HESI— :|

The center of the x-ray beam must be aligned to the center of the bucky tray to within what percent of the source to image receptor distance (SID)? 1%. 4%. 2%. 3%.

1%.

Assuming that automatic exposure control is to be used, what backup milliampere-seconds (mAs) are sufficient for a large (100 kg) adult anteroposterior (AP) lumbar spine done at 80 kilovolts peak (kVp)? 40 mAs. 60 mAs. 100 mAs. 80 mAs.

100 mAs.

Which combination results in an image with the greatest recorded detail? 2 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 72 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 0.6 mm focal spot size (FSS). 4 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 44 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 1.2 mm focal spot size (FSS). 4 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 72 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 1.2 mm focal spot size (FSS). 2 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 44 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 0.6 mm focal spot size (FSS).

2 inch object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID), 72 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), 0.6 mm focal spot size (FSS).

*How is the central ray directed when performing an anteroposterior (AP) knee projection for a patient with thin thighs and buttocks? 5 to 7 degrees cephalad. 3 to 5 degrees caudad. 3 to 5 degrees cephalad. 5 to 7 degrees caudad.

3 to 5 degrees caudad.

With all other factors remaining the same, which source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID) results in the greatest exposure to the image receptor (IR)? 40 inches. 72 inches. 60 inches. 44 inches.

40 inches.

Which milliampere seconds (mAs) value should be selected for a patient measuring 30 centimeters if 22 mAs is optimal for a patient measuring 25 centimeters? 33 mAs. 44 mAs. 40 mAs. 28 mAs.

44 mAs.

An image of the abdomen demonstrates appropriate density and scale of contrast, but motion blur is present due to peristalsis. If the original image was obtained with a 200 milliampere (mA) station and an exposure time of 0.35 seconds, which set of technical factors will produce a comparable exposure while minimizing motion artifact? 500 mA and 0.14 seconds. 300 mA and 0.23 seconds. 400 mA and 0.35 seconds. 100 mA and 0.7 seconds.

500 mA and 0.14 seconds.

A fixed kilovolts peak (kVp)-variable milliampere (mA) chart recommends exposure factors of 70 kVp and 32 mAs for an anteroposterior (AP) abdomen projection on an average-size patient. Based on this chart, which fixed kVp technique is most appropriate for an AP projection of a double contrast upper gastrointestinal (UGI) image? 70 kVp, 42 mAs. 90 kVp, 8 mAs. 60 kVp, 64 mAs. 80 kVp, 16 mAs.

90 kVp, 8 mAs.

Which fluoroscopic mode results in the lowest patient dose? A. Digital pulsed progressive. B. Magnification. C. Continuous. D. High-level control (HLC).

A. Digital pulsed progressive.

Hematologic depression is noted on blood tests of a patient who has had several radiation therapy treatments. What is the most probable minimum dose that this patient received? A. 0.25 Gy. B. 0.01 Gy. C. 0.50 Gy. D. 0.15 Gy.

A. 0.25 Gy.

Which is the required amount of inherent filtration for general purpose x-ray tubes? A. 0.5 mm aluminum (AL) equivalent. B. 1.5 mm aluminum (AL) equivalent. C. 2 mm aluminum (AL) equivalent. D. 1 mm aluminum (AL) equivalent.

A. 0.5 mm aluminum (AL) equivalent.

Which is the correct central ray (CR) location for an anteroposterior (AP) oblique projection of the urinary bladder during a cystogram? A. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the elevated anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). B. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the downside anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).Incorrect C. At the level of the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the downside anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). D. At the level of the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the elevated anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).

A. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis and 2 inches medial to the elevated anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).

*Which central ray orientation is recommended for a radiographic image of the contrast-filled urinary bladder with the patient in the supine position? A. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis with a 10- to 15-degree caudal angle. B. 1 inch proximal to the tip of the coccyx with a 10- to 15-degree caudal angle. C. 1 inch distal to the tip of the coccyx with a 10- to 15-degree cephalic angle. D. 2 inches inferior to the pubic symphysis with a 10- to 15-degree cephalad angle.

A. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis with a 10- to 15-degree caudal angle.

Which whole-body dose most closely approximates the LD 50/30 for humans? A. 3 Sievert (Sv). B. 1 Sievert (Sv). C. 5 Sievert (Sv). D. 2 Sievert (Sv).

A. 3 Sievert (Sv).

The tarsal sinus is visualized when the foot is seen in what projection? A. 30 degree medial oblique. B. 30 degree lateral oblique. C. Lateral. D. Dorsoplantar.

A. 30 degree medial oblique.

What type of relationship does cell growth rate have on the sensitivity of tissues to ionizing radiation? A. Direct. B. Not related. C. Inverse. D. Disproportional.

A. Direct. (Relationship)

Which position is used to demonstrate the left kidney in profile for an intravenous urogram (IVU)? A. 30-degree right posterior oblique (RPO). B. 45-degree right posterior oblique (RPO). C. 45-degree left posterior oblique (LPO). D. 30-degree left posterior oblique (LPO).

A. 30-degree right posterior oblique (RPO).

What is the recommended central ray (CR) angle if the lumbar spine cannot be adjusted so it is horizontal for the lateral projection? A. 5 degrees for men, and 8 degrees caudad for women. B. 8 degrees for men, and 5 degrees cephalad for women. C. 8 degrees for men, and 5 degrees caudad for women. D. 5 degrees for men, and 8 degrees cephalad for women.

A. 5 degrees for men, and 8 degrees caudad for women.

Which technique produces a 2 milliroentgens (mR) exposure to an image receptor plate if 70 kilovolts peak (kVp) at 25 milliampere-seconds (mAs) produces 1.6 mR? A. 70 kVp at 31.25 mAs. B. 70 kVp at 35 mAs. C. 70 kVp at 50 mAs. D. 70 kVp at 27.5 mAs.

A. 70 kVp at 31.25 mAs.

What is the angle formed by the intervertebral foramina and the midsagittal plane in the thoracic spine? A. 90 degrees. B. 45 degrees. C. 70 degrees. D. 15 degrees.

A. 90 degrees.

What is the magnitude of the angle formed by the intervertebral foramina and the midsagittal plane in the thoracic spine? A. 90 degrees. B. 70 degrees. C. 15 degrees. D. 45 degrees.

A. 90 degrees.

The lead radiographer is planning a strategy to efficiently manage the morning workload. The department is short-staffed due to meetings, and four patients are now ready for their examinations. Assuming that none of the exams is emergent, which patient should be seen first? A. A two-year-old child for a barium swallow. B. An 83-year-old female for a chest x-ray. C. A 18-year-old female for an intravenous urogram. D. An 54-year-old male with type 2 diabetes for an upper GI.

A. A two-year-old child for a barium swallow.

A Bremsstrahlung interaction is best described by which statement? A. An electron is slowed and changes direction. B. An electron strikes an inner shell electron. C. A photon strikes an inner shell electron. D. A photon is slowed and changes direction.

A. An electron is slowed and changes direction.

A patient reports symptoms including itching, rash formation, and difficulty breathing immediately following the administration of intravenous (IV) contrast media. Assuming the patient has had no prior exposure to radiopaque contrast media, what is the most likely cause of these symptoms? A. Anaphylactoid reaction. B. Acute bronchospasm. C. Allergic reaction. D. Acute renal failure.

A. Anaphylactoid reaction.

Which overhead projections should the radiographer obtain for the vertical ray method of knee arthrography? A. Anteroposterior (AP) and 20-degree right and left oblique. B. Posteroanterior (PA) and 45-degree right and left oblique. C. Posteroanterior (PA) and lateral. D. Anteroposterior (AP) and lateral.

A. Anteroposterior (AP) and 20-degree right and left oblique.

What is the best projection and position to demonstrate the right cervical intervertebral foramina? A. Anteroposterior (AP) axial oblique projection, left posterior oblique (LPO) position. B. Cross table lateral projection, ventral recumbent position. C. Cross table lateral projection, dorsal recumbent position. D. Anteroposterior (AP) axial oblique projection, right posterior oblique (RPO) position.

A. Anteroposterior (AP) axial oblique projection, left posterior oblique (LPO) position.

Which elbow projection will show the radial head freest of superimposition? A. Anteroposterior (AP), external oblique. B. Anteroposterior (AP), internal oblique. C. Anteroposterior (AP). Incorrect D. Lateral.

A. Anteroposterior (AP), external oblique.

Which pathologic condition will result in the greatest attenuation of the beam? A. Ascites. B. Multiple Myeloma. C. Emphysema. D. Gout.

A. Ascites.

Where are the pedicles located on a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine image? A. At the center of the vertebral body. B. The pedicles are not demonstrated on this image. C. Posterior to the vertebral body. D. Anterior to the vertebral body.

A. At the center of the vertebral body.

When the frequency of the voltage waveform supplied to the x-ray tube is increased, what aspect is reduced? (Select the three that apply.) A. Average wavelength of the x-ray beam. B. X-ray output of the tube. C. Patient exposure. D. Heat loading on the anode disk. E. Power consumption.

A. Average wavelength of the x-ray beam. C. Patient exposure. D. Heat loading on the anode

Which is the most likely cause of free intraperitoneal air on an anteroposterior (AP) erect abdomen radiograph? A. Bowel perforation. B. Pancreatitis. C. Cirrhosis. D. Intestinal obstruction.

A. Bowel perforation.

Which increases a radiographer's radiation exposure? A. Choosing low kilovolts peak (kVp), high milliampere-seconds (mAs) exposure factors. B. Choosing high kilovolts peak (kVp), low milliampere seconds (mAs) factors. C. Use of positive beam limitation (PBL). D. Use of high-speed image receptor (IR) systems.

A. Choosing low kilovolts peak (kVp), high milliampere-seconds (mAs) exposure factors.

Which is described as an interaction between an x-ray photon and an outer-shell electron, weakly bound to an atom of the absorbing medium? A. Compton scattering. B. Pair production. C. Photoelectric effect. D. Coherent scattering.

A. Compton scattering.

How does an increase in noise affect the quality of a digital image? A. Contrast is decreased. B. Density is increased. C. Density is decreased. D. Contrast is increased.

A. Contrast is decreased.

How will the dose area product (DAP) be affected during a 4 Roentgen exposure if the collimated field is reduced from 8 X 8 cm to 4 X 4 cm? A. DAP will be 1/4 of the original. B. DAP will remain the same. C. DAP will be 1/2 of the original. D. DAP will double.

A. DAP will be 1/4 of the original.

Which characteristics are true of both x-rays and gamma rays? (Select the three that apply.) A. Damage biologic tissue through indirect action. B. Are electromagnetic radiation. C. Originate outside of the nucleus. D. Possess the same frequencies and energy. E. Are low linear energy transfer (LET) radiation.

A. Damage biologic tissue through indirect action. B. Are electromagnetic radiation. E. Are low linear energy transfer (LET) radiation.

Without changing any other factors, which effect is caused by decreasing the field size from 14X17 inches to 8X10 inches? A. Decrease in the amount of scatter radiation within the part. B. Increase x-ray penetration of the part. C. Increase in the amount of scatter radiation within the part. D. Decrease x-ray penetration of the part.

A. Decrease in the amount of scatter radiation within the part.

What is the result if the total lead content of a grid is decreased? A. Decreased scatter absorption. B. Increased scatter absorption. C. Greater image contrast. D. Higher patient dose.

A. Decreased scatter absorption.

Identify the medical conditions in a patient's history which should be cleared by the radiologist before injection of an ionic, water soluble, injectable contrast agent. (Select the four that apply.) A. Diabetes. B. Pheochromocytoma. C. Compromised renal function. D. Age over 40. E. Sickle cell anemia.

A. Diabetes. B. Pheochromocytoma. C. Compromised renal function. E. Sickle cell anemia.

(L-oblique ankle image) This 45 degree oblique ankle image demonstrates the calcaneus obscuring the distal aspect of the lateral mortise and distal fibula. How should the radiographer correct this image? A. Dorsiflex foot. B. Increase internal rotation. C. Depress distal tibia. D. No correction needed.

A. Dorsiflex foot.

Which condition represents the most likely indication for an anteroposterior (AP) chest projection with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position? A. Effusion in left lung. B. Pneumothorax in left lung. C. Pulmonary embolism in right lung. D. Sarcoidosis in right lung.

A. Effusion in left lung.

Which post-processing techniques may be used with digital imaging? (Select the three that apply.) A. Electronic masking. B. Automatic brightness control (ABC). C. Quantum noise. D. Smoothing. E. Filtering.

A. Electronic masking. D. Smoothing. E. Filtering.

How does emphysema impact radiographic imaging of the chest? A. Emphysema is a destructive disease, meaning the chest tissue is more radiolucent. B. Emphysema is an additive disease, meaning the chest tissue is more radiopaque. C. Emphysema is a destructive disease, but this will not have an effect on the patient's mass. D. Emphysema has no effect on the chest tissue, requiring no technical compensation.

A. Emphysema is a destructive disease, meaning the chest tissue is more radiolucent.

How should the radiographer alter an anteroposterior (AP) or oblique lumbar spine projection in order to reduce genetically significant dose (GSD) to the patient? (Select the four that apply.) A. Employ gonadal shielding. B. Perform posteroanterior (PA), instead of AP, and anterior obliques, instead of posterior obliques. C. Use 85 kilovolts peak (kVp), instead of 75 kVp. D. Use automatic exposure control (AEC), and be sure the spine is positioned over the single, center cell. E. Carefully collimate to include the psoas muscles on all images.

A. Employ gonadal shielding. B. Perform posteroanterior (PA), instead of AP, and anterior obliques, instead of posterior obliques. C. Use 85 kilovolts peak (kVp), instead of 75 kVp. D. Use automatic exposure control (AEC), and be sure the spine is positioned over the single, center cell.

In conventional tomography, the radiographer is able to control the thickness of the tomographic slice by altering which of the following? A. Exposure angle. B. Amplitude. C. Fulcrum height. D. Tube trajectory.

A. Exposure angle.

In an x-ray tube, what is the the source of electrons used to make x-rays? A. Filament. B. Focusing cup. C. Anode. D. Target.

A. Filament.

Which protective features are designed to reduce exposure to the patient during fluoroscopic procedures? (Select the three that apply.) A. Five-minute reset timer. B. Automatic collimation. C. Bucky slot cover. D. Protective curtain. E. Foot switch.

A. Five-minute reset timer. B. Automatic collimation. E. Foot switch.

Which finding is demonstrated most clearly by a left lateral decubitus image of the abdomen? A. Free air over the liver. B. Air/fluid levels in the liver. C. Ascites. D. Free air over the stomach.

A. Free air over the liver.

Pelvis routine calls for an anteroposterior (AP) with a perpendicular central ray (CR), and an axial AP with a 40 degree cephalic angle. Using a caliper measurement, the technique chart yields a perfect set of exposure factors for the perpendicular AP. How will the necessary exposure factors for the axial differ from the perpendicular AP? A. Greater measurement, higher kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs). B. Same measurement, same technical factors. C. Smaller measurement, lower kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs). D. Same measurement, but more bone, higher kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs).

A. Greater measurement, higher kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs).

What could cause a computed radiography image with very noticeable lines uniformly in the same direction over the entire image? (Select the three that apply.) A. Grid used with grid frequency equal to the image reader's laser scan lines. B. Cassette was exposed to background radiation. C. Noise resulting from the plate reader electronics. D. Cassette exposed to the wrong side. E. Grid utilized with grid lines running parallel to the laser scan lines of the image reader device.

A. Grid used with grid frequency equal to the image reader's laser scan lines. C. Noise resulting from the plate reader electronics. E. Grid utilized with grid lines running parallel to the laser scan lines of the image reader device.

Which diseases are most prevalent in connection with the 1986 chernobyl nuclear power accident? (Select the three that apply.) A. Leukemia. B. Sickle cell anemia. C. Breast cancer. D. Thryroid cancer. E. Human immunodeficiency virus.

A. Leukemia. C. Breast cancer. D. Thryroid cancer.

Which calculation is used to determine grid ratio? A. Height of the lead strips divided by the width of the interspace material. B. The height of the lead strips divided by the width of the lead strips. C. The width of the interspace material divided by the height of the lead strips. D. The width of the lead strips divided by the height of the lead strips.

A. Height of the lead strips divided by the width of the interspace material.

Which characteristic of cells makes them more radiosensitive? A. High reproductive rate. B. High specialization. C. Low metabolic rate. D. Shorter mitotic duration.

A. High reproductive rate.

Which factors will result in greater x-ray attenuation? (Select the three that apply.) A. Higher atomic number. B. Increased thickness of body part. C. Greater tissue density. D. High kilovolts peak (kVp) levels. E. Use of a negative contrast agent.

A. Higher atomic number. B. Increased thickness of body part. C. Greater tissue density.

How can digital radiography contribute to patient dose reduction today, in spite of generally being slower in system speed than 400 speed film screen systems? A. Higher kilovolts peak (kVp) should be used with digital. B. Lower kilovolts peak (kVp) should be used with digital. C. Higher milliampere-seconds (mAs) should be used with digital. D. Lower milliampere-seconds (mAs) should be used with digital.

A. Higher kilovolts peak (kVp) should be used with digital.

Which factor is critical to demonstrating fluid levels within the chest on a portable examination? A. Horizontal central ray (CR). B. Central ray (CR) perpendicular to image receptor. C. Exposure sufficient to see through the heart. D. 72" source to image receptor distance (SID).

A. Horizontal central ray (CR).

Body habitus can affect many things, including the position of the gallbladder. Place the body habitus in order from which habitus will cause the gallbladder to occupy the highest position in the abdominal cavity to the habitus that will cause the gallbladder to occupy the lowest position in the abdominal cavity. A. Asthenic. B. Sthenic. C. Hyposthenic. D. Hypersthenic.

A. Hypersthenic. B. Sthenic. C. Hyposthenic. D. Asthenic.

(Oblq. Foot) How should the radiographer correct this image of a medial oblique foot? A. Increase medial rotation. B. Increase angle toward heel. C. No correction needed. Incorrect D. Dorsiflex foot.

A. Increase medial rotation.

What characteristics do high linear energy transfer (LET) radiations have when compared with low-LET radiation? A. Increased mass, decreased penetration. B. Electrically charged, less ionizing. C. Decreased mass, increased penetration. D. No electrical charge, more ionizing.

A. Increased mass, decreased penetration.

Which advantage does a 500 milliampere (mA) station have over a 200 mA station? A. Increased photon flux to the image receptor (IR). B. Greater visibility of detail. C. Higher load on the x-ray tube. D. Longer exposure time.

A. Increased photon flux to the image receptor (IR).

Which items can be used as indicators of the quality of the diagnostic x-ray beam? (Select the two that apply.) A. Kilovolts peak (kVp). B. Object to image receptor distance (OID). C. Milliamperage (mA). D. Half Value Layer (HVL). E. Source to image receptor distance (SID).

A. Kilovolts peak (kVp). D. Half Value Layer (HVL).

Which exam may be used to assess cruciate ligament pathology? A. Knee arthrogram. B. Wrist including navicular views. C. Three view elbow series. D. Shoulder arthrogram.

A. Knee arthrogram.

A 30-year-old male was exposed to a large amount of radiation in an accident last week; he experienced general malaise, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting 2 days after the initial exposure, but now feels fine and reports the symptoms have subsided. The patient's presentation is mimicking which stage of acute radiation syndrome (ARS)? A. Latent. B. Recovery. C. Prodromal. D. Manifest.

A. Latent.

Which projection will most clearly show a clay shoveler's fracture? A. Lateral cervical. B. Axiolateral hip. C. Oblique hand. D. Lateral wrist.

A. Lateral cervical.

(Image of stomach marked L) Which position was used to produce the image of the stomach? A. Left posterior oblique (LPO). B. Right posterior oblique (RPO). C. Left anterior oblique (LAO). D. Right anterior oblique (RAO).

A. Left posterior oblique (LPO).

As a result of imaging pregnant patients, which is the fetal exposure for most radiographic exams? A. Less than 0.01 gray (1 rad). B. 0.25 gray (25 rads). C. 0.5 gray (50 rads). D. Greater than 1 gray (100 rads).

A. Less than 0.01 gray (1 rad).

*Which radiation dose is required to produce mitotic death? A. Less than the dose needed to produce apoptosis in slowly dividing cells or nondividing cells. B. Nonexistent, as mitotic death cannot be produced in slowly dividing cells or nondividing cells. C. More than the dose needed to produce apoptosis in slowly dividing cells or nondividing cells. D. The same as the dose needed to produce apoptosis in slowly dividing cells or nondividing cells.

A. Less than the dose needed to produce apoptosis in slowly dividing cells or nondividing cells.

Which example of nonverbal communication is most effective for helping a patient overcome anxiety and apprehension prior to an exam? A. Maintain direct but appropriate eye contact with patient. B. Provide the patient with a clear explanation of the procedure. C. Stand with arms folded while listening to the patient. D. Politely introduce yourself to the patient before the exam.

A. Maintain direct but appropriate eye contact with patient.

Which is the best projection to evaluate the coronoid process in profile? A. Medial oblique elbow. B. Inferosuperior axial shoulder. C. Anteroposterior (AP) elbow. D. Scapular Y view.

A. Medial oblique elbow.

(L-Hip image) What should the radiographer do to correct this image? A. No correction needed. B. Roll patient slightly to left side. C. Increase external rotation. D. Increase internal rotation.

A. No correction needed.

Which facial bones projection should the radiographer use to most clearly demonstrate a blowout fracture? A. Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection. B. Posteroanterior (PA) Caldwell projection. C. Lateral projection. D. Submentovertical projection.

A. Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection.

Which central ray (CR) orientation is recommended for an anteroposterior (AP) knee projection if the measurement from the tabletop to the patient's anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) is 22 cm? A. Perpendicular to the image receptor (IR). B. Perpendicular to the long axis of the patella. C. 3-5 degrees cephalad. D. 3-5 degrees caudad.

A. Perpendicular to the image receptor (IR).

Which type of x-ray interaction results in the complete absorption of the incident photon by an orbital electron? A. Photoelectric effect. B. Classical scattering. C. Pair production. D. Compton effect.

A. Photoelectric effect.

Which are by-products of photoelectric absorption? A. Photoelectron and characteristic photon. B. Low-energy scattered x-ray photon and characteristic photon. C. Low-energy scattered x-ray photon and Compton scattered electron. D. Photoelectron and Compton scattered electrons.

A. Photoelectron and characteristic photon.

Which projection of the stomach demonstrates the duodenal bulb filled with barium and free of superimposition? A. Posteroanterior (PA) oblique projection, right anterior oblique (RAO) position. B. Anteroposterior (AP) oblique projection, left posterior oblique (LPO) position. C. Posteroanterior (PA) oblique projection, left anterior oblique (LAO) position. D. Anteroposterior (AP) oblique projection, right posterior oblique (RPO) position.

A. Posteroanterior (PA) oblique projection, right anterior oblique (RAO) position.

Which aspect of electrical power is responsible for accelerating electrons in an x-ray tube? A. Potential difference. B. Current flow. C. Resistive heat. D. Total wattage.

A. Potential difference.

*Which term refers to the radiation that exits the x-ray tube through the collimator? A. Primary. B. Leakage. C. Scatter. D. Remnant.

A. Primary.

*Which steps increase contrast in fluoroscopy? (Select the two that apply.) A. Reduce kilovolts peak (kVp). B. Use a larger collimator field. C. Increase milliamperes (mA). D. Use a smaller collimator field. E. Increase kilovolts peak (kVp).

A. Reduce kilovolts peak (kVp). D. Use a smaller collimator field.

A patient with which condition is most at risk for complications related to intravenous contrast administration? A. Renal failure. B. Heart Disease. C. Diabetes. D. Alcoholism.

A. Renal failure.

What is the term for the adjustment of image brightness, regardless of exposure received? A. Rescaling. B. Dose area product (DAP). C. Detective quantum efficiency (DQE). D. Automatic brightness control (ABC).

A. Rescaling.

Which is the most likely cause of a histogram error? A. Selection of an incorrect exam from the look-up table. B. Malfunction of the plate reader electronics. C. Incomplete erasure of the image plate. D. Underexposure of the image receptor.

A. Selection of an incorrect exam from the look-up table.

Which factor would the radiographer choose to maximize recorded detail in the image? A. Small focal spot. B. 100 cm source to image receptor distance (SID). C. High kilovolts peak (kVp). D. Low milliampere-seconds (mAs).

A. Small focal spot.

Place the following actions in the order of greatest to least impact for reducing occupational exposure during fluoroscopy. A. Stand behind control panel. B. Double distance from x-ray source or patient. C. Cut exposure time in half. D. Wear a lead apron.

A. Stand behind control panel. B. Double distance from x-ray source or patient. C. Cut exposure time in half. D. Wear a lead apron.

Which method of respiration is recommended for a soft tissue neck exam to evaluate the trachea? A. Suspended inspiration. B. Deep breathing. C. Suspended expiration. D. Shallow breathing.

A. Suspended inspiration.

What is the term for the pressure in the arterial blood vessels when the left ventricle contracts? A. Systolic. B. Diastolic. C. Hypertensive. D. Hypotensive.

A. Systolic.

The radiographer uses the Holmblad method to perform a tunnel view of the knee. What is the primary advantage of utilizing this method instead of the Camp Coventry method? A. The Holmblad method shows no distortion longitudinally or laterally. B. The Holmblad method is easier for the radiographer to properly position. C. The Holmblad method is easier for the patient than the Camp Coventry method. D. The Holmblad method is quick to position.

A. The Holmblad method shows no distortion longitudinally or laterally.

If all the bucky digital images from one radiographic room seem to appear excessively noisy, what might the radiographer suspect? A. The automatic exposure control (AEC) is set at an inappropriate speed class. B. There is a problem with the digital receptor. C. The x-ray room may need recalibration. D. It could be an anomaly and should continue to be monitored.

A. The automatic exposure control (AEC) is set at an inappropriate speed class.

The large amount of heat generated during x-ray production is primarily the result of which? A. The bombardment of the target by high-speed electrons. B. The high speed at which the anode rotates. C. The buildup of tungsten deposits on the glass envelope. D. The heat buildup in the oil surrounding the x-ray tube.

A. The bombardment of the target by high-speed electrons.

Which radiographic appearance results when the anterior surface of the patient's elbow is rotated 45 degrees medially for an anteroposterior (AP) elbow projection? A. The coronoid process is seen in profile. B. The medial and lateral epicondyles are superimposed. C. The olecranon process is seen in profile. D. The radial head and neck are free of superimposition.

A. The coronoid process is seen in profile.

Which action is best taught to the patient using the communication technique of demonstration? A. The correct positioning for a particular projection. B. Instructions for donning and removing a patient gown. C. The correct direction to face when sitting at the radiography table. D. Direction on where to sit relative to the radiography table.

A. The correct positioning for a particular projection.

What should be done to correct positioning on an anteroposterior (AP) elbow with lateral rotation, when the radial head is slightly superimposed over the proximal ulna on the first effort? A. The elbow joint should be rotated laterally. B. The forearm should be pronated to correct the error. C. The elbow joint should be rotated medially. D. The humerus and forearm should be placed in the same horizontal plane.

A. The elbow joint should be rotated laterally.

Which process describes the electron-target interaction in which most diagnostic x-rays are produced? A. The filament electron misses all of the orbital electrons and interacts with the target atom nucleus. B. Outer shell electrons have a higher energy level, but are not ionized. C. An outer shell electron fills an inner shell vacancy. D. At certain energy levels, a filament electron strikes an orbital electron and removes it from orbit.

A. The filament electron misses all of the orbital electrons and interacts with the target atom nucleus.

How should the radiographer position the patient to best demonstrate a left axillary 6th rib fracture? A. Upright and 45 degree left posterior oblique (LPO). B. Supine and 45 degree left posterior oblique (LPO). C. Prone. D. Upright posteroanterior (PA).

A. Upright and 45 degree left posterior oblique (LPO).

(Chest x-ray iage) Study the posteroanterior (PA) chest projection. What best summarizes an evaluation of this image? A. The first ribs are clipped; so, it should be repeated. B. The apices of the lungs are clipped; so, it should be repeated. C. The inspiration is not sufficient; so, it should be repeated. D. This is a diagnostic chest radiograph.

A. The first ribs are clipped; so, it should be repeated.

Which statement correctly identifies appropriate use of fluoroscopic technology? A. The fluoroscopist must ensure that a cumulative timer is present and used. B. During C-arm fluoroscopy, the patient-image intensifier distance should be as long as possible. C. A primary protective barrier of 1 mm lead equivalent is required. D. Mobile C-arm fluoroscopic devices are routinely used for walk-in radiology patients.

A. The fluoroscopist must ensure that a cumulative timer is present and used.

What is required under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)? (Select the three that apply.) A. The patients are able to request amendments to their records. B. Only patient schedules may be posted in public areas, but no other information. C. All health record information, except biometric information, must be removed when using for research purposes. D. The patient must receive written information on how the health information will be used. E. Patients have the right to request restrictions on disclosures of their information.

A. The patients are able to request amendments to their records. D. The patient must receive written information on how the health information will be used. E. Patients have the right to request restrictions on disclosures of their information.

According to Merrill's Atlas, which location represents the correct central ray (CR) placement for an axiolateral oblique mandible projection for the ramus? A. The region of interest. B. The acanthion. C. The occlusal plane. D. The point of contact between the lips.

A. The region of interest.

(Chart image 2) Study the provided filament thermal emissions chart. Note the distinct shoulder on each kilovolt peak (kVp) curve. What do these shoulders indicate? A. The space charge limited region. B. That excellent milliamperage (mA) reciprocity exists at 30 kVp. C. That the milliamperage (mA) is highly predictable at 40 kVp. Incorrect D. The emissions limited region.

A. The space charge limited region.

Place the types of contrast media in order of decreasing opacity. Correct

A. Thick barium sulfate. B. Thin barium sulfate. C. Ionic, water soluble. D. Carbon dioxide.

If a patient is to undergo a small bowel series without a preceding upper gastrointestinal series, how much barium sulfate suspension should the patient be given? A. Two 250 cc cups. B. One 250 cc cup. C. One 360 cc cup. D. Two 360 cc cups.

A. Two 250 cc cups.

How can the radiographer decrease radiation exposure when performing radiographic examinations on pediatric patients? (Select the three that apply.) A. Use non-grid techniques. B. Decrease field size. C. Increase field size. D. Use high milliampere-seconds (mAs), low kilovolts peak (kVp) techniques. E. Effectively communicate expectations to patient.

A. Use non-grid techniques. B. Decrease field size. E. Effectively communicate expectations to patient.

Which type of shock is caused by a reaction to contrast media? A. Vasogenic. B. Hypovolemic. C. Neurogenic. D. Cardiogenic.

A. Vasogenic.

*If a radiographer receives an exposure of 0.05 millisievert (msv) at a distance of 1.5 feet from the tube of a portable x-ray unit, what will the exposure be at a distance of 6 feet from the tube? A. 9 msv. B. 0.003 msv. C. 16 msv. D. 0.0125 msv.

B. 0.003 msv.

Which projection is the freest of bony superimposition over the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)? A. Axiolateral oblique (Stenvers). B. Tangential (May). C. Axiolateral (Schuller). D. Axiolateral oblique (Law).

C. Axiolateral (Schuller).

What is the National Council on Radiation Protection's (NCRP) recommended maximum annual equivalent dose to the general public for frequent exposure? A. 10 millisievert (mSv). B. 1 millisievert (mSv). C. 5 millisievert (mSv). D. 50 millisievert (mSv).

B. 1 millisievert (mSv).

According to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), what is the maximum air kerma rate for fixed fluoroscopic units? A. 4 cGy/min. B. 10 cGy/min. C. 5 cGy/min. D. 2 cGy/min.

B. 10 cGy/min.

Which fluoroscopic kilovolts peak (kVp) factor is most appropriate for optimal patient radiation protection? A. 60 - 70 kVp. B. 100 - 110 kVp. C. 70 -80 kVp. D. 80 - 90 kVp.

B. 100 - 110 kVp.

*Which describes the correct central ray (CR) orientation for a lateral decubitus abdomen? A. Iliac crest and midsagittal plane, vertical beam. B. 2 inches superior to the iliac crest and at the midsagittal plane, horizontal beam. C. 2 inches inferior to the iliac crest and at the midsagittal plane, vertical beam. D. Iliac crest and midsagittal plane, horizontal beam.

B. 2 inches superior to the iliac crest and at the midsagittal plane, horizontal beam.

How much barium is administered on an average adult patient with a colostomy undergoing a single contrast barium enema? A. 1500 mL. B. 250 mL. C. 3000 mL. D. 300 mL.

B. 250 mL.

Which central ray (CR) angle is recommended to demonstrate the coronoid process of the elbow using the Coyle method? A. 35 degrees away from the shoulder. B. 45 degrees away from the shoulder. C. 35 degrees toward the shoulder. D. 45 degrees toward the shoulder.

B. 45 degrees away from the shoulder.

A breathing technique is planned for a right anterior oblique (RAO) sternum radiograph. The intended exposure is 50 milliampere-seconds (mAs) at 75 kilovolts peak (kVp) at 100 centimeter source to image receptor distance (SID). Which milliampere (mA) station is preferred, assuming the radiographer ensures exposure occurs during the act of inspiration? A. 10. B. 50. C. 100. D. 25.

B. 50.

What is the dose area product (DAP) if the collimated field is 10 X 10 cm with a dose of 2 milligray (mgy)/minute? A. 10 mgy per cm squared. B. 100 mgy per cm squared. C. 200 mgy per cm squared. D. 20 mgy per cm squared.

C. 200 mgy per cm squared.

(Liner-threshold image) Which statements accurately describe the dose-response relationship depicted in the graph? (Select the three that apply.) A. A low radiation dose will result in a disproportionate response. B. A response will occur only at doses of radiation above a specific point. C. A response is not necessarily proportional to the radiation dose. D. A response will be directly proportional to the radiation dose. E. A radiation dose below a certain point on the graph is completely safe.

B. A response will occur only at doses of radiation above a specific point. D. A response will be directly proportional to the radiation dose. E. A radiation dose below a certain point on the graph is completely safe.

A request for a shoulder exam comes from the emergency room. The patient has a large deformity anterior to the shoulder and the physician suspects an anterior dislocation. Which are the most appropriate views to take on this patient? A. Posteroanterior (PA) internal and external rotation views. B. Anteroposterior (AP) projection in neutral rotation and posteroanterior (PA) oblique scapular Y. C. Anteroposterior (AP) projections in internal, external, and neutral rotation. D. Posteroanterior (PA) neutral and external rotation views.

B. Anteroposterior (AP) projection in neutral rotation and posteroanterior (PA) oblique scapular Y.

On a radiograph of a shoulder, the greater tubercle is visualized in profile. Which projection was taken? A. Transthoracic lateral (Lawrence method). B. Anteroposterior (AP), external rotation. C. Anteroposterior (AP), internal rotation. D. Scapular-Y.

B. Anteroposterior (AP), external rotation.

Which rule is followed when examining unconscious patients? A. Proceed as if the patient were conscious, asking questions and giving instructions. B. Avoid saying things you would not say to a conscious patient. C. Remain as quiet as possible to avoid waking the patient during the exam. D. Speak openly in front of the patient, since they cannot hear or understand you.

B. Avoid saying things you would not say to a conscious patient.

A radiographer receives a request for a portable chest x-ray and then performs the x-ray on the incorrect patient. Which legal term best describes the actions of the radiographer? A. Invasion of privacy. B. Battery. C. Negligence. D. Assault.

B. Battery.

When obtaining a blood pressure reading, systolic and diastolic values are determined by monitoring which pulse point? A. Apical. B. Brachial. C. Carotid. D. Radial.

B. Brachial.

Which device temporarily stores an electric charge? A. Diode. B. Capacitor. C. Autotransformer. D. Rectifier.

B. Capacitor.

Which type of radiation is produced when an outer shell electron fills an inner shell vacancy? A. Bremsstrahlung. B. Characteristic. C. Scatter. D. Remnant.

B. Characteristic.

How can the contrast scale be modified on a digital image? (Select the two that apply.) A. Increase the kilovolts peak (kVp). B. Collimate more closely. C. Decrease the kilovolts peak (kVp). D. Alter the window width. E. Alter the window level.

B. Collimate more closely. D. Alter the window width.

Which method should be the first choice to reduce exposure to the reproductive organs in every radiographic exam? A. Reduce exposure time. B. Collimate to include only the anatomy of interest. C. Employ high kilovolts peak (kVp) techniques. D. Use gonadal shielding.

B. Collimate to include only the anatomy of interest.

What is the function of a rectifier? A. Change direct current to high frequency current. B. Convert alternating current to pulsating direct current. C. Convert direct current to alternating current. D. Increase 60 Hertz alternating current to high frequency current.

B. Convert alternating current to pulsating direct current.

Washing the hands with soap and waterdisrupts the chain of infection by which process? A. Reducing host susceptibility to microorganisms. B. Decreasing the number of pathogens present. C. Preventing pathogens from exiting the host. D. Killing all microorganisms on the surface of the skin. Incorrect

B. Decreasing the number of pathogens present.

Identify the medical condition in a patient's history which should be cleared by the radiologist before injection of an ionic, water soluble, injectable contrast agent. A. Phenylketonuria. B. Diabetes. C. Osteomyelitis. D. Age over 40.

B. Diabetes.

Which history factor has an increased risk of aspiration during an upper gastrointestinal study? A. Constipation. B. Dizziness. C. Steroid therapy. D. Colon biopsy.

B. Dizziness.

A radiographer prepares to perform an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the distal femur on a patient with a suspected femoral fracture. Which represents the best approach for positioning both the patient and the x-ray tube? A. Rotate the leg 15 degrees medially; place the cathode end of the tube toward the foot. B. Do not rotate the leg; place the anode end of the tube toward the foot. C. Rotate the leg 15 degrees medially; place the anode end of the tube toward the foot. D. Do not rotate the leg; place the cathode end of the tube toward the foot.

B. Do not rotate the leg; place the anode end of the tube toward the foot.

*Which pathologic condition requires a reduction in exposure factors to produce an acceptable image? A. Atelectasis. B. Emphysema. C. Late stage Paget's disease. D. Congestive heart failure (CHF).

B. Emphysema.

*Which part of the x-ray circuit is controlled by adjusting the milliamperage (mA) setting on the operating console for the purpose of producing the heat necessary for thermionic emission? A. Secondary circuit. B. Filament circuit. C. Timer circuit. D. Primary circuit.

B. Filament circuit.

Why is the left lateral decubitus position recommended as part of an acute abdominal series? A. Aspiration may be avoided in case of vomiting. B. Free air is demonstrated away from the gastric bubble. C. Air-fluid levels are better visualized. Incorrect D. The patient is unable to stand.

B. Free air is demonstrated away from the gastric bubble.

Which digital communication network is used to store patient billing information? A. HR. B. HIS. C. PACS. D. RIS.

B. HIS.

Which standard governs communication between the system that contains the patient's full medical information and the system that has radiology-specific data? A. Hospital information system (HIS). B. Health level 7 (HL-7). C. Digital imaging and communication in medicine (DICOM). D. Picture archival and communication system (PACS).

B. Health level 7 (HL-7).

Biologic damage resulting from the ionization of key atoms causing these molecules to become inactive or functionally altered is much more likely to occur after exposure to which type of radiation? A. Low-LET radiation such as x-rays. B. HIgh-LET radiation such as alpha particles. C. Nonionizing radiation such as microwaves. D. High-LET radiation such as gamma rays.

B. High-LET radiation such as alpha particles.

Where should the central ray (CR) be directed for a lateral lumbosacral spine projection when using a 14 x 17 in (35 x 43 cm) image receptor (IR)? A. Xiphoid process. B. Iliac crest. C. Anterior superior iliac spine. D. Lower costal margin.

B. Iliac crest.

(Last-Spine image)Consider this lateral lumbar spine image. Which strategy will have the greatest improvement on image quality? A. Increase milliampere-seconds (mAs). B. Immobilize the patient. C. Select a faster speed image receptor. D. Decrease the source to image receptor distance (SID).

B. Immobilize the patient.

If a transformer has a greater number of turns in the secondary coil than in the primary coil, how will the output voltage be affected? A. No change. B. Increased. C. Unable to determine from information given. D. Decreased.

B. Increased.

Which anatomical landmark coincides with the level of the central ray (CR) entrance point for a posteroanterior (PA) chest projection? A. Sternal angle. B. Inferior border of the scapula. C. Manubrium. Incorrect D. Xiphoid process.

B. Inferior border of the scapula.

X-ray machines are designed to operate at a specific and continuous supply voltage. Which part of the imaging system is responsible for keeping incoming voltage adjusted to the proper value? A. Milliampere (mA) meter. B. Line compensator. C. Autotransformer. D. Kilovolts peak (kVp) meter.

B. Line compensator.

How is signal maximized to a digital image receptor? A. Higher source to image receptor distance (SID) value. B. Longer exposure time. C. Lower milliamperage (mA) setting. D. Shorter exposure time.

B. Longer exposure time.

Which step will reduce digital image noise, assuming no other changes? A. Image magnification. B. Longer exposure time. C. Decreased kilovolts peak (kVp). D. Small pixel size.

B. Longer exposure time.

Where is edge enhancement post processing most helpful in digital radiography? A. Abdominal soft tissue studies. B. Low contrast situations. C. High contrast situations. D. Spinal examinations.

B. Low contrast situations.

For a lateral femur, if a patient is rotated too far anteriorly, what will happen to the condyles on the distal femur? A. They will superimpose. B. Medial condyle will be anterior to the lateral condyle. C. Medial condyle will be posterior to the lateral condyle. D. Medial condyle will be inferior to the lateral condyle.

B. Medial condyle will be anterior to the lateral condyle.

Where should the radiographer direct the central ray for a posteroanterior (PA) chest? A. Midsagittal plane and 7-9 cm below the vertebral prominens. B. Midsagittal plane and 18-20 cm below the vertebral prominens. C. Midsagittal plane and 14-16 cm below the vertebral prominens. D. Midsagittal plane and 11-13 cm below the vertebral prominens.

B. Midsagittal plane and 18-20 cm below the vertebral prominens. (8-10)

Which is the disease process that causes increased radiodensity in the lung fields on an image due to inflammation and accumulation of fluid? A. Primary tuberculosis. B. Pneumonia. C. Pneumothorax. D. Pleurisy.

B. Pneumonia.

*Which x-ray beam characteristic is reduced by adding aluminum filtration? A. Half-value layer. B. Quantity of x-rays. C. Energy of the x-ray beam. D. X-ray beam quality.

B. Quantity of x-rays.

A radiographer critiques an anteroposterior (AP) image of the ribs. The left sternoclavicular (SC) joint is demonstrated without vertebral column superimposition. What should the radiographer do? A. Ask the patient to take a deeper inspiration. B. Rotate the patient to the right. C. Accept the image. D. Rotate the patient to the left.

B. Rotate the patient to the right.

Which type of x-ray photons are present in the remnant x-ray beam, but not in the primary beam? A. Unattenuated. B. Scattered. C. Characteristic. D. Bremsstrahlung.

B. Scattered.

According to "Merrill's Atlas," where should the central ray (CR) be centered to best demonstrate the rami for a posteroanterior (PA) mandible projection? A. The glabella. B. The acanthion. C. The occlusal plane. D. The point of contact between the lips.

B. The acanthion.

Which factor determines the amount of energy of a bremsstrahlung x-ray? A. The number of electrons traveling from cathode to anode. B. The distance between the filament electron and the nucleus of the target atom. C. The difference in the binding energies of the orbital shells involved. D. The atomic number of the target material.

B. The distance between the filament electron and the nucleus of the target atom.

Which steps are involved in legally obtaining informed consent to perform a radiographic procedure? (Select the four that apply.) A. The patient signed an informed consent form of their own volition in view of multiple witnesses. B. The patient is legally competent. C. The patient has been informed about alternatives to this particular procedure. D. The patient has been informed about procedures in place to mitigate risks. E. The patient has been informed about the risks involved in the procedure.

B. The patient is legally competent. C. The patient has been informed about alternatives to this particular procedure. D. The patient has been informed about procedures in place to mitigate risks. E. The patient has been informed about the risks involved in the procedure.

*A patient received 100 ml of IV contrast media as a part of an abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan, as well as 500 ml of dilute, oral contrast, prior to coming to Radiology for a separate order, an intravenous urogram (IVU). The patient's creatinine is 0.4 mg/dl and BUN is 36 mg/dl. Why should this IVU be rescheduled? A. The lab values indicate increased risk for contrast injection. B. The presence of the previous oral contrast in the abdomen precludes an IVU. C. The lab values indicate that the contrast would not be excreted in sufficient quantity to be useful for an IVU. D. The presence of the previous intravenous contrast precludes an IVU.

B. The presence of the previous oral contrast in the abdomen precludes an IVU.

Computed radiography (CR) imaging creates images with poorer resolution than that of film screen. What compensates for this loss of resolution? A. Use of high-pass filtering. B. The wide latitude. C. The ability to reprocess images. D. Use of edge enhancement.

B. The wide latitude.

What do limiting spatial resolution (LSR) and modulation transfer function (MTF) have in common? A. They are both indicators of exposure for digital receptors. B. They both measure spatial resolution in digital imaging. C. They both affect brightness of the digital image. D. They measure how efficiently an image is moved to the picture archiving and communication system (PACS).

B. They both measure spatial resolution in digital imaging.

An emergency room physician suspects a 14-year-old male patient may have Osgood-Schlatter's disease. Which radiographic exam might the ER physician order to evaluate this? A. Femur. B. Tibia-fibula. C. Ankle. D. Foot.

B. Tibia-fibula.

Which condition requires a patient to be placed in a negative pressure room, and healthcare workers to wear respiratory protection when entering? A. Influenza. B. Tuberculosis. C. Staphylococcus aureus. D. Hepatitis C.

B. Tuberculosis.

A posteroanterior (PA) chest radiograph demonstrates the left clavicle closer to the center of the spine than the right clavicle. Which action should the radiographer take? A. Roll shoulders forward. B. Turn right side closer to image receptor (IR). C. Turn left side closer to image receptor (IR). D. Accept the image.

B. Turn right side closer to image receptor (IR).

(Last-chest image) In this chest radiograph, where is the clinically significant gas located? A. Within the stomach. B. Under the right hemidiaphragm. C. Within the thorax. D. Under the left hemidiaphragm.

B. Under the right hemidiaphragm.

Which type of exposure technique chart would allow the radiographer to make small, fine adjustments for orthopedic work? A. Anatomically programmed radiography (APR). B. Variable kilovolts peak (kVp). C. Fixed kilovolts peak (kVp). D. Automatic exposure control (AEC).

B. Variable kilovolts peak (kVp).

How should a mobile C-arm fluoroscope be positioned to provide maximum radiation protection to the operator? A. With the x-ray tube above the patient and as close to the patient as possible. B. With the x-ray tube under the patient and as far from the patient as possible. C. With the x-ray tube under the patient and as close to the patient as possible. D. With the x-ray tube above the patient and as far from the patient as possible.

B. With the x-ray tube under the patient and as far from the patient as possible.

In cassette-based computed radiography (CR) systems, the photostimulable phosphor plate is made of which material? Cesium iodide. Amorphous silicon. Barium fluorohalide. Calcium tungstate.

Barium fluorohalide.

At which location is the ionization chamber located in an automatic exposure control (AEC) device? Between the image receptor (IR) and the wall. Between the patient and the image receptor (IR). Between the grid and the image receptor (IR). Between and the x-ray tube and the patient.

Between the grid and the image receptor (IR).

Which is the genetically significant dose (GSD) for the population of the United States? A. 1 millisievert (mSv). B. 0.80 millisievert (mSv). C. 0.20 millisievert (mSv). D. 0.40 millisievert (mSv).

C. 0.20 millisievert (mSv).

*A portable knee exam performed in the operating room results in a beam intensity of 2.5 milligray (mgy) at 32 inches. What is the intensity of the beam if the same exposure factors are used for a post-operative knee at a distance of 40 inches? A. 3.12 mgy. B. 2.00 mgy. C. 1.60 mgy. D. 3.90 mgy.

C. 1.60 mgy.

Which x-ray tube orientation is used to create a 90-degree angle between the central ray (CR) and the metatarsals for an anteroposterior (AP) axial projection of the foot? A. 15 degrees posteriorly. B. Parallel to the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint spaces. C. 10 degrees posteriorly. D. Perpendicular to the image receptor (IR). Incorrect

C. 10 degrees posteriorly.

What is the longest field size dimension allowable for 10 inches by 12 inches collimation at a 40 inch source to image distance (SID)? A. 11.4 inches. B. 10.6 inches. C. 12.8 inches. D. 13.2 inches.

C. 12.8 inches.

Identify the proper medical record documentation of medication administration. A. 0.5% Lidocaine, 2.5 mg/kg, IV, 03/13/2010, 8:45 a.m. B. 07/13/2005, 1:35 p.m., two 25 mg Benadryl tablets. C. 5 mcg/min, Epinephrine, IV, 11/12/2007, 0940. D. 20 mg, Prednisone, PO, 09/16/2011.

C. 5 mcg/min, Epinephrine, IV, 11/12/2007, 0940.

Which set of exposure factors is most likely to provide clear visualization of the upper cervical spine through the mandible when performing an anteroposterior (AP) "wagging jaw" projection (Ottonello Method)? A. 85 kilovolts peak (kVp), 200 milliamperes (mA), 0.2 seconds. B. 85 kilovolts peak (kVp), 400 milliamperes (mA), 0.1 seconds. C. 75 kilovolts peak (kVp), 25 milliamperes (mA), 2.0 seconds. D. 75 kilovolts peak (kVp), 100 milliamperes (mA), 0.5 seconds.

C. 75 kilovolts peak (kVp), 25 milliamperes (mA), 2.0 seconds.

What is the angle between the intervertebral foramina and the midsagittal plane in the thoracic spine? A. 45 degrees. B. 110 degrees. C. 90 degrees. D. 70 degrees.

C. 90 degrees.

Which computed radiography (CR) or digital radiography (DR) system produces images with the highest spatial resolution? A. Cesium iodide / amorphous silicon - indirect DR. B. Photostimulable phosphor CR. C. Amorphous selenium - direct capture DR. D. Cesium iodide - indirect capture DR

C. Amorphous selenium - direct capture DR.

*Which positioning procedure is performed to demonstrate the right intervertebral foramina (IVF) of the cervical spine? A. Anteroposterior (AP) projection, 15 to 20 degree cephalic central ray (CR) angle. B. Anteroposterior (AP) projection, 45-degree right posterior oblique (RPO) position. C. Anteroposterior (AP) projection, 45-degree left posterior oblique position (LPO). D. Lateral position, with right side against the image receptor (IR). Incorrect

C. Anteroposterior (AP) projection, 45-degree left posterior oblique position (LPO).

Which projection of the foot demonstrates the cuboid bone in profile with the least bony superimposition? A. Lateral. B. Anteroposterior (AP). C. Anteroposterior (AP), medial oblique. D. Anteroposterior (AP), lateral oblique.

C. Anteroposterior (AP), medial oblique.

There are several methods to overcome sagging of the lumbar spine in the lateral position. Where should the radiographer begin? A. Building up under the lowest part of the spine to place the spine parallel to the table. B. Flexing the hips and knees more than 90 degrees to engage spinal alignment muscles. C. Assessing the line connecting the spinous processes relative to the tabletop. D. Using a 5 degree caudal central ray angle to open up the intervertebral joints. Incorrect

C. Assessing the line connecting the spinous processes relative to the tabletop.

Which feature of fluoroscopic equipment is designed to reduce entrance skin exposure to the patient? A. Magnification mode. B. Spot film device protective curtain. C. Beam filtration. D. Bucky slot shielding device.

C. Beam filtration.

A carpenter smashes his index finger with a hammer. Which type of fracture might be shown on the subsequent radiographs of the finger? A. Depressed. B. Spiral. C. Comminuted. D. Torus.

C. Comminuted.

Which structure is demonstrated without superimposition on a properly positioned medial oblique foot image? A. First metatarsal. B. First cuneiform. C. Cuboid. D. Navicular.

C. Cuboid.

Which factor will increase x-ray beam quantity at the image receptor (IR) without increasing heat units produced by the tube? A. Increased source-image distance (SID). B. Decreased potential difference. C. Decreased filtration. D. Increased grid ratio.

C. Decreased filtration.

What would a continuous, fine, horizontal white line across the computed radiography image indicate? A. Static electricity. B. Backscatter artifact. C. Dirt on the light guide or laser head. D. A crack in the phosphor layer of the cassette.

C. Dirt on the light guide or laser head.

What does "ventricular fibrillation" mean? A. Premature ventricular contractions. B. Slow heart rate. C. Erratically quivering ventricles. D. Rapid heart rate.

C. Erratically quivering ventricles.

Which type of contrast is best if a patient is suspected of having a perforated bowel? A. Gadolinium. B. Barium sulfate. C. Gastrografin. D. Isovue.

C. Gastrografin.

Why should a radiographer routinely use a small focal spot when imaging extremities? A. Decrease in contrast. B. Increase the life of the x-ray tube. C. Increase in spatial resolution. D. Decrease in patient dose.

C. Increase in spatial resolution.

In order to increase the number of shades of gray displayed on a digital image what should be done? A. Decrease the window width. B. Decrease the window level. C. Increase the window width. D. Increase the window level.

C. Increase the window width.

As linear energy transfer (LET) increases, the ability of ionizing radiation to cause biologic effects does what? A. Decreases slightly. B. Remains constant, not increasing or decreasing. C. Increases until it reaches a maximal value. D. Decreases considerably,

C. Increases until it reaches a maximal value.

Which part of the scapula is used as a positioning landmark due to its location at the level of the seventh thoracic vertebra? A. Acromion. B. Coracoid process. C. Inferior angle. D. Lateral angle.

C. Inferior angle.

Why should computed radiography (CR) image receptors (IR) be erased if they haven't been used? A. Ensure dropout artifacts do not occur. B. Eliminate phantom artifacts. C. Remove fog from background radiation. D. Prevent a Moire effect.

C. Remove fog from background radiation.

A radiographer enters a room to take a portable foot series on a patient in her final trimester of pregnancy. The patient is just finishing her lunch and begins choking. How should the radiographer respond to this medical emergency? A. Apply an inward and upward thrust in the midline of the abdomen. I B. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position. C. Initiate a backward thrust in the center of the sternum. D. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

C. Initiate a backward thrust in the center of the sternum.

Under which condition might an x-ray photon be deviated from its original direction? A. Speed increases. B. Photon mass increases. C. Interaction occurs. D. Focused by a lens.

C. Interaction occurs.

A radiographer prepares to do an excretory urogram on a patient who has a history of asthma. At this institution, policies are in place to select the type of contrast used based on the needs of the patient. Which type of contrast should be used in this situation? A. Iodinated, ionic. B. This condition does not define type of contrast given. C. Iodinated, nonionic. D. The exam would be cancelled.

C. Iodinated, nonionic.

An electrically neutral sodium atom has 1 valence electron. What chemical event happens when the sodium atoms encounter a chlorine atom with 7 valence electrons? A. Repulsion. B. Attraction. C. Ionic bonding. D. Covalent bonding.

C. Ionic bonding.

Which bony landmark is commonly used for central ray location on an anteroposterior (AP) chest projection? A. Xiphoid process. B. T7 spinous process. C. Jugular notch. D. Vertebrae prominens.

C. Jugular notch.

Which items can be used as indicators of the quality of the diagnostic x-ray beam? (Select the two that apply.) A. S (exposure time). B. Source to image receptor distance (SID). C. Kilovolts peak (kVp). D. Object to image receptor distance (OID). E. Half Value Layer (HVL).

C. Kilovolts peak (kVp). E. Half Value Layer (HVL).

Which will increase the appearance of noise in a digital image, assuming only the named factor in each response is changed? A. Increased mAs. B. Short SID. C. Large matrix. D. High kVp technique.

C. Large matrix.

When performing an anteroposterior (AP) Axial (Towne method) image of the skull, which reference line should be perpendicular to the image receptor (IR) if using a 30 degree caudal angle? A. Line C. B. Line D. C. Line B. D. Line A.

C. Line B. (OML)

What results from utilizing a lower ratio grid? A. Higher contrast and less latitude in central ray (CR) positioning. B. Higher contrast and greater latitude in central ray (CR) positioning. C. Lower contrast, but greater error margin in central ray (CR) placement. D. Lower contrast, but less leeway in positioning the central ray (CR) to the grid.

C. Lower contrast, but greater error margin in central ray (CR) placement.

Which projection best demonstrates the tripod fracture of the orbit? A. Anteroposterior (AP) axial (Towne). B. Posteroanterior (PA) axial (Caldwell). C. Modified parietoacanthial (Modified Waters). D. Parietoacanthial (Waters).

C. Modified parietoacanthial (Modified Waters).

Which is an advantage of using a optically stimulated luminescent (OSL) dosimeter as opposed to a film badge? A. Readings as low as 5 millirem (mrem). B. Inexpensive. C. Not fogged by heat. D. Immediate readings available.

C. Not fogged by heat.

The Holmblad method is performed to demonstrate which radiographic appearance? A. Superimposed medial and lateral condyles. B. Open tibiofemoral joint space. C. Open intercondylar fossa. D. Patella in profile.

C. Open intercondylar fossa.

orientation for an anteroposterior (AP) semierect chest projection? A. Perpendicular to the image receptor. Incorrect B. Parallel to the midsagittal plane. C. Parallel to the floor. D. Perpendicular to the midcoronal plane.

C. Parallel to the floor.

Which projection of the facial bones demonstrates the petrous pyramids below the maxillary sinuses? A. Posteroanterior (PA). B. Anteroposterior (AP) axial (modified Towne). C. Parietoacanthial (Waters). D. Posteroanterior (PA) axial (Caldwell).

C. Parietoacanthial (Waters).

On a lateral radiograph of a patient's leg, where will the patient's tibia be in relation to the fibula? A. Superior to fibula. B. Completely superimposed. C. Partially superimposed. D. Posterior to fibula.

C. Partially superimposed.

What is the advantage of using a high kilovolts peak (kVp), low milliamperage seconds (mAs) technique with digital radiography (DR) systems? A. Spatial resolution increases. B. Scale of contrast increases. C. Patient exposure decreases. D. Quantum noise decreases.

C. Patient exposure decreases.

Which component of radiographic noise in digital imaging is controlled by the radiographer? A. Electronic noise. B. Film graininess. C. Quantum mottle. D. Structure mottle.

C. Quantum mottle.

Which study is considered a nonfunctional examination of the urinary system? A. Intravenous urogram. B. Hypertensive urogram. C. Retrograde urogram. D. Voiding cystourethrogram.

C. Retrograde urogram.

An exam of the right sacroiliac (SI) joint was performed by placing the patient in a 30-degree left posterior oblique (LPO) position with the central ray (CR) directed 1 inch medial to the left anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). The resulting image demonstrates a closed right SI joint space. Which is the most likely explanation for this appearance? A. The patient was not rotated enough. B. The patient was placed in the wrong posterior oblique position. C. The CR was directed to the wrong ASIS. D. The CR was not angled 30 degrees cephalad.

C. The CR was directed to the wrong ASIS.

*A lateral L-5/S-1 lumbosacral junction is performed with the central ray (CR) directed 2 inches anterior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and 1-1/2 inches inferior to the iliac crest. Which statement describes this method? A. The central ray will be correctly centered to the L-5/S-1 junction. B. The central ray will be well posterior to the L-5/S-1 junction. C. The central ray will be well anterior to the L-5/S-1 junction. D. The central ray will be well superior to the L-5/S-1 junction.

C. The central ray will be well anterior to the L-5/S-1 junction.

(4 Shoulder images) Study the four digital images of both shoulders. What best describes the quality of these images? A. The degree of external rotation was inadequate on both sides. B. All four images are diagnostic. C. The degree of internal rotation was inadequate on both sides. D. The collimator field is too large in the left internal rotation view.

C. The degree of internal rotation was inadequate on both sides.

A radiographer evaluates a posteroanterior (PA) chest radiograph. The image demonstrates rotation, but the radiographer believes that the rotation resulted from the patient's scoliosis. What would be demonstrated on the image to make the radiographer believe this is the case? A. The right lateral lung margin is consistently closer to the spine than the left. B. Asymmetrical appearance of the sternoclavicular (SC) joints. C. The distance between the lung margins and the spine varies down the length of each lung. D. One clavicle is closer to the spine than the other.

C. The distance between the lung margins and the spine varies down the length of each lung.

Which accurately describes the radiation dose absorbed by bone marrow A. The dose can be accurately measured by using an optically stimulated luminescent (OSL) dosimeter. B. The dose will be greater than the entrance skin exposure. C. The dose will be less than the entrance skin exposure. D. The dose can be accurately measured by a direct method.

C. The dose will be less than the entrance skin exposure.

Which lumbar spine structures are best demonstrated with the patient in a 45-degree left posterior oblique (LPO) position? A. The left intervertebral foramina. B. The right intervertebral foramina. C. The left zygapophyseal joints. D. The right zygapophyseal joints.

C. The left zygapophyseal joints.

The highest potential dose to the radiographer during c-arm fluoroscopy originates from which source? A. The side where x-rays exit the patient. B. Leakage radiation from the image intensifier. C. The side where x-rays enter the patient. D. Leakage radiation from the x-ray tube.

C. The side where x-rays enter the patient.

What is the proper sequencing of exams if a patient is scheduled for a barium enema (BE), intravenous urogram (IVU), and thyroid uptake and scan on the same day? A. BE, thyroid uptake and scan, IVU. B. IVU, BE, thyroid uptake and scan. C. Thyroid uptake and scan, IVU, BE. D. IVU, thyroid uptake and scan, BE.

C. Thyroid uptake and scan, IVU, BE.

When performing a right anterior oblique (RAO) projection of the sternum, a radiographer will rotate the patient 15-20 degrees. Why is this done? A. To superimpose the vertebrae and sternum. B. To prevent the sternum from being in the shadow of the heart. C. To prevent superimposition of the vertebrae and sternum. D. To flatten the sternum out.

C. To prevent superimposition of the vertebrae and sternum.

Picture archiving and communication system (PACS) networks are capable of performing which functions? (Select the two that apply.) A. Tracking radiology scheduling information. B. Processing laboratory reports. C. Transmitting diagnostic images to remote work stations. D. Downloading images from different imaging modalities. E. Tracking billing information.

C. Transmitting diagnostic images to remote work stations. D. Downloading images from different imaging modalities.

With all other factors remaining the same, a decrease in kilovolts peak (kVp) will cause an increase in which x-ray beam characteristic? A. Frequency. B. Half-value layer. C. Wavelength. D. Quantity.

C. Wavelength.

What precautions should a radiographer take when entering the room of a patient with varicella virus? A. Wear a surgical mask, gloves and gown. B. Don gloves. C. Wear aparticulate respirator mask, gloves and gown. D. Wear a surgical mask.

C. Wear aparticulate respirator mask, gloves and gown.

*What is the result if pixel bit depth is decreased? Image noise is decreased. Brightness is increased. Spatial resolution is increased. Contrast resolution is decreased.

Contrast resolution is decreased.

(AP L-spine image) Place the cursor over the area which depicts history of a cholecystectomy and left click.

Curser on 2nd mid-right-rib

Determine the file size for an image with a 512 x 512 matrix and 12 gray scale bit depth. A. 3,145,748 bytes. B. 25,165,824 bytes. C. 262,144 bytes. D. 393,216 bytes.

D. 393,216 bytes. (512x512x12/8=393,216)

A patient receives an entrance skin dose of 5 mGy during a lumbar spine procedure. How much exposure will the radiographer receive when standing 1 meter from the patient? A. 0.015 mGy. B. 0.01 mGy. C. 0.025 mGy. D. 0.005 mGy.

D. 0.005 mGy.

(Chart image) A radiographic rating chart is provided for a portable unit. Which combination of milliamperes (mA), seconds, and kilovolts peak (kVp) is permissible for a single exposure according to the chart? A. 140 mA, 1/10 second, 90 kVp. B. 200 mA, 1/60 second, 70 kVp. C. 160 mA, 1/30 second, 80 kVp. D. 100 mA, 1/20 second, 110 kVp.

D. 100 mA, 1/20 second, 110 kVp.

Digital radiography has the ability to produce 16,000 shades of gray. What appropriate bit depth (dynamic range) does this represent? A. 10 bit depth. B. 16 bit depth. C. 12 bit depth. D. 14 bit depth.

D. 14 bit depth.

How should the central ray (CR) be angled to compensate for a patient who is unable to assume the erect lordotic position for an anteroposterior (AP) axial lordotic projection of the chest? A. 5 - 10 degrees caudad. B. 15 - 20 degrees caudad. C. 5 - 10 degrees cephalad. D. 15 - 20 degrees cephalad.

D. 15 - 20 degrees cephalad.

Which central ray (CR) angulation is recommended for an anteroposterior (AP) axial projection of the toes? A. 5 degrees toward the heel. B. 40 degrees toward the heel. C. 30 degrees toward the heel. D. 15 degrees toward the heel.

D. 15 degrees toward the heel.

Which percentage of hospital patients receiving antibiotics develop Clostridium difficile (C. diff) colitis infections? A. 40%. B. 10%. C. 1%. D. 20%.

D. 20%.

Which describes the correct positioning for demonstrating the right sacroiliac (SI) joint, with the joint space open? A. 35 degrees, right posterior oblique (RPO). B. 35 degrees, left posterior oblique (LPO). C. 25 degrees, right posterior oblique (RPO). D. 25 degrees, left posterior oblique (LPO).

D. 25 degrees, left posterior oblique (LPO).

Fetal exposure, in excess of which level, warrants possible termination of a pregnancy? A. 50 mGy. B. 100 mGy. C. 150 mGy. D. 250 mGy.

D. 250 mGy.

Where should the central ray (CR) enter the patient for a lateral sacrum projection? A. 2 inches posterior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). B. 3-4 inches posterior and 2 inches inferior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). C. 2 inches posterior and 2 inches inferior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). D. 3-4 inches posterior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).

D. 3-4 inches posterior to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS).

A patient with a left anterior rib injury. In which position should the patient be placed for the oblique image? A. 45-degree left anterior oblique (LAO). B. 30-degree right anterior oblique (RAO). C. 30-degree left anterior oblique (LAO). D. 45-degree right anterior oblique (RAO).

D. 45-degree right anterior oblique (RAO).

What angle is formed between the petrous pyramids and the midsagittal plane (MSP) in the average human skull? A. 40 degrees. B. 60 degrees. C. 54 degrees. D. 47 degrees.

D. 47 degrees.

Which is the proper amount and direction of heel rotation recommended for a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the patella? A. 10 to 15 degrees laterally. B. 10 to 15 degrees medially. C. 5 to 10 degrees medially. D. 5 to 10 degrees laterally.

D. 5 to 10 degrees laterally.

What is the annual occupational effective dose limit for a 43-year-old radiographer? A. 43 millisievert (mSv). B. 4.3 millisievert (mSv). C. 5 millisievert (mSv). D. 50 millisievert (mSv).

D. 50 millisievert (mSv). (Annual not based on age)

Which grid ratio results in the lowest dose to a patient, because less milliampere-seconds (mAs) is required? A. 12:1. B. 8:1. C. 16:1. D. 5:1.

D. 5:1. (lowest)

A radiographer stands six feet from the x-ray source when performing a portable chest exam and receives an exposure of 2 mGy. If the radiographer performs a repeat exam using the same technical factors standing at a distance of three feet from the source, how much exposure will be received? A. 4 mGy. B. 16 mGy. C. 1 mGy. D. 8 mGy.

D. 8 mGy. (2x4)

A radiographer is performing a portable abdomen is using an image receptor with an 8:1 grid. The radiographer knows a technique for the abdomen using a 12:1 grid is 80 kilovolts peak (kVp) using 50 milliampere-seconds (mAs). Which would the new technique be in order to maintain image quality? A. 80 kVp @ 25 mAs. B. 80 kVp @ 30 mAs. C. 80 kVp @ 60.5 mAs. D. 80 kVp @ 40 mAs.

D. 80 kVp @ 40 mAs.

A patient with advanced Alzheimer's disease needs to have a lung biopsy. Which condition is involved in legally obtaining informed consent to perform this procedure? A. The patient is mentally competent. B. The patient has been informed about the risks involved in the procedure. C. The patient has signed an informed consent form of their own volition in view of multiple witnesses. D. A guardian has been fully informed.

D. A guardian has been fully informed.

How does the Density log Exposure (D log E) curve appear for a digital imaging receptor (IR)? A. An S curve. B. A steep slope. Incorrect C. A shallow slope. D. A straight line at a 45 degree angle.

D. A straight line at a 45 degree angle.

What can be demonstrated with a left lateral decubitus position of the thorax? A. Air in the pleural spaces of the apices and fluid in the pleural space of the costophrenic angles. B. Fluid in the right pleural space and air in the left pleural space. C. Fluid in the pleural spaces of the apices and air in the pleural space of the costophrenic angles. D. Air in the right pleural space and fluid in the left pleural space.

D. Air in the right pleural space and fluid in the left pleural space.

Which statement describes the presence of patient rotation on a lateral cervical spine image? A. Anterior to posterior narrowing of intervertebral foramina. B. Superior to inferior narrowing of intervertebral foramina. C. Superior to inferior displacement of zygapophyseal joints. D. Anterior to posterior displacement of zygapophyseal joints.

D. Anterior to posterior displacement of zygapophyseal joints.

*Following administration of contrast media, the radiologist asks the radiographer to obtain a conus projection. Which patient postion and centering point should be used for the image? A. Lateral centered to T12-L-1. B. Lateral centered to L3-L4. C. Anteroposterior (AP) centered to L3-L-4. D. Anteroposterior (AP) centered to T-12-L1.

D. Anteroposterior (AP) centered to T-12-L1.

Which position best demonstrates a posterior rib injury above the diaphragm? A. Posteroanterior (PA), upright. B. Anteroposterior (AP), supine. C. Posteroanterior (PA), prone. D. Anteroposterior (AP), upright.

D. Anteroposterior (AP), upright.

Which patient body habitus may require the patient to be in the Trendelenburg position during a small bowel series? A. Sthenic. B. Hyposthenic. C. Hypersthenic. D. Asthenic.

D. Asthenic.

What is the term for a reduction in x-ray photon intensity as it passes through the patient? A. Divergence. B. Absorption. C. Scattering. D. Attenuation.

D. Attenuation.

Which term refers to the process by which digital radiography (DR) systems adjust for exposure errors so that the image is displayed with proper brightness and contrast levels? A. Edge enhancement. B. Image inversion. C. Contrast manipulation. D. Automatic rescaling.

D. Automatic rescaling.

Which legal concept is violated by a radiographer who performs an examination without an examination order? A. Respondeat superior. B. Res ipsa loquitor. C. Malpractice. D. Battery.

D. Battery.

Which finding is considered a contraindication for myelography? A. Bone fragments in the spinal canal. B. Malignant spinal cord tumor. C. Herniated nucleus pulposus. D. Blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.

D. Blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.

Which factor will decrease the patient's dose during fluoroscopy? A. Use continuous fluoroscopy. B. Use the magnification mode. Incorrect C. Increase the milliampere-seconds (mAs). D. Bring the image intensifier as close as possible to the patient.

D. Bring the image intensifier as close as possible to the patient.

Which property describes x-rays? A. Are focused by the collimator. B. Travel faster than 186,282 miles per second. C. Are electrically negative. D. Cause biological and chemical changes.

D. Cause biological and chemical changes.

Which is an advantage of an optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter (OSL)? A. The device can be used for up to 90 days. B. Very sensitive to heat and humidity exposure. C. Incredibly expensive device to purchase, especially for departments with a large radiology staff. D. Classifies various energy levels of radiation received.

D. Classifies various energy levels of radiation received.

Which component of a diagnostic x-ray tube restricts the primary beam to the area of interest? A. Focusing cup. B. Protective housing. C. Electrostatic lenses. D. Collimator.

D. Collimator.

A patient with a wound infection caused by methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) should be placed under which type of precaution? A. Droplet. B. Airborne. C. Universal. D. Contact.

D. Contact.

(Scapular Y image) A lateral scapula image demonstrates the lateral border of the scapula next to the ribs and the vertebral border of the scapula demonstrated posterolaterally. How should the radiographer correct this image? A. Elevate arm. B. No correction needed. C. Increase patient obliquity. D. Decrease patient obliquity.

D. Decrease patient obliquity.

Which type of pathology is defined as inflammation of an outpouching of the colon? A. Diverticulosis. B. Colitis. C. Ulcerative colitis. D. Diverticulitis.

D. Diverticulitis.

*Which information in the patient history should prompt the radiographer to decide against using automatic exposure controls when taking a chest x-ray? A. Pneumothorax. B. Oat cell carcinoma. C. Chronic bronchitis. D. Emphysema.

D. Emphysema.

A 14-year-old female patient arrives in the radiology department for a scoliosis series. Which option provides both the best image quality and lowest radiation dose for this patient? A. High milliampere-seconds (mAs), low kilovolt-peak (kVp) technique. B. Use of an anteroposterior (AP) projection only. C. Use of a posteroanterior (PA) projection only. Incorrect D. Employ shadow shields.

D. Employ shadow shields.

If a patient contracts an infectious microorganism from soiled linen, which term refers to this method of disease transmission? A. Vehicle. B. Spore. C. Vector. D. Fomite.

D. Fomite.

Which protective feature is designed to reduce exposure to the patient during fluoroscopic procedures? A. Protective curtain. B. Bucky slot cover. C. Magnification mode. D. Foot switch.

D. Foot switch.

On an accurately positioned posteroanterior (PA) chest radiograph, the manubrium of the sternum is seen at the level of which thoracic vertabrae when the patient is sthenic? A. Third. B. Second. C. Fifth. D. Fourth.

D. Fourth.

Which condition could lead to neurogenic shock? A. External hemorrhage. B. A pulmonary embolism. C. A massive infection. D. Head trauma.

D. Head trauma.

On which system does hospital staff input new orders for radiologic examinations? A. Picture archiving and communication system. B. Radiology information system. Incorrect C. Digital imaging and communications system. D. Hospital information system.

D. Hospital information system.

Using manual fixed fluoroscopic technology, which method will lessen patient dose? A. Make sure the x-ray source-to-skin distance is 12 inches. B. Decrease kilovolts peak (kVp) and filtration. C. Use an image intensification system with 50 kilovolts peak (kVp). D. Increase kilovolts peak (kVp) and filtration.

D. Increase kilovolts peak (kVp) and filtration.

Which change in technical factors is most likely to result in decreased exposure to the image receptor (IR)? A. Decreased beam restriction. B. Increased focal spot size. C. Decreased source to image receptor distance (SID). D. Increased grid ratio.

D. Increased grid ratio.

Which change causes a decrease in resistance and an increase in current flow? A. Changing to a more complex compound for conduction. B. Lengthening the conductor. C. Increasing the temperature of the conductor. D. Increasing the diameter of the conductor.

D. Increasing the diameter of the conductor.

*Which type of contrast agent is preferred for low risk and low cost for a patient diagnosed with a possible perforated bowel? A. Gaseous media in the form of crystals. B. Barium sulfate suspension, flavored. C. Nonionic, water soluble, diluted with juice. D. Ionic, water soluble, diluted with juice.

D. Ionic, water soluble, diluted with juice.

In a properly positioned oblique lumbar spine radiograph, what makes up the '"body" of the '"Scotty dog?" A. Pedicle. B. Superior articular process. C. Pars interarticularis. D. Lamina.

D. Lamina.

Which wrist projection best demonstrates a Colles' fracture? A. Posteroanterior (PA) with ulnar deviation. B. Posteroanterior (PA) oblique. Incorrect C. Anteroposterior (AP). D. Lateral wrist.

D. Lateral wrist.

Which position/projection of the elbow best demonstrates the trochlear notch of the ulna? A. Anteroposterior (AP), internal oblique. B. Anteroposterior (AP). C. Anteroposterior (AP), external oblique. D. Lateral, lateromedial projection.

D. Lateral, lateromedial projection.

Which projection of the sternum is most likely to demonstrate a fracture? A. Left anterior oblique (LAO). B. Right anterior oblique (RAO). C. Straight posteroanterior (PA). D. Lateral.

D. Lateral.

Which condition may increase bowel motility? A. Peritonitis. B. Intussusception. C. Ileus. D. Malabsorption syndrome.

D. Malabsorption syndrome.

Which term best describes the process of cleaning the surfaces in a radiology department with 10% bleach solution in water? A. Surgical asepsis. B. Sterile technique. C. Sterilization. D. Medical asepsis.

D. Medical asepsis.

Which skull positioning line is situated perpendicular to the image receptor (IR) when performing a parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) of the facial bones? A. Glabellomeatal line (GML). B. Orbitomeatal line (OML). C. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML). D. Mentomeatal line (MML).

D. Mentomeatal line (MML).

Which radiographic finding is characteristic of cervical spine trauma resulting in a Jefferson fracture? A. Lateral projection demonstrates an avulsion of the C7 spinous process. Incorrect B. Lateral projection demonstrates a spondylolisthesis of C2. C. Open mouth view demonstrates a transverse fracture at the base of the odontoid process. D. Open mouth view demonstrates bilateral displacement of the lateral masses of C1.

D. Open mouth view demonstrates bilateral displacement of the lateral masses of C1.

*A patient who complains of blurred vision and dizziness upon standing for an upright chest x-ray may be experiencing which condition? A. Hyperglycemia. B. Orthostatic hypertension. C. Hypoglycemia. D. Orthostatic hypotension.

D. Orthostatic hypotension. (Sudden drop in BP)

Which describes the appearance of a posteroanterior (PA) axial projection of the skull using the Caldwell method? A. Dorsum sellae is seen within the foramen magnum. B. Zygomatic arches are seen with minimal superimposition. C. Sphenoid sinuses are demonstrated through the open mouth. D. Petrous pyramids are demonstrated in the lower third of the orbit.

D. Petrous pyramids are demonstrated in the lower third of the orbit.

Which position most accurately describes the Camp Coventry method for demonstrating the intercondylar fossa of the knee? A. Supine with the image receptor (IR) under the knee. B. Kneeling with the lower leg parallel to the image receptor (IR). C. Standing with the lower leg parallel to the image receptor (IR). D. Prone with the femur parallel to the image receptor (IR).

D. Prone with the femur parallel to the image receptor (IR).

What is the primary purpose of beam filtration? A. Improve radiographic contrast. B. Increases the intensity of radiation. C. Produce uniform density. D. Protect patient from low energy xrays.

D. Protect patient from low energy xrays.

Which term is used to describe the intensity of the x-ray beam? A. Milliampere seconds (mAs). B. Density. C. Half-value layer (HVL). D. Quantity

D. Quantity

Which anatomical structure is the most distal? A. Radial head. B. Coronoid fossa. C. Trochlea. D. Radial tuberosity.

D. Radial tuberosity.

In the event that a pregnant patient is inadvertently irradiated, who should perform the calculations necessary to determine fetal dose? A. Imaging department manager. B. Radiologist. Incorrect C. Radiographer performing the examination. D. Radiologic physicist.

D. Radiologic physicist.

In which position should the patient be placed in order to demonstrate the right intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine while minimizing radiation dose to the thyroid gland? A. Right posterior oblique (RPO). B. Left anterior oblique (LAO). C. Left posterior oblique (LPO). D. Right anterior oblique (RAO).

D. Right anterior oblique (RAO).

What are the six rights of drug administration that radiographers should follow? A. Right patient, right drug, right amount, right route, right documentation, and right supplies. B. Right patient, right drug, right amount, right side, right documentation, and right time. C. Right patient, right drug, right amount, right vial, right route, and right time. D. Right patient, right drug, right amount, right route, right documentation, and right time.

D. Right patient, right drug, right amount, right route, right documentation, and right time.

Which positioning method is prescribed to demonstrate the right zygomatic arch free of superimposition on an inferosuperior tangential projection? A. Rotate the head to the right with the chin tilted to the left. B. Rotate the head to the left with the chin tilted to the left. C. Rotate the head to the left with the chin tilted to the right. D. Rotate the head to the right with the chin tilted to the right.

D. Rotate the head to the right with the chin tilted to the right.

*Beginning with the patient's head in true lateral position, which positioning method is recommended for demonstrating the mandibular body without foreshortening on an axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible? A. Rotate the patient's head 45 degrees away from the image receptor. B. Rotate the patient's head 30 degrees away from the image receptor. C. Rotate the patient's head 45 degrees toward the image receptor. D. Rotate the patient's head 30 degrees toward the image receptor.

D. Rotate the patient's head 30 degrees toward the image receptor.

For a tangential inferosuperior projection of the zygomatic arch, how is the patient's head positioned to demonstrate a depressed fracture of the right zygomatic arch? A. Turned toward the left side. B. Lowered toward the radiography table. C. Elevated toward the x-ray tube. D. Rotated toward the right side.

D. Rotated toward the right side.

Which digital post-processing results in a black background surrounding the original collimated edges? A. Collimation. B. Subtraction. C. Beam restriction. D. Shuttering.

D. Shuttering.

A radiographer is using a c-arm to assist during an intraoperative left hip pinning. The surgeon asks for a lateral view, so the radiographer swings the c-arm to comply with this request. With the c-arm in this position, where should the radiographer stand to limit radiation exposure? A. Immediately behind the image intensifier. B. Immediately behind the tube side. C. Six feet behind the tube side. D. Six feet behind the image intensifier.

D. Six feet behind the image intensifier.

*Which procedure is an example of surgical asepsis? A. Hand washing. B. Clean glove application. C. Clean gown application. D. Surgical hand scrub.

D. Surgical hand scrub.

Which bone contains a mastoid process? A. Parietal. B. Sphenoid. C. Occipital. D. Temporal.

D. Temporal.

Which statement accurately describes the appearance of a correctly positioned anteroposterior (AP) hip image? A. The proximal two-thirds of the femur is visualized. B. The lesser trochanter is demonstrated in profile. C. The femoral head is at the center of the collimated field. D. The femoral neck is demonstrated without foreshortening.

D. The femoral neck is demonstrated without foreshortening.

An anteroposterior (AP) shoulder image acquired with the epicondyles perpendicular to the image receptor (IR) will demonstrate which radiographic appearance? A. The greater tubercle is seen in profile laterally. B. The glenoid cavity is seen in profile, free of superimposition. C. The humeral head is seen in profile, free of superimposition. D. The lesser tubercle is seen in profile medially.

D. The lesser tubercle is seen in profile medially.

Which appearance is demonstrated by a lateral projection of the shoulder obtained using the Lawrence method? A. The intertubercular groove is seen in profile. B. The glenoid cavity is seen in profile. C. The greater tubercle is projected onto the head of the humerus. D. The proximal humerus is projected through the lung field.

D. The proximal humerus is projected through the lung field.

What is the dose-response relationship of radiation-induced skin cancer? A. Nonthreshold. B. Hormesis. C. Nonlinear. D. Threshold.

D. Threshold.

Which term describes the process by which an overexposed or underexposed image receptor (IR) appears acceptable on a display monitor? Filtering. Stitching. Rescaling. Shuttering.

Rescaling.

What is the purpose of shuttering? A. Solely to replace the need for close collimation. B. To improve image appearance and replace the need for close collimation. C. To remove extraneous information from the digital image and not overload the system with unneeded data. D. To black out areas of light and make fine details more visible.

D. To black out areas of light and make fine details more visible.

The only saddle joint in the body is found between which two bones? A. Scaphoid and trapezium. B. Trapezium and first metatarsal. C. Navicular and first metatarsal. D. Trapezium and first metacarpal.

D. Trapezium and first metacarpal.

Which is considered a nonessential exam? A. A chest x-ray for suspected hypertension. B. Lumbar spine x-rays for suspected spinal stenosis. C. Knee arthrogram for a suspected Baker's cyst. D. Whole-body multislice computed tomography (CT) screening.

D. Whole-body multislice computed tomography (CT) screening.

Which effect will a low signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) have on the appearance of a digital radiographic image? Decreased spatial resolution. Decreased contrast resolution. Decreased brightness. Decreased dynamic range.

Decreased contrast resolution.

All other factors remaining the same, how will increasing the source to image receptor distance (SID) from 40 inches to 60 inches affect the appearance of a radiographic image? Increased shape distortion. Increased density. Decreased magnification. Decreased sharpness.

Decreased magnification.

*How does a wide window width affect an image? Decreases brightness. Increases brightness. Decreases contrast. Increases contrast.

Decreases contrast.

Which factors affect spatial resolution in digital imaging? (Select the two that apply.) Increased bit depth. Greater number of pixels. Smaller pixels. Increased pixel pitch. Smaller matrix size.

Greater number of pixels. Smaller pixels.

Which term refers to a graphical representation of pixel values? Algorithm. Exposure indicators. Modulation transfer function (MTF). Histogram.

Histogram.

Consider these different abdomen images of the same patient. What most likely caused the difference in these images? Image B was produced with a larger image receptor (IR). Image A was produced at a shorter source to image receptor distance (SID). Image B was produced with a large effective focal spot (EFS). Image A was produced with less object to image receptor distance (OID).

Image A was produced at a shorter source to image receptor distance (SID).

Opening the collimators wider than necessary using digital radiography has which effect on image quality? Image noise is increased. There is no effect on image quality. The contrast resolution of the image is decreased. The spatial resolution of the image is increased.

Image noise is increased.

Which effect does switching to the small focal spot size have on the manifest image? Image density increases. Size distortion decreases. Scale of contrast increases. Image unsharpness decreases.

Image unsharpness decreases.

Which is the best way to avoid excessive quantum noise when using cassette-based digital systems? Calibrate the system to operate at a higher speed class. Adjust the window level to decrease image brightness. Increase the amount of exposure to the image receptor. Erase the imaging plate prior to each exposure.

Increase the amount of exposure to the image receptor.

Which advantage is gained by increasing the standard source to image receptor distance (SID) from 40 inches to 48 inches? Increased radiographic contrast. Increased image resolution. Increased signal to noise ratio (SNR). Increased x-ray tube life.

Increased image resolution.

*Which technical factor increases the number of x-ray photons reaching the image receptor (IR)? Small focal spot size. Large focal spot size. Increased milliamperage (mA). Decreased milliamperage (mA).

Increased milliamperage (mA).

Which is the primary advantage of a rotating anode? More heat is generated at the filament. More heat is generated at the target. Less heat is generated at the filament. Less heat is generated at the target.

Less heat is generated at the target.

When using digital imaging, which has the greatest influence on contrast? Milliampere-seconds (mAs). Lookup table (LUT). Modulation transfer function (MTF). Kilovolts peak (kVp).

Lookup table (LUT).

Which factor will have the greatest impact on decreasing recorded detail or spatial resolution? Object-to-image-receptor-distance (OID). Source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID). Focal spot size. Motion.

Motion.

Which radiopaque marker is image-appropriate after micturition has taken place? Decubitus. Post-void. Upright. Post-evacuation.

Post-void.

Which x-ray tube orientation represents the correct application of the anode heel effect? The anode end is positioned toward the elbow for a lateral forearm projection. The cathode end is positioned toward the knee for an anteroposterior (AP) femur projection. The anode end is positioned toward the head for an anteroposterior (AP) thoracic spine projection. The cathode end is positioned toward the elbow for a lateral humerus projection.

The anode end is positioned toward the head for an anteroposterior (AP) thoracic spine projection.

Which scenario causes foreshortening of the anatomy on the image? A two inch gap between the arm and the image receptor (IR), and the central ray directed perpendicular to the long axis of the arm. The entire arm in contact with the image receptor, and the central ray directed perpendicular to the long axis of the arm. The humerus in contact with the image receptor (IR), the forearm lifted off the image receptor, and the central ray directed perpendicular to the long axis of the humerus. The arm flat against the image receptor (IR), and the central ray angled along the long axis of the arm.

The humerus in contact with the image receptor (IR), the forearm lifted off the image receptor, and the central ray directed perpendicular to the long axis of the humerus.

*A lateral lumbar spine image was obtained with a field size of 11x14 inches at 95 kilovolts peak (kVp) and automatic exposure control (AEC) with the center detector selected. The resulting image demonstrates excessive quantum noise. Which is the most likely cause for this appearance? The patient was not accurately centered. The field size was too large. The incorrect AEC detector was selected. The kVp was too high.

The patient was not accurately centered.

Which device is located in the primary section of a general x-ray circuit? Step-down transformer. Timer circuit. Rheostat. Milliampere (mA) meter.

Timer circuit.

Which device provides the required amount of voltage for x-ray production? Rheostat. Battery. Transformer. Capacitor.

Transformer.

How does aliasing appear radiographically when using computed radiography (CR)? Excessive noise on the image. A white line along the length of the image. Two superimposed images, slightly out of alignment. Black lines, branching across the image.

Two superimposed images, slightly out of alignment.

Which effect does a step-up transformer have on voltage and current? Voltage is decreased and current is increased. Voltage and current are increased. Voltage is increased and current is decreased. Voltage and current are decreased.

Voltage is increased and current is decreased.

Click on the gallbladder in the posteroanterior (PA) Small Bowel image. (Left click the chosen location. To change, click on the new location.)

bright gray structure alongside L1 and L2, opacified by contrast media here.