HESI 1

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Which selections are good source of protein? Oatmeal w/ sliced banana Pancakes w/ maple syrup hash brown and English muffin Scrambled eggs and sausage egg, potato and onion omelet

A.Scrambled eggs and sausage B.egg, potato and onion omelet

A person with AB- blood should not receive blood from which other blood type?

AB+

Newton's Third Law

It states that when an object applies a force to a second object, that second object applies an opposite and equal force to the first object. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Eccrine

Most widely distributed sweat glands regulate body temperature by releasing a watery secretion that evaporates from the surface of the skin

What WBCs are active in phagocytosis?

Neutrophils and monocytes

Priority

Of great significant

Therapeutic

Of or relating to the treatment of a disease or a disorder

Proper Noun

Official name of a person, place, or thing(e.g., Fred, Paris, Washington University)

Hydrogen Bond

the attraction for a hydrogen atom by a highly electronegative element. Elements generally involved are (F, O and N). The strongest bond of intermolecular forces.

Dipole Dipole Interactions

the attraction of one dipole on one molecule for the dipole of another molecule. A dipole is created when an electron pair is shared unequally in a covalent bond between two atoms or elements. Because the electrons are shared unequally, the molecule, not the covalent bond, will have a positive end and a negative end or side. Considered a weak intermolecular force.

systole; diastole

the cardiac cycle is the period from the end of one ventricular contraction to the end of the next ventricular contraction. The contraction phase of the cycle is ___________; the relation phase is ____________.

the tropic hormone located in the pituitary gland

the functions of the sex organs are under the control of what hormone?

long bone

the humorous is an example of what shape of bone?

oxygen; carbon dioxide

the respiratory system supplies _____________ to the body and eliminates __________ __________.

dermis; the underlying layer under the epidermis and consists of connective tissue with blood vessels, nerve endings and associated with skin structures hair follicles and sweat glands

what layer of skin is the arrow pointing to? what is its purpose?

transmission of nerve impulses over neurons, or nerve cells which are the functional units of of the nervous system.

what does all the actions of the nervous system depend on?

regulates sperm production

what does follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) do?

the male hormone testosterone

what does the interstitial cells between the seminiferous tubules produce?

reabsorbs water and stores and eliminates undigested food.

what does the large intestine do?

brain, spinal cord, and nerves.

what does the nervous system consist of?

it contributes water to dilute the chyme and bicarbonate ions to neutralize the acid from the stomach

what does the pancreas contribute to digestion of food?

bone, cartilage, ligaments, and joints

what does the skeletal system consist of?

includes stratum basale and stratum spinosum; this layer of the epidermis is where mitosis occurs.

what does the stratum germinativan layer of the epidermis include and what is the significance?

other muscles that may work in cooperation with the prime mover

what does the synergists do?

where urination takes place

what does the urethra do?

two kidneys, two ureters, a urinary bladder and the urethra

what does the urinary system consist of?

the corpus luteum remains functional

what happens if fertilization occurs?

those in which nerve impulses travel through spinal chord only and do not reach the brain.

what is a simple spinal reflex?

micro

µ- 10^-6 1 millionth of

1 foot

12 inches

1 foot = ____ inches

12 inches

0º Celsius = ____ Fahrenheit (freezing point of water)

32º Fahrenheit

How many bones are in the axial skeleton?

33 bones of the vertebral column

of or relating to the treatment of a disease or disorder

define therapeutic.

crossing through the skin

define transdermal.

Reflection

The bouncing back of a wave when it hits a surface through which it cannot pass.

Energy

The capacity to do work

Median

The number in the middle of an ordered list

Frequency

The number of complete waves that pass through a point over a given amount of time.

Mode

The number that appears most frequently on the a list.

Cavity

An opening or an empty area

aorta

systematic arteries begin in the ________, which sent branches to all parts of the body.

Pathogenic

Causing or able to cause disease

Main parts of the neuron

Cell body, axon and dendrites

16 oz

How many ounces are in a pound?

Saliva does what?

Lubricates and dilutes chewed food

During cellular division, the DNA replicated, and chromatids are the two identical replicated pieces of chromosome that are joined at the centromere to form an "X"

Chromatids

Gametes are formed by

Meiosis

consists of the DNA and protein that make up chromosomes

Chromatin

What are the upper respiratory tubules lined with?

Cilia

movement of which causes cell to move.

Cilia

Alpha Radiation

-the emission of helium nuclei. These particles contain two protons and two neutrons causing them to have a charge of +2. Alpha particles are the largest of the radioactive emissions, and penetration can generally be stopped by a piece of paper.

Radioactivity

-the emission of particles and/or energy from an unstable nucleus. -three types of radiations are alpha, beta and gamma

Milieu

-the environmental condition

Solute

-the part or parts being dissovled

C (line over it)

100,000

1 gallon - ounces

128 ounces

1 gallon = _____ ounces

128 ounces

Axial skeleton has how many bones in the skull?

28 bones of the skull - 14 facial & 14 bones of the cranium

LXX

VIII

1 cup

8 ounces

LXXX

What is a single cell that results from the fertilization of an egg cell by a sperm cell?

A ZYGOTE

Parameter

A characteristic or constant factor, limit

clause

A clause is a group of words that consists of a subject and a predicate.

The nurse is assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein? A. A college-age track runner with a sprained ankle. B. A lactating woman nursing her 3-day-old infant. C. A school-aged child with Type 2 diabetes. D. An elderly man being treated for a peptic ulcer.

A lactating woman (B) has the greatest need for additional protein intake. (A, C, and D) are all conditions that require protein, but do not have the increased metabolic protein demands of lactation. Correct Answer: B

Access

A means to obtain entry or a means of approach

Momentum

A measure of how hard it is to stop an object. Only moving objects have it.

Defecate

Expel feces

phrase

A phrase is a group or words that express a concept

prepositional phrase

A prepositional phrase shows the relationship between two nouns in space, time, or direction.

run on sentence

A run-on sentence occurs when two or more independent clauses are connected improperly.

Prepositional Phrases

A sentence part that lacks a subject or verb and contains prepositions Prepositions are words that introduce information to the reader. This information can include where something takes place (such as 'at' the store), when or why something takes place (such as 'before' dinner), or general descriptive information (such as the girl 'with' the cool tattoo). For example: - to the store - in the street - on the roof - at the hospital - with a stethoscope

Phrases

A sentence that lacks a subject and a verb. For example: from that night among the girls around the bush

Particle

A type of verb form that functions as an adjective

Interjection

A word or phrase that expresses emotion or exclamation (e.g., Yikes, Whew)

Audible

Able to be heard

Preexisting

Already present

Among versus Between

Among: To show a relationship involving more than two persons or things being considered as a group (The professor will distribute the textbook s among the students in his class) Between: To show a relationship involving two persons or things (I sit between Holly and Jo in class)

Volume

Amount of space occupied by a fluid

Exclamatory

An exclamatory sentence makes an exclamation (example: You went to the store!)

Complication

An undesired problem that is the result of some other event

builds largers and more complex molecules (macromolecules) from smaller ones. REQUIRE ENERGY

Anabolic Reaction

Affect

Appearance of observable emotions

Cranial nerve VIII

Auditory - hearing & equilibrium sensation

P=IV

Besides P= W/t, what other formula can you use to calculate power?

Halitosis

Bad breath

What valve is between the atria and ventricles on the left side of the heart?

Biscuspid

What are platelets active in?

Blood clotting

Male secondary sex characteristics

Body hair & deep voice

The body framework consists of?

Bone, cartilage, ligaments, and joints

Remaining axial skeleton

Bones of the thorax, the sternum, and the 12 pairs of ribs

What does the nervous system consist of?

Brain, spinal cord and nerves

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: Her mother asked her what would she do after she graduated from college. A. From B. Her C. Would D. She

C. Would

Which use of apostrophe is correct in the sentence? Because of staff change's, the list of birthday's was distributed to all worker's in the business' three offices A. Birthday's B. Change's C. Business' D. Worker's

C. Business'

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: The mailperson's job is to put the envelope's in every mailbox on the block. A. Every B. Block C. Envelope's D. Mailperson's

C. Envelope's

Where is the hyoid bone located?

CHIN. The hyoid bone is located between the chin and thyroid cartilage

Made of cellulose and composed many layers, the cell wall provides plants with a barrier that can hold fluid in cell. The cell wall surrounds the cell membrane.

Cell wall

Mastication

Chewing

Occluded

Closed or obstructed

Proximal

Closer tot he point of attachment

Cease

Come to an end or bring to an end

Amylase starts digestion of

Complex carbohydrates

Status

Condition

Exposure

Contact

Infection

Contamination or invasion of body tissue by pathogenic organisms

Transdermal

Crossing through the skin

Short bone

Cube shaped: carpals in the wrist, tarsals in the ankles

Laceration

Cut; tear

consists of microtubules that hero shape and support the cell.

Cytoskeleton

liquid material inside cell. water and floating molecules.

Cytosol

deka

D- 10^1 10 times

ability of water to bond to or attract other molecules of substances. Water sticking to walls. Water adhering to another substance is called hypophillic.

Define Adhesion

Relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle

Diastole

When particles are transported from areas of high concentration to lower concentration. When equilibrium is reached, diffusion stops. EX: gas exchange (carbon dioxide and oxygen) during phtosynethsis and the transport of oxygen from air ro blood and from blood to tissue. HIGH TO LOW-PASSIVE

Diffusion

Osmosis

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane

refers to one involving more than one trait, which means more combinations are possible. 9:3:3:1 when traits aren't linked.

Dihybrid Cross

Impaired

Diminished or lacking some usual quality or level

Abductors

Draw a limb away from the midline

Small intestine consists of three major regions:

Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

The nurse is teaching a client proper use of an inhaler. When should the client administer the inhaler-delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of the inhaler?

During the inhalation

Two types of sweat glands

Eccrine & sebaceous

The _________ of this weather was that we all got wet.

Effect

Axons

Transmit the impulse away from the cell body

ECG

Electrocardiogram

Third step: begins with oxidation of NADH molecules to produce oxygen and finally produce water. For every glucose molecule, 28 to 38 ATP can be produced. Conversion results in overall ATP production numbers of 32 to 36 ATP molecules for every glucose molecule.

Electron Transport Chain

During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water

Chocolate cysts of the ovaries are attributed to

Endometriosis

Potential Energy

Energy that is stored within an object for later release. i.e. A book held in the air above a surface is considered to have it (the energy that would be released when it is dropped).

Distended

Enlarged or expanded from pressure

A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.

Steroid hormones

Enter the target cells and have a direct effect on the DNA of the nucleus

Melanin

Epidermal cells contain the protein pigment, protecting against radiation from the sun

Vital

Essential

External respiration

Exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the blood through he alveoli

Independent Clause

Expresses a complete though and can stand alone as a sentence (e.g., The professor distributed the examinations... as soon as the students were seated)

Cliche

Expressions or ideas that have lost their originality or impact over time because of excessive use

Fatigue

Extreme tiredness, exhaustion

What influences the ripening of eggs within the ovarian follicles in the ovary?

FSH

Facing forward

Kidney function

Filter blood

The combination of alleles. Can be expressed as recessive or dominant...hetozygous or heterozygous.

Genotype

Syndrome

Group of symptoms that, when occurring together, reflect a specific disease or disorder

The appendages of the skin include what?

Hair and nails

Tropic hormones

Hormones of the adenohypophysis

KE=.5mv^2

How do you calculate kinetic energy?

Ft=m*Δv

How would you calculate impulse?

p(momentum)= m*v

How would you calculate momentum?

P= (force * Displacement)/Time

How would you calculate the power of an object?

Multiply the frequency of a wave by its wavelength.

How would you calculate the velocity of the wave?

Diagnosis

Identification of an injury or disease

Dysfunction

Impaired or abnormal functioning

Intact

In place, unharmed

Vascular system

Includes arteries that carry blood away from the heart, veins that carry blood toward the heart, and the capillaries

Extensors

Increase the angle at the joint

Respiration

Inhalation and exhalation of air

What stimulates the interstitial cells to produce testosterone?

Interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH) or LH

Which action is most important for the nurse to implement when donning sterile gloves?

Keep gloved hands above the elbows.

Most of the fats are absorbed into the lymph by the

Lacteals

Learn versus teach

Learn: to receive or acquire knowledge Teach: To give or impart knowledge

Perpendicular lines

Lines that cross each other at a 90 degree angle are called?

Accessory organs of digestion

Liver, pancreas, gallbladder

External

Located outside the body

Internal

Located within the body

Periodic Table

Made up of rows calls periods and columns called groups.

Hydration

Maintenance of body fluid balance

What is the placenta formed by

Maternal and embryonic tissues

Hygiene

Measures contributing to cleanliness and good health

Reproductive activity is continuous in?

Men

Virus

Microscopic infectious agent capable of replicating only in living cells, usually causing infectious disease

refers to a cross involving only one trait. 3:1 ratio (DD, Dd, Dd, dd)

Monohybrid cross

Excess

More than what is needed or usual

Layers of epidermis

Outer to inner 1. stratum corneum 2. stratum lucidum 3. stratum granulosum 4. stratum germinativum (includes stratum basal and stratum spinosum), where mitosis occurs

What is in the lower appendicular skeleton?

Pelvic girdle or os coxae

What is known as a wave of muscular contractions that push the bolus down towards the stomach?

Peristalsis

cell eating vesicles used during ingestion are quickly formed and unformed. ingestion of a particle

Phagocytosis

Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.

Hormones from the ____ maintain the endometrium and prepare the breasts for milk production

Placenta

The embryo is nourished by the

Placenta

channels between cell wall of plants cells that allow for transport between cells.

Plasmodesmata

found in plant cells that is used to make compounds and store food. It contains pigments used in photosynthesis. They cam develop into chloroplasts, chromoplasts, amyloplsts, and leucoplast.

Plastid

Neurohypophysis

Posterior lobe of the pituitary gland

predicate nominative

Predicate nominative is a noun or pronoun that is the same as the subject of the sentence.

Exogenous

Produced outside the body

1. Rain forests are essential to life on earth 2. Deforestation has long term consequences that we still do not know about 3. The Nile is the longest river

Rainforest --------------------------------------

Precipitous

Rapid, uncontrolled

Labile

Rapidly changing or volatile

Large intestine function

Reabsorbs water and stores and eliminates undigested food

Exhalation is a passive process during which the lungs

Recoil as the respiratory muscles relax and the thorax decreases in size

Flushed

Reddened or ruddy appearance

The nurse assigns a UAP to obtain vital signs from a very anxious client. What instructions should the nurse give the UAP?

Report the results of the vital signs to the nurse.

Blood drains from the myocardium directly into the?

Right atrium through the coronary sinus

Myofibrils are made up of?

Sacromeres

What valves are found at the entrances of the pulmonary trunk and the aorta?

Semilunar

Glands that produce the transport medium or semen

Seminal vesicles, prostate gland, bulbourethral (Cowper's gland)

What is the temporal lobe of the brain responsible for?

Sense of smell

Compound Sentence

Sentence that has two or more independent clauses (example: The professor thought the test was too easy, but the students thought it was too hard)

Mitosis involves separation of only sister chromatids while meiosis involves

Separation of homologous chromosomes as well as sister chromatids

Gender

Sex of an individual, as in male or female

Contour

Shape or outline of a shape

Nonesteroid

Some are protein hormones - protein hormones remain at the cell surface and act through second messenger, usually AMP

blood pH

Some carbon dioxide is carried in solution or bound to blood proteins, but most is converted to bicarbonate ions by carbonic anhydrase within red blood cells. Because this reaction also releases hydrogen ions, carbon dioxide is a regulator of what?

Testosterone influences

Sperm cell development, and produces male secondary sex characteristics

Resistance (R)

The ability of a substance to stop the flow of a current. It is measured in Ohms.

Inhalation requires

The contraction of the diaphragm to enlarge the thoracic cavity and draw air into the lungs

Glycolysis

The conversion of glucose to pyruvate. Takes place in the cytosol of the cell and produces 2 ATP, 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH

Common Noun

The general, not the particular, name of a person, place, or thing (e.g., nurse, hospital, syringe)

Crest

The highest point of a wave

Hypotenuse

The longest side of a right-angled triangle, the side opposite of the right angle.

Trough

The lowest point of a wave

An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which nurse is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?

The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.

Predicate

The part of the sentence that tells what the subject does or what is done to the subject

Spermatozoa develop within

The seminiferous tubules of each testis

SIMPLE PREDICATE

The simple predicate is the verb in the sentence. If the verbs are connected by "and" showing two actions by the subject, such as "ran and played," the simple predicate is both verbs. The complete predicate is the verb and all the words that modify the verb and complete its meaning.

Muscle contraction results from?

The sliding together of actin and myosin filaments within the muscle or fiber

Antecedent

The word r group of words to which a pronoun refers

What is the difference between compact bone and spongy bone?

They have a different arrangement of bone cells

Linking verbs

They link or join the subject of the sentence to a noun, pronoun, or predicate adjective (e.g., That exam looks difficult)

Initiate

To begin or put into practice

Voluntary muscles

Under conscious control

Sublingual

Under the tongue

Dermis

Underlying layer of connective tissue with blood vessels, nerve endings, and the associated skin structures

s= d/t

What is the formula for speed?

A=π(r^2)

What is the formula for the area of a circle?

Urethra

Where urine exits the body

Twenty minutes after beginning a heat application, the client states that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the nurse?

Your blood vessels are becoming dilated and removing the heat from the site.

Ubiquitous

being or seeming to be everywhere at once

thyroid, parathyroids, adrenals, pancreas and gonads (ovaries and testes)

besides the pituitary, what are some other important endocrine glands?

deci

d- 10^-1 1 tenth of

femto

f- 10^-15 1 quadrillionth of

found in cytoplasm

free ribosomes

compact

has a central canal. compact bone? or spongy bone?

Bile is produced by the

liver

Functional Unit of the kidney

nephrons!

Where are lipids synthesized in the cell?

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

The value of a house decreased by 8% between 2005 and 2014. If the house was valued at $89,000 in 2014, how much was it worth in 2005?

$96,739 The house's value decreased by 8% over the years. The equation for the percentage change is: (Original Amount)*(1-Percent Decrease) = New Amount. In this case: X * (1-.08) = $89,000 -> X*.92 = 89,000 -> X = 89,000/.92 = $96,739.

An IV infusion terbutaline sulfate 5 mg in 500 ml of D5W, is infusing at a rate of 30 mcg/min prescribed for a client in premature labor. How many ml/hr should the nurse set the infusion pump? A. 30 B. 60 C. 120 D. 180

(D) is correct calculation: 180 ml/hr = 500 ml/5 mg × 1mg/1000 mcg × 30 mcg/min × 60 min/hr. Correct Answer: D

Fahrenheit to celsius formula

(F-32) * 5/9

Lens

- focuses light on the back of the eye

Glycolysis -

- glucose is Mainly metabolized by a chemical pathway in the body called this. The net result is the breakdown of one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate; this also produces a net two molecules of ATP.

Granuloctes

- neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

Inner Ear

-(labyrinth), operates the bodys sense of balance -also contains cochlea

Kelvin and Celcius

-0 kelvin is -273 celcius

NEGATIVES CANCEL EACH OTHER OUT

-5*-5= 25

Products of Cellular respiration

-CO2, water and energy

Fats

-FA's consist of a hydrocarbon chain with an acid group, the carboxyl group (COOH) at one end.

Cochlea

-hearing organ

Halogens

-very reactive

2.2 pounds

1 kilogram

1,000

0.001

10 * 10^-3= ?

0.1

10* 10^-1=?

X (line over it)

10,000

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

III

Which integumentary finding is related to skin texture? 1. Elasticity 2.Vascularity 3.Fluid buildup 4. Character of the surface

How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

How many types of leukocytes (WBC) are there?

V (line over it)

5,000

Photosynthesis

6CO2 + 6H20 + Light energy -> C6H12O6 + 6O2

VII

8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.

1 cup = _____ ounces

8 ounces

Declarative

A declarative sentence makes a statement (example: I went to the store)

Current (I)

A flow of charge from one terminal of a circuit to another; it is the amount of time that passes through a point per second.

Electricity

A flow of electrons through a wire.

Possessive Pronoun

A form of personal pronoun that shows possession or ownership

Phrase

A group of two or more words that acts as a single part of speech in a sentence

Euphemism

A mild, indirect, or vague term that has been substituted for one that is considered harsh, blunt, or offensive

Predicate Nominative

A noun or pronoun that follows a linking verb and helps to explain or rename the subject (Professors are teachers)

Prime numbers

A number that has exactly two different factors: itself and one. It cannot be negative numbers, 0, or one. I.E. 2,3,5,7,11, and 13

Cellular Respiration

A simple combustion reaction, produces more energy than anaerobic respiration C6H12O6 + 602 -> 6CO2 + 6H20

Conjunction

A word that joins words, phrases, or clauses

adjectives

Adjectives modify and describe nouns and other adjectives, and in this sentence "red" describes "car."

The PNS consists of?

All the nerves that transmit information to and from the CNS

interjection

An interjection is a part of speech which is used to show a short sudden expression of emotion.

Pituitary gland has two major portions

Anterior lobe and posterior lobe

Lateral

Away from the midline or toward the sides

What must be present for muscle cell contraction?

Calcium and ATP

Consistency

Degree of viscosity; how thick or thin a fluid is

Which phemopon theory explains grieve and carrying? Grand Descriptive Presciptive theories middle range

Descriptive

Contain 46 chromosomes, means there are TWO SETS of chromosomes (one from each parent)

Diploid

Discrete

Distinct, separate

Comply

Do as directed

Urinate

Excrete or expel urine

What regulates sperm production?

FSH

Primary

First or most significant

Myocardium

Heart muscle

PE=m*g*h

How do you calculate potential energy?

2.54 centimeters

How many centimeters are in an inch?

2 cups

How many cups are in a pint?

2000 lbs

How many pounds are in a ton?

4 quarts

How many quarts are in a gallon?

The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and life style modification. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week.

At the beginning of the shift, the nurse assesses a client who is admitted from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). When should the nurse document the client's findings?

Immediately after the assessments are completed.

Initiate an alternate site for the IV infusion of the medication.

What stimulates ovulation and conversion of the follicle to the corpus luteum at day 14 of the cycle?

Skin

Largest organ of the body

A nursing student is listing risk factors that affect the health and wellness of a client. Which risk factors listed by the nursing student are accurate? Select all that apply Lifestyle Environment Genetic and physiological factors Spirtiual factors emotional factors

Lifestyle Environment Genetic and physiological factors

Impending

Likely to occur soon

Site

Location

What WBCs are active in antibody formation?

Lymphocytes

Diffusion

Movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

Four main layers of digestive tract

Mucous membrane, submucous layer, muscular layer and the serous later

Neuroglia

Nerve tissue is composed of neurons and connective tissue cells

What are the functional units of the nervous system?

Neurons or nerve cells

Incidence

Occurrence

Annual

Occurring every year

include simple and facilitated diffusion and osmosis. They do NOT require energy. Diffusion is when particles are transported from areas of high concentration to lower concentration.

Passive transport

Sesamoid bone

Patella

Latent

Present but not active or visible

Chloroplasts

Present in plants, it contains a substance called chlorophyll to carry out the process of photosynthesis.

Chemical Equations

Reactants -> Products

Which nursing practice is associated with the self-regulation skill? Reflecting on one's experience Reflecting on one's own behavior Supporting one's findings and conclusions Clarifying any data that one is uncertain about

Reflecting on one's experience

An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position prior to administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?

Reposition in a Sim's position with the client's weight on the anterior ilium.

Reposition the client on her side

Passive Transport

Requires NO energy, Movement of molecules from high to low concentration, Moves with the concentration gradient

Which of the following statements are true about the role of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) in a cell?

Ribosomal RNA or rRNA helps in the formation of ribosomes. Ribosomes are the cell organelles involved in the formation of proteins. Transfer RNA or tRNA transfers appropriate amino acids to the ribosome for building the protein. Messenger RNA or mRNA carries the instructions for building a protein from the nucleus to the ribosome. The transfer of information from DNA's base sequence to the complimentary base sequence of mRNA is known as transcription

involved in synthesizing proteins from amino acids. They read the RNA produced in nucleus and translate the genetic instructions to produce proteins. cells with high rate of protein synthesis have large number of ribosomes.

Ribosomes

The process of double fertilization is seen in all of the following

Rosaceae family Fabaceae family Solanaceae family

Which of these is considered the primary pacemaker of the heart?

SA node The sinoatrial (SA) node is located in the right atrium and is responsible for generating the electrical impulses that cause the heart to beat.

Villi

Small fingerlike projections to increase surface area of intestinal wall

Digestion and absorption of food occurs in the

Small intestine

Arterioles

Smallest arteries

Strict

Stringent, exact, complete

Contraction phase of the cardiac cycle

Systole

getting the product of 2 numbers

Taking the product of two numbers means multiplying them, so: 0.45 x 0.30 = 0.135.

A male client tells the nurse that he does not know where he is or what year it is. What data should the nurse document that is most accurate? A. demonstrates loss of remote memory. B. exhibits expressive dysphasia. C. has a diminished attention span. D. is disoriented to place and time.

The client is exhibiting disorientation (D). (A) refers to memory of the distant past. The client is able to express himself without difficulty (B), and does not demonstrate a diminished attention span (C). Correct Answer: D

The nurse witnesses the signature of a client who has signed an informed consent. Which statement best explains this nursing responsibility?

The client voluntarily signed the form.

Adjectival Clause

The dependent clause that modifies a noun or pronoun. i.e. The only nurse on the shift who is not from New York is Angelina "who is not from New York," modifies nurse

Diameter

The distance across the center of an object

Wavelength

The distance between two crests is called the?

The nurse observes that a male client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to his knee. What action should the nurse take first? A. Observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack. B. Instruct the client regarding the need for the covering. C. Reapply the covering after filling with fresh ice. D. Ask the client how long the ice was applied to the skin.

The first action taken by the nurse should be to assess the skin for any possible thermal injury (A). If no injury to the skin has occurred, the nurse can take the other actions (B, C, and D) as needed. Correct Answer: A

The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? A. 1 ml B. 1.5 ml C. 1.75 ml D. 2 ml

pulmonary; systemic

The heart is a double pump that sends blood to the lungs for oxygenation through the _____________ circuit and to the remainder of the body through the ____________ circuit.

Pituitary gland is attached to?

The hypothalamus

What produces testosterone?

The interstitial cells between the seminiferous tubules

What is the only moveable bone of the skull?

The mandible

Active Transport

The movement of particles from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration that uses energy provided by ATP or a difference in electrical charges across a cell membrane.

B The client should be instructed to deliver the medication during the last part of inhalation (B). After medication is delivered, the client should remove the mouthpiece, keeping his/her lips closed and breath held for several seconds to allow for distribution of the medication. The client should not deliver the dose as stated in (A or D), and should deliver no more than two inhalations at a time (C).

The nurse is teaching a client proper use of an inhaler. When should the client administer the inhaler-delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of the inhaler? A. Immediately after exhalation B. During inhalation C. At the end of three inhalations D. Immediately after inhalation

A A primary source of information for a health assessment is the client (A). (B, C, and D) are considered secondary sources about the client's health history, but other details, such as subjective data, can only be provided directly from the client.

The nurse plans to obtain health assessment information from a primary source. Which option is a primary source of completion of health assessment? A. Client B. Healthcare provider C. A family member D. Previous medical records

Distance

The total number of miles; it is said to be a scalar quantity because it involves just a number.

Why are bones considered to be organs?

They contain nervous and connective tissue

Simple (spinal) reflexes

Those in which nerve impulses travel through the spinal cord only and do not reach the brain

These glands are susceptible to what?

To becoming clogged and attracting bacteria, particularly during adolescence

Subtract 32, then multiply by 5/9

To convert Fahrenheit to degrees, Celsius what would you do?

Suppress

To stop or subdue

Ingest

To swallow for digestion

Sensory (afferent) neurons

Transmit nerve impulses toward the CNS

The upper passageways also serve to:

Warm, filter, and moisten incoming air

2,3,5, 7, 11, and 13

What are the 6 smallest prime numbers?

A= b*h /2

What is the formula for the area of a triangle?

Parallel

What type of circuit is this?

Noun

Word or group of words that names a person, place, thing, or idea

Verb

Word or phrase that is used to express an action or a state of being (Past - worked, present - works, future - will work)

Deteriorating

Worsening

Prokaryotic cells lack:

a nuclear membrane Prokaryotic cells lack a nuclear membrane. Prokaryotic cells are not as complex as eukaryotic cells. They have no true nucleus as the DNA is not contained within a membrane or separated from the rest of the cell, but are coiled up in a region of the cytoplasm called the nucleoid.

Kelvin (K)

a. 0 degrees K is -273.15 C b. The freezing point of water is 273K c. The boiling point of water is 373K d. most people have a body temp of 310K

Celcius

a. zero degrees C is the freezing point of pure water b.100 degrees C is the boiling point of pure water c. most people have a body temp of 37 degrees C

attached to rough er

bound ribosomes

centi

c- 10^-2 1 hundreth of

closed or obstructed

define occluded.

Blood vessels enter and exit bones through

foramina Foramina are small openings in the body which allow cranial nerves, arteries, and veins to pass through solid structures.

Covalent Bond

formed when two atoms share electrons, generally in pairs, with one pair from each atom. The strongest, and generally formed between two nonmetals.

i.e. versus e.g.

i.e.: that is - specifies or explains e.g.: for example

Where is interstitial fluid found in the body?

in the tissues around cells

follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

in women each month several eggs ripen within the ovarian follicles in the ovary by what influence?

kilo

k- 10^3 1 thousand times

spongy

located in the epiphyses. compact bone? or spongy bone?

Compounds

mixtures of different elements to create a single matter

The ____ is the layer of the heart used for contraction that has striated muscle fibers.

myocardium

pico

p- 10^-12 1 trillionth of

Golgi Apparatus

packaging and processing and shipping organelle, transports proteins from the ER throughout the cell

is also known as the drinking cell. ingestion of a liquid

pinocytosis

10%

plasma contains approximately ______ proteins, ions, nutrients, waste products, and hormones, which are dissolved or suspended in water.

Triage

process used to determine the priority of treatment for patients according to the severity of a patient's condition and likelihood of benefit from the treatment

Mitochondria or Chloroplasts

produce cell energy/ cellular respiration

continuous

reproductive activity is cyclic in woman but what in men?

5 Rights of nursing delegation

right circumstance right person right direction/comm right supervision/eval

Produces by Exocrine Gland

saliva milk digestive enzymes

Alloys

solid solutions of metals make a new one such as bronze, which is copper and tin, or steel, which is iron and carbon

sublimation

solid to a gas

When irragating a wound use

steady pressure using a 35ml Syringe w/ 19 gauge needle

enter the target cells and have a direct effect on the DNA of the nucleus

steroid hormones do what?

The structures that cap the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes are called

telomeres

Connotation

the emotions or feelings that the reader attaches to words

epiphysis

the end part of a long bone, initially growing separately from the shaft is called what?

flat bone

the sternum is an example of what shape of bone?

Which nutritional assessment data should the nurse collect to best reflect total muscle mass in an adolescent?

upper arm circumference

the ability to contract or shorten

what ability does muscle tissue have?

the anus

what is the opening for defecation (expelling of stool)?

Single Replacement Reaction

-consist of a more active metal reacting with an ionic compound containing a less active metal to produce a new compound. -(aq) stands for aqueous -(s) stands for solid Cu (s) +2AgNO3 (aq) -> Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + 2Ag (s)

Plasma

-consists of 10% proteins, ions, nutrients, waste products, and hormones, which are dissolved or suspended in water.

Axial Skeleton

-consists of the skull, vertebral column, twelve pairs of ribs, and the sternum.

Monosacharides

-contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen -ex: glucose and fructose -6 carbon sugar called hexose

Frontal Lobe

-controls judgement, personality, smell, coordinated movements, muscle movements, physical reactions, abstract thinking, attention, behavior, intellect, problem solving, creative thought

Medulla Oblongata

-controls many vital functions such as respiration and heart rate.

Thalamus

-controls pain sensation and attention span

Retina

-converts light into electrical impulses

Hippocampus

-converts temporary memories into permanent memories

Acids

-corrosive to metals -hydrogen or proton donors

Epithelial Tissue

-cover, line, and protect the body and its internal organs

Natural Killer Cells

-directly attack virus-infected cells

Portions of Small Intestine

-duodenum, jejunum, ileum

Synovial Joints

-elbow/knee

Steroid Hormones

-enter the target cells and have a different effect on the DNA of the nucleus.

4 fundamental tissues

-epithelial -connective -muscle -nerve

Spinal Cord

-extends from base of skull (foramen magnum) to the first or second lumbar vertebra (L1 or L2). 31 pairs of spinal nerves exit the spinal cord.

eosinophils

-fight against parasitic infections

Connective Tissue

-framework of the body, providing support and structure for the organs. Blood

Brocas Area

-frontal lobe -speech formation

Macula

-gives central vision

Increasing the Surface Area

-gives the particles more opportunity to come into contact with one another. Wood shaving are an excellent example. One can increase the SA of a log by cutting it into shavings or sawdust. Wood in the form of sawdust will burn or react much faster than a whole log

Reactants of Cellular respiration

-glucose and oxygen

Structure of Bone

-has an irregular epiphysis at both ends composed mainly of spongy (cancellous) bone, and a shaft or diaphysis composed mainly of compact bone.

Muscle Tissue

-have the ability to contract or shorten. Can be voluntary (skeletal muscle) or involuntary (smooth and cardiac muscle)

Temporal lobe

-hearing capabilities

Gamma Radiation

-high energy electromagnetic radiation, similar to x-rays but with more energy. It is very penetrating and can go through several feet of concrete or several inches of lead. Lead shielding is required to block gamma rays.

Os Coxae

-ilium, ischium, and pubis

Appendicular Skeleton

-includes girdles and limbs

Breathing

-inhalation requires the contraction of the diaphragm to enlarge the thoracic cavity and draw air into the lungs. -exhalation is a passive process during which the lungs recoil as the respiratory muscles relax and the thorax decreases in size.

Cartilagenous Joints

-intervertebal discs

Oxidation and Reduction

-involve the transfer of electrons from one element to another -oxidation is loss, reduction is gain of electrons (OILRIG)

Asexual Reproduction

-involves bacterial cells and involves binary fission ( chromosome binds to the plasma membrane, where it replicates, then as the cell grows it pinches in to two, producing identical cells) -another type is mitosis - occurs in 5 stages before pinching in two in a process called cytokinesis

Double Replacement Reaction

-involves two ionic compounds. The positive ion from one compound combines with the negative ion of the other compound. The result is two new ionic compounds that have "switched partners". AgNO3 +KCl -> AgCl + KNO3

Noble Gases

-less reactive

Types of Bones

-long bones, short bones, flat bones, sesamoid bones.

Carbohydrates

-long chains or polymers of sugar -storage, structure, and energy -form the backbone of DNA and RNA

Translation

-mRNA functions as a messenger from the original DNA helix in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytosol or on the rough ER. Here, the ribosome acts as the site of translation. The mRNA slides through the ribosome. Every group of three bases along the stretch of RNA is called a codon, and each of these codes for a specific AA. The anticodon is located on a unit called tRNA, which carries a specific AA. It binds to the ribosome when its codon is sliding through the ribosome. Creates an elongated chain of AA's. Eventually the chain is ended at what is called a stop codon.At this point the chain is released into the cytoplasm, the protein folds on itself and forms its complete conformation.

Monocytes

-mature into macrophages

What are all metric measurements composed of?

-metric prefix and a basic unit of measure

Oxygen and Hemoglobin

-most of the oxygen carried in the blood is bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells. Oxygen is released from hemoglobin as the concentration of oxygen drops in the tissues. Some CO2 is carried in solution or bound to blood proteins, but most is converted bicarbonate ions by carbonic anhydrase within red blood cells. Because this reaction also releases hydrogen ions, CO2 is a regulator of blood pH. (lowering pH)

Lymphocytes

-natural, infection fighting antibodies

Decomposition Reaction

-opposite of synthesis, breaking of compound into its component parts - NaCl -> Na+ + Cl-

Hormones released from posterior lobe of pituitary

-oxytocin (labor hormone -antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Proteins

-polymers of 20 AA's.

Fovea

-provides the clearest vision

Erythrocytes

-red blood cells -modified for transport of oxygen -most of this oxygen is bound to the pigmented protein hemoglobin

Sebaceous Glands

-release an oily secretion (sebum) through the hair follicles that lubricate the skin and prevents drying. Sebum is produced by halocrine secretion, in which whole cells of the glands are part of the secretion. These glands are susceptible of becoming clogged and attracting bacteria.

Basophils

-respond to histamine-releasing allergens

Amygdala

-responds to fear, emotions, and memory

Middle Ear

-responsible for sound vibration transfer and routes for infections to travel

Outer Ear

-responsible for wax secretion

Muscle Contraction

-results from the sliding together of actin and myosin filaments within the muscle cell or fiber -each muscle cells consists of myofibrils which in turn are made of smaller units called sarcomeres. Calcium and ATP must be present for a muscle cell to contract.

Fatty Acids

-saturated: contain no double bonds in hydrocarbon tail, solid at room temp. -unsaturated: one or more double bonds, liquid at room temp.

Bones of Cranium

-single occipital, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid bone -paired parietal, temporal, and ossicles of the ear (malleus, incus, and stapes)

Nephron

-small coiled tubes filter waste material out of the blood brought to the kidney by the renal artery. -as the glomerular filtrate passes through the nephron, components needed by the body such as water, glucose, and ions leave the nephron by diffusion and reenter the blood. -water is reabsorbed at the tubules of the nephron -the final product is urine.

Tropic Hormones

-somatotropin hormone (STH) or growth hormone (GH) -Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) -thyroid stimulation hormone (TSH) -Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) -Luteinizing hormone (LH)

Non-Steroid Hormones

-some non-steroid hormones are protein hormones. Many protein hormones remain at the cell surface and act through a second messenger, usually a substance called adenosine monophosphate (AMP). Many hormones affect cell activity by altering the rate of protein synthesis.

Wernickes Area

-speech area -comprehension of language -temporal lobe

Catalyst

-speeds up the reaction by finding an alternate pathway for a reaction that requires less energy.

CNS

-spinal cord and brain

Disaccharides

-sucrose (ordinary sugar) (glucose +fructose) -lactose (milk sugar) (glucose + galactose)

Function of Respiratory System

-supplies oxygen to the body and eliminates CO2.

Fibrous Joints

-sutures of the skull

T-Lymphocytes

-t cells mature in the thymus and they directly engulf and destroy pathogens.

Pituitary Gland

-the "master gland" -attached to the hypothalamus by a stalk called the infundibulum -has two major portions: the anterior lobe (adenohypophysis) and the posterior lobe (neurohypopysis) -hormones of the adenohypophysis are called tropic hormones because they act mainly on other endocrine glands.

External Respiration

-the exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the blood through the alveoli.

Internal Respiration

-the exchange of gases between the blood and the body cells.

Conduction of Heart

-the heart has an intrinsic beat initiated by the SA node and transmitted along a conduction system through the myocardium. -this wave of electrical activity is what is measured on an electrocardiogram (ECG)

Superior and Inferior Venae Cavae

-the large veins that empty into the right atrium of the heart.

GLuconeogenesis

-the liver can make glucose from other non carbohydrate sources such a proteins and parts of fats, using this process. The glucose produced can then enter the energy producing cycles or can be stored as glycogen in animals and cellulose in plants.

Eccrine Sweat Glands

-the most widely distributed sweat glands that regulate body temperature and release a watery secretion that evaporates on the surface of the skin.

Pro-metaphase

-the nuclear envelope begins to disappear, and the chromosome begin to attach to the spindle that is forming along the axis of the cell.

Sexual Reproduction

-the offspring originates from a single cell, yielding all cells to produced to be identical. Two cells contribute genetic material, resulting in significantly greater variation. These two cells find and fertilize each other randomly, making it virtually impossible for cells to be alike. -Consists of meiosis

Redox Reaction

-the oxidant is reduced because it gains an electron. the reductant is oxidized because is loses an electron.

Solvent

-the part that is doing the dissolving

Cardiac Cycle

-the period from the end of one ventricular contraction. The contraction phase of the cycles is systole; the relaxion phase is diastole.

Where is respiration controlled by?

-the respiratory control center in the medulla of the brain

Divisions of NS

-the somatic nervous system is part of the peripheral nervous system associated with the voluntary control of body movements through the skeletal muscles and from receptors of external stimuli, thereby mediating sight, hearing and touch. -the autonomic nervous system is the part of the PNS that controls visceral functions that occur below the level of consciousness. The ANS can be divided into the parasympathetic nervous system and the sympathetic nervous system.

Protein Synthesis

-transcription -translation

Motor (Efferent) Neurons

-transmit nerve impulses away from the CNS toward the effector organs such as muscles, glands, and digestive organs. -leave through ventral horns

Sensory (Afferent) Neurons

-transmit nerve impulses towards the CNS -enter dorsal horns

Synthesis Reaction

-two elements combine to form a product - 2K+ + 2CL- -> 2KCL

Facial Bones

-two nasal bones -two maxillary bones -two zygomatic bones -one mandible -two palatine bones -one vomer -two lacrimal bones -two inferior nasal conchae

Lanthanide

-very reactive

-occipital lobe

-vision

Bones in Skull

-when including the 6 paired bones (ossicles) of the ear, the skull is compromised 28 bones - 14 facial bones and 14 cranial vault bones.

Hepatic Portal Vein

-where nutrients enter to be routed to the liver for decontamination

Glomerulus

-where the actual filtration process occurs in bowman's capsule. -occurs under the force of BP

B-lymphocytes

-y or t shaped cells that originate in bone marrow and make proteins known as antibodies. (b-cells)

sentence fragment

. A sentence fragment does not include the necessary components to be a sentence (a subject and a verb).

The healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg IM STAT. Morphine comes in 8 mg per ml. How many ml should the nurse administer?

0.5 ml.

After a bacterial cell has undergone binary fission, how many chromosome copies will each daughter cell contain?

1 Prokaryotic fission, which is binary fission, is a form of asexual reproduction and cell division used by all prokaryotes (bacteria and archaebacteria) and some organelles within eukaryotic organisms (e.g., mitochondria). This process results in the reproduction of a living prokaryotic cell (or organelle) by dividing into two parts that each have the potential to grow to the size of the original cell (or organelle). This type of division takes place without the formation of spindles in the cell. The single DNA molecule first replicates, then attaches each copy to a different part of the cell membrane. When the cell begins to pull apart, the replicated and original chromosomes are separated. The consequence of this asexual method of reproduction is that all the cells are genetically identical, meaning that they have the same genetic material.

A client with a history of hypothyroidism reports giddiness, excessive thirst, and nausea. Which parameter assessed by the nurse confirms the diagnosis as heat stroke? 1. Increased heart rate 2. Increased blood pressure 3. Decreased respiratory rate 4. Increased circulatory damage

1 Prolonged exposure to the sun or a high environmental temperature overwhelms the body's heat-loss mechanisms. These conditions cause heat stroke, which manifests as giddiness, excessive thirst, and nausea. An increased heart rate (HR) characterizes a heat stroke. A low blood pressure (BP), increased respiratory rate, and increased circulatory and tissue damage are not indicators of heat stroke.

A student nurse is assessing the blood pressure of a client with the client's arm unsupported. What are the expected errors in the obtained readings? 1. False high reading 2.False low diastolic reading 3.False high systolic reading 4.False high diastolic reading

1 Repeated assessments of blood pressure too often result in a false high systolic reading. Deflating the cuff too slowly results in a false high diastolic reading.

0.01 m

1 centimeter is how many meter?

1 milliliter

1 cubic centimeter

1 milliliter = _____ cubic centimeter

1 cubic centimeter

2.54 centimeters = ___ inch

1 inch

Converting pounds to kg

1 kg = 2.2ibs

2.2 pounds = ____ kilogram

1 kilogram

1,000 grams

1 kilogram is how many grams?

0.000001 L

1 microliter is how many liters?

0.001 m

1 millimeter is how many meters?

0.000000001 s

1 nanosecond is how many seconds?

What are the bones of the cranium?

1 occipital 1 frontal 1 ethmoid 1 sphenoid 2 parietal 2 temporal Ossicles of the ear: malleus, incus, stapes)

Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled grain 1.5 per tablet. How many tablets should the nurse plan to administer?

1 tab

100

1* 10^2= ?

10,000

1* 10^4= ?

1*10^0=?

1 kilogram = ____ grams

1,000 grams

1 kilometer = ____ meters

1,000 meters

Secobarbital (Seconal) 150 mg is prescribed at bedtime for a male client who is scheduled for surgery in the morning. The scored tablets are labeled 0.1 gram/tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)

1,000 mg : 1 gram :: X mg : 0.1 gram X = 100 mg D/H = 150/100 = 1.5 tablets Correct Answer: 1.5

1 gram = ____ milligrams

1,000 milligrams

1 liter = ____ milliliters

1,000 milliliters

M (line over it)

1,000,000

1 mile = ___ yards

1,760 yards

Which response by the nurse during a client interview is an example of back channeling? 1. "All right, go on..." 2. "What else is bothering you?" 3. "Tell me what brought you here." 4. "How would you rate your pain on a scale of 0 to 10?"

1. Back channeling involves the use of active listening prompts such as "Go on...", "all right", and "uh-huh." Such prompts encourage the client to complete the full story. The nurse uses probing by asking the client, "What else is bothering you?" Such open-ended questions help to obtain more information until the client has nothing more to say. The statement, "Tell me what brought you here" is an open-ended statement that allows the client to explain his health concerns in his or her own words. Closed-ended questions such as, "How would you rate your pain on a scale of 0 to 10?" are used to obtain a definite answer. The client answers by stating a number to describe the severity of pain.

Phobia --------------------------------------

1. According to the passage, which of the following are types of phobias? (Check all that apply) Social phobias, panic disorder, specific phobia 2. What does the author want the reader to know about phobia? That phobias are debilitating. 3. The passage says that being afraid is normal and good, according to the passage why is having a phobia not normal and good? Because phobias are extreme and unreasonable. 4. What are physical ailments that phobias cause? Ulcers and hypertension 5. The author wants to conclude that people can gain control or deal with phobias

What is the correct order of steps of the nursing diagnostic process? 1. Assess the client's health status. 2. Cluster data. 3. Interpret the meaning of the data. 4. Validate the data with other sources. 5. Look for defining characteristics. 6. Formulate nursing diagnoses. 7. Identify the client's needs.

1. Assess health status 2. validate data with other sources 3. interpret the meaning of the data 4. cluster data 5. look for defining characteristics 6. ID client needs 7. formulate nursing diagnosis

Stages of Grief

1. Denial 2.Anger 3. Barginning 4. Depression 5. Acceptence

Steps of Cellular Respiration

1. Glycolysis 2. Citric Acid Cycle 3. Electron transport chain -Results in total of 32 - 36 ATP produced

Ways to increase the reaction rate

1. Increase the temperature 2. Increase the surface area of reactants 3. Add a catalyst 4. Increase the concentrations of reactants

What are the types of leukocytes?

1. Neutrophils 2. Basophils 3. Eosinophils 4. Lymphocytes 5. Monocytes 6. Macrophages

Two functions of sex organs

1. Production of gametes (sex cells) 2. Production of hormones

Functions of the skeletal system:

1. Support 2. Movement 3. Blood cell formation (hemopoiesis) 4. Protection of internal organs 5. Detoxification (removal of poisons) 6. Provision for muscle attachment 7. Mineral storage (particularly calcium and phosphorus)

Getting a Good Night's Sleep --------------------------------------

1. What is stated in the passage? Physical Illness can cause Insomnia. 2. Which is a solution to Insomnia? Developing good sleep and taking herbs and spices. 3. Sleep Apnea causes? Chronic illness 4. Why did the author write this passage? To explain insomnia and purpose some solutions for the condition. 5. Insomnia affects intellectual abilities because it Causes a deficit in memory, concentration, and attention.

Safe Driving

1. What is the best meaning of the word advocate as used in the forth sentence of this paragraph? -supporter 2.What is stated in this paragraph ? -each individuals driving behavior is the key to automobile safety 3.What is implied by this paragraph ? -Government action will not help if individual drivers do not cooperate 4.The author seems to think that? -all cars should be properly inspected 5.the authors motive for writing the paragraph seems to have been to? -get people personally involved with traffic safety

Getting a Good nights sleep

1. Why the author wrote this passage? -to explain insomnia& propose some sulotions for the condition 2.Sleep apena causes? -Chronic illness 3. Insomnia affects intellectual abilities because it -causes a deficit in memory, concentration, and attention 4.What is stated in the passage? -physical illness can cause chronic insomnia 5. Which is a solution for insomnia? -developing good sleep habits and taking herbs and spices

Which nursing intervention can be classified under complex physiologic domain according to the Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC) taxonomy? Select all that apply. 1. Interventions to restore tissue integrity 2. Interventions to optimize neurologic functions 3. Interventions to manage restricted body movements 4. Interventions to promote comfort using psychosocial techniques 5. Interventions to provide care before, during, and immediately after surgery

1. interventions to restore tissue integrity 2. interventions to optimize neurologic function 5. interventions to provide care before, during and after surgery

Four main layers of digestive tract (innermost to outer)

1. mucous membrane 2. submucous layer 3. muscular layer 4. the serous layer

The layers of the epidermis (outer to inner)

1. stratum corneum 2. stratum lucidum 3. stratum granulosum 4. stratum spinosum 5. stratum basale (where mitosis occurs)

The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?

1.5ml

steps of evidence-based practice (EBP) in order Asking the relevant clinical question Collecting the most relevant and best evidence Evaluating the practice decision Critically appraising the evidence collected Sharing the outcomes of EBP changes with others Integrating all evidence with one's clinical expertise and client preferences

1.Asking the relevant clinical question 2.Collecting the most relevant and best evidence 3.critically appraise the evidence gathered 4.Then integrate all the evidence into one's clinical expertise and client preferences and values to make a practice decision or change 5. share the outcomes of EBP changes with others.

1 centimeter

10 millimeters

1 centimeter = ___ millimeters

10 millimeters

100

1 meter

100 centimeters

1 meter = ____ centimeters

100 centimeters

1 kilogram

1000 grams

1 kilometer

1000 meters

1 gram

1000 milligrams

1 liter

1000 milliliters

Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5½ hours. How much heparin has the client received?

11,000 units

The nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

124 gtt/min.

A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVPB. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

150

1 pound

16 ounces

1 pound = ____ ounces

16 ounces

1 mile - yards

1760 yards

The spinal cord is how many inches long?

18 inches

An IV infusion terbutaline sulfate 5 mg in 500 ml of D5W, is infusing at a rate of 30 mcg/min prescribed for a client in premature labor. How many ml/hr should the nurse set the infusion pump?

180

The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the nurse plan to

1½ tablets

A nurse is caring for a client who is having diarrhea. To prevent an adverse outcome, the nurse should most closely monitor what patient data or assessment finding? 1. Skin condition 2. Fluid and electrolyte balance 3. Food intake 4. Fluid intake and output

Which statement best describes a diagnostic label? 1.It is a condition that responds to nursing interventions. 2.It describes the essence of the client's response to health conditions. 3. It describes the characteristics of the client's response to health conditions. 4.It is identified from the client's assessment data and associated with the diagnosis.

1 pint

2 cups

1 pint = ____ cups

2 cups

Urinary system consists of

2 kidneys 2 ureters 1 urinary bladder 1 urethra

What are the facial bones?

2 nasal bones 2 maxillary bones 2 zygomatic bones 1 mandible 2 palatine bones 1 vomer 2 lacrimal bones 2 inferior nasal conchae

mitochondrion and chloroplast

2 organelles that produce cell energy

1 quart

2 pints

1 quart = ___ pints

2 pints

1 ton = ____ pounds

2,000 pounds

1 ton

2000 pounds

The nurse prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The nurse should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?

100º Celsius = ____ Fahrenheit (the boiling point of water)

212º Farenheit

A registered nurse (RN) is performing a physical examination of a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which abnormal nail bed patterns can be expected in this client? 1. Spoon-shaped nails 2. Transverse depressions in nails 3. Softening of nail beds and flat nails 4. Red or brown linear streaks in nail bed

What is the appropriate blood pressure of a 12-year-old client? 1. 95/65 mm Hg 2. 105/65 mm Hg 3. 110/65 mm Hg 4. 119/75 mm Hg

Which therapeutic communication technique is useful when the nurse and a client have a conversation and the client begins to repeat the conversation to himself or herself? 1. Focusing 2. Clarifying 3. Paraphrasing 4. Summarizing

3 Focusing is a therapeutic communication technique that is useful when clients begin to repeat themselves. Clarification helps to check whether the client's understanding is accurate by restating an unclear or ambiguous message. Paraphrasing involves restating a message more briefly using one's own words. Summarizing is a concise review of key aspects of an interaction.

The nurse is developing a nursing diagnosis for a client after surgery. The nurse documents the "related to" factor as first time surgery. Which assessment activity enabled the nurse to derive this conclusion? 1. The nurse notes nonverbal signs of discomfort. 2. The nurse observes the client's position in bed. 3. The nurse asks the client to explain the surgery. 4. The nurse asks the client to rate the severity of pain.

3 The nurse must assess the client's knowledge about the surgery to determine if the client is aware of the outcome of surgery. The nurse observes for nonverbal signs of discomfort because some clients may not state that they are in pain. The nurse observes the client's positioning in bed to determine any abnormal signs such as discomfort or pain. The nurse asks the client to rate the severity of pain to determine a nursing diagnosis of pain related to a surgical wound.

When caring for a client with venous insufficiency, the nurse would implement which nursing measure? 1. Apply abdominal girdle as needed. 2. Remove compression stockings for client ambulation. 3. Elevate the client's legs above heart level. 4.Keep the upper extremities elevated

3 Venous insufficiency occurs when vascular damage impedes the body's ability to move blood from the legs toward the heart. This causes blood to pool in the legs, where it can cause swelling; pain; and, in some cases, leaking fluid in the skin or ulcers. Elevation of the legs above the level of the heart makes use of gravitational forces to drain blood through the veins toward the heart. Clients should not wear tight restrictive pants and should avoid wearing a girdle or garter, which may impede venous return. Compression stockings prevent blood pooling. Elevating the upper extremities will not decrease edema in lower extremities.

1 yard

3 feet

1 yard = ____ feet

3 feet

An older adult in an acute care setting is experiencing emotional stress because of a recent surgery. Which intervention would be most appropriate for the client? 1. Touch 2. Reminiscence 3. Reality orientation 4. Validation therapy

3. Orientation Reality A client who has undergone surgery may experience emotional stress leading to disorientation. Reality orientation is an appropriate intervention to minimize the client's disorientation. Touch is a therapeutic tool that helps to induce relaxation, provide physical and emotional comfort, and communicate interest. Reminiscence helps to bring meaning and understanding to the present and resolve current conflicts by recollecting the past. Validation therapy is a communication technique that can help a client in a confused state.

XXX

To provide relief at night for pressure ulcer's sleep in what position?

30 degree laterial position

1 ounce = ____ milliliters (cubic centimeters)

30 milliliters

1 ounce

30 milliliters (cubic centimeters)

How many pairs of spinal nerves exit the spinal cord?

Which positioning should be avoided while assessing a client with a history of asthma? 1. Sitting 2. Supine 3. Dorsal recumbent 4. Lateral recumbent

carbohydrates (polysaccharides) nucleic acids proteins and lipids

4 Basic organic macromolecules produced by anabolic reactions..

monosaccaride (glucose) amino acids fatty acids (glycerol) nucleotides.

4 building blocks involved in catabolic reactions..

1 gallon - quarts

4 quarts

1 gallon = ____ quarts

4 quarts

Which statement is true for collaborative problems in a client receiving healthcare? 1. They are the identification of a disease condition. 2. They include problems treated primarily by nurses. 3. They are identified by the primary healthcare provider. 4. They are identified by the nurse during the nursing diagnosis stage.

4. ID by nurse during diagnostic process The nurse assesses the client to gather information to reach diagnostic conclusions. Collaborative problems are identified by the nurse during this process. If the client's health problem requires treatment by other disciplines such as medical or physical therapy, the client has a collaborative problem. A medical diagnosis is the identification of a disease condition. Problems that require treatment by the nurse are referred to as nursing diagnoses. A medical diagnosis is identified by the primary healthcare provider based on the results of diagnostic tests.

The two absorption peaks in the absorption spectrum of chlorophylls are:

430-670nm

How many sacral vertebrae (fused to form the sacrum) are there?

1 mile = ____ feet

5,280 feet

L (line over it)

50,000

500

D (line over it)

500,000

What is the bladder capacity of the average adult?

500ML

1 mile - feet

5280 feet

Whole blood consists of?

55% plasma 45% formed elements

Mole

6.02 x 10^23

A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's intravenous infusion pump?

63 ml/hour.

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

What is the normal pH of blood?

7.25-7.35

The breaking of the terminal phosphate of the ATP molecule releases about how many K calories of energy?

7.3 K cal. Adenosine tri phosphate generally abbreviated as 'ATP' is a compound found in all living cells and is considered as the essential chemical of life. It plays a pivotal role in most biological energy transformations. 'P' in 'ATP' stands for the entire phosphate group. The second and third phosphate represent the so called ''high energy'' bonds. After being broken by hydrolysis, a large number of energy is released as compared to other bonds in the ATP molecule. The high energy 'P' bond enables the cell to accumulate a great quantity of energy in a very small space and keeps it ready for use as soon as it is required

The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run in over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10 pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The nurse plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

83 gtt/min.

Molarity

= moles of solute/L in solution

B The client's affected hip joint following a hemiarthroplasty (partial hip replacement) is at risk of dislocation for 6 months to a year following the procedure. Hip precautions to prevent dislocation include placing a pillow between the knees to maintain abduction of the hips (B). Clients should be instructed to avoid bending at the waist (A), to seek assistance for both standing and walking until they are stable on a walker or cane (C), and to take pain medication 20 to 30 minutes prior to physical therapy sessions, rather than waiting until the pain level is high after therapy.

A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan? A. "In 8 weeks you will be able to bend at the waist to reach items on the floor." B. "Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation." C. "It is safe to use a walker to get out of bed, but you need assistance when walking." D. "Take pain medication 30 minutes after your physical therapy sessions."

A client is receiving a cephalosporin antibiotic IV and complains of pain and irritation at the infusion site. The nurse observes erythema, swelling, and a red streak along the vessel above the IV access site. Which action should the nurse take at this time? A. Administer the medication more rapidly using the same IV site. B. Initiate an alternate site for the IV infusion of the medication. C. Notify the healthcare provider before administering the next dose. D. Give the client a PRN dose of aspirin while the medication infuses.

A cephalosporin antibiotic that is administered IV may cause vessel irritation. Rotating the infusion site minimizes the risk of thrombophlebitis, so an alternate infusion site should be initiated (B) before administering the next dose. Rapid administration (A) of intravenous cephalosporins can potentiate vessel irritation and increase the risk of thrombophlebitis. (C) is not necessary to initiate an alternative IV site. Although aspirin has antiinflammatory actions, (D) is not indicated. Correct Answer: B

A female client asks the nurse to find someone who can translate into her native language her concerns about a treatment. Which action should the nurse take? A. Explain that anyone who speaks her language can answer her questions. B. Provide a translator only in an emergency situation. C. Ask a family member or friend of the client to translate. D. Request and document the name of the certified translator.

A certified translator should be requested to ensure the exchanged information is reliable and unaltered. To adhere to legal requirements in some states, the name of the translator should be documented (D). Client information that is translated is private and protected under HIPAA rules, so (A) is not the best action. Although an emergency situation may require extenuating circumstances (B), a translator should be provided in most situations. Family members may skew information and not translate the exact information, so (C) is not preferred. Correct Answer: D

D To ensure that a therapeutic level of medication is maintained, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible, and revise the administration schedule accordingly to prevent dangerously increasing the level of the medication in the bloodstream (D). The nurse should document the reason for the late dose, but (A and C) are not warranted. (B) could result in increased blood levels of the drug.

A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement? A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form. B. Administer Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule in the morning. C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose. D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

B A cephalosporin antibiotic that is administered IV may cause vessel irritation. Rotating the infusion site minimizes the risk of thrombophlebitis, so an alternate infusion site should be initiated (B) before administering the next dose. Rapid administration (A) of intravenous cephalosporins can potentiate vessel irritation and increase the risk for thrombophlebitis. (C) is not necessary to initiate an alternative IV site. Although aspirin has antiinflammatory actions, (D) is not indicated.

A client is receiving a cephalosporin antibiotic IV and complains of pain and irritation at the infusion site. The nurse observes erythema, swelling, and a red streak along the vessel above the IV access site. Which action should the nurse take at this time? A. Administer medication more rapidly using the same IV site. B. Initiate an alternative site for the IV infusion of the medication. C. Notify the healthcare provider before administering the next dose. D. Give the client a PRN dose of aspirin while the medication infuses.

C The results are all within normal range (C). No changes are needed (A, B, and D).

A client who has been NPO for 3 days is receiving an infusion of D5W 0.45 normal saline (NS) with potassium chloride (KCl) 20 mEq at 83 ml/hour. The client's eight-hour urine output is 400 ml, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is 15 mg/dl, lungs are clear bilaterally, serum glucose is 120 mg/dl, and the serum potassium is 3.7 mEq/L. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Notify the healthcare provider and request to change the IV infusion to hypertonic D10W B. Decrease the infusion rate of the current IV and report to healthcare provider C. Document in the medical record that these are normal findings and are expected outcomes D. Obtain potassium chloride 20 mEq in anticipation of a prescription to add to present IV

A client who is 5'5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is most important for the nurse to include during the preoperative assessment? A. "What is your daily calorie consumption?" B. "What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take?" C. "Do you feel that you are overweight?" D. "Will a clear liquid diet be okay after surgery?"

B Blood transfusions (B) in the Jehovah's Witness religion. Judaism prohibits (A). Buddhism forbids the use of (C) and drugs. Many of these sects are vegetarian (D), but the direct impact on nursing care is (B).

A client who is a Jehovah's Witness is admitted to the nursing unit. Which concern should the nurse have for planning care in terms of the client's beliefs? A. Autopsy of the body is prohibited. B. Blood transfusions are forbidden. C. Alcohol in any form is not allowed. D. A vegetarian diet must be followed.

A The most effective management of pain is achieved using an around-the-clock schedule that provides analgesic medications on a regular basis (A) and in a timely manner. Analgesics are less effective if pain persists until it is severe, so an analgesic medication should not be administered before the client's pain peaks (B). Providing comfort if is a priority for the client who is dying, but sedation that impairs the clients ability to interact and experience the time before life ends should be minimized (C). Offering a medication-free period allows the serum drug level to fall, which is not an effective method to manage chronic pain (D).

A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for thee administration of analgesics B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe. C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli. D. Offer a medication-free period so that the client can do daily activities.

D All interventions should be implemented prior to administering blood, but (D) has the highest priority. Any time blood is administered, the nurse should ensure the accuracy of the blood type match in order to prevent a possible hemolytic reaction.

A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level. B. Prime the tubing and prepare a blood pump set-up. C. Monitor vital signs q15 minutes for the first hour. D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.

A Food such as eggs and milk (A) are high biologic proteins which are allowed because they are complete proteins and supply the essential amino acids that are necessary for growth and repair. Although a low-protein diet is followed (B), some protein is essential. Orange juice is rich in potassium, and should not be encouraged (C). The client has made a good diet choice, so (D) is not necessary.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) selects a scrambled egg for his breakfast. What action should the nurse take? A. Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein. B. Remind the client that protein in the diet should be avoided. C. Suggest that the client also select orange juice, to promote absorption. D. Encourage the client to attend classes on dietary management of CKD.

A. An oxygen saturation below 90% indicates inadequate oxygenation. First, the client should be assisted to return to bed (A) to minimize oxygen demands. Ambulation increases aeration of the lungs to prevent pooling of the respiratory secretions, but the client's activity at this time is depleting oxygen saturation of the blood, so (B) is contraindicated. Increased activity increases respiratory effort, and oxygen may be necessary to continue ambulation (C), but first the client should be returned to bed to rest. Oxygen saturation levels at different sites should be evaluated after the client returns to bed (D).

A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Assist the ambulating client back to the bed. B. Encourage the client to ambulate to resolve pneumonia. C. Obtain a prescription for portable oxygen while ambulating. D. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe.

B. Pain and diminished pulse volume are signs of compartment syndrome, which can progress to complete loss of peripheral pulse in the extremity. Compartment syndrome occurs when external pressure (usually from a cast), or internal pressure (usually from subcutaneous infused fluid), exceeds capillary perfusion pressure resulting in decreased blood flow to the extremity. (A) should not be pursued until physical causes of pain are ruled out. (C) is of less priority than determining the effects of the edema on circulation and nerve function. Further assessment of the client's ecchymosis can be delayed until the signs of edema and compression that suggest compartment syndrome have been examined (D).

A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding stronger pain medications. What initial action is most important for the nurse to take? A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction. B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema. D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area.

B Pain and diminished pulse volume (B) are signs of compartment syndrome, which can progress to complete loss of peripheral pulse in the extremity. Compartment syndrome occurs when external pressure (usually from a cast), or internal pressure (usually from subcutaneous infused fluid), exceeds capillary perfusion pressure resulting in decreased blood flow to the extremity. (A) should not be pursued until physical causes of the pain are ruled out. (C) is of less priority than determining the effects of the edema on circulation and nerve function. Further assessment of the client's ecchymosis can be delayed until the signs of edema and compression that suggest compartment syndrome have been examined.

A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding stronger pain medications. What initial action is most important for the nurse to take? A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction. B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema. D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area.

What is the most important reason for starting intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults?

A decreased flow rate could result in the formation of a thrombosis.

Deficit

A deficiency or lack of something

DEPENDENT CLAUSE

A dependent clause cannot stand on its own, so it may also be referred to as a "weak" clause. "A dependent clause (also called a subordinate clause) is a clause that cannot stand alone, because something about it implies that there is more to come. On its own, a dependent clause is left hanging, its meaning incomplete. It must be combined with an independent clause in order to form a complete sentence.

Adverbial clause

A dependent clause that modifies an a verb and can be placed at the beginning or end of a sentence. i.e. Whenever the doctor operates, he leaves VIRTUALLY no scar.

D A certified translator should be requested to ensure the exchanged information is reliable and unaltered. To adhere to legal requirements in some states, the name of the translator should be documented (D). Client information that is translated is private and protected under HIPAA rules, so (A) is not the best action. Although an emergency situation may require extenuating circumstances (B), a translator should be provided in most situations. Family members may skew information and not translate the exact information, so (C) is not preferred.

A female client asks the nurse to find someone who can translate into her native language her concerns about a treatment. Which action should the nurse take? A. Explain that anyone who speaks her language can answer her questions B. Provide a translator only in an emergency situation C. Ask a family member or friend of the client to translate D. Request and document the name of the certified translator

B The immediate priority is to determine if the tube is functioning correctly, which would then relieve the client's nausea. The least invasive intervention, (B), should be attempted first, followed by (A and C), unless either of these interventions is contraindicated. If these measures are unsuccessful, the client may require an antiemetic (D).

A female client with a nasogastric tube attached to low suction states that she is nauseated. The nurse assesses that there has been no drainage through the nasogastric tube in the last two hours. What action should the nurse take first? A. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with sterile normal saline. B. Reposition the client on her side. C. Advance the nasogastric tube an additional five centimeters. D. Administer an IV antiemetic prescribed for PRN use.

Impulse

A force that is applied to an object over time, Ft. It can be thought of as a change in momentum, the mass times the change in velocity.

The nurse is using a genogram while conducting a client's health assessment and past medical history. What information should the genogram provide? A. Genetic and familial health disorders. B. Chronic health problems. C. Reason for seeking health care. D. Undetected disorders.

A genogram that is used during the health assessment process identifies genetic and familial health disorders (A). It may not identify the client's chronic health problems (B), so it is not a reason to seek health care (C). A genogram is not a diagnostic tool detect disorders (D), such as those based on pathological findings or DNA. Correct Answer: A

Gerund

A gerund is a word derived from a verb but that functions as a noun; a non-infinitive verb ending in -ing. Singing is a gerund derived from the verb sing.

Sentence

A group of words that expresses a complete though

C Coughing, vomiting, and suctioning can precipitate displacement of the tip of the small bore feeding tube upward into the esophagus, placing the client at increased risk for aspiration. Checking the sample of fluid withdrawn from the tube (after clearing the tube with 30 ml of air) for acidic (stomach) or alkaline (intestine) values is a more sensitive method for these tubes, and the nurse should assess tube placement in this way prior to taking any other action (C). (A and B) are not indicated. The auscultating method (D) has been found to be unreliable for small-bore feeding tube.

A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had severe coughing a few minutes ago, but feels fine now. What is the best action for the nurse to take? A. Record the coughing incident. No further action is required at this time. B. Stop the feeding, explain to the family why it is being stopped, and notify the healthcare provider. C. After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube. D. Inject 30 ml of air into the tube while auscultating the epigastrium for gurgling.

The nurse is assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein?

A lactating woman nursing her 3-day-old infant.

Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule (B) to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the risk for adverse effects. (A, C, and D) do not provide around-the-clock dosing. Food may alter the absorption of the medication (D).

A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since, at the time of discharge, timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow? A. 9 am, 1 pm, 5 pm B. 8 am, 4 pm, midnight C. before breakfast, before lunch, before dinner D. with breakfast, with lunch, with dinner

Absolute Value

A number with vertical lines on either side of it and is representative of the distance from zero. This value is ALWAYS a positive number. Ex. | -3 |= 3 and | 3 |= 3

A Medications should be mixed separately (A) to prevent clumping. (B, C, and D) are not indicated.

A nurse is preparing to give medications through a nasogastric feeding tube. Which nursing action should prevent complications during administration? A. Mix each medication individually. B. Use sterile gloves for the procedure. C. Monitor vital signs before giving medications. D. Mix all medications together to facilitate administration.

Participle Phrase

A part of a sentence that contains a verb and a participle. When it introduces and modifies a sentence, it's separated from the rest of a sentence by a comma. i.e. Pleased by the doctor's complimentary words, the nurse smiled.

Semicolon

A part of punctuation that is not used as much as a comma, but used to: A) Separate independent clauses that are not joined by a conjunction, such as and or but i.e. Working the night shift is exhausting; working the morning one can be also B) Separate independent clauses when on e or both of them contains a comma i.e. After the intravenous needle was in, the nurse planned to add a unit of blood; but she had to go check the patients blood type first. C) To separate independent clauses when the second clause begins with a conjunctive adverb such as however, nevertheless, moreover, consequently, or for example

The nurse plans to obtain health assessment information from a primary source. Which option is a primary source for the completion of the health assessment? A. Client. B. Healthcare provider. C. A family member. D. Previous medical records.

A primary source of information for a health assessment is the client (A). (B, C, and D) are considered secondary sources about the client's health history, but other details, such as subjective data, can only be provided directly form the client. Correct Answer: A

Contraindication

A reason why something is not advisable or why it should not be done

C When a client refuses a treatment, the exact words of the client regarding the client's refusal of care should be documented in a narrative format (C). (A, B, and D) do not address the concepts of informatics and legal issues.

A resident in a skilled nursing facility for short-term rehabilitation after a hip replacement tells the nurse, "I don't want any more blood taken for those useless tests." Which narrative documentation should the nurse enter in the client's medical record? A. Healthcare provider notified of failure to collect specimens for prescribed blood studies B. Blood specimens not collected because client no longer wants tests performed C. Healthcare provider notified of client's refusal to have blood specimens collected for testing D. Client irritable, uncooperative, and refuses to have blood collected. Healthcare provider notified.

A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge. Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his wound care after discharge? The client A. asks relevant questions regarding the dressing change. B. states he will be able to complete the wound care regimen. C. demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly. D. has all the necessary supplies for wound care.

A return demonstration of a procedure (C) provides an objective assessment of the client's ability to perform a task, while (A and B) are subjective measures. (D) is important, but is less of a priority prior to discharge than the nurse's assessment of the client's ability to complete the wound care. Correct Answer: C

Use of a semicolon

A semicolon is used to link clauses connected by conjunctive adverbs or transitional phrases to connect closely related ideas. The transitional phrase "as a result" indicates the need to use a semicolon, and it should be used after the first idea.

Noun Clause

A sentence part that contains a subject and a verb that functions as a noun. This kind of clause can be the subject of the sentence, or it can receive the action of the verb i.e. Where have the patient's charts gone is anyone's guess The noun clause functions as the subject

Isotonic Solution

A solution in which the concentration of solutes is essentially equal to that of the cell which resides in the solution

Equilibrium

A state in which reactants are forming products at the same rate that products are forming reactants. (A + B <-> C+D)

vague pronoun

A vague pronoun occurs when a reader cannot tell to which noun the pronoun in an example is referring.

Preposition

A word that shows the relationship of a noun or pronoun to some other word in the sentence

Pronoun

A word that takes place of a noun, another pronoun, or a group of words acting as a noun

Adverb

A word, phrase, or clause that modifies a verb, an adjective, or another adverb

B Caffeine, sugars, and alcohol can lead to increased levels of anxiety, so a nutritional history (B) should be obtained first so that health teaching can be initiated if indicated.

A young mother of three children complains of increased anxiety during her annual physical exam. What information should the nurse obtain first? A. Sexual activity patterns B. Nutritional history C. Leisure activities D. Financial stressors

A nurse is preparing to give medications through a nasogastric feeding tube. Which nursing action should prevent complications during administration?

A) Mix each medication individually Medications should be mixed separately (A) to prevent clumping.

Identify the dependent clause in this sentence: The mother dog left her bed as soon as the puppies were asleep. A. As soon as the puppies were asleep B. Left her bed as soon as C. The puppies were asleep D. The mother dog left her bed.

A. As soon as the puppies were asleep

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: The nurse asked the patient to choose ate items from the menu that are his favorites. A. Ate items B. To choose C. His favorites D. That are

A. Ate items

Which data indicates need to evaluate further for altered nutrition A. Conjuncival Sac is pale B. Blanching in fingernail bed C. Skin over sternum tents when pinched Lips are dry and cracked

A. Conjuncival Sac is pale C. Skin over sternum tents when pinched Lips are dry and cracked

The ______ quickly ran through the dark woods to get back to the house. A. Girl B. Love C. President of the United States D. Marching band

A. Girl

If they _________ that the weather was going to be so bad, they wouldn't have gone to the beach. A. Had known B. Were knowing C. Knew D. Known

A. Had known

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: After the policeman had ran for several miles, he finally caught up with the man who had stolen the purse. A. Had ran B. Several miles C. Who D. Up with

A. Had ran

Make this a complete sentence: ______ as she watched me from the kitchen window. A. I ran outside as fast as I could B. Because I ran fast C. And I skipped D. Feeling happy

A. I ran outside as fast as I could

Which sentence is grammatically correct? A. It was I who won. B. It was me who lost. C. The runner was her. D. The winner was me.

A. It was I who won.

The accident _______ if the motorist had obeyed the speed limit sign. A. Never would have happened B. Never would happen C. Never happened D. Would happen never

A. Never would have happened

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: Before his death at age 82, comedian Rodney Dangerfield's motto was, "I don't get no respect." A. No B. Was C. At D. Before

A. No

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: The nurse's notes in the medical record indicate the patients pain was severe. A. Patients B. Nurse's C. Notes D. Was

A. Patients

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: It seem like the sun never shines on Saturday. A. Seem B. It C. Never D. Shine

A. Seem

It is required that he ________ the payment immediately. A. Send B. Sent C. Sends D. Sended

A. Send

Which sentence is grammatically correct? A. Somebody left his or her jacket on the train. B. Several lost his or her keys on this train. C. Does everyone have their train tickets ready? D. Is everyone ready for their ice cream sundaes?

A. Somebody left his or her jacket on the train.

Which word is used correctly? Which procedure for giving injections were explained thoroughly to the student nurses. A. Were B. Thoroughly C. Student D. Procedure

A. Were

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: Of the many people what she interviewed; she chose the one with the most experience. A. What B. Experience C. With D. Of the

A. What

During shift change report, the nurse receives report that a client has abnormal heart sounds. Which placement of the stethoscope should the nurse use to hear the client's hear sounds? A. Place the stethoscope bell at random points on the posterior chest. B. Use the stethoscope bell over the valvular areas of the anterior chest. C. Move the diaphragm of the stethoscope over the left anterior chest, D. Position the diaphragm of the stethoscope at Erb's point on the chest.

Abdominal heart sounds are best heard with the bell of the stethoscope, which picks up lower-pitched sounds, that is placed at points on the anterior chest (B). (A, C, and D) do not provide the best assessment of abdominal heart valve sounds. Correct Answer: B

Cranial nerve VI

Abducens - turns eye laterally

Which critical thinking skill does the nurse associate with the concept of maturity? Eagerness to acquire knowledge Being tolerant of different view Trust in own reasoning processes Ability to reflect on own judgments

Ability to reflect on own judgments

Superior

Above

Which response by a client with a nursing diagnosis of "Spiritual distress," indicates to the nurse that a desired outcome measure has been met? A. Express concern about the meaning and importance of life. B. Remains angry at God for the continuation of the illness. C. Accepts that punishment from God is not related to illness. D. Refuses to participate in religious rituals that have no meaning.

Acceptance that she is not being punished by God indicates a desired outcome (C) for some degree of resolution of spiritual distress. (A, B, and D) do not support the concept of grief, loss, and cultural/spiritual acceptance. Correct Answer: C

Which response by a client with a nursing diagnosis of Spiritual distress, indicates to the nurse that a desired outcome measure has been met?

Accepts that punishment from God is not related to illness Acceptance that she is not being punished by God indicates a desired outcome

Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly.

During a physical assessment, a female client begins to cry. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

Acknowledge the client's distress and tell her it is all right to cry.

include exocytosis and endocytosis. Involves transferring substances from areas of lower concentration to higher concentration. REQUIRES ENERGY in the form of ATP.

Active Transport

Untoward

Adverse or negative

is very common and oxygen is the final electron acceptor. Results in more ATP than anaerobic.

Aerobic Respiration

Affect versus Effect

Affect: Used as a verb that means "to influence or to change" (example: the chemotherapy affected [changed] my daily routine) Effect: May be used as a noun or a verb As a noun, it means "result or outcome" (example: The chemotherapy had a strange effect [result] on me). As a verb, it means "to bring about or accomplish" (As a result of the chemotherapy, I was able to effect [bring about] a number of changes in my life)

After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube.

Golgi Bodies

After modifying and packaging proteins and other macromolecules in the cell, this can take on the process of exocytosis so that material can be secreted from the cell.

All interventions should be implemented prior to administering blood, but (D) has the highest priority. Any time blood is administered, the nurse should ensure the accuracy of the blood type match in order to prevent a possible hemolytic reaction. Correct Answer: D

Ball and socket joint

Allow for more movement including some type of circular motion (Ex: arm, hip, shoulder)

1. The Passage answers which of the following questions? What were the origins of Jazz and how did it differ from other forms of music? 2. According to the passage, Jazz originated in New Orleans 3. The word "welded" in line 6 is closest in meaning to bound 4. Which of the following distinguished Jazz as a new form of musical expression? improvisation 5. The word "skeletal" in line 15 is closest in meaning to framework 6. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? many early Jazz musicians had little formal musical training 7. The word "menial" in line 18 is closest in meaning to degrading 8. According to the passage, which of the following belonged to the second wave of New Orleans Jazz musicians? Joe Oliver 9. All the following are true EXCEPT Joe Oliver is generally considered to be the first real Jazz musician 10. The word "its" in line 21 refers to earlier music 11. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage? "improvisation" (line 12)

All the Jazz Jazz has been called "the art of expression set to music", and "America's great contribution to music". It has functioned as popular art and enjoyed periods of widespread public response, in the "jazz age" of the 1920s, in the "swing era" of the late 1930s and in the peak popularity of modern jazz in the late 1950s. The standard legend about Jazz is that it originated around the end of the 19th century in New Orleans and moved up the Mississippi River to Memphis, St. Louis, and finally to Chicago. It welded together the elements of Ragtime, marching band music, and the Blues. However, the influences of what led to those early sounds goes back to tribal African drum beats and European musical structures. Buddy Bolden, a New Orleans barber and cornet player, is generally considered to have been the first real Jazz musician, around 1891. What made Jazz significantly different from the other earlier forms of music was the use of improvisation. Jazz displayed a break from traditional music where a composer wrote an entire piece of music on paper, leaving the musicians to break their backs playing exactly what was written on the score. In a Jazz piece, however, the song is simply a starting point, or sort of skeletal guide for the Jazz musicians to improvise around. Many of the early Jazz musicians were bad sight readers and some couldn't even read music at all. These early musicians couldn't make money very much and were stuck working menial jobs to make a living. The second wave of New Orleans Jazz musicians included such memorable players as Joe Oliver, Kid Ory, and Jelly Roll Morton. These men formed small bands and took the music of earlier musicians, improved its complexity, and gained greater success. This music is known as "hot Jazz" due to the enormously fast speeds and rhythmic drive. A young cornet player by the name of Louis Armstrong was discovered by Joe Oliver in New Orleans. He soon grew up to become one of the greatest and most successful musicians of all time, and later one of the biggest stars in the world. The impact of Armstrong and other talented early Jazz musicians changed the way we look at music.

Amount versus Number

Amount: Used when referring to things in bulk (The nurse has a huge amount of paperwork) Number: Used when referring to individual countable units (The nurse had a number of charts to complete)

Saliva contains an enzymes called/

Amylase

D 180 ml/hr 500 ml/5 mg x 1 mg/1000 mcg x 30 mcg/min x 60 min/hr

An IV infusion terbutaline sulfate 5 mg in 500 ml of D5W, infusing at a rate of 30 mcg/min, is prescribed for a client in premature labor. How many ml/hr should the nurse set the infusion pump? A. 30 B. 60 C. 120 D. 180

C The four elements of malpractice are: breach of duty owed, failure to adhere to the recognized standard of care, direct causation of injury, and evidence of actual injury. The hip fracture was the actual injury and the standard of care was "frequent monitoring." (C) implies that duty was owed and the injury occurred while the nurse was in charge of the client's care There is no evidence of negligence in (A, B, and D).

An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which nurse is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgement? A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes. B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall. C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred. D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.

D To avoid shearing forces when repositioning, the client should be lifted gently across a surface (D). Reddened areas should not be massaged (A) since this may increase damage to already traumatized skin. To control pain and muscle spasms, active range of motion (B) may be limited on the affected leg. To position described in (C) is contraindicated for a client with a fractured left hip.

An elderly client with a fractured left hip is on strict bedrest. Which nursing measure is essential to the client's nursing care? A. Massage any reddened areas for at least five minutes. B. Encourage active range of motion exercises on the extremities. C. Position the client laterally, prone, and dorsally in sequence. D. Gently lift the client when moving into a desired position.

B The client should be positioned in a semi-sitting (Fowler's) (B) position during feeding to decrease the occurrence of aspiration. A gastrostomy tube, known as a PEG tube, due to placement by a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy procedure, is inserted directly into the stomach through an incision in the abdomen for long-term administration of nutrition and hydration in the debilitated client. In (A and/or C), the client is placed on the abdomen, an unsafe position for feeding. Placing the client in (D) increases the risk of aspiration.

An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for administration of the bolus tube feedings? A. Prone B. Fowler's C. Sims' D. Supine

Imperative

An imperative sentence makes a command or request (example: Go to the store)

What action should the nurse implement when accessing an implemented infusion port for a client who receives long term IV medications? A. Cleanse the site with iodine solution. B. insert a Huber-point needle into the port. C. Flush tubing with 5 mL of normal saline. D. Place a sterile dressing over the port.

An implanted infusion port needs to be accessed using a Huber-point needle (B) (non-coring) to prevent damage to the self-sealing septum of the port. (A, C, and D) are not necessary when accessing an implanted infusion port. Corrected Answer: B

Symptom

An indication of a problem

Manifestation

An indication or sign of a condition

indirect object

An indirect object answers the question "to whom?", "for whom?", "for what?".

Interrogative

An interrogative sentence asks a question (example: Did you go to the store?)

Newton's First Law

An object at rest will stay at rest, an object that is moving will stay moving unless disturbed by an unbalanced force. It takes a force to move an object or change its direction of motion. (Involves inertia)

D Immobility, constant contact with bed clothing, and excessive heat and moisture in areas where air flow is limited contributes to bacterial and fungal growth, which increases the risk for rashes (D), skin breakdown and teh development of pressure ulcers (A, B, and C) do not address the concepts of inflammation and tissue integrity.

An older client who is a resident in a long term care facility has been bedridden for a week. Which finding should the nurse identify as a client risk factor for pressure ulcers? A. Generalized dry skin B. Localized dry skin on lower extremities C. Red flush over entire skin surface D. Rashes in the axillary, groin and skin fold regions.

An oxygen saturation below 90% indicates inadequate oxygenation. First, the client should be assisted to return to bed (A) to minimize oxygen demands. Ambulation increases aeration of the lungs to prevent pooling of respiratory secretions, but the client's activity at this time is depleting oxygen saturation of the blood, so (B) is contraindicated. Increased activity increases respiratory effort, and oxygen may be necessary to continue ambulation (C), but first the client should return to bed to rest. Oxygen saturation levels at different sites should be evaluated after the client returns to bed (D). Correct Answer: A

C. The left sided Sims' position allows the enema solution to follow the anatomical course of the intestines and allows the best overall results, so the UAP should reposition the client in the Sims' position, which distributes the client's weight to the anterior ilium (C). (A) is inaccurate. (B and D) should be implemented once the client is positioned.

An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position prior to administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP? A. Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenburg. B. Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castille soap. C. Reposition in Sim's position with the client's weight on the anterior ilium. D. Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level.

The final electron acceptor is NOT oxygen.

Anaerobic Respiration

Adenohypophysis

Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland

Five portions of the large intestine

Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, and the rectum

Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement for a male client who is experiencing urinary retention?

Assess for bladder distention.

A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Assist the ambulating client back to the bed.

Endocrine System

Assists the nervous system in homeostasis and plays important roles in growth and sexual maturation

Cerebrum

Associated with movement and sensory input

D. Documentation should occur immediately after any component of the nursing process, so assessments should be entered into the client's medical record as readily as the findings are obtained (D). (A, B, and C) do not address the concepts of legal recommendations for information management and informatics.

At the beginning of the shift, the nurse assesses a client who is admitted from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). When should the nurse document the client's findings? A. At the beginning, middle and end of the shift. B. After the client priorities are identified for the development of the nursing care plan. C. At the end of the shift so full attention can be given to the client's needs. D. Immediately after the assessments are completed.

C (C) displays sensitivity and understanding without judging the client. (A) is judgemental in that it is telling the client how she feels and is also insensitive. (B) would give the client a change to talk, but is also demanding and demeaning. (D) displays a positive action, but, because the nurse's personal support is not offered, this response could be interpreted as dismissing the client and avoiding the problem.

At the time of the first dressing change, the client refuses to look at her mastectomy incision. The nurse tells the client that the incision is healing well, but the client refuses to talk about it. What would be an appropriate response to this client's silence? A. "It is normal to feel angry and depressed, but the sooner you deal with this surgery, the better you will feel." B. "Looking at your incision can be frightening, but facing this fear is a necessary part of your recovery." C. "It is OK if you don't want to talk about your surgery. I will be available when you are ready." D. "I will ask a woman who has had a mastectomy to come by and share her experiences with you."

The nurse is teaching a client with numerous allergies how to avoid allergens. Which instruction should be included in this teaching plan?

Avoid any types of sprays, powders, and perfumes.

Distal

Away from the point of attachment

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: When you add sugar to it, your cup of coffee becomes not only sweet, also fattening. A. Also B. Becomes C. To D. Cup of

B. Becomes

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: He ate for pieces of fried chicken at dinner, and no vegetables. A. Ate B. For C. No D. At

B. For

She was so mad at her boyfriend, she _______ on him when he called. A. Terminated B. Hung up C. Yelled D. Hang up

B. Hung up

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: It's true that children depend in their parents for food, clothing and shelter. A. It's B. In C. Clothing D. That

B. In

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: Long before his death, Pablo Picasso had become one of the most important artist in history. A. In B. Long before C. Had became D. The most

B. Long before

It was a beautiful performance. We all watched her from a balcony in the theater as she danced gracefully across the ______ stage. A. Hugely B. Massive C. Stunningly D. Muddy

B. Massive

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: The physician started to perform the operation, but the patient was not yet completely under anesthesia. A. Started to B. Perform C. Was not D. Completely under

B. Perform

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: Based on the principals of asepsis, the nurse should consider a sterile packet below waist level to be contaminated. A. To be B. Principals C. Asepsis D. Waist

B. Principals

He tried to remember the names of all the people ______ were there that night. A. Whom B. That C. Whose D. Which

B. That

The dress ______ you wore at my birthday party is my favorite. A. When B. That C. Their D. Which

B. That

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: The most important things in my life are making money, traveling abroad, and to live well. A. In B. To live C. The most D. Are

B. To live

Bad versus Badly

Bad: Use bad an an adjective before nouns (He is a bad teacher) and after linking verbs (That smells bad) to modify the subject Badly: Use badly as an adverb to modify an action verb (The student behaved badly in class)

Bolus

Ball of food

Where does the spinal cord extends from?

Base of the skull (foramen magnum) to the first or second lumbar vertebra (L1 or L2)

Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your planned exercise program.

After completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem, which action should the nurse perform next? A. Determine the etiology of the problem. B. Prioritize nursing care interventions. C. Plan appropriate interventions. D. Collaborate with the client to set goals.

Before planning care, the nurse should determine the etiology, or cause, of the problem (A), because this will help determine (B, C, and D). Correct Answer: A

Systemic arteries

Begin with aorta, branches to all parts of the body

Paroxysmal

Beginning suddenly or abruptly; convulsive

Dependent Clause

Begins with a subordinating conjunction (Box 4-2) and does not express a complete thought and therefore cannot stand along as a sentence (e.g., As soon as the students were seated)

Electron Transport Chain

Begins with the oxidation of the NADH molecules to produce oxygen and to produce water. For every glucose molecule: 28-32 ATP produced.

Symmetric (symmetrical)

Being equal or the same in size, shape, and relative position

Inferior

Below

A client who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive is admitted to a surgical unit after an orthopedic procedure. The nurse should institute appropriate precautions with the awareness that HIV is highly transmissible through what means? Select all that apply. Feces Semen Urine Sweat tears

Blood semen

A client who is a Jehovah's Witness is admitted to the nursing unit. Which concern should the nurse have for planning care in terms of the client's beliefs? A. Autopsy of the body is prohibited. B. Blood transfusions are forbidden. C. Alcohol use in any form is not allowed. D. A vegetarian diet must be followed.

Blood transfusions are forbidden (B) in the Jehovah's Witness religion. Judaism prohibits (A). Buddhism forbids the use of (C) and drugs. Many of these sects are vegetarian (D), but the direct impact on nursing care is (B). Correct Answer: B

A client who is a Jehovah's Witness is admitted to the nursing unit. Which concern should the nurse have for planning care in terms of the client's beliefs?

Blood transfusions are forbidden.

Which assessment data would provide the most accurate determination of proper placement of a nasogastric tube? A. Aspirating gastric contents to assure a pH value of 4 or less. B. Hearing air pass in the stomach after injecting air into the tubing. C. Examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted. D. Checking the remaining length of tubing to ensure that the correct length was inserted.

Both (A and B) are methods used to determine proper placement of the NG tubing. However, the best indicator that the tubing is properly placed is (C). (D) is not an indicator of proper placement. Correct Answer: C

Concise

Brief, to the point

Bring versus Take

Bring: conveys action toward the speaker - to carry from a distant place to a near place (Please bring your textbooks to class) Take: Conveys action away from the speaker - to carry from a near place to a distant place (Please take your textbooks home)

Which sentence is grammatically correct? A. Gosh, I be ordering a V-8! B. Gosh, I coulda had a V-8! C. Gosh, I could have had a V-8! D. Gosh, I should ordered a V-8!

C. Gosh, I could have had a V-8!

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: The sales man recommended that he keeps his receipt for at least a month. A. That B. For C. Keeps D. At least

C. Keeps

Which sentence is grammatically correct? A. The dog catches the frisbee good. B. The band did good during the half time show. C. Sarah plays her new saxophone well. D. The band that played before ours was well.

C. Sarah plays her new saxophone well.

_________ are very ancient people. A. The chineses B. Chineses C. The Chinese D. Chinese

C. The Chinese

Identify the incomplete sentence. A. He wept. B. Everything worked out all right. C. While they were sleeping. D. Babies are sure cute and cuddly.

C. While they were sleeping.

A young mother of three children complains of increased anxiety during her annual physical exam. What information should the nurse obtain first? A. Sexual activity patterns. B. Nutritional history. C. Leisure activities. D. Financial stressors.

Caffeine, sugars, and alcohol can lead to increased levels of anxiety, so a nutritional history (C) should be obtained first so that health teaching can be initiated if indicated. (A and C) can be used for stress management. Though (D) can be a source of anxiety, a nutritional history should be obtained first. Correct Answer: B

Can versus May (Could versus Might)

Can/Could: Can and could imply ability or power (I can make an A in that class) May/Might: May and might imply permission (You may leave early or I may leave early)

Potential

Capable of occurring or likely to occur

Larger molecules break down into smaller, simpler molecules. RELEASE ENERGY

Catabolic Reaction

most important component of the cell, contributing to protection, communication, and the passage of substances into and out of the cell.

Cell membrane (plasma membrane)

Osteoblasts

Cells that form compact bone; when they become fixed in the dense bone matrix, they stop dividing but continue to maintain bone tissue as osteocytes

refers to a set of metabolic reactions that convert chemical bonds into energy stored in the form of ATP. Processes involved include glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, the electron transport chain and chemiosmosis. Two forms of respiration: anaerobic and aerobic

Cellular Respiration

Nervous system may be divided structurally into:

Central nervous system (CNS) & peripheral nervous system (PNS)

Involved in cellular division. Consists of nine groups of three microtubules.

Centriole

comprised of a pair of centrioles and surrounded by protein, involved in mitosis and the cell cycle.

Centrosome

Major parts of the brain

Cerebrum, cerebellum and the medulla oblongata

Hormones

Chemical messengers that control the growth, differentiation, and metabolism of specific target cells

Which snack food is best for the nurse to provide a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?

Chocolate pudding.

1. Converting means running/jumping 2. Recommends attending the circus 3. There was a great extravaganza 4. The roman stayed extravaganza 5. Gave child an experience

Circus ----------------------------------------

On admission, a client presents a signed living will that includes a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) prescription. When the client stops breathing, the nurse performs cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and successfully revives the client. What legal issues could be brought against the nurse? A. Assault. B. Battery. C. Malpractice. D. False imprisonment.

Civil laws protect individual rights and include intentional torts, such as assault (an intentional threat to engage in harmful contact with another) or battery (unwanted touching). Performing any procedure against the client's wishes can potentially pose a legal issue, such as battery (B), even if the procedure is of questionable benefit to the client. (A, C, and D) are not examples against the client's request. Correct Answer: B

The nurse plans to obtain health assessment information from a primary source. Which option is a primary source for the completion of the health assessment?

Client A primary source of information for a health assessment is the client (A). (B, C, and D) are considered secondary sources about the client's health history, but other details, such as subjective data, can only be provided directly from the client.

During the admission interview, which technique is most efficient for the nurse to use when obtaining information about signs and symptoms of a client's primary health problem?

Closed-ended questions Lay descriptors of health problems can be vague and nonspecific. To efficiently obtain specific information, the nurse should use closed-ended questions (C) that focus on common signs and symptoms about a client's health problem

1. Fact in the passage Coffee can cause digestion, heart attack 2. Disliked by CNN news 3. Causes of insomnia-sleeplessness 4. Positive to negative 5. Further research (flip flop)

Coffee ---------------------------------------

A client with chronic renal failure selects a scrambled egg for his breakfast. What action should the nurse take?

Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein.

The nurse notices that the Hispanic parents of a toddler who returns from surgery offer the child only the broth that comes on the clear liquid tray. Other liquids, including gelatin, popsicles, and juices, remain untouched. What explanation is most appropriate for this behavior? A. The belief is held that the "evil eye" enters the child if anything cold is ingested. B. After surgery the child probably has refused all foods except broth. C. Eating broth strengthens the child's innate energy called "chi." D. Hot remedies restore balance after surgery, which is considered a "cold" condition.

Common parental practices and health beliefs among Hispanic, Chinese, Filipino, and Arab cultures classify diseases, areas of the body, and illnesses as "hot" or "cold" and must be balanced to maintain health and prevent illness. The perception that surgery is a "cold" condition implies that only "hot" remedies, such as soup, should be used to restore the healthy balance within the body, so (D) is the correct interpretation. (A, B, and C) are not correct interpretations of the noted behavior. "Chi" is a Chinese belief that an innate energy enters and leaves the body via certain locations and pathways and maintains health. The "evil eye," or "mal ojo," is believed by many cultures to be related to the balance of health and illness but is unrelated to dietary practice. Correct Answer: D

The passageways between the nasal cavities and the alveoli:

Conduct gases to and from the lungs

The nurse notices that the mother of a 9-year-old Vietnamese child always looks at the floor when she talks to the nurse. What action should the nurse take?

Continue asking the mother questions about the child.

Ongoing

Continuous

Vasoconstriction

Contraction

What is the parietal lobe of the brain responsible for?

Controlling body/spatial placement and responses to touch

What is the frontal lobe of the brain responsible for?

Controls cognition and motor movement

Medulla oblongata

Controls many vital functions such as respiration and heart rate

When conducting an admission assessment, the nurse should ask the client about the use of complimentary healing practices. Which statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices? A. Complimentary healing practices interfere with the efficacy of the medical model of treatment. B. Conventional medications are likely to interact with folk remedies and cause adverse effects. C. Many complimentary healing practices can be used in conjunction with conventional practices. D. Conventional medical practices will ultimately replace the use of complimentary healing practices.

Conventional approaches to health care can be depersonalizing and often fail to take into consideration all aspects of an individual, including body, mind, and spirit. Often complimentary healing practices can be used in conjunction with conventional medical practices (C), rather than interfering (A) with conventional practices, causing adverse effects (B), or replacing conventional medical care (D). Correct Answer: C

Blood is supplied to the myocardium by the?

Coronary arteries

A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago, but feels fine now. What action is best for the nurse to take? A. Record the coughing incident. No further action is required at this time. B. Stop the feeding, explain to the family why it is being stopped, and notify the healthcare provider. C. After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube. D. Inject 30 ml of air into the tube while auscultating the epigastrium for gurgling.

Coughing, vomiting, and suctioning can precipitate displacement of the tip of the small bore feeding tube upward into the esophagus, placing the client at increased risk for aspiration. Checking the sample of fluid withdrawn from the tube (after clearing the tube with 30 ml of air) for acidic (stomach) or alkaline (intestine) values is a more sensitive method for these tubes, and the nurse should assess tube placement in this way prior to taking any other action (C). (A and B) are not indicated. The auscultating method (D) has been found to be unreliable for small-bore feeding tubes. Correct Answer: C

A Sub-Saharan African widowed immigrant woman lives with her deceased husband's brother and his family, which includes the brother-in-law's children and the widow's adult children. Each family member speaks fluent English. Surgery was recommended for the client. What is the best plan to obtain consent for surgery for this client? A. Obtain an interpreter to explain the procedure to the client. B. Encourage the client to make her own decision regarding surgery. C. Ask the family members to provide a clarification of the surgeon's explanation to the client. D. Tell the surgeon that the brother-in-law will decide after explanation of the proposed surgery is provided to him and the widow.

Customary law in some rural sub-Saharan countries encompasses wife inheritance and polygamy; the widow becomes the inherited wife of her husband's brother. In those rural areas women live in a patriarchal family where decisions are made by men. Most likely, the brother-in-law will make the decision for his inherited wife, so (D) provides the surgeon with culturally sensitive information. (A) all family members speak fluent English therefore there is no need for translation. It is culturally insensitive to encourage the woman to go against her wishes and her cultural worldview, as in (B). Family members are more likely to misinterpret medical information (C). Correct Answer: D

An Arab-American woman, who is a devout traditional Muslim, lives with her married son's family, which includes several adult children and their children. What is the best plan to obtain consent for surgery for this client?

D) Tell the surgeon that the son will decide after explanation of the proposed surgery is provided. Traditional Muslim women live in a patriarchal family where decisions are made by men. Most likely, the son will make the decision for his mother, so

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: He had already finished studying at an university when he was called to join the army. A. Was called B. Studying C. Had already D. An

D. An

Which phrase should be moved to the end of the sentence? The painter decided to use the urn as his subject with flowers on the table. A. With flowers B. The urn C. The painter decided D. As his subject

D. As his subject

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: The car that he had seen at the Ford dealer was the one that he final decided to buy. A. Was B. Had seen C. To buy D. Final

D. Final

A synonym is a word ______ a meaning similar to another word. A. Who have B. That have C. Who is having D. Having

D. Having

Which sentence is grammatically correct? A. He done good on his diet. B. He done well on his diet. C. He did good on his diet. D. He did well on his diet.

D. He did well on his diet.

Select the sentence in which legal is used as an adjective. A. It is legal to wear green on March 17th. B. He did not know that jay walking was not legal. C. It is legal to jay walk. D. He is a legal resident of the United States.

D. He is a legal resident of the United States.

My mother and _______ went shopping for clothes yesterday. A. Us B. Me C. Myself D. I

D. I

She went to the party _______ her dislike for the host. A. Although B. Even though C. Despite of D. In spite of

D. In spite of

In which sentence is the form fast used as an adverb? A. The fast cars drove over the bridge. B. The batter could not hit the fast pitch. C. The clock on the wall is ten minutes fast. D. The cars on the overpass moved fast.

D. The cars on the overpass moved fast.

Which sentence is grammatically correct? A. Their comes a time when one must choose between right and wrong. B. Their waiting for you. C. The patient told their nurse, "put the flowers on that table overtheir." D. The students looked at their test scores.

D. The students looked at their test scores.

After having robbed the bank, ___________. A. The bank president offered a reward for the thief. B. The thief's wife became very nervous. C. The police searched for the thief for many weeks. D. The thief hid at the house of a friend.

D. The thief hid at the house of a friend.

John Kennedy was a senator before he _______ President in 1960. A. Was electing B. Elected C. Had elected D. Was elected

D. Was elected

Which substance in the teeth continues to form throughout life and supports the enamel?

DENTIN

During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Provide additional coffee on the client's breakfast tray. B. Exchange the client's grape juice for cranberry juice. C. Bring the client additional fruit at mid-morning. D. Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water.

Dark amber urine is characteristic of fluid volume deficit, and the client should be encouraged to increase fluid intake (D). Caffeine, however, is a diuretic (A), and may worsen the fluid volume deficit. Any type of juice will be beneficial (B), since the client is not dysuric, a sign of an urinary tract infection. The client needs to restore fluid volume more than solid foods (C). Correct Answer: D

contain all the material for the regeneration of the cell, as well as all instructions for the function of the cell.

Define Chromosomes

ability of a molecule to stay bonded or attracted to another molecule of the same substance. Water running off a newly waxed car. " Attracts to itself"-self absorbed

Define Cohesion

An idea that evolution proceeds at a steady pace and doesn't include sudden developments of new species or features from one generation to the next.

Define Gradualism

a series of of reactions in which the product of one reaction is the substrate for the next. There pathways are dependent upon enzymes that act as catalysts. HIGH TO LOW ENERGY

Define Metabolic Pathways

all of the chemical reactions that take place within a living organism. These chemical changes convert nutrients to energy and macromolecules.

Define Metabolism

Traits that are passed down from generation to generation for survival advantages.

Define Natural Selection

An idea in evolution that involves long periods without change (stasis) accompanied by brief period of rapid change.

Define Punctuated Equilibrium

Large and complex, and play an important role in cell structure and function.

Define macromolecules

During a visit to the outpatient clinic, the nurse assesses a client with severe osteoarthritis using a goniometer. Which finding should the nurse expect to measure?

Degree of flexion and extension of the client's knee joint.

Contingent

Dependent

An African-American grandmother tells the nurse that her 4-year-old grandson is suffering with "miseries." Based on this statement, which focused assessment should the nurse conduct? A. Inquire about the source and type of pain. B. Examine the nose for congestion and discharge. C. Take vital signs for temperature elevation. D. Explore the abdominal area for distension.

Different cultural groups often have their own terms for health conditions. African-American clients may refer to pain as "the miseries. " Based on understanding this term, the nurse should conduct a focused assessment on the source and type of pain (A). (B, C, and D) are important, but do not focus on "miseries" (pain). Correct Answer: A

Frontal plane

Divides front and back of the body

Sagittal plane

Divides right and left of the body

Transverse plane

Divides top and bottom of the body

Document in the medical record that these normal findings are expected outcomes The results are all within normal range.(C) No changes are needed.

At the beginning of the shift, the nurse assesses a client who is admitted from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). When should the nurse document the client's findings? A. A the beginning, middle, and end of the shift. B. After client priorities are identified for the development of the nursing care plan. C. At the end of the shift so full attention can be given to the client's needs. D. Immediately after the assessments are completed.

Documentation should occur immediately after any component of the nursing process, so assessments should be entered in the client's medical record as readily as findings are obtained (D). (A, B, and C) do not address the concepts of legal recommendations for information management and informatics. Correct Answer: D

Depth

Downward measurement from a surface

B Abnormal heart sounds are best heard with the bell of the stethoscope, which picks up lower-pitched sounds, that is placed at points on the anterior chest (B). (A, C and D) do not provide the best assessment of abnormal heart valve sounds.

During shift change report, the nurse receives report that a client has abnormal heart sounds. Which placement of the stethoscope should the nurse use to hear the client's heart sounds? A. Place the stethoscope bell at random points on the posterior chest B. Use the stethoscope bell over valvular areas of the anterior chest C. Move the diaphragm of the stethoscope over the left anterior chest D. Position the diaphragm of the stethoscope at Erb's point on the chest.

C. Lay descriptors of health problem can be vague and nonspecific. To efficiently obtain specific information, the nurse should use close-ended questions (C) that focus on common signs and symptoms of client's health problem. (A, B, and D) are used when therapeutically interacting and should be used after specific information is obtained from the client.

During the admission interview, which technique is most efficient for the nurse to use when obtaining information about signs and symptoms of a client's primary health problem? A. Restatement of responses. B. Open-ended questions. C. Close-ended questions. D. Problem-seeking responses.

A When a client begins to cry and express feelings, a therapeutic nursing intervention is to listen and show interest as the client expresses feelings (A). (B) is not a therapeutic option and the nurse does not know the dynamics of their relationships. (C) is not indicated at this time. (D) is non-therapeutic and offers false hope.

During the daily nursing assessment, a client begins to cry and states that the majority of family and friends have stopped calling and visiting. What action should the nurse take? A. Listen and show interest as the client expresses these feelings. B. Reinforce that this behavior means they were not true friends. C. Ask the healthcare provider for a psychiatric consult. D. Continue with the assessment and tell the client not to worry.

D Dark amber urine is characteristic of fluid volume deficit, and the client should be encouraged to increase fluid intake (D). Caffeine, however, is a diuretic (A), and may worsen the fluid volume deficit. Any type of juice will be beneficial (B), since the client is not dysuric, a sign of an urinary tract infection. The client needs to restore fluid volume more than solid foods (C).

During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Provide additional coffee on the client's breakfast tray B. Exchange the client's grape juice for cranberry juice C. Bring the client additional fruit at mid-morning D. Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water

1. Which statement from the passage is a fact? Each state casts their electoral vote during a presidential election 2. The author's reason for writing this piece seems to be to Teach the reader 3. Give one vote 4. Have an understanding of the electoral college 5. Congressional election

Electoral College The Electoral College has nothing to do with college and contains no students. The Electoral College consists of votes that each state acquires based on the number of representatives it has in Congress. Each state has two electoral votes because each state has two senators. The remaining electoral votes are determined by the number of Congressmen, the number of which is based on the population of the state established by the Census taken each decade. During the presidential election, most states cast all their electoral votes for the candidate who wins the popular vote in that state. It's all very confusing, but the founding fathers know what they were doing. By having and using the Electoral College candidates' campaign in every state, but just because they win the popular vote across the country doesn't mean they will always win the election. Case in point, in election 2000, Al Gore won the popular vote across the country, but George W. Bush won more electoral votes. Therefore, he became our 43rd president.

Which has more long-lasting and wide-spread effects in the coordination and control of the body: nervous or endocrine system?

Endocrine

is the ingestion by erythrocytes of large food particles into a cell, and can be categorized as phagocytosis (ingestion of particle), pinocytosis (ingestion os a liquid) or receptor mediated. occur when a substance is too large to cross a cell membrane.

Endocytosis

Where does the fertilized egg implant itself?

Endometrium

has ribosomes attached. Responsible for protein synthesis and membrane production

Endoplasmic Reticulum- rough

functions as detoxification and metabolism of multiple molecules

Endoplasmic Reticulum-smooth

What are the formed elements?

Erythrocytes (RBC) Leukocytes (WBC) Platelets

What is produced by the follicle and initiates the preparation of the endometrium of the uterus for pregnancy?

Estrogen

have nucleus, more complex, membrane bound orangeades. Eukaryotic cells divide by mitosis and are diploid.

Eukaryotic Cells

Which professional standard does the nurse feel is most important for critical thinking? Logical thinking Evaluation criteria Accurate knowledge Relevant information

Evaluation Criteria

B Macules are localized flat skin discolorations less than 1 cm in diameter. However, when recording such a finding the nurse should describe the appearance (B) rather than simply naming the condition. (A) identifies vesicles - fluid filled blisters- an incorrect description given the symptoms listed. (C) identifies papules -- solid elevated lesions, again not correctly identifying the symptoms. (D) identifies petechiae -- pinpoint red to purple skin discolorations that do not itch, again an incorrect identification.

Examination of a client complaining of itching on his right arm reveals a rash made up of multiple flat areas of redness ranging from pinpoint to 0.5 cm in diameter. How should the nurse record this finding? A. Multiple vesicular areas surrounded by redness, ranging in size from 1 mm to 0.5 cm. B. Localized red rash comprised of flat areas, pinpoint to 0.5 cm in diameter. C. Several areas of red, papular lesions from pinpoint to 0.5 cm in size. D. Localized petechial areas, ranging in size from pinpoint to 0.5 cm in diameter.

Which assessment data would provide the most accurate determination of proper placement of a nasogastric tube?

Examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted.

adding and subtracting negatives

Example: 6 + (−3) = 3 6−(−3) = 6 + 3 = 9 5+(−7) = 5 − 7 = −2 6−(+3) = 6 − 3 = 3 14−(−4) = 14 + 4 = 18 -197-(-644)=

Internal respiration

Exchange of gases between the blood and the body cells

Void

Excrete, or expel urine

XXVI

Explanation: In Roman numerals, an "X" represents the number 10, a "V" represents 5, and "I" is representative of the number 1. In this problem we have 2 X's, 1 V, and two II's, which means we have two 10's (20), one 5, and two 1's (2). Written mathematically, 20 + 5 + 2 = 27

1. When taking a subjective examination, you will find questions like. Definitions 2. Compared to objective exams, essay test contain Fewer questions 3. From the article the reader can conclude that a test containing true-false questions is called Objective 4. Compared to objective exams, subjective tests contain Fewer questions 5. In answering subjective questions the student should Keep it brief and specific 6. When taking an exam, you should divide your time To allow more time for the difficult questions 7. In the above passage, the word "subjective" refers to test questions that Require you to write your own answer

Exams Subjective exams measure your ability in several areas. Besides recall information, you must be able to realize content logically and intelligently express yourself in a clearly understood manner. Subjective test provide opportunity for students to show their broad knowledge of a subjective area. Answers may be in the form of paragraphs or lengthy essays. When your review for an essay exam, concentrate on main ideas rather than details. Since essay tests are less to a few questions, they are likely to deal with more important ideas of a subject. Prepare a list of question you think might be asked. Write an answer to each of your questions. Rather than writing complete sentence down your thoughts in outline form. Doing so will help you organize the information so that you can express yourself clearly. When you take the test, read through all the questions before you start to write. Allot time for each question, spending more time for questions worth the most points. Read each question carefully to determine exactly what they are asked. Pay attention to words such as define, illustrate, explain, list, compare, and contrast. Each work requires a different type of response. Write a brief outline of your answer on scrap paper or the back of the test. Make sure you include all the important ideas that are within the limits of the question. In other words, do not write more than is asked for each answer. When you write your answer, keep it specific and as brief as possible. In the introductory sentence it is often helpful to make a general statement that includes important points addressed in each question. Such a topic sentence serves as a framework for your answer. Then use your outline to develop the main point and subtopics. Add substance to your answer by including as many facts as possible to support your answer. Check your paper before you submit it. Look for mistakes in grammar, spelling, sentence structure, and punctuation. Unless you are certain an answer is wrong, do not change it. Your answer is an educated guess and is usually your best chance of answering correctly.

The nurse notices that the mother of a 9-year-old Vietnamese child always looks at the floor when she talks to the nurse. What action should the nurse take? A. Talk directly to the child instead of the mother. B. Continue asking the mother questions about the child. C. Ask another nurse to interview the mother now. D. Tell the mother politely to look at you when answering.

Eye contact is a culturally-influenced form of non-verbal communication. In some non-Western cultures, such as the Vietnamese culture, a client or family member may avoid eye contact as a form of respect, so the nurse should continue to ask the mother questions about the child (B). (A, C, and D) are not indicated. Correct Answer: B

Cranial nerve VII

Facial - controls most facial expressions & secretion of tears & saliva & taste

when specific molecules are transported by a specific carrier protein. Glucose and amino acids are examples of substances transported by carrier proteins. HIGH TO LOW-PASSIVE

Facilitated Diffusion

1. What did the author intend? To share some little-known facts about the one-dollar bill 2. Why is making counterfeit copies of the one-dollar bill difficult? The formula for the ink used is kept a secret 3. What is implied by the message, The One Dollar Bill? It is a fabulously historical document 4. In the third sentence of the passage, the word minute means? Extremely small 5. We often accidentally wash dollar bills, why is that not a problem? Because the dollar bills are made of cotton and linen, so they wash easily

Facts About the One Dollar Bill ----------------------------------------

Farther versus Further

Farther: Refers to a measurable distance (The walk to class is much farther than I expected) Further: Refers to a figurative distance and means "to a greater degree" or "to a greater extent" (i will have to study further to make better grades). Also means "moreover" (Further/Furthermore, let me tell you something) and "in addition to" (The student had nothing further to say)

Bones of the lower extremity

Femur (thigh bone), the tibia, fibula, tarsals (ankle bones), metatarsals (bones of the foot), and the phalanges

is another process by which energy is converted.

Fermentation

Fewer versus Less

Fewer: Refers to number - things that can be counted or numbered - and used with plural nouns (The professor has fewer students in his morning class than he has in his afternoon class) Less: Refers to degree or amount - things in bulk or in the abstract - and is used with singular nouns (Fewer patients mean less work for the staff). Less is also used when referring to numeric or statistical terms (It's less than 2 miles to school. he scored less than 90 on the test)

Inner layer of the skin dermis contains what?

Fibrous connective tissue with blood vessels, sensory nerve endings, hair follicles and glands

When evaluating a client's plan of care, the nurse determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the nurse implement first? A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis. B. Note which actions were not implemented. C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan. D. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to make changes.

First, the nurse reviews which actions in the original plan were not implemented (B) in order to determine why the original plan did not produce the desired outcome. Appropriate revisions can then be made, which may include revising the expected outcome, or identifying a new nursing diagnosis (A). (C) may be needed if the nursing actions were unsuccessful, or were unable to be implemented. (D) other members of the healthcare team may be necessary to collaborate changes once the nurse determines why the original plan did not produce the desired outcome. Correct Answer: B

Tail-like structures, that hero the cell movie. Similar to cilia, but longer and not as many.

Flagella

The nurse is administering medications through a nasogastric tube (NGT) which is connected to suction. After ensuring correct tube placement, what action should the nurse take next?

Flush the tube with water.

Predicate Adjective

Follows a linking verb and helps to explain the subject (e.g., My professors are wonderful)

A client with chronic renal failure selects a scrambled egg for his breakfast. What action should the nurse take? A. Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein. B. Remind the client that protein in the diet should be avoided. C. Suggest that the client also select orange juice, to promote absorption. D. Encourage the client to attend classes on dietary management of CRF.

Foods such as eggs and milk (A) are high biologic proteins which are allowed because they are complete proteins and supply the essential amino acids that are necessary for growth and cell repair. Although a low-protein diet is followed (B), some protein is essential. Orange juice is rich in potassium, and should not be encouraged (C). The client has made a good diet choice, so (D) is not necessary. Correct Answer: A

d = 2r

Formula for diameter

An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings though a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for administration of the bolus tube feedings?

Fowler's.

An elderly male client who suffered a cerebral vascular accident is receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube. The nurse knows that the best position for this client during administration of the feedings is

Fowler's.

Where are the formed elements produced?

From stem cells in the red bone marrow

The nurse is completing a mental assessment for a client who is demonstrating slow thought processes, personality changes, and emotional lability. Which area of the brain controls these neuro-cognitive functions?

Frontal lobe

Which lobe of the brain is associated with judgement, planning, impulse control, and social behavior?

Frontal. In quick summary, the frontal lobe of the brain is involved in all of the above, plus things like motor function, problem solving, and language. The temporal lobe is involved with processing auditory information. The parietal lobe processes taste, touch, and temperature information, and the occipital lobe deals with visual processing.

If fertilization occurs, the corpus lutetium remains

Functional

Nephrons

Functional units of the kidney

What does the os coaxe consist of?

Fused ilium, ischium and pubic

Giga

G- 10^9 1 billion times

The triplet code of CAT in DNA is represented as ______ in mRNA and ______ in tRNA.

GUA, CAU CAT will be transcribed as GUA in mRNA GUA will be translated into CAU mRNA AND tRNA C=G A=U T=A G=C U=A A=U DNA C=G G=C A=T T=A

is a portion of DNA that identifies how traits are expressed and passed on in an organism.

Gene

The nurse is using a genogram while conducting a client's health assessment and past medical history. What information should the genogram provide?

Genetic and familial health disorders A genogram that is used during the health assessment process identifies genetic and familial health disorders (A). It may not identify the client's chronic health problems

An elderly client with a fractured left hip is on strict bedrest. Which nursing measure is essential to the client's nursing care?

Gently lift the client when moving into a desired position.

What is in the appendicular skeleton?

Girdles and limbs

A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement?

Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics.

Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Oral

Given through or affecting the mouth

Filtration process occurs through the

Glomerulus in Bowman's capsule of the nephron

Filtration of the blood occurs through the

Glomerulus under the force of BP

Cranial nerve IX

Glossopharyngeal - taste & senses carotid blood pressure

Which action is most important for the nurse to implement when donning sterile gloves? A. Maintain thumb at a ninety degree angle. B. Hold hands with fingers down while gloving. C. Keep gloved hands above the elbows. D. Put the glove on the dominant hand first.

Gloved hands held below waist level are considered unsterile (C). (A and B) are not essential to maintaining asepsis. While it may be helpful to put the glove on the dominant hand first, it is not necessary to ensure asepsis (D). Correct Answer: C

What type of PPE do you need when taking care of someone with MRSA?

Gloves, gown, googles, face mask

First step; it is the conversion of glucose to pyruvate. It takes place in the cytosol of the cell and produces two molecules of ATP, 2 molecules of pyruvate and 2 molecules of NADH.

Glycolysis

What principal components are associcated with nursing time managaement Select all that apply: Autonomy Goal setting priority setting intruption control Right communication

Goal setting priority setting interuption control

involved in synthesizing materials such as proteins that are transported out of the cell. Transports materials from the ER throughout cell.

Golgi apparatus

Good versus Well

Good: An adjective. Use good before nouns (He did a good job) and after linking verbs (She smells good) to modify the subject Well: Usually an adverb. When modifying a verb, use the adverb well (She plays softball well). Well is used as an adjective only when describing someone's health (She is getting well)

Hypothalamus

Governs the pituitary and is in turn controlled by the feedback of hormones in the blood

Clause

Group of words that has a subject and a predicate

Humans are haploids, means they contain only half of the organism's genetic information ( 23 chromosomes). There are ONE SET of chromosomes.

Haploid

Cast

Hard protective device applied to protect a broken bone while the bone heals

Long bones

Has an irregular epiphysis at each end, composed mainly of spongy (cancellous bone), and a shaft or diaphysis, composed mainly of compact bone

Pronouns

He, she, and they are examples of...?

Healthcare provider notified of client's refusal to have blood specimens collected for testing.

Hear versus Here

Hear: a verb meaning "to recognize sound by means of the ear" (Can you hear me now?) Here: most commonly used as an adverb meaning "at or in this place" (The test will be here tomorrow)

What do the cilia in the upper respiratory tubules do?

Help to trap debris and keep foreign substances from entering the lungs

Most of the oxygen carried in the blood is bound to

Hemoglobin in RBCs

A is the correct calculation. 20,000 units/500 ml = 40 units (the amount of units in one ml of fluid). 40 units/ml x 50 ml/hr = 2000 units/hour. 5.5 x 2,000 = 11,000 units

Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5.5 hours. How much heparin has the client received? A. 11,000 units B. 13,000 units C. 15,000 units D. 17,000 units

adverbial phrase

"Like a chicken" is describing how, or to what extent, the person ran. This is the job of an adverb. Since the adverb is not a single word, we call it an adverbial phrase.

Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5½ hours. How much heparin has the client received? A. 11,000 units. B. 13,000 units. C. 15,000 units. D. 17,000 units.

(A) is the correct calculation: 20,000 units/500 ml = 40 units (the amount of units in one ml of fluid). 40 units/ml x 50 ml/hr = 2,000 units/hour (1,000 units in 1/2 hour). 5.5 x 2,000 = 11,000 (A). OR, multiply 5 x 2,000 and add the 1/2 hour amount of 1,000 to reach the same conclusion = 11,000 units. Correct Answer: A

The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? A. 1 ml. B. 1.5 ml. C. 1.75 ml. D. 2 ml.

(B) is the correct calculation: Dosage on hand/amount on hand = Dosage desired/x amount. 20 mg : 2 ml = 15 mg : x . 20x = 30. x = 30/20; = 1½ or 1.5 ml. Correct Answer: B

A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's intravenous infusion pump? A. 13 ml/hour. B. 63 ml/hour. C. 80 ml/hour. D. 125 ml/hour.

(B) is the correct calculation: To calculate this problem correctly, remember that the dose of KCl is not used in the calculation. 250 ml/4 hours = 63 ml/hour. Correct Answer: B

Celsius to Fahrenheit formula

(C × 9/5) + 32

(C) displays sensitivity and understanding without judging the client. (A) is judgmental in that it is telling the client how she feels and is also insensitive. (B) would give the client a chance to talk, but is also demanding and demeaning. (D) displays a positive action, but, because the nurse's personal support is not offered, this response could be interpreted as dismissing the client and avoiding the problem. Correct Answer: C

The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the nurse plan to administer? A. ½ tablet. B. 1 tablet. C. 1½ tablets. D. 2 tablets.

Twenty minutes after beginning a heat application, the client states that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the nurse? A. "That means you have derived the maximum benefit, and the heat can be removed." B. "Your blood vessels are becoming dilated and removing the heat from the site." C. "We will increase the temperature 5 degrees when the pad no longer feels warm." D. "The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat."

(D) describes thermal adaptation, which occurs 20 to 30 minutes after heat application. (A and B) provide false information. (C) is not based on a knowledge of physiology and is an unsafe action that may harm the client. Correct Answer: D

(D) is the correct calculation: Convert lbs to kg: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Determine the dosage for this client: 5 mcg × 82.73 = 413.65 mcg/min. Determine how many mcg are contained in 1 ml: 250/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg per ml. The client is to receive 413.65 mcg/min, and there are 200 mcg/ml; so the client is to receive 2.07ml per minute. With a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, then 60 × 2.07 = 124.28 gtt/min (D) OR, using dimensional analysis: gtt/min = 60 gtt/ml X 250 ml/50 mg X 1 mg/1,000 mcg X 5 mcg/kg/min X 1 kg/2.2 lbs X 182 lbs. Correct Answer: D

The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the nurse to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client? A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving. B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest. C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting. D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot.

(D) uses the client's stronger side, the right side, for weight-bearing during the transfer, and is the safest approach to take. (A, B, and C) are unsafe methods of transfer and include the use of poor body mechanics by the caregiver. Correct Answer: D

) Battery Civil laws protect individual rights and include intentional torts, such as assault (an intentional threat to engage in harmful contact with another) or battery (unwanted touching). Performing any procedure against the client's wishes can potentially poise a legal issue, such as battery (B), even if the procedure is of questionable benefit to the client. (A, C, and D) are not examples against the client's request

Leukocytes

-5 types -can be distinguished on size, appearance of the nucleus, staining properties, and presence or absence of visible cytoplasmic granules. -active in phagocytosis (neutrophils and monocytes) -antibody formation (lymphocytes

What does whole blood consist of?

-55% plasma -45% formed elements (erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets). -all of the formed elements are produced from stem cells in red bone marrow

Nucleic Acids

-DNA and RNA

What is the difference between DNA and RNA

-DNA has one less oxygen than RNA

Hierarchic Organizational System

-Kingdom (largest and most inclusive) -Phylum -Class -Order -Family -Genus -Species (most restrictive)

Apocrine Sweat Glands

-Mainly in armpits and groin area, secretion contains bits of cytoplasm from the secreting cells. This cell debris attracts bacteria, and the presence of the bacteria on the skin results in body odor.

Actin myosin sliding

-Nervous stimulation from motor neurons causes the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Calcium ions attach to inhibitory proteins on the actin filaments within the cell, moving them aside so that cross-bridges can form between actin and myosin filaments. Using energy supplied by ATP, the filaments slide together to produce contraction.

Adverbs

-They provide more details in a sentence and modify verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs, but not nouns. -They tell you when or how something happened or how something looks or feels. - Many end in -ly and one is the word not Ex. Mrs. Cooper's car accident REGRETTABLY left her with multiple abrasions, and she felt MISERABLE.

Lithotomy Position

-Where the patient lies on their back and places feet in stirrups

The heart

-a double pump that sends blood to the lungs oxygenation through the pulmonary circuit and to the remainder of the body through the systemic circuit. -blood is received by the atria and is pumped into circulation by the ventricles. -valves between the atria and ventricles include the tricuspid on the right side of the heart and bicuspid on the left. -semilunar valves are found at the entrances of the pulmonary trunk and the aorta. -blood is supplied to the heart muscle (myocardium) by the coronary arteries. -blood drains from the myocardium directly into the right atrium through the coronary sinus.

Solution

-a homogenous mixture of 2 or more substances.

Beta Radiation

-a product of the decomposition of a neutron or proton. It is actually composed of high energy, high speed electrons that began as neutrons or protons. These particles are either negatively charges (electrons) or positively charged (positrons). Because they have virtually no mass, beta particles can be stopped a thin sheet of aluminum foil, lucite, or plastic.

Combustion Reaction

-a self sustaining, exothermic (creates heat) chemical reaction where oxygen and a fuel compound such as hydrocarbon react. -(g) stands for gas 2C2H6 (g) + 2O2 (g) -> 4CO2 (g) + 6H2O (g)

Adjective

-a word that describes a noun or pronoun

Catalysts

-accelerates a reaction by reducing the activation energy or the amount of energy necessary for a reaction to occur. (metals and proteins (enzymes))

Platelets

-active in blood clotting

DNA

-adenine bonds with thymine -guanine bonds with cytosine

bases

-alkaline compounds are substances that denature proteins -hydrogen or proton acceptors and generally have a hydroxide (OH) group in the makeup of the molecule

PNS

-all other neurons in the body

Metaphase

-all the chromosomes aligning along what is called the metaphase plate, or the center of the cell.

Transcription

-an RNA strand, complementary to the original strand of DNA , is produced. The piece of genetic material produced is called mRNA. The RNA strand has nitrogenous bases identical to those in DNA with the exception of uracil, which is substituted for thymine

Large Intestine

-ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum

Neutrophils

-attack and destroy bacteria and viruses

Anaphase

-begins when chromosomes start to separate. In this phase, the chromatids are considered separate chromosomes.

How could water be boiled at room temperature?

-by lowering the pressure

Amphoteric

-can act as both an acid and base

Increasing the Concentration

-cause more chance collisions between the reactants and produce more products. By analogy, if there are more cars on the road, there are likely to be more accidents or collisions. The more reactants there are the faster and more often they will bump into each-other and react or become products.

Increasing Temperature

-causes the particles to have a greater kinetic energy, thereby causing them to move around faster, increasing their chances of contact and the energy with which they collide. Contact is when the chemical reactions occur.

Prophase

-chromosome visibly separate, and each duplicated chromosome has has two noticeable sister chromatids

Telophase

-chromosomes gather on either side of the now separating cell. This is the end of mitosis

Steroids

-component of membranes, precursors to hormones and drugs

Protein

-composed of a carbon atom bonded with four other groups; an amine group (NH2), a carboxyl group (COOH), a hydrogen and a R group. -R group is different for each AA

Nerve Tissue

-composed of neurons and connective tissue cells (neuroglia).

Phospholipids

-consist of 2 fatty acids bonded to a phosphate group. -phosphate group is charged (polar and soluble in water) -hydrocarbon tail (nonpolar and nonsoluble in water)

Cellular Membrane

most important component, protects, communicates and passage of substances into and out of the cell. Phospholipid bilayer with proteins, cholesterol, and glycoproteins.

CNS towards the effector organ such as muscles, glands, and digestive organs (leave through ventral horns of spinal chord)

motor (efferent) neurons transmit nerve pulses away from what and to where?

Motor movement is a function of the

motor cortex and speech production (housed in Broca's area)

flexors, extensors, abductor, adductor

muscles can be classified according to the movements they elicit. what are the 4 movements?

Each muscle consists of?

myofibrils

nano

n- 10^-9 1 billionth of

are protein hormones; meaning they remain at the cell surface and act through a second messenger, usually a substance called adenosine monophosphate (AMP)

nonsteroid hormones do what?

In developing a plan of care for a client with dementia, the nurse should remember that confusion in the elderly

often follows relocation to new surroundings.

Which cells are responsible for bone formation?

osteoblasts

Chlorophyll molecules are found only in

photosynthesis, which allows plants to absorb energy from light.

The ultimate end product of glucose breakdown in glycolysis is:

pyruvic acid

Which of the following statements correctly describes the function of cell division in unicellular organisms?

reproduce

CNS (enter through dorsal horns of spinal chord)

sensor (afferent) neurons transmit nerve pulses toward where?

Spinal Cord White Matter

serves as the main conduit of nerve signals from the brain to the body

prime mover: the muscle that executes a given movement antagonist: the the muscle that produces the opposite movement

skeletal muscles must work in pairs. this refers to what two parts?

Which salivary gland produces mucin?

sublingual

two anterior pituitary hormones

testicular activity is under the control of what?

superior; inferior

the _________ and ________ venae cavae are the large veins that empty into the right atrium of the heart.

What is the characteristic of carbon atoms that most contributes to its importance to critical biological molecules?

the ability to form 4 (four) bonds producing a 3D structure

electrocardiogram

the heart has an intrinsic beat initiated by the senatorial node and transmitted along a conduction system through the myocardium. This wave of electrical activity is what is measured on a _________________ (ECG).

feedback of hormones in the blood

the hypothalamus governs the pituitary and is in turn controlled by what?

central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS)

the nervous system can be divided into what two parts?

Atomic Structure

the nucleus consists of protons (+) and neutrons at the core. Electrons inhabit outer regions called electron shells or energy levels or clouds.

sesamoid bone

the patella is an example of what shape of bone?

The pyloric sphincter is located between

the stomach and the small intestine

histology

the study of tissues

short bone

the talus is an example of what shape of bone?

irregular bone

the vertebra is an example of what shape of bone?

thick and elastic because they carry blood under high pressure.

the walls of arteries are how so? and why?

The imaginary line that separates the body into superior and inferior regions is called the

transverse plane

We can identify whether or not a lipid is saturated or unsaturated, by its physical state. Unsaturated fats are ____________ and saturated fats are ___________ .

unsaturated=liquid, saturated=solid

When assisting an 82-year-old client to ambulate, it is important for the nurse to realize that the center of gravity for an elderly person is the

upper torso

slide together to produce the muscle contraction

using energy supplied by ATP, the actin and myosin filaments do what?

tricuspid; bicuspid

valves between the atria and ventricles include the _________ on the right side of the heart and the _________ on the left side.

Dispersion Forces

weakest of all the intermolecular forces. when the electrons of an element concentrate themselves on one side of the atom.

cover, line and protect the body and its internal organisms

what are epithelial cell functions?

support, movement, blood and cell formation (hemopoiesis) protection of internal organs, detoxification (removal of poisons), provision for muscle attachment, and mineral storage (calcium and phosphorus)

what are functions of the skeletal system?

the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs with their alveoli, diaphragm, and muscles surrounding the ribs

what are the components that make up the respiratory system?

ovaries

what are the female sex organs?

ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon and the rectum

what are the five portions of the large intestine?

cervical = 7 thoracic = 12 lumbar = 5 sacral (the sacrum)= 5 coccygeal (the tailbone)

what are the five subsections the vertebral column is divided into and how many bones does each section consist of?

epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous

what are the four fundamental tissues?

the mucous membrane, submucous layer, muscular layer and serous layer

what are the four main layers of the digestive tract? from innermost to outer.

small coiled tubes called nephrons; they filter waste material out of the blood brought to the kidney by the renal artery

what are the functional units of the kidney? what do they do?

in order from outer to inner layer: stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum and stratum germinativan

what are the layers of the epidermis?

cerebrum: associate with movement and sensory input cerebellum: responsible for muscular coordination medulla oblongata: controls many vital functions such as respiration and heart rate

what are the major parts of the brain and their functions?

testes

what are the male sex organs?

becoming clogged and attracting bacteria

what are the sebaceous glands susceptible of during adolescence?

arterioles

what are the smallest arteries?

the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum

what are the three major parts of the small intestine?

malleus(A), incus(B) and stapes(C)

what are the three parts of the ear?

1) production of gametes (sex cells) 2) production of hormones

what are the two functions of the male and female sex organs?

steroid and nonsteroid

what are the two major groups of hormones?

facial = 14 with 6 being from the ears cranial = 14

what are the two parts of the skull and how many bones make up each?

they are tubes that transport urine to the urinary bladder

what are the ureters and what do they do?

frontal plane

what body plane is this?

sagital plane

what body plane is this?

transverse plane

what body plane is this?

the single occipital, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid. the paired pariental, temporal, ossicles, of the ear

what bones are included in the cranial bones

2 nasal bones, 2 maxillary bones, 2 zygomatic bones, 1 mandible, 2 palatine bones, 1 vomer, 2 lacrimal bones, and 2 inferior nasal conchae.

what bones are included in the facial bones

pelvic girdle/os coxae (illuim, ischium, and pubis), femur, tibia, fibula, tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges.

what bones does the lower portion of the appendicular skeleton consist of?

clavicle, scapula, humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals and phalanges.

what bones does the upper portion of the appendicular skeleton consist of?

to perceive changes taking place in our external and internal environment such as our perception of touch, smell, hearing, sight, taste along with abstract activities such as thinking, reasoning, and remembering

what capabilities does the nervous system give us?

nervous stimulation from motor neurons

what causes the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

the enzymes that regulate all chemical reactions within the body

what do proteins provide?

hair and nails

what do the appendages of the skin include?

they filter the blood

what do the kidneys do?

they greatly increase the surface area of the intestinal wall

what do the small fingerlike projections called villi do?

inhibitory proteins on the actin filaments with the cell, moving them aside so that cross-bridges can form between actin and myosin figments

what does calcium ions attach to? what does this do?

sperm cell development and produces the male secondary sex characteristics such as increased facial hair and body hair as well as voice deepening.

what does testosterone influence?

the girdles and limbs

what does the appendicular skeleton consist of?

skull, vertebral column, twelve pairs of ribs, and the sternum

what does the axial skeleton consist of?

stores urine before urination

what does the bladder do?

secretes the hormones progesterone and estrogen which further stimulate development of the endometrium

what does the corpus luteum do?

the preparation of the endometrium of the uterus for pregnancy

what does the estrogen produced by the follicle initiate?

stimulates the interstitial cells to produce testosterone

what does the interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH) or LH do?

amylase; starts the digestion of complex carbohydrates forming a ball of food called a bolus

what enzyme does saliva contain and what does it do?

hormones from the placenta maintain the endometrium and prepare the mammory glands for breast milk production

what happens during pregnancy for the production of breast milk?

the corpus luteum degenerates and menstruation begins

what happens if fertilization does not occur?

the developing embryo is nourished by the placenta

what happens in the uterus during pregnancy?

food is acted on by various enzymes from the small intestine and pancreas and by bile from the liver.

what happens to food in the small intestine?

the sperm are matured and stored in the epididymis of each testis

what happens to sperm after the male secondary sex characteristics are produced?

the egg is swept into the oviduct or fallopian tube

what happens to the egg after ovulation?

nutrients enter the hepatic portal vein to be routed to the liver

what has to happen before decontamination?

serves as the framework of the body, providing support and structure for organs

what is connective tissue functions?

myofibrils which in turn are made up of smaller units called sarcomeres.

what is each muscle cell made of?

the vas deferent, ejaculatory duct and urethra

what is included in the pathway of sperm during ejaculation?

smooth and cardiac muscles

what is involuntary muscle tissue?

neurons and connective tissue called neuroglia

what is nerve tissue composed of?

compromised of the spinal cord and brain

what is the CNS?

composed of all other neurons in body that aren't apart of the Central nervous system (CNS)

what is the Peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

a narrow tube leading from from the pharynx to the stomach

what is the esophagus?

urine

what is the final product produced by the millions of nephrons per kidney?

skin

what is the largest organ of the body?

the mandible

what is the only moveable bone of the skull?

it is attached to the hypothalamus by a stalk called the infundibulum

what is the pituitary gland attached to?

the master gland

what is the pituitary gland nicknamed?

maternal and embryonic tissues

what is the placenta formed from?

mechanical break down of food by the teeth in the mouth = chewing

what is the process of mastication?

located in armpits and groin area, display apocrine secretion.

what is the purpose of other sweat glands in the dermis?

lubricates and dilutes the chewed food

what is the purpose of saliva which is produced by the three pairs of salivary glands?

skeletal muscles

what is voluntary muscle tissue?

epidermis; outer most layer of skin that is made of dead keratinized epithelial cells and protects the body. Provides a waterproof barrier and creates our skin tone. It rests on subcutaneous tissue that connect the skin to muscles.

what layer of skin is the arrow pointing to? what is its purpose?

hypodermis; deeper layer of skin and is made of fat and connective tissue.

what layer of skin is the arrow pointing to? what is its purpose?

abductor

what muscle movement is this? it draws a limb away from the midline.

extensor

what muscle movement is this? it increases the angle of the joint

adductor

what muscle movement is this? it returns the limb back to the midline.

calcium and adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

what must be present for a muscle cell to contract?

stomach, small intestine and kidneys

what other organs produce hormones?

axon; transmit the impulse away from the cell body

what part of the neuron is this and what is its function?

dendrites; transmit the impulse toward the cell body

what part of the neuron is this and what is its function?

superior

what position means above?

lateral

what position means away from the midline

inferior

what position means below?

proximal

what position means closer to the point of attachment?

what position means facing forward?

distal

what position means further from the point of attachment?

posterior

what position means toward the back?

medial

what position means towards the midline?

meiosis

what process forms gametes?

blood clotting

what process is platelets active in?

phagocytosis (neutrophils and monocytes) and antibody formation (lymphocytes)

what processes are WBC active in?

melanin; this protects against radiation from the sun

what protein pigment does epidermal cells contain? what is its purpose?

keratin

what strong protein are the hair and nails composed of?

eccrine; regulate body temperature by releasing watery secretion that evaporates from the surface of the skin

what sweat gland in the dermis is the most widely distributed and what is its purpose?

epidermis, dermis and hypodermis

what three layers does the skin consist of?

connective tissue

what tissue is this?

epithelial tissue

what tissue is this?

muscle tissue

what tissue is this?

nervous tissue

what tissue is this?

the anterior lobe (adenohypophysis) and the posterior lobe (neurohypophysis)

what two major portions make up the pituitary gland?

Ion

when an atom is electrically charged

Polar CB

when not all electrons are shared equally.

in the large intestine

where are abundant bacteria and intestinal flora located?

into the lymph by the lacteals and eventually are added to the bloodstream

where are most of the fats absorbed into?

at the entrances of the pulmonary trunk and aorta

where are semilunar valves found?

directly into the blood

where are the amino acids and simple sugars derived from proteins and carbohydrates absorbed into?

in the small intestine

where do digestion and absorption of food occur?

through the walls of the small intestine

where do nutrients from food get absorbed?

within the seminiferous tubules of each testis

where does spermatozoa develop?

through the glomerulus under the force of blood pressure

where does the actual filtration process of urine occur?

at the hypothalamus and pituitary glands

where does the nervous system and endocrine system meet in the body?

in the medulla of the brain

where is the respiratory control center located in the body?

at the tubules of the nephron

where is water reabsorbed?

ventral cavity

which major body cavity is in red? it includes the orbits, nasal, oral, theoretic and abdominopelvic sub-cavities.

dorsal cavity

which major body cavity is in yellow? it includes the cranial and spinal sub-cavities.

flexor

which muscle movement is this? it reduces the angle of the joint.

capillaries

which of the three vessels is the smallest and is where exchanges of water, nutrients, and waste products take place between blood and surrounding tissue? arteries, veins or capillaries?

Ionic

will have lost electrons, resulting in a net positive charge or will have gained electrons resulting in a net negative charge.

Plasma contains?

~10% proteins, ions, nutrients, waste products, and hormones (which are dissolved or suspended in water)

Hot remedies restore balance after surgery, which is considered a "cold" condition.

A = Δv/ t, Δv= final velocity- initial velocity

How do you calculate acceleration?

5280 feet

How many feet are in a mile?

3 feet

How many feet are in a yard?

28 grams

How many grams are in an ounce?

8 oz

How many ounces are in a cup?

2 pints

How many pints are in a quart?

2.2 lbs

How many pounds are in 1 kg?

1.06 quarts

How many quarts are in a liter?

1.09 yards

How many yards are in a meter?

W=Fd

How would you calculate the work done on an object?

Bones of the arm

Humerus, radius, ulna, the carpals (wrist bones), metacarpals (bones of the hand), and the phalanges (bones of the fingers)

What breaks down foods in the stomach?

Hydrochloric acid

Cranial nerve XII

Hypoglossal - controls tongue movements

Where do these two systems meet?

Hypothalamus & pituitary gland

Converting Fahrenheit to Celcius

If you want to convert Celsius to Fahrenheit, just multiply the temperature by 1.8 and then add 32 to the product. If you want to convert temperature from Fahrenheit to Celsius, subtract 32 from the number and then divide the difference by 1.8.

An older client who is a resident in a long term care facility has been bedridden for a week. Which finding should the nurse identify as a client risk factor for pressure ulcers? A. Generalized dry skin. B. Localized dry skin on lower extremities. C. Red flush over entire skin surface. D. Rashes in the axillary, groin, and skin fold regions.

Immobility, constant with bed clothing, and excessive heat and moisture in areas where air flow is limited contributes to bacterial and fungal growth, which increases the risk for rashes (D), skin breakdown, and the development of pressure ulcers. (A, B, and C) do not address the concepts of inflammation and tissue integrity. Correct Answer: D

Infuse 10 percent dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr.

Trauma

Injury, wound

An African-American grandmother tells the nurse that her 4-year-old grandson is suffering with "miseries." Based on this statement, which focused assessment should the nurse conduct?

Inquire about the source and type of pain

What action should the nurse implement when accessing an implanted infusion port for a client who receives long term IV medications?

Insert a Huber-point needle into the port An implanted infusion port needs to be accessed using a Huber-point needle (B) (non-coring) to be prevent damage to the self-sealing septum of the port.

Invasive

Inserting or entering into body part

Instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes.

The nurse assigns a UAP to obtain vital signs from a very anxious client. What instructions should the nurse give the UAP? A. Remain calm with the client and record abnormal results in the chart. B. Notify the medication nurse immediately if the pulse or blood pressure is low. C. Report the results of the vital signs to the nurse. D. Reassure the client that the vital signs are normal.

Interpretation of vital signs is the responsibility of the nurse, so the UAP should report vital sign measurements to the nurse (C). (A, B, and D) require the UAP to interpret the vital signs, which is beyond the scope of the UAP's authority. Correct Answer: C

Scientific Notation

Is used for handling very large numbers. The number is simplified. The zeros are replaced by a power of ten, which indicates the number of places to move the decimal point left or right to write the actual number. i.e. 602,000,000,000,000,000,000,000 is represented by 6.02^23

What does lipase do?

It breaks down fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

Acceleration

It calculates the change in an object's velocity over time. Units are written in m/s^2.

Pythagorean Theorem

It can be used to calculate missing lengths of sides of triangles and is A^2+B^2=C^2

Cytoskeleton

It has a number of microtubule fibers to provide shape and structure to the cell. These tubules and fibers are made of protein.

It is OK if you don't want to talk about your surgery. I will be available when you are ready.

It is important that you continue your medication while learning to meditate.

What do the hair and nails contain?

Keratin

Metric Conversions

King Henry Died Unusually Drinking Chocolate Milk

Step Two; the pyruvate is transported into a mitochondrion and used in the first series of reactions. Takes place in matrix of mitochondria, and for a single consumed glucose molecule, 2 ATP, 6 carbon dioxide and 6 NADH are produced.

Krebs cycle

Lay descriptions of health problems can be vague and nonspecific. To efficiently obtain specific information, the nurse should use closed-ended questions (C) that focus on common signs and symptoms about a client's health problem. (A, B, and D) are used when therapeutically interacting and should be used after specific information is obtained from the client. Correct answer: C

Lie versus Lay

Lie: to recline or rest Lay: to put or place

Ligaments connect...

Ligaments connect bone to bone Tendons connect muscle to bone.

1. Get into a metal 2. To pierce 3. Draw light away (measuring of rod) 4. Consist of klanstruk big 5. The author did not support the eyes(?)

Lightning ----------------------------------------

The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and life style modification. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective? A. "If I exercise at least two times weekly for one hour, I will lower my cholesterol." B. "I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat." C. "I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week." D. "My blood level of low density lipoproteins needs to increase."

Limiting saturated fat from animal food sources to no more than 4 ounces per week (C) is an important diet modification for lowering cholesterol. To be effective in reducing cholesterol, the client should exercise 30 minutes per day, or at least 4 to 6 times per week (A). Red meat and all proteins do not need to be eliminated (B) to lower cholesterol, but should be restricted to lean cuts of red meat and smaller portions (2-ounce servings). The low density lipoproteins (D) need to decrease rather than increase. Correct Answer: C

Flaccid

Limp, lacking tone

During the daily nursing assessment, a client begins to cry and states that the majority of family and friends have stopped calling and visiting. What action should the nurse take?

Listen and show interest as the client expresses these feelings When a client begins to cry and express feelings, a therapeutic nursing intervention is to listen and show interest as the client expresses feelings

Localized red rash comprised of flat areas, pinpoint to 0.5 cm in diameter.

What type of bone shapes are there?

Long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, and sesamoid bones

When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first?

Loosen the right wrist restraint.

Long bone

Lower & Upper limbs: Femur, fingers, toes, tibia, fibula, humerus, radius, ulna

Digests proteins, lipids and carbohydrates, and also transports undigested substances to cell membrane to be removed.

Lysosome

Mega

M- 10^6 1 million times

MEiOSIS/MITOSIS

MITOSES STAGES ARE----prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

Macules are localized flat skin discolorations less than 1 cm in diameter. However, when recording such a finding the nurse should describe the appearance (B) rather than simply naming the condition. (A) identifies vesicles -- fluid filled blisters -- an incorrect description given the symptoms listed. (C) identifies papules -- solid elevated lesions, again not correctly identifying the symptoms. (D) identifies petechiae -- pinpoint red to purple skin discolorations that do not itch, again an incorrect identification. Correct Answer: B

Sebaceous

Mainly in the armpits & groin area, display apocrine secretion. this secretion contains bits of cytoplasm from the secreting cells. this cell debris attacks attacks bacteria and the presence of the bacteria on the skin results in body odor. The sebaceous glands release an oily secretion (sebum) through the hair follicles that lubricates the skin and prevents drying

When conducting an admission assessment, the nurse should ask the client about the use of complimentary healing practices. Which statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices?

Many complimentary healing practices can be used in conjunction with conventional practices.

Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration.

Medications should be mixed separately (A) to prevent clumping. (B, C, and D) are not indicated. Correct Answer: A

apart of cytoskeleton, and help support the cell. They are made of protein.

Microtubules

functions: generating ATP, involved in cell growth and death, contain their own DNA, site for cellular respiration.

Mitochondrion

functions: production of cell energy, cell signaling (how communications are carried out within cell, cellular differential, cell cycle and growth regulation (cell is ready to reproduce) Aerobic respiration also occurs.

Mitocondria

Erythrocytes (RBC)

Modified for transport of oxygen

Vacuoles

Most known for their ability to store materials, these are sacs within the cell that house a range of materials for later use.

drops

Most of the oxygen carried in the blood is bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells. Oxygen is released from hemoglobin as the concentration of oxygen (drops/increases) in the tissues.

What does the alimentary canal (digestive tube) consists of?

Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, and anus

Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot.

Mr. Smith has blood type B and Mrs. Smith has blood type O. They have three children of their own and one adopted child. Owen has blood type AB, Mary has blood type O, Susie has blood type B, and Carl has blood type B. Which child is adopted?

Mr Smith can be BB or BO, Mrs Smith with blood type O will only have the genotype OO. Given the possibilities, their children can only have blood type B or O depending on Mr Smith's genotype. Given that Mary has blood type O, we can infer that Mr Smith has genotype BO Therefore, Owen is the adopted child with blood type AB.

Prime mover

Muscle that executes a given movement

Antagonist

Muscle that produces the opposite movement

Synergists

Muscles that may work in cooperation with the prime mover

Which one of the following substances is NOT a base?

NaOH HCl NaHCO3 CsOH HCl is hydrochloric acid and thus not a base. Bases have these characteristics: Bitter taste (opposed to sour taste of acids) Slimy or soapy feel on fingers Many bases react with acids and precipitate salts. Strong bases may react violently with acids. An acid spill can be safely neutralised by using a mild base. Bases turn red litmus paper blue Bases are substances that contain metal oxides or hydroxides Bases which are soluble in water form alkalis (soluble bases) Some common household products are bases. For example, caustic soda and drain cleaner are made from sodium hydroxide, a strong base. Ammonia or an ammonia-based cleaner such as window and glass cleaner, is basic.

Abstract Noun

Name of a quality or general idea (e.g., persistence, democracy)

Esophagus

Narrow tube leading from the pharynx to the stomach

Mitosis

Necessary for growth and repaid - DNA is duplicated and distributed evenly to two daughter cells

Nursing Nightingale Orem's Watson's Leiningers

Nightingale's theory is based on facilitating the body's reparative processes by manipulating the client's environment. Orem's self-care deficit theory focuses on the client's self-care needs. Watson's theory is based on promoting health, restoring the client to health, and preventing illness. Leininger's theory is based on providing care consistent with emerging science and knowledge, with caring as the central focus.

Components of the respiratory system

Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs with their alveoli, diaphragm, and muscles surrounding the ribs

Cell Membrane

Not considered to be an organelle, this lipid bilayer contains BOTH hydrophobic and hydrophilic portions to keep watery environments in and out of the cell as needed. It is selective in which materials enter and exit the cell (SELECTIVELY PERMEABLE), Also present are proteins (some for transport) and carbohydrates (for cell identification).

Involuntary muscles

Not under conscious control

When evaluating a client's plan of care, the nurse determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the nurse implement first?

Note which actions were not implemented.

Notify the healthcare provider of the family's request.

Collective Noun

Noun that represents a group of persons, animals, or things (e.g., family, flock, furniture)

consists of protein, doesn't have a membrane and is involved in protein synthesis and synthesizes and stores RNA.

Nucelous( nucleoli)

Encloses the nucleus, consists of inner and outer membranes made up of lipids.

Nuclear Envelope

involves of exchange of material between the nucleus and cytoplasm.

Nuclear pores

ribosome production

Nucleoli are the sites of ribosome production in the cell

lipid within the nucleus.

Nucleoplasm

nuclear envelope, nucleoplasm, nucleolus, nuclear pores chromatin and ribosomes.

Nucleus contains..

1. Green House creates tropical condition at nurseries 2. Too many nurseries means not enough buyers to buy the plants that need to be sold 3. Nurseries are helpful for farmers 4. Special type of farms 5. A strip of board, often material that forms a section of a wall or door

Nurseries ----------------------------------------

A young mother of three children complains of increased anxiety during her annual physical exam. What information should the nurse obtain first?

Nutritional history.

Which blood type is considered the universal donor?

O-

The nurse observes that a male client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to his knee. What action should the nurse take first?

Observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack.

Overt

Obvious, easily observed

Cranial nerve III

Oculomotor - eyelid and eyeball movement

Hematologic

Of or relating to blood

Vascular

Of or relating to blood vessels

Musculoskeletal

Of or relating to muscle and skeleton

Cardiac

Of or relating to the heart

Renal

Of or relating to the kidneys

Neurologic

Of or relating to the nervous system

Neurovascular

Of or relating to the nervous system and blood vessels

Gastrointestinal

Of or relating to the stomach and the intestine

Compensatory

Offsetting or making up for something

Cranial nerve I

Olfactory - smell

What is the myelin sheath produced by?

Oligodendrocytes

B Civil laws protect individual rights and include intentional torts, such as assault (an intentional threat to engage in harmful contact with another) or battery (unwanted touching). Performing any procedure against the client's wishes can potentially poise a legal issue, such as battery (B), even if the procedure is of questionable benefit to the client. (A, C and D) are not examples against the client's request.

On admission, a client presents a signed living will that includes a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) prescription. When the client stops breathing, the nurse performs cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and successfully revives the client/ What legal issues could be brought against the nurse? A. Assault B. Battery C. Malpractice D. False imprisonment

The process of oogenesis produces three nonfunctional polar bodies that eventually disintegrate, plus:

On functional Ovum. Oogenesis is the creation of an ovum (egg cell). It is the female form of gametogenesis; the male equivalent is spermatogenesis. It involves the development of the various stages of the immature ovum.

Pivot/Synovial joint

One bone moving around the other (Top of your vertebrae)

Hinge Joint

One plane movement (ex: elbow, ankle, knee, fingers, toes)

Patent

Open

Anu

Opening for defecation

Cranial nerve II

Optic - vision

Sigmund Freud's model

Oral anal 12-18 months phallic latency Gentital

Which nursing theory focuses on the client's self-care needs? Roy's theory Orem's theory Watson's theory Leininger's theory

Orem's theory

Diffusion of water through a semi-permeable membrane from high concentration to low. Ex: absorption of water by plant roots and the alimentary canal. Plants lose and gain water through osmosis.

Osmosis

Epidermis

Outermost protective layer of dead keratinized epithelial cells

If fertilization occurs, it occurs while the egg is in the

Oviduct

After fertilization, the egg is swept into the

Oviduct or fallopian tube

Respiratory system supplies?

Oxygen to the body and eliminates carbon dioxide

Hormones from the posterior lobe

Oxytocin (labor hormone) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

What is the only artery in the body to carry oxygen-poor blood?

PULMONARY ARTERY. Most arteries in the body carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart, but the pulmonary artery carries oxygen-poor blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs.

Pain and diminished pulse volume (B) are signs of compartment syndrome, which can progress to complete loss of the peripheral pulse in the extremity. Compartment syndrome occurs when external pressure (usually from a cast), or internal pressure (usually from subcutaneous infused fluid), exceeds capillary perfusion pressure resulting in decreased blood flow to the extremity. (A) should not be pursued until physical causes of the pain are ruled out. (C) is of less priority than determining the effects of the edema on circulation and nerve function. Further assessment of the client's ecchymosis can be delayed until the signs of edema and compression that suggest compartment syndrome have been examined (D). Correct Answer: B

membrane transport

Passive transport from a higher concentration of substance towards its lower concentration. Passive transport does not require the use of any energy to accomplish the process. • Active transport of a substance from an area of lower concentration towards an area of higher concentration using energy in the form of ATP molecules. The cell must provide metabolic energy for active transport.

What is in the upper appendicular skeleton?

Pectoral or shoulder girdle, clavicle, scapula and upper extremity

What trait will be expressed. the physical gene. Eye color, height

Phenotype

What is oxygen bound to?

Pigmented protein hemoglobin

Lie/Lay

Please lay the book down on the table right here. "Lay" is used when followed by a direct object (such as book) while "lie" is never followed with a direct object. "Here" denotes a place or position while "hear" is a verb denoting the recognition of sound by the ear.

Three days following surgery, a male client observes his colostomy for the first time. He becomes quite upset and tells the nurse that it is much bigger than he expected. What is the best response by the nurse? A. Reassure the client that he will become accustomed to the stoma appearance in time. B. Instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes. C. Offer to contact a member of the local ostomy support group to help him with his concerns. D. Encourage the client to handle the stoma equipment to gain confidence with the procedure.

Postoperative swelling causes enlargement of the stoma. The nurse can teach the client that the stoma will become smaller when the swelling is diminished (B). This will help reduce the client's anxiety and promote acceptance of the colostomy. (A) does not provide helpful teaching or support. (C) is a useful action, and may be taken after the nurse provides pertinent teaching. The client is not yet demonstrating readiness to learn colostomy care (D). Correct Answer: B

predicate

Predicates provide information about the subject, such as what the subject is doing or what the subject is like.

Gravid

Pregnant

Bilateral

Present on two sides

Depress

Press downward

Precaution

Preventive measure

Endogenous

Produced within the body

Potent

Producing a strong effect

Corpus luteum secretes

Progesterone and estrogen

do NOT have nucleus, smaller and simpler cells. Do NOT contain membrane-bound organelles, DNA aggregates in cytoplasm in a nucleoid. Usually divide by binary fusion and are haploid. Single-celled organisms, like bacteria.

Prokaryotic Cells

PROPER NOUNS

Proper nouns are people, places, organizations, and sometimes things and they must be capitalized. Prepositions (words like as, at, by, for, in, of, on, per, and to), are not typically capitalized unless they begin a sentence.

Which serum lab values reflect altered nutrition Na 144 Calcium 9.5 Postassim 3.8 Protein 5.0

Protein

Which is a part of the electrical conduction system of the heart?

Purkinje fibers bundle of His AV Node

Citric Acid Cycle

Pyruvate is transported into a mitochondrion and used in the first of a series of reactions. Takes place in the matrix of the mitochondrion and for a single consumed glucose molecule, 2 ATP, 6 CO2, 6 NADH produced

oxygen which binds to the pigmented protein hemoglobin

RBC are modified for transport of what?

An older client who is a resident in a long term care facility has been bedridden for a week. Which finding should the nurse identify as a client risk factor for pressure ulcers?

Rashes in the axillary, groin, and skin fold regions Immobility, constant contact with bed clothing, and excessive heat and moisture in areas where air flow is limited contributes to bacterial and fungal growth, which increases the risk for rashes

Re-oxygenate the client before attempting to suction again.

Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff.

Inflamed

Reddened, swollen, warm, and often tender

Flexors

Reduce the angle at the joint

Personal Pronoun

Refers to a specific person, place, thing, or idea by indicating the person speaking (First person), the person or people spoken to (second person), or any other person, place, thing or idea being talked about (third person)

Sexist Language

Refers to spoken or written styles that do not satisfactorily reflect the presence of women in our society

Limbic system is responsible for

Regulating emotion, behavior and motivation

Vasodilation

Relaxation

In developing a plan of care for a client with dementia, the nurse should remember that confusion in the elderly A. is to be expected, and progresses with age. B. often follows relocation to new surroundings. C. is a result of irreversible brain pathology. D. can be prevented with adequate sleep.

Relocation (B) often results in confusion among elderly clients--moving is stressful for anyone. (A) is a stereotypical judgment. Stress in the elderly often manifests itself as confusion, so (C) is wrong. Adequate sleep is not a prevention (D) for confusion. Correct Answer: B

A female client asks the nurse to find someone who can translate into her native language her concerns about a treatment. Which action should the nurse take?

Request and document the name of the certified translator.

What is respiration controlled by?

Respiratory control center in the medulla of the brain

Accountable

Responsible

Cerebellum

Responsible for muscular coordination

Fatal

Resulting in death

Static Electricity

Results when electrons create a charge without having a flow.

Adductors

Return the limb back toward the body

Concave

Rounded inward

Name the tropic hormones

STH (somatotropin hormone) or GH (growth hormone) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Luteinizing hormone (LH)

Apostrophes show possession

Sarah Jone's would mean that Sarah Jone owns the car

What is the longest muscle in the human body?

Sartorius

Ominous

Significantly important and dangerous

Voluntary muscle

Skeletal muscles

The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the nurse that this client understands the dietary restrictions?

Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream.

The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the nurse that this client understands the dietary restrictions? A. Tossed salad, low-sodium dressing, bacon and tomato sandwich. B. New England clam chowder, no-salt crackers, fresh fruit salad. C. Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. D. Macaroni and cheese, diet Coke, a slice of cherry pie.

Skim milk, turkey, bread, and ice cream (C), while containing some sodium, are considered low-sodium foods. Bacon (A), canned soups (B), especially those with seafood, hard cheeses, macaroni, and most diet drinks (D) are very high in sodium. Correct Answer: C

Flat bone

Skull, thoracic cage, pelvis

Lethargic

Slugglish or lazy

Nutrients are absorbed through the walls of the

Small intestine

Capillaries

Smallest of vessels and where the exchanges take place between the blood and surrounding tissues, exchanging water, nutrients, and waste products

Involuntary muscle

Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle tissue

When assessing a client's fluid and electrolyte status, the nurse recalls that the regulator of extracellular osmolarity is what? Sodium Potassium Chloride Calcium

Sodium

Chyme

Soupy substance from breakdown of bolus

Meiosis

Special cell division that takes place in the gonads (ovaries and testes - chromosome number reduced from 46 to 23

The nurse is providing teaching to a client with atrial flutter who has received a prescription for an oral anticoagulant. The client asks the nurse to provide a list of foods that are high in phytonadione and that should be avoided. What should the nurse include on the list? Select all that apply. Spinach Oranges Broccoli Chicken breast Sweet potatoes

Spinach Broccoli

Cranial nerve XI

Spinal Accessory - controls trapezius & sternocleidomastoid & controls swallowing movements

Verbal

Spoken, using words

Two major groups of hormones

Steroid and nonsteroid

Histology

Study of tissues

Nutrient

Substance or ingredient that provides nourishment

The nurse is performing nasotracheal suctioning. After suctioning the client's trachea for fifteen seconds, large amounts of thick yellow secretions return. What action should the nurse implement next? A. Encourage the client to cough to help loosen secretions. B. Advise the client to increase the intake of oral fluids. C. Rotate the suction catheter to obtain any remaining secretions. D. Re-oxygenate the client before attempting to suction again.

Suctioning should not be continued for longer than ten to fifteen seconds, since the client's oxygenation is compromised during this time (D). (A, B, and C) may be performed after the client is re-oxygenated and additional suctioning is performed. Correct Answer: D

Abrupt

Sudden

Blood is received to the heart by?

Superior and inferior vena cava

Large veins that empty into the right atrium of the heart

Superior and inferior vena cava

Tera

T- 10^12 1 trillion times

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take? A. Infuse normal saline at a keep vein open rate. B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin. C. Infuse 10 percent dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr. D. Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the healthcare provider.

TPN is discontinued gradually to allow the client to adjust to decreased levels of glucose. Administering 10% dextrose in water at the prescribed rate (C) will keep the client from experiencing hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution is available. The client could experience a hypoglycemic reaction if the current level of glucose (A) is not maintained or if the TPN is discontinued abruptly (B). There is no reason to obtain a stat blood glucose level (D) and the healthcare provider cannot do anything about this situation. Correct Answer: C

Coccygeal vertebrae

Tailbone

Lysosomes

Termed the "suicide sacs" of the cell because of their involvement with digestion within the cell. Besides digesting proteins, the lysosome will also use its digestive enzymes to break down parts of the cell that are no longer of any use to the cell.

Male and female sex organs

Testes and ovaries

Newton's Second Law

The "force exerted on an object equals its mass times the acceleration produced"(F=ma) is a description of:

The nurse is administering medications through a nasogastric tube (NGT) which is connected to suction. After ensuring correct tube placement, what action should the nurse take next? A. Clamp the tube for 20 minutes. B. Flush the tube with water. C. Administer the medications as prescribed. D. Crush the tablets and dissolve in sterile water.

The NGT should be flushed before, after and in between each medication administered (B). Once all medications are administered, the NGT should be clamped for 20 minutes (A). (C and D) may be implemented only after the tubing has been flushed. Correct Answer: B

The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the nurse to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client? A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot

The accepted formula for figuring drops per minute is: amount to be infused in one hour × drop factor/time for infusion (min)= drops per minute. Using this formula: 1,000/8 hours = 125 ml/ hour 125 × 10 (drip factor) = 1,250 drops in one hour. 1,250/ 60 (number of minutes in one hour) = 20.8 or 21 gtt/min (C). Correct Answer: C

The liver, pancreas, and gallbladder

The accessory organs of digestion include what?

Power

The amount of work done in a certain time. Its unit is a Watt.

Prognosis

The anticipated or expected course or outcome

Atomic Mass

The average mass of each of that elements isotopes. Isotopes are different kinds of the same atom that vary in weight. (protons + neutrons) - the number of protons stays the same but the number of neutrons can change. (carbon 12 has 6 protons and 6 neutrons) (carbon 14 has 6 protons and 8 neutrons)

Mean

The average, calculating it means adding all of the values given and diving the sum by the number numbers that were listed.

Cell

The basic unit of life and the building block of tissues and organs

Refraction

The bending of a wave as it passes at an angle from one medium to another

Diffraction

The bending of waves around a barrier

Anatomic position

The body is erect, the feet are slightly apart, the head is held high, and the palms of the hands are facing forward

When assisting an 82-year-old client to ambulate, it is important for the nurse to realize that the center of gravity for an elderly person is the A. Arms. B. Upper torso. C. Head. D. Feet.

The center of gravity for adults is the hips. However, as the person grows older, a stooped posture is common because of the changes from osteoporosis and normal bone degeneration, and the knees, hips, and elbows flex. This stooped posture results in the upper torso (B) becoming the center of gravity for older persons. Although (A) is a part, or an extension of the upper torso, this is not the best and most complete answer. Correct Answer: B

The nurse is teaching a client proper use of an inhaler. When should the client administer the inhaler-delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of the inhaler? A. Immediately after exhalation. B. During the inhalation. C. At the end of three inhalations. D. Immediately after inhalation.

The client should be instructed to deliver the medication during the last part of inhalation (B). After the medication is delivered, the client should remove the mouthpiece, keeping his/her lips closed and breath held for several seconds to allow for distribution of the medication. The client should not deliver the dose as stated in (A or D), and should deliver no more than two inhalations at a time (C). Correct Answer: B

The client should be positioned in a semi-sitting (Fowler's) (B) position during feeding to decrease the occurrence of aspiration. A gastrostomy tube, known as a PEG tube, due to placement by a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy procedure, is inserted directly into the stomach through an incision in the abdomen for long-term administration of nutrition and hydration in the debilitated client. In (A and/or C), the client is placed on the abdomen, an unsafe position for feeding. Placing the client in (D) increases the risk of aspiration. Correct Answer: B

The nurse is teaching a client with numerous allergies how to avoid allergens. Which instruction should be included in this teaching plan? A. Avoid any types of sprays, powders, and perfumes. B. Wearing a mask while cleaning will not help to avoid allergens. C. Purchase any type of clothing, but be sure it is washed before wearing it. D. Pollen count is related to hay fever, not to allergens.

The client with allergies should be instructed to reduce any exposure to pollen, dust, fumes, odors, sprays, powders, and perfumes (A). The client should be encouraged to wear a mask when working around dust or pollen (B). Clients with allergies should avoid any clothing that causes itching; washing clothes will not prevent an allergic reaction to some fabrics (C). Pollen count is related to allergens (D), and the client should be instructed to stay indoors when the pollen count is high. Correct Answer: A

Which snack food is best for the nurse to provide a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status? A. Chocolate pudding. B. Graham crackers. C. Sugar free gelatin. D. Apple slices.

The client with myasthenia gravis is at high risk for altered nutrition because of fatigue and muscle weakness resulting in dysphagia. Snacks that are semisolid, such as pudding (A) are easy to swallow and require minimal chewing effort, and provide calories and protein. (C) does not provide any nutritional value. (B and D) require energy to chew and are more difficult to swallow than pudding. Correct Answer: A

A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? A. "In 8 weeks you will be able to bend at the waist to reach items on the floor." B. "Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation." C. "It is safe to use a walker to get out of bed, but you need assistance when walking." D. "Take pain medication 30 minutes after your physical therapy sessions."

The client's affected hip joint following a hemiarthroplasty (partial hip replacement) is at risk of dislocation for 6 months to a year following the procedure. Hip precautions to prevent dislocation include placing a pillow between the knees to maintain abduction of the hips (B). Clients should be instructed to avoid bending at the waist (A), to seek assistance for both standing and walking until they are stable on a walker or cane (C), and to take pain medication 20 to 30 minutes prior to physical therapy sessions, rather than waiting until the pain level is high after their therapy. Correct Answer: B

Displacement

The distance of the the final destination from the starting point. It is a VECTOR quantity because it involves direction.

Amplitude

The distance that crests and troughs are from normal

Voltage (V)

The electrical potential (stored energy) that a power source has.

Once sperm is matured, where is it stored?

The epididymis of each testis

Work done on an object

The force applied to the object multiplied by the distance the object moves.The unit measure of force is newton and the unit measure of distance is meter. Its unit is is newton*meter

An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which nurse is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment? A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes. B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall. C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred. D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.

The four elements of malpractice are: breach of duty owed, failure to adhere to the recognized standard of care, direct causation of injury, and evidence of actual injury. The hip fracture is the actual injury and the standard of care was "frequent monitoring." (C) implies that duty was owed and the injury occurred while the nurse was in charge of the client's care. There is no evidence of negligence in (A, B, and D). Correct Answer: C

The frontal lobe (C) of the cerebrum controls higher mental activities, such as memory, intellect, language, emotions, and personality. (A) is an afferent relay center in the brain that directs impulses to the cerebral cortex. (B) regulates body temperature, appetite, maintains a wakeful state, and links higher centers with the autonomic nervous and endocrine systems, such as the pituitary. (D) is the location of sensory and motor functions. Correct Answer: C

During a visit to the outpatient clinic, the nurse assesses a client with severe osteoarthritis using a goniometer. Which finding should the nurse expect to measure? A. Adequate venous blood flow to the lower extremities. B. Estimated amount of body fat by an underarm skinfold. C. Degree of flexion and extension of the client's knee joint. D. Change in the circumference of the joint in centimeters.

The goniometer is a two-piece ruler that is jointed in the middle with a protractor-type measuring device that is placed over a joint as the individual extends or flexes the joint to measure the degrees of flexion and extension on the protractor (C). A doppler is used to measure blood flow (A). Calipers are used to measure body fat (B). A tape measure is used to measure circumference of body parts (D). Correct Answer: C

What is the primary focus of nursing care in the "family as context" approach? The relationship among family members The health and development of an individual The ability of the family to meet their basic needs The family's process of caregiving for a sick member

The health and development of an individual

1000 ml/4 hours = 250 ml/hour 250 ml/hour x 20 gtt/ml = 5000 gtt/hour 5000 gtt/hour / 60 minutes = 83 gtt/min

The healthcare provider prescribes an IV infusion of 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 units of pitocin to run in over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10 pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The nurse plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min? A. 42 gtt/min B. 83 gtt/min C. 125 gtt/min D. 250 gtt/min

The immediate priority is to determine if the tube is functioning correctly, which would then relieve the client's nausea. The least invasive intervention, (B), should be attempted first, followed by (A and C), unless either of these interventions is contraindicated. If these measures are unsuccessful, the client may require an antiemetic (D). Correct Answer: B

An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position prior to administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP? A. Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenburg. B. Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castile soap. C. Reposition in a Sim's position with the client's weight on the anterior ilium. D. Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level.

The left sided Sims' position allows the enema solution to follow the anatomical course of the intestines and allows the best overall results, so the UAP should reposition the client in the Sims' position, which distributes the client's weight to the anterior ilium (C). (A) is inaccurate. (B and D) should be implemented once the client is positioned. Correct Answer: C

Pituitary gland is nicknamed?

The master gland

A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe. C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli. D. Offer a medication-free period so that the client can do daily activities.

The most effective management of pain is achieved using an around-the-clock schedule that provides analgesic medications on a regular basis (A) and in a timely manner. Analgesics are less effective if pain persists until it is severe, so an analgesic medication should be administered before the client's pain peaks (B). Providing comfort is a priority for the client who is dying, but sedation that impairs the client's ability to interact and experience the time before life ends should be minimized (C). Offering a medication-free period allows the serum drug level to fall, which is not an effective method to manage chronic pain (D). Correct Answer: A

The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment. B. Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff. C. Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs. D. Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure.

The most important action is to ensure that an accurate BP reading is obtained. The nurse should reassess the BP with the correct size cuff (B). Reassessment should not be postponed (A). Though (C and D) are likely indicated, these actions do not have the priority of (B). Correct Answer: B

An obese male client discusses with the nurse his plans to begin a long-term weight loss regimen. In addition to dietary changes, he plans to begin an intensive aerobic exercise program 3 to 4 times a week and to take stress management classes. After praising the client for his decision, which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide? A. "Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your planned exercise program." B. "Be careful that the exercise program doesn't simply add to your stress level, making you want to eat more." C. "Increased exercise helps to reduce stress, so you may not need to spend money on a stress management class." D. "Make sure to monitor your weight loss regularly to provide a sense of accomplishment and motivation."

The most important teaching is (A), so that the client will not begin a dangerous level of exercise when he is not sufficiently fit. This might result in chest pain, a heart attack, or stroke. (B, C, and D) are important instructions, but are of less priority than (A). Correct Answer: A

Atomic Number

The number of protons in the nucleus and it defines an atom as a particular element. (Na has 11 protons)

C The frontal lobe (C) of the cerebrum controls higher mental activities, such as memory, intellect, language, emotions, and personality. (A) is an afferent relay center in the brain that directs impulses to the cerebral cortex. (B) regulates body temperature, appetite, maintains a wakeful state, and links higher centers with the autonomic nervous and endocrine systems, such as the pituitary. (D) is the location of sensory and motor functions. Correct Answer: C

C Limiting saturated fat from animal food sources to no more than 4 ounces per week (C) is an important diet modification for lowering cholesterol. To be effective in reducing cholesterol, the client should exercise 30 minutes per day, or at least 4 to 6 times per week (A). Red meat and all proteins do not need to be eliminated (B) to lower cholesterol, but should be restricted to lean cuts of red meats and smaller portions (2-ounce servings). The low density lipoproteins (D) need to decrease rather than increase.

A The client with allergies should be instructed to reduce any exposure to dust, fumes, odors, sprays, powders, and perfumes (A). The client should be encouraged to wear a mask when working around dust or pollen (B). Clients with allergies should avoid any clothing that causes itching; washing clothes will not prevent an allergic reaction to some fabrics (C). Pollen count is related to allergens (D), and the client should be instructed to stay indoors when the pollen count is high.

The nurse is teaching a client with numerous allergies how to avoid allergens. Which instruction should be included in this teaching plan? A. Avoid any types of sprays, powders and perfumes. B. Wearing a mask while cleaning will not help avoid allergens. C. Purchase any type of clothing, but be sure it is washed before wearing. D. Pollen count is related to hay fever, not to allergens.

A. A genogram that is used during the health assessment process identifies genetic and familial health disorders. It may not identify the client's chronic health problems, so it is not a reason to seek health care. A genogram is not a diagnostic tool to detect disorders, such as those based on pathological findings or DNA.

The nurse is using a genogram while conducting a client's health assessment and past medical history. What information should the genogram provide? A. Genetic and familial health disorders B. Chronic health problems C. Reason for seeking health care D. Undetected disorders

D (D) is the correct calculation. Convert lbs to kg: 182/22 = 82.73 kg. Determine the dosage for this client: 5 mcg x 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Determine how many mcg are contained in 1 ml: 250 ml/50000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. The client is to receive 413.65 mcg/min, and there are 200 mcg/ml; so the client is to receive 2.07 ml/minute. With a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, then 60 x 2.07 = 124.28 gtt/min.

C 1,000 ml/8 hours = 125 ml/hr 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops 1250 drops/60 minutes = 21 drops per minute

An elderly resident of a long-term care facility is no longer able to perform self-care and is becoming progressively weaker. The resident previously requested that no resuscitative efforts be performed, and the family requests hospice care. What action should the nurse implement first? A. Reaffirm the client's desire for no resuscitative efforts. B. Transfer the client to a hospice inpatient facility. C. Prepare the family for the client's impending death. D. Notify the healthcare provider of the family's request.

The nurse should first communicate with the healthcare provider (D). Hospice care is provided for clients with a limited life expectancy, which must be identified by the healthcare provider. (A) is not necessary at this time. Once the healthcare provider supports the transfer to hospice care, the nurse can collaborate with the hospice staff and healthcare provider to determine when (B and C) should be implemented. Correct Answer: D

The nurse witnesses the signature of a client who has signed an informed consent. Which statement best explains this nursing responsibility? A. The client voluntarily signed the form. B. The client fully understands the procedure. C. The client agrees with the procedure to be done. D. The client authorizes continued treatment.

The nurse signs the consent form to witness that the client voluntarily signs the consent (A), that the client's signature is authentic, and that the client is otherwise competent to give consent. It is the healthcare provider's responsibility to ensure the client fully understands the procedure (B). The nurse's signature does not indicate (C or D). Correct Answer: A

Hypertonic Solution

The outside solution has a higher concentration of solutes than the solution inside of the cell--> In response, water leaves the cell in an attempt to dilute the outside solution and causes the cell to shrivel and shrink.

Direct object

The person or thing that is directly affected by the action of the verb (e.g., the professor answers whom the students watched)

Indirect object

The person or thing that is indirectly affected by the action of the verb (e.g., His class is the indirect object. It comes between the verb [gave] and the direct object [test results] and it answers the question to whom)

When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first? A. Loosen the right wrist restraint. B. Apply a pulse oximeter to the right hand. C. Compare hand color bilaterally. D. Palpate the right radial pulse.

The priority nursing action is to restore circulation by loosening the restraint (A), because blue fingers (cyanosis) indicates decreased circulation. (C and D) are also important nursing interventions, but do not have the priority of (A). Pulse oximetry (B) measures the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen and is not indicated in situations where the cyanosis is related to mechanical compression (the restraints). Correct Answer: A

Dispersion

The process in which white light separates into colors; occurs when white light travels through a prism and breaks up into a range of colors

An adult male client with a history of hypertension tells the nurse that he is tired of taking antihypertensive medications and is going to try spiritual meditation instead. What should be the nurse's first response? A. "It is important that you continue your medication while learning to meditate." B. "Spiritual meditation requires a time commitment of 15 to 20 minutes daily." C. "Obtain your healthcare provider's permission before starting meditation." D. "Complementary therapy and western medicine can be effective for you."

The prolonged practice of meditation may lead to a reduced need for antihypertensive medications. However, the medications must be continued (A) while the physiologic response to meditation is monitored. (B) is not as important as continuing the medication. The healthcare provider should be informed, but permission is not required to meditate (C). Although it is true that this complimentary therapy might be effective (D), it is essential that the client continue with antihypertensive medications until the effect of meditation can be measured. Correct Answer: A

Speed

The rate of motion at which an object travels in a certain amount of time. Its units are usually measured in meters per second (m/s).

Ohm's Law

The relationship of voltage, current, and resistance. V= IR

A client who has been NPO for 3 days is receiving an infusion of D5W 0.45 normal saline (NS) with potassium chloride (KCl) 20 mEq at 83 mL/hour. The client's eight-hour urine output is 400 mL blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is 15 mg/dL, lungs are clear bilaterally, serum glucose is 120 mg/dL, and the serum potassium is 3.7 mEq/L. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Notify healthcare provider and request to change the IV infusion to hypertonic D 10W. B. Decrease in the infusion rate of the current IV and report to the healthcare provider. C. Document in the medical record that these normal findings are expected outcomes. D. Obtain potassium chloride 20 mEq in anticipation of a prescription to add to present IV.

The results are all within normal range (C). No changes are needed (A, B, and D). Correct Answer: C

What does the dermis rest on?

The subcutaneous tissue that connects the skin to the superficial muscles

What do all actions of the nervous system depend on?

The transmission of nerve impulses over neurons, or nerve cells

Rationale

The underlying reason

warm, filter, and moisten incoming air into the body

The upper passageways between the nasal cavities and alveoli conduct gasses to and from the lungs. These passageways serve other purposes such as...?

away from; toward

The vascular system includes arteries that carry blood (away from/toward) the heart and veins that carry blood (away from/toward) the heart and capillaries.

While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the nurse implement? A. Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly. B. Encourage her to keep the joint covered to maintain warmth. C. Reinforce the need to grip directly under the joint for better support. D. Instruct her to grip directly over the joint for better motion.

The wife is performing the passive ROM correctly, therefore the nurse should acknowledge this fact (A). The joint that is being exercised should be uncovered (B) while the rest of the body should remain covered for warmth and privacy. (C and D) do not provide adequate support to the joint while still allowing for joint movement. Correct Answer: A

A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since, at the time of discharge, timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow? A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m. B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. C. Before breakfast, before lunch and before dinner. D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule (B) to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. (A, C, and D) do not provide around-the-clock dosing. Food may alter absorption of the medication (D). Correct Answer: B

Endoplasmic Reticulum

There are two types of this, smooth and rough. The rough one has ribosomes on the outer surface, while the smooth one does not. The rough one produces proteins, while the smooth one works to transport proteins out of the cell.

Ribosomes

These are responsible for the production of proteins. They can be free and not bound to any membranes or they can be bound to the outer membrane of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Integers

These numbers are: - Divisible by one - Do not have anything in after the decimal - Are the number you use to count things that are divisible such as; cars, marbles, and children

Cilia/Flagella

These structures are not present within a cell. Instead they're located outside of the cell and allow the cells to move.

Mitochondria

They are the "powerhouses" of cells because of their ability to produce the energy needed for life via aerobic respiration. They have an inner membrane and outer membrane. The folds in the inner membrane are called crust and are packed with proteins needed for the electron transport chain to carry out its function so that the mitochondria can continuously produce ATP.

synovial joints?

They are the most moveable joint type in the body. They have a fluid-filled capsule that surrounds their articulating surface. They are the most common joint in the body.

Nucleus

This is responsible for the activities of a cell regarding DNA, including that transcription of DNA mRNA. It has its own membrane, which allows for the passage of materials and proteins needed for DNA replication.

ACTIVE TENSE

This is the correct answer because active tense is when the subject of the sentence is performing the action. Passive verb tense shows the receiver of the action as the subject and is used in the other three choices.

Colon

This punctuation mark is primarily used: A) Before a list i.e. The supply closet was missing multiple items: two packages of gaze, six bottles of pain medication, three boxes of sterile needles and four cotton swabs B) Before a long quotation i.e. An anonymous person once said: "When you're a nurse you know that every day you will touch a life or a life will touch you." C) After the salutation of a business letter i.e. Dear Staff Administrator:

Velocity

This takes into account the rate of motion at which an object travels in a certain amount of time (speed) AND the direction it travels. It is a vector quantity

Prokaryotic Cell

This type of cell does not have a nucleus. Single-celled organisms such as bacteria are an example of these cells. All of these cells have a cell wall.

Eukaryotic Cell

This type of cell possesses a nucleus. Multicellular organisms such as plants and animals are examples of these types of cells. Some of these cells have a cell wall.

Other important endocrine glands

Thyroid, parathyroid, adrenals, pancreas, and gonads (ovaries and testes)

An elderly client with a fractured left hip is on strict bedrest. Which nursing measure is essential to the client's nursing care? A. Massage any reddened areas for at least five minutes. B. Encourage active range of motion exercises on extremities. C. Position the client laterally, prone, and dorsally in sequence. D. Gently lift the client when moving into a desired position.

To avoid shearing forces when repositioning, the client should be lifted gently across a surface (D). Reddened areas should not be massaged (A) since this may increase the damage to already traumatized skin. To control pain and muscle spasms, active range of motion (B) may be limited on the affected leg. The position described in (C) is contraindicated for a client with a fractured left hip. Correct Answer: D

Multiply by 5/9, then add 32

To convert degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit, what would you do?

percentages

To determine the percentage of entries that were not desserts, we use this formula: (Number of Non-Dessert Entries)/(Total Entries) = Percentage of Non-Desserts. In this case: (8 + 5 + 6 + 12)/50 = .62 or 62%.

Constrict

To draw together or become smaller

Contract

To draw together, to reduce in size

Dilate

To enlarge or expand

A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement? A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form. B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule in the morning. C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose. D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

To ensure that a therapeutic level of medication is maintained, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible, and revise the administration schedule accordingly to prevent dangerously increasing the level of the medication in the bloodstream (D). The nurse should document the reason for the late dose, but (A and C) are not warranted. (B) could result in increased blood levels of the drug. Correct Answer: D

Adhere

To hold fast or stick together

Retain

To hold or keep

Expand

To increase in size or amount

Elevate

To lift or place in a higher position

Restrict

To limit

Dilute

To make a liquid less concentrated

Predispose

To make more susceptible or more likely to occur

Exacerbate

To make worse or more severe

Recur

To occur again

Apply

To place, put on, or spread something

Supplement

To take in addition to or to complete

The nurse providing care for a client with a diagnosis of neutropenia reviews isolation procedures with the client's spouse. The nurse determines that the teaching was effective when the spouse states that protective environment isolation helps prevent the spread of infection in which direction? To the client from outside sources From the client to others From the client by using special techniques to destroy infectious fluids and secretions To the client by using special sterilization techniques for linens and personal items

To the client from outside sources

Abstain

To voluntarily refrain from something

Device

Tool or piece of equipment

Posterior

Toward the back

Medial

Toward the midline

The process of making mRNA using DNA as a template is called

Transcription is the first step of gene expression, in which a particular segment of DNA is copied into RNA (mRNA) by the enzyme RNA polymerase. Both RNA and DNA are nucleic acids, which use base pairs of nucleotides as a complementary language. Translation is the final step on the way from DNA to protein. It is the synthesis of proteins directed by an mRNA template. The information contained in the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA is read as three letter words (triplets), called codons.

Transmission

Transfer, such as of a disease, from one person to another

Motor (efferent) neurons

Transmit nerve impulses away from the CNS toward the effector organs such as muscles, glands, and digestive organs

Dendrites

Transmit the impulse toward the cell body

Use what type of dressing for stage 1 pressure ulcer?

Transparent film dressing

What does blood serve to do?

Transport oxygen and nutrients to body cells and to carry away carbon dioxide and metabolic wastes

What valve is between the atria and ventricles on the right side of the heart?

Tricuspid

Cranial nerve V

Trigeminal - chewing face & mouth touch & pain

Cranial nerve IV

Trochlear - innervates superior oblique & turns eye downward and laterallyCra

What are the sex organs under control of?

Tropic hormones from the pituitary gland

Ureter function

Tubes that transport urine to the urinary bladder

Water is reabsorbed at the

Tubules of the nephron

Adverse

Undesired, possibly harmful

Which of the following statements about Chlorella are true?

Unicellular non-motile green alga It is found in fresh water ponds and ditches It can be easily cultured and has been used in research on photosynthesis It can be used as an alternative food source

Which nutritional assessment data should the nurse collect to best reflect total muscle mass in an adolescent? A. Height in inches or centimeters. B. Weight in kilograms or pounds. C. Triceps skin fold thickness. D. Upper arm circumference.

Upper arm circumference (D) is an indirect measure of muscle mass. (A and B) do not distinguish between fat (adipose) and muscularity. (C) is a measure of body fat. Correct Answer: D

Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement for a male client who is experiencing urinary retention? A. Apply a condom catheter. B. Apply a skin protectant. C. Encourage increased fluid intake. D. Assess for bladder distention.

Urinary retention is the inability to void all urine collected in the bladder, which leads to uncomfortable bladder distention (D). (A and B) are useful actions to protect the skin of a client with urinary incontinence. (C) may worsen the bladder distention. Correct Answer: D

Final product produced by the millions of nephrons per kidney

Urine

During shift change report, the nurse receives report that a client has abnormal heart sounds. Which placement of the stethoscope should the nurse use to hear the client's heart sounds?

Use the stethoscope bell over the valvular areas of the anterior chest Abnormal heart sounds are best heard with the bell of the stethoscope, which picks up lower-pitched sounds, that is placed at points on the anterior chest

V2 Bicycles Changing Time Glass Healthcare Homonyms Isaac Asimov Jazz Laughter Lightning Mr. Rogers Nurseries Rainforest Extras

V1 Eating Food Game of Bridge Getting a Good Night's Sleep Chronic Insomnia Phobia Rainforest Safe Driving The Water Cycle Voice White Elephant The Golden Bridge

Membrane-enclosed structures. Through phagocytosis, uptake food through the cell membrane, creating food vacuole. Plants have a central vacuole that functions as storage, waste disposal, protection and hydrolysis. Synthesizing materials such as proteins that are transported out of the cell. Plant-large Animal-small

Vacuole

Cranial nerve X

Vagus - senses aortic blood pressure & slows heart rate & stimulates digestive organs & taste

Pathway of ejaculation

Vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra

contraction and relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterial walls. these changes influence blood pressure and blood distribution to the tissues.

Vasoconstriction and vasodilation result from what?

What is the most important reason for starting intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults? A. It is more difficult to find a superficial vein in the feet and ankles. B. A decreased flow rate could result in the formation of a thrombosis. C. A cannulated extremity is more difficult to move when the leg or foot is used. D. Veins are located deep in the feet and ankles, resulting in a more painful procedure.

Venous return is usually better in the upper extremities. Cannulation of the veins in the lower extremities increases the risk of thrombus formation (B) which, if dislodged, could be life-threatening. Superficial veins are often very easy (A) to find in the feet and legs. Handling a leg or foot with an IV (C) is probably not any more difficult than handling an arm or hand. Even if the nurse did believe moving a cannulated leg was more difficult, this is not the most important reason for using the upper extremities. Pain (D) is not a consideration. Correct Answer: B

Irregular bone

Vertebrae, pubis, ilium, ischium

What is the occipital lobe of the brain responsible for?

Vision

A client who is 5' 5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is most important for the nurse to include during the preoperative assessment? A. "What is your daily calorie consumption?" B. "What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take?: C. "Do you feel that you are overweight?" D. "Will a clear liquid diet be okay after surgery?"

Vitamin and mineral supplements (B) may impact medications used during the operative period. (A and C) are appropriate questions for long-term dietary counseling. The nature of the surgery and anesthesia will determine the need for a clear liquid diet (D), rather than the client's preference. Correct Answer: B

Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin?

Vitamins A, D, E, and K dissolve in organic solvents whereas the B vitamins and vitamin C dissolve in water. Vitamins A,D,E and K are considered fat soluble vitamins.

B An implanted infusion port needs to be accessed using a Huber-point needle (B) (non-coring) to prevent damage to the self-sealing septum of the port. (A, C, and D) are not necessary when accessing an implanted infusion port.

What action should the nurse implement when accessing an implanted infusion port for a client who receives long term IV medications? A. Cleanse the sit with iodine solution B. Insert the Huber-point needle into the port C. Flush the tubing with 5 ml of normal saline D. Place a sterile dressing over the port

high polarity, hydrogen bonding, cohesiveness, adhesiveness, high specific heat, high latent heat and high heat of vaporization.

What are the most important properties of water?

cilia

What are the upper respiratory tubules lined with that hep to trap debris and keep foreign substances from entering into the lungs?

Infundibulum

What attaches the pituitary to the hypothalamus

The mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, and anus

What does the alimentary canal, also known as digestive tube, consist of?

a bilayer of phosolipids with proteins, cholesterol, and glycoproteins peppered throughout. The bilayer creates a hydrophobic region between the two later of lipids making it selectively permeable.

What does the cell membrane consist of? And what do they do?

Specific heat os a molecule is the amount of heat necessary to raise the temperature of 1 gram of that molecule by 1 degree Celsius. Having a high specific heat allows water to resist shifts in temp. In large bodies of water it they benefit because it stabilizes climates.

What is specific heat and what does it allow water to do?

C = 2πr

What is the formula for the circumference of a circle?

S= (y^2-y^1/x^2-x^1)

What is the formula for the slope of a line if you only have two points on a line?

V= d/t

What is the formula for velocity?

B Venous return is usually better in the upper extremities. Cannulation of the veins in the lower extremities increases the risk for thrombus formation (B) which, if dislodged, could be life-threatening. Superficial veins are often very easy (A) to find in the feet and legs. Handling leg or foot with an IV (C) is probably not any more difficult than handling an arm or hand. Even if the nurse did not believe moving a cannulated leg was more difficult, this is not the most important reason for using the upper extremities. Pain (D) is not a consideration.

Its polarity of its bonds.

What is the most significant aspect of water?

Series

What type of circuit is this?

A client who is 5' 5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is most important for the nurse to include during the preoperative assessment?

What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take?

During the daily nursing assessment, a client begins to cry and states that the majority of family and friends have stopped calling and visiting. What action should the nurse take? A. Listen and show interest as the client expresses these feelings. B. Reinforce that this behavior means they were not true friends C. Ask the healthcare provider for a psychiatric consult. D. Continue with the assessment and tell the client not to worry.

When a client begins to cry and express feelings, a therapeutic nursing intervention is to listen and show interest as the client expresses feelings (A). (B) is not therapeutic option and the nurse does not know the dynamics of their relationships. (C) is not indicated at this time. (D) is non-therapeutic and offers false hope. Correct Answer: A

A resident in a skilled nursing facility for short-term rehabilitation after a hip replacement tells the nurse, "I don't want any more blood taken for those useless tests." Which narrative documentation should the nurse enter in the client's medical record? A. Healthcare provider notified of failure to collect specimens for prescribed blood studies. B. Blood specimens not collected because client no longer wants blood tests performed. C. Healthcare provider notified of client's refusal to have blood specimens collected for testing. D. Client irritable, uncooperative, and refuses to have blood collected. Healthcare provider notified.

When a client refuses a treatment, the exact words of the client regarding the client's refusal of care should be documented in a narrative format (C). (A, B, and D) do not address the concepts of informatics and legal issues. Correct Answer: C

C Conventional approaches to health care can be depersonalizing and often fail to take into consideration all aspects of an individual, including body, mind and spirit. Often complimentary healing practices can be used in conjunction with conventional medical practices (C), rather than interfering (A) with conventional practices, causing adverse effects (B), or replacing conventional medical care (D).

When conducting an admission assessment, the nurse should ask the client about the use of complimentary healing practices. Which statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices? A. Complimentary healing practices interfere with the efficacy of the medical model of treatment. B. Conventional medications are likely to interact with folk remedies and cause adverse effects. C. Many complimentary healing practices can be used in conjuntion with conventional practices. D. Conventional medical practices will ultimately replace the use of complimentary healing practices.

Hypotonic Solution

When the outside solution has a lower concentration of solutes than the solution in the cell--> In response, water moves from outside of the cell into the cell causing it to swell or burst.

Run-on sentence

When two or more complete sentences are written as though they were one sentence (example: The professor thought the test was too easy the students thought it was too hard)

Urinary bladder function

Where urine is stored before urination

C Gloved hands held below waist level are considered unsterile (C). (A and B) are not essential to maintaining asepsis. While it may be helpful to put the glove on the dominant hand first, it is not necessary to ensure asepsis (D).

Which action is most important for the nurse to implement when donning sterile gloves? A. Maintain a thumb at a ninety degree angle. B. Hold hands with fingers down while gloving. C. Keep gloved hands above elbows. D. Put the glove on the dominant hand first.

C Both (A and B) are methods used to determine proper placement of the NG tubing. However, the best indicator that the tubing is properly placed is (C). (D) is not an indicator of proper placement.

Which assessment data provides the most accurate determination of proper placement of a nasogastric tube? A. Aspirating gastric contents to assure a pH value of 4 or less B. Hearing air pass in the stomach after injecting air into the tubing. C. Examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted. D. Checking the remaining length of tubing to ensure that the correct length was inserted.

D Urinary retention is the inability to void all urine collected in the bladder, which leads to uncomfortable bladder distention (D). (A and B) are useful actions to protect the skin of a client with urinary incontinence. (C) may worsen bladder distention.

Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement for a male client who is experiencing urinary retention? A. Apply a condom catheter B. Apply a skin protectant C. Encourage increased fluid intake D. Assess for bladder distention

D Upper arm circumference (D) is an indirect measure of the muscle mass. (A and B) do not distinguish between fat (adipose) and muscularity. (C) is a measure of body fat.

Which nutritional assessment data should the nurse collect to best reflect total muscle mass in an adolescent? A. Height in inches or centimeters B. Weight in kilograms or pounds C. Triceps skin fold thickness D. Upper arm circumference

Which versus That

Which: Used to introduce nonessential clauses (example: the hospital, which flooded last July, is down the street) That: Used to introduce essential clauses (example: the hospital that flooded last July is down the street; the other hospital is across town)

Who versus Whom

Who and Whom: serve as interrogative pronouns and relative pronouns Who: Who passed the chemistry test (He/she/they/I) passed the chemistry test Whom: To whom did the professor give the test? he gave the test to him/her/them/me/us example: Who is getting an A in this class? [interrogative] Susan is the one who is getting an A in this class [relative] To whom shall I give the textbook? [interrogative] Susan, whom the professor favors, is very bright [relative]

Darwin

Who developed Natural Selection?

Gaping

Wide open

Reproductive activity is cyclic in?

Women

Amalgams

a specific type of alloy in which a metal is dissolved in mercury

Fahrenheit

a. zero degrees F is the freezing point of sea water b. 32 degrees F is freezing point of pure water c. 212 degrees F is the boiling point of pure water d. most people have a body temp of 98.6 F

The variations of the genes for a single trait are called

alleles

the seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral (Cowper's) glands

along the pathway of sperm are glands that produce the transport medium or semen. these include what?

Inference

an educated guess or conclusion drawn by the reader based on the available facts and information

Ionic Bond

an electrostatic attraction between two oppositely charged ions, or a cation and an anion. Generally between a metal and a nonmetal. (salt)

In aerobic cellular respiration, oxygen serves as

an oxidizing agent Cellular respiration is the set of metabolic reactions and processes that take place in the cells of organisms to convert biochemical energy from nutrients into adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and then release waste products. Nutrients that are commonly used by animal and plant cells in respiration include sugar, amino acids and fatty acids, and the most common oxidizing agent (electron acceptor) is molecular oxygen (O2)

What is the endergonic synthesis of molecules?

anabolism Metabolism is usually divided into two categories: catabolism, the breaking down of organic matter by way of cellular respiration, and anabolism, the building up of components of cells such as proteins and nucleic acids. Usually, breaking down releases energy and building up consumes energy.

voluntary muscles because they are under conscious control

another name for the skeletal muscles that make up the muscular system is? why the name?

thinner

as arteries get further from the heart do they come thinner or thicker?

leave the nephron by diffusion and reenter the blood

as the glomerular filtrate passes through the nephron, components needed by the body such as water, glucose and ions do what?

The utilization of the products of digestion for production of energy or synthesis of cellular material is called:

assimilation

ovulation and the conversion of the follicle to the corpus luteum

at approximately day 14 of the cycle, a surge of LH is released from the pituitary which stimulates what?

During the light-dependent reaction of photosynthesis

atp is produced

liver

blood detoxification and purification storage of glycogen, minerals, and vitamins production of bile

coronary sinuses

blood drains from the myocardium directly into the right atrium by the _________ _________.

erythrocytes (red blood cells), leukocytes (white blood cells) and platelets

blood is composed of 55% plasma and 45% of what 3 formed elements produced from stem cells in red bone marrow?

atria

blood is received by the ________ and is pumped into circulation by ventricles.

coronary arteries

blood is supplied to the heart muscle (the myocardium) by the _________ _________.

carbon dioxide and metabolic waste

blood over all serves to trasport oxygen and nutrients to body cells and carry away what?

long, short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid bones

bones are classified by shape, what are those shapes?

the endocrine system

both the nervous and endocrine system control the body but which system has more long-lasting and widespread effects?

What is the exergonic breakdown of substrates

catabolism Metabolism is usually divided into two categories: catabolism, the breaking down of organic matter by way of cellular respiration, and anabolism, the building up of components of cells such as proteins and nucleic acids. Usually, breaking down releases energy and building up consumes energy.

Which of these shows the correct order of the flow of waste through the large intestine?

cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon

Plant cells differ from animal cells, in that plant cells have

central vacuole

found in plants and are the site for photosynthesis. contains chlorophyll, which has a green color.

chloroplast

modes of genetic exchange within a bacterial population

conjugation transduction transformation In molecular biology and genetics, translation is the process in which cellular ribosomes create proteins. In translation, messenger RNA (mRNA)—produced by transcription from DNA—is decoded by a ribosome to produce a specific amino acid chain or polypeptide. Bacterial conjugation is the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells by direct cell-to-cell contact or by a bridge-like connection between two cells. Bacterial transformation is the process by which bacterial cells take up naked DNA molecules. If the foreign DNA has an origin of replication recognized by the host cell DNA polymerases, the bacteria will replicate the foreign DNA along with their own DNA. Transduction is the process by which DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus. It also refers to the process whereby foreign DNA is introduced into another cell via a viral vector

Photosynthesis is defined as

conversion of light energy into chemical energy by living organisms

Which of the following factors could lead to variations in the offspring of asexually reproducing organisms?

crossing over

sudden, intense

define acute.

to hold fast or stick together

define adhere.

undesired, possibly harmful

define adverse

control, protection

define aegis.

uncertain, having contradictory feelings

define ambivalent.

to give consent; to agree

define assent.

present on two sides

define bilateral.

offsetting or making up for something

define compensatory.

brief, to the point

define concise.

dependent

define contingent.

a reason something is not advisable or should not be done

define contraindication.

having or causing convulsions ex: violent shaking of the body

define convulsive.

quick, perfunctory, not thorough

define cursory.

expel feces

define defecate.

a deficiency or lack of something

define deficit.

enlarged or expanded from pressure

define distended.

impaired or abnormal functioning

define dysfunction.

the origin or cause of a disease or condition

define etiology.

to make worse or more severe

define exacerbate.

chemical messengers that control the growth, differentiation, and metabolism of specific target cells; affect cell activity by altering the rate of protein synthesis.

define hormones.

occurring in the near future, about to happen

define impending.

impenetrable, not allowing anything to pass through

define impervious.

so gradual as to not become apparent for a long time

define insidious.

changing rapidly and often

define labile.

cut; tear

define laceration.

present but not active or visible

define latent.

difficult to arouse

define lethargic.

of or relating to the nervous system and blood vessels

define neurovascular.

a characteristic or constant factor, limit

define parameter.

open

define patent.

rapid, uncontrolled

define precipitous.

to make more susceptible or more likely to occur

define predispose.

the anticipated or expected course or outcome

define prognosis.

of or relating to the kidneys

define renal.

under the tongue

define sublingual.

group of symptoms that when occurring together reflect a specific disease or disorder

define syndrome.

the basic unit of life and building block of tissues and organs

define the cell

a group of cells that work together to perform a specific function

define tissue

process used to determine the priority of treatment for patients according to the severity of the patient's condition and the likelihood of benefit from the treatment

define triage.

being or seeming to be everywhere at once

define ubiquitous.

extremely harmful and severe

define virulent.

demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly.

the nucleus contain deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), and ribosomes are important in the synthesis of proteins.

describe and explain the organelles and their specific function within a cell. (specifically the nucleus and ribosomes)

the special cell division that takes place in the gonads (ovaries and testes). the chromosome number is reduced from 46 to 23, so when the egg and sperm unite in fertilization, the zygote will have the correct number of chromosomes.

describe the process of meiosis

necessary for growth and repair in the body. DNA is duplicated and distributed evenly into two daughter cells.

describe the process of mitosis

After completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem, which action should the nurse perform next?

determine the etiology of the problem

Which stage of cellular respiration produces the most ATP?

electron transport

The cytoplasmic organelle containing fluid filled tubules for carrying and transporting substances is known as:

endoplasmic reticulum The cytoplasmic organelle containing fluid filled tubules for carrying and transporting substances is known as the endoplasmic reticulum. There are two types of endoplasmic reticulum: • Rough endoplasmic reticulum is seen studded with ribosomes. It is the site where building materials of cellular membrane are formed • Smooth endoplasmic reticulum functions in cholesterol synthesis and breaks down fat metabolism, and detoxifies drugs Golgi apparatus are the cell organelles associated with cell secretions. These produce secretory vesicles, cell membrane components and lysosomes. These are associated with modification and packaging of proteins. Mitochondria are associated with the production of energy in the form of ATP molecules while the nucleus is the control center of all the activities in the cell.

Before leaving the body, sperm cells travel from the testes in the sequence

epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra

the main function of each gland is the protection of hormones

even though the endocrine glands are widely distributed, why are they grouped together as a system?

it is the expulsion or discharge of substance from a cell. A lysosome digests particles with enzymes and can be expelled through exocytosis. A vacuole containing the substance to be expelled attaches to the cell membrane and expels substance.

exocytosis

this secretion contains bits of cytoplasm from the secreting cells. the cell debris attracts bacteria which creates body odor. then the sebaceous glands release an oily secretion (sebum) through the hair follicles that lubricates the skin to prevent drying.

explain apocrine secretion

external: exchange of gases between atmosphere and the blood through the alveoli internal: exchange of gasses between the blood and the body cells

external vs. internal respiration

In which location does a sperm cell first fertilize an egg?

fallopian tube

Insidious

gradual

gtt/min = 20gtts/ml X 1000 ml/4hrs X 1 hr/60 min Correct Answer: B

hecto

h- 10^2 1 hundred times

both

has canaliculi. compact bone? or spongy bone?

- Somatotropin hormone (STH) or growth hormone (GH) - Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) - Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) - Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) -Luteinising hormone (LH)

hormones released from the adenohypophyis are called tropic hormones because they act mainly on other endocrine glands. they include what?

oxytocin, the labor hormone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

hormones released from the neurohypophysis include what?

on basis of size, appearance of nucleus, staining properties, and presence or absence of visible cytoplasmic granules.

how can the five different types of leukocytes be distinguished from one another?

nerve stimulation causes muscles to contract in response. contraction results from the sliding together of actin and myosin filaments within the muscle cell or fiber.

how do muscles produce movement?

constrictive muscles of the pharynx force the food into the upper portion of the esophagus and then the food is swallowed

how does swallowing food take place?

supplies skeletal muscles with nerve impulses that cause contraction

how does the nervous system create body movements?

integrates body functions such as digestion and reproduction

how does the nervous system work with the endocrine glands?

food enters the stomach where gastric glands secrete hydrochloric acid that breaks down foods. the stomach muscle churns and mixes the bolus of food, turning the mass into a soupy substance called chyme. the stomach stores food or regulates the movement of food into the small intestine.

how does the stomach play a role in the process of digestion?

holocrin secretion

how is sebum produced in the sebaceous gland?

approximately 18 inches long

how long is the spinal cord?

how many bones total make up the skull?

how many pairs of nerve impulses exit the spinal chord?

in the oviduct

if fertilization occurs, it occurs while the egg is where?

Anion

if the atom has a negative charge

Cation

if the atom has a positive charge

Non Polar CB

if the electrons in the bond are shared equally

inhalation: the contraction of the diaphragm to enlarge the theoretic cavity and draw air into the lungs exhalation: a passive process during which the lungs recoil as the respiratory muscles relax and the thorax decreases in size

inhalation vs. exhalation

encloses the matrix containing mitocondrial RNA (mtRNA) and ribosomes. Between inner and outer are folds (cristae). Chemical reactions occur that release energy, control water level in cells and recycle and create proteins and fats.

inner membrane of mitochondria

Spinal Cord Gray Matter

integrates reflexes to stimuli

A male client tells the nurse that he does not know where he is or what year it is. What data should the nurse document that is most accurate?

is disoriented to place and time.

Galactose, D-glucose and fructose are examples of

isomers

Waxes and steroids are both considered to be

lipids Lipids are a group of naturally occurring molecules that include fats, waxes, sterols, fat-soluble vitamins (such as vitamins A, D, E, and K), monoglycerides, diglycerides, triglycerides, phospholipids, and others.

The location on a chromosome where a particular gene is located is known as the:

locus

A nurse is assessing an older adult during a regular checkup. Which findings during the assessment are normal? Select all that apply. 1. Loss of turgor 2.Urinary incontinence 3. Decreased night vision 4. Decreased mobility of ribs 5. Increased sensitivity to odors

loss of turgor, decreased night vision, decreased mobility of ribs

Which of the following contains digestive enzymes and produces oxygen radicals?

lysosomes

milli

m- 10^-3 1 thousandth of

Somatic cells reproduce by ______________ , while sex cells reproduce by ______________ .

mitosis, meiosis Somatic cells will reproduce via mitosis while sex cells reproduce via meiosis. Somatic cells are diploid cells, whereas the gametes are haploid cells. Stem cells give rise to somatic cells, and germ cells give rise to gametes. Meiosis does not take place during the production of somatic cells, whereas meiosis takes place during gametogenesis (production of gametes) giving rise to haploid cells. Somatic cells contain homologous pairs of chromosomes, whereas gametes contain only unpaired chromosomes.

Emulsions

mixtures of matter that readily separate such as water and oil

Types of leukocytes

monocytes - become macrophages basophils - allergic reactions, lymphocytes - important in immune response neutrophils - phagocytize microorganisms eosinophils - target bacteria and parasites

Select the sentence in which snake is used as a verb. A. The cobra is venomous snake. B. The spy had to snake his way furtively onto the train. C. The plumber used his snake to unclog the pipe. D. You are being a snake when you steal from me.

B. The spy had to snake his way furtively onto the train.

The student _________ for the final exam. A. Didn't studied B. Was studying C. Studied hardly D. Would have studied

B. Was studying

Amazon Rainforest About 6% of the earth is covered by rainforests. The largest rainforest in the world is theAmazon Basin, which stretches over 2.3 million square miles in nine different South American countries. This area is double the length of all the other remaining rainforests in the world. Brazil contains 60%of the Amazonian rainforest, since it lies at the mouth of the river Amazon. This river is the second largest in the world and contains more than one-fifth of the world's fresh water. The Amazon rainforest is a type of wet broadleaf forest. The weather there is very humid and warm as it rains quite a bit. Because of the high rainfall, the forest is very rich and green. The tree leaves are pointed and narrow so that the raindrops can easily drop off wet plants. This tropical rainforest has more living species than the entire European continent. There are over 400 types of insects living in one single rain forest tree for a total of 2.5 million species. One square kilometer of rainforest may contain over 75,000 types of trees and approximately 438,000 different kinds of plants, which comes to a total of 90,000 tons of greenery overall. The Amazon rainforest is home to 2,000 birds and mammals, with one in every five birds in the world living there. Local farmers have lived off this rich and diverse land for thousands of years. They have been able to find food and water here without destroying the land. The Kayapo people of Brazil farm in an environmentally-friendly way. Instead of chemicals, they use burned wood to enrich the soil, and plant banana trees, which attract wasps. These wasps then feed on leafcutter ants and get rid of these harmful insects. The rainforest also offers a lot of tropical fruits, such as bananas and coconuts, as food. Cinnamon is made from the bark of a rainforest tree. Amazonian Indians use the fruit and stem of the Buruti plant as a drink, to make bread and to build houses. Many other plants are used as medicine. But the Amazon rainforest is in very big danger of disappearing. 9,169 square miles of forest have been cut down in 2003 in Brazil alone. An area of the size of a football field is burned down basically every minute, which means that the rain forest may be gone by the year 2030.The dangers related to this type of activity are obvious. Trees take in poisonous carbon dioxide from the air and give off oxygen. There is more oxygen and less carbon dioxide around a rainforest. When trees are cut down, however, the amount of carbon dioxide increases, and the air gets warmer. This leads to global warming, which is extremely harmful to the environment. It is estimated that the burning of Brazilian rainforests alone produces 200 million metric tons of carbon dioxide a year. Another danger connected with destroying the rainforest is the disappearance of plants and animals. When trees are cut down, plants and animals have no more food left and slowly die out. Killing wild animals is illegal in Brazil, but there is plenty of stealing going on. 38 million animals are stolen and sold illegally each year. The most hunted animals are birds, especially parrots, followed by snakes and the jaguar.

1. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT mentioned about the Amazon Rainforest? Its precipitation 2. How can you describe the Amazon rainforest? (Choose 2 answers) (A)It rains all time there so the forest is always green. (C)The plants are shaped so that rainwater can pour off them. 3. Which of the following is true about the Amazon Basin? It is more than one-fifth of all the other rainforests in the world. 4. Look at the end of paragraph 2. What does the author refer to when he says "rich and diverse land" at the beginning of paragraph 3? 2,000 birds and mammals in the Amazon rainforest 5. What does the sentence "people of Brazil farm in an environmentally friendly way" mean in paragraph 3? They do not poison the soil when farming. 6. Which rainforest plant has more than one use? The Bruti plant 7. What is the biggest problem related to the disappearance of the rainforest? Cutting down trees

Food Food and drink are necessary and desirable, but their abuse can cause serious physical and metal problem. Many physicians believe that overeating is one of the country's main health problems, since it places a great strain on the heart, can lead to diabetes, and often shortens the individual's life span. To fill an emotional void. people often turn to food when they are bored or lonely. Another area of concern is alcohol consumption. The results of alcohol abuse are widely publicized. The social drinker who becomes alcoholic, the drunken driver's contribution to highway death, spousal and child abuse, are all concomitant problems associated with alcohol abuse.

1. As used in the last sentence of this paragraph, the term "concomitant" means? Accompanying 2. The information presented in this article is? Against drinking alcohol 3. The author's motive for writing the paragraph seems to have have been to? Urge self-control 4. What is implied by this paragraph? We should eat and drink in reasonable quantities. 5. The author seems to? Oppose drinking alcohol

Glass ----------------------------------------

1. Brittle- easily broken 2. Archaeological digs have found article made of glass 3. Glass is not an element 4. The combination of several glass is an essential part of our lives 5. Science uses glass in experiments

White Elephant Centuries ago, in the country of Siam, now known as Thailand, it was the custom of the rulers that displeased them by giving the offender a white elephant. Because the animal was could not be made to work as other elephants did, but still had to be fed hundreds of pounds of fruit and cared for in the most lavish style. The recipient could not give the elephant to anyone else, as it was the ruler, who would be greatly displeased should the recipient not receive the gift graciously or care for in a grand style. This monetary burden could be a major liability to the recipient and in many cases they became impoverished. This is the origin of the term"white elephant" as it is used today to denote an unwanted gift. The way of gift exchange played during the holiday season is an offshoot of this. In this game, everyone brings, and the gifts are exchanged by drawing numbers and picking a gift in turn. The second person can choose or steal the first one. It is all in good fun, and people enjoy giving silly gifts and "stealing" someone else.

1. How did the people regard a white elephant? People tried very hard not to offend the king so they would not receive a white elephant. 2. Where is Thailand? Asia 3. What is implied by the article? People enjoy giving/receiving gifts. 4. What is the meaning of the word impoverished in the first paragraph? Financially ruined 5. Why is an unwanted gift called a white elephant? It is rare thing to get an unwanted gift.

Healthcare ----------------------------------------

1. Premium: means amount to be paid 2. Hospitals are passing down the cost of taking care of people without insurance 3. The passage implies that There is a crisis in normal management in healthcare 4. Opinion or fact Rising

Chronic Insomnia ----------------------------------------

1. Sleep insomnia causes deficit in Memory 2. Which statement is true about sleep insomnia 3. Which is the solution? Developing good sleeping habits, taking herbs and spices 4. The author intends to explain insomnia and propose solutions for the condition

Eating Consumption of food is a universal necessity. Different cultures have developed different methods to accomplish the task. It is interesting to discover these differences and learn new ways to do things. European cultures developed cutlery (knives, forks, and spoons) to enable people to efficiently eat their food. Correct use of this tools changes with the times-what was polite in 1800 may not be considered proper manners today. China developed the chopstick as an efficient tool for eating. Mastery of the use of chopsticks can be difficult for the person not raised in the culture. The attempts of a novice to use chopsticks can be very amusing to the watcher, but frustrating for the hungry diner. Space travel has created new challenges for consuming food. Squeeze bottles and other unique packaging have enabled space travelers to get their needed nutrition. Chopsticks and forks do not work well in space. 1. What conclusion can be drawn about the article? 2. What statement can be implied from the content of article. 3. What is the best definition of "efficient" as used in the third paragraph? 5. What statement from the article draws a conclusion? 6. What statement from the article is correct?

1. The author explain differences in eating processes. 2. Diversity is interesting to learn about 3. Productive without waste 5. It is interesting to discover new ways to do things 6. China developed chopsticks for eating utensils

Game of Bridge The ebb and flow of laughter and silence fills the room as four old friends gather to engage in a round of Bridge playing. For the beginner, Bridge can be complicated, but with time, effort, and a good teacher, even the novice can become proficient. Composed of two main parts, bidding and playing, Bridge requires the player's undivided attention. The dealer deals the entire deck of playing cards evenly between the for players, with each person receiving thirteen cards. In the bidding portion of the game, the four suits of cards in the deck are ranked highest to lowest as follows: spades, hearts, diamonds, and finally clubs. However, during play all the suits of cards are considered equals, and they go from highest to lowest from the ace being high to the two card being low. The highest number of tricks wins. A trick is one card played by each player for a total of four. After the lead player lays down his/her card, the other players follow suit, if possible. The highest card within the four "same suit" cards played wins the trick and picks up all four cards. if a player cannot follow suit, he/she plays any card, but to make the game more interesting and challenging, one suit is named a trump suit which means that if a player plays a card from the trump suit, it always wins the trick. If two cards from the trump suit are played, the highest card within the trump suit wins the trick. obviously the team with the most tricks wins the hand.

1. The author wants the reader to feel Confident and excited about learning the game of bridge 2. Throughout this passage the word suit means Any of the four sets into which a deck of cards is divided. 3. In the passage, a trick is described as A collection of one card played by each of four players. 4. The passage explicitly states That the highest card within the "trump" suit always wins the trick. 5. The passage implies that Playing bridge requires concentration.

Golden Gate Bridge Linking San Francisco to Marin County in California, the Golden Gate Bridge is one of the most famous bridges in the world. The bridge crosses over a narrow strait which connects the Pacific Ocean to San Francisco Bay. Prior to the bridge, people traveled by ferry boat across the strait. Although most people thought a bridge was necessary to expedite travel, some residents of the bay area felt the risk of building the bridge was too great. Joseph Strauss believed that nothing was impossible, and dreams would never come to fruition if risks weren't taken. So, he decided to gather the best and brightest builders, architects, and workers to embark on the challenge of building a bridge across the Golden Gate Strait. With safety nets in place, the construction began in 1937. Building the anchorages first, the builders then move on to the towers on each end, and then to the three-foot thick cables to support the suspension bridge. Lastly, workers labored to complete the roadway which became the most dangerous and treacherous part of the entire task. The builders had to keep the bridge balance, so it wouldn't fall into the bay. Today, over sixty-five years later, the bridge remains a life-line for the people of the San Francisco Bay Area.

1. The authors reason for writing this piece seems to be to Inform the reader 2. What body of water does The Golden Gate Bridge cross? Golden Gate Strait 3. Why was the roadway so dangerous to build? If the road wasn't balanced, it would collapse. 4. In the passage the word embark means to Begin an undertaking, start 5. Which part of the bridge was built first? Anchorage

The Bicycle Today, bicycles are so common that it's hard to believe they haven't always been around. But two hundred years ago, bicycles didn't even exist, and the ﬁrst bicycle, invented in Germany in 1818, was nothing like our bicycles today. It was made of wood and didn't even have pedals. Since then, however, numerous innovations and improvements in design have made the bicycle one of the most popular means of recreation and transportation around the world. In 1839, Kirkpatrick Macmillan, a Scottish blacksmith, dramatically improved upon the original bicycle design. Macmillan's machine had tires with iron rims to keep them from getting worn down. He also used foot-operated cranks like pedals, so his bicycle could be ridden at a quick pace. It didn't look much like a modern bicycle, though, because its back wheel was substantially larger than its front wheel. In 1861, the French Michaux brothers took the evolution of the bicycle a step further by inventing an improved crank mechanism. Ten years later, James Starley, an English inventor, revolutionized bicycle design. He made the front wheel many times larger than the back wheel, put a gear on the pedals to make the bicycle more efﬁcient, and lightened the wheels by using wire spokes. Although this bicycle was much lighter and less tiring to ride, it was still clumsy, extremely top heavy, and ridden mostly for entertainment. It wasn't until 1874 that the ﬁrst truly modern bicycle appeared on the scene. (14) Invented by another Englishman, H.J. Lawson, the "safety bicycle" would look familiar to today's cyclists. This bicycle had equal-sized wheels, which made it less prone to toppling over. Lawson also attached a chain to the pedals to drive the rear wheel. With these improvements, the bicycle became extremely popular and useful for transportation. Today they are built, used, and enjoyed all over the world.

1. The main idea of this passage is best expressed in which sentence? Sentence (4): Since then, however, numerous innovations and improvements in design have made the bicycle one of the most popular means of recreation and transportation around the world. 2. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage? A Ride through the History of Bicycles 3. Which sentence best expresses the main idea of paragraph 3? Macmillan made important changes in bicycle design. 4. An innovation, as it is used in Sentence (4), is a new way of doing something. 5. Revolutionized, as it is used in Sentence (10), most nearly means changed drastically. 6. The word prone, as it is used in Sentence (15), means lying down. 7. Which of the following sentences from the passage represents the writer's opinion? Sentence (1) The safety bicycle would look familiar to today's cyclists. 8. Sentence (8), "It didn't look much like a modern bicycle, though, because its back wheel was substantially larger than its front wheel," follows which pattern? opinion, fact 9. Macmillan added iron rims to the tires of his bicycle to Macmillan added iron rims to the tires of his bicycle to 10. The ﬁrst person to use a gear system on bicycles was James Starley. 11. Starley's addition of wire spokes made the bicycle lighter.

Safe Driving --------------------------------------

1. What is the best meaning of the word advocate as used in the forth sentence of this paragraph? Supporter. 2. What is stated in this paragraph? Each individuals driving behavior is the key to automobile safety. 3. What is implied by this paragraph? Government action will not help if individual drivers do not cooperate. 4. The author seems to think that? All cars should be properly inspected. 5. The author's motive for writing the paragraph seems to have been to? Get people personally involved with traffic safety.

Day Light Savings Time It is a well-known fact that it takes the Earth approximately 365 days to move around the sun. At the same time, the Earth revolves or spins around itself over the course of 24 hours, which explains why there is day and night. One half of the Earth is always facing the Sun and the other half is facing away from it. As a result, there are different time zones dividing the globe. Moving suddenly from one time zone into the other, as when flying for example from Asia to North America, causes jetlag. People feel tired, they wake up suddenly during the night and cannot go back to sleep. It takes time to get used to a new time zone. Another thing to consider is the slight tilting of the Earth towards the sun. The Earth does not stand straight but leans a little to one side. Therefore, when it revolves around the Sun, the middle part of the Earth is always closer to the Sun and gets more heat. This part is called the equator, and above it lathes tropics. Countries at the tropics get the same amount of daylight all the time. The sun always rises at 6 am and sets at 6 pm. In contrast, the tips of the Earth or the Poles get hardly any light at all because they are so far away from the sun. There are two main seasons at the Poles. There are 6 months of summer, when the sun is always shining, even at night, and there are 6 months of winter, when there is constant darkness. In between the tropics and the Poles lies the temperate zone, where there are 4 seasons. The sun rises and sets at different times throughout the year. In the spring and summer, it gets light earlier; in the fall and winter it gets dark earlier. People who live in temperate zones take advantage of that fact to get more daylight. At the beginning of spring, countries in Europe and North America readjust their clocks. They change the time on their clocks and watches by moving them an hour ahead. As a result, the sun does not set around 7 or 8 pm as usual, but an hour later. This measure is called Daylight Savings Time (DST) and lasts until the beginning of fall, when people move their clocks back one hour to Standard or regular Time. It is thought that Benjamin Franklin first suggested the introduction of Daylight Savings Time in the 18th century. But, the first serious proposal came in 1907 from William Willet. Yet his idea was shelved by the British government, who refused it because they thought it was unnecessary. Daylight Savings Time was first put into practice by the German government in 1916 in order to save energy during the First World War. Shortly after, the United Kingdom followed suit, with the United States doing the same in 1918. The law was very unpopular since people had to wake up earlier and many experienced a feeling like jetlag. But the 1970s energy crisis forced the US to make Daylight Savings Time the law. Studies have shown that the introduction of Daylight Savings Time in the spring saved the US 10,000 barrels of oil per day between 1974-1975. It also prevented 2,000 traffic injuries and 50 traffic-related deaths, saving the country $28 million. Currently, Americans switch to Daylight Savings Time on the first Sunday in April and move back to Standard Time on the last Sunday in October. But as of 2007, the time readjustment will happen even earlier, in March and November.

1. What is the main idea of this passage? Daylight Savings Time is the result of the Earth moving around the Sun. 2. What does the sentence "It takes time to get used to a new time zone." mean in paragraph 1? Changing time zones makes people feel tired. 3. Which part of the Earth is the closest to the Sun? The tropics 4. It is 7 p.m. Standard Time. What time is it for Daylight Savings Time? 6 p.m. 5. Was Daylight Savings Time popular in the beginning? No, people felt tired because they couldn't sleep that long. 6. What can be inferred about Daylight Savings Time? It will be modified starting in 2007. 7. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? Why the British government refused Daylight Savings Time 8. As it used in paragraph 3, the word obligatory most nearly means Requisite 9. Who ﬁrst established the idea of DST? Benjamin Franklin 10. Who opposed the bill that was introduced in the House of Commons in the early 1900s? farmers 11. Which of the following statements is true of the U.S. Department of Transportation? It oversees all time laws in the United States. 12. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage? The History and Rationale of Daylight Savings Time 13. The Daylight Savings Time Energy Act of 1973 was responsible for extending Daylight Saving Time in the interest of energy conservation.

Changing Time ----------------------------------------

1. What is the meaning of "they" in the passage? Clock change DST 2. Irrelevant means meaningless 3. What was the author inferring? Should be abolished 4. Computer changed itself 5. Trying to persuade the audience

The Water Cycle Water is needed to sustain practically all life functions on planet Earth. A single drop of this compound is composed of an oxygen atom that shares its electrons with each of the two hydrogen atoms. The cycle starts when precipitation, such as rain, snow, sleet, or hail, descends from the sky onto the ground. Water that is not absorbed immediately from the precipitation is known as runoff. The runoff flows across the land and collects in groundwater reservoirs, rivers, streams, and oceans. Evaporation takes place when liquid water changes into water vapor, which is a gas. Water vapor returns to the air from surface water and plants. Ultimately, condensation happens when this water vapor cools and changes back into droplets of liquid. In fact, the puffy, cotton clouds that we observe are formed by condensation. When the clouds become heavily laden with liquid droplets, precipitation ensues.

1. What is the meaning of the word composed in the first paragraph? To consist of 2. What is the main idea of this passage? The different components of the water cycle are precipitation, evaporation, and condensation. The explanation of the different components of the water cycle 3. Which statement is not a detail from the passage? Condensation fails to happen when water vapor cools and changes back into droplets of liquid. 4. What was the author's primary purpose for writing this essay? To inform the reader about the stages of the water cycle 5. What can the reader conclude from this passage about ponds and lakes? They are examples of groundwater reservoirs. 6. Knowing that the cooling of water vapor results in condensation, one could conclude that _______ is/are a factor in the evaporation process. Heat

Voice What effect does your voice have on others? Does it persuade or irritate, attract or repel? One of the worst qualities is harshness. If you ever get the feeling that people are uncomfortable when you speak, it may be that your harsh tones are jarring their eardrums. Your voice will sound unpleasant if it is shrill, grating, hard, piercing, brassy, to loud, or too nasal. Harsh voice qualities usually come from too much tension in the throat and jaw. Tension tightens muscles and blocks the relaxed voice tones essential to a pleasing impression. Because tension occurs in higher pitched voices, women tend to have shriller voices than men, which usually makes them less desirable public speakers, newscasters, or political candidates.

1. Which statement from the selection presents a fact rather than an opinion? Harsh voice qualities usually come from too much tension in the throat and jaw. 2. What is stated in this paragraph? Women make less appealing political candidates. 3. The information presented is Slanted against people with piercing voices. 4. The author seems to: Prefer low pitched tones. 5. One of the worst voice qualities is Harshness

THE WHITE ELEPHANT Centuries ago, in the country of Siam, now known as Thailand, it was the custom of the rulers that displeased them by giving the offender a white elephant. Because the animal was considered to be could not be made to work as other elephants did, but still had to be fed hundreds of pounds of fruit and cared for in the most lavish style. The recipient could not give the elephant to anyone else, as it was the ruler, who would be greatly displeased should the recipient not receive the gift graciously or care for in a grand style. This monetary burden could be a major liability to the recipient and in many cases they became impoverished. This is the origin of the term "white elephant" as it is used today to denote an unwanted gift. The way of gift exchange played during the holiday season is an offshoot of this. In this game, everyone brings and the gifts are exchanged by drawing numbers and picking a gift in turn. The second person can choose or steal the first one. It is all in good fun, and people enjoy giving silly gifts and "stealing" someone else.

1.How did the people regard a white elephant? -People tried very hard not to offend the king so they would not receive a white elephant 2.What is implied by the article? -people enjoy giving/receiving gifts 3.Impoverished meaning? -financially ruined 4.Why is an unwanted gift called "white elephant"? -It is a rare thing to get an unwanted gift 5.Where is Thailand" -Asia

The Game of Bridge The ebb and flow of laughter and silence fills the room as four old friends gather to engage in a round of Bridge playing. For the beginner, Bridge can be complicated, but with time, effort, and a good teacher, even the novice can become proficient. Composed of two main parts, bidding and playing, Bridge requires the player's undivided attention. The dealer deals the entire deck of playing cards evenly between the for players, with each person receiving thirteen cards. In the bidding portion of the game, the four suits of cards in the deck are ranked highest to lowest as follows: spades, hearts, diamonds, and finally clubs. However, during play all the suits of cards are considered equals, and they go from highest to lowest from the ace being high to the two card being low. The highest number of tricks wins. A trick is one card played by each player for a total of four. After the lead player lays down his/her card, the other players follow suit, if possible. The highest card within the four "same suit" cards played wins the trick and picks up all four cards. if a player cannot follow suit, he/she plays any card, but to make the game more interesting and challenging, one suit is named a trump suit which means that if a player plays a card from the trump suit, it always wins the trick. If two cards from the trump suit are played, the highest card withing the trump suit wins the trick. obviously the team with the most tricks wins the hand.

1.The author want the reader to feel -confident and excited about learning the game of bridge 2.Throughout this passage the word suit means -Any of the four sets into which a deck of cards is divided 3.In the passage, a trick is described as -A collection of one card played by each of four players 4.The passage explicitly states -That the highest card withing the "trump" suit always wins the trick 5.The passage implies that -playing bridge requires concentration

The Golden Gate Bridge Linking San Francisco to Marin County in California, the Golden Gate Bridge is one of the most famous bridges in the world. The bridge crosses over a narrow strait which connects the Pacific Ocean to San Francisco Bay. Prior to the bridge, people traveled by ferry boat across the strait. Although most people thought a bridge was necessary to expedite travel, some residents of the bay area felt the risk of building the bridge was too great. Joseph Strauss believed that nothing was impossible and dreams would never come to fruition if risks weren't taken. So he decided to gather the best and brightest builders, architects, and workers to embark on the challenge of building a bridge across the Golden Gate Strait. With safety nets in place, the construction began in 1937. Building the anchorages first, the builders then move on to the towers on each end, and then to the three-foot thick cables to support the suspension bridge. Lastly, workers labored to complete the roadway which became the most dangerous and treacherous part of the entire task. The builders had to keep the bridge balance so it wouldn't fall into the bay. Today, over sixty-five years later, the bridge remains a life-line for the people of the San Francisco Bay Area.

1.The authors reason for writing this piece seems to be to -Inform the reader 2.What body of water does The Golden GAte Bridge cross? -Golden Gate Strait (Correct) 3.Why was the roadway so dangerous to build? -If the road wasn't balance, it would collapse 4.Which part of the bridge was built first -Anchorages 5.In passage the word embarkmeans to -Put or go on board a ship

Food: Food and drink are necessary and desirable, but their abuse can cause serious physical and metal problem. Many physicians believe that overeating is one of the country's main health problems, since it places a great strain on the heart, can lead to diabetes, and often shortens the individual's life span. To fill an emotional void. people often turn to food when they are bored or lonely. Another area of concern is alcohol consumption. The results of alcohol abuse are widely publicized. The social drinker who becomes alcoholic, the drunken driver's contribution to highway death, spousal and child abuse, are all concomitant problems associated with alcohol abuse.

1.What is implied by this paragraph? -We should eat and drink in reasonable quantities. 2. The information presented in this article is -Against drinking alcohol 3. The author seems to -Oppose drinking alcohol 4. As used in the last sentence of this paragraph the term "Concomitant" means. -Accompanying

Voice What effect does your voice have on others? Does it persuade or irritate, attract or repel? One of the worst qualities is harshness. If you ever get the feeling that people are uncomfortable when you speak, it may be that your harsh tones are jarring their eardrums. your voice will sound unpleasant if it is shrill, grating, hard, piercing, brassy, to loud, or too nasal. Harsh voice qualities usually come from too much tension in the throat and jaw. Tension tightens muscles and blocks the relaxed voice tones essential to a pleasing impression. Because tension occurs in higher pitched voices, women tend to have shriller voices than men, which usually makes them less desirable public speakers, newscasters, or political candidates.

1.Which statement from the selection presents a fact rather than an opinion? -Harsh voice qualities usually come from too much tension in the throat and jaw 2.What is stated in this paragraph? -Women make less appealing political candidates 3.The information presented is -slanted against people with piercing voices. 4.The author seems to: -prefer low pitched tones

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: The man's heart attack scared him badly and he decided having a regular check-up from then on. A. Having B. Man's C. Badly D. From

A. Having

A tuberculin skin test should be read within 24 hours ____________ administration. A. Of B. Since C. As D. From

A. Of

Which intervention reflects the nurse's approach of "family as a context"? 1. Trying to meet the client's comfort 2. Evaluating the client family's coping skills 3. Evaluating the client family's energy level 4. Trying to meet the client family's nutritional needs

ANS: 1 In the "family as context" approach, the focus is on the client. The nursing care aims at meeting the client's comfort, hygiene, and nutritional needs. The "family as a client" approach focuses on the family's needs as a whole to determine their coping skills. This approach also includes assessment of the family's energy level to determine if the family would be able to meet the client's needs. In addition, the approach "family as a client" involves assessment of the family's nutritional needs.

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: The team want to go to the game early for tryouts. A. To go B. Want C. Tryouts D. Early

B. want

What sentence should replace the following incorrect sentence? "This door to remain unlocked when occupied." A. This door to remain unclosed while open. B. This office must have the door unlocked at all times. C. This door will remain unlocked when the office is occupied. D. This sentence is correct as written.

C. This door will remain unlocked when the office is occupied.

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: The charge nurse overheard the nursing assistant discussing the private details of a client's medical condition with a personnel friend in the hospital cafeteria. A. Details B. Overheard C. Client's D. Personnel

D. Personnel

Arrange alphabetically: verbal, volume, void, vital. A. Verbal, volume, void, vital B. Vital, verbal, void, volume C. Vital, verbal, volume, void D. Verbal, vital, void, volume

D. Verbal, vital, void, volume

Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly: I will call you when I will get back from visiting my sister. A. Visiting B. My C. When D. Will get

D. Will get

1. Which statement is a fact rather than an opinion? Homonyms make learning English more challenging. 2. What inference can be drawn from the article? English is a difficult language to master. 3. What conclusion can be drawn from the article? In order to master English, the student must learn the Homonyms. 4. How does the article define homonyms? Words that sound alike and are spelled in different ways with different meaning.

Homonyms ----------------------------------------

1. Greatest fear Flying 2. Meaning of "prolific" High productivity 3. The big three Asimov, Clarke, Heinlein 4. How old was Asimov when he died? 72 years 5. What made him popular Science, fiction, writing

Issac Asimov ----------------------------------------

1. The passage indicates Native American humor deserves more attention 2. The passage infers that Native American humor is often overlooked 3. The author's reason for writing this passage To persuade people to take a broad view of Native Americans 4. The author seems to favor: Research into Native American humor

Laughter ----------------------------------------

1. Mr. Rogers started a website 2. He wants to help children 3. Uniqueness 4. Meaning of legacy: something handed down 5. The author wants to inform the audience

Mr. Rogers ----------------------------------------

1. How often is the game played? Every 4 years 2. Meaning of "root" in the passage? To wish success 3. What is the main reason athletics wish to participate in the olympics? They have patriotic pride in their participation 4. Where was Summer 2008 played? China

Summer Olympics ---------------------------------------

1. What is the main idea of the passage The flu is a deadly disease that's difficult to control because people become infectious 2. Why is the flu considered not too infectious? The flu virus cannot travel far or live for long periods of time outside the human body, so its spread can be easily contained 3. What is the meaning of the word "measures" in the last paragraph? Plan of action 4. Which of the following correctly describes the flu? The flu is difficult to contract and sometimes fatal

HESI 1

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