can produce an enlargement of the tracheo‐bronchial lymph nodes which can alter the position and immobilize the carina. Such morphological changes in the carina then can serve as important diagnostic signs.
what are the causes of chronic bronchitis?
-Long term exposure to: • Smoke • Dust • Chemicals • Viral infection
CC: Tetralogy of Fallot
-Most frequently occurring abnormality of the conotruncal region (9.6/10,000 births) -Basically, the conotruncal septum is too far anterior -In most cases, this is due to an issue in the regulation of neural crest cells -characterized by hypertrophy of right ventricle -basically, aorta is so big while pulmonary trunk is so small
Goblet cells of PSCC
-Nasal Cavity -Nasopharynx -Larynx -Trachea -Bronchi -MUC5AC, MUC5B *goblet cells are gonna be present everywhere from nasal cavity to bronchi
Histological Characterisitics of Conducting vs. Contractile Cardiomyocytes
-Significantly Fewer Myofibrils -Random Organization -Smaller in size (Purkinje Fiber exception)
*Formation of the Cardiac Loop* what does the bulbus cordis form?
-The trabeculated part of the right ventricle -The conus cordis, which will form the outflow tracts from both ventricles -The truncus arteriosus, which will form the proximal portion of the aorta and pulmonary artery
Contents of posterior abdominal wall
-Two paired organs (kidneys and suprarenal glands) -Primary vasculature (abdominal aorta and inferior vena cava) -Somatic and autonomic nerve complexes (Lumbar plexus, lumbosacral trunk and sympathetic trunk)
CC: Ventricular Septal Defects (VSDs)
-VSDs are the most common congenital cardiac malformations, occurring in isolation in 12/10,000 births -• 80% of VSDs occur in the muscular portion, and resolve as the child grows • VSDs in the membranous portion are usually more serious, and associated with partitioning in the conotruncal region
CC: Atrial Septal Defects (ASDs)
-a congenital heart abnormality that occurs in 6.4/10,000 births -Many babies born with ASDs don't have symptoms. By age 30, adults may notice symptoms such as shortness of breath, heart palpitations, fatigue, swelling in the legs, feet, or abdomen, and heart murmurs -• An ostium secundum defect can be caused by excessive resorption of the septum primum • An ostium secundum defect can also be caused by failure of the septum secundum to develop • In rare cases, the septum completely fails to form • If premature closure of the oval foramen occurs, the right side of the heart hypertrophies while the left side under-develops • ASDs result in the mixing of atrial blood bc there is a hole in the wall b/w the 2 atria
(ask about this) Precapillary sphincter closed=
-blood moving only through throughfare -LOW metabolic demand
vasa recta
-concentration gradient -wraps around long Loop of Henle of a Juxtamedullary Nephron. - flow of blood and filtrate in opposite directions (see video, Countercurrent Exhanger) - together establish a solute concentration gradient in the extracellular fluid of medulla
Mediastinum
-everything but the lungs in the thorax -mediastinum contains the heart
continuous capillaries
-most common type of capillary -tight junctions
CC: Esophageal Atresia and Tracheoesophageal Fistulas
-occur due to abnormalities during the development of the tracheoesophageal septum • Basically, the two tubes fail to separate • In 90% of cases, the esophagus ends as a blind pouch, and the lower portion forms a fistula with the trachea (A in figure at right; other images show rarer defects)
CC: Patent Ductus Arteriosus
-one of the most frequently occurring abnormalities of the great vessels -happens often in premie babies -patent=open in latin -ductus arteriosus= connection b/w aorta and pulmonary artery -should close within hours after birth -If a defect causes large differences between aortic and pulmonary pressures, increased blood flow through the ductus may prevent its closure
As a 3 week old embryo- what tissues do you have to make from the lateral plate/splanchnic mesoderm?
-pericardial sac: fibrous connective tissue -muscle tissue- cardiac muscle --contractile muscle --conducting muscle --neuroendocrine cells -fibrous skeleton- fibrous connective tissue --AV valves --semilunar valves --tendinous cords for attachment -blood vessels for the heart -blood cells to circulate
the cytoplasm of type __ pneumocyte is exceptionally thin
1
epidydimis =
1 due to the presence of pseudostratified columnar epithelium with stereovilli
This photomicrograph depicts a/an _1__, with cells that produce __2__.
1 = atretic follicle; no hormones
All of these structures labeled with #1 on this photomicrograph of a human ovary are examples of a __1__. The age of the female when this tissue was harvested would be __2__.
1 = corpus albicans; 2 = post-menopausal
There are multiple cells types that comprise the parenchyma of the liver. The modified epithelial cells that process monosaccharides, amino acids, fatty acids, purines and pyrimidines are __1__. The cells that screen the venous blood for pathogens and toxins are __2__ and the cells responsible for bile production are __3__.
1 = hepatocytes; 2 = Kupffer cells; 3 = hepatocytes
The cells responsible for producing testosterone are located in __1__ and have membrane receptors for both __2__ and leutinizing hormone(LH). Sertoli cells have plasma membrane receptors for __3__.
1 = interstitial spaces between seminiferous tubules; 2 = prolactin; 3 = follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
The bulbourethral glands are __1__ glands embedded in the __2__, while the Glands of Littre are embedded in the submucosa of the __3__.
1 = mucous-producing; 2 = deep perineal pouch; 3 = penile urethra
During inflammation locally produced proinflammatory cytokines induce endothelial cells in the walls of arterioles to release __1__. However, if the blood vessel wall was damaged and hemostasis must occur endothelial cells release __2__.
1 = nitric oxide; 2 = endothelin-1 and PG H2 Nitric oxide induces vasodilation, PG H2 and endothelin 1 are inducers of vasoconstriction - which would be necessary to initiate the blood clotting process.
The cells that are most likely to become hyperplastic in the prostate gland with age are __1__ cells located in the __2__ region(s).
1 = stromal and epithelial cells; 2 = central and transition
The cells indicated by the red arrow in this photomicrograph of an antral follicle are __1__ cells and their significant function is __2__.
1 = theca externa; 2 = contractile cells for follicle movement and ovulation
The mucosa of the uterus and uterine tubes produces a glycogen-rich, viscous secretion that provides a transport medium and nutritional support to deposited spermatozoa. The cells that produce/secrete this fluid in the uterus are __1__ while the cells that produce/secrete this fluid into the lumen of the uterine tubes are __2__.
1 = uterine gland cells; 2 = Peg cells
Three clinically important fossae defined by folds:
1) superficial fossae (provides room for bladder to expand) 2) medial inguinal fossae (Hesselbach's triangles); site of superficial inguinal ring and direct inguinal hernias 3) lateral inguinal fossae; site of deep inguinal ring and indirect inguinal hernias
Identify the cell types in the list below that have caveolae. 1. smooth muscle cells 2. cardiac muscle cells 3. skeletal muscle cells 4. endothelial cells
1 and 4
how much bile does the liver produce a day?
1 liter! white puffy pic: enzymatic reactions that are generating ATP. Those ATPase pumps are localized to the length of the bile cannaliculi
branches of inferior mesenteric artery
1) Left colic artery: supplies the descending colon 2) Sigmoidal branches: 3-4 branches to the sigmoid colon; participate in arterial arcades, much like the intestinal arteries 3) Superior rectal artery: terminal branch of the inferior mesenteric artery; anastomoses with the middle rectal artery (from internal iliac artery) and the inferior rectal artery (from the internal pudendal artery)
branches of superior mesenteric artery
1) Middle colic artery: travels in transverse mesocolon to supply transverse colon 2) Inferior pancreatricoduodenal arteries 3) Intestinal arteries 4) Ileocolic artery 5) Right colic artery
Which of these numbers represents cells of the stomach that secrete bicarbonate ions?
1) Parietal cells secrete bicarbonate into the bloodstream. 3) Surface mucous cells secrete mucous and bicarbonate.
Below is a microscopic image of the myocardium of the left ventricle (20X); Identify the numbered structures (1 and 2) below
1) arteriole 2)vein
Below is a photomicrograph of a renal corpuscle. Notice the afferent arteriole is indicated by the arrows. What cells in this arteriole respond to changes in blood pressure (1) and what molecule do these secrete when BP is low (2)?
1)-Juxtaglomerular cells, (2)-Renin
Larynx has epiglottis. What is the epiglottis?
1)flap of elastic cartilage that closes off the entrance of the trachea during swallowing to prevent food and liquid from entering the airway. 2) All cartilages other than the epiglottis are made of hyaline cartilage 3) Produce sound (true vocal cords)
artery, vein, lymphatic vessel
1,2,3
Which modifications to the gut wall architecture are observed in this photomicrograph of the gall bladder? 1. There is no muscularis mucosae 2. There is no lamina propria 3. There is no submucosa 4. The muscularis externa is comprised of skeletal and smooth muscle 5. It has both an adventitia and a serosa
1,3,5 Gall bladder: -lacks Muscularis mucosa, submucosa -lamina propria present -Muscularis externa is made of smooth muscle -has adventitia and serosa
what does the wall of the interalveolar septum consist of?
1. A simple squamous epithelium of alveolus (Type I pneumocyte) 2. A basal lamina of alveolus 3. An interstitium with abundant capillaries, elastic and collagenous fibers, fibroblasts, leukocytes, and alveolar macrophages 4. A basal lamina of capillary 5. A simple squamous epithelium of capillary
bronchioles:
1. General Epithelium (gradual transition from bronchi): Continuum between ciliated columnar to ciliated cuboidal cells, no longer contains respiratory epithelium, few/no goblet cells 2. Cartilage: absent 3. Glands: absent, few or no goblet cells (only in largest bronchioles not found in terminal bronchioles). Replaced by Clara cells (MUC5AC, MUC5B) 4. Terminal vs. Respiratory Bronchioles: a. Terminal bronchioles - ciliated simple columnar to cuboidalepithelium with clara cells. Clara cells are the most abundant. b. Respiratory bronchioles - some clara cells are mostly replaced by Type Ipneumocytes
The following male reproductive organs are located within the scrotal sac:
1. Testes/Seminiferous tubules 2. Straight tubules 3. Rete testis 4. Efferent ductules 5. Epididymis: head/Body/tail
Comparison/Contrast of oogensis and spermatogenesis
1. The first significant difference is in the timing of gametogenesis initiation. Oogenesis begins in utero. Spermatogenesis is initiated at puberty. 2. A second difference in the two gametogenic processes is the completion rate. Meiosis I is completed prior to ovulation, Meiosis II is never completed unless fertilization occurs. The oocyte that is ovulated has only reached Metaphase II in the second meiotic division. Meiosis once initiated in the seminiferous tubules proceeds to completion, taking approximately 74 days. 3. Additionally, from a single oogonium that is hormonally stimulated to re-start meiosis -only a single viable haploid gamete cell (the ova) is produced. Compared to the four haploid spermatids produced from a single spermatogonium during male gametogenesis. 4. Cytoplasmic division/cytokinesis does not occur in male gametogenesis. Spermatids remain connected to each other and to their residual bodies throughout Meiosis II. In oogenesis, unequal cytoplasmic divisions occur at the end of Meiosis I and Meiosis II. This preserves the cytoplasmic mass of the ovum and results in small polar bodies with insignificant cytoplasmic mass. 5. Spermatogenesis, once initiated at puberty will continue throughout the lifespan of the individual. Oogenesis is terminated for most women between the ages of 45 yrs.old and 55 yrs. old, with the onset of menopause. 6. The time required to produce an immature spermatozoa is approx. 74 - 76 days. The time required to produce a mature oocyte within a Graafian follicle is approx. 350 days.
You are being interviewed for a prestigious summer internship at the NIH in the Allergy and Infectious Disease division. One of the interviewers describes the following scenario and asks you to give a preliminary patient diagnosis. Here is the information you have been given: The patient has an elevated eosinophil count. The red blood cells on microscopic examination have an abnormal shape - a characteristic ring formation. The patient has a CD4 T-cell count of 200 cells/ml blood (normal count is approx. 1000 - 1500 cells/ml). The patient is from Sub-Saharan Africa. The patient is a six-year old female.
1. The patient is suffering from a viral infection - HIV; probably through trans-placental transmission from her infected mother. The patient is suffering from a parasitic infection; possibly a parasitic worm infection or protozoal infection like malaria.
Which of these vessels is an artery and which of these is a vein?
1. artery 2. fascicles of nerves 3. fascicles of skeletal muscle 4. vein 5. arteriole 6. venule
Identify the numbered layers on this photomicrograph of the esophagus.
1=SSqNK epithelium, 2=lamina propria, 3=M. mucosa, 4=submucosa, 5=inner circular muscularis externa
intestinal arteries
15-18 ileal + jejunal branches - Arterial arcades: result from the intestinal arteries collectively anatomosing; at most 2 arcades for the jejunum but up to 4 for the ileum - Vasa recta: straight arterial branches from arterial arcades to the bowel itself; long in the jejunum and short in the iluem
Which of these TEM's represents a conducting cardiac myocyte?
2 (purkinje fiber) *ask about this All components of the conducting system including the SA node, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches and the purkinje fibers have a similar appearance on EM's. They will all have very few organized sarcomeres/actin/myosin myofilaments.
Which of these photomicrographs represents tissue harvested from the cervix? Be able to defend your answer.
1; The glands have side branches
Identify each of these structures associated with the portal triad in this photomicrograph.
1= bile duct; 2= hepatic arteriole; 3= portal venule 1.Cuboidal epithelium, duct; 2.Thin layer of smooth muscle = arteriole 3. Thin walled vessel with squamous endothelial cells and no obvious layer of smooth muscles = vein 4. Put them together = portal triad. Bile duct, hepatic arteriole, portal venule
The mitotic stem cells for the replacement of enterocytes in the small intestine are found at the __1__. Mitotic stem cells for the replacement of enterocytes in the colon are found located at the __2__.
1= bottom of the crypts of Lieberkuhn 2= bottom of the crypts of Lieberkuhn
Compare these two photomicrographs of the gall bladder mucosa. The pathological tissue sample depicts numerous large vacuolated (light staining cytoplasm due to the presence of lipids) macrophages that have been recruited to the lamina propria. This condition is known as __1__ and is similar to the pathological condition in blood vessel walls known as __2__.
1= cholesterosis; 2= atherosclerosis Cholelithiasis = gallstones Cholesterosis = excess cholesterol causes changes in the wall of the gall bladder "strawberry gallbladder" because it looks like a strawberry in gross view -abnormal deposits of cholesterol in macrophages within the lamina propria. Sometimes the mucosa can appear bright red = strawberry. Atherosclerosis = fat clogging arteries Arteriosclerosis = loss of elastic fibers within walls of arteries
CCK produced by enteroendocrine cells in the __1__ induces contractions of smooth muscle cells in the muscularis externa of the __2__ and relaxation of smooth muscle cells in the __3__.
1= duodenum; 2= gall bladder; 3= hepatopancreatic sphincter CCK -produced by cells in duodenum -induces contraction of the gall bladder And relaxation of the hepatopancreatic sphincter (aka sphincter of Oddi)
The epithelial cells of the mucosa of the gut are derived from the __1__, while the lamina propria and muscularis mucosae are derived from the __2__.
1= endoderm; 2= splanchnic/lateral plate mesoderm
The enzymatic conversion of trypsinogen to trypsin requires __1__ which is produced by __2__ located in the __3__.
1= enterokinase; 2= enterocytes; 3= duodenum Enterokinase within the microvilli of enterocytes of the duodenum
Bile from the liver and gall bladder joins digestive enzymes and bicarbonate ions from the pancreas in the __1__ before entering the lumen of the duodenum via the __2__.
1= hepatopancreatic ampulla; 2= major duodenal papilla
From the list below, identify all of the organs that enter/exit the hilum of a deep fascial lymph node. 1. afferent lymphatic vessel 2. artery/vein 3. arteriole/high endothelial venule 4. efferent lymphatic vessel 5. lymphatic duct
2,4 Afferent lymphatic vessels enter at multiple points around the peripheral margin of a lymph node. High endothelial venules and arterioles are found deep within the lymph node not at the hilum. Lymphatic duct is found in the thoracic cavity - drains lymph fluid from the right side of the face, neck and upper extremity brachiocephalic vein
From the list below, identify the cell types that would be found along the length of the respiratory epithelium. 1. Epithelial cells of Bowman's glands 2. Goblet cells 3. Sustentacular cells 4. Basal stem cells 5. Brush cells 6. Pneumocytes
2,4,5
Distinguishing histological features of the anal canal distal to the pectinate line include: 1. stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium 2. stratified squamous keratinized epithelium 3. muscularis mucosae is prominent 4. muscularis mucosae is broken, but present 5. mucous-producing and apocrine glands are present 6. no glands are present in this region
2,4,5 SSqNK epithelium Muscularis mucosa is present, but broken Glands present
In the list below, identify ALL the histological features that accurately describe the esophagus.
2. Irregular Dense CT layer known as the adventitia 3. Mucous-producing glands in the lamina propria and the sub-mucosa
The time required for the follicle/oocyte to move through the last developmental stages (Class 5 - Class 8) is _______ Following a surge of LH released from the adenohypophysis at the mid-point of the menstrual cycle, ovulation follows on day 15
20 days
Primitive red blood cells begin to be produced at approx. day ____ in human embryo in the extraembryonic mesoderm covering the yolk sac. These Cells ____ HAVE A NUCLEUS.
21 *WILL*
Which number correctly identifies the true vocal cords/folds and the correct epithelium associated with these cords/folds?
3,4 True vocal cords/folds are covered by an abrasion-friendly SSnK epithelium.
Aortic Arch III is present and large by day ____ • III will give rise to _________ and the first part of the internal carotid arteries
27 common carotid arteries * also bilateral
Aortic Arch IV is in development at day 27, and present and large by day ____ • IV, on the left, will give rise to part of the _______ • IV, on the right, will give rise to the proximal part of the _______
29 arch of the aorta right subclavian artery *assymetrical
high levels of testosterone beginning of _______, right when we complete organogenesis
2nd trimester something about wolfian duct> "test-2-sterone" (second trimester) :D
Which cells in the pancreas secrete bicarbonate ions that are mixed with pancreatic enzymes before entering the duodenum?
3 and 4 1 = Islet of Langerhans (endocrine portion of pancreas) 2 = secretory acini that secrete pancreatic enzymes (exocrine portion of pancreas) 3 = centroacinar cells 4 = intercalated duct Both centroacinar cells and cells of the intercalated duct secrete bicarbonate.
What are some examples of O-MALT
3 diff types of tonsils Peyer's patches in the ileum These organized clusters of leukocytes found in the lamina propria/submucosa include: Naïve and activated macrophages Naïve and activated dendritic cells Naïve B and T-lymphocytes Activated B-cells plasma cells Activated Th lymphocytes (Helper T-cells) and Tc lymphocytes (Cytotoxic T-cells)
Travelers diarrhea
30-70% travelers "boil it, peel it, or forget it" Bacterial pathogens are predominant risk Most common pathogen is enterotoxigenic E. coli High risk areas: Asia, middle East, Africa, Mexico, and Central/South America
Normal Surfactant Production Begins week ____ of gestation ***DEFFFFFFF ONNNN EXAMMMMM!!!
35! -synthesized and secreted by Type II pneumocytes -induced by corticosteroids
Approximately how long does it take to bring a primordial follicle with an immature oocyte to the mature Graafian follicle stage with a mature oocyte inside that is ready to be ovulated?
350 days
week___= embryo folding
4 the yolk sac is pinched off, and this process forms a pocket of the chorionic cavity on the ventral side of the embryo: the celom. The celom eventually will split up into, pleural cavities, pericardial cavity, and abdominal cavity
deep pouch
NERVE Dorsal nerve of penis/clitoris ARTERIES Deep and dorsal artery of the penis (and clitoris, very small) GLAND (Male only) Bulbourethral gland MUSCLES (voluntary) Deep Transverse Perinei, from pubic ramus to perineal body Sphincter Urethrae, circular or U-shaped around the urethra
jejunum ileum the jejunum and ileum are both retroperitoneal/intraperitoneal
8 ft long 12 ft long INTRAperitoneal
It is estimated that each megakaryocyte gives rise to approximately ________ platelets.
8,000
Spleen is located between rib __ and __
9 and 11 will bleed like crazy if punctured "if you puncture the spleen, you need to cal 9-1-1"
Thoracocentesis (pleural tap) • Needle is inserted at the mid‐axillary line in the _______ - Recommended location varies according to source (some say 8th, or as high as 6th) - USE ULTRASOUND • Needle must be inserted a little superior subjacent rib to avoid the intercostal neurovasculature and its collateral branches *always insert needle above the next lower rib; you don't wanna punch a hole through the artery*
9th intercostal space (low enough to avoid hitting lung tissue)
How do ABs function during an infection
: isolate and get the soluble essence of the toxin. opsonization: flagging/tagging the microbe agglutination: bring more pathogens together to help macrophages make life easier
Mesentery
A double layer of peritoneum that suspends viscera from the posterior body wall - Constitutes a continuity of the visceral and parietal peritoneum - Allows neurovascular communication between the organ and body wall - Mesenteries provide mobility for their associated viscera The mesentery of the small intestine is often just called "the mesentery"
CC: Horseshoe Kidney
A horseshoe kidney is formed as left and right kidneys come in contact during their ascent and fuse. The inferior poles of the kidneys are close as they squeeze through the arterial circle formed by the internal iliac arteries in the pelvis. Their lower poles fuse and the kidney is trapped by the inferior mesenteric artery (1:600), which obstructs further ascent. The kidney resembles an inverted horseshoe.
ascitic fluid
A watery fluid containing albumin, glucose, and electrolytes that accumulates in the peritoneal cavity in association with certain disease conditions (such as liver disease). Widespread metastases of cancer cells can also cause abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
synaptonemal complex
A zipper-like protein structure that causes replicated homologs to become physically connected during prophase of meiosis I; sets the stage for crossing over. forms during zygotene
The thoracic wall resists ____ internal pressure causing air to rush in your body the pressure inside the body is lower than pressure outside the body, which is why air rushes IN
neg
Which of the urine-regulating hormones utilizes aquaporins in the apical and baso-lateral membranes of collecting duct cells?
ADH only!!!
The inguinal "ligament" bridges the gap between the _____________
ASIS and pubic tubercle
testicular feminization syndrome gentically male, looks female. androgen insensitivity
Absence of testosterone in Testicular Feminization Syndrome, even though the testes are present, will lead to the formation external female genitalia even if the karyotype of the (male) fetus is 44XY. These individuals undergo puberty externally as a female (breast formation, pubic hair), but lack uterus, uterine tubes and ovaries and do not menstruate. They have usually been raised as girls, but are genetically males.
_____________ go through isotype switching
Activated B-lymphocytes
dna helicase
An enzyme that unwinds the DNA double helix during DNA replication
CC: Auscultation Points
Aortic ‐ 2nd intercostal space to right of sternal border. Pulmonary ‐ 2nd intercostal space to left of sternal border. Tricuspid ‐ 5th_6th intercostal space near left sternal border Mitral‐ near the apex of the heart in the 5th_6th intercostal space in midclavicular line.
Which of the following is NOT true about the nervous system supply to the heart? A. Vagus nerve (CN X) provides efferent signaling to slow heartbeat B. Sympathetic chain provides efferent signaling to increase heartbeat C. Vagus nerve (CN X) provides efferent signaling to constrict vessels D. Both sympathetic chain and vagus nerve (CN X) transmit pain afferents back the the CNS
Both sympathetic chain and vagus nerve (CN X) transmit pain afferents back the the CNS Sympathetic increase speed & intensity of heart beat & dilates vessels.!! dilates bc you want blood there! duh
Except for ___, all nutrients absorbed from the digestive tract are conveyed to the liver by the __________
fat portal venous system
what glands secrete a seromucous fluid where odoriferous substances are dissolved contains odorant binding protein (OBP)
Bowman's glands! Secretions of the Bowman's glands also contain protective substances (lysozyme, IgA secreted by plasma cells) -prevent pathogens from gaining intracranial entry
Glomus bodies/Carotid bodies
Glomus cells embedded in wall of Common carotid aa. (Elastic aa.) A glomus body (or glomus apparatus) is a component of the dermis layer of the skin, involved in body temperature regulation. The glomus body consists of an arteriovenous shunt surrounded by a capsule of connective tissue. Glomus bodies are most numerous in the fingers and toes.
Within the testes, sperms are produced in seminiferous tubules that drain to the _________ and then to the _________ in the region known as the mediastinum of the testes
straight tubules rete testes
what is the "gatekeeper" for the lower respiratory tract?
the epiglottis
CC: DiGeorge's Syndrome
Clinical Correlate: DiGeorge Syndrome Genetic Abnormality: Deletion of approx. 35 - 45 genes on the long arm of chromosome #22 Is more accurately referred to now as 22q11.2 Syndrome. Frequency of live births: 1:2000 - 1:4000 "CATCH‐22"mnemonic for signs associated with syndrome •Cardiac Abnormality (especially Tetrology of Fallot) Abnormal facies Thymic Applasia- suffer from chronic fungal/viral infections Cleft palate Hypocalcemia/Hypoparathyroidism
BIGGEST RED STAR
C1QRS pathway recruits C4. Cleavage events (1 is large, 1 is small). C4b fragment is going to bind to surface of the pathogen, and C4a is going to "fly away." Once C4b binds, it's going to recruit C2, which binds to C4. Another cleavage event: now C2b is going to stay behind our bacterial cell. C3 is fragmented, and C3a floats away and is a major proinflammatory cytokine; can induce vasodilation. C3b can tag other cells. C5a floats away (also proinflammatory). C5b is part of the complex. Now we're going to recruit more, which is gonna recruit complement proteins 6,7,8 and then the holy grail of activation *C9* which is the hole puncher of the cell wall of the bacterial cell.
Where in the female reproductive tract was this tissue sample harvested from?
Cannot be determined without knowing the age of patient
Besides abnormal motor signs what are some of the other signs and symptoms associated with disease progression?
Cognitive decline dementia. Disturbances in sleep and circadian rhythms. Anxiety, depression, apathy. Unintended weight loss. *All of the above*
what is a conduction system?
Conduction System = Specialized Clusters/Cords of Cardiac Muscle Cells that Transmit Ca++ ions via Gap Junctions
* RED STAR meiotic nondisjunction
the event in which chromosomes do not segregate equally during meiosis (anaphase) serious consequences for gamete cells the older you are, the more likely that nondisjunction occurs
PA: Xiphoid process and lower costal cartilages - DA: Pubic symphysis and pubic crest - Innervation: thoracoabdominal nn. (T6-T12) - Action: Flexes trunk, controls pelvic tilt - Horizontal tendinous insertions run transversely between different sections of the muscle (creating those "six-pack" abs) - Strong linea alba, indicating the interweaving of parts of the fibrous rectus sheath; runs between the bilaterally paired rectus abdominus muscles
Rectus Abdominus
Molecular Events that Culminate in an Erection Clinical Correlate: Erectile Dysfunction
With orgasm/ejaculation: • Pelvic splanchnic nerve branches cease to release NO • PHOSPHODIESTERASE DEGRADES cGMP Ca++ sequesteration • Sildenafil/Viagra binds and inhibits Phosphodiesterase - prolonging erection; more cGMPs circulating bc PDE-5 is inhibited, so more erections
identify this pic
D= nucleus of acinar cells E= zymogen granules
caput medusae
Dilated veins around the umbilicus, associated with cirrhosis of the liver.
Rete testes drains into the _________ of the seahorse-shaped epididymis
EFFERENT DUCTULES *only ciliated part in male reproductive tract *rete=network
Based on the contextual cues - categorize the type of capillary depicted in this TEM.
EMAIL Fenestrated capillary
Coronary arteries are found in what layer of the heart?
EPIcardium
CC: Episiotomy
Episiotomy is the surgical enlargement of the vaginal opening during childbirth as the head of the infant is already visible. It is done in order to prevent (or minimize) tearing of the perineum, especially the perineal body. A surgical cut is more easily sutured after birthing and its direction can be more easily controlled than a jagged tear
The vagina has glands: true or false?
FALSE! much of the lubrication of the vaginal mucosa originates in cervical mucous glands. Estrogen stimulates the proliferation of the vaginal epithelium.
Floating Ribs
Floating ribs are ribs 11-12 vertebral or free; they do NOT articulate with sternum
*Intraperitoneal - almost completely covered with peritoneum
Four Parts to Stomach: Cardia, Fundus, Body, Pyloric part (antrum, canal and pylorus)
Gastric Mucous Cells
Function: ‐produce gastric mucosal barrier ‐protects the mucosal surface from low pH of gastric juices ‐prevents stomach from digesting itself Two forms: ‐surface mucous cells line pit, ‐mucous neck cells where gland meets pit ‐both produce mucins, glycoproteins, bicarbonate (HCO3‐) Mucus layer: 95% water, 5% mucins ‐insoluble gel, 100μm protective barrier ‐traps bicarbonate ions (see parietal cell discussion) to create alkaline pH near cells
Esophagus
Function: convey a bolus of food from pharynx to stomach via peristaltic activity of muscularis externa
Secretin
Functions (Coordinated): Coordinates with CCK : ‐stimulates growth of exocrine pancreas Coordinates with Acetylcholine : ‐stimulates chief cells of stomach to secrete pepsinogen ‐inhibits gastrin release to reduce HCl‐ secretion in stomach
CC: Valvular stenosis
Fusion of the semilunar valves for a variable distance
What was the gene that was delivered to the subthalamic nucleus using a viral vector for the Parkinson's patients in the experimental group of this study?
GAD (Glutamic acid decarboxylase) gene
A 23-year old man received a gunshot wound that destroyed his left greater splanchnic nerve. What type of fibers have been severed?
GVA and pre-ganglionic sympathetic fibers super important: All autonomic motor fibers carry some reflexive afferent information back to CNS for autonomous control of organ function - Such information does not reach conscious awareness • Visceral sensation (e.g., afferent information reaching awareness) is always uncomfortable, is dull, and is difficult to localize • Results from four possible stimuli: - Ischemia - Inflammation - Distension - Cramping (tonic smooth muscle contraction) - NOT from cutting, burning, or squeezing
Glomerular Filtration Barrier and Filtrate
HCO3- would pass through
HEV's are extremely important in lymph nodes because: Approx. 35% of the lymph fluid entering a lymph node is rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream via channels in these cells - called aquaporins. This concentrates the cells and antigens in the lymph, slows the flow of lymph through the node and creates a "solvent drag" of this fluid towards the medullary sinus. Flow of Lymph Fluid Through a Lymph Node
HEVs enable lymphocytes circulating in the blood to directly enter a lymph node (by crossing through the HEV).
Labia minora
Hairless folds of skin • Epidermis/Dermis • Numerous sebaceous and apocrine sudoriferous glands pacinian corpuscle found in clitoris and labia majora
CC: Hemorrhoids
Hemorrhoids are dilations of the anal vessels that bulge into the anal canal. In the U.S., approximately 10 million people have symptoms. However, bulges of the anal canal mucosa which overlies the veins (anal columns) occur above the pectinate line in healthy individuals, even at birth. These vascular mats are part of the normal closing mechanism of the anal canal. Internal hemorrhoids are the result of a prolapse (enlarge and protrude) of these vascular mats. Initially they are not painful (they are above the pectinate line), but they bleed (arterial and venous blood), and eventually will be painful (when the prolapse grows and pulls in the pectinate line). External hemorrhoids are venous clots (masses of semi-solidified blood) that prolapse below the pectinate line. They are the result of high pelvic pressure (childbirth, heavy lifting, straining to defecate), and their position implies that they are painful and covered by skin. Usually they disappear after a few days (but may need to be excised).
Zymogen granules in chief cells, pancreas acinar cells and Paneth cells are:
Heterogeneous vesicles Within these cells, several different types of enzymes can be packaged into a single vesicle for secretion. These zymogens are not aggregates, they are packaged in vesicles, and they are made for secretion.
Peyer's Patches ***extensive*** aggregates of nodules
Organized into ‐ Follicle associated epithelium ‐ M‐cells, enterocytes ‐ Domes ‐ B‐cells, macrophages, plasma cells ‐ germinal centers ‐ Plasma cells and B‐cells
CC: Mobile Cecum
If a large portion of the ascending colon does not fuse, volvulus may result. The most common anomaly that involves non fusion of mesenteries is a mobile cecum, where the area of the ascending colon that retains its mesocolon is larger than just the cecum. Lack of fusion of the mesocolon may result in pockets in the posterior abdominal wall in which loops of small intestine may get trapped: retrocolic hernias.
All postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies lie in one of two places: 1) In the walls of the organs being innervated 2) In minute ganglia within plexuses formed in the pelvic regions
In both cases, parasympathetic ganglia are NOT dissectible (unlike sympathetic ganglia)
Bucket Handle (quiet)
Increases the ML dimensions of the rib cage (not as dramatic as pump handle AP expansion) via movement of the lower intercostal muscles
CC: Tricuspid atresia and Ebstein anomaly
Issues associated with the right AV valve Tricuspid atresia is a type of heart disease that is present at birth (congenital heart disease), in which the tricuspid heart valve is missing or abnormally developed. The defect blocks blood flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle
Characteristic Features of a Mature/Graafian Follicle (Class 5 - Class 8): 4-fold increase in size from Class 4 follicle to Class 8 follicle Antral cavity has now surrounded oocyte, separating it from the granulosa cell wall. Results in the formation of: o Cumulus oophorous - narrow connecting stalk of granulosa cells o Corona radiata - granulosa cells adjacent to oocyte. These cells will be ovulated with oocyte. Just prior to ovulation, oocyte complete Meiosis 1... 1st Polar body Oocyte now undergoes Meiosis II Metaphase II
Just prior to ovulation, oocyte complete Meiosis 1... 1st Polar body Oocyte now undergoes Meiosis II Metaphase II
• IVC begins as union of the two common iliac veins at ___ and ends at the right atrium -IVC has no ___ -IVC returns blood from the lower limbs, abdominal wall, and the lower abdominopelvic viscera -Upper abdominal viscera passes blood back to the heart via the _________
L5 valves portal venous system
Prophase I
Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene Diplotene Diakenesis "let's zip pants daddy dear"
Secretin
Origin: ‐Neuroendocrine cells in duodenum Function (Solo): ‐stimulates release of bicarbonate (pancreatic and duodenal (Brunner's glands)) ‐stimulates fluid release to control gastric acid secretion (ant‐acid effect), regulate pH of duodenal contents
Which of the following structures ultimately delivers chylomicrons absorbed from the small intestine to the liver?
Lymphatic vessels - thoracic duct - Left brachiocephalic vein - SVC - right atrium of heart - right ventricle of heart - pulmonary trunk - pulmonary arteries - capillary beds of lung - pulmonary veins - left atrium of heart - left ventricle of heart - aorta - celiac trunk - hepatic artery - liver ANSWER = B, hepatic arteriole ask
there are more afferent lymphatic vessels and maybe only 1 or 2 efferent lymphatic vessels **ON EXAM
Lymphatic vessels that drain TOWARDS a lymph node are afferent lymphatic vessels
The circled cell is able to differentiate into which of the following cell types?
Lymphocyte circled -CD8+ = cytotoxic T-cell -CD4 = helper T-cells Plasma cell = fully differentiated B-cell
Circulation of Lymphatic Fluid: lymphatic capillaries--> lymphatic vessels--> lymphatic ducts--> brachiocephalic veins--> heart
Major Lymph‐Collecting Vessels: Superficial and Deep • Superficial lymphatics • Found in the subcutaneous layer • Found in the mucous lining of the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts • Found in the serous lining of the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities • Deep lymphatics • Collect lymph from skeletal muscles and tissues of the neck, limbs, and trunk
Large anastomotic channel between the Superior and Inferior Mesenteric arteries covering the entire colon along its mesenteric boundary
Marginal Artery (of Drummond) Can supply blood to the colon (and pelvic GI tract) if main arteries are blocked or ligated *he's gonna pin one out of three of these arteries and he's gonna ask "this artery contributes to what anastomose chain?" answer= marginal artery
Ultrasonography
May be utilized to image any pelvic structure (with the exception of osseous structures and air‐filled structures) - Uterus - Adnexa (I.e. ovaries/fallopian tubes/supporting structures) - Prostate gland
_________ present antigens to underlying lymphocytes, and those lymphocytes travel to lymph nodes to activate an immune response.
M‐cells located just in the gut. Junqiereas 14-13.
after spermIOgenesis, do the spermatozoa have forward motility?
NO!!!!!!!!!!!!
FSH and LH are PROTEIN hormones. They have effects on
OVARY
Menstrual Phase Cervix
Observe the mucosal lining of the endometrium (simple columnar to cuboidal epithelium). A narrow submucosal stroma is continuous with the myometrium
As a female matures from birth to puberty significant ova loss occurs through a form of apoptosis localized to the ovaries, known as atresia. Pubertal females have approximately 200,000 ova in each ovary. **ON EXAM**
Over the course of her reproductive life a female will ovulate approximately 400 total ova, the rest are lost to atresia.
Murphy's sign
Pain with palpation of **gall bladder** (seen with cholecystitis)
Hydronephrosis—obstruction of the ureter causing the renal pelvis and calyces to fill with urine and drain poorly. This results in poor function of the nephra due to compression.
Pelvic kidneys may drain poorly, and lead to hydronephrosis, but they may also remain asymptomatic. They are a liability in a mother during the birth of her child,when the child may compress or crush the kidney.
area cribrosa
Place that papillary ducts (of Bellini) empty into a minor calyx.
This is the same photomicrograph from the previous slide using a higher magnification. Which region of the vas deferens has been sectioned? Defend your answer.
Proximal to the epididymis; the number of muscle layers is not a defining characteristic for the vas deferens, but the thick adventitia is.
Muscles of the Posterior Abdominal Wall: Psoas Minor
Psoas minor: functionally unimportant muscle missing in >50% of people (present bilaterally in only 1/3 of people) -PA: T12 & L1 vertebrae -DA: pectineal line of the hip bone -Action: ??? Maybe a trunk stabilizer? -Innervation: lumbar ventral rami
RBC production
RBC production moves to liver and spleen during those months
Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS)
Rapid redirection of gas exchange from placenta to lungs 1. Replace alveolar fluid with air 2. Onset of regular breathing 3. Increased pulmonary blood flow
Suprarenal glands ***ON EXAM. KNOW SHAPES AND VESSELS
Right one is shaped like a pyramid, left one like a crescent • Blood supply is from three arteries: -Superior suprarenal a. (from inf. phrenic a.) -Middle suprarenal (from aorta directly) -Inferior suprarenal (from renal a.) • Venous drainage is from the single suprarenal vein (drains into IVC on right, renal vein on left)
The bronchiogram of a 45-year old female smoker shows the presence of a tumor in the eparterial bronchus. Which airway is most likely blocked?
Right superior bronchus side note: Tertiary bronchus + Tertiary branch of pulmonary artery = bronchiopulmonary segment ***ON EXAM
The differences between the shapes of the genitals in male and female are the result of many genes, but the gene sry (sex‐determining region on Y) is critical and the transcription factor it produces, testis‐determining product, causes a cascade of changes that cause the embryo to develop male genitals eventually
SRY leads to the formation ‐testes, ‐medullary cords ‐tunica albuginea
What neuroendocrine cell facilitates washing of the chyme by the Brunner's glands?
Secretin! Secretin helps regulate the pH of the duodenum by (1) inhibiting the secretion of gastric acid from the parietal cells of the stomach and (2) stimulating the production of bicarbonate from the ductal cells of the pancreas.
clara cell secretions
Secretions: -Surfactant that differs from surfactant secreted by Type II pneumocytes -Clara cell secretory protein (CC16)-Diagnostic Marker -Mucins (MUC5AC, MUC5B) -anti-microbial peptides
Select the description that best characterizes this cyclic phase of the endometrium.
Secretory phase - implantation may occur during this phase
Referred pain
Sensory input from visceral structures (e.g., visceral pain) travels back to the CNS via the exact routes of sympathetic efferent input until it reaches the mixed spinal nerve, at which point sensory information is diverted to the dorsal roots ***within the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, individual cell bodies receive input from both visceral and somatic structures, "confusing" the brain as to where the pain is actually located.
CC: Skull molding at birth
Shape of the pelvic inlet and outlet are of great importance in childbirth, and obstetricians assess the shape of the pelvis before the child is born. During birth, the mother's body produces a hormone that relaxes sacro-iliac joints and pubic symphysis. This makes the transverse diameter of the pelvis 10-15% wider. This hormone loosens all joints, and puts the mother at risk of joint dislocation during late pregnancy. One dimension not affected by the loosening of the ligaments is antero-posterior (called the Obstetrical Conjugate), and this is the smallest (most constraining) dimension during childbirth.
Clinical Correlate: Testicular Cancer: Choriocarcinoma
Signs/Symptoms: • Small, hardened, PAINLESS, nodule often NOT palpable through scrotal sac wall • Microscope observation - multiple nuclei/cytoplasmic mass • Blood vessel hemorrhage • Leukocyte infiltration • Invasive/High rate of metastasis Treatment: Radical orchiectomy, followed by aggressive chemotherapy ages: 20-30 100% of patients have elevated hcG super important!
Mesothelium:
Single layer of simple squamous epithelium with an underlying areolar CT found in one of the closed ventral body cavities
Variation in Muscularis Externa
Skeletal Muscle -upper 1/3 of esophagus -voluntary control Transition -middle 1/3 of esophagus -both muscle types Smooth Muscle (a woman has no control of uterine contractions bc it's smooth muscle!) -lower 1/3 of esophagus through rectum -involuntary Skeletal Muscle -anus -voluntary control
Two Ways to Regulate the Recapture of Water at Level of Nephron & Collecting Duct
Slow Responding: - Renin-ang-aldos system -Juxtaglomerular cells of afferent arteriole -Macula densa of DCT Fast Responding: Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
Okazaki fragments
Small fragments of DNA produced on the lagging strand during DNA replication, joined later by DNA ligase to form a complete strand.
Which of the following are found in the Muscularis Externa of the Gallbladder? Skeletal muscle Auerbach's plexus Smooth muscle Elastic fibers
Smooth muscle Elastic fibers
What process has been captured in this TEM? What will come next?
Spermiogenesis; Spermiation
Sertoli cells: ask about this!!!
Straight tubules: Cuboidal Sertoli cells With: • Cilia (not ciliated, just have cilia) • APICAL tight junctions
Anal canal= Anus=
Stratified Squamous low-keratinized epithelium SSqKEp http://medcell.med.yale.edu/histology/gi_tract_lab/meissners_plexus.php
CC: Acute, Chronic Gastritis
Symptoms: burning epigastric distress, nausea, upset stomach, bloating ‐ loss of appetite ‐ mucosal inflammation, neutrophilic infiltration ‐ acute: < 2 week duration, sudden onset ‐ chronic: > 2 week duration, occurs slowly Causes: heavy use of pain medications (NSAIDS), infections (bacterial/viral/fungal), acute stress, allergy/food poisoning, alcohol, smoking, direct trauma H.pylori Treatments: ‐ use of antacids or other medications (i.e., proton pump inhibitors, H‐2 blockers) ‐ antibiotics (bacterial causes) ‐ dietary changes: elimination of spicy/problematic foods
What is located in the paracortex?
T-helper cells
Heart innervated by _____ (important for understanding the sensation of ischemic pain)
T1-5 Brachial plexus is C5-T1: that's why your left arm hurts during a heart attack! Because the T1 innervation overlap!
where exactly is the SA node and AV node located?
T1-T4
_____ induces bud formation, and lung growth
TBX4
Continuous capillaries are the most common system, found in most tissues including muscle, lung, skin and the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord)
TEM of continuous capillary *ask about this
what is this a picture of?
TEM: Atrial Cardiomyocyte with Perinuclear ANF Granules
large intestine (colon) has 4 distinguishing characteristics
Teniae coli - three longitudinal muscle bands Haustra - sacculations of colon between the teniae Appendices epiploicae (omental appendices) - fat filled pouches of peritoneum Plicae semilunares (semilunar folds) - infoldings of intestinal wall between haustra
memorize this:
Terminal bronchiole-Respiratory bronchiole-Alveolar duct-Alveolar sac (which is comprised of numerous alveoli)
Spermatozoa are moved from:
Testes Straight tubules (tubulus recti) Rete testis Efferent ductules (ductuli efferentes) Head/body/tail of Epididymis Vas deferens Seminal vesicle Ejaculatory duct Prostate gland Prostatic urethra Membranous urethra Penile/Spongy urethra
CC: Hematocolpometra is the condition where menstrual fluids will accumulate in the vagina because the hymen lacks perforations.
The CT image (left, cross-section) and MRI (right, parasagittal), below show the vagina (V) inflated with menstrual fluid.
The appendix can be distinguished from other regions of the large intestine by the abundant lymphoid tissue in the lamina propria and submucosa, obscuring the boundary between these two layers. Lymphoid tissue occurs as primary or secondary lymphoid nodules, which are aggregates of lymphocytes. Primary lymphoid nodules appear dark and are "inactivated" lymphocytes. Secondary lymphocytes are dark with a light center (germinal center) and are comprised of "activated" lymphocytes, which participate in immune responses.
The appendix also contains both a serosa and adventitia. The free surface of the appendix, meaning the portion not connecting with any other structure, is covered by a serosa. Where the appendix binds to the body wall, it is surrounded by an adventitia (not shown in image below).
Deep pouch in male and female
The deep pouch extends between the perineal membrane inferiorly and the pelvic diaphragm superiorly. Its muscles are similar in male and female.
Female urethra
The muscular coat is made up of inner circular layer of smooth muscle and an outer layer of circularly-arranged skeletal muscle. typically crescent shape
Pelvis innervation
The somatic innervation of the pelvis, perineum, as well as the lower extremity is provided by the sacral plexus, with roots from L4 to S3.
Testicular Descent
The tunica vaginalis is a pocket of peritoneum that breaks away from the abdominal cavity and stays with the testes, ending up in the scrotum. The gubernaculum testes is a strand of connective tissue that connects the inferior scrotum to the inferior pole of the testes. In embryology, it reaches through the inguinal canal and posterior abdominal wall to the testes. It shrinks as the testis descends
CC: Oligohydramnios
Too little amniotic fluid Caused by: fetal urinary problem (inc. renal agenesis) or other conditions Can result in: intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) pulmonary hypoplasia (reduced #pulmonary segments or air sacs)
What is the valve b/w the RA and RV?
Tricuspid
Patau Syndrome
Trisomy 13 • Mental retardation • Microcephaly • Polydactyly • Microphthalmia *eye doesn't form also • Rocker-bottom feet • Holoprosencephaly failure of the embryonic prosencephalon (forebrain ) to divide into cererbral hemispheres
Down Syndrome
Trisomy 21 • Microgenia - abnormally small chin • Neotenization of brain and body(remains immature - does not reach maturity) • Muscle hypotonia • Flat and broad facial features • Brushfield spots on iris (tiny white spots) ***congenital heart disease
Flouroscopy
Viewing organs in motion using a contrast medium to detect abnormalities - Provides for dynamic assessment of hollow viscera • Upper GI series - Esophagus - Stomach - Duodenum Note: Assessment of bowel proximal to ligament of Treitz Contrast examinations allow for assessment of obstruction, masses, ulceration
___________sensation (e.g., afferent information reaching awareness) is always uncomfortable, is dull, and is difficult to localize ex: nausea
Visceral sensation
cross section through trachea
Which letter corresponds to the cell layer rich in fibroblasts, lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, eosinophilic leukocytes, and mast cells? A - lamina propria/submucosa D= HYALINE CARTILAGE
skeletal vs smooth muscle
You have control of movements of beginning and end of tube (skeletal muscle) Everywhere else (middle 1/3 of esophagus to rectum) is controlled by smooth muscle contractions controlled by Auerbach's plexus (smooth muscle)
Mitosis: Epithelial cells = Granulosa cells undergo mitosis Zona pellucida: ZP1, ZP2 , ZP3* = proteins produced by oocyte and granulosa cells Theca cells: Recruited fibroblast/stromal cells Theca interna: cholesterol androstenedione Theca externa: Vasculity and myoid‐like cells Call‐Exner bodies: Glycoproteins - antral cavity fluid
ZP3: is the physical receptor. If fertilization is gonna occur, head of spermatozoa is gonna bind to the ZP3. This allows for attachment, triggers release of enzymes in acrosomal cap. Those enzymes are degrading the thick goo from zona pellucida so that we can begin to have the nucleus of oocyte so they can fuse to form the zygote.
The cells shown in this image have a lipid bilayer containing ____________ that allows the cell to _______________.
a cytoskeletal protein network, temporarily change shape
what are the parenchymal units of pancreas?
acini and islets
The significant difference between a primary lymphatic follicle and a secondary lymphatic follicle is the same difference that exists between a germinal center and the mantle zone. This difference is:
activated B-cells exist in the germinal center of secondary lymphatic follicles
Preganglionic axons travel to the __________ (in the adrenal gland) and synapse in the organ - stimulating release of hormones
adrenal medulla
The ______ is a narrow duct that connects the caudal end of the hind gut through the umbilicus.
allantois
the_______is a side pocket of the yolk sac that eventually becomes part of the *umbilical cord*
allantois
CC: Non‐Rotation of Midgut
also called "left-sided colon" small intestine on right side, large intestine on left may be asymptomatic; a common complication is volvulus (twisting of the gut). Volvulus may compress the superior mesenteric artery, resulting in gangrene (death of tissue usually due to lack of blood supply) of part of the gut.
Where is the secondary heart field found?
also in the splanchnic layer of the lateral plate mesoderm located ventral to the pharynx
what is the site of both epithelial and muscular transition?
anal canal
vas deferens has ___
anastomosing channels secretion rich in fructose, citrate, and prostaglandins
Formation of new blood vessels from EXISTING blood vessels:
angiogenesis
omphalocele multiple causes: o The _________may not close over (which normally happens in Week 4), and the herniated organs may simply retain their embryonic position. This is a severe type of omphalocele often referred to as ________ of the abdominal viscera. o In normal development, the herniated intestines return inside the abdominal cavity around Week ____, and the left and right rectus abdominis muscles close the circular defect (the enlarged umbilicus). If the defect is not closed, a small loop of gut may remain outside or herniate through it secondarily
anterior abdominal wall eventration 11
Arterial Circulation
aorta--> elastic arteries--> muscular arteries--> meta arterioles--> arterioles--> capillaries
The aortic sac gives rise to the _____, which connect to the dorsal aortae
aortic arches
every hepatocyte has 2 ____ and 2 ______
apical surfaces basolateral surfaces s= sinusoids purple inside the white stuff= kupffer cells
endocrine pancreas
appears as clusters of hormone secreting cells known as islets of langerhans endocrine cells do not use ducts. they secrete directly into blood
____ are found in both cell types of the CD
aquaporins Aquaporin activity/conformation determines water concentration in filtrate. Regulated by Anti‐Diuretic Hormone (ADH)
Juxtamedullary nephrons
are localized to the innermost zone of the cortex adjacent to the cortex medulla boundary. solute particles reabsorbed via the PCT of juxtamedullary nephrons are returned to the venous blood in the Vasa recta - an extension of the Peritubular capillaries.
cortical nephrons
are localized to the outermost zone of the cortex and have relatively short Loops of Henle. solute particles reabsorbed via the PCT of cortical nephrons are returned to the venous blood in Peritubular capillaries (second capillary network of the renal portal system).
Paracolic gutters provide space for the __________ to flow and provide pathways for the spread of tumors.
ascitic fluid The paracolic gutters (paracolic sulci, paracolic recesses) are spaces between the colon and the abdominal wall.
The macula densa, not the DCT, senses [Na+] and pressure of, the FILTRATE (tubular fluid). It regulates the rate of filtration and partially regulates the release of renin from juxtaglomerular cells.
ask
Which of these statement(s) is TRUE regarding this tissue sample? it's a gallbladder bc of RA crypts
ask Concentrates bile Has receptors for CCK Lacks a true submucosa Has both an adventitia and serosa
The biological function of pancreatic somatostatin is to:
ask Inhibit insulin and glucagon.
fallopian tube histo
ask about this? what cell has both cilia and microvilli?
chronic bronchitis has many similarities with ___ -Reversible -Narrowing of airways -Differences can be seen in symptoms -Chronic Bronchitis can be cured as where Asthma cannot
asthma
inflammation of airways causing narrowing of airways
asthma! -Inflammation of airways causes swelling and muscles around the airways to tighten -The bronchus constricts the greatest amount of all airways -Cells may produce excess mucus further narrowing airways Causes -Allergens -Respiratory infections -Exercise -Pollutants -Genetic link Treatments Corticosteroids Anticholinergics
month 7 of gestation:
baby will have the most primordial cells she will ever have; between month 7 and birth, a lot will undergo atresia. Baby is born with 200,000 primary follicles with oocytes inside. You only use approx. 400 of these eggs before menopause. So, what happens to the rest of the unused cells? they will undergo atresia! 99.9% of cells she is born with will undergo atresia. every primordial cell in the primary follicle is locked at prophase I (diplotene). When an egg cell ovulates, it completes meiosis I, produces a polar body, and is now locked at metaphase II. It will NOT undergo anaphase II unless fertilization.
lingual tonsil
base of tongue "lingual has a single crypt" covered by SSqNKE
nucleosome
basic structural unit of chromatin
The cell shown here is a ________________________ and its granules contain ___________.
basophils,heparin heparin= inhibits blood coagulation; blood thinner
round ligament
binds the uterus to the anterior body wall
more histo stuff
brush cells have BLUNT microvilli
all of the following are found in the islets of langerhans except
cells that secrete HCO3- rich fluid
______ cells are extensions of the intercalated duct that have projected into the center of the acinus
centroacinar cells
prolactin produced in the AP circulates in blood to the testis and induces cells of leydig to upregulate their production of LH receptors. esterified cholesterol moves into mitochondria (not easy bc of double membrane system). so, it's gonna use a special protein called STAR. when esterified cholesterol binds to STAR, it moves to mitochondria where it's gonna become pregnenalone-->SER to become progesterone-->testosterone
cholesterol gets esterified to prevent it from leaking out into the bloodstream
Stomach: Within the stomach, food is subjected to vigorous movements that mix it with gastric juices to form ____ Gastric juices, containing mucus, acid, and enzymes, are secreted by stomach glands. Some chemical digestion of protein occurs, but no absorption of any significance occurs in the stomach.
chyme *no absorption of nutrients in stomach! To identifying the stomach, gastric glands do not project beyond the musc. mucosa (i.e. not found in the submucosa)
T-lymphocytes must _______where they will interact with specialized thymic epithelial cells to acquire ________ molecular recognition of self and non-self proteins.
circulate to the thymus immunocompetence
goblet cell or clara cell? Locations - Bronchioles (mostly in terminal bronchioles)
clara cell
Plasma Cells
clockface nucleus disulfide covalent bonds; cysteine and methionine epitope binds to variable regions
atherosclerosis
condition in which fatty deposits called plaque build up on the inner walls of the arteries
fundus/body of stomach
contain mostly gastric glands parietal cells= eosinophilic chief cells=basophilic cells
systole= diastole=
contraction relaxation
There is substantial controversy in the medical community about the "window of opportunity" for the administration of tPA with patients that report symptoms of an acute ischemic stroke. How does tPA work?
converts plasminogen--> plasmin tPA = tissue plasminogen activator -dissolves blood clots -given within 6 hours of a stroke increases odds of being alive and independent
where does positive selection occur? **ON EXAM!
cortex of thymus positive selection ensures MHC restriction basically a checkpoint to see if T-cells are able to interact with MHC If it's able to interact with MHC I it becomes CD8+ If it's able to interact with MHC II it becomes CD4+ if not able to interact with MHC, apoptosis occurs
PHF starts out _____ a) caudally b) cranially c) ventrally d)anteriorly
cranially! starting at day 18. then, it moves more ventrally and caudally. gets pushed into the thorax
fibrocartilage is embedded in the___ of penis
crux *penis is literally just sticking out there; because of this, it needs to be protected and anchored by fibrocartilage
Macula densa senses changes in ________ pressure/volume and salt concentrations
filtrate!!! NOT BLOOD
The spleen white pulp= red pulp=
dedicated to removal of antigens in blood dedicated to removal of old RBCs
narrowest portion of uterine tube=isthmus
directly off abdominal aorta is where blood supply to testes/ovaries takes place
When diaphragm contracts, it gets flatter and moves ___ which expands the volume.
down
FSH in males
drives sertoli cells to produce some factors that regulate the rate and the amount of spermatogenesis activin produced by sertoli cells acts to increase FSH and LH; inhibin does opposite
Among atresias, _______ are the most common. The duodenum, in normal development, undergoes such quick cell growth that it loses its lumen (in month 2). Failure of the lumen to be re‐established causes duodenal atresia.
duodenal atresias
digestion of long-chain lipids
duodenum (emulsification and chemical breakdown
permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to terminal bronchioles
emphysema ‐progressive, irreversable destruction of elastic tissue of alveolar walls ‐destroyed by elastase (neutrophils) ‐usually α1‐antitrypsin neutralizes elastase ‐more neutrophils=more elastase= more elastic tissue destroyed ‐without elastic fibers there is no tissue recoil, when stretched; adjacent alveoli confluent, creating large air spaces
My own shpiel on lipid absorption:
emulsifying= break large fat droplets into smaller droplets, increasing SA, and allowing pancreatic amylase to do its thing (breaks it down to FFA and monoglycerides) which are digestive products of lipids absorption happens in mucosal lining of small intestine. The FFA and monoglycerides enter the ER of the small intestine. Smaller fats are reassembled and resynthesized into triglycerides Before the triglycerides leave the epithelial cells of the small intestine, they are coated by a protein, which results in the formation of chylomicron The chylomicron = small globules composed of protein and lipid. It has a water soluble coat, which allows chylomicrons to leave the epithelial cell and enter lacteal (lymphatic vessel) AA and monosaccharides do NOT enter lymphatic system... they travel directly in blood.
Hepatic (liver) cells are ________ derived
endoderm
yolk sac=
endoderm
thymus glands have follicles T/F
false!
nasal epithelium contains goblet cells T/F
false! respiratory epithelium has the goblet cells side note: The non-motile cilia of the olfactory receptor cells are prominent
5 muscles support the abdominal wall. As a unit, they are responsible for: 1) flexing and rotating the trunk and 2) acting as antagonists to the diaphragms to increase intra-abdominal pressure Intra-abdominal pressure increased to expel 4 F's:
fluid (urine) flatus (gas) feces fetuses
both cardiac and smooth muscle cells use _____
gap junctions
The _______ divides the greater sac into two compartments
greater sac • Supracolic compartment: contains the stomach, liver and spleen • Infracolic compartment: contains the small intestines and the ascending and descending colon
Greater omentum
hangs down like an apron from the greater curvature of the stomach and proximal duodenum - Gastrophrenic ligament - Gastrosplenic ligament - Gastrocolic ligament (attaches to transverse colon)
The ______ is the first embryonic organ to form and the first functional embryonic organ
heart <3
Fc region found on the ___ chains
heavy
Which of the following concepts is associated with supplying oxygenated blood to hepatocytes?
hepatic acinus
25% of blood flow is through 75% of blood flow is through **ON EXAM
hepatic artery portal vein
We have O2 rich blood that is moving upward through these different plates of cells in the liver. As it gives off O2, it's picking CO2. So, your *VENOUS* system (right and left hepatic veins) are going to dump directly into the IVC
hepatic portal vein= nutrient rich blood
portal triad travels in the ____ ligament (free edge of the lesser omentum) ***ONNNNNNN EXAMMMMM
hepatoduodenal ligamentum common bile duct, proper hepatic artery, portal vein portal vein=largest structure hepatic artery=smallest
omphalocele
herniation at the umbilicus (a part of the intestine protrudes through the abdominal wall at birth)
CC: Gastroschisis
herniation of gut through a defect in the anterior abdominal wall, it usually occurs to the right of the umbilicus. result of a failure of the left and right abdominal wall to fuse in Week 4. The gut herniates through this defect, and is only covered by visceral peritoneum. bare gut is thus bathed in amniotic fluid for much of the embryonic and the entire fetal period. This may erode the gut and damage it.
Identify the trachea by the presence of ____ cartilage arranged in a ________ which provides rigidity to the organ. Connecting the ends of the cartilaginous ring is a fibroelastic ligament and a band of smooth muscle, the trachealis.
hyaline C-shaped ring
Stem cells in stomach are located in the ________ while stem cells of the intestine are located in the ________
neck near the crypts
Cytoplasm/import: 1. Ran‐GDP with Importin‐β bound 2. Recruits Importin‐α-->binds protein with NLS 3. Complex attaches to filamentous protein of NPC--> moved into nucleoplasm 4. Complex binds to RCC1 in lamina 5. Importins disassociate-->releases protein 6. GDP<<-->>for GTP https://cooper7e.sinauer.com/animation1001.html
import process: a protein has NLS signal and is thus destined to move to nucleus that binds to importin RAN-GTP on inside of nucleus binds to the importin complex, forming a spring-like structure, which makes the cargo protein to be released into nuclear lumen
CLINICAL CORRELATE: Pancreatitis (RED STAR)
inflammation of the pancreas that occurs when pancreatic enzymes (especially trypsin) become active in the pancreas instead of small intestines. Maybe acute or chronic. *enlarged pancreas due to early stimulation of digestive enzymes
Peritonitis
inflammation of the peritoneum, occurs as a result of injury or infection (i.e., from appendicitis)
Left Atrium
inflow: pulmonary veins left auricle: pouch‐like appendage of the left atrium, containing musculi pectinate. pectinate muscles: found only in the auricle. The other walls of the atrium are smooth. valvule of foramen ovale: fetal valve, preventing blood from flowing backward from the left atrium into the right atrium. outflow: to left ventricle through Mitral Valve foramen ovale is from RA-->LA
Right Atrium Structures:
inflow: sup & inf vc, coronary sinus crista terminalis: separates the rough anterior wall from the smooth posterior wall right auricle: small, conical, muscular pouchlike structure musculi pectinate (pectinate muscles): internal muscular ridges, fan out anteriorly from the crista terminalis. sinus venarum: the smooth‐walled cavity extending posteriorly from the crista terminalis.
which is most common type of hernia? spigelian, hiatal, umbilical, inguinal **ON EXAM
inguinal
uterine and vaginal arteries from
internal iliac artery
Is the liver intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal?
intraperitoneal (except bare area) intraperitoneal= stomach, liver, spleen pancreas= 2ndary retroperitoneal kidneys= retroperitoneal
outer longitudinal
involved in longitudinal movement ‐contraction shortens length of tube
Inner Circular
involved in segmentation ‐contraction reduces size of lumen
Submucosa is made up of dense ___ CT
irregular! houses many tissue types: -blood and lymphatic vessels -nerve plexi Meissner's (submucosal) nerve plexus
Margination =
leukocytes exit blood stream and initiate leukocyte and endothelial interactions cling to bv wall "marginalized"
Embryologically, the liver is divided into two lobes Left and Right, with the division demarcated by the _______ posteriorly and the __________ anteriorly
ligamentum venosum ligamentum teres
Olfactory area
located at the apex of nasal cavity nerves that synapse at olfactory bulb
Which of the following is NOT considered part of the mediastinum? A. Heart B. Lungs C. Thymus D. Cisterna chyli
lungs :) side note: cisterna chyli= enlarged pouch-like structure located at the start of the thoracic duct; serves as a storage area for purified lymph before it returns to the blood stream
what is the space of disse filled with?
lymph fluid!
This TEM image shows a developing_____. Note the large, rounded nucleus that occupies a majority of the cell. Also notice the lack of specific granules within the cytoplasm.
lymphocyte
what are secondary lymphoid organs?
lymphoid and spleen secondary because WBCs sequestered to ensure that optimal interactions for pathogen recognition and leukocyte activation occur
B-cells and T-cells originate from
lymphoid stem cells
diaphragm • Five arcuate ligaments - Median arcuate ligament: between the crura; forms the aortic hiatus - Medial arcuate ligaments (×2): overlie superior portion of psoas major - Lateral arcuate ligaments (×2): overlie quadratus lumborum
median- pretty thick Blood supply: differs for superior and inferior surfaces - Superior: Pericardiacophrenic and musculophrenic aa. (two branches of internal thoracic artery) and the superior phrenic aa. from thoracic aorta - Inferior: Inferior phrenic a. (from aorta) (pinned) • Innervation: Phrenic nerve (C3-5)
what 2 things help us identify a type 2 pneumocyte under EM?
microvilli lamellar bodies containing surfactant
lingula on left lung is a remnant of
middle lobe of right lung
Rouleaux formation
multiple myeloma RBC's stacked as poker chips
**important All somatic motor neurons are ________, with a single (sometimes very long) axon to carry signals away from the cell body and bushy dendrites to collect signals transmitted to the cell body
multipolar neurons
moderator band
muscular band of heart tissue that carries a portion of the right bundle branch right ventricle on practical!
Splanchnic nerves
nerves that convey information about the nutrient contents of the stomach to the brain Lower Thoracic Splanchnic Nerves 1) Greater splanchnic nerve: T5-T9 2) Lesser splanchnic nerve: T10-T11 3) Least splanchnic nerve: T12 All thoracic splanchnic nerves enter the abdomen by piercing the diaphragm
The photomicrograph below depicts the muscularis layer of the bladder. The interwoven bundles of smooth muscle are known as __1__. This is covered with a more superficial layer of connective tissue which is a/an __2__ on the superior surface of the bladder 1 = dartos layer; 2 = tunica albuginea 1 = cremaster muscle; 2 = external cremasteric fascia 1 = detrusor muscle; 2 = adventitia 1 = internal urethral sphincter; serosa none of these combinations is correct
none of these combinations is correct Three muscle layers, collectively called the detrusor muscle. The superior surface of the bladder is covered with a serosa, everywhere else it is covered by an adventitia.
Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium is found where in the epiglottis?
on the anterior (lingual) surface
what is this?
orthrochromatophilic erythroblast
oropharynx
passageway, no digestion conducting portion stratified squamous NK E no muscularis mucosa elastic limiting layer !!!!!! muscularis externa is SKELETAL muscle
transverse colon
passes horizontally from right to left toward the spleen extends between hepatic and splenic flexures intraperitoneal
Along the length of the Fallopian tubes there are two distinct cell populations of the mucosa: (See photomicrographs on next page.) Peg cells - non-ciliated cells that secrete a glycogen rich, nutritive fluid. These cells get their name from an expanded, bulbous apical region of the cell that projects into the lumen. Ciliated cells - Have a rounded, dome-like ciliated apical surface that assists in transporting the oocyte towards the uterus. However, the ciliary movements are counter-productive for the movement of spermatozoa.
peg cells= NON-CILIATED pegggg cells= gggggglycogen rich fluid
The germinal center will appear lighter staining and will usually appear in the center of the nodule of
peyer's patch (ileum)
The midgut gives rise to the duodenum (caudal to major duodenal papilla), the lesser intestine, cecum, ascending colon and 2/3 of the transverse colon. It has a dorsal mesentery (the Mesentery), but not a ventral mesentery. S-small intestine C-cecum A-ascending colon R-right 2/3 of transverse colon Rotation of the midgut differs greatly from that of the foregut. (In Week 6,) the midgut is a single loop that projects out of the abdomen into the umbilical cord. This normal projection of the gut is called ___________
physiological umbilical herniation.
Stomach/Fundus Body
pits overlying long straight glands with parietal and chief cells
Restriction of blood flow through the liver- due to cancer, cirrhosis, or other disease - results in ________
portal hypertension In such a situation, blood from the portal system must find a way back to the IVC through another route.
what view is this?
posterior
Atrioventricular valves
prevents backflow of blood from ventricle into atrium. papillary muscles and cordae tendinae
This is a TEM of a collecting duct. The cells at the arrows have short, peg-like microvilli and dark-staining cytoplasm. These are intercalated cells. The remaining cells are __1__ and their distinguishing feature is __2__.
principal cells primary cilium
Hiatal Hernias
protrusions of the stomach into the mediastinum by passing through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm - Caused by a weakening of the diaphragm during middle age older people
Aortic Arch VI (aka the _________) is in development at day 27, and present and large by day ____ • VI, on the left, will give rise to the _______ and ______ • VI, on the right, will give rise to the proximal part of the ________
pulmonary arch 29 left pulmonary artery ductus arteriosus right pulmonary artery
This photomicrograph depicts a tissue sample collected from what region of the GI tract? side note: cross sections of glands are diff sizes=pyloric stomach
pylorus of stomach Glands above Muscularis externa = stomach. Glands in cross section are of different shapes, some long and elliptical and others are simple tubes in cross-section = branched glands of pyloris.
what muscle is: - Small, functionally insignificant muscle running between the pubic symphysis and the linea alba - Tenses linea alba - Absent in 20% of people **ON EXAM I THINK
pyramidalis
Primary lymphoid organs
red bone marrow and thymus primary because white blood cells are produced and mature in these organs
Vagus Nerve (sensory)
reflex changes in heartbeat, circulation, pain, and respiration
Dense fibrillar component
regions that are actively undergoing transcription plus the rRNA product.
Bulbo-urethral glands/Cowper's glands are paired mucous-producing glands
released during coitus pre-ejeculate
The macula densa monitors filtrate and JG cells monitor blood. Both use the ______________ to regulation total body blood volume and pressure.
ren-ang-aldos system *nice clarification!
At the beginning of the 5th week, the bronchial buds form the _____and ____ main bronchi
right and left -The right main bronchus then forms three secondary bronchi -The left main bronchus then forms two secondary bronchi
Every time the left ventricle contracts, approximately 25% of the blood ejected (what is known as the stroke volume) is directed to _________
right and left kidneys RBC and WBC should *never* be found in urine
where is the gubernaculum for females?
runs between the developing ovaries and the future site of the labia majora The gubernaculum contracts, but the developing uterus interposes itself and splits the gubernaculum into two parts - The ovarian ligament between the ovary and uterus - The round ligament between the uterus and anterior abdominal wall
What muscles are removed in the case of thoracic outlet syndrome?
scalene muscles and 1st rib
Is the pancreas intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal?
secondarily retroperitoneal • Exocrine (digestive) gland: secretes pancreatic juice into the duodenum • Endocrine (hormonal) gland: secretes glucagon and insulin into the blood
Porta hepatis: 1) hepatic portal vein, 2) hepatic artery proper, 3) common hepatic duct/common bile duct
side note: quadrate is by gallbladder
spermiogenesis
spermatids differentiating to form neck, head, and tail spermiation: the process of being released from the wall? spermiation and going to epididymis spermiation is the process by which mature spermatids are released from Sertoli cells into the seminiferous tubule lumen prior to their passage to the epididymis.
Preganglionic sympathetic innervation to the abdominal viscera travels via two sets of _______ nerves
splanchnic Lower Thoracic Splanchnic Nerves 1) Greater splanchnic nerve: T5-T9 2) Lesser splanchnic nerve: T10-T11 3) Least splanchnic nerve: T12 Lumbar Splanchnic Nerves: arise from L1-L4
Accessory Organs
spleen pancreas liver gall bladder
Gastroschisis means "__________" an obvious misnomer because the anterior abdominal wall is split, and the stomach is not split.
split stomach more common in male babies!
Hemostasis =
stopping flow of blood
Characteristic Features of Multilaminar/Secondary Follicles: Granulosa cells have undergone numerous rounds of mitosis--> Granulosa cells recruit stromal fibroblasts to accumulate just outside of the basement membrane--> formation of the ______
stratified cuboidal epithelium theca
This photomicrograph depicts an important boundary within the wall of the uterus. What region is represented to the right of the dashed line?
stratum basale
right colic artery *will be pinned on practical
supplies the ascending colon (goes to middle of ascending colon) may variably branch off the ileocolic artery, the middle colic artery, or straight from the superior mesenteric artery; supplies ascending colon
All intercostal muscles maintain _____ of thoracic wall during inspiration
tension
clara cells in the wall of _____ bronchiole
terminal
ANTRAL FOLLICLES: DEVELOP UNDER THE INFLUENCE OF FSH
theca interna: cholesterol-->androstend granulosa cells: androstendione-->estradiol
what's the difference b/w throughfare channel and metaarteriole?
throughfare channel does NOT have smooth muscle!
RED STAR SLIDE
transport cholesterol in blood stream and move the cholesterol to theca INTERNA cells. cholesterol gets esterified and moves to mitochondria where esterified cholesterol becomes pregnenalone. pregnenalone moves to SER. Theca INTERNA cells in maturing follicle are processing cholesterol to a certain stage and they're gonna pass that precursor to the granulosa cells. pregnenalone--> androstenedione (granulosa cells)-->testosterone in ovaries, then use aromatase to convert that to estradiol
agranulocytes contain granules T/F
true! Agranulocytes lack specific granules but still contain azurophilic granules that can be hard to distinguish.
corpus spongiousum surrounds
urethra for males
Transitional Epithelium
urinary bladder empty bladder: folded mucosa rounded balloon cells
Identify this tissue sample from the female reproductive tract. Where are the lubricating fluids in this organ located?
vagina; submucosal layer of the cervix
What stimulates the pyloric stomach?
vagus nerve! a) Gastrin Stimulation: ‐Vagus nerve stimulates the pyloric stomach ‐Causes release of gastrin‐ releasing peptide from post‐ synaptic neurons ‐Gastrin released from G‐cells ‐Gastrin binds to receptor on parietal cells ‐Parietal cells stimulated to secrete HCl‐ Inhibition: ‐Somatostatin inhibits gastrin release from G‐cells
Flt-1
vasculogensis--> capillary tube formation *if a bug lands on your arm, what are you going to do? you are going to flick it and then it will flit away :) these are receptors for VEGFyou need new BV formation (vasculogenesis) you need vegf to bind with flk . if you want angiogenesis you need flt.
result of a failure of the left and right abdominal wall to fuse in Week 4. The gut herniates through this defect, and is only covered by ___________
visceral peritoneum gastroschisis
The external genitals are similar in male and female early on (until week ______).
week 6
efferent ductules
wierd looking lumen epidymis looks more nice and smooth
peritubular capillaries
wrap around convoluted tubules of Cortical Nephrons with short Loops of Henle -fluid/solute change -associated with nephron higher in the cortex
Histology of cervix
yellow curved thing indicative of menstrual age; menopause makes it more shriveled and less branched ETZ shifts based on *age*
What type of intercellular junctions are found at the arrows?
zonula occludens The zonula occludens (tight junction) prevents from bile leaking out of the canaliculus.
This TEM depicts transitional epithelium harvested from the bladder. The type of intercellular junctions indicated by the arrows are __1__. Enclosed in the circle are __2__.
zonula occludens discoidal vesicles *discoidal vesicles=
sertoli cells have cytoplasmic extensions that are bound together by
zonula occludens! this forms 2 different components within a seminiferous tubule: basal compartment and the ad luminel compartment this division of compartments is known as the blood-testis barrier
CC: Epispadias
‐ formation of the genital tubercle too far caudal (in the male) causing part of the cloacal membrane to form cranial to the tubercle, leading to an open groove on the dorsal side of the penis (1:30,000).
Muscularis Externa (layers of smooth muscle)
‐2 muscle layers a) Inner Circular ‐contraction reduces size of lumen b) Outer Longitudinal ‐contraction shortens length of tube
**ABRUPT TRANSITION** major etz at pectinate line
‐Rectum and beginning of anal canal have simple columnar epithelium with goblet cells (just like the colon) ‐Pectinate line ‐Distal part of anal canal has a stratified squamous low keratinized epithelium
Anal Canal
‐Rectum and top of anal canal are histologically identical to colon ‐Within anal canal, abrupt transition to stratified squamous low keratinized ‐Pectinate line in anal canal
Defensins
‐disrupt microbial membrane by inserting themselves into phospholipid membrane, and increase its permeability
villi
‐finger‐like projections of Mucosa (evaginations) ‐shape/length differ in each part of small intestine ‐attached to a plica ‐core of loose CT (lamina propria) ‐covered with enterocytes ‐adjacent to Crypts of Lieberkuhn #3
Esophageal cardiac glands
‐in lamina propria (not seen); in most cranial and caudal regions of esophagus ‐neutral mucus, protects the esophagus from reflux
Sonography advantages/disadvantages
• Advantages - No ionizing radiation******** YAY! - Infinite imaging planes; dynamic imaging • Disadvantages - Bowel gas often obscures detail - User‐dependent
Contents of the spermatic cord include
• Cremaster muscle: interposed between external and internal spermatic fascia - Draws the testicle superiorly into the scrotum - Innervated by the genitofemoral nerve (L1/L2) - Test by lightly stroking skin on superomedial thigh (cremaster reflex - test of L1/L2 in males) • Ductus deferens (vas deferens): a muscular tube (45 cm long) carrying sperm from epididymis to the ejaculatory duct • Testictular artery: branch of the aorta that supplies the testis and epididymis • Artery of the ductus deferens: branch of the inferior vesical a. (from internal iliac a.) • Cremasteric artery: from inferior epigastric a. • Pampiniform venous plexus: network of 8-12 veins that coalesce to form the testicular vein, which then drains into the IVC (right) or left renal vein (left) • Genital branch of the genitofemoral n. to innervate the cremaster • Lymphatic vessels • Ilioinguinal n. travels through the superficial inguinal ring but stays external to the spermatic cord
Lymphatic Follicles in the Appendix:
• Has an adventitia • No villi
Vas Deferens
• PSEUDOSTRATIFIED COLUMNAR EPI. • WITH STEREOVILLI • LAMINA PROPRIA • THICK MUSCULARIS - 3 LAYERS • ADVENTITIA WITH, BV'S, NERVES, LYMPHATICS
kidneys
• Primary retroperitoneal structures, lying at vertebral levels T12-L3 -Right kidney is usually 2.5cm (1 in) lower than the left kidney, due to the presence of the liver
How does the heart demonstrate auto‐rhythmicity?
• SA nodal cells - resting membrane potential (RMP) is more positive than other "excitable" cells in body • "Leaky" Na+ channels allow slow "creep" towards threshold Potential • Nodal cells have a relatively long refractory period compared to contractile muscle cells in atria and ventricles
The tracheoesophageal septum divides the foregut into:
• The esophagus (located dorsally) • The trachea and lung buds (located ventrally)
what are 2 ways endocardial cushions can create septa?
• Two endocardial cushions can meet in the middle of a lumen • One endocardial cushion can go all the way across a lumen * Endocardial cushions assist in the formation of: • Atria and ventricular septa • Atrioventricular (AV) canals and valves • Aortic and pulmonary channels
Sonography physics
• Ultrasound physics - Electricity applied to the transducer alters the crystal's shape - In reassuming its normal configuration, the crystal emanates sound waves - Sound waves interact with matter (i.e. transmit, absorb, and reflect) - Sound waves reflected back to the same crystal, alter the crystal's shape - Data gained from reflected sound waves assists in image generation
